Omar Notes

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Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 1

From Manal notes+ Bayan notes + DR.Note + Exams

1. Gingivitis Stages:
A) Stage 1: Initial, 2-4 days, Neutrophils.
B) Stage 2: Early, 4-7 days, T-lymphocytes, Erythema, Bleeding.
C) Stage 3: Established, 14-21 days, B- lymphocytes, plasma cells, Change in size,color and texture.
D) Stage 4: Advanced: Periodontitis.

2. Piezoelectric ultrasonic: Linear pattern.

3. Magnetostrictive ultrasonic: Elliptical pattern.

4. Cementum: A) Acellular: Coronal + Middle. B) Cellular: Apical.

5. Millers Classification for Mobility (Fremitus):

Grade 1: Slight, horizontal mobility <1 mm.
Grade 2: Moderate, horizontal mobility >1<2 mm.
Grade 3: Severe, horizontal mobility <2 mm or vertical mobility.

6. Millers Classification (Recession):

Class 2: Extend to MGJ, no loss of ID Bone.

Class 3: Extend to MGJ, partial ID bone loss
Class 4: Extend to MGJ, severe ID bone loss.

7. From 15/3 exam: Lingual bar major connector is used in case of *(deep lingual vestibule). If the lingual
vestibule is less than 7 mm lingual plate is used.

8. Gutta percha components: 20% gutta-percha (matrix), 66% zinc oxide (filler), 11% heavy metal
sulfates (radiopacifiers), and 3% waxes and/or resins (plasticizers).

9. Percentage of osseous crater = of all defect one-third 35.2%, for all mandibular two-third 62%.

10. Periodontal Probes:

A) UNC 15 Probe: 1,2,3,4-5, 6,7,8, 9-10, 11,12,13,14,15. Color coded between 4-5 and 9-10.
B) WHO Probe: 0.5 mm Ball, 3.5,8.5, 11.5 mm. Color coded between 3.5-5.5.
C) Michigan O probe: 3,6, 8 mm.
1,2,3,5,7,8,9, and 10 mm.
E) Marquis color coded probe: 3-6, 9-12 mm.

11. Periochips: release CHX for 7-10 days.

12. After gingivectomy:

Complete epithelial repair takes 4 weeks.
Complete tissue repair takes 7 weeks.

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13. NAOCL - Removes Orgnaic, proteolytic irrigation.

14. EDTA Removes Inorganic, Chelating agents.

15. Pain:
Dentinal pain A Delta fibers, myelinated.
Pulpal pain C fibers, unmyelinated.

16. Phentolamine (Oraversa,Septodent): Local injection to reverse action of LA.

17. For sinus tract tracing GP 25-30.

18. NAOCL+ CHX cause orange brown occludes dentinal tubules known as Parachloroanaline (PCA).

19. Best Irrigation to kill E,Feacalis CHX, and in some references MTAD.

20. AH- Plus formaldehyde.

21. AH- 26: 15 hours working time, 24-36 hours for setting, releases formaldehyde.

22. ANUG Classification:

o Stage 1: Tip of IDP.
o Stage 2: Entire DP.
o Stage 3: Gingival margin.
o Stage 4: Attached gingiva.
o Stage 5: Buccal and labial mucosa.
o Stage 6: Exposing alveolar bone.
o Stage 7: Perforating skin.

23. Gates glidden sizes: No 1: 0.5. No 2: 0.7. No 3: 0.9. No 4: 1.1. No 5: 1.3. No 6: 1.5.

24. The only tooth that shows 8 endo configurations: Maxillary 2nd Premolar.

25. Most effective solvent and fastest: Chloroform.

26. From 15/4 exam: Crown calcification of permanent teeth completes after eruption by *24 months.

27. The optimum amount of fluoride in Drinking water: 0.7-1.2 ppm.

28. The concentration of APF (Acidulated phosphate fluoride) used as gel is 1.23%

29. Aspirin can be given for children from age 16.

30. Radicular cyst is derived from the root sheath of hertwig and has the rest cell of mallasez.

31. Salivary stones are most commonly involving submandibular gland.

32. Maxillary first premolar has the steepest cuspal incline.

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33. Mucocele are most commonly found in the lower lip.

34. Caries is the most common cause for FPD Failure.

35. From 16/3 exam: Management of excessive fluoride Intake:

Less than 5 mg/kg: 1) Give calcium orally. 2) No need to induce vomiting.
More than 5 mg/kg: Empty stomach by inducing vomiting. 2) Give calcium orally. 3) Admit to hospital
and observe for a few hours.
More than 15 mg/kg: 1) Admit to hospital immediately. 2) Induce vomiting. 3) Start cardiac
monitoring. 4) Slowly administer 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate. 5) Adequate urine output should be
maintained using diuretics if necessary. 6) General supportive measures.

36. From 16/3 exam: Hyperkeratosis of dorsal surface of palms, feet, and premature loss of primary teeth
are found in: Papillon Lefevre syndrome.

37. Tear drop appearance on X-Ray appears in: 1) Orbital fracture. 2) Lateral periodontal cyst.

38. From 17/3 exam: Most common bacteria in water line: Legionella pneumophila, Mycobacterium
spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus spp.
39. The recommended level of colony forming unit / ml for the dental unit should be under 500.
40. The minimum amount of time in seconds that waterline should be washed between patients is 20-30
seconds.
41. From 17/3 exam: The position of bacterial spore indicator is in the center.
42. From 17/3 exam: The shearing cusps of posterior cross bite: BULL.
43. From 17/3 exam: Infrabony defects:
1 wall: Hemiseptal.
2 walls: Crater (Most common)
3 walls: Trough.
4 walls: Circumferential (Extraction socket).

44. From 17/3 exam: The distance between papilla and labial surface of anterior teeth is 8-10 mm.

45. Eagle syndrome: A rare condition in which elongation of styloid process or calcification of stylohyoid
ligament causes a painful sensation in the head and neck region. Symptoms: Pharyngeal discomfort, painful
neck and tongue movements, increased saliva, and headache.

46. Types of GIC: Type 1: Luting. Type 2: Restorative. Type 3: Liner and bases. Type 4: Fissure sealant.
Type 5: Orthodontic. Type 6: Core buildup. Type 7: High fluoride release. Type 8: ART. Type 9: Pediatric.

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47. Oblique ridge of maxillary molar: Distobuccal cusp to Mesiopalatal.

48. Depth of the pulpal floor gives resistance.

49. From 18/3 exam: Methyl Paraben is responsible for anaphylactic reaction by LA.

50. From 18/3 exam: The probing depth around healthy implants should be 3 mm.

51. Primate spaces: is the natural space between maxillary primary lateral and canine.

52. Dentin Dysplasia: teeth are short, conical, and may appear as rootless.

53. From 19/3 exam: Extraction is recommended to be at least 5 days in Maxilla and 7 days in Mandible
before starting Chemotherapy.

54. From 19/3 exam: In Radiotherapy the ideal time for extraction would be at least 21 days or 2 weeks
before starting.

55. From 19/3 exam: Curve of Spee: The Insical edges and the buccal cusps of posterior teeth follow a
curve which end at the anterior surface of condyle.

56. The best way to scan patients with Iodine allergy is by: MRI.

57. From 19/3 exam: Curve of Wilson: Mediolateral curve that contacts the buccal and lingual cusp tips
on each side of the arch.

58. Optimum crown/root ratio is 2:3.

59. In Pulpotomy Formocresol should be 1/5 saturated.

60. Parotid gland is the largest salivary gland.

61. Dentigerous cysts contains Straw like infiltrate.

62. Ghost cells are found in Calcifying odontogenic cyst.

63. From 20/3 exam: After organ transplantation dental treatments should be deferred to at lease after 6
months.

64. From 20/3 exam: Muscles responsible for lingual border molding are: Palatoglossus, Superior
constrictor, Mylohyoid, and Genioglossus.

65. From 20/3 exam: Florida probe: is an automated way for measurement of sulcus or pocket.

66. From 20/3 exam: Myxedema coma occurs in Hypothyroidism patients not taking medications.

67. From 22/3 exam: Molar relationship in Primary Dentition is by the primary second molar.

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68. From 22/3 exam: The bone around the apical third of the root is Cortical.

69. From 22/3 exam: Bennet movement: bodily lateral or lateral shift of the mandible resulting from the
movement of the Condyle. This movement is recorded in the non-working side. This shift is 1-4 mm.

70. From 22/3 exam: Orogenital ulcers, eye and skin lesions, Positive pathergy test.

71. From 22/3 exam: Histology of Lichen planus: 1) Hyperkeratosis. 2) Hypergranulosis. 3) Saw tooth rate.
4) Lichenoid Infiltrate.

72. From 24/3 exam: Anti-SSA Antibodies are found in Sjogren syndrome and SLE.

73. From 24/3 exam: TB stays in clinic for 4-6 hours.

74. From 24/3 exam: Recurrence of Pyogenic granuloma is 15%.

75. From 24/3 exam: Secondary TFO cause 30-50% bone loss.

76. From 24/3 exam: 12 Flutid bur is used for Microabrasion.

77. From 24/3 exam: Best Impression material for Inlay: Addition Silicone.

78. From 24/3 exam: In patients taking Aspirin: 1) if more than 325 mg stop. 2) if less no need to stop.

79. From 24/3 exam: Anterior bite plane is used for treatment of Deep Bite.

80. For Overdenture minimum 2 implants in Mandible, 3-4 implants in Maxilla.

81. Trismus after anesthesia is usually caused by intramuscular injection to lateral pterygoid or temporal
muscle.

82. The Sharps container should be disposed when it is ¾ full.

83. A clasp must encircle a tooth a minimum of 180 degree to provide adequate retention.

84. From 25/3 exam: Zone of flame that is used with gold heating: Reduced zone (hottest part of flame).

85. From 28/3 exam: Tetracycline fibers are used for 10 days and then should be removed. CHX chips
resorbs by its own after 7-10 days.

86. From 28/3 exam: Allergy to latex gloves is a type IV allergy (48-72 hours).

87. From 1/4 exam: Pemphigus vulgaris affects mostly Buccal mucosa.

88. Types of Headgears: 1) Cervical pull headgear. 2) Straight pull headgear. 3) High-pull headgear. All 3
are used for Class II div I (Distalization of maxilla). 4) Reverse pull headgear (facemask): extraoral, class III to
protract maxilla.

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89. Frankfort plane: from Porion to Orbitale.

90. ANB: A: Maxilla, N: Nasion, B: Mandible ANB= 2-4 degree. 1) Increased: Class II. 2) Decreased: Class
III.

91. From 1/4 exam: In patients with severe bone resorption and prognathic appearance use teeth with
angulation 0 degree.

92. From 1/4 exam: Most commonly impacted teeth: 1) Mandibular 3rd molar 2) Maxillary 3rd molar
3) Maxillary canine 4) Mandibular 2nd premolar 5) Maxillary 2nd premolar 6) Maxillary central incisor.

93. From 1/4 exam: The Reamer Is the most flexible between the files.
94. From 1/4 exam: Rake angle: K-file: Negative rake. H-File: Positive rake angle and has more cutting
efficiency.

95. From 1/4 exam: Direct sequalae of CD: 1) Mucosal reactions. 2) Oral galvanic currents. 3) Altered taste
4) Gagging. 5) Residual ridge reduction. 6) BMS 7) Periodontal disease and caries of abutments.

96. From 1/4 exam: The purpose of Hand and wrist radiograph analysis is to determine parameters such
as patient's skeletal age, the amount of growth left and to determine whether to use functional appliance or
to wait until growth ceased and perform extraction or surgery.

97. From 5/4 exam: Wilkes Classification of ID:

98. From 5/4 exam: Sterge Weber syndrome:

Port wine stains.
Multiple red macules and papules.
Anemia
Unilateral involvement of soft palate.

99. From 5/4 exam: Ludwig angina spaces: Submandibular, sublingual, and submental space.

100. From 5/4 exam: Paget disease: Hypercementosis, Ankylosis, Cotton wool appearance in radiographs.
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101. From 4/5 exam: Dentinogenesis Imperfecta types:

o Types:
o Type 1: Associated with Osteogenesis imperfecta.
o Type 2: With no systemic involvement.
o Type 3: Brandywine with large pulp chambers, bell shaped crowns, shell like appearance.

102. From 5/4 exam: The lower lip is the common site for Mucocele.

103. From 5/4 exam: Ranula: are mucoceles that occur in floor of the mouth. Blue domed shaped.
o Treatment: Removal of sublingual gland or Marsupialization.

104. From 5/4 exam: Erythema Multiforme: Bulls eyes or target lesions. Disease is self-limiting usually
takes 2-6 weeks. Treatment: Systemic or Topical steroids.

105. From 5/4 exam: Hodgkin lymphoma: Supraclavicular and cervical masses. Malignant disease.

106. From 7/4 exam: Sequence of common missing teeth:

1. Maxillary and mandibular 3rd molars.
2. Mandibular 2nd premolar.
3. Maxillary lateral incisor.
4. Maxillary 2nd premolar.

107. From 8/4 exam: No need for fluoride supplements before 6 months.

108. From 9/4 exam: S-N-A Mean = 82 degree.

A. SNA Increased - Protrusive maxilla.
B. SNA Decreased - Retrusive maxilla

109. From 9/4 exam: S-N-B Mean= 80 degree.

A. SNB Increased Protrusive mandible.
B. SNB Decreased Retrusive mandible.

110. From 9/4 exam: C-shaped canals are found in lower second molar.

111. From 9/4 exam: Optimal time for mouth wash rinsing with Clorhexidine 0.12% is 30 seconds.

112. From 10/4 exam: * The first step in Ressective osseous surgery is Vertical grooving.
Steps of Ressective osseous surgery:
1. Vertical grooving.
2. Radicular blending.
3. Flattening interproximal bone.
4. Gradulizing marginal bone.

113. From 11/4 exam: Oral lichen planus is treated by Oral Corticosteroids.

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114. From 11/4 exam: Molars have 4 occlusal centric contacts. Premolars have 2. Incisors and canines have
1.

115. From 11/4 exam: Distobuccal root is the most commonly resected root in maxillary molars.

116. From 13/4 exam: Internal resorption obturation technique: Thermoplastic technique. (Obtura 2)

117. From 13/4 exam: Fibrous dysplasia types:

1. Monostotic: One bone.
2. Polyostotic: Two or more bones.
3. Albright syndrome: Multiple, Hyperthyrodism.
4. Craniofacial.

118. From 13/4 exam: Unpasteruized milk consumption causes Scrofula.

119. From 13/4 exam: Leeway space: The combined mesiodistal width of permanent canines and
premolars is usually less than that of primary canines and molars.
o In maxillary: 1.8 mm. (0.9 mm each side).
o In mandible: 3.4 mm. (1.7 mm each side).

120. From 14/4 exam: Plummer- Vinson syndrome: Difficulty swallowing, Glossitis, and Angular chellitis. 1
1
120. From 14/4
exam: Plummer-
121. From 14/4 exam: Polyether disadvantage: It absorbs water. Vinson syndrome:
Dif culty swallowing,
Glossitis, and
122. From 14/4 exam: MMPs are produced by lymphocytes and granulocytes but in particular by activated Angular chellitis
macrophages.
31) From 11/9: A
question about a
123. From 15/4 exam: Oro-antral communication management: type of anemia
associated with
A) <2mm: spontaneous closure. dysphagia and
B) 2-6 mm: suture and sinus precautions. Glossitis:
C) >6 mm: closure with flap. Iron de ciency ane

124. From 15/4 exam: Plasma cell gingivitis: Red, friable, bleeds easily. In marginal and attached gingiva. 4. Cracks in enamel.
16 - Patient 21 years
old who has iron
de ciency anemia,
dif culty in
swallowing, with
examination of
, with examination

125. From 15/4 exam: Roots of primary molars are long and divergent.
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fi
fi
fi
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 Omar Notes

126. Charters brushing technique is used for Orthodontic patients.

127. Interincisal angle mean= 130-131 degree.

o Increased angle Class II div II
o Decreased angle Class II div I

128. From 17/4 exam: Patients with denture should be replaced from time to time because
of bone changes.

129. From 17/4 exam: Dislocation of TMJ Classification:

1. Stage 1: Early reducing disc displacement.
2. Stage 2: Late reducing disc displacement.
3. Stage 3: Non-reducing acute, subacute.
4. Stage 4: Non-reducing chronic.

130. From 18/4 exam: During wax-up for a cast Canine and Central incisors gingival margin is in the same
level.

131. From 18/4 exam: Hyrax and Hass Appliances:

A) Hyrax: tooth supported, rapid expansion, fixed appliance.
B) Haas: tissue supported, slow maxillary expansion by opening midpalatal suture in 10-14 days.

132. From 19/4 exam: 3D Vita shade: VALUE HUE CHROMA. (VHC)
133. From 19/4 exam: Vita classical shade: HUE CHROMA VALUE. (HCV)

134. From 20/4 exam: Multiple RCT failure + J shaped radiolucency = Vertical root fracture.

135. From 20/4 exam: Patient with Orbital floor fracture will have a double vision.

136. From 20/4 exam: After relining and rebasing VD will increase.

137. From 20/4 exam: Compomer: physical properties is better than conventional GIC but less than
composite. Optical properties is better than GIC. Minimal fluoride release.

138. Van Der Woude syndrome: Cleft lip and palate, lower lip pits, Hypo and anodontia.

139. Metzenbaum scissors are used for flap retraction of the lip.

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140. Burning mouth syndrome mean age is 60 years.

141. Serial extraction techniques:

1. Dewel: Dec Canine Dec 1st molar Perm 1st premolar. (CD4)
2. Tweed: Dec 1st molar Perm 1st premolar Dec canine. (D4C)
3. Nance: Same as Tweed. (D4C)
4. Moyer: (BCD4).

142. Natal teeth: At birth. Neonatal: within 30 days after birth.

143. Glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for Gag reflex.

144. Layers of lip: 3 layers.

145. Condyle rotates 10-15 degree.

146. The king of fracture: most common root fractured tooth (Maxillary 1st premolar)

147. Bubivicaine is avoided in Children and Pregnancy.

148. Osteoradionecrosis Classification:

o Type 1: Shortly after radiation.

o Type 2: After 6 years + follows trauma.
o Type 3: Spontaneous b/w 6 months to 3 years.

149. Fibroma is the most common benign tumor of oral cavity. Treatment: Excision.

150. Hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV, and with HIV pts.

151. IANB is contraindicated in Hemophilic patients, Intraligamentary is indicated.

152. The most important test for HIV is CD4.

o Normal CD4: 500-1000.
o CD4< 500: HIV.
o CD4< 350: Risk of opportunistic infection.
o CD4< 200: AIDS.

153. Most effective percentage of CHX to kill E.feacalis is 2%.

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154. Periodontal file: is an instrument limited to use on the enamel surfaces and the outer surfaces of
calculus deposits.

155. Listerine mouthwash can cause Hairy tongue.

156. Aspirin can cause fetal deformities (Cleft lip and palate).

157. How long virus stays in clinic:

o HIV: 5-6 days.
o HBV: 7 days to 6 months.
o TB: 4-6 hours.

158. Steam sterilization:

o 121 C (15-20 min) 15 psi. (Normal cycle)
o 126 C (10 min) - 20 psi.
o 132 C (3 min) 30 psi (Flash cycle).

159. From 22/4 exam: Most common area for supernumerary teeth? 85% are in anterior maxilla.

160. Split thickness flap is indicated when dehiscence and fenestrations are suspected.

161. Disinfection of impressions:

o Alginate + Polyether: 0.5% NaOCl 10 min.

o ZOE + Polysulfide + PVS: 2% Gluteraldehyde.

162. NaF (Sodium Flouride) concentrations in mouthwash:

o For weekly: 0.2% NaF (900 ppmF)
o For daily: 0.05% NaF (225 ppmF)

163. Flouride varnish concentration: 5% sodium fluoride (NaF).

164. RFA (Resonance frequency analysis): is used to determine the stability of the level of osseointegration
in dental implant. (Evaluate implant stability)

165. Limit heat during implant placement: 47 C.

166. Best area to place an implant: mandibular anterior region.

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167. Trauma from occlusion:

o Primary TFO: Ex. High restoration.
o Secondary TFO: Reduced ability of tissue to resist force. 30-50% bone loss.

168. Strawberry gingivitis is found in Wegner Granulomatosis.

169. Strawberry tongue is found in Scarlet fever.

170. Critical probing depth to proceed for surgical: 5.4 mm.

171. Gutta percha is sterilized by Sodium Hypochlorite for 1 min.

172. From 24/4 exam: Matemirism: The color of an object appears different under different light sources.

173. GIC etching is done by 10% polyacrylic acid for 10 seconds.

174. Ledermix is used in avulsed teeth to prevent root resorption.

175. Ridge loss Classification:

o Class I: Loss of width
o Class II: Loss of height
o Class III: Loss of width and height.

176. Anterior palatal strap is used when small tori is not extended to the junction of hard and soft palate.

177. In case of large tori: U shape or horseshoe major connectors are used.

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178. New Periodontal Classification: Stages and Grades:

1. Stages: it depends on CAL and RBL.
o Stage 1: Mild CAL 1-2 mm, RBL<15%.
o Stage 2: Moderate CAL 3-4 mm, RBL coronal third loss.
o Stage 3: Severe CAL > 5mm, RBL middle third loss.
o Stage 4: Very severe CAL > 5mm, RBL apical third loss.
2. Grades: Percentage of bone loss/pt age
o Grade A: < 0.5, slow bone loss.
o Grade B: >0.5<1mm, moderate bone loss.
o Grade C: >1mm, severe bone loss.

179. MTA disadvantage: long setting time and can cause pulp obliteration.

180. Voxel size in CBCT: smallest voxel size = better resolution. The best voxel size for endo is 0.2 mm.

181. From 24/4 exam:

Three-unit instrument formula:
o 1st number indicates width of blade.
o 2nd number indicates length of blade.
o 3rd number indicates angle of the blade.

Four-Unit instrument formula:

o 1st number indicates width of blade
o 2nd number indicates cutting edge angle
o 3rd number indicates length of blade.
o 4th number indicates blade angle with the axis of the handle.

182. Type of patients:

1. Philosophical: easiest to treat, excepts needs for treatment.
2. Exacting: need explanation for every step, difficult, more treatment time.
3. Hysterical: complaining, will never wear prosthesis.
4. Indifferent: lack of motivation, uncooperative, poor prognosis.

183. Maximum epinephrine for healthy patients is 0.2 mg. For cardiac patients 0.04 mg.

184. Digoxin + epinephrine increase risk of arrythmia. Digoxin also increases gag reflex.

185. Salivary gland ducts:

o Parotid gland: Stenson Duct.
o Submandibular gland: Wharton Duct.
o Sublingual gland: Duct of Rivinus and also called Bartholin duct.

186. From 26/4 exam: Cavosurface angle for amalgam: 90 degree. For composite >= 90.

187. Minimum distance between implant and sinus space is 1 mm.

188. Minimum distance between implant and mental foramen is 5mm.
189. Minimum distance between implant and inferior alveolar nerve canal is 2mm.

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For any questions or comments:

Twitter: @OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 2

From Manal notes+ Bayan notes + AlanoudGZ January 2021 + Exams

1. Composite types:
1) Macrofill composite: 4-40 microns. Not polishable. If more polished more roughed.
Poor resistance.
2) Microfill composite: 0.04 microns. Very polishable, better esthetics. Contraindicated in
Class IV and posteriors.
3) Hybrid: 1-2 microns. Combination of large and small fillers. Excellent for anterior and
posteriors. Ex. Packable composite.

2. Clasps:
1) RPI Clasp: The RPI is a current concept of bar clasp design, and refers to:
1."R" Rest (always mesial) 2."P" Proximal Plate (distal) 3."I" I -Bar (buccal).It is
used when there is an Undercut.

2) Ring clasp: Is used usually with isolated mesially and lingually tilted mandibular
molars or mesially and buccally tilted maxillary molars.

3) Embrasure (Double Akers) Clasp: may be used on the posterior teeth, with an
infrabulge retainer on the anterior abutment. Is used also in Kennedy class II
and III without any modifications. (Q on 3/5).

4) Akers /Circumferential clasp: used on molars & premolars of normal shape and
position. It is contraindicated in long distal extension cases.

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3. Flourosis:
Dental fluorosis: 1.5- 3 ppm.
Skeletal fluorosis: 3-10 ppm.
Crippling skeletal fluorosis: >10 ppm.

4. From 28/4 exam: Back pressure should be felt in Intrapulpal injection.

5. From 28/4 exam: H2 gas is a byproduct of PVS.

6. Width of attached gingiva:

o Greatest: In maxillary anterior region. 3.5 to 4.5mm.
o In the maxillary 1st premolar: 1.9mm.
o Narrowest: In mandibular 1st premolar: 1.8mm.

7. After scaling and root planning pocket depth result in gain of attachment if pocket is
deeper than 2.9mm. If less than 2.9mm it will result in loss of attachment.

8. Widman flap can cause recession.

9. Pulp stones are removed by ultrasonic scaler.

10. Cusp of carabelli can be found in mesiopalatal side of maxillary 1st molar.

11. Margins of restoration:

o Chamfer: 0.3-0.5 mm: Full metal crowns, Resin bonded crowns.
o Shoulder: 1 mm: Metal ceramic crowns, All ceramic/porcelain crowns.

12. Percentage of Palatal tori: 20-35%

13. Orthognathic surgery is indicated when:

o Overjet > 9mm.
o Reverse overjet > 3mm.

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14. Radiographic appearances:

o Onion skin appearance: Ewing Sarcoma
o Cotton wool appearance:
Cementosseous dyplasia.
o Ground glass appearance: Fibrous dysplasia, and Hyperparathyroidism.
o Sunburst appearance: Osteosarcoma, and Intraosseous hemangioma.

15. From 29/4 exam: Clindamycin is safe for pregnant patients at third trimester.

16. From 29/4 exam: Patients with episodes of EM recurrence from herpes Acyclovir and
Valacyclovir can be given.

17. From 29/4 exam: Difference between Bone and cementum: Cementum has no lymph
and blood vessels.

18. Lefort II is also known as Floating maxilla.

19. From 30/4 exam: Teeth that can be extracted by rotational movement are: Maxillary
central incisor and Mandibular 2nd premolar.

20. From 30/4 exam: Stephan curve: a graph that shows what happen after consumption of
sugar in relation to dental caries.

21. From 1/5 exam: Waterline should be washed for 20-30 seconds after every patient.
Bacteria should be <500.

22. From 1/5 exam: Collar less PFM: Porcelain end with the contact finish line.

23. From 1/5 exam: HBV can stay in room temperature for 6 months.

24. Furcation involvement in maxillary 1st premolar regardless of the degree always
necessitates extraction due to poor prognosis.

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25. To evaluate Periodontitis:

o Stable pocket depth: < 4mm healthy, and bleeding on probing < 10%
o In progress pocket depth: <4mm healthy, and bleeding on probing > 10%
o Unstable pocket depth: >4 mm, unhealthy, and bleeding on probing >10%.

26. Collagen fibers in presence of an implant will be parallel to the surface.

27. An implant is considered osseointegrated when bone is attached to 40-70% of the

implant surface.

28. Management of laryngospasm during GA: Succinylcholine.

29. Dietary fluoride supplementation schedule:

30. From 30/5 exam: In hypovolemic and hypotension shock the patient should be
positioned in Trendelenburg position.

31. From 3/5 exam:

If upper anterior teeth are too short: V sound will be like F.
If upper anterior teeth are too long: F sound will be like V.

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32. From 3/5 exam: Monoplane occlusion is the occlusion choice for patients with severe
ridge resorption.

33. From 3/5 exam:

o Pemphigus vulgaris: Positive nikolsky sign, Intraepithlial clefting (Q about on 5/5),
Positive Immunofluorescence biopsy.
o Bullous pemphigoid: Deep, Negative nikolsky sign, Subepithelial clefting.

34. From 4/5 exam: Which teeth normally have bifurcations:

Mandibular molars
Maxillary 1st premolar

35. From 4/5 exam: If there is an undercut in cast: Black code.

36. Aspirin is avoided in renal failure patients.

37. From 5/5 exam: In patients taking Amoxicillin with vomiting and Diarrhea
Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for replacement.

38. From 5/5 exam: Freeway space = RVD OVD.

RVD Rest vertical dimension
OVD Occlusal vertical dimension.

39. From 5/5 exam: Cells in gingival inflammation:

Initial stage: PMNs.
Early: Lymphocytes.
Established: Plasma cells.

40. From 6/5 exam: Material with acid/base reaction: GIC + ZOE + Polycarboxylate.

41. Material with acid base reaction + chemical activation: RMGI

42. From 6/5 exam: Primary teeth roots are narrower than permanent.

43. Factor Deficiencies:

o Hemophilia A: Factor VIII.
o Hemophilia B: Factor IX
o Hemophilia C: Factor IX.

44. Most teeth affected with Dens invaginatus are Maxillary lateral incisors.

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 Omar Notes

45. Patient with 12 primary and 12 permanent teeth at what age? 8.5 years and in some
references 9 years.

46. Tranexamic acid is given as mouthwash before dental extractions for patients on
Anticoagulants.

47. Maximum lidocaine without vasoconstrictor: 4.4 mg/kg.

Maximum lidocaine with vasoconstrictor: 7 mg/kg.

48. Vincent angina is also called as Trench mouth. It is a progressive painful infection with
ulceration, swelling and sloughing off of dead tissue from the mouth and throat due to
the spread of infection from the gums.
49. Hand- foot - mouth disease is caused by Coxsackie viruses.

50. From 7/5 exam: Self threading pins depth in Dentin: 2mm.

51. From 7/5 exam: Thixotropic material: a liquid that becomes less viscous and more fluid
under repeated application of pressure. Ex. Prophy paste, plaster of paris.

52. From 7/5 exam: Posterior palatal seal can be located by:
o In patient mouth by: T-Burnisher.
o In cast by: Indelible pencil.

53. From 7/5 exam: Steps in trying CD:

1. Accuracy of the cast and denture on articulator and intraorally.
2. Checking of jaw relation records.
3. Esthetic
4. Speech
5. Protrusive record (Last step and the Q was about it).

54. From 7/5 exam: Anterior- posterior strap has the worst rigidity when compared to
other connectors.

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 Omar Notes

55. From 7/5 exam: GCF is measured by Periopaper.

56. From 7/5 exam: Disinfection of PVS: By 2% Gluteraldehyde. (ZOE+ polysulfide also).
57. All access preparations for teeth are Oval except:
1. Upper centrals and molars: Triangular
2. Lower molars: Treapezoidal.

58. Percentage of presence of second canal: Upper 4 Lower 4 Lower 2

(4-4-2)
Upper 4: 91%
Lower 4: 27%
Lower 2: 44%

59. Percentage of MB2 for Upper 1st molar: 56%

60. Copal varnish is used under amalgam.

61. Starry sky appearance in histology is found in Burkitt lymphoma.

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 Omar Notes

62. Bone density: Type D2 bone is the best for osseointegration of an implant.

63. Cross section of Files:

1) K-reamer: Triangular.
2) K-File: Square.
3) H-file: Teardrop.

64. Apical periodontitis types:

1. Primary: microbial colonization of necrotic pulp tissues.
2. Secondary: persistent infection of incorrectly root canal treated tooth.

65. From 8/5 exam: External root resorption is treated by RCT + Calcium hydroxide.

66. From 8/5 exam: During wax up Central incisors and Canine gingival level should be the
same.

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 Omar Notes

67. From 9/5 exam: Peutz Jeghers syndrome (often abbreviated PJS): Hyperpigmented
macules on lips, oral mucosa, hand and feet, and anogenital region.

68. From 10/5 exam: Palatogingival groove in maxillary lateral incisor can cause an increase
in probing depth till 10 mm or more.

69. From 10/5 exam: Trismus is associated with Multiple sclerosis and

70. From 10/5 exam: During pulpotomy or (coronal pulp amputation) if hemostasis is not
achieved then tooth is not a candidate for pulpotomy. So, the treatment of choice
would be by either 1) Extraction or 2) Pulpectomy.

71. Dentigerous cyst: unilocular radiolucent area that is associated with the crown of an
unerupted tooth. Tx: Enucleation.
Types:
1. Central: cyst surrounds the crown.
2. Lateral: mesioangular impacted mandibular third molars that are partially
erupted.
3. Circumferential: cyst surrounds the crown + significant portion of the root.

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 Omar Notes

72. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT) : circumscribed radiolucency, crown of

unerupted tooth, most often Canine, Snow flake calcifications.

73. Dentigerous cyst encloses only coronal portion whereas AOT surrounds coronal +
radicular portion.

74. Fibrous dysplasia Ground glass appearance.

75. Hairy leukoplakia is by EBV and associated with HIV patients.

76. Lateral incisor is the most common cause for palatal abscess.

77. Cyst sites:

1) Lateral periodontal cyst: Mandible from the lateral incisor to the first premolar.
2) Globulomaxillary cyst: Maxilla between lateral and canine
3) Ameloblastoma: Mandibular molar-ramus area.
4) AOT: Canine area in Maxilla.
5) Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia: Mandibular incisors around the apices.
6) Dentigerous cyst: Third molars.

78. is a test in Sjogren syndrome which determines whether the eye

produces enough tears.
Normal > 10 mm in 5 min.
Sjogren <= 5mm in 5 min.

79. ALARA in radiography stands for: As low as reasonably achievable.

80. A patency file: small K-file #10 or #15 passively extended beyond the apical foramen. Is
used with most rotary to remove accumulated debris.

81. Hyperalgesia is an exaggerate response to painful stimuli.

82. Allodynia is a painful response to non-painful stimuli.

83. In intraoral periapical radiographs 2 mm of bone below root should be visible.

84. Thermocatalytic technique in walking bleaching can cause Cervical resorption.

85. Steroid inhalation in Asthma patients is a risk factor for getting Oral thrush (Oral
candidiasis).

10

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 Omar Notes

86. Hutchinson incisor and Mulberry molars: are associated with Congenital syphilis.

87. Most common adverse effect after chemotherapy is Mucositis.

88. Ethics:

1) Non- maleficence: No harm

2) Beneficence: Do good.
3) Autonomy:
4) Justice: Treat everyone equally.
5) Congeniality: Do not reveal patient records to others.
6) Fidelity: Faithfulness.
7) Veracity: Truthfulness.

89. From 11/5 exam: Composition of Amalgam:

1. Silver: 63-70%
2. Tin: 26-28%
3. Copper: 2-5%
4. Zinc: 0-2%

11

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 Omar Notes

90. From 11/5 exam: During brushing bristles penetrate 0.5-1 mm below gingival margin.

91. From 11/5 exam: Gracey curettes:

92. From 11/5 exam: Tooth with amalgam and you want to get rid of where to put?
Hazardous waste.
93. From 11/5 exam: Finger rests:

12

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 Omar Notes

94. From 11/5 exam: Type of wounds:

95. From 11/5 exam: Bulimia nervosa causes erosion in palatal and lingual surfaces.

96. From 11/5 exam: Osseous Crater picture:

13

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 Omar Notes

97. From 11/5 exam: Well defined radiolucency around the apices of premolar?
Mental foramen.

98. From 11/5 exam: Porcelain crowns can cause clicking sound during speech.

99. From 11/5 exam: Implant components:

100. From 11/5 exam: Patients with last stage renal failure may feel ammonia taste in
mouth.

14

3979
 Omar Notes

101. From 11/5 exam: A minimum of 7 mm from the implant head to the opposing tooth is
advised for adequate retention of a cement-retained restoration.

102. A screw-retained implant prosthesis may be provided with 4 mm of interocclusal

space.

103. From 11/5 exam: If IAN and lingual nerve are anesthetized for primary teeth which
teeth can be extracted without pain? ABCDE.

104. Local anesthesia agents:

Bupivacaine Longest duration, avoided in pregnancy and children.

Cocaine Most vasoconstrictor action
Procaine Slow onset and best vasoconstrictor effect.
Mepivicaine Fastest onset and safe.
Lidocaine Minimal toxicity
Articaine Can be used safely with patients with hepatic and renal diseases

15

50124
 Omar Notes

105. Trauma to teeth is common at what age?

Primary teeth: 1.5-3 years
Permanent teeth: 8-12 years

106. Recommended splinting time:

107. Best root canal material for primary teeth: Iodoform based paste.

108. Most common complication of CaoH pulpotomy in primary teeth: Internal resorption

109. Angulation during instrumentation:

1) Subgingival blade insertion: 0.
2) scaling and root planning: 45-90.
3) gingival curettage :>90.

110. DG-16 probe is used to locate canal orifices.

111. Nabers probe is used for furcation involvement.

16

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 Omar Notes

112. Kennedy classification:

CLASS I: Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the remaining natural
teeth.
CLASS II: A unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining
natural teeth
CLASS III: A unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both
anterior and posterior to it
CLASS IV: A single, but bilateral (crossing the midline), edentulous area located
anterior to the remaining natural teeth

113. Relining and Rebasing:

Relining Rebasing
Resurface the tissue side of RPD with new base material. Replacing the entire denture base material on
Can be done in *chair or laboratory* existing prosthesis.
Indications: Or changing the position of the teeth/occlusion
and relation of denture.
o Patient with immediate denture. A laboratory process.
o Patient wears upper complete denture against lower
natural teeth.

Contraindication: If there is an extreme over closure of vertical Indications: Fractured or stained denture.
dimension. - Material used: Heat- cure Acrylic.
Material used: Self-cure Acrylic.

17

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 Omar Notes

114. Lateral cephalometric landmarks:

115. Medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ staging and treatment):

18

22668
 Omar Notes

116. Andrews six keys of Occlusion:

117. Color coding of endodontic files:

118. Pontic design classification:

19

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 Omar Notes

119. Maximum recommended doses of LA:

120. Stafne defect: The classic Stafne defect presents as an asymptomatic radio- lucency
below the mandibular canal in the posterior mandible, between the molar teeth and
the angle of the mandible.

121. Classification of Hypertension:

20

32524
 Omar Notes

For any questions or comments:

Twitter: @OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 3

From Manal notes + Bayan notes + AlanoudGZ January 2021 + Exams

1.Palpitations after IANB is caused by Intravascular injection.

2.Excessive use of Listerine mouthwash may cause epithelial desquamation.

3.Lateral incisor is the most likely tooth to cause palatal abscess.

4.Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of parotid gland.

5.One of the main drawbacks of MTA is its discoloration potential.

6.Keratocyst is the cystic lesion with the highest recurrence rate.

7.The lowest level to establish a diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea on sleep study is 5
events/hr.

8.The etchant of most dentine bonding systems is applied for 15 seconds.

37613
 Omar Notes

9.Allis Forceps is used to grasp Epulis Fissuratum during surgical procedure.

10.Parotid gland (Stensen’s duct) is opposite to Maxillary second molar.

11.The PH of CaOH is 12.5.

12. When extracting all maxillary teeth, or all mandibular teeth the correct order for
extraction is: 87542163.

13. Tooth discoloration from amalgam filling can be prevented by using cavity varnish.

14. The instrument used to hold the needle is called the curved hemostat.

15. Nitrous oxide affects vitamin B12.

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 Omar Notes

16. Dry socket usually occurs within 3-5 days of an extraction.

17. Osteoradionecrosis usually occurs in the mandible. The mandible is at risk of

osteoradionecrosis because it has a limited blood supply.

18. The Hydrodynamic theory Acceptable theory for dentinal pain.

19. In patients with chronic renal failure the treatment is recommended to be one day after
the dialysis.

20. Syneresis and Imbibition of alginate impression material:

o Syneresis: If it becomes dry it will lose water and shrink.
o Imbibition: If it is stored in water or a very wet paper towel it will absorb water and
expand.

21. Healing after extraction is by secondary intention.

22. The material used for first visit apexification is MTA.

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 Omar Notes

23. Bodily movement of teeth is from the limitations of simple removable appliances.

24. The caries risk assessment for a child with visible plaque on the lingual side of anterior
teeth is Moderate risk.

25. The caries risk assessment for a child with no fluoride exposure of any kind is Moderate
risk.

26.Drug-induced gingival overgrowth is a side effect associated principally with 3 types of

drugs:

• Anticonvulsant (Phenytoin).
• Immunosuppressant (cyclosporine A).
• calcium channel blockers (nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem).

27. Pyogenic granuloma is very common in pregnancy. Is treated by electrocautery or surgical

excision.

28. Topical steroids are the recommended management for generalized desquamative
gingivitis.

29. Angular cheilitis is treated by Miconazole.

44845
 Omar Notes

30. The ratio of carbamide peroxide to hydrogen peroxide in walking bleaching technique is
1:3. (10% carbamide peroxide mixed with 30% hydrogen peroxide).

31.Tarnow and fletcher classification of the vertical component of furcation involvement:

32. If patient has a plasma disorder amides anesthetics are used. (Esters are metabolized in
plasma so it is contraindicated).

33. Posterior palatal seal is located at the junction of hard and soft palate.

34. The loop of the band and loop space maintainer is placed at the proximal surface.

35. Masseter muscle can be palpated extra-orally at the angle of mandible.

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 Omar Notes

36. Drug doses for children:

Ibuprofen 5-10 mg/kg/day

Paracetamol 10-15 mg/kg/day

37. Stages of Anesthesia:

38. ASA Classification:

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 Omar Notes

39. Choosing a tray for implant level impression:

o Closed tray: When implant and teeth are parallel to each other.
o Open tray: When implant and teeth are not parallel.

40. Implant retained restorations:

o Cement retained: cheaper, requires more restorative space, worse for soft tissue
health, and passive fit.
o Screw retained: more expensive, better for soft tissue, requires less space, and can be
easily retrieved.

41. Primary and secondary stability of implant

I. Primary stability: stability gained at time of placement. (Goes away after time)
II. Secondary stability: Osseointegration.

42. Implants shouldn’t be connected to natural teeth because it may cause:

I. Tooth intrusion
II. Cement failure
III. Screw loosening

43. Implant diameters and minimal mesiodistal width required:

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 Omar Notes

44. Orthodontic appliances:

45. Chewing Xylitol gums reduces the amount of streptococcus mutans in the oral cavity.

46. The recommended treatment for a tooth with vertical root fracture even if it is vital :
Extraction.

47. Sharpeys fibers are only found in cementum.

48. The molar relationship of primary teeth:

49. Favorable undercut for clasps:

• Cast chrome cobalt alloy clasps: 0.01 inch
• Wrought alloy clasps: 0.02 inch.

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 Omar Notes

50. Posterior teeth with Divergent roots gives a better support in an FPD.

51. Allergy can occur during orthodontic treatment when using stainless steel brackets
because of nickel component of stainless steel.

52. 2 clasps are the minimum number for clasps for Kennedy class I RPD design.

53. Indirect retainer can be used for patients complaining about rotation of denture to prevent
it.

54. Ring clasp is the least esthetic clasp.

55. Surveying is done on diagnostic cast.

56. Minor connector of RPD connects with the major connector at 90 degree.

57. The distance between the major connector on a maxillary RPD framework and the gingival
margins should be at least 6 mm.

58. Minor connector, rest, and major connector of the RPD must be rigid. Whereas clasps
meant to be flexible in order to engage the undercut.

59. Shape of rest seat in RPD is Spoon shaped and triangular.

60. First premolars are the teeth commonly used to receive indirect retainer in RPD.

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 Omar Notes

61.To verify the occlusal plane three lines are used as a guide:
I. Ala-tragus line
II. Interpupillary line
III. Camper’s line or plane

62. Flabby ridge is most commonly in the anterior maxilla.

63. How long should an implant be left undisturbed for the healing period?

• Maxilla: 4-6 months.

• Mandible: 2-3 months.

64. Saw tooth appearance of rete pegs is found Oral lichen planus.

65.Oblique ridge of primary maxillary 2nd molar is from Mesiopalatal to Distobuccal.

66.GIC Luting cement is contraindicated for use in all-ceramic restorations.

67. Protaper files tip diameters:

• F1: 0.20 mm
• F2: 0.25 mm
• F3: 0.30 mm

68. Telescopic crowns can be used when dealing with mesially tilted second molar abutment.

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 Omar Notes

69. Pterygomandibular raphe can be recorded with both upper and lower impressions.

70.Talon’s cusp is most commonly seen in maxillary lateral incisor.

71.Onlay: Cuspal reduction of 1.5-2 mm in functional cusp and 1- 1.5 mm on non-functional

cusp.

72. Acute and Chronic periapical abscess:

• Chronic: Sinus tract is seen with periapical radiolucency, No pain/symptomless.

• Acute: Swelling is seen with periapical radiolucency, Pain with fever.

73. The root most likely to be pushed into the maxillary sinus during extraction of maxillary 1st
molar is the palatal root.

74. The apical portion of the maxillary lateral incisor usually curves to the distal.

75. Aging pulp shows an increase in fibrous element.

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 Omar Notes

76. Guide planes must be parallel to path of insertion.

77. Akers clasp cause high stress on the gingival tissue.

78. Kennedy Class III RPD is totally supported by teeth.

79. Nasopalatine duct cyst is between maxillary central incisors.

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 Omar Notes

80. Common drugs from exams:

• Pilocarpine drug (Salagen): Is used for xerostomia to increase saliva secretion.

• Atropine (anticholinergic drug) is used to decrease saliva secretion.
• Protamine sulfate is used to reverse heparin.
• Listerine: As a long-term complication can cause Epithelial desquamation and Taste
disturbance.
• Acetaminophen (Panadol): is the safest pain killer.
• Tranexamic acid is used for hemophilic patients (Intramuscularly) before surgery as an
Antifibrinolytic.
• 2g Amoxicillin 1 hour before surgery as a prophylaxis from Infective endocarditis.
• 50 mg/kg Amoxicillin for children.
• In patients allergic to penicillin Clindamycin (600mg) and Azithromycin (500mg) are
used for prophylaxis.
• Metronidazole is contraindicated in Epilepsy.
• Codeine (Opioid) causes fetus deformation in pregnancy.
• Benzodiazepine is used for anxious asthmatic patients.
• Nitroglycerin (Transdermal or sublingual) to treat angina.
• Carbamazepine (600-1200 mg) is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia.
• Benzodiazepines: are used as pre-anesthetic and as an anti-anxiolytic.

81. Ugly-duckling stage is usually between the ages of 7 and 12 years

. . . ‫! ت نس و ني م ن د ع ائك م و بالت و ف يق لك م‬
‫ع م ر س ا م ي ا; ا ج د‬
@OmarSAlMajed

50669
 Omar Notes

For any questions or comments:

Twitter: @OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 4

From June 2021 exams from 1-14 June

1) From 2/6 exam: Avulsed teeth and their treatment:

Check International association for dental traumatology guidelines 2020:
https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/epdf/10.1111/edt.12573

2) From 2/6 exam: Polysulfide has the highest tear strength when compared to other
impression materials.

3) From 2/6 exam: Digoxin drug (Digitalis) used for Heart failure and cardiac
arrythmias can cause Hypersalivation.

4) From 2/6 exam: Calcium hydroxide (CaoH) is contraindicated for primary teeth
because it causes internal root resorption and chronic pulpal inflammation.

5) From 2/6 exam: AH root canal sealer is epoxy resin based.

6) From 4/6 exam: Titanium implants components:

o 6% Aluminum
o 4% Vanadium
o 0.25% iron
o 0.2% oxygen
o The rest is Titanium

7) From 4/6 exam: Threaded posts provide more retention when compared to smooth
sided posts but can cause more stress within the root canal.

8) From 4/6 exam: Pin placement for Amalgam:

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 Omar Notes

9) From 4/6 exam: Down syndrome patients are less prone to caries due to:
A. Spaces between teeth
B. Hypersalivation
C. Hypodontia

10) From 4/6 exam: Toothpaste for children:

I. 1-3 years: Smear layer toothpaste is used.
II. 3-6 years: Pea-sized toothpaste.

11) From 4/6 exam: For pregnant patients the second trimester is the best period for
treatment. (4-6 months).

12) From 4/6 exam: silver points disadvantages:

a. Cytotoxic
b. Difficult to remove.
c. Can be corroded.

13) From 4/6 exam:

o Adequate chamfer finish line width: Minimum 0.5 mm.
o Shoulder finish line: Minimum 1 mm.

12020
 Omar Notes

14) From 4/6 exam: For patients with liver diseases ester anesthetics are used. Amides are
contraindicated because they are metabolized in the liver.

15) From 4/6 exam: Porcelain chipping in overprepared tooth is caused by thicker
unsupported porcelain.

16) From 4/6 exam: Question about Bennet angle plane:

o The Bennett angle is the angle formed by the *(sagittal plane) and the path of
the mandibular condyle during lateral movement.

17) From 6/6 exam: Chlorhexidine has both bacteriostatic and bactericidal mechanisms
of action depending on its concentration.

18) From 6/6 exam: Diameter of arterioles in dental pulp is: 10–50 µm.

19) From 6/6 exam: For patients taking Warfarin: INR should be less than 4 before dental
extraction. (Reference from American dental association site)

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 Omar Notes

20) From 6/6 exam: Occlusal schemes:

o Canine guidance (mutually protected, organic occlusion): is used for Full mouth
rehabilitation.
o Bilateral balanced occlusion is used in Complete denture.
o Unilateral occlusion (Group function): used for restorative treatment.

21) From 6/6 exam: Monoplane occlusion is used for patients with residual ridge
resorption.

22) From 9/6 exam: Bullous pemphigoid and Pemphigus Vulgaris:

23) From 9/6 exam: PVS impression material can be poured between 30 minutes to 1.
week (If doctor don’t have time to pour it soon it is the material of choice).

24) From 9/6 exam: Types of child abuse: the question was about the most common form
of child abuse (Neglect)*.

25) From 10/6 exam: Patients with severe heart failure experience shortness of breath
when they lie down. (Orthopnea)

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 Omar Notes

26) From 10/6 exam: Patients with severe Myocardial infarction should be positioned in
semi sitting position.

27) From 10/6 exam: Gracey and Universal curettes: The questions were about the blade
angle for both Gracey and Universal.

28) From 11/6 exam: Sodium perborate is used for walking bleaching.

29) From 11/6 exam: Osseous defects:

30) From 11/6 exam: Convergent roots with long root trunk poses more difficulty during
periodontal treatment.

52403
 Omar Notes

31) From 11/6 exam: C-factor relation to polymerization shrinkage:

• C-factor is the ratio of the bonded to the unbonded surfaces.
• Greater C-factor: The greater gap formation and shrinkage.

32) From 11/6 exam: Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO) picture:

33) From 11/6 exam: Relation of third molar to IAN canal:

34) From 11/6 exam: Muscles of mastication functions:

o Temporalis: retract the mandible.
o Masseter: elevate and protrude.
o Medial pterygoid: side to side and protrusion.
o Lateral pterygoid: side to side and depression.

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 Omar Notes

35) From 11/6 exam: Gingival hyperplasia types:

1. Inflammatory gingival enlargement.
2. Medication induced gingival enlargement.
3. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis.
4. Systemic causes gingival enlargement.

36) From 12/6 exam: Office management of seizures at dental clinic:

37) From 12/6 exam: Metallic sound with percussion is associated with Lateral luxation
and Intrusion. Whereas dull sound is associated with Extrusion and Subluxation.

38) From 13/6 exam: Hepatitis B antigens:

39) From 13/6 exam: Butterfly rash is associated with Systemic lupus erythematous.

4916
 Omar Notes

40) From 13/6 exam: Zipping and Ledge:

41) From 13/6 exam: Sterilization of burs is done by using Sodium nitrate 2% in perforated
tray + Autoclave.

42) From 14/6 exam: The spore test for autoclave should be done weekly.

43) From 14/6 exam: Cracked tooth syndrome:

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 Omar Notes

44) From 14/6 exam: Supracrestal tissue attachment is the new name for biological
width. It consists of junctional-epithelium and supracrestal connective tissue.

45) From 14/6 exam: The weakest phase for amalgam is the Gamma 2 phase (γ2). At this
phase amalgam is subject to corrosion.

46) From 14/6 exam: The radiograph required for patient with facial asymmetry:
CBCT (3D imaging) and before the posteroanterior radiograph was used.
Reference from: Contemporary Orthodontics Book.

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 Omar Notes

47) From 14/6 exam: In post space preparation for mandibular 1st molar the distal wall of
the mesial root is the most prone area to be perforated.

48) From 14/6 exam: Differences between primary and permanent teeth:

10

36083
 Omar Notes

For any questions or comments:

Twitter: @OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 5

From 15-29 June exams.

1) From 15/6 exam: Bacteria associated with Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG):
Treponema spp., Selenomonas spp., Fusobacterium spp., and Prevotella intermedia
(P.Intermedia). T.Denticola is associated with ANUG and ANUP.

2) From 15/6 exam: To bypass a ledge a small file is used.

3) From 15/6 exam: Prognosis of endodontic mishaps:

o Broken files:

• Apical: Good prognosis.

• Middle: Poor prognosis.

o Perforation:

• Apical: Poor prognosis.

• Cervical: Good prognosis.

o Root fracture:

• Apical: Good prognosis.

• Cervical: Poor prognosis.

4) From 15/6 exam: In Partial thickness flap the periosteum covers the bone. Whereas, in
the full thickness flap all tissues including the periosteum is reflected.

5) From 15/6 exam: Paul-Bunnell Test is the test for EBV.

41445
 Omar Notes

6) From 15/6 exam: Camouflage extraction in Orthodontics:

1. Class I molar relationship: In case of crowding extract the same tooth from both
arches to maintain the molar relationship.
2. Class II molar relationship Division 1:

• No space required: Extract upper 1st premolars.

• Space required: Extract upper 1st premolars and lower second premolars.

3. Class II molar relationship Division 2: When treating class II division 2 cases, it

is best to avoid extraction. If crowding is marked, extractions will be required.

4. Class III molar relationship: The extraction of choice for camouflage is

extraction of lower first premolars and upper second premolars.

o Reference and for more details:

https://www.thejcdp.com/doi/JCDP/pdf/10.5005/jp-journals-10024-2307

7) From 15/6 exam: Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO): is used to setback or
forward mandible movement.

8) From 15/6 exam: Taper of endodontic files:

• Hand files: 0.02 mm
• Rotary files: 0.04 or 0.06 mm.

46757
 Omar Notes

9) From 15/6 exam: Transoral vertical ramus osteotomy (TOVRO) : is used only to
setback the mandible.

10) From 15/6 exam: Lefort fractures:

11) From 15/6 exam: Periodontal phenotypes:

o Thick phenotype associated with thick bone: Thickness of > 1.5 mm.
o Thin phenotype associated with thin bone: Thickness of < 1.5 mm.

31334
 Omar Notes

12) From 15/6 exam: Vertical dimension in Complete denture:

13) From 15/6 exam: Tooth wear forms:

40997
 Omar Notes

14) From 15/6 exam: Orthodontic appliances:

• Cervical pull headgear: Indicated in Class II with Deep Bite.
• High pull headgear: Indicated in Class II with increased vertical dimension and
minimum overbite.
• Straight pull headgear: Indicated in Class II division 1.

• Chin cup: Indicated in Excessive mandibular growth. To restrain mandibular

growth.

• Reverse pull head gear and Face mask: Indicated in Class III for protraction of
Maxilla.

21734
 Omar Notes

15) From 15/6 exam: Major connectors:

• Upper Major connectors:

• Lower major connectors:

16) From 16/6 exam: In the resistance form for amalgam cavosurface angle is 90 degrees
to protect enamel rods. In composite >=90 degree.

17) From 16/6 exam: Medical tests:

• Pathergy test: Behçet's disease
• PT: Liver disease (ex. Hepatitis)
• PTT: Hemophilia, Von Willebrand disease.
• INR: Warfarin and for Hepatitis patients. (Coagulation testing)

18) From 16/6 exam: ISO Files lengths: 21mm, 25mm, and 31mm.

19) From 16/6 exam: Varnish is used under amalgam restoration because it reduces
significantly the leakage around the margins and walls of the restoration and reduces
discoloration.

18342
 Omar Notes

20) From 16/6 exam: Types of Veneers Preparation:

21) From 16/6 exam: Cleidocranial Dysplasia:

35685
 Omar Notes

22) From 16/6 exam: Papillon- Lefevre Syndrome:

23) From 16/6 exam: Hereditary Ectodermal Dysplasia:

24) From 16/6 exam: Slurry water:

25) From 16/6 exam: The ability of a material to resist fracture is called toughness.

26) From 17/6 exam: Valsalva maneuver is a breathing technique that can be used
to unclog ears, restore heart rhythm or diagnose an autonomic nervous system (ANS).

52005
 Omar Notes

27) From 17/6 exam: TMJ Disorders with or without reduction:

28) From 17/6 exam: The space infected with cavernous sinus thrombosis is the
infratemporal space.

29) From 17/6 exam: Stillman’s cleft and McCall festoon pictures:

30) From 18/6 exam: The lingual nerve is one of the sensory branches of the mandibular
division of the trigeminal nerve.

31) From 18/6 exam: After scaling and root planning healing occur by long junctional
epithelium.

32) From 18/6 exam: Submandibular abscess drainage is done extraorally at the
mandibular angle area.

2022
 Omar Notes

33) From 18/6 exam: Bluegrass appliance is used to prevent thumb sucking.

34) From 18/6 exam: Cherubism: Bilateral swelling of the submandibular area.

35) From 18/6 exam: Calcium hydroxide (CaOH) is used under composite as a liner and if
base is needed either GIC or RMGI can be used.

10

5286
 Omar Notes

36) From 18/6 exam: Regional odontodysplasia: Abnormal enamel, dentin, and pulp in a
quadrant.

37) From 18/6 exam: Spedding principle is used for selection of stainless-steel crowns size.

38) From 18/6 exam: Granulomatous Cheilitis: Diffuse swelling of the upper lip.

11

57445
 Omar Notes

39) From 19/6 exam: The base of the flap is wider than incision to increase the blood
supply.
40) From 19/6 exam: Light cure equipment factors:

41) From 19/6 exam: Sir lace research about periodontal disease progression in Sri
Lankan population:

42) From 19/6 exam: The question was about a patient came to clinic using Pulmicort.
Pulmicort is used by asthmatic patients to control and prevent symptoms of asthma.

43) From 19/6 exam: Caliber persistent labial artery picture:

12

14886
 Omar Notes

44) From 20/6 exam: Cross section of endodontic files: * The question was about the file
with a circular cross section.

45) From 21/6 exam: The most common side effect for hypertensive patients taking
thiazide diuretic is lichenoid reactions and Xerostomia.

46) From 21/6 exam: The function of the indirect retainer is to prevent rotational
displacement of denture from tissue base. Retention occurs around rests.

47) From 21/6 exam: The curvature of upper teeth in smile line follows the lower lip.

48) From 21/6 exam: The cause of PMMA porosity: Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)
o Air entrapment during mixing, monomer contraction during the polymerization,
monomer vaporization associated with exothermic reaction, the presence of
residual monomer, insufficient mixing of monomer and polymer.

49) From 21/6 exam: Undercut gauge function and photo:

o It is used to measure the extent of horizontal undercut.

13

63205
 Omar Notes

50) From 21/6 exam: Functions of clasp arms:

I. Stabilization
II. Reciprocation
III. Retention.

51) From 21/6 exam: Advanced glycation end products (AGEs) are proteins or lipids that
become glycated as a result of exposure to sugars. They are found in Diabetes, Chronic
kidney disease, atherosclerosis, Alzheimer’s disease.

52) From 21/6 exam: The most common congenitally missing permanent teeth with the
exception of the maxillary and mandibular third molars, are the mandibular second
premolars, followed by the maxillary lateral incisors, and the maxillary second
premolars.

53) From 22/6 exam: Bence-Jones proteins are present in the urine of patients with
multiple myeloma.

54) From 24/6 exam: Koplik spots looks like a small, bluish-white spot with a red
background on the inside of the cheek. These spots are early oral signs of the measles
virus.

55) From 24/6 exam: Zometa drug is used to treat a number of bone diseases. These
include osteoporosis, high blood calcium due to cancer, and bone breakdown due to
cancer. Osteonecrosis has been reported in some patients taking Zometa.

14

57765
 Omar Notes

56) From 24/6 exam: Free gingival graft (FGG) VS Modified apically repositioned flap
(MARF):

57) From 24/6 exam: The most often seen primary sites that tumor metastasizes to the
oral region are the lung, kidney, liver, prostate for men, and breast for women.

58) From 24/6 exam: Apical scar:

59) From 24/6 exam: Indications of Apicectomy:

60) From 24/6 exam: Proximal contacts:

• Anterior teeth: near the incisal third of the teeth.
• Posterior teeth: near the middle third of the teeth.

15

11622
 Omar Notes

61) From 24/6 exam: Procaine side effects:

I. Allergic reaction (Difficulty breathing, closing of the throat, swelling of the lips,
face, or tongue).
II. Chest pain or slow or irregular heartbeats.
III. Dizziness.
IV. Anxiety or restlessness.
V. Nausea or vomiting
VI. Seizures or shaking.

62) From 25/6 exam: Enamel hypoplasia picture:

63) From 25/6 exam: Paroxysmal Hemicrania:

• A rare form of headache that usually begins in adulthood. Patients experience
severe throbbing, claw-like, or boring pain *(usually on one side of the face) *;
in, around, or behind the eye; and occasionally reaching to the back of the
neck.
• This pain may be accompanied by red and tearing eyes, a drooping or swollen
eyelid on the affected side of the face, and nasal congestion.
• Indomethacin (NSAID) is the drug of choice for treatment of paroxysmal
hemicrania.
64) From 25/6 exam: Transient lingual papillitis: The question was about enlarged
fungiform papilla.
• It is a common painful inflammatory condition affecting one or several
fungiform papillae on the tongue.
• Fungiform papillae can become obvious in a number of conditions, the most well
recognized of which is the ‘strawberry tongue’ of Scarlet fever.
• No treatment is required as the condition resolves within hours or days.

16

24869
 Omar Notes

65) From 26/6 exam: Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone tumor characterized by pain which
is relieved by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin.

66) From 27/6 exam: Ammonia breath is associated with chronic kidney disease.

67) From 28/6 exam: Smoker classification: The question was about the heavy smoker.
• Light smoker: a smoker who smokes 1-10 cigarettes per day.
• Moderate smoker: a smoker who smokes between 11-19 cigarettes per day.
• Heavy smoker: a smoker who smokes 20 cigarettes or more per day.

68) From 28/6 exam: Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis VS Gingivostomatitis:

69) From 28/6 exam: BisGMA is the organic matrix of Composite.

70) From 28/6 exam: Hyperparathyroidism causes loss of lamina dura.

71) From 29/6 exam: First line drug to treat ulcerative lichen planus is Fluocinonide (High
potency topical corticosteroid).

17

44518
 Omar Notes

72) From 29/6 exam: Calcium hydroxide uses:

I. Cavity liner and bases
II. Pulp capping
III. Pulpotomy
IV. Apexification
V. Intracanal medicament
VI. Root canal sealer
VII. Repair of perforations
VIII. Prevention and treatment of root resorption

73) From 29/6 exam: Lingual plate major connector picture:

74) From 29/6 exam: Pleomorphic adenoma:

‫ﻻ ﺗﻨﺴﻮﻧﻲ ﻣﻦ دﻋﺎﺋﻜﻢ وﺑﺎﻟﺘﻮﻓﯿﻖ ﻟﻜﻢ‬

18

47782
 Omar Notes

For any questions or comments:

Twitter: @OMARSALMAJED
Revised by: Saud AlQahtani
@Sauds_qh

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 6

Other June 2021 Important questions and July 2021

1. Burnishing carbide bur doesn’t have any blades.

2. Polishing carbide burs have more than 12 blades.

3. PKT Armamentarium required for the waxing technique to achieve occlusal schemes
for an FPD is a set of PKT (P.K. Thomas) instruments. The set comprises five
instruments:
• PKT No.1 is used for positioning of functional and non-functional cusps. The
marginal, cusp and triangular ridges are also added with PKT No.1.
• PKT No.2 is used for eliminating voids remaining on the occlusal surface.
• PKT No.3. is used for Developmental and supplemental grooves
smoothening.
• PKT No.4 is used for Smoothening of axial surfaces.
• PKT No.5 is used to refine the ridges.

28333
 Omar Notes

4. In FPD wax pattern, Stuart’s groove is an extra groove placed on the mesiopalatal cusp
of the maxillary 1st molar.

5. Gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) is a plasma-derived exudate found in gingiva and

grooves around teeth. GCF contains plasma proteins and inflammatory cells, and its
production increases as periodontal disease progresses.

6. From 3/7 exam: Hypersensitivity types: Question was about type 4

31213
 Omar Notes

7. From 3/7 exam: Burning sensation in the mouth causes:

8. From 5/7 exam: Tapered VS Threaded posts:

9. From 5/7 exam: Interradicular radiolucency is the most common radiolucency feature
of pulpal pathosis in primary teeth.

46382
 Omar Notes

10. From 11/7 exam: Veneers cementation steps: The question was about the first step:
Etching the crown

11. From 11/7 exam: Gemination VS Fusion pictures:

12. From 12/7 exam: Post exposure measures for accidental sharps injury:

21357
 Omar Notes

13. From 12/7 exam: Face profiles: Question was about Class III.
• Class I: Normal
• Class II: Convex
• Class III: Concave

14. From 13/7 exam: Transillumination is used to diagnose Cracked tooth syndrome.

15. From 13/7 exam: Prophy jet is contraindicated in Hypertensive patients.

40878
 Omar Notes

16. From 13/7 exam: Clamps: Question was about clamp used for partially erupted molar
(W14A).

17. From 14/7 exam: Instruments are not immersed in Iodophor solution because they
contain Iodine which may corrode or discolor certain metals.

18. From 14/7 exam: Frenectomy is recommended to be done after space closure.

36078
 Omar Notes

19. Seitbert’s classification of anterior ridge defects:

20. From 15/7 exam: Steps for try-in:

21. From 15/7 exam: Crack VS Craze lines:

18477
 Omar Notes

22. From 17/7 exam: Discontinuation of nursing bottles is recommended to by 12 months

of age to decrease Early childhood caries.

23. From 17/7 exam: Obtaining of emergence profile of implant can be by 3 methods:
I. Healing abutment.

II. Ovate pontic.

III. Cervical contouring method.

24. From 17/7 exam: Practices that increase the chance of developing ECC (Early childhood
caries):
i. Prolonged night breastfeeding.
ii. On Demand breastfeeding after the age of 1
iii. Frequent snacking with sugary foods
iv. Frequent sipping of sugary drinks throughout the day.

25. From 17/7 exam: Functional appliances in Orthodontics:

26. From 17/7 exam: Silicophosphate cement which is used for cementation of orthodontic
bands and restoring non vital teeth contains *Flouride*.

2157
 Omar Notes

27. From 18/7 exam: Probing forces:

• Well tolerated: 0.75 N

• Within the Junctional epithelium: 30 g.
• To reach the bone: 50 g.

28. From 25/7 exam: Hank’s balanced salt solution (HBSS): the best storage media for
avulsed teeth.

29. From 25/7 exam: Angina bullosa: benign subepithelial oral mucosal blisters filled with blood
that are not attributable to a systemic disorder or hemostatic defect. It is a very rare condition.

30. From 25/7 exam: The exposure to excess fluoride between 18 months and 3 years of
age can cause permanent incisor fluorosis.

52398
 Omar Notes

31. From 25/7 exam: While performing caries risk assessment during periodontal therapy
and before starting maintenance focus should be on the exposed root surfaces
susceptible to caries.

32. From 27/7 exam: Oral Melanoacanthoma: Benign dark pigmented macule or plaque
and asymptomatic. Most commonly in the buccal mucosa. The question was about the
histology of Oral Melanoacanthoma: Dendritic melanocytes throughout the full
thickness of an acanthotic and spongiotic epithelium layer. Infiltration of Lymphocyte
and eosinophils may be observed.

33. From 27/7 exam: Dentogingival Unit:

34. From 27/7 exam: Frey's Syndrome is a syndrome that includes sweating while eating
(gustatory sweating) and facial flushing. It is caused by injury to a nerve, called the
auriculotemporal nerve, typically after surgical trauma to the parotid gland.

10

57326
 Omar Notes

35. From 27/7 exam: Submandibular space: The question was about the lower muscle:
Platysma.

36. From 28/7 exam: Panic attack symptoms:

37. From 28/7 exam: EDTA stands for Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid.

11

4909
 Omar Notes

38. From 28/7 exam: Schick test: An Intradermal test method for determining susceptibility
to diphtheria.

39. From 28/7 exam: The question was about the airway management in case of spinal
injury.
• The jaw-thrust maneuver is a first aid and medical procedure used to prevent
the tongue from obstructing the upper airways. This maneuver and the head-
tilt/chin-lift maneuver are two of the main tools of basic airway management.
The jaw-thrust maneuver is often used on patients with cervical neck problems
or suspected cervical spine injury.
• In case of no sign of spinal injury head-tilt/chin-lift is preferred.

40. From 28/7 exam: Gold is the most malleable and ductile of all metals.

12

62830
 Omar Notes

41. From 29/7 exam: Pierre Robin symptoms:

42. From 29/7 exam: Leukoedema is a white or whitish gray edematous lesion of the
buccal and labial oral mucosa. *It disappears with stretching of the mucosa.*
No treatment is required.

13

14765
 Omar Notes

43. From 29/7 exam: Visits of patients with NUG:

44. From 31/7 exam: Ferrule effect:

45. From 31/7 exam: If the anti-HBs is positive (10 mIU/mL or higher) the person is
considered to be immune.

... ‫وﺑﺎﻟﺘﻮﻓﯿﻖ ﻟﻜﻢ وﻻ ﺗﻨﺴﻮﻧﺎ ﻣﻦ دﻋﺎﺋﻜﻢ‬

14

12013
 Omar Notes

For any questions or comments:

Twitter/Telegram:
@OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 7

1-16 August 2021 Exam questions

1) From 1/8 exam: Recurrence rate of Pyogenic granuloma is 15%.

2) From 1/8 exam: If there is a lesion and it didn’t heal within *2 weeks* a biopsy should
be taken to rule out malignancy.

3) From 1/8 exam: Insertion torque value of implant is 35 Ncm.

4) From 2/8 exam: Diagnosis of cracked tooth can be either by:

I. Transillumination:
II. Tooth sloth. (Picture was provided).

5) From 2/8 exam: Butterfly shaped rash is associated with Systemic lupus erythematous
(SLE).

20831
 Omar Notes

6) From 2/8 exam: The tooth with internal resorption appears pink.

7) From 2/8 exam: Frankfort plane is from Porion to Orbitale.

8) From 3/8 exam: Endodontic Mishaps pictures:

A. Ledge
B. Perforation
C. Transportation
D. Zipping

17951
 Omar Notes

9) From 3/8 exam: Combination syndrome in Prosthodontics:

10) From 3/8 exam: Kennedy classification and number of clasps:

11) From 3/8 exam: KRI Paste VS Zinc oxide eugenol paste

35552
 Omar Notes

12) From 4/8 exam: Porcelain fusing material types:

• Question was about: Low fusing porcelain and it is used in PFM Crowns.
• Medium fusing porcelain and it is used for anterior porcelain jacket crowns,
ceramic restorations, Inlays, Onlays, and crowns.
• High fusing porcelain is used for denture teeth.

13) From 4/8 exam: Hypernasal speech can be caused by anything resulting in
velopharyngeal incompetence. CLEFT PALATE and Cerebral palsy can cause hypernasal
speech.

14) From 5/8 exam: Antidot of Warfarin is Vitamin K.

15) From 5/8 exam: Angulation of curettes:

• For Insertion: 0
• For calculus removal: Ideal from 60-80.

28831
 Omar Notes

16) From 8/8 exam: Minor connectors function:

17) From 8/8 exam: For full mouth rehabilitation – fully adjustable articulator is used.

18) From 8/8 exam: Tooth development begins in the fetus at about six weeks of age.

19) From 8/8 exam: Gag reflux in a patient with complete denture is caused by:

20) From 8/8 exam: Kingsley scraper is used to locate posterior palatal seal on the cast.

21) From 8/8 exam: Ideal taper for crown preparation is 6 degrees.

From Contemporary fixed prosthodontics book Page 270.

42080
 Omar Notes

22) From 8/8 exam: Gypsum types:

23) From 8/8 exam: Chisels are used with *push* motion.

24) From 8/8 exam: The angle between the terminal shank of the sickle scaler and the
tooth is parallel to the long axis of the tooth.

25) From 8/8 exam: Gingival enlargement grades:

46880
 Omar Notes

26) From 9/8 exam: Epstein pearls VS Bohn’s Nodules:

• Epstein pearls occur along the median palatal raphe.
• Bohn’s nodules are scattered over the hard palate, mostly near the soft palatal
junction.

27) From 9/8 exam: The distance between the film and the patient face during
cephalometric radiograph is 15 cm.

28) From 9/8: Branchless fruit-laden free in the sialogram is associated with Sjogren
syndrome.

31711
 Omar Notes

29) From 9/8 exam: Varicella zoster virus causes a pruritic lesion in the face and trunk and
ulcers with high grade fever.

30) From 9/8 exam: Increasing the length of the clasp will increase its flexibility.

31) From 9/8 exam: Copper percentage in amalgam:

• High copper: 12-30%.

• Low copper: 2-5%.

15263
 Omar Notes

32) From 9/8 exam: Unilateral posterior cross bite is associated with bilateral maxillary
constriction. (If they mention in the question that is associated with a shift). If there is
no shift it is associated with *unilateral maxillary constriction*.

Contemporary orthodontics, Sixth edition.

33) From 10/8 exam: NSAIDS is the first line drug for endodontic pain. In patients who
cannot take NSAIDs, Acetaminophen will be the drug of choice.

34) From 10/8 exam: Dry heat sterilization:

63328
 Omar Notes

35) From 10/8: The anatomical structure that makes gingivectomy distal to lower 2nd
premolar difficult or impossible is the external oblique ridge.

36) From 10/8 exam: The area of gingival inflammation in mouth breathers is often limited
to the gingiva of the maxillary incisors.

37) From 11/8 exam: Question about treatment and picture of Pyostomatitis Vegetans
associated with Inflammatory bowel disease. It is treated by Sulfasalazine or Systemic
corticosteroids.

10

58400
 Omar Notes

38) From 11/8 exam: To reverse the action of Heparin, Protamine sulfate is used.
39) From 11/8 exam: For patients taking Heparin we either give the patient protamine
sulfate or defer the surgery until at least 6 hours after the heparin is stopped.

40) From 12/8 exam: Mechanism of action of Penicillin: it inhibits bacterial cell wall
production.

41) From 12/8 exam: Apertognathia (anterior open bite) is more common with maxillary
hypoplasia.

42) From 12/8 exam: Probing is measured at six surfaces per tooth.

11

12511
 Omar Notes

43) From 14/8 exam: Slot preparation VS Tunnel preparation:

o Slot preparation: for lesions which are less than 2.5 mm from marginal ridge.
o Tunnel preparation: for lesions which are more than 2.5 mm from marginal
ridge.

44) From 14/8 exam: Actinomyces is the predominant bacteria in root caries.

45) From 15/8 exam: The most compatible material used in oral cavity is Titanium.

46) From 15/8 exam: Insulin shock occurs when the blood sugar in the body becomes low.
(Hypoglycemia).

47) From 15/8 exam: Dentinogenesis imperfecta picture:

12

51872
 Omar Notes

48) From 15/8 exam: A question about a child who is 5 years old, and her mother is concerned
about the mandibular growth? The patient is too young.

49) From 15/8 exam: The silicate particles in GIC are the responsible for releasing of fluoride.

50) From 16/8 exam: Erosive lichen planus treatment:

51) From 16/8 exam: The production of autoantibodies, is associated with patients with
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

52) From 16/8 exam: Picture of Oral lichen planus:

13

1631
 Omar Notes

53) From 16/8 exam: Fine needle aspiration (FNA) is a safe and quick method of diagnosing a
parotid gland swelling.
54) From 16/8 exam: To prevent dental caries for patients with Sjogren syndrome: topical
fluoride and saliva stimulants are used.

55) From 16/8 exam: Multiple questions about Anemia and bleeding disorders and they
mention the number of RBCs and MCV:

14

4383
 Omar Notes

56) From 16/8 exam: Symptoms of Sjogren syndrome:

57) From 16/8 exam: Subepithelial clefting is found in Mucous membrane pemphigoid.

58) From 16/8 exam: To enhance the chance of revascularization of avulsed tooth the tooth
should be soaked with doxycycline or minocycline.

59) From 16/8 exam: In patients with parasymphysis fracture we should check the airway.

15

56800
 Omar Notes

60) From 16/8 exam: Scarlet fever symptoms:

61) From 16/8 exam: If patient came to the clinic the same day after dialysis?
The patient will tend to bleed more.

16

37279
 Omar Notes

62) From 16/8 exam: Fovea palatini and its importance in complete denture:

• Two depressions that lie bilateral to the midline of the palate, at the approximate
junction between the soft and hard palate.
• They are often useful in identification of the vibrating line because they generally occur
within 2mm of vibrating line.

63) From 16/8 exam: The force in headgear is Intermittent.

64) From 16/8 exam: The most common area for supernumerary teeth is in the maxillary
anterior region.

65) From 16/8 exam: The best place to an implant is in the lower anterior region.

... ‫ﺎرب‬m ‫ﺎﻟﺘﻮﻓﻴﻖ ﻟﻠﺠﻤﻴﻊ‬a‫و‬

... ‫ ﻣﻦ دﻋﺎﺋ|ﻢ‬tv u ‫ﺴﻮ‬r‫ﻻ ﺗ‬

@OMARSAlMAJED

17

23904
 Omar Notes

For any questions or comments:

Twitter/Telegram:
@OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 8

17-30 August 2021 Exam questions

1) From 17/8 exam: Vertical growth is the last growth that stops in orthodontic
treatment.
2) From 17/8 exam: PNS point in the cephalometric radiograph:

3) From 17/8 exam: Type 1 collagen is the major protein of intratubular dentin (90%).

4) From 17/8 exam: Basal cell nevus syndrome:

5) From 17/8 exam: Migraine headache:

1946
 Omar Notes

6) From 18/8 exam: Dentigerous cyst treatment:

o Enucleation if small.
o Marsupialization if large.

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

7) From 17/8 exam: Sequence of wearing and removing PPE:

5338
 Omar Notes

8) From 18/8 exam: Correction of Deep bite:

9) From 19/8 exam: Pancytopenia: is a medical condition in which there is a reduction in the
number of red and white blood cells, as well as platelets.

10) From 19/8 exam: Bioethics: This is the division of applied ethics that helps in defining,
analyzing, and resolving ethical issues that arise from the provision of health care or the
conduct of health-related research. Professionalism and Ethics Handbook for Residents.pdf

11) From 19/8 exam: Stafne cyst management:

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

12) From 19/8 exam: Trigeminal neuralgia: is a chronic pain condition that affects the
trigeminal nerve, which carries sensation from your face to your brain. If you have trigeminal
neuralgia, even mild stimulation of your face — such as from brushing your teeth or putting on
makeup — may trigger a jolt of excruciating pain.

57369
 Omar Notes

13) From 19/8 exam: Tumor in the cecum vecum part of the tongue and causes nausea and
vomiting:

14) From 20/8 exam: The facial surfaces of upper posterior teeth are at greater risk for caries
in patients with high caries risk.

15) From 20/8 exam: The rate of slow palatal expansion is 0.25mm every other day.

14938
 Omar Notes

16) From 20/8 exam: Root canal treated tooth exposed to oral environment for 2-3 months
should be retreated.

17) From 20/8 exam: The reaction of plaque around teeth and implants is the same.

18) From 20/8 exam: Resin cement is the cement used under Lithium disilicate restorations.

19) From 20/8 exam: The safest LA for children is 2% Lidocaine.

20) From 20/8 exam: The needle stick injury percentage for doctors is 10%.

63129
 Omar Notes

21) From 20/8: Cast metal restorations is the restoration of choice for patients undergoing
occlusal rehabilitation.

22) From 20/8 exam: Sodium bicarbonate air polishing is used for supragingival plaque
removal.

23) From 20/8 exam: Malocclusion indicates facial fracture.

24) From 20/8 exam: The lingual nerve may be damaged during removal of lower third
molars.

57817
 Omar Notes

25) From 20/8 exam: The presence of unreacted benzoyl peroxide causes color change and
deterioration of provisional restorations.

26) From 20/8 exam: The most difficult teeth to anesthetize with irreversible pulpitis:

27) From 20/8 exam: Unwaxed nylon is the best type of dental floss.

28) From 20/8 exam: Zinc supplements are used for patients with head and neck cancer.

11546
 Omar Notes

29) From 20/8 exam: The Recommended technique for pulpectomy of maxillary primary
incisors is from the Facial approach.

30) From 20/8 exam: Heavy occlusal forces pressure severe enough to force the root against
the bone causes necrosis of the PDL and bone.

31) From 20/8 exam: The most appropriate way when breaking news to a patient is to pause
frequently to check understanding.

32) From 20/8 exam: The materials of choice for restoration of hypoplastic teeth is GIC or
composite.

33) From 20/8 exam: Acute Pulpitis in lower molar can cause radiating pain to the ears and to
the tongue.

27994
 Omar Notes

34) From 20/8 exam: Intrapulpal injection is not used in children because it is painful.

35) From 20/8 exam: The percentage of palatal exostosis is

• 10% in males.
• 20% in females.

36) From 20/8 exam: Verruciform xanthoma is caused by Local trauma.

41369
 Omar Notes

37) From 20/8 exam: The temperature of Endo Ice is -26.2 C.

38) From 20/8 exam: Peri-implant mucositis prognosis is favorable.

39) From 20/8 exam: Aspirin acts on platelet aggregation.

40) From 21/8 exam: Nosocomial infections also referred to as healthcare-associated

infections (HAI), are infection(s) acquired during the process of receiving health care that was
not present during the time of admission.

41) From 21/8 exam: Aluminum chloride retraction cords are used for hypertensive and
diabetic patients.

42) From 22/8 exam: Acetaminophen may increase the INR.

46809
 Omar Notes

43) From 22/8 exam: Management of accidental exposure to HBV:

44) From 22/8 exam: Special care should be taken during mylohyoid ridge reduction to the
lingual nerve to avoid injury of the nerve.

45) From 22/8 exam: A question about a patient is having trismus and pain in the 3rd molar
area the infection is in which space? Submasseteric space

46) From 22/8 exam: A question about a patient taking warfarin and the INR is 3.0 and we
want to do extraction? Extraction can be done if less than 3.0. If more the physician should be
contacted.

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial surgery book

31258
 Omar Notes

47) From 22/8 exam: A question about a tooth with 1 mm remaining dentin thickness after
removal of caries? No need for liner or base if composite is used.

Art & science of operative dentistry book

48) From 22/8 exam: Polysulfide impressions should be poured in less than 1 hour.

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics book

49) From 22/8 exam: Management of Eruption cyst: No treatment is required.

41049
 Omar Notes

50) From 22/8 exam: Question about the management of an epileptic patient having a seizure
in the dental office drug?

Contemporary ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL BOOK.

51) From 22/8 exam: A question about an incision that starts below the marginal ridge to the
crest of bone?

Carranza

53) From 22/8 exam: How to assess the canal flare in lateral compaction?
By using a finger spreader.

21658
 Omar Notes

54) From 23/8 exam: Glycated Hemoglobin normal value:

Carranza

55) From 23/8 exam: The liquid found in GIC is Polyacrylic acid.

Mcdonald’s

56) From 23/8 exam: Radiographs in the initial visit for a pediatric patient with multiple carious
teeth: (Answered wrong in the file): Selected PA and or/ posterior bitewings.

57) From 23/8 exam: Deep bite can be treated by a removable appliance with an anterior bite
plane.

Contemporary Orthodontics book

18394
 Omar Notes

58) From 23/8 exam: Color selection of a restoration should be done under color corrected
fluorescent light.

Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics.

59) From 23/8 exam: Preparation of box is done by using an inverted cone or diamond round
bur.

Art & Science Restorative dentistry book.

60) From 23/8 exam: Question about the bone height of smoker patient when compared to a
normal patient? The bone height will be decreased.

61) From 23/8 exam: The cause of bleeding in Leukemic patients is from the
Thrombocytopenia (lack of blood platelets).

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial surgery book.

35609
 Omar Notes

62) From 23/8 exam: Etching of enamel is for 15 seconds.

63) From 23/8 exam: The complications that usually occur with Maryland bridge are
Periodontal problems and Debonding of the prosthesis.

51034
 Omar Notes

64) From 23/8 exam: A question about a patient with vertical defect with a picture and asking
about the management: The vertical defect is usually treated by: Guided bone regeneration
(GBR).

Carranza

65) From 24/8 exam: Type of mandibular fractures: The question was as a picture

2969
 Omar Notes

66) From 24/8 exam: Pterygomandibular space infection causes trismus.

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial book.

67) From 24/8 exam: ELISA test is used to detect HIV.

68) From 25/8 exam: Tongue stabilizing device (TSD) is a removable appliance to treat
obstructive sleep apnea.

8409
 Omar Notes

69) From 25/8 exam: Types of periodontal pockets pictures and definition:

70) From 25/8 exam: Polisihing of GIC restoration is done by using Aluminum oxide polishing
paste.

Art & Science Restorative dentistry book.

54298
 Omar Notes

71) From 25/8 exam: Modified ridge lap and ridge lap pontics are difficult to access with the
dental floss.

Carranza

72) From 25/8 exam: The penetration of the probe depends on what?

73) From 25/8 exam: Christensen Phenomenon:

74) From 25/8 exam: The distance between the most apical calculus and the alveolar crest is
1.97mm.

Carranza.

75) From 25/8 exam: Occlusion in Stainless steel crown should be checked before cementation.

Mcdonalds

13913
 Omar Notes

76) From 25/8 exam: The primary function of luting cement under provisional crown is to
prevent microleakage.

77) From 25/8 exam: The main component of Hemodent is Aluminum chloride.

78) From 25/8 exam: The most common cause of corrosion of metal frame of RPD is frequent
washing by sodium hypochlorite (It will cause corrosion).

79) From 25/8 exam: Questions about Erythema Multiforme:

64154
 Omar Notes

80) From 25/8 exam: Pyostomatitis Vegetans:

81) From 26/8 exam: Difference between enamel and dentin thickness in primary and
permanent dentition:

82) From 26/8 exam: Dental trauma is usually common for children aged 8-12 years.

Mcdonalds

60890
 Omar Notes

83) From 28/8 exam: To increase the length of the tooth; Incisor lapping preparation for
veneers should be done.

84) From 28/8 exam: Thumb sucking prevention for children:

• Children before age of 4: Direct intervention is questionable.

• 4-6 years: Negative reinforcers and thumb guards can be used.

• School age: Palatal crib appliance can be used.

85) From 28/8 exam: Metformin can cause metallic taste in the mouth.

8473
 Omar Notes

86) From 29/8 exam: Extracting mandibular 3rd molars with apical pressure may displace the
tooth into the submandibular space. The maxillary molar roots may displace into the
maxillary sinus.

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial book

87) From 29/8 exam: After crown lengthening restoration can be placed from 4-6 weeks. In
questionable teeth it is advised to place a provisional restoration before or after the crown
lengthening and the final restoration after 3 months.

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics book

88) From 29/8 exam: Angular cheilitis is a candida infection caused by C.Albicans or S.aureus.

24921
 Omar Notes

89) From 29/8 exam: For a patient with history of oozing from previous extraction and
petechia, INR test should be taken.

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial book.

90) From 29/8 exam: The amount of GCF is increased by:

91) From 29/8 exam: Ziehl-Neelsen dye is used to detect Tuberculosis.

..‫ ﻻ ﺗﻧﺳوﻧﻲ ﻣن دﻋﺎﺋﻛم‬٨/٣١ ‫إﺧﺗﺑﺎري ﯾوم‬

‫و ﺑ ﺎ ﻟ ﺗ و ﻓ ﯾق ﻟﻛ م ﯾ ﺎر ب‬
@OmarSAlMajed

44442
 Omar Notes

For any questions or

comments: Twitter/Telegram:
@OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 9

September 2021 Exam questions

1) From 1/9 exam: Atraumatic restorative treatment (ART) is used for

conservative management of carious lesions.

Mcdonalds

2) From 1/9 exam: In patients taking aspirin:

• Low dose less than 325 mg per day: No need to discontinue.
• High dose more than 325 mg per day: Drug should be discontinued
7-10 days before procedure with consultation of the physician.

Carranza

3) From 1/9 exam: The bacteria found in endodontic abscess is mixed anaerobic
and aerobic but anaerobic bacteria is the dominant.

Pulp pathway

24986
 Omar Notes

4) From 2/9: Tears to PVS impression can be caused by:

1. Extreme undercuts or black triangles.
2. If material is not fully set.

5) From 2/9 exam: The first sign of chemical burn is white patch and superficial
necrosis.

Cawson’s oral pathology book.

6) From 2/9 exam: A case about Oral submucous fibrosis treatment: The
symptoms in the question were Trismus, patient using smokeless tobacco, and
have fibers in oral mucosa. * The answer in the file is wrong.
Treatment:
• Mild cases: Intralesional corticosteroids.
• Moderate to severe: Surgical splitting or excision of the fibrous bands
followed by physiotherapy.

30426
 Omar Notes

7) From 4/9 exam: Operculectomy treatment:

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial book

8) From 4/9 exam: Patients with Paget’s disease usually complain about ill-fitting
dentures every year because of bone changes.

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book

9) From 4/9 exam: If child fell on his chin the expected bone fracture is the
condyle.

Mcdonalds

47641
 Omar Notes

10) From 4/9 exam: Retention in short abutments can be done by adding buccal
grooves and proximal slots.

11) From 5/9 exam: Location of MB2 canal: Lingual to the main mesiobuccal
canal.

Endodontics Principles book.

12) From 5/9 exam: A case about a patient complaining about pain in a tooth and
all exams and x-rays are normal. But pain is provoked with brushing, touching,
and laying down. Which indicates Trigeminal neuralgia.

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial book

13) From 5/9 exam: A valley like depression (Gingival col):

24666
 Omar Notes

14) From 5/9 exam: Disadvantages of Monolithic zirconia:

From google.

15) From 5/9 exam: Ethics Vs Moral:

16) From 6/9 exam: ISO cutting flutes (working part) of K files is 16 mm.

Cohen’s pulp pathway.

38041
 Omar Notes

17) From 6/9 exam: A case about a patient complaining of popping sound in left
ear.

Oral and maxillofacial pathology

18) From 6/9 exam: Indications and contraindications of Veneers:

19) From 7/9 exam: Leeway space is used to resolve typical levels of teeth
crowding.

20) From 7/9 exam: Parotid gland biopsy is usually done by FNA (Fine needle
aspiration).

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book

34777
 Omar Notes

21) From 8/9 exam: Diagnodent and Fiber optic transillumination: Questions
were about if the device is Quantitative or Qualitative and what it diagnoses.

22) From 8/9 exam: The inner part of the epithelium plays an important role in
Osteblastic cytodiffrenation in relation to basement membrane.

23) From 9/9 exam: Bubbles under a prosthesis indicates looseness of retainer

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics book.

19226
 Omar Notes

24) From 9/9 exam: Picture of Waxing up:

25) From 9/9 exam: Complications of Maryland bridge:

Omar Notes J

26) From 10/9 exam: Difference between Infected and affected dentin:

Infected Affected

2906
 Omar Notes

27) From 10/9 exam: Picture of Lingual Tori:

28) From 10/9 exam: Mucous membrane pemphigoid is usually limited and seen
in the gingiva.

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial book.

29) From 10/9 exam: The distance between the apex and the needle for
irrigation should be 2 mm less than the working length.

51097
 Omar Notes

30) From 11/9 exam: After bleaching composite restorations can be placed at
least after 1 week.

Art and science.

31) From 11/9: A question about a type of anemia associated with dysphagia
and Glossitis:
Iron deficiency anemia in case of Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book. 1

1
120. From 14/4
32) From 11/9: Contact dermatitis is considered as type IV allergy. exam: Plummer-
Vinson syndrome:
Dif culty swallowing,
Glossitis, and
Angular chellitis

31) From 11/9: A

question about a
type of anemia
associated with
dysphagia and
Glossitis:

Iron de ciency ane

4. Cracks in enamel.
16 - Patient 21 years
old who has iron
de ciency anemia,
dif culty in
swallowing, with
examination of
, with examination

10

54489
fi
fi
fi
fi
m
 Omar Notes

33) From 11/9 exam: A question about a patient with a history of MI and he has
painful premolar, pulp extirpation was done, and he is allergic to
acetaminophen, what will you give? Naproxen but for less than a week.
*Answered wrong in the file*

34) From 11/9 exam: From 11/9 exam: Double retraction cord technique
*Question was about the sizes of the cords: The first cord is thin and the second
is larger.

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics.

35) From 11/9 exam: Gingival phenotypes:

• Thinnest: lower anterior.
• Thickest: upper posterior.

36) From 11/9 exam: The clasp that is used in the opposite side of class Kennedy
classification is the Double aker clasp.

11

8218
 Omar Notes

37) From 12/9 exam: Mechanism of action of Tetracycline:

Cohen’s pulp pathway.

38) From 12/9 exam: Mechanism of action of Minocycline:

Carranza

39) From 14/9 exam: Uses of lentulo spiral in endodontics:

• Placement of calcium hydroxide in the canal.
• Sealer placement during obturation.
• Antibiotic placement inside the canal.

12

64089
 Omar Notes

40) From 14/9 exam: A mixed radiolucent and radiopaque lesion:

• Mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesions with well demarcated borders:

• Mixed Radiolucent/Radiopaque Lesions with poorly demarcated borders:

• Mixed Radiolucent/Radiopaque Lesions: Multifocal or Generalized:

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial pathology Book

13

13978
 Omar Notes

41) From 14/9 exam: Taurodontism:

Mcdonalds

42) From 15/9 exam: Charter’s brushing technique is used for orthodontic
patients.

43) From 15/9: Combination of metronidazole and amoxicillin are effective

against Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans .

Carranza

14

8666
 Omar Notes

44) From 18/9 exam: Picture of Unilateral cleft lip and palate:

45) From 18/9 exam: Picture of Distoangular impacted third molar:

46) From 18/9 exam: Polysulfide impression setting time can be accelerated by
increasing the:
• Water.
• Heat.

15

60697
 Omar Notes

47) From 18/9 exam: Principlism is a commonly used ethical approach in

healthcare and biomedical sciences. It emphasizes four key ethical principles of
autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, which are shared by most
ethical theories, and blends these with virtues and practical wisdom.

48) From 19/9 exam: Splints are used for moderate to severe hemophilia
patients who are having multiple extractions.

Little medically compromised patients book.

49) From 19/9 exam: Trigemeinal neuralgia is one of the most common features
of Multiple sclerosis.

Little medically compromised patients book.

50) From 19/9 exam: Bacteria:

• Abscesses: Anaerobic bacteria.

• Cellulitis and odontogenic infections: Mixed.

51) From 19/9 exam: Definition of Ledge:

16

41306
 Omar Notes

52) From 20/9 exam: High rate of fractures at canine region of mandible due to
long canine roots.

Bhatia MCQs for Oral and Maxillofacial surgery book.

53) From 20/9 exam: The local anesthetic that can be toxic is Articaine 4%.

54) From 20/9 exam: Pyogenic granuloma looks like a mushroom.

55) From 20/9 exam: Alkaline hypochlorite denture cleanser can cause bleaching
of denture base during cleaning.

56) From 20/9 exam: Weird cut hair is considered as unprofessional.

17

28057
 Omar Notes

57) From 20/9 exam: Palm and thumb grasp is used for stabilizing instruments
during sharpening.

Carranza

58) From 20/9 exam: The submandibular space infection is usually due to
infection to a molar. A picture was provided also.

Cohen’s pulp pathway.

59) From 20/9 exam:

18

31449
 Omar Notes

• Answered wrong in the file.

• The right answer is Tetracycline.

Mcdonalds

60) From 20/9 exam: As a complication of IANB trainsient facial nerve paralysis
can occur because of injecting too posteriorly into the parotid gland.

Handbook of Local anesthesia.

61) From 21/9 exam: The type of bone between the socket and the jaw is
Compact bone.

Carranza.

62) A case about a 20 years old patient with yellow pitted teeth in her primary
and permanent teeth and she wants a permanent solution:

19

46618
 Omar Notes

• Diagnosis: Amelogenesis imperfecta.

• Treatment: Depends on the severity: Laminate veneers or full coverage

crowns.

Mcdonalds.

63) From 21/9 exam: Functions of Radial land in rotary endodontic system:

• Reduce the tendency of file to thread into canal.

• Limit the depth of the cut and supports the cutting edge.

Cohens pulp pathway

64) From 21/9 exam: A case about a patient with severe chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) and needs RCT what will you do:

20

21593
 Omar Notes

• Semisupine or upright position.

• Avoid rubberdam use in severe disease patients.
• Pulse oximetry during treatment.

Little Dental management of medically compromised patients book.

65) From 21/9 exam: Polishing of amalgam is done after 24 hours from
placement. Nowadays polishing has been replaced by burnishing at time of
placement. But the question was about polishing so 24 hours is the answer.

Art and science.

66) From 21/9 exam: A case about a patient with desquamative gingivitis and
ocular problems with the test for diagnosis? *Question was about the test.

21

41114
 Omar Notes

• Diagnosis: Mucous membrane pemphigoid.

• Test: Direct immunofluorescence or light microscopy.

67) From 21/9 exam: When we increase the fillers in composite what will
increase? Wear resistance.

Phillips science of dental materials book.

(Not a SDLE reference but nothing is found in Art and science book).

68) From 21/9 exam: The resin matrix in composite is Bis-gma (Dimethacralyte).

Phillips science of dental materials book.

69) From 21/9 exam: Adminstration of a vasoconstrictor for a patient taking

Non-selective beta blockers has a great risk of elevated blood pressure.

22

35802
 Omar Notes

Handbook of Local anesthesia.

70) From 21/9 exam: Bonding in deep cavity is more difficult because of the
greater number of tubules and larger diameter of them.

Art and science.

71) From 21/9 exam: For implants and implant restorations plastic or titanium
scalers and curettes are used.

Carranza

72) From 21/9 exam: Submandibular swelling and pain increases while eating
then disappear? Submandibular sialolithiasis.

23

18201
 Omar Notes

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial book

73) From 21/9 exam: Suppuration:

Carranza.

74) From 21/9 exam: The main function of Trays holes is for retention of the
impression material.

24

1881
 Omar Notes

Mccrakcen

75) From 21/9 exam: Microfilled composite particles size: 0.02-0.04.

Mcdonalds

76) From 21/9 exam: Metal thickness can be checked by using Iwanson thickness
gauge.

Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics.

25

52122
 Omar Notes

77) From 21/9 exam: The rate of Rapid palatal expansion is 0.5 mm per day with
2 quarter turn of the screw.

Contemporary Orthodontics book.

78) From 21/9 exam: Enamel components: The question was about the largest
structure: Enamel rods or prisms.

Art and science

79) From 21/9 exam: The antibiotics of choice for sinusitis with oroantral
communication are: Penicillin, clindamycin, and metronidazole.

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial surgery book.

26

57562
 Omar Notes

80) From 22/9 exam: Picture of Ankyloglossia:

Carranza

81) From 23/9 exam: Functions of lysozymes and Bicarbonate in saliva:

• Bicarbonate: Buffering as Antacids.

• Lysozyme: Antibacterial by breaking of bacterial cell walls.

... ‫ ﻣﻦ دﻋﺎﺋ{ﻢ‬su t ‫ﺴﻮ‬q‫ﻢ وﻻ ﺗ‬m‫ﺎﻟﺘﻮﻓﻴﻖ ﻟ‬e‫و‬

@OmarSAlMajed

27

5145
 Omar Notes

For any questions or

comments: Twitter/Telegram:
@OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 10

October – November - December 2021 – January 2022 Exam questions
1) Follow-up appointments:

AlAnoudGZ December 1st part.

2) Aluwax should be immersed for 30 seconds in warm water to use it in lab

mounting.

AlAnoudGZ December 1st part.

3) Patients with periodontitis recall visits should be every 3 months.

Carranza.

59795
 Omar Notes

4) Lateral window sinus lifting technique:

5) Formation of teeth starts at the sixth week of embryonic life.

Mcdonalds

65235
 Omar Notes

6) Questions about Melanotic Macule picture and treatment:

Treatment:

7) Bismuth oxide is added to MTA for Radiopacity.

12820
 Omar Notes

8) The condylar area is the most area prone to fracture in the mandible.

Contemporary Maxillofacial surgery book

10) Acrylic teeth are preferred for complete denture because they are attached
better to denture base when compared to porcelain teeth.

11) Most rigid clasp type material is chromium cobalt (less bulky than gold).

12) A case about a healthy patient with inflamed gums after eating gum and
asking about the reason of inflammation? Allergic reaction.

55379
 Omar Notes

13) A question about the radiograph taken for patient with fascia pressure and
obstructed sensation?

Diagnosis:

Radiograph:

Treatment: * For your knowledge only*

14) The distance between the most apical calculus and the alveolar crest is 1.97
mm whereas the distance from attached plaque is never less than 0.5 and never
more than 2.7 mm.

7316
 Omar Notes

15) Cold glass slab is used for mixing zinc phosphate cement to increase the
working time without increasing the setting time.

16) Pain while probing inflamed tissue is because of the ulceration of the inner
aspect of the pocket wall.

Carranza.

17) Indirect restorations such as (Inlays and Onlays) are the recommended
restorations for class VI in a patient with Bruxism.

4052
 Omar Notes

18) Reed Sternberg cells are found in Hodgkin lymphoma.

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial pathology

19) From 10/1 exam: Herpes labialis is caused by HSV-1.

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial pathology

20) From 10/1 exam: Zinc oxide eugenol is not used as a temporary cement
because it may cause leakage.

Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics

49939
 Omar Notes

21) From 10/1 exam: PFM can be fractured because of insufficient porcelain
thickness.

Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics.

22) The best metal to be used in PFM is Gold-palladium alloy. (Noble metal).

Fundamentals of Fixed prosthodontics.

23) Thixotropic material: a liquid that becomes less viscous and more fluid
under repeated application of pressure. Ex. Prophy paste, plaster of Paris.

24) Cementoenamel junction: the cementum overlaps the enamel.

33619
 Omar Notes

25) A case of a patient did an impression with Polysulfide with custom tray and
felt gag reflex while he doesn’t feel with other impression materials why?
Polysulfide has low viscosity and may flow down the patient throat. Also, the
setting time is very long (12.5 minutes).

26) The best area for cingulum rest is the maxillary canine.

Mccracken.

20372
 Omar Notes

27) U- shaped palate is ideal for complete denture. V-shaped or high vault is the
worst.

Textbook of complete denture.

28) The most common cause of rest seat fracture is when it crosses the marginal
ridge.

McCracken.

10

23764
 Omar Notes

29) A case about a Female patient attended for dental checkup, upon
radiographic examination you noticed multiple radiolucent and radioopaque
lesions in all the four quadrants.

- Diagnosis : Cementoosseuos dysplasia

30) Patient came to the clinic for RCT of tooth #24, patient history revealed
recent Hip replacement, what’s the antibiotic prophylaxis management for the
patient? No need for antibiotic prophylaxis.

ADA

11

38931
 Omar Notes

31) The procedure that includes placing your hand in patient open wounds and
tissue where there is blood, and your hands are not always visible is called an
exposure prone procedure.

32) Enamel hypoplasia is considered as a quantitative defect of enamel

thickness.

33) Smoker (for 30 years) with elevated white lesion with corrugated borders.
Management?
Biopsy if there is increased melanin or surface elevation.

12

29268
 Omar Notes

34) The average width of marginal gingiva is 1 mm.

35) The cervical area of the tooth has high chroma.

36) The five A’s for smoking cessation are?

37) Bleaching can cause mercury releasing out of amalgam restorations.

13

48787
 Omar Notes

38) Electric toothbrushes can help patients with Parkinson’s disease to maintain
their oral hygiene.

39) Syphilis is caused by T.Pallidum.

Burkitts Oral Medicine Book.

40) Balanced occlusion is preferable in complete denture because it provides

stability to the denture.

41) ACE Inhibitors may cause enlarged lips in hypertensive patients.

Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

14

43475
 Omar Notes

42) Multirooted teeth are more favorable to be used as an abutment for FPD.

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics book.

43) Working positions:

44) Patient came to the clinic for RCT of tooth #24, patient history revealed recent
Hip replacement, what’s the antibiotic prophylaxis management for the patient?
No prophylaxis needed.

15

25876
 Omar Notes

45) From 12/1/2022 Exam: Space maintainers:

A) Band and Loop: B) Distal shoe appliance:

C) Lower lingual holding arch: D) Nance Appliance:

E) Transpalatal Arch Appliance:

16

10579
 Omar Notes

46) From 12/1/2022 exam: The duration of washing hands with antiseptic soap:

Manual of Infection Prevention & Control in Dental Settings - MOH

47) From 12/1/2022 exam: Paul-Bunnell Test is the test for Infectious
Mononucleosis caused by EBV.

Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

48) From 13/1 exam: The best investment material for FPD Crowns is Phosphate-
bonded because of its high strength.

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics.

49) From 13/1 exam: What will happen if you add violet stain to yellow crown?
Value and chroma will be decreased.

Contemporary fixed prosthodontics.

17

58772
 Omar Notes

50) From 13/1 exam: Hypoglycemia signs:

51) TNF-Alpha increases insulin resistance.

52) The primer increases surface energy of the dentin.

Art and science.

53) The orthodontic instruments are sterilized by using Dry heat.

54) The materials of choice for perforation repair is Bioceramics (MTA).

* (sometimes they don’t mention MTA in the answers).

18

62164
 Omar Notes

55) From 13/1 exam:

56) Small painful growing mass in the palate with perineural invasion?

Adenoid Cystic carcinoma

57) From 13/1 exam: Patients with COPD should be positioned at Semi-supine or
upright position.

58) The position of the loop in the Band and loop appliance:

Mcdonalds.

19

15891
 Omar Notes

59) For patients with Beta lactamase resistance we use Amoxicillin + clavulanic
acid (Augmentin).

‫ﺴﻮﻧﺎ ﻣﻦ دﻋﺎﺋ•ﻢ‬w‫ﺎرب وﻻ ﺗ‬r ‫ﻢ‬p‫ﺎﻟﺘﻮﻓﻴﻖ ﻟ‬h‫و‬

SDLE WARRIORS ‫ﺪورة‬Ü ‫اك‬ÇÉ‫وﻟﻺﺷ‬

‫ﺣﻨﺎ ﻓﻴﻬﺎ‬åç äã‫واﻟ‬

‫ وﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ اﻷﺧﻄﺎء ﻓﻴﻬﺎ‬Omar SDLE Notes 1-9 ‫ ﻣﻠﻔﺎت‬.1

Endodontics review .2
New periodontal classification .3
Removable prosthodontics Review .4
Endodontic Mishaps .5
Clasp types and designs.6
Oral Medicine Review .7
Implantology Review .8
Orthodontics Review .9
Complete Denture review .10
Dose calculation .11
Oral pathology review .12
´
‫ﺎ‬ú™©‫ﻘﺔ ﺗﻘ‬ß‫ دﻗ‬٤٥-٣٠ ‫ﻞ ﻣﻘﻄﻊ ﻣﻦ‬° ‫ ﻣﻘﻄﻊ‬٢٣ ‫ﺎرة ﻋﻦ‬ú‫ ﻋ‬õ
ã ‫و‬
ä‫ ﻋ‬-
ã ‫اﻟﺘﻮاﺻﻞ ﻣ‬
Telegram/Twitter: @OmarSAlMajed

20

56404
 Omar Notes

For any questions or

comments: Twitter/Telegram:
@OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 11

December 2021 (AlanoudGZ, AlAssaf files) –
January 2022 Exam questions

1) Metallic oxide paste impression material is used in a custom tray.

Mccracken.

2) From 15/1 exam: A case about a patient with recurrence of vesicles on her lips
after sun exposure: Herpes labialis

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

13831
 Omar Notes

3) From 15/1 exam: The appropriate management of Sickle cell patients for
Major surgery is to give Prophylactic Antibiotics and Consult the patient
physician.

Little Medically compromised book.

4) From 16/1 exam: Periotron is an electronic device to measure the amount of

GCF.

Carranza

8903
 Omar Notes

5) From 16/1 exam: Accessory canals are found in 74% of the cases in the apical
third of the root.

Cohen’s

6) From 19/1 exam: Epithelioid granuloma is a classic feature of Crohn’s disease.

Little and Falace’s Book.

7) From 19/1 exam: Double papilla preservation flap picture:

8) From 19/1 exam: Betel quid use is associated with Oral submucous fibrosis.

61064
 Omar Notes

9) From 19/1 exam: Patients with liver cirrhosis because of Alcoholism drugs
doses should be adjusted (half the regular adult dose) and some drugs are
contraindicated.

Little and Falace’s book.

10) From 20/1 exam: Acetaminophen is the drug of choice for pain from
orthodontic treatment.

Contemporary Orthodontics.

3143
 Omar Notes

11) From December exams: Hashimoto thyroiditis:

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

12) From December exams: Which denture should be relined first if maxillary
and mandibular dentures should be relined? Maxillary then mandibular.

Textbook of Complete Dentures.

13) From December exams: The Least intensity for QTH light cure is 300 mW/cm2

Art and Science.

51464
 Omar Notes

14) From December exams: Fibroblasts are the most common cell types in the
Pulp.

Endodontics principles.
15) From December exams: Tissue stops: Parts of minor connectors designed for
retention of acrylic base.

Mccraken.

16) From 23/1 exam: X-ray for a multilocular lesion scalloping between roots:
Ameloblastoma.

Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book

54216
 Omar Notes

17) From 23/1 exam: Squamous cell carcinoma in the tongue treatment:

Contemporary oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

18) From 23/1 exam: If monomer is increased in acrylic denture shrinkage will
happen.

19) From 25/1: PVS (PUTTY) impression polymerization is retarded while mixing
it with latex gloves because of the sulfur derivatives in the latex.

Fundamentals of Fixed prosthodontics.

20) From 25/1 exam: Complains about phonetics:

Google.

8071
 Omar Notes

21) From December exams: Adverse effects of long use of Corticosteroids:

Maxillofacial pathology book.

22) From December exams: Lead poisoning picture:

Maxillofacial pathology book.

23) From December exams: Posts after RCT are inserted gently without pressure.

Contemporary Fixed prosthodontics book.

24) From December exams:

Alassaf notes 7

24391
 Omar Notes

25) From December exams: A case of HIV patient with bilateral white lesion in
both sides of the tongue and what is the management?
• Diagnosis: Oral hairy leukoplakia.
• Management: Reassurance and no treatment is needed.

Maxillofacial pathology book.

Alassaf notes 7.

26) From December exams: Most common cancers in the oral cavity:
• Tongue
• Floor of the mouth.

Maxillofacial pathology book.

27) From December exams: The most common area for amalgam fracture is the
isthmus of the restoration.

Art and science book.

28) From December exams: Osteophytes are found in which disease?

37896
 Omar Notes

29) From December exams: Function of Implant analog:

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

30) From December exams: Infrabony pocket:

Carranza

31) From December exams: Peripheral giant cell granuloma:

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

10

35016
 Omar Notes

32) From 8/1 exam: A case about a child with extracted deciduous teeth except
lower incisors and a molar which space maintainer can be used? Lingual holding
arch appliance.

33) From 8/1 exam: Patients with renal failure halitosis is because the
accumulation of Dimethyl sulfide.

Carranza.

34) From 9/1 exam: The transfer/closed tray impression technique is used for
upper anterior implants.

Alassaf Notes- Carranza.

11

19591
 Omar Notes

35) From 11/1 exam: Moist heat is the best sterilization method.

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial book.

36) From 15/1 exam: When to use incisional and excisional biopsies:

• If the lesion is <1 cm excisional biopsy is used.

•

• If the lesion is >1 cm incisional biopsy is used.

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial surgery book.

37) From 16/1 exam: Demineralization of enamel occurs at PH range 5 to 5.5.

Art and Science restorative dentistry book.

12

44616
 Omar Notes

38) From 19/1 exam: A case about a patient with bilateral white striae in the
buccal mucosa and asking about the diagnosis?

• Reticular lichen planus.

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

39) From 19/1 exam: Quad helix appliance is considered as tooth borne with
slow palatal expansion.

Mcdonalds

13

25351
 Omar Notes

40) From 19/1 exam: Heavy continuous force from orthodontic treatment can
cause undermining resorption of alveolar bone.

Contemporary Orthodontics.

41)

Alassaf notes.

14

30151
 Omar Notes

42) From 20/1 exam: A case about an old patient with Leukoplakia and asking
about the management? Biopsy

Oral and Maxillofacial pathology Book

43) From 25/1 exam: Pediatric patient felt light headed and nausea after
finishing nitrous oxide what is the cause? Diffusion Hypoxia.

Mcdonalds.

15

47496
 Omar Notes

44) From 25/1 exam: Calcitonin is responsible for calcium regulation.

Little medically compromised book.

45) From 26/1 exam: Giant cell arteritis:

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

46) From 27/1 exam: The type of headache that is relieved by giving the patient
oxygen is Cluster headache.

Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

16

62791
 Omar Notes

47) From 26/1 exam: Space infections:

Alassaf notes 9

48) From 26/1 exam: O’Leary index by using disclosing agent to examine the
presence of plaque.

Carranza

49) From 26/1 exam: The lower anterior teeth are protected from Rampant
caries (ECC) by the tongue.

Mcdonalds.

50) From 26/1 exam: Desquamative gingivitis is associated with which diseases?

Carranza.

17

14856
 Omar Notes

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‫ﺪورة‬Ä ‫وﻟﻺﺷ}|اك‬

SDLE WARRIORS

:‫ﺎت اﻟﻤﺴﺠﻠﺔ‬é‫ﺪﻳﻮ‬å‫ﺎﻟﻔ‬Ä ‫ اﻟﺪورة‬âÑ ä ‫ﺣﻨﺎ‬ÖÜ ÉÑ‫واﻟ‬

‫ وﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ اﻷﺧﻄﺎء ﻓﻴﻬﺎ‬Omar SDLE Notes 1-9 ‫ ﻣﻠﻔﺎت‬.1

Endodontics review .2
New periodontal classification .3
Removable prosthodontics Review .4
Endodontic Mishaps .5
Clasp types and designs.6
Oral Medicine Review .7
Implantology Review .8
Orthodontics Review .9
Complete Denture review .10
Dose calculation .11
Oral pathology review .12

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Ñ ‫و‬
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Omar notes 10-11

°
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Ñ ‫اﻟﺘﻮاﺻﻞ ﻣ‬
Telegram/Twitter: @OmarSAlMajed

18

11976
 Omar Notes

For any questions or

comments: Twitter/Telegram:
@OMARSALMAJED

Omar Al-Majed SDLE Notes Part 12

January/February 2022 Exam questions

1) Metronidazole is avoided in alcoholic patients because it may produce severe

disulfiram reactions (vomiting and abdominal cramping).

Little medically compromised patients book.

2) From 6/2 exam: Dry heat temperature and time in F:

3) From 6/2 exam: Occlusal rest fracture cause?

Mccracken.

65629
 Omar Notes

4)From 6/2 exam: Dry socket treatment:

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial surgery book.

5) From 6/2 exam: Splinting of Horizontal mid root fracture (the answers were in
week) ? 8-12 weeks.

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial surgery book.

6) From 6/2 exam: Chronic sinusitis:

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial surgery book.

60189
 Omar Notes

7) From 6/2 exam: Nodules in the cast?

Complete denture Textbook.

8) From 6/2 exam: Most common or best amalgam pin: Threaded.

Art and science.

10206
 Omar Notes

9) From 7/2 exam: A case about a patient that came after 3 months from finishing
orthodontic treatment with lingual arch retainer from canine to canine it is loose
and bended what is the management?

- The retainer should stay for life so the answer should be that the patient
should go back to the orthodontist to place a new retainer.
-

Contemporary Orthodontics.

10) From 7/2 exam: Sulfur granules are found in Actinomycosis.

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

11) From 7/2 exam: How to estimate bone loss from X-ray?

- Bite wing.

Carranza

49565
 Omar Notes

12) From 7/2 exam: Ectodermal dysplasia:

Contemporary Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

13) From 7/2 exam: For instruments sterilized by Type B autoclave instruments
can be stored for 30 days.

Google.

3422
 Omar Notes

14) From 7/2 exam: Patient complains about pain after amalgam what is the
cause?

Art and science.

15) From 7/2 exam: Most common lower lip tumor is mucoepidermoid
carcinoma.

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

16) From 7/2 exam: Frankl III effect:

Contemporary Orthodontics.

17) From 8/2 exam: Which gypsum type is used with cast to design RPD?
- Type 3.

6686
 Omar Notes

18) From 8/2 exam: Dehiscence and fenestration Definitions:

Carranza.

19) From 8/2 exam: Apical constriction is the narrowest diameter in the canal.

Cohen’s pulp pathway.

20) From 8/2 exam: Indomethacin (NSAID) is the drug of choice for treatment of
paroxysmal hemicrania.

Burkets Oral medicine.

55005
 Omar Notes

21) From 8/2 exam: Scalloped border above inferior alveolar canal between
roots of mandibular molars this lesion is?

Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

22) From 8/2 exam: There are 5 pharyngeal (branchial) arches.

38557
 Omar Notes

23) From 8/2 exam: Best stress transfer under amalgam restoration is when
placed on sound dentin.

Art and science.

24) From 8/2 exam: Acyclovir dose for treatment of Herpes:

- The choice was Acyclovir 200 mg five times a day.

Medically compromised patients book

25) From 8/2 exam: Hypercementosis is found in Paget disease patients.

Oral and Maxillofacial pathology book.

23134
 Omar Notes

26) From 8/2 exam: The daily dose of corticosteroid for pemphigus vulgaris:

- 1-2 mg/kg/day.

Burket’s Oral medicine.

27) From 8/2 exam: The sulfur in latex gloves inhibit polymerization of Putty
(addition silicone) impression material.

Mccracken.

28) From 8/2 exam: Perineural invasion and swiss cheese appearance are found
in Adenoid cystic carcinoma.

Oral and maxillofacial pathology book.

29) From 8/2 exam: D0 and file 30 and taper 0.06?

- File 30/100= 0.3 + (0*0.06) = 0.3

30) From 8/2 exam: Carrier based techniques:

Cohen’s

10

19742
 Omar Notes

‫ﻢ‬w‫ﺴﻮﻧﺎ ﻣﻦ دﻋﺎﺋ‬o‫ﺎرب وﻻ ﺗ‬j ‫ﻢ‬h‫و`ﺎﻟﺘﻮﻓﻴﻖ ﻟ‬

‫اك ~ﺪورة‬z{‫وﻟﻺﺷ‬

SDLE WARRIORS

:‫ﺎت اﻟﻤﺴﺠﻠﺔ‬å‫ﺪﻳﻮ‬ä‫ اﻟﺪورة ~ﺎﻟﻔ‬áÇ à ‫ﺣﻨﺎ‬ÉÑ ÅÇ‫واﻟ‬

‫ وﺗﺼﺤﻴﺢ اﻷﺧﻄﺎء ﻓﻴﻬﺎ‬Omar SDLE Notes 1-9 ‫ ﻣﻠﻔﺎت‬.1

Endodontics review .2
New periodontal classification .3
Removable prosthodontics Review .4
Endodontic Mishaps .5
Clasp types and designs.6
Oral Medicine Review .7
Implantology Review .8
Orthodontics Review .9
Complete Denture review .10
Dose calculation .11
Oral pathology review .12

¨
‫ﺎ‬ü´™‫ﻘﺔ ﺗﻘ‬ä‫ دﻗ‬٤٥-٣٠ ‫ ﻣﻘﻄﻊ §ﻞ ﻣﻘﻄﻊ ﻣﻦ‬٢٣ ‫ﺎرة ﻋﻦ‬ü‫ ﻋ‬û
Ç ‫و‬
‫ح‬ÉÑ ‫ﺘﻢ‬-`‫و‬

Omar notes 10-11

¨
³ ‫ذن‬°‫ﺎ ﺑ‬ü´™‫ﻗ‬

Å‫ ﻋ‬µ
Ç ‫اﻟﺘﻮاﺻﻞ ﻣ‬
Telegram/Twitter: @OmarSAlMajed

11

33245