Choose the best match from the following multiple-choice questions.

Thermodynamics
1. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil).
a. True
b. False

2. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
processes is known as
a. Carnot cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Diesel cycle

3. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.

a. True
b. False

4. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known
as:
a. Work done
b. Entropy
c. Enthalpy
d. None of these

5. Draw the TS and PV diagram of Brayton Cycle:

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 Heat and Mass Transfer
6. The conduction heat transfer with combination of transfer of material also is called as

a. material conduction heat transfer

b. convection heat transfer
c. solid convection heat transfer
d. none of the above
7. In which phase of a substance does conduction mode of heat transfer take place?

a. solid
b. liquid
c. gaseous
d. all of the above
8. The radiant heat emitted by any body travels at the speed

a. less than the speed of light

b. more than the speed of light
c. equals to the speed of light
d. unpredictable
9. Mass transfer does not take place in

a. conduction heat transfer

b. convection heat transfer
c. radiation heat transfer
d. none of the above
10. What is the condition for conduction mode of heat transfer between two bodies?

a. the two bodies must be in physical contact

b. there must be temperature gradient between the bodies
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

Engineering Drawing
11. The dashed or dotted or hidden line uses to represent
a. The construction line of an object

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 b. the hidden part of an object
c. the outline of an object
d. none of the above

12. What is the difference between the section line and the centerline?

a. he length of the long dashes

b. The length of short dashes
c. The width of the gap
d. The two ends of the lines
13. Which type of line is used to join the dimension line and the curve that needs to be
dimensioned?

a. Leader line
b. Outline
c. Dimension line
d. Section line
14. In engineering drawing, which type of line indicates that there is a change of plane?

a. Continuous thin wavy

b. Long-chain thin
c. Continuous thick
d. Medium-thick short dashes
15. Short-break lines are drawn freehand while long-break lines are ruled lines.
a. True
b. False

AutoCAD
16. In AutoCAD 2D Modelling, which axis is not accessible for drafting?

a. X
b. Y
c. Z
d. WCS

17. A Polyline can be broken into individual lines and arcs using which of the following
command?

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 a. BREAK
b. TRIM
c. EXPLODE
d. OVERKILL

18. Origin of the AutoCAD drawing space is,

a. 0,0
b. 1,0
c. 0,1
d. 1,1

19. Scrolling of mouse can perform which following action?

a. Zoom in / zoom out

b. pan & scan
c. extents / all
d. scale

20. In AutoCAD, the number of workspaces is,

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

21. Is there any difference between Command Plot and Print?

a. plot command prints only big plans

b. The plot command for CNC (CAM)
c. No difference
d. print command can print up to A3 size paper

22. Find the false statement in regards with "If an array is made associative".

a. You can't use Boolean operations on the array elements

b. To make the array non associative you need to use explode command on it
c. The array can be edited again by selecting it
d. The array can't be modified in any way once it is made associative

23. An open area can be filled with which of the following gradient:

a. Gap
b. Tolerance
c. Transparency
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 d. Open

24. The shortcut to start a table is,

a. T
b. TA
c. TBL
d. TABLE

25. What is the shortcut for zoom command?

a. Z Command
b. Rotate mouse wheel
c. ZOOM Command
d. All of the above

Engineering Mechanics
26. Parallelogram Law of Forces states, "if two forces acting simultaneously on a particle
be represented in magnitude and direction by two adjacent sides of a parallelogram, their
resultant may be represented in magnitude and direction by

a. its longer side

b. its shorter side
c. the diagonal of the parallelogram which does not pass through the point of intersection of the forces
d. the diagonal of the parallelogram which passes through the point of intersection of the forces

27. Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller force, the smaller force is

a. 20 kg
b. 25 kg
c. 30 kg
d. 35 kg
28. Two forces of 6 Newtons and 8 Newtons which are acting at right angles to each other,
will have a resultant of

a. 5 Newtons
b. 8 Newtons
c. 10 Newtons
d. 12 Newtons
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29. If two forces P and Q (P > Q) act on the same straight line but in opposite direction,
their resultant, is

a. P + Q
b. P / Q
c. Q / P
d. P - Q
30. If two forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, they must be equal in magnitude and
their line of action must be along

a. the same line in the same sense

b. the same line in the opposite sense
c. the perpendicular to both the lines
d. none of these

HVAC
31. In a split air conditioner, IDU (Indoor Unit) has

a. compressor and condenser

b. evaporator
c. expansion devise and evaporator
d. compressor, condenser and expansion device
32. In a split air conditioner, ODU (Outdoor Unit) has

a. compressor and condenser

b. evaporator
c. expansion devise and evaporator
d. compressor, condenser and expansion device
33. Split air conditioner available in the rage of

a. 0.5 to 3 TR
b. 5 to 10 TR
c. 10 to 15 TR
d. 0.1 to 0.5 TR
34. Which of the following are the advantages of a split air conditioner over window air
conditioner?

a. No compressor noise and vibrations in the room.

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 b. No window opening and fixing needed.
c. The first part can be located anywhere the room with a decorative display
d. All of the above
35. In a window air conditioner, the expansion device is

a. capillary tube
b. compressor
c. evaporator
d. condenser
36. Performance parameter for the refrigeration system is known as
a. Efficiency
b. COP
c. Effectiveness
d. Energy ratio
37. Which is not a part of vapour compression refrigeration system?

a. Compressor
b. Throttle valve
c. Evaporator
d. Absorber
38. In the domestic refrigerators, the bank of tubes at the back of the refrigerator are

a. condenser tubes
b. evaporator tubes
c. capillary tubes
d. all of the above
39. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, refrigerating effect is produced by

a. expansion valve
b. condenser
c. compressor
d. evaporator
40. The refrigerant used in domestic refrigerators is generally

a. R134a
b. carbon dioxide
c. oxygen
d. ammonia

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s41. The higher temperature in the vapour compression cycle occurs at

a. expansion valve outlet

b. condenser discharge
c. compressor discharge
d. evaporator outlet
42. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the
a. compressor and condenser
b. evaporator and compressor
c. condenser and evaporator
d. none of the above
43. In a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

a. expansion valve
b. condenser
c. compressor
d. evaporator
44. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in a

a. expansion valve
b. condenser
c. compressor
d. evaporator
45. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, pressure remains constant in

a. expansion valve
b. condenser
c. compressor
d. none of the above
46. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the enthalpy remains constant during

a. expansion
b. condensation
c. compression
d. evaporation
47. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system

a. Vapour compression
b. Vapour absorption
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 c. Carnot cycle
d. All of the above
48. What is the process carried out in the generator of vapour absorption refrigeration
cycle?

a. Weak solution of ammonia in water is heated

b. Strong solution of ammonia in water is heated
c. Only water is heated and heat is given to the ammonia to form its vapour
d. None of the above
49. Vapour absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant

a. carbon dioxide
b. sulfur dioxide
c. ammonia
d. R-134a
50. Ammonia is

a. non-toxic
b. non-inflammable
c. toxic and non-inflammable
d. highly toxic and inflammable

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