JUDICIAL PRELIMINARY EXAM (2009)

1. According to sec. 2(b) of Cr.P.C, 1973, Charge includes -

(a) Heading of Charge
(b) Any head of charge when the charge contains head
(c) Any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than
one
(d) All the above
2. As per the Amendment Act, 2008 of Cr.P.C, the new definition that was
inserted under Sec. 2(wa) is -
(a) Audio-Video Electronic means
(b) Victim
(c) Victim Compensation
(d) Victim Compensation Scheme
3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -
(a) Examination-in-chief
(b) Cross Examination
(c) Re-examination
(d) Oral Examination
4. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in
connection with other facts they make the existence of any fact in issue
or relevant fact highly probable or improbable is relevant under
(a) Sec. 9 of Evidence Act
(b) Sec. 10 of Evidence Act
(c) Sec. 11 of Evidence Act
(d) Sec. 12 of Evidence Act
5. State the correct sequence:
(a) Issue, Trial, Arguments, Pleadings, Decree, Judgement
(b) Pleadings, Trial, Issues, Arguments, Decree, Judgement
(c) Pleadings, Issues, Arguments, Trial, Judgement Decree
(d) Pleadings, Issues, Trial Arguments, Judgement, Decree
6. During the pendency of a suit relating to a house, the defendant is
about to leave the local limits of the Court with an intension to delay
the suit. The plaintiff files an application under Order 38-Rule 1 for the
arrest of the defendant. Now the defendant
a. Cannot be arrested
b. Can be arrested
7. When the immovable property of one person is, by the act of parties or
operation of law, made security for the payment of money to another,
such transaction is - (a) Pledge
(b) Accession
(c) Mortgage
(d) Charge
8. A gift made in expectation of death is known as -
(a) Universal Gift
(b) Onerous Gift
(c) Resumable Gift
(d) Donatio mortis causa
9. A Contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to
such contract does not happen, is known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement
(b) Quasi Contract
(c) Contingent Contract
(d) Impossible Contract
 10. An agreement where the parties express opposite views
regarding an uncertain event and which results into a gain to one
person at the loss of another person, is known as a. Wagering
Agreement
b. Contingent Contract
c. Continuing Agreement
d. Standing form Contract
11. When an instrument in writing does not express the real intention
of the parties due to fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, a suit can
be instituted for -
a. Cancellation of Instrument
b. Rectification of Instrument
c. Declaration of Instrument
d. Rescission of Contract
12. What is the time limit to institute a suit for recovery of the
property on the basis of dispossession under the provisions of C.P.C.
when the plaintiff was disposed of a house by the defendant?
(a) 60 days from the date of dispossession
(b) 6 months from the date of dispossession
(c) 6 years from the date of dispossession
(e) None of the above
13. The involvement of Five or more persons is essential for the
offence of .. (a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) robbery
(d) Dacoity
14. Three persons A, B & C went to a Bank. A stood outside the bank
holding a revolver with him and watching at the road. B & C entered
the bank and asked the Cashier by showing revolvers at him, to
handover the cash to them. On the refusal to do so, C shot at the
Cashier and took away money from Counter. Now
(a) C is liable for the murder and A & B are liable for abetment.
(b) B & C are liable for murder and A is liable for abetment.
(c) A, B & C are liable for murder.
(d) None of them is liable because it is not a murder but only
culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
15. Sans recourse indorsement means -
(a) Indorsement with limited liability.
(b) Indorsement without liability.
(c) Indorsement with absolute liability.
(d) Indorsement with conditional liability
16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.
(a) Imprisonment upto 2 years or with fine which may extend to
twice the amount of cheque or with both.
(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and with fine which may extend to
twice the amount of cheque.
(c) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years and fine of 10,000.
(d) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years or fine of 10,000 - or with
both.
17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -
(a) 1 year
(b) 3 years
(c) 12 years
(d) None of the above.
18. What is true with regard to application of the Limitation Act,
1963?
(i) It has no application to Sec. 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(ii) This Act shall not apply to any suit or other proceeding relating to
marriage and divorce.
(iii) Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or
application a period of limitation different from the period prescribed by the
schedule, the provisions of Sec. 3 shall apply as if such period where the
period prescribed by the schedule.
(iv) The provisions of Section 4 to 24 shall apply, unless expressly barred
by special or local law.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct.
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
19. An easement right is a right-
(a) in rem
(b) in personam
20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?
(a) Easement by law
(b) Easement by grant
(c) Easement by prescription
(d) Easement by necessity
21. Whether Principle of res judicata applies to claim petitions under
Order 21, Rule 58? (a) No (b) Yes
22. X files a suit against Y and when the suit is called on for hearing
neither party appeared in the Court. The Court dismissed the suit under
Order 9, Rule 3 thereafter X may - (a) File a fresh suit, subject to the
law of limitation
(b) Apply to the Court for restoring the suit by showing or
sufficient cause. (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
23. Every Police Officer making an investigation shall enter day to
day proceeding for a case in a Diary Called
(a) General Diary
(b) Special diary
(c) Duty Diary
(d) Case Diary
24. Mr. Kumar voluntarily causes hurt to Gowtham. Gowtham goes to
Police Station to lodge F.I.R. The concerned Police Officer refuses to
record the F.I.R. whether the act of the Police Officer is valid?
(a) No
(b) Yes
25. Khan commits an offence of grievous hurt in Hyderabad.
However, he makes a confession before the Judicial Magistrate at
Adilabad, who has no power to try the case. Whether the confession
recorded, after following the procedure, by the Magistrate is valid? a.
No
b. Yes
26. The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -
(a) Courts
(b) Executive Authority
(c) Quasi-Judicial Tribunals
(d) none of the above
27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with
(a) Bar of Limitation.
(b) Extension of prescribed period in certain cases.
(c) Doctrine of Legal Disability.
(d) None of the above.
28. The provision of improvements made by bona fide holders under
defective title is dealt in (a) Sec. 50 of T.P. Act
 (b) Sec. 51 of T.P. Act
(c) Sec. 53 of T.P. Act
(d) None of the above
29. Of the following which is misfit matching:
(a) Sec. 81 of T.P. Act – Marshalling Securities.
(b) b) Sec. 82 of T.P. Act - Doctrine of Contribution.
(c) c) Sec. 92 of T.P. Act. - Doctrine of Subrogation.
(d) d) Sec. 93 of T.P. Act - Charge.
30. According to Section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is
(a) valid subject to certain conditions
(b) absolutely valid
(c) voidable
(d) None of the above
31. Of the following which is a misfit matching
(a) Agreement to supply goods from time to time-Continuing Offer
(b) Responsibility of Finder of Lost goods - Agent
(c) Betting Agreement Wagering Agreement.
(d) An agreement to pay 100/-, if it rains on Sunday - Contingent
Contract
32. A Contract by which one party promises to save the other from
loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the
conduct of any other person, is called (a) Contract of Guarantee
(b) Contract of Insurance
(c) Contract of Bailment
(d) Contract of Indemnity
33. According to Section 69 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an
unregistered firm can file a suit against an outsider for recovery of an
amount not exceeding 100/-
(a) Yes
(b) No
34. An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal
(a) Yes
(b) No
35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor
(a) No
(b) Yes
36. As per Sec. 3 of Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes
(a) Physical Facts
(b) Psychological Facts.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) or nor (b)
37. Can an evidence obtained by committing the offence of theft be
admitted in a case of criminal nature?
(a) Yes
(b) No
38. A tape record of speech is
(a) Documentary Evidence
(b) Oral Evidence
39. Mr. Lallu, an accused writes a letter, in his own handwriting with
his signature, addressing a Police Officer that he murdered his wife. The
letter was found near the dead body of his wife. Is the confession made
by Lallu in the letter admissible in evidence against him? (a) Yes, the
letter is relevant
(b) No, it is not relevant
40. Mr. Bhallu is accused of a Murder. The police have produced an
axe from a place and he said that it was the weapon with which the
deceased was killed. Whether this statement made by him is relevant
under Sec. 27 of Evidence Act?
 a) Yes, it is relevant to the extent of axe.
b) No, it is not relevant as Sec. 27 is not applicable to the present case.
41. Mr. Varlu fires at Venkat with an intention to kill him. Venkat
sustains serious injuries. He lodges a F.I.R. against Varlu and
subsequently, Venkat dies due to injuries. Whether this F.I.R. can be
treated as dying declaration.
a) Yes, the F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
b) No. it is not a statement made by him regarding his death.
42. How many witnesses are required to prove a Criminal case
beyond all reasonable doubts? a) minimum Two
b) minimum Three
c) minimum four
d) None of the above
43. Any Question suggesting the answer which the person putting it
wishes or expects to receive' is called,
a) Patent Question
b) Latent Question
c) Leading Question
d) Misleading Question
44. As per Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence can be adduced
relating to a:- a) Fact in issue
b) relevant fact
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (6)
45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means
a) Documentary Evidence
b) Occular Evidence
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both (a) & (b)
46. As per Sec. 167(5) Cr.P.C.a Magistrate can pass an order of
stopping further investigation and discharge the accused, in a
summons case, if the investigation is not completed within a period of
months from the date on which the accused was arrested.
a) 2 Months
b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months
d) None of these
47. As per Sec. 357-A of Cr. P.C (Amendment Act, 2008) Who is the
authority to decide the Quantum of Compensation payable to the
victim?
a) The Trial Court
b) The Sessions Court
c) The High Court
d) The District or State Legal Service Authority
48. What is true with regard to plea bargaining?
a) It has application where offence attracts imprisonment
exceeding 7years b) It is applicable where the offence
affect Socio-economic Conditions of the Country
c) Plea bargaining will not be allowed where the offence has been
committed against a Woman, or a Child below where the offence
d) All the above
49. Whenever a case is tried summarily, the sentence of
imprisonment shall not exceed a) 2 Months
b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months
d) None of these
50. A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of 1 Class with, and
convicted by him of, robbing D, A, B & C were afterwards charged with
 and tried for decoity on the same facts. Now - a) They can take
protection under Sec. 300 Cr. PC
b) They cannot take protection under Sec. 300 Cr.PC
51. A and B are the joint owners of a horse. A takes the horse of B's
possession intending to use it. However, A sells the horse and
appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. Now A is guilty of
a) No offence
b) Criminal Breach of Trust
c) Mischief
d) Dishonest Misappropriation
52. A & B are the Joint Owners of a horse A Shoots intending thereby
to cause wrongful loss to B now A is guilty of -
a) No offence
b) Mischief
c) Criminal Breach of Trust
d) Criminal Misappropriation
53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -
a) Medical Insanity
b) Legal Insanity
c) Both Medical and Legal Insanity
d) None of the above
54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C. can be constituted
a) Instigation
b) Conspiracy
c) Intentional Aid
d) All the above
55. Rama, an Officer of a Court of Justice, was ordered by the Court
arrest Raheem, after due enquiry believing Raheemuddin to be
Raheem, Rama arrest Raheemuddin. Rama is exempt from Criminal
Liability under
a) Sec.76 I.P.C.
b) Sec. 78 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 79 I.P.C.
d) None of the above
56. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb
the public tranquility, they are said to commit the offence of
a) Affray
b) Rioting
c) Nuisance
d) All the above
57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.
a) Creates a substantive offence
b) is a rule of evidence
58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under
a) grave and sudden provocation
b) Self- intoxication
c) irresistable impulse
d) All the above
59. For a unlawful assembly under sec. 141 I.P.C the minimum
number of persons required is a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
60. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or, giving false
information to screen to screen offender, is an offence under
a) Sec. 200 I.P.C.
b) Sec. 201 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 202 I.P.C.
 d) Sec. 203.I.P.C.
61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?
a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine
b) Imprisonment of not less than 3 years and fine
c) Imprisonment 3years or fine
d) Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine or with both
62. Can there be more than one preliminary decree and one final
decree? a) Yes b) No
63. Whether Doctrine of legal disability applies to Pre-emption Suits?
a) Yes
b) No
64. Whether an interpleader' suit can be instituted by the agent
against principal? a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes, when a third party claims right through principal
65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?
a) No
b) Yes
66. When a material proposition of fact of law is affirmed by one
party and denied by the other, it is known as
a) An assertion
b) An allegation
c) An admission
d) An issue
67. Mr. Vinod of Adilabad makes a proposal to sell his house, situated
in Vikarabad, to Vikram of Nizamabad. In the sale agreement they
provide a clause stating that all disputes arising out of the transactions
are to be decided by the Court of Nizamabad. Thereafter when a
dispute arises Vikram must file a suit.
a) In the Court of Adilabad
b) In the Court of Nizamabad
c) In the Court of Vikarabad
d) All the above
68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
d) None of the above
69. According to Order VI C.P.C. 'pleading shall mean
a) Plaint
b) Written Statement
c) Plaint and Written Statement
d) Plaint or Written Statement
70. Under Sec. 167 Cr. P.C, the nature of custody can be changed
from judicial custody to police custody
a) During the period of first 14 days
b) During the period of first 15 days
c) During the period of first 30 days
d) Name of the above
71. If a Plaintiff fails to sue for the whole of the claim which he is
entitled to make in respect of a cause of action in the first suit then he
is precluded from suing again respect of portion so omitted, by virtue of
a) Sec. 11 of C.P.C.
b) Explanation IV of Sec. II
c) Order II, Rule 2
d) Order II, Rule 3
72. A suit for possession of immovable property on the basis of
previous possession and not on the basis of title can be filed under Sec.
 6 of S.R. Act, 1963
a) Within 3 months of dispossession
b) Within 6 months of dispossession
c) Within 1 year of dispossession
d) Within 6 years of dispossession
73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co-accused
a) If they are tried for different offences but jointly
b) If they are tried for same offences but jointly
c) If they are tried for same offences but not jointly
d) If they are tired for different offences but not jointly
74. In execution of a money decree for 2,000/- the Civil Prison shall
be
a) Not exceeding 6 weeks
b) Not exceeding 3 months
c) Not exceeding 6 months
d) None of the above
75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters
(Competency) can be raised before the supreme court without being in
the trial court or first appellate court? a) No
b) Yes
76. In connection with Commercial transactions what should be the
rate of interest from the date of decree to the date of payment?
a) Not exceeding 6%
b) Exceeding 6% but not exceeding Contractual rate if any
c) Not exceeding the Contractual rate and in the absence
of it the rate at which moneys are lent by nationalised
banks in relation to commercial
transaction.
d) Not exceeding 18%
77. The amount of Compensatory Costs under Sec. 35-A, C.P.C. shall
not exceed a) 1000/-
b) 3000/-
c) 5,000/-
d) No such limit
78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a
Decree
a) Money
b) Hundies
c) Books of Accounts
d) Bank Notes
79. When a Plaint is rejected by the Court under Order VII, Rule 11,
the plaintiff can a) Prefer an appeal b) Present a fresh plaint in respect
of the same cause of action c) Both (a) and (b) d) Nether (a) nor (b)
80. When Commission is issued under 18, Rule 4 for examination of
witness, within what period the Commissioner shall submit his report?
a) Within 30 days
b) Within 60 days
c) Within 60 days or within the extended period
d) No such time limit
81. When an application is made by the J.dr, after the decree is
passed, for payment of decretal amount in installment for the order of
installment payment whether Court should take the Consent of the
D.hr?
a) Yes
b) No
82. Whether the purchaser of a Property in execution sale can make
an application for set aside the sale on the ground that the J.dr had no
saleable interest in the property sold? a) Yes, he can make application
 under Order 21- Rule 89
b) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 90
c) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 91
d) No, as he is purchase he cannot get the sale set aside
83. When the next friend or guardian of a minor wants to enter into
any agreement or Compromise on behalf of the minor, whether the
leave of the Court is mandatory? a) No
b) Yes
84. When an ad interim injunction is Granted by the Court within
what period the application shall be disposed of?
a) within 30 days from the date of injunction
b) within 3 months from the date of injunction
c) within 1 Year from the injunction
d) No such time is prescribed.
85. Under which provision of law, the Appellate Court can adduce the
additional evidence? a) Under Order 41, Rule 23
b) Under Order 41, Rule 25
c) Under Order 41, Rule 27
d) Under Order 41, Rule 29
86. of the following which are compulsorily attestable documents?
a) Sale deed and Mortgage deed
b) Mortgage deed and Lease deed
c) Gift deed and Lease deed
d) Mortgage deed and Gift deed
87. In case of a transfer hit by "Doctrine of lis pendens' the question
of good faith of the a) Relevant
b) Irrelevant
88. If case of Gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then the gift
is
a) Valid
b) Void
c) Reduced
d) Court has to decide
89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?
a) A Woman
b) A Magistrate while going to and coming from the Court
or in the Court c) An Advocate while going to and coming
from the Court or in the Court d) All the above
90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963
operates a) Jus in rem b) Jus in personam
91. Whether an injunction can be granted in a case where for the
breach of the Contract Specific performance cannot be granted?
a) No b) Yes
92. According to Sec.5 of the T.P.Act, 1882- living person includes a
Company or Association or Body of individuals -
a) Which is incorporated
b) Whether incorporated or not
93. According to Sec.6(e) of the T.P.Act, Right to sue for a certain
sum of money. a) Is not transferable
b) Is transferable
94. In a contract of sale of goods, a stipulation essential to the main
purpose of the Contract is known as - a) Warranty b) Guarantee c)
Clog d) Condition
95. As per Sec.34 of A.P. Tenancy (Telangana Area) Act, 1950,
Protected tenant means a person who has the land continuously for a
period not less than -
a) 5 Years
b) 6 Years
 c) 7 Years
d) 8 Years
96. Under A.P. Escheats and Bona Vacantia Act, 1974, bona vacantia
applies to the property - a) For which there is no rightful owner
b) For which the owner dies intestate (without legal heirs)
97. Which section of the A.P.Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction)
Control Act, 1960 provides the grounds for eviction of a tenant?
a) Sec.8
b) Sec.9
c) Sec.10
d) Sec.11
98. According to which section of A.P. Gaming Act, 1974'Game of
Skill' is not an offence under the Act?
a) Sec.12
b) Sec.13
c) Sec.14
d) Sec.15
99. A.P. Pawn Brokers Act, 2002 carrying on Pawn Broking business
without licence is an offence punishable for -
a) Imprisonment for not less than 1 Year and upto 3
years and fine upto 50,000-
b) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
c) imprisonment upto 3 Years or fine upto 50,000/- or with both
d) Imprisonment upto 1 Year and fine upto 50,000/-
100. According to Sec. 4 of A.P. Prohibition of Ragging Act, 1997 if a
person causes ragging or abets, ragging which causes the death, he
shall be punished with - a) Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto
50,000/-
b) Imprisonment of life and fine upto 50,000/-
c) Imprisonment upto 7 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
d) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
SOLUTIONS
1 C 41 A 81 A

2 B 42 D 82 C

3 B 43 C 83 B

4 C 44 C 84 A

5 D 45 D 85 C

6 A 46 C 86 D

7 D 47 D 87 B

8 D 48 D 88 B

9 C 49 B 89 D

10 A 50 B 90 B

11 B 51 D 91 A

12 D 52 B 92 B

13 D 53 B 93 B

14 C 54 D 94 D

15 B 55 A 95 B

16 A 56 A 96 A
 17 D 57 B 97 C

18 D 58 A 98 D

19 B 59 C 99 A

20 A 60 B 100 A

21 B 61 D

22 C 62 A

23 D 63 B

24 A 64 C

25 B 65 B

26 A 66 D

27 B 67 C

28 B 68 D

29 D 69 D

30 D 70 B

31 B 71 C

32 D 72 B

33 B 73 B

34 B 74 D

35 A 75 B

36 C 76 C

37 A 77 B

38 A 78 C

39 A 79 C

40 B 80 C

JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGES MODEL EXAM – 2012

HIGH COURT OF A.P STATE, HYDERABAD
TIME : 2HRS DATE : 29/04/2012 MARKS : 100
1. Where a certified copy of a decree of any of the superior Courts of any
reciprocating territory has been filed in a District Court, the decree
may be executed in India as if it has been passed by the District Court.
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
2. Where a judgment-debtor has been committed to the civil prison, he
may be released therefrom:
a. By the State Government on the ground of the existence of any
infectious disease
b. By the committing Court or any Court to which that Court is
subordinate on ground of serious illness
c. By the State Government on the ground of the existence of any
contagious disease
d. All the above
3. A suit to obtain an urgent or immediate relief against the Government
or any Public Officer may be instituted in respect of an act purporting
to be done by public officer in his official capacity:
a. Without serving any notice under Section 80(1) of the Code of
Civil Procedure
b. After due service under Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil
Procedure
c. With the leave of the Court without serving any notice under
Section 80(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure,-
d. None of the above
4. (A) Women, who due to the customs and manners of the country, ought
not be compelled to appear in public are exempted from personal
appearance in Court.
(B) However nothing shall be deemed to exempt such women from
arrest in execution of civil process in any case in which the arrest
of women is not prohibited by the Code of Civil Procedure.
a. Both (A) and (B) of the above statement are correct.
b. Only (A) of the above statement is correct.
c. Only (B) of the above statement is correct.
d. Neither (A) nor (B) is correct

5. An application for bringing on records the legal representatives of

a party has to be filed within:
a. 30 days of the death
b. 75 days of the death
c. 15 days of the death
d. 90 days of the death
6. The order noting compromise amongst the parties as passed under
the provisions of Order XXIII Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure
1908: a. Has to be in writing
b. Has to be in writing and duly signed by the respective
parties c. May not be in writing
d. Has to be in writing but may not be signed.
7. When an ex parte decree is passed the defendant:
a. Can file an appeal under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure
b. Can file an application under Order 9 Rule 13 of the Code of Civil
Procedure
c. To opt either (a) or (b)
d. If an application (b) above is dismissed can file appeal to
dispute the correctness of order passed
 8. A decree may be executed by:
a. District Judge
b. Commissioner
c. Court which has passed the decree
d. Either by the Court which has passed the decree or to which the
decree is sent for execution
9. By which judgment, the Hon'ble Apex Court upheld the constitutional
validity of amendments made in the Code of Civil Procedure vide
amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002:
a. Salem Advocates Bar Association, Tamil Nadu vs. Union of India
b. Civil Court Bar Association vs. Union of India
c. Indian Courts Bar Association vs. Union of India
d. West Bengal High Court Bar Association vs. Union of India
10. The power of a Court to correct clerical or arithmetical
mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders:
a. May at any time be exercised by Court of its own motion b.
May at any time be exercised on an application by any of the
Parties
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of the above
11. The Commissioner as appointed under the provisions of Order
XVIII of the Code of Civil Procedure for the purposes of recording of
evidence cannot:
a. Re-examine a witness
b. Decide objections raised during the recording of evidence
c. Neither of the above
d. Both (a) and (b)

12. A sues B on a bill of exchange for 1000/ B holds a judgment

against A for 2000/-
a. Pecuniary demand may be set off because both claims are
definite
b. Claims cannot be set off because issues are different
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. None of the above
13. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure it is
necessary for a party to prove that in spite of all due diligence, the
matter could not be raised before the commencement of the trial:
a. Order XI Rule 12
b. Order VI Rule 17
c. Order VI Rule 16
d. Order V Rule 15
14. A Magistrate while passing an order for disposal of
property must decide the:
a. Question of entitlement to possession on the basis of decision on
the question of title
b. Question of entitlement to possession without deciding the
question of title
c. Question of Title
d. Question of Title as well as the question of entitlement to
possession
15. The period of limitation in case of an offence punishable with
fine only as provided under Section 468 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure is: a. 3 years
 b. 6 months
c. 15 days
d. 3 months
16. Inquiry, Trial or other Proceedings conducted in wrong place a.
Cannot be set aside unless the same has resulted into failure of
justice
b. Cannot be set aside even if the same has resulted into failure
of justice
c. Makes them void ab initio
d. Either (a) or (b)
17. Offences not covered under Section 320 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure are:
a. Non-compoundable
b. Compoundable with the leave of Trial Court
c. Compoundable with the leave of Court of Sessions
d. Compoundable with the leave of High Court
18. Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure contains a special
procedure relating to recording of confessions and statements. In view
of the provision which is the correct proposition:
a. Any Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate may, whether has
jurisdiction or not in the case, can record confession or statement
made in the course of an investigation.
b. Confession can also be recorded by a Police Officer on whom any
power of a Magistrate has been conferred.
c. The recording of statement can only be done by the Magistrate
who has the jurisdiction.
d. Any Magistrate may, whether has jurisdiction or not in the case
can record confession or statement made in the course of an
investigation.
19. A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident, which is likely to
prove fatal unless an operation be immediately performed. There is no
time to apply to the child's guardian. A performs the operation in spite
of the entreaties of the child, intending, in good faith, the child's
benefit.
a. A is liable as he performed the operation without taking due
consent
b. A is not liable because the act was done in good faith for benefit
of a person, even without consent
c. A should not have performed the operation, even if it was in good
faith and since the operation was performed, A is liable. d. None of
the above
20. Grave and sudden provocation is:
a. A question of law
b. A question of fact
c. A mixed question of fact and law
d. A presumption under law
21. Dishonest intention must precede the act of
committing: a. Robbery
b. Criminal Misappropriation
c. Theft
d. Criminal Breach of Trust
22. Abatement of an offence is:
a. Always an offence
b. May be an offence depending on the circumstances but not
always
 c. Never an offence
d. May not be an offence depending on the circumstances
23. What does a fight under Section 159 of the Indian Penal Code
Signify: (a) Two parties one of which is actively involved
(b) Two parties both of which are passive
(c) Two parties one of which is passive
(d)None of the above
24. Five persons went to A's house armed with bats to beat A. One
(X) amongst the five persons was carrying a pistol concealed
underneath his shirt. During the incident of beating, X fired a shot
resulting in A's death:
(a) All being members of unlawful assembly are liable for
causing death
(b) All will be liable only for beating A
(c) Only A will be liable for causing death
(d)None of the above
25. X, a good swimmer, sees Y drowning. However, X does not save
Y and Y was drowned. In these circumstances, whether X is liable for
committing:
a. Murder
b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
c. Abetment of suicide
d. No offence
26. "Restitution stops where repayment begins”, is a principle
which can correctly be applied against:
a. Lunatics and Idiots only
b. Alien Enemy only
c. Minors only
d. All the above
27. The reciprocal promises provide for doing certain things which
are legal and certain others which are illegal. In view of the provisions
of Section 57 of the Indian Contract Act:
a. Promises become void
b. First set of promises is valid, whereas the second is void c.
First set of promises is voidable, whereas the second is void
d. All promises are valid
28. A contract can be discharged:
a. By frustration of contract
b. By performance of contract
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
29. Novation of Contract means
a. Renewal of original contract
b. Cancellation of contract
c. Substitution of a new contract in place of the original contract
d. Alteration of contract
30. Who amongst the following is not an agent:
a. A procurement agent
b. An independent buyer
c. A person who advices another in matters of business
d. All the above
31. Bank Guarantee is an independent contract
between: a. Creditor and Debtor
b. Buyer and Seller
c. Bank and Beneficiary
 d. None of the above
32. Ratification of an act:
a. Has to be express only
b. Has to be implied
c. Has to be both - express and implied
d. Can either be express or implied
33. Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act introduces:
a. Endogamy
b. Monogamy
c. Exogamy
d. All the above
34. In the absence of any proceeding under the Hindu Marriage
Act, between the parents of the children, an order for the custody,
maintenance and education of minor children can be passed by
the: a. Guardianship Court
b. High Court
c. District Court
d. All the above
35. In a suit for dissolution of marriage:
a. Permanent alimony can be granted
b. Maintenance pendente lite can be granted
c. Both maintenance pendente lite and permanent alimony can be
granted
d. Neither maintenance pendente lite nor permanent alimony can
be granted
36. When two persons are the descendants of a common
ancestor by different wives, they are said to be related to each
other by: a. Uterine Blood
b. Half Blood
c. Full Blood
d. Either (b) or (C)
37. Failure of one branch of the family to question the
validity of an alienation in a suit:
a. Would bar the right of the other branch
b. Would not bar the right of the other branch
c. May or may not bar the right of the other branch
d. Either (a) or (c)
38. A family arrangement binds:
a. All members including minors and children in the womb b. All
members except minors and children in the womb c. All members
including minors but excluding children in the womb d. Either (b) or
(c)
39. If the two persons are related by blood or adoption wholly
through males, each is known to_________ to other:
a. Cognate
b. Agnate
c. Full blood
d. Half Blood
40. If two or more heirs succeed together to the property of an
intestate, they shall take the property:
a. As expressly provided in the Hindu Succession Act, per capita
and not per stripes
b. As tenants-in-common and not as joint tenants
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)
41. After the institution of suit for partition by a member of the joint
family: a. There is no effect in the shares by virtue of births and deaths
b. Subsequent births in the family diminish the share
c. Subsequent deaths in the family augment the share
d. None of the above
42. Easement is a right
a. In personam
b. In rem
c. In rem in general but in personam in exceptional cases
d. Both (a) and (b) are not correct
43. An easement
a. Cannot be extinguished
b. Extinguishes when the servient owner leaves on his own c.
Extinguishes when the dominant owner releases it expressly or
impliedly to the servient owner
d. Upon the death of the dominant owner
44. As per Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act,
presumption in regard to the date of a negotiable instrument is that
every negotiable instrument bearing a date was made or drawn:
a. On such date
b. Prior to that date
c. May be on or prior to such date
d. None of the above
45. A perpetual injunction means:
a. A judicial process
b. Thing prevented is a wrongful act
c. Preventive in nature
d. All of the above
46. A declaratory decree under the Specific Relief
Act can: a. Be commuted
b. Be withheld
c. Be declined
d. Cannot be declined
47. The provision of Mandatory Injunction is regulated by
Section_____ of the Specific Relief Act: a. 42 b. 41 c. 40 d. 39
48. What is incorrect about a temporary injunction:
a. It finally settles the mutual rights of the parties and directs a
party for all time to do or abstain from doing a thing
b. Can be granted ex-parte
c. Preserves the property in dispute in status quo till the disposal of
suit
d. Continues unless a specific time
49. Mistake contemplated under Section 26 of the Specific Relief
Act is: a. Bilateral mistake
b. Mutual mistake
c. Mistake in framing of the instrument
d. All the above
50. For protection under Section 124 of the Evidence
Act, the communication is to be made:
a. To a public officer in official confidence
b. To a pubic officer as an ordinary cause of his duties
c. To a public officer as a routine matter
d. Either (a) or (b) or (c)
51. Which of the following is true as to the standard of proof in
civil and criminal proceedings:
 a. It is balance of probabilities in both civil and criminal proceedings
b. It is beyond reasonable doubt in both civil and criminal
proceedings
c. In criminal proceedings it is upon the balance of probabilities and
in civil proceedings it is beyond reasonable doubt.
d. In civil proceedings it is upon the balance of probabilities and it is
beyond reasonable doubt in criminal proceedings
52. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means and
includes: a. Documentary evidence
b. Ocular evidence
c. Both, the ocular and documentary evidence
d. Ocular evidence based on documents only
53. Admission by agents are:
a. Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority
to make admissions
b. Admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
c. Never admissible in criminal proceedings
d. Both (a) and (c)
54. Under the provisions of Section 45 of Evidence Act, the
opinion of an expert can be for:
a. Identity of finger impression
b. Identity of hand writing
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
55. Privilege under Section 121 of the Evidence Act is:
a. Not available to an Arbitrator
b. May or may not available to an Arbitrator
c. Available to an Arbitrator
d. None of the above
56. Acknowledgement after the period of limitation:
a. Gives rise to an independent and enforceable contract
b. Is of no effect
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
57. A suit against the obstruction in the enjoyment of easement
rights acquired under Section 25 of the Limitation Act must be filed
within ______years of obstruction:
a. 12
b. 7
c. 4
d. 2
58. A decree of mandatory injunction can be enforced within a
period of: a. 12 years
b. 9 years
c. 6 years
d. 3 years
59. The unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his
benefit: a. Within 75 days of the birth
b. Within 60 days of the birth
c. Within 90 days of the birth
d. None of the above
60. The principle of lis pendens embodied in Section 52 of the
Transfer of Property Act pertains to:
a. Public policy
b. Auction sale
 c. Bona fide purchase
d. Bona fide sale
61. A suit to obtain a decree that a mortgagor shall be absolutely
debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called: a.
Suit for claim
b. Suit for interest
c. Suit for cost
d. Suit for foreclosure
62. The power of a Magistrate under the Protection of Women
from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is:
a. To attempt to communicate with aggrieved person and to isolate
any assets used by both the parties
b. To pass protection order in favour of aggrieved person c. To
enter a workplace or any other place frequented by aggrieved
person
d. All the above
63. Domestic relationship means:
a. Relationship with family members living together as a joint family
b. Relationship with family members living together in a nuclear
family
c. Relationship as sisters, widow, mother, single women, living with
abuser
d. All the above
64. Documents (other than wills) remaining unclaimed in any
registration office for a period exceeding years ______ may be
destroyed a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
65. 'Building' as defined in the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease,
Rent and Eviction) Control Act means:
a. Any house or hut or part of a house or hut, let or to be let
separately for residential or non-residential
b. Gardens, grounds let or to be let
c. Garages and out houses let or to be let
d. All the above
66. 'Controller under the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease,
Rent and Eviction) Control Act means:
a. Any person not below the rank of a Tahsildar
b. Any person not above the rank of a District Collector
c. Any person equivalent to the rank of District Judge
d. None of the Above
67. Under Section 18 of the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent
and Eviction) Control Act, for conversion of residential building into a
non residential building, a written permission of is _______ required:
a. Controller
b. Commissioner
c. District Judge
d. Either of the above
68. A registered document relating to a property takes precedence
over the unregistered document relating to the same property
under___ section of the Registration Act:
a. 53
b. 52
c. 51
 d. 50
69. An agreement in restraint of marriage is:
a. Voidable at the option of the promisor.
b. Voidable at the option of the promisee.
c. Expressly void
d. A valid contract.
70. A contract of insurance is what kind of contract?
a. Contract of guarantee.
b. Contract of indemnity.
c. Contract of surety.
d. Contract of bailment.
71. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the following right is not
available to an agent:
a. Right to retain
b. Right to sell
c. Right to claim compensation
d. All of the above
72. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agency shall stand
terminated in the below mentioned case:
a. Death or insolvency of principal
b. Death or insolvency of agent
c. Death or insolvency of both the agent and the principal
d. Death or insolvency of either the agent or the principal
73. Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act,
1872 is a: a. Bailor
b. Surety
c. Bailee
d. Principal debtor
74. The maximum limit for a sentence of solitary confinement as
provided under Section 73 of Indian Penal Code is:
a. Six months to one year
b. Six months
c. Eighteen months
d. Three months
75. Right of private defence is provided under following provision of
Indian Penal Code
a. Section 96
b. Section 95
c. Section 99
d. Section 92
76. Under the provisions of sub-section 2 of Section 18 of the
Limitation Act, oral evidence of the date of acknowledgment is
permissible if the acknowledgment:
a. Is dated
b. Is undated
c. Date in acknowledgment is altered
d. All the above
77. The provisions of Section 14 of the Limitation Act are
applicable: a. Only if on the opening day plaint is presented before
the proper Court.
b. Even if on the opening day the plaint is not presented in the
proper Court
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
78. Dominant tenement means:
 a. Land on which liability is imposed
b. Land, for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
79. Documents not covered under Section 74 of the Evidence Act are
called: a. Semi Public Documents
b. Quasi-Public Documents
c. Private Documents
d. All of the above
80. Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall
be presumed under Section 85 of the Evidence Act when executed
before and authenticated by:
a. A judge
b. A Notary
c. A Magistrate
d. All of the above
81. Notice under Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act can be
waived by:
a. Express consent of the person to whom it is given
b. Express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
c. Implied consent of the person to whom it is given
d. Notice from either party
82. A gift to two or more donees, one of whom does not
accept it, is; a. Valid at the option of the heir
b. Voidable at the option of the donor
c. Void as to interest which he would have taken had he accepted
d. Valid as to the interest which he would have taken had he
accepted
83. In the option_________ below, there is no estoppel:
a. Attestation of Deed
b. Point of Law
c. Statute
d. All the above
84. In a situation where a person competent to compound an
offence is dead, the compounding:
a. Cannot be done
b. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased c. Can
be done by the legal representative of the deceased with the due
permission of the Court
d. None of the above
85. A Magistrate under Section 311A of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, can order any person to:
a. To give specimen signatures
b. To give specimen handwriting
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. All of the above
86. Under Section 29(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court
of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment
for a term not exceeding three years, or of fine not exceeding____or
both. a. Five thousand rupees
b. Seven thousand five hundred rupees
c. Ten thousand rupees
d. Fifteen thousand rupees

87. Under Section 174(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, when

 the officer in charge of a Police Station receives an information that a
person has committed suicide, or has been killed by another or by an
animal or by machinery or by an accident, or has died under
circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion that some other person
has committed an offence, he shall immediately give intimation thereof
to the nearest________ empowered to hold inquests. a. Executive
Magistrate b. SDO c. Either (a) or (b) d. None of the above
88. An act of criminal conspiracy is committed when -persons agree
to do, or cause to be done an act: a. Two persons b. Two or more
persons
c. Five Persons d. None of the above
89. A person accused of an offence may apply for a plea
bargain in a. In the Court in which his case is pending trial b.
In any Court c. In the High Court d. In the police station
90. The provision relating to extension of Indian Penal Code to
extra territorial offences is provided in Section ____ the Indian Penal
Code: a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
91. Wrongful confinement is defined under Section of the Indian
Penal Code: a. 339 b. 340 c. 343 d. 346
92. Promoting enmity between different groups on the grounds of
religion, race etc is an offence under Section ________ of the Indian
Penal Code: a. 153A b. 120A c. 153AA d. 146
93. X, with intent to murder Y, instigates his six year old servant A,
to do an act which will cause death of Y. A does the act, but in the
absence of X. The act of A resulted in the death of Y. a. A is liable b.
X is liable and is subject to the punishment of death c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of the above
94. In regard to sale of perishable property, if the person entitled to
the possession of such property is not known or absent and the
property is subject to speedy and ale natural decay, the Magistrate
may direct it to be sold within _______ of the date of such
proclamation: a. One month
b. Three months c. Six months d. Nine months
95. In terms of the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, the
power to recall any witness can be exercised:
a. Before the evidence of the prosecution is closed if the witness is
to be called on the motion of the prosecution
b. Even after the evidence of both the sides is closed
c. Even after the evidence of prosecution is closed, but before the
evidence of defence is closed
d. None of the above
96. Personal attendance of an accused can be dispensed with
under the provisions of Section ________ of the Code of Criminal
Procedure: a. 202 b. 203 c. 204 d. 205
97. Abetment of an offence is: a. Always an offence b. May be an
offence depending on the circumstances but not always c. Never an
offence
d. May not be an offence depending on the circumstances
98. Where investigation is not completed within the stipulated
period of 90 or 60 days, as the case may, the accused who has been
in custody, on the expiry of above mentioned period, gets entitled to:
a. Be discharged b. Be released on bail on making an application for
release on bail c. Be released on bail without making an application
d. None of the above
99. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is
triable exclusively by the Court of Session, under Section 202 of the
 Code of Criminal Procedure, while delaying the issue of process
against the accused, the Magistrate:
a. May order for investigation by Police
b. Commit the case to Sessions Court
c. Examine the complainant and all his witnesses
d. Return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session
100. A confessional statement under Section 164 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, can be recorded:
a. During the course of investigation or at any time afterwards
before the commencement of inquiry or trial
b. During the course of investigation only and not afterwards
c. During investigation as well as during inquiry but before the
commencement of trial
d. None of the above

1 A 41 A 81 C

2 D 42 B 82 B

3 C 43 C 83 A

4 A 44 A 84 C

5 D 45 D 85 D

6 B 46 C 86 C

7 C 47 D 87 A

8 D 48 A 88 B

9 A 49 D 89 A

10 C 50 A 90 A

11 B 51 D 91 B

12 A 52 C 92 A

13 B 53 D 93 B

14 B 54 C 94 C

15 B 55 C 95 B

16 A 56 B 96 D

17 A 57 D 97 A

18 A 58 D 98 B

19 B 59 D 99 C

20 B 60 A 100 A

21 C 61 D

22 62 D

23 D 63 D

24 C 64 A

25 D 65 D

26 C 66 A
 27 B 67 A

28 C 68 D

29 C 69 C

30 A 70 B

31 C 71 B

32 D 72 D

33 B 73 C

34 C 74 D

35 D 75 A

36 B 76 B

37 B 77 A

38 A 78 B

39 B 79 C

40 C 80 D

JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGES – EXAM - 2015

STATE OF TELANGANA AND A.P
TIME : 2HRS DATE : 12/07/2015 MARKS : 100
_____________________________________

1. Provisions of Section 10 CPC are

a. discretionary
b. mandatory
c. both
d. none of the above
2. Jurisdiction of Civil Court to adjudicate an industrial dispute is
a. not barred
b. expressly barred
c. impliedly barred
d. none of the above
3. A judgment passed by a Court having no jurisdiction
a. operates as res judicata
b. does not operate as res judicata
c. operates as res judicata in certain circumstances
d. none of the above
4. Against a decree of the Court in the original suit where the subject
matter does not exceed Ten Thousand Rupees
a. no appeal lies
b. appeal lies
c. appeal lies on a question of law
d. none of the above
5. Pleadings shall state
a. evidence
b. material facts
c. material facts and evidence
d. none of the above
6. Inconsistent pleas can be raised
a. in the plaint
b. in the written statement
c. cannot be raised in the plaint or written statement
d. none of the above
7. Under the Indian Penal Code, preparation to do a criminal act is
a. an offence
b. not an offence
c. an offence only in respect of certain criminal acts
d. none of the above
8. The word "injury" in the Indian Penal Code means
a. injury to the body of a person
b. injury to the property
c. injury to the mind
d. injury to the body, mind, reputation or property
9. The provision relating to one of the accused to represent the other
accused is contained in a. Rule 17 of Criminal Rules of Practice
b. Rule 34 of Criminal Rules of Practice
c. Rule 37 of Criminal Rules of Practice
d. None of the above
10. Judicial work on holidays can be taken up
a. if the Judicial Officer wants to take up on any day
b. it cannot be taken up at all
c. it can be taken up in exceptional circumstances and with the
consent of both parties d. none of the above
11. A is entitled for more than one relief against B in respect of
same cause of action. A sued B for one relief and omitted other
reliefs.
a. he can file a suit subsequently for the remaining reliefs
b. he cannot sue for the remaining reliefs
c. he can sue for the remaining reliefs if he omitted to sue earlier
with the leave of the Court.
d. none of the above
12. Under Order VI, Rule 17 CPC, after commencement of trial,
amendment shall be allowed a. liberally
b. in exceptional cases
c. when the Court comes to the conclusion that inspite of due
diligence the party could not have raised before the
commencement of trial
d. none of the above
13. After recording entire evidence and hearing arguments the
Court comes to the conclusion that it has no jurisdiction over the
subject matter. In such an event
a. the Court shall proceed to pronounce the judgment
b. reject the plaint
c. return the plaint
d. none of the above
14. Evidence in relation to extra judicial confession
a. is hearsay evidence
b. not substantive evidence
c. substantive evidence
 d. none of the above
15. Which of the following statement is correct:
a. A dying declaration is not substantive evidence
b. Dying declaration cannot be acted upon without corroboration
c. Conviction can be entirely based on dying declaration
d. None of the above
16. Which of the following statement is correct:
a. The Court is bound to grant specific performance when it
is lawful to do so b. The Court has absolute power to refuse
specific performance
c. At its discretion which has to be exercised properly
d. None of the above :
17. The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence
Punishable with imprisonment for a period of one year is
a. six months
b. one year
c. three years
d. no limitation is prescribed
18. The period of limitation for possession of immovable
property not based on title is a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 12 years
d. None of the above
19. Maintenance pendente lite and expenses of the proceedings
under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act can be granted to
a. the wife
b. the husband
c. either the wife or the husband
d. none of the above
20. If either of the parties has a spouse living at the time of
marriage, the marriage is a. valid
b. void
c. voidable
d. none of the above
21. If consent of one of the parties to the marriage is obtained by
force, fraud as to any material fact or circumstance, the marriage is
a. void
b. valid
c. voidable
d. none of the above
22. In a prosecution for the offence U/Sec. 354 or 376 IPC, or to
commit any such offence, if the question of consent is in issue, the
evidence of the character of the victim or such person's previous
sexual experience
a. becomes relevant under certain circumstances
b. shall not be relevant
c. shall be relevant
d. none of the above
23. Which of the following statements is correct:
a. Criminal Court cannot make any alteration in the judgment
b. It can alter the judgment if it finds an erroneous finding is
given by mistake c. It can correct the clerical or arithmetical
errors in the judgment
d. None of the above
24. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the powers of
revision are conferred on a. the High Court
 b. the Sessions Court
c. the High Court as well as the Sessions Court
d. none of the above
25. The object of conducting inquest under Section 174 Cr.P.C is
a. to commence the investigation
b. to note down the injuries on the body of the deceased
c. to know the cause of death
d. none of the above
26. In a suit by or against the Central Government, the Authority
to be named as plaintiff or defendant, as the case be, shall be
a. Central Government represented by the concerned Ministry
b. Union of India represented by the highest ranking officer In-
charge of the de concerned Ministry :
c. Union of States, represented by the concerned Department
d. Central Government represented by the Collector and District Magistrate
27. One Mr. M employed N, caused damage to the property of 'O' and
agrees indemnify 'N' all consequences of such an act. Accordingly, 'N'
has caused damaged to the property of 'O' and had to pay to 'O'. In
such a scenario:
a. M is liable to indemnify N for the damages
b. Mis liable to pay damages to directly
c. M is liable to indemnify N for the damages
d. N can avoid payment of damages to O
28. When a contract has been broken, if a sum is named in the
contract as the amount to be paid. In case of such breach, the
party complaining of the breach is entitled to a. whether or not
actual damage or loss is true, the party is entitled to receive the
amount so named b. only when the actual loss or damage is
proved, which is in excess of the amount so stipulated, the party is
entitled to receive the amount so stipulated c. the party who
complained of the breach is entitled to a reasonable compensation,
not exceeding the amount so name d. Party is entitled to receive
the amount so specified unless breach is proved
29. 'A' a tradesman, leaves goods at 'B's house by mistake. 'B'
treats the goods as his own. In such a case,
a. 'A' is not entitled for the value of the goods
b. 'A' is entitled to receive only such amount representing a
reasonable rent for the usage of goods by 'B' :
c. 'B' is liable to pay only damages, but not the value of the goods
d. 'B' is liable to pay for the value of the goods
30. The essential requirement for constituting novation is that:
a. there should be a second contract in continuation of the first one
b. there should be a new contract in substitution of the old one
c. the first contract should be operational so that, new contract
can proceed there from
d. original contract should be a void contract
31. Any fact constituting a motive or preparation for any fact in issue:
a. is a relevant fact
b. not a relevant fact
c. is a relevant fact, if it forms part of the same transaction
d. none of the above
32. In criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused
is of a good character is.... a. irrelevant
b. relevant
c. important for imposing lesser punishment
d. none of the above
33. If a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not
 be used as evidence. a. until both the attesting witnesses have
been called for proving its execution b. atleast one attesting
witness has been called for proving its execution c. in case of
unregistered document, attesting witness need not be called d.
none of the above :
34. When a contract of sale of immovable property is made, does it
create any charge on such property?
a. yes, it does
b. it does, provided promise fulfills his part of the obligations
c. at the option of the promissory, it does
d. it does not on itself create any charge on such property
35. If a wife withdraws herself voluntarily from the company of her
husband who has been diagnosed as infected by H.I.V positive due to
improper and careless blood transfusion, can the husband seek
restitution of conjugal rights?
a. yes, as the fault is not of his
b. no
c. yes, in case is undergoing treatment from a approved hospital
d. none of the above
36. A & B were married. 'C' was born to them. Subsequently, the
marriage between A & B was declared as void
a. Can 'C' be a illegitimate child
b. legitimate child
c. it is for the Court to determine the status of C
d. none of the above
37. When will the property of a female Hindu dying intestate
devolve upon her mother who is alive?
a) when there are no sons and daughters to her, but husband is
alive
b) when the husband and a son of a pre- deceased, son and
a daughter of pre deceased daughter is available
c) in the absence of husband or sons or daughters or their children
d) none of the above
38. One of the following is not liable for
attachment under Sec. 60 CPC: a. bank notes
b. hundies
c. shares in a corporation
d. books of accounts
39. A files a suit against B for recovery of money before the
competent Court of Law. The said suit is returned with certain office
objections, to be complied and resubmitted within fifteen(15) days.
Due to certain reasons, A forgets to represent the same within the 15
days. Under which provision of CPC can a petitioner seek extension of
time?
a. 148 b. 148-A c. 142 d. 146
40. Under which provision of CPC Government has to be put on
notice before instituting a suit against the Government
a. 80 b. 92 c. 65 d. Order I Rule 10
41. Does the police have power to reinvestigate into a crime, in
which charge sheet has already been filed into the Court?
a. yes
b. no
c. yes, with the permission of the Court
d. yes, with the permission of the Public Prosecutor
42. Is the offence under Sec - 497 compoundable in the
States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana?
a. yes
 b. no
c. yes, with the permission of the court
d. yes, with the permission of the Public Prosecutor
43. What is the statutory notice period intimating dishonour of the
cheque under Sec- 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act?
a. one month
b. fifteen days
c. two weeks
d. three weeks
44. Under what provision of I.P.C, giving false evidence is an offence?
a. 190 b. 191 c. 192 d. 193
45. 'X' works in the night shift as a security guard for apartment 'A'.
X finds the keys to Z's flat situated in apartment'A'. That Every same
night X commits house- tresspass by unlocking Z's house. X is guilty of
which of the following offences under the IPC?
a. house breaking
b. lurking house trespass by night
c. house breaking by night
d. house trespass
46. B goes to C shop to buy a boat and offers to pay Rs.2 lakhs for
it. C offers to sell it for Rs.3 lakhs. B goes home and writes a cheque
for Rs.3 lakhs. When he comes back, C has already sold the boat to D
for Rs.2 lakhs. What is B's remedy against C in the Court of Law? a.
file suit for compensation
b. file suit specific performance
c. no remedy
d. B can only prosecute C for cheating
Under IPC what is the punishment prescribed for attempting to
commit offence punishable with imprisonment?
a. one half of the longest term of imprisonment provided
for the offence b. one third of the longest term of
imprisonment provided for the offence c. one fourth of the
longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence d.
full term of imprisonment provided for the offence

48. Under what provision of Indian Contract Act,1872, remote and indirect
losses do not require to be compensated?
a. Sec.71
b. Sec.72
c. Sec.73
d. Sec.74

49. Under what provision of Cr.P.C can the Metropolitan Magistrate

dispense with the presence of the accused and permit him to be
represented by an Advocate?
a. Sec.206
b. Sec.251
c. Sec.256
d. Sec.205

50. Under what provision of Cr.P.C District and Sessions Judge has
power to quash a criminal complaint?
a. Sec- 482
b. Sec -319
 c. Sec - 364
d. None of the above

51. Under Sec 125(3) Cr.P.C if the Person who is ordered to pay
maintenance fails to pay Magistrate may impose maximum
sentence of imprisonment for:
a. one month
b. fifteen days :
c. six weeks
d. eight weeks

52. Under Criminal Procedure Code, Complaint means :

a. an allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate
b. an allegation made orally or in writing to a Police
c. an allegation made in writing to a police
d. a and b

53. What is the period required for a spouse, under the Hindu Law, to file
a divorce petition on the ground of desertion:
a. one year
b. two years
c. three years
d. seven years

54. In the absence of a specific contract, liability of surety with that of the
de principal debtor is: a. co-extensive
b. independent
c. liability of surety activates upon principal debtor's incapacity
d. less in priority vis a vis the principal debtor

55. Does a registered mortgage deed require attestation? If yes,

how many witnesses? a. registration is required and two witnesses
shall attested
b. registration is not required but two witnesses shall attest
c. registration is not required and no attestation is required
d. registration and attestation is optional
56. If the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage money on a
certain date and : transfer his property to the mortgagee absolutely
with the condition that the said property shall be transferred upon
payment of the mortgage money, as agreed, such mortgage is called:
a. usufructuary mortgage
b. mortgage by conditional sale
c. simple mortgage
d. none of the above

57. A, who is General Manager, is terminated by his employer

contrary to the terms and conditions of his employment. What is
the relief A can seek against his employer: a. suit for specific
performance of contract of service
b. suit for compensation Sole
 c. a and b
d. none of the above

58. Res subjudice is defined in the following enactment?

a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Criminal Procedure Code ban
c. Transfer of property Act
d. None of the above

59. A delivers his car to B for repairs. After the car is repaired to A's
satisfaction, he refuses to pay the charges for such repair. Can B
retain the car till he is paid for his services: a. yes
b. no
c. yes, but with the permission of the court
d. yes, by putting A on a written notice

60. Compounding of offence is made under which provision of Cr.P.C

A. Sec.320
B. Sec.328 :
C. Sec.315
D. Sec.319

61. Under which provision of Cr.P.C can a person be added as an accused

when his role surfaces during the course of evidence:
a. Sec.319
b. Sec.219
c. Sec.183
d. Sec.366
62. What is meant by 'Mutatis Mutandi'?
a. as is where is
b. mutual understanding
c. mutually exclusive
d. none of the above

63. Any suit has to be filed in a -

a. court of District Judge
b. high court
c. any court nearest to plaintiff
d. lowest grade court of pecuniary jurisdiction

64. Whether equitable mortgage can be made at any place

a. yes
b. only where property is situate
c. only where parties reside
d. only at notified towns

65. Parents unable to maintain seek maintenance from married and

unmarried daughters having sufficient means whether parents'
 claim maintainable ?
a. maintainable
b. only against married daughter
c. only against unmarried daughter
d. not maintainable - :

66. Whether a tenant who pays rent of 4000/- p.m is protected under the
A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent & Eviction) Control Act?
a. yes
b. no
c. depends on rental agreement
d. if tenancy is for residential purpose

67. Whether probate of will is compulsorily executed in State of

A.P. or Telangana? a. yes
b. only in A.P
c. Only in Telangana
d. Not necessary

68. When the document can be impounded?

a. cancellation
b. declaring document as not genuine
c. unstamped or insufficiently stamped
d. none of the above

69. How do you describe a 'tender' notice issued by Government?

a. an offer
b. a notice
c. an invitation to offer
d. none of the above

70. A executes a power of attorney in favour of B, whether B can

delegate that power to C? a. yes
b. only if B is incapacitated
c. no
d. only with the permission of A

71. Permanent alimony to wife fixed by court while granting decree of

divorcee. Can wife seek further increase after three/four years?
a. yes :
b. no
c. only if High Court permits
d. only if parties agree

72. A sells his motor car to B Whether registered sale

deed is essential? a. yes
b. optional
c. no
 d. none of the above

73. An attester/witness to a document, whether bound by

contents thereof a. no
b. yes
c. depends on nature of document
d. none of the above

74. Anything done by a child of what age does not constitute an offence
under the Indian Penal Code?
a. between 9 and 12 years of age
b. 8 years of age
c. Less than 7 years of age
d. 7 years of age
75. A fair copy of the civil court's judgment required for the court
record shall be prepared within how many days from the date of
pronouncement of judgment?
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 30 days

76. Under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act,1955, which of the

following diseases does not qualify as a ground for seeking divorce?
a. schizophrenia
b. leprosy
c. venereal disease
d. cancer

77. Which of the following provisions deals with the power of the
appellate court to condone the delay in the presenting of the
appeal?
a. 0.41 R.3-A CPC
b. 0.41 R 11-A CPC
c. 0.41 R5 CPC
d. 0.41 R 12 CPC

78. What is the maximum period from the date of conclusion of hearing of
the case within which the civil court must ordinarily pronounce
judgment?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

79. Under Section 16(1)(c) of the Specific Relief Act,1963, which one of
the following has to be averred and proved to seek specific
performance of a contract?
a. readiness and willingness
 b. mental capacity
c. consideration for the contract
d. limitation

80. Are offences punishable under the Negotiable Instruments Act,

1881, compoundable? a. yes
b. no
c. only if permitted by the Cr.P.C
d. none of the above
81. Section 27 of the Limitation Act,1963 deals with:
a. easements by prescription
b. exclusion of time in certain cases :
c. extinguishment of right to property
d. computation of time mentioned in instruments

82. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to:
a. applications to set aside ex parte decree
b. applications under the Arbitration Act, 1996
c. applications under Order 21 CPC
d. applications for leave to appeal

83. A person unlawfully dispossessed of immovable property may bring

a suit for recovery of possession under Section 6 of the Specific
Relief Act,1963 before expiry of what time from the date of
dispossession?
a. 4 months
b. 5 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months

84. A decree of perpetual injunction may be executed under:

a. Order 39 Rule 2-A CPC
b. Article 226 of the Constitution
c. Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act,1963
d. Order 21 Rule 32 CPC

85. Which of the following documents is not compulsorily

registrable in law? a. gift deed of immovable
property
b. will deed
c. lease deed of immovable property exceeding one year
d. agreement of sale of immovable property

86. Cancellation of registered document may be sought by

way of a suit under: a. Section 31 of Specific Relief
Act,1963 :
b. Order 37 CPC
c. Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act 1963
d. Order 32-A CPC
87. The Hindu Succession Act 1956 does not apply to:
a. buddhits
b. jains
c. Sikhs
d. Parsis

88. Which of the following is not, by its very nature, a void contract?
a. a contingent contract
b. a contract in restraint of trade
c. contract by way of wager
d. a contract in restraint of legal proceedings

89. Under Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the property
of a female Hindu dying intestate lastly devolves upon the heirs of the
a. husband
b. father
c. mother
d. predeceased son

90. Which of the following rights cannot be acquired by prescription?

a. a right of way
b. a right to receive light
c. a right to underground water
d. none of the above

91. What is the period mentioned in Section 15 of the Indian Easements

Act 1882 for acquisition of an easement by prescription in respect of
property not belonging to be Government? a. 12 years
b. 15 years :
c. 20 years
d. 30 years

92. Under Section 10-C of the A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction)
Control Act,1960, the right to recover immediate possession of the
premises is given to an
a. handicapped person
b. ex-serviceman
c. state government employee
d. minor

93. Sections 70 and 72 of the Indian Contract Act,1872, relate

to the principle of: a. unjust enrichment
b. consideration
c. frustration
d. performance

94. The order passed by the executing Court upon an application

under Order 21 Rule 97 resisting or obstructing a decree for
 delivery of possession of immovable property is: a. revisable
under Section 115 CPC
b. appealable under Order 43 Rule 1 CPC
c. appealable under Section 96 CPC
d. none of the above

95. The 'Doctrine of Non-Traverse' is incorporated in:

a. Order 8 Rule 1-A PC
b. Order 8 Rul3 3 CPC
c. Order 8 Rule 5 CPC
d. Order 8 Rule 6 CPC :
96. A representative action may be brought by one person under:
a. Order 1 Rule 8 CPC
b. Order 1 Rule 10 CPC
c. Order 1 Rule 5 CPC
d. Order 1 Rule 12 CPC
97. Can a suit, akin to a public interest litigation, be instituted?
a. no, only a writ petition lies under A.226 of the Constitution
b. yes, a suit lies under Section 91 CPC
c. no, only a writ petition lies under A.32 of the Constitution
d. yes, a suit lies under Section 92 CPC

98. As per the Civil Rules of Practice, third party exhibits are marked
with what capital letter followed by a numerical?
a. C
b. P
c. X
d. Y

99. Section 376 D IPC deals with

a. rape by a person in authority
b. gang rape
c. rape by a minor
d. rape by a repeat offender

100. Adultery is punishable with imprisonment which may

extend upto: a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 2 years
8 D 16 C
1 B
9 C 17 B
2 C
10 C 18 C
3 B
11 C 19 C
4 C
12 C 20 B
5 B
13 C 21 C
6 B
14 C 22 B
7 C
15 C 23 C
24 C 57 B 90 C

25 C 58 A 91 C

26 B 59 A 92 A

27 C 60 A 93 A

28 C 61 A 94 C

29 D 62 A 95 C

30 B 63 D 96 A

31 A 64 D 97 B

32 B 65 A 98 C

33 B 66 B 99 B

34 D 67 D 100 B

68 C

35 B

36 B 69 C

37 C 70 C

38 D 71 A

39 A 72 C

40 A 73 A

41 B 74 C

42 B 75 A

43 A 76 D

44 B 77 A

45 C 78 C

46 C 79 A

47 A 80 A

48 C 81 C

49 A 82 C

50 D 83 C

51 A 84 D

52 A 85 B

53 B 86 A

54 A 87 D

55 A 88 A

56 D 89 C
JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGES – EXAM - 2015
STATE OF TELANGANA AND A.P
TIME : 2HRS DATE : 08/03/2015 MARKS : 100
_____________________________________

1. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the

acceptance must be: (a) absolute and unqualified
(b) absolute and qualified
(c) silent
(d) none of the above

2. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or

misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract which is:
(a) void
(b) voidable at the option of the consenting party
(c) neither voidable nor void
(d) none of the above

3. Where a person contracts to sell a certain immovable property

without having any title thereto, can the purchaser compel him
make good the contract?
(a) purchaser only compensation for the breach
(b) purchaser can seek damages
(c) yes, if the vendor has acquired title to the property in question
subsequent to the contract
(d) none of the above

4. 'A' has entered into an agreement with 'B' by

misrepresentation, the contract is: (a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable
(d) illegal

5. Ram contracted to pay to Suresh a sum of 25,000/- if Suresh's house

is gutted in fire. This contract is called:
(a) wagering contract
(b) contingent contract
(c) quasi contract
(d) unconscionable contact
6. Normally the breach of contract to transfer immovable property
(a) can be compensated in money
(b) cannot be compensated in money
(c) cannot be adequately compensated in money
(d) none of the above

7. If the transferee takes possession of immovable property in part

 performance of contract and is ready and willing to perform his part
of contract
(a) can obtain the relief of specific performance notwithstanding
the law of limitation (b) can get a decree declaring his title
(c) can protect his possession
(d) none of the above

8. If a wife withdraws from the company of her husband, who was

diagnosed to be suffering from AIDS, can the Court order for
restitution of conjugal rights?
(a) yes, if the husband is undergoing treatment regularly from an
approved physician (b) yes if the husband establishes that he is
regularly taking medicines
(c) yes if the husband establishes that he acquired AIDS
not due to his fault (d) not at all

9. Marriage between two persons took place but it turned out that one of
them was pregnant by some other 3rd party. In such a case the
marriage is:
(a) void marriage
(b) it is a valid marriage, if the other party has knowledge of the
event
(c) voidable marriage
(d) it all depends upon the will of the woman

10.A marriage solemnized after 1-10-2006 can be dissolved by a decree

of divorce if: (a) the opposite party deserted the petitioner for a
continuous period of at least 1 year (b) the opposite party deserted
the petitioner for a continuous period of at least 2 years (c) the
opposite party deserted the petitioner for a continuous period of at
least 3 years (d) the opposite party deserted the petitioner for a
continuous period of at least 4 years

11.If a petition is presented under Section 13-B of the Hindu

Marriage Act, 1955, by both parties, a decree of divorce can be
passed by the Court:
(a) depending upon the urgency pleaded, immediately
(b) not earlier than 6 months period has elapsed from the date of
presentation of the petition
(c) only after expiry of 1 year period from the date of marriage
(d) only after expiry of 18 months period from the date of marriage
12.Can a provision be made by the Court in a decree drawn in
proceedings initiated under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act,
1955, for the custody of minor children? (a) yes
(b) no
(c) separate proceedings should be taken out under the
Guardianship Act, 1956 (d) none of the above

13.Can irretrievable breakdown of marriage be a ground for seeking

divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?
(a) yes
 (b) no
(c) yes, if permitted by court
(d) yes, upon payment of permanent alimony to the counter part

14.Under Section 8 (a) of the Hindu Succession Act, the property of

a male Hindu dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon the heirs
being relatives specified in class I of the Schedule to the Act.
The class - I heirs do not include:
(a) widow
(b) son
(c) mother
(d) father

15.Can be the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 apply to an

illegitimate child one of whose parents is a Buddhist and the other
follower of Arya Samaj?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) yes, by will
(d) none of the above

16.The daughter of a coparcener of a joint family is recognized as

coparcener by birth by the Central Amendment (through
Parliament) to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 with effect from
9.9.2005 to one of the following sections:
(a) Section 29A
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 6B
(d) Section 29B

17.General rules of succession in the case of a female Hindu is governed

by one of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
(a) Section 8
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 9

18.An easement is a right which the owner or occupier of

certain land possesses: (a) over his own land for the beneficial
enjoyment of such land
(b) over certain other land which is not his own, for the beneficial
enjoyment of his own land
(c) over certain other land which the community owns, for the
beneficial enjoyment of his own land
(d) over certain other land which should share a common boundary with
his own land

19.Can an easement be extinguished?

(a) yes, only if the dominant heritage is completely destroyed,
leaving intact the servient heritage
 (b) yes, only if the servient heritage is completely destroyed,
leaving intact the dominant heritage
(c) yes, in complete destruction of dominant or servient heritages
(d) in none of the cases above

20.What is the period prescribed for acquisition of right of easement

of light or air for any building without interruption?
(a) twenty years
(b) twelve years
(c) three years
(d) thirty years

21.Company'A' has entitled to a contract for acquiring a certain

immovable property belonging to 'B'. Subsequently, company 'A' got
amalgamated with company 'C can company 'C' seek specific
performance of contract entered into by and between 'A' and 'B'? (a)
yes
(b) no
(c) only with the leave of the court
(d) none of the above

22.If a person is not entitled to recover compensation for breach of a

contract, can he seek specific performance of the contract?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) it is for the discretion of the court
(d) none of the above
23.In a suit for specific performance of a contract, can a plaintiff be
awarded compensation? (a) no
(b) it is for the discretion of the court
(c) yes, if compensation is claimed in the plaint
(d) none of the above

24.Specific performance of part of contract

(a) can be enforced
(b) cannot be enforced
(c) enforced in certain exceptional circumstances
(d) none of the above

25.A contract dependent on the volition of parties

(a) can be specifically enforced
(b) cannot be specifically enforced
(c) can be enforced in exceptional cases
(d) none of the above

26.Against decree passed in a suit filed under Section 6 of the

Specific Relief Act (a) only review is allowed
(b) appeal can be filed
(c) no appeal or review is allowed
 (d) none of the above

27.Can a suit instituted after the prescribed period be dismissed?

(a) yes, if limitation has been set-up as a defence
(b) yes, even though limitation has not been set-up as a defence
(c) no
(d) none of the above

28.The period prescribed for institution of a suit expired on Sunday that

followed the last working day of the Court before it's summer recess.
During summer recess, provision is made for receiving urgent cases.
However, the suit is instituted on the reopening day of the court after
summer recess. Can a suit be treated to have been filed in time? (a)
no
(b) yes
(c) only if the delay is properly explained
(d) when leave is obtained by the court
29.Can the time consumed for deciding an application for leave of suit
as a pauper, which application is ultimately rejected be excluded
from computation of the period of limitation when a suit was
subsequently instituted?
(a) no
(b) yes
(c) yes, with consent of defendant
(d) none of the above

30.When can the period of limitation run when a suit is instituted

seeking relief against the consequence of a mistake?
(a) from the date the mistake is discovered with due diligence
(b) from the initial cause of action
(c) a notice pointing out the mistake is drawn
(d) none of the above

31.'A' instituted a suit against 'B' and 'C' on 6.12.2012. 'D' was
added as a plaintiff on 20.11.2014. When is suit deemed to have
been instituted as regards 'D?
(a) On 6.12.2012
(b) On 20.11.2014 subject to court directing any earlier date
(c) On any date as agreed by 'B' & 'C'
(d) None of the above

32. Sandeep executed a promissory note in favour of Vijay for 5 lakhs

on 18.10.2010. On 15.11.2013 he has acknowledged his liability in
writing under his signature. On 16.12.2013 Vijay filed suit for
recovery. The suit is:
(a) barred by limitation
(b) not barred by limitation
(c) maintainable on condonation of delay
(d) maintainable subject to discretion of court
33.'A' institutes suit against 'B' in a civil court and realises that he
instituted the suit which lacks jurisdiction. Under which provision of
the Limitation Act, 1963, can such period be excluded for computing
limitation?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 13

34.What is limitation period for filing a suit under Section 6 of the

Specific Relief Act? (a) 1year
(b) 3 years
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 years

35.The following can be transferred under the Transfer

of Property Act: (a) a right to future maintenance
(b) salary of a public officer whether before or after it has
become payable (c) a mere right to sue
(d) assignment of property

36.'Immovable property', as defined under the Transfer of

Property Act includes: (a) standing timber
(b) growing crops
(c) agricultural land
(d) grass

37.A is the paternal uncle of 'B'. His wife ‘C’ died recently. They have no
children. 'B' is taking complete care of 'A'. 'A' has suffered a major
heart attack a couple of months ago. ‘A’, therefore executed a will
bequeathing all his immovable properties in favour of 'B' and got it
registered. To clear some of the hospital bills, 'B' intends to sell and
transfer some of the immovable properties owned by 'A'. Can he do
so?
(a) yes
(b) yes, if there are no Class-I or Class-II heirs of 'A' available
(c) no
(d) none of the above

38.Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created in

favour of a person to take effect only upon the happening of a
specified uncertain event, such interest is called: (a) vested interest
(b) contingent interest
(c) eventual interest
(d) preferential interest

39.Can one of several co-owners of immovable property transfer his

share of such property or interest therein in favour of another person
who is not a member of the family? (a) yes
 (b) no
(c) yes, if the co-owners give their consent
(d) yes, if the co-owners have been given the first option for transfer
40.If the donor dies before acceptance of the gift by donee?
(a) the gift is valid
(b) the gift is void
(c) the gift is voidable
(d) none of the above

41.Doctrine of lis pendense provided under Section 52 of the Transfer

of Property Act lays down:
(a) pending suit, parties are prohibited to alienate the property
(b) parties are at liberty to alienate the property
(c) if alienation is made, it is subject to certain conditions
(d) the parties are bound by the decree passed by the court

42.'A' has a chance to succeed to the property of 'B' in future,

(a) he can alienate his right
(b) he cannot alienate his right
(c) he can alienate his right under certain circumstances
(d) none of the above

43.'A' wants to gift away landed property worth 2 lakhs in

favour of a Deity: (a) the gift shall be registered
(b) the gift need not be registered
(c) the gift does not require registration if the leave of the
court is obtained (d) none of the above

44.Who is a 'tenant holding over?

(a) person having subsisting lease
(b) person having right for grant of lease
(c) person whose lease is terminated but continues in possession
(d) none of the above

45.What is essential ingredient to claim part performance under Section

53-A of the Transfer of Property Act?
(a) payment in full
(b) written agreement
(c) 50% payment
(d) Written agreement, payment in full an followed by possession of the
transferee

46.The Indian Penal Code extends to:

(a) the whole of India
(b) the whole of India except Arunachal Pradesh
(c) the whole of India except Nagaland and Mizoram
(d) the whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
47.The provisions of the Indian Penal Code shall apply also to any
offence committed by: (a) a person of Indian origin and a citizen of a
foreign country in any place beyond India (b) any person on any ship or
aircraft registered anywhere in the world
(c) any citizen of India in any place beyond India
(d) any person in any place without or beyond India, committing
offence targeting a computer resource located anywhere in
Common Wealth Nations

48.Whoever harbours an officer who has deserted the Army is liable to be

punished under Section 136 IPC with imprisonment for a term which
may extend to two years. This provision does not extend to the case in
which the harbour is given by:
(a) a wife to her husband
(b) a mother to her son
(c) a sister to her brother
(d) none of the above

49.'A' in exercise in good faith of right of private defence caused death

of 'B' with the knowledge that it is likely to cause his death but
without the intention of causing his death. 'A' is liable to be
sentenced
(a) to imprisonment for life
(b) to imprisonment for 10 years or fine or with both
(c) death
(d) not liable for conviction

50.In case of dowry death punishable under Section 304B of IPC, the
presumption under Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act shall be
drawn if the death takes place within how many years of marriage?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 11
(d) 7

51.In an offence of rape, the consent given by a minor is no consent.

What is the age of minor mentioned in section 375 of IPC:
(a) 16 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 14 years
52.An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking
signed by the maker to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to
the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument is
called:
(a) cheque
(b) currency note
(c) bill of exchange
(d) promissory note
53.When no interest rate is specified in the instrument, Section 80 of the
Negotiable of Instruments Act requires interest on the amount due
thereon to be calculated at the rate of: (a) 18% per annum
(b) 15% per annum
(c) 12% per annum
(d) 9% per annum

54.The section governing the dishonour of cheque for

insufficiency of funds is: (a) section 132
(b) section 129
(c) section 138
(d) section 136

55.A promissory note is required to be attested by a minimum of

(a) one witness
(b) two witnesses
(c) three witnesses
(d) no attestation is required

56.Ram holding an account in a bank at Hyderabad issued a cheque to

Krishna, a resident of Vijayawada for discharging his liability in
respect of a transaction which took place at Chittoor. The said cheque
got dishonoured where can Krishna filed complaint under Section 138
of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Vijayawada
(c) Chittoor
(d) Any place of his choice

57.Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?

(a) promissory note
(b) bond
(c) bill of exchange
(d) cheque negotiable

58.Under section 85 of the Registration Act, documents (other than wills)

remaining unclaimed in any registration office for a period exceeding
may be destroyed:
(a) two years
(b) eighteen months
(c) one year
(d) six months

59.Under Section 47 of the Registration Act a document once

registered takes effect from: (a) the date of registration
(b) one month after the date of registration
(c) the date of its execution
(d) one month after the date of execution
60.A certificate of sale granted to the purchaser of any immovable
property sold by public auction, by a civil or revenue officer, the
value of which exceeds 100
(a) is not liable to be compulsorily registered
(b) is liable to be compulsorily registered
(c) the authority who conducted the auction can grant exemption
from compulsory registration
(d) the Collector of the District in which the property is located
when applied for, can grant exemption from compulsory
registration.

61.Under Section 33 (1) of the Stamp Act, every person in-

charge of a public office, except__________may impound an
instrument which is not duly stamped: (a) a District Court
(b) the Sub Collector
(c) the Tahsildar
(d) a police officer

62.Under Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act, no instrument chargeable

with duty, unless such instrument is duly stamped, shall be admitted
in evidence:
(a) except regarding any collateral transaction only
(b) for any purpose
(c) except in the case of a contract in a suit for specific
performance only (d) both (a) and (c)
63.Under Section 30 of the Indian Stamp Act, any person receiving any
money exceeding rupees _______shall, on demand by the person
paying the money, give a duly stamped receipt for the same:
(a) ten
(b) twenty
(c) fifty
(d) hundred

64.An insufficiently stamped instrument can be admitted in

evidence upon: (a) payment of the differential amount which
would make up the duty properly chargeable
(b) payment of the differential amount together with penalty of
5/- or ten times the differential amount whichever is higher
(c) payment of the differential amount together with fixed penalty of
ten times the duty chargeable
(d) payment of the normal duty chargeable upon the instrument

65.Under the Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent & Eviction) Control
Act, 1960 no tenant shall be evicted, whether in execution of a
decree or otherwise, except in accordance with the provisions of:
(a) section 10 of the Act
(b) section 16 of the Act
(c) section 20 of the Act
(d) none of the above :
66.The Andhra Pradesh Buildings (Lease, Rent & Eviction) Control
Act, 1960 shall apply to: (a) buildings belonging to State
Government
(b) buildings belonging to Central Government
(c) buildings belonging to Cantonment Board
(d) buildings belonging to private individuals

67.For initiating eviction petition under the Andhra Pradesh Buildings

(Lease, Rent & Eviction) Control Act, a prior notice of termination to
tenant is compulsory-
(a) not correct
(b) correct
(c) not correct, if Court dispenses with
(d) none of the above

68.Where a suit has been duly instituted summons may be issued to

the defendant, under section 27 of the Civil Procedure Code, to be
served in the manner prescribed on such day not beyond ________
days from the date of institution of the suit:
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120

69.Under Section 40 of the Civil Procedure Code, where a decree is

sent for execution in another State, it shall be sent to such Court
and executed in such manner as may be prescribed by rules in
force:
(a) in the State where the decree was passed
(b) in the State where the decree was sent for execution
(c) either of the above
(d) neither of the above :

70.Pleading means:
(a) plaint or rejoinder
(b) plaint or written statement
(c) plaint or written statement or rejoinder
(d) plaint alone

71.When a suit is pending in a Foreign Court,

(a) the trial of the very same suit in India is barred
(b) it is not barred
(c) it is not barred if it is not based on the same cause of action
(d) none of the above

72.Both parties entered into agreement that the suit has to be filed at
place- A. But the part of cause of action arose at places B and C also,
(a) the suit is maintainable at places - A, B and C
(b) suit is maintainable at place - B only
 (c) with the leave of the Court, can be filed at places - A, B or C
(d) none of the above

73.Objection as to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Court of first

instance can be taken in the appellate court
(a) at any time before the disposal of the appeal
(b) cannot be taken unless the objection was taken in the court of
first instance before the settlement of issues
(c) can be taken at any time on the ground that there has been a
consequent failure of justice
(d) none of the above
74.The judgment debtor in execution proceedings raised objection that
the trial court has no jurisdiction over the subject matter :
(a) he cannot raise such objection unless he raised the same
before the trial court (b) he has to challenge the same only by
way of filing the appeal
(c) he can raise the said issue for the first time in executing court
(d) none of the above

75.In a money suit the court granted interest at the rate of 12% per
annum from the date of suit till the date of decree. The decree is silent
about payment of further interest on principal sum from the date of
decree to the date of payment. In such an event
(a) further interest can be granted at the rate of 12% per annum
int in the execution petition
(b) further interest can be granted at the rate of 6% per
annum in the execution petition
(c) no such further interest can be granted as the court shall
be deemed to have refused such further interest
(d) none of the above

76.After pronouncing judgment the court found that there are some
clerical and arithmetical mistakes
(a) it cannot correct them and they can be corrected by
appellate court only (b) it can correct if both parties agree
for such correction
(c) it can correct on its own without notice to the parties
(d) none of the above

77.What is meaning of expression 'indigent?

(a) made in India
(b) a liberal and carefree person
(c) dishonest person
(d) pauper

78.A suit is filed against 'A' and his sons, daughters and wife for
declaration of ownership of plaintiff and permanent injunction. 'A'
dies pending suit. No application is filed for setting aside abatement
and for substitution. Whether the suit abates?
(a) no
 (b) yes
(c) no, if the Court passes order for addition of State
(d) none of the above

79.Application under Order 6, Rule 17 C.P.C for amendment of written

statement to withdraw admissions of plaintiff's claim. Whether
permissible?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) no, beyond 30 days from the date of filing of written statement
(d) none of the above

80.On completion of investigation, the officer incharge of a police

station shall forward the police report under Section 173 (2) Cr.P.C,
to:
(a) Sessions Court
(b) High Court
(c) District Collector
(d) Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence

81.In the absence of a special order of a Magistrate, no police officer

shall detain in custody a person arrested without warrant for a period
exceeding _________ hours, exclusive of the time necessary for the
journey from the place of arrest to the Court of the Magistrate. (a) 12
hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 36 hours
(d) 48 hours

82.Under Section 125 Cr.P.C a Magistrate can order a person to make a

monthly allowance for the maintenance of:
(a) his married daughter who has attained majority
(b) his brother
(c) his sister
(d) his father

83.Maximum sentence prescribed for offences in a summons case is:

(a) two years
(b) one year
(c) three years
(d) five years

84.Amendment to the Code of Criminal Procedure can be made

(a) by Parliament
(b) by State Legislature
(c) by both
(d) none of the above

85.Cognizable offence means

 (a) offence of serious nature
(b) non bailable offence
(c) bailable offence
(d) an offence where police officer may arrest without warrant

86.In a complaint to the Magistrate

(a) name of the accused shall be mentioned
(b) name of the accused need not be mentioned
(c) name of the accused need not be mentioned if the
descriptive particulars of the accused are given
(d) none of the above

87.Police report under the Code of Criminal Procedure means

(a) report given to the police
(b) complaint
(c) charge sheet
(d) none of the above

88.At the stage of consideration for application for discharge can

the accused summon a document or thing?
(a) he has a right to summon
(b) he has no right to summon
(c) he can exercise such right with the permission of the court
(d) none of the above

89.The investigating officer while recording statement of a witness

under section 162 Cr.P.C (a) shall obtain the signature of the
witness
(b) shall not obtain the signature of the witness
(c) it is left to the discretion of the Investigating Officer
(d) none of the above

90.After taking cognizance the Magistrate issued

process to the accused (a) he can reconsider his
decision
(b) he has no power to reconsider his decision
(c) in exceptional circumstances he can reconsider his decision
(d) none of the above

91.An "admission" can be used against

(a) a witness
(b) party who makes it
(c) opposite party
(d) none of the above
92.Evidence of hostile witness
(a) cannot be taken into consideration for any purpose :
(b) it can be relied on by the prosecution
(c) it can be relied on by the defence
(d) it can be relied on by the prosecution as well as the defence
93.Motive becomes more relevant in a case based on
(a) direct evidence
(b) circumstantial evidence
(c) direct and circumstantial evidence
(d) none of the above

94.In an application seeking bail in a non- bailable offence

(a) notice to the prosecution is not necessary
(b) notice is mandatory
(c) notice is mandatory only when the provision relating to the
offence alleged so requires
(d) none of the above

95.Which of the statements is correct?

(a) a related witness is unreliable
(b) a related witness is reliable
(c) evidence of related witness shall be subjected to strict scrutiny
(d) none of the above

96.When the evidence is improperly admitted or rejected at the trial

(a) it shall be ground for new trial
(b) it shall not be ground for new trial
(c) it shall be ground for new trial, when there was no sufficient
evidence, other than the evidence which was objected
(d) none of the above

97.In a criminal case, previous good character is

(a) not relevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant in rare cases
(d) none of the above
98.Evidentiary value of report of handwriting expert?
(a) conclusive
(b) opinion subject to acceptance by court
(c) nil, since irrelevant
(d) none of the above

99.Rule 5 of the Criminal Rules of Practice enables cases relating to

Juvenile Offenders and women to be tried:
(a) in camera
(b) open court house
(c) mobile courts
(d) all the above

100. Effect of death of the sole defendant in a money suit in

between the date of conclusion of the hearing and that of the
pronouncement of the judgment: (a) suit abates
(b) suit does not abate, judgment can be pronounced
 (c) judgment cannot be pronounced, re- hearing of the suit
(d) none of the above :
33 B 64 B
1 A
34 C 65 A
2 B
66 D
3 C
67 A
35 D
4 C
68 A
36 C
5 B
37 C
6 C
38 B 69 B
7 C
39 A 70 B
8 D
40 B 71 B
9 C
41 D 72 B
10 B
42 B 73 C
11 B
43 B 74 C
12 A
44 C 75 C
13 B
45 D 76 C
14 D
46 D 77 D
15 A
47 C 78 A
16 B
48 A 79 B
17 C
49 B 80 D
18 B
50 D 81 B
19 C
51 B 82 D
20 D
52 D 83 A
21 A
53 A 84 C
22 B
54 C 85 D
23 C
55 D 86 B
24 C
56 A 87 C
25 B
57 B 88 B
26 C
58 A 89 B
27 B
59 C 90 B
28 B
60 A 91 B
29 B
61 D 92 D
30 A
62 B 93 B
31 B
63 B 94 C
32 A
 95 C 97 B 99 A

96 C 98 B 100 B

JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGES – EXAM - 2016

STATE OF TELANGANA AND A.P
TIME : 2HRS DATE : __________ MARKS : 100
_____________________________________

1. Two persons are within the degree of prohibited relationships, if

they are related by
a. Full blood
b. Half or Uterine Blood
c. Adoption
d. All the above

2. A contracts to pay B 10,000/- if B's house is burnt. This is ____

a. Void Contract
b. Contingent contract
c. Wager
d. None of the above

3. Abetting the commission of suicide is dealt with under

a. Section 306 IPC
b. Section 307 IPC
c. Section 308 IPC .
d. Section 309 IPC

4. Section 75 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

a. Primary evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Public document
d. Private document

5. Admission is defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in_

a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
6. An Executive Magistrate is empowered to grant remand u/s
167 of the Cr.P.C., for a maximum period of
a. 15 days
b. 7 days
c. 30 days
d. 90 days
 7. A and B jointly sued C for 20, 000/- Whether C can set off for the
debt due to him by A alone? .
a. Yes
b. No
c. Neither A nor B
d. None of the above

8. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a

box, but finds no jewels inside the box after it is opened.
Which is the provision of law under which, he may be held
guilty?
a. Section 511 IPC
b. Section 420 IPC
c. Section 379 IPC
d. None of the above

9. The act of a child under ------years of age is not an offence

a. 5
b. 7
c. 14
d. 18

10.What will be the effect of a mistake as to law in force

on the agreement a. Not voidable
b. Voidable
c. Void.
d. Not void

11.In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that
marriages of all persons should be made compulsorily
registrable?
a. Seema Vs. Ashwinikumar
b. Geeta Jagdish Vs. Jagdish
c. Durga Tripati Vs. Arundati Tripati
d. Ramesh chand Vs. Rameshwari Bai
12. A marriage under the Hindu Marriages Act must be
solemnized in accordance with customary right of -----
a. The bride
b. The brideroom
c. Both the bride and the bridegroom
d. Either the bride or the bridegroom
13 Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of person
involved is -----
a.