SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT

NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 25/01/2024
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 12 trang)
Điểm bài thi Số phách
Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2
(Do Hội đồng
(Kí, ghi rõ họ tên) (Kí, ghi rõ họ tên)
Bằng số Bằng chữ chấm thi ghi)
Bài viết:

Bài nói:

Tổng:

 Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.

 Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING (5.0 POINTS)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi
phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi.
- Mở đầu bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: For questions 1-10, listen and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE
WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. ( 2.0 points)
Riverdale Pre-school
Classes:
First group: - Mrs. Oliver
Second group: - Mrs. 1._________
Hours &Days:
Suzie will attend 3 days a week for a total of 2.__________
Activities:
Outside time
 running, playing, or something quieter
 just got a new piece of equipment
 intend to make a 3.__________
Indoors
 this year, 4.__________activities are popular
 they hear a 5.__________ every day
Fees:
Now costs 6. $_________ per term
Fees include:
 a trip to a 7._________ this year
 chance to take home a 8._________ every week
Do not forget:
 Put a 9.__________ in Suzie’s bag
 Arrange a visit; phone number: 10.___________
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 2: Listen and answer the questions 11-20 below. (2.0 points)
Questions 11–15: Match the creatures to their behaviour. Write the correct letter A, B, C or D next
to each description.
A swifts
B bats
C cockroaches
D centipedes
11. feed on the guardrail beside the path
12. are dangerous to people
13. collect in large groups
14. fly only at night
15. live on the roof of the cave
Questions 16 and 17: Answer the questions below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
16. What is the guano from the caves used for?
__________________________________________
17. What are the birds’ nests from the cave used for?
__________________________________________
Questions 18–20: Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.
In the cave, you should:
18. carry a _____________
19. wear a _____________ and a hat
20. keep to the _____________ at all times
Your answers:
11. 16.
12. 17.
13. 18.
14. 19.
15. 20.
Part 3: For questions 21–25, you will hear a conversation between two friends who have just attended
a workshop for people who want to increase their self-esteem. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided. (1.0
point)
21. Following the workshop, both speakers seem to agree that _______.
A. they are looking forward to applying what they learnt
B. they’re likely to become unrecognizable to their family and friends
C. the woman’s therapist would have disagreed with a lot of what they heard
D. improving self-esteem isn’t something you can learn to do
22. What view is expressed about fear?
A. Some forms of fear are easier to overcome than others.
B. To develop self-esteem you must first be fearless.
C. Being afraid forces you to take control of situations.
D. It is something we must learn to face up to.
23. In the man’s opinion, _______.
A. being unduly apologetic may let others take advantage of you
B. being fair to others will boost your feelings of self-worth
C. apologizing always increases your feelings of self-doubt
D. there’s no point in saying sorry to people that you don’t respect
24. What does the woman suggest about self-criticism?
A. It’s always harmful even if you rephrase it in a more positive way.
B. It can have a debilitating effect on your self-image.
C. Being self-critical is a habit she feels confident she can get out of.
D. It’s beneficial to be aware of our faults before others point them out.
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25. According to the speakers, what did the workshop’s leader imply about our accomplished friends?
A. Comparing ourselves to others is bound to leave us feeling worthless.
B. We should end our relationship with people who we think are too good for us.
C. Our relationship with them is proof of our own merit.
D. Only when we are confident will we see our friends’ real faults.
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
II. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (3.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Choose the answer A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
26. Many old people declared________support from their confidants and neighbors.
A. socially B. social C. socialize D. society
27. It is imperative that ________.
A. they put an end to their quarrel B. they would have put an end to their quarrel
C. they had put an end to their quarrel D. they have put an end to their quarrel
28. The accident on the main road last night is reported________the driver’s carelessness.
A. to result from B. to have resulted from
C. having resulted from D. resulting from
29. Peter and Amy are talking about women’s role in the society.
- Peter: “I think women will play a greater role in the workforce in the future.” - Amy: “________”
[Link]’s very kind of you to say so. B. I can’t agree with you more.
C. It’s my pleasure. D. I’d love to but I can’t make it.
30. That scent always________memories of their holidays in Europe.
A. conjures up B. equates with C. imposes on D. presides over
31. The chairs ________in the balcony have been weathered by the sun.
A. which left uncovered B. leaving uncovered C. left uncovered D. which leave uncovered
32. Her story is so interesting that it_________ in our office.
A. has seen the light B. has ridden high C. has done the rounds D. has rung the bell
33. _________ the trial progressed, _________ apparent it became that he was guilty.
A. More / more B. The farthest / the most
C. The further / the more D. Much farther / much more
34. David has a _________ to fainting at the sight of blood.
A. prediction B. projection C. predisposition D. proposition
35. I wish everybody _________the same language all over the world. Then we _________ so hard to
learn English now.
A. would speak / won’t study B. speaks / weren’t studying
C. could speak / aren’t studying D. spoke / wouldn’t be studying
36. Alex is talking to Peter at the cafeteria.
- Alex: “Let's have a drink. What would you like?” - Peter: “ ________”
A. Some coffee, please. B. Certainly. Here you are.
C. It's not good. D. Yes, I’d love to.
37. Most sociologists agree that the problem of discrimination is not _________ to any country.
A. typical B. peculiar C. unusual D. particular
38. She’s such a _________ of strength that everyone relies on her in a crisis.
A. tower B. pillar C. post D. support
39. Peter’s so _________! I think he’d think things through a little more carefully.
A. impulsive B. repulsive C. compulsive D. expulsive
40. Blake may seem bossy, but it’s Lisa that really_________ in that relationship.
A. fills their boots B. puts a sock
C. gets their knickers D. wears the trousers
41. Two friends Nick and Matt are talking about a sport match.
- Nick: “G’day mate. Did you catch the game last night?” - Matt: “_________”
A. I heard you do taekwondo. B. You must be right after all.
C. No, who played? D. Yes, you’re getting a bit closer.

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42. It is far too easy to lay the blame _________ on the shoulders of the management.
A. flatly B. willingly C. squarely D. perfectly
43. Thousand dollars_________ wasted by him in the casino.
A. was B. were C. are D. has
44. Scientifically minded people generally believe in cause-effect relationships, _________ they feel there
is a perfectly natural explanation for most things.
A. as though B. unless C. because D. otherwise
45. The science teacher asked the class _________ the results of their experiment on a graph.
A. to plotting B. to plot C. plot D. plotting
Your answers:
26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
Part 2: Give the correct form of each given word to complete the following text. Write your answers
in the numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
Ecological consultants
Ecological consultants are hired to advise developers in the construction industry on the impact their
work may have on protected wildlife. Their (46. PRIME) _______ role is to prevent the client from getting
into trouble with environmental laws by advising on habitats, obtaining permits and (47. MINIMUM)
_______ the negative effects on the countryside of the proposed development.
In order to do this work (48. EFFECT) _______, a deep knowledge and love of nature is essential,
as is a (49. WILL) _______ to work in outdoor conditions that are sometimes (50. COMFORT) _______.
A head for business and excellent presentation skills are also necessary for the job. Consultants have to be
(51. SYMPATHY) _______ to clients’ needs while at the same time ensuring government regulations are
followed. So the ability to assimilate data from a variety of sources is (52. DISPENSE) _______.
To become an ecological consultant, a (53. QUALIFY) _______ in ecology, planning or land
management may be required. However, practical experience is also important as (54. COMPETE)
_______ for jobs is fierce.
Young people interested in a career as an ecological consultant can gain (55. FAMILIAR) _______
with a range of relevant techniques by doing voluntary work with a conservation organisation in their area.
Your answers:
46. 51.
47. 52.
48. 53.
49. 54.
50. 55.
III. READING (5.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
Hearing in colour
A number of scientists around the world are now investigating a phenomenon called synaesthesia
that may 56. _______as many as one in 2,000 people. The name 57. _______from the Greek words for
together and perception and means that some people’s senses work in combination. For example, some
people 58. _______colour when they hear particular sounds. Similarly, a smell or taste may be 59.
_______as a reaction to information received from the eyes. However, the most common form of
synaesthesia occurs among people who 60. _______certain letters or words with colours. Scientists at
Cambridge University conducted experiments to determine whether this is actually a product of mental
activity or if some individuals are just 61._______imaginative. They discovered that synaesthetes, people
who experience synaesthesia, 62. _______ associate the same letters or words with the same colours. Brain
scans revealed 63. _______ activity in the brain when subjects were listening to words, suggesting that it is
a physical condition. The most plausible explanation is that synaesthetes have slightly different connections
between the areas of the brain which control their 64. _______. Synaesthesia is not a medical problem,
however, and synaesthetes often 65._______from an unusually good memory, probably because they have
extra information to help them recall things like names and numbers.
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56. A. effect B. infect C. suffer D. affect
57. A. reminds B. derives C. prescribes D. distracts
58. A. differ B. view C. see D. mind
59. A. retained B. perceived C. thought D. responded
60. A. associate B. elaborate C. conceive D. comply
61. A. deeply B. utterly C. highly D. fully
62. A. perfectly B. earnestly C. practically D. consistently
63. A. unusual B. infallible C. insecure D. incapable
64. A. consciences B. attitudes C. senses D. conditions
65. A. approve B. sting C. cure D. benefit
Your answers:
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. (1.0 point)
Have you ever stopped to think about the things you eat with? Although knives have been known
66.________ ancient times, forks have been with us for a much shorter time. Most people in the west almost
always used their fingers to eat 67.________ the fork became common at the end of the seventeenth century.
People used to 68.________ knives to cut their meat and a kind of spoon to eat soup 69.________, but the
fork as we know it these days was rare. 70.________, forks did exist in the kitchen. These were large and
used for holding meat while it was being cut. Forks for eating were 71.________ introduced into Europe
through the Byzantine Empire 72.________ about 1100 and slowly spread north through Italy and France.
During the sixteenth century, rich people in England began to carry 73._________ case containing a knife,
fork and spoon, which they would use when they 74.________. Through the eighteenth and nineteenth
centuries, knives and forks became more like we know them today. They were produced in a large
75.________ and became the traditional way of eating in Western.
Your answers:
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
Part 3: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (1.0 point)
Questions 76-81: The reading passage has six paragraphs, A-F. Choose the correct heading for
paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. Write the answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
List of Headings
i. Ideas that stood the test of time
ii. Shifting the focus of management in modern manufactures
iii. The changing role of employees in management
iv. Find fault with Drucker
v. Early publications
vi. Thinker and scholar with world-wide popularity
vii. Drucker’s concepts are flawed
viii. Iconic view of “management by objectives”
ix. Introducing new management concepts to postwar era
76. Paragraph A
77. Paragraph B
78. Paragraph C
79. Paragraph D
80. Paragraph E
81. Paragraph F
Father of modern management
A. It’s been said that Peter Drucker invented the discipline of management. Before he wrote his first
book on the topic, he knew only two companies in the world with management development programs. Ten
years after the book’s publication, 3,000 companies were teaching the subject. Widely considered as the
father of “modern management”, he wrote 39 books and countless scholarly and popular articles exploring
how humans are organized in all sectors of society-business, government and the nonprofit world. His
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writings have predicted many of the major developments of the late twentieth century, including
privatization and decentralization; the rise of Japan to a world economic power; the decisive importance of
marketing and the emergence of the information society with its necessity of lifelong learning.
B. Drucker has said that writing is the foundation of everything he does. In 1937, he published his
first book, which was written in Europe. The End of Economic Man: A Study of the New Totalitarianism
examined the spiritual and social origins of fascism. In 1940, before the United States entered the 2nd World
War, he wrote The Future of Industrial Man, in which he presented his social vision for the postwar world.
In 1943, General Motors asked Drucker to study its management practices. Drucker accepted and spent 18
months researching and writing the 1945 book, Concept of the Corporation.
C. The concepts Drucker introduced in the 1940s and 1950s have endured. In 1954, Drucker wrote
his first book that taught people how to manage Tided The Practice of Management. It introduced the
concept of “management by objectives”. Management by objectives requires managers to establish goals
for their subordinates and devise means of measuring results. Workers are then left alone to perform as they
will and measure their performance. Drucker wrote, “It is not possible to be effective unless one first decides
what one wants to accomplish”. He went on to explain that every worker must be given the tools to appraise
himself, rather than be appraised and controlled from the outside. Management by objectives has become
an accepted business concept and is probably Drucker’s most important contribution. Drucker issued
challenges to junior, middle and senior management: The very term “middle management” is becoming
meaningless [as some] will have to learn how to work with people over whom they have no direct line
control, to work transnationally, and to create, maintain, and run systems-none of which are traditionally
middle management tasks. It is top management that faces the challenge of setting directions for the
enterprise, of managing the fundamentals.
D. Drucker interviewed executives and workers, visited plants, and attended board meetings. While
the book focused on General Motors, Drucker went on to discuss the industrial corporation as a social
institution and economic policy in the postwar era. He introduced previously unknown concepts such as
cooperation between labor and management, decentralization of management, and viewing workers as
resources rather than costs. Drucker saw people as a resource, and considered that they would be more able
to satisfy customers if they had more involvement in their jobs and gained some satisfaction from doing
them. Drucker claimed that an industrial society allows people to realize their dreams of personal
achievement and equal opportunity-the need to manage business by balancing a variety of needs and goals,
rather than subordinating an institution to a single value. This concept of management by objectives forms
the keynote of his 1954 landmark, The Practice of Management. He referred to decentralization as “a system
of local self-government, in which central management tells division managers what to do, but not how to
do it. The young executives are given the freedom to make decisions - and mistakes - and learn from
the experience. Top leaders at General Motors disliked the book and discouraged their executives from
reading it. Many other American executives criticized Concept for its challenge to management authority.
E. Drucker wasn’t immune to criticism. The Wall Street Journal researched several of his lectures
in 1987 and reported that he was sometimes loose with facts. Drucker was off the mark, for example, when
he told an audience that English was the official language for all employees at Japan’s Mitsui trading
company. And he was known for his prescience. Given the recent involvement of the US government with
financial companies, he was probably correct in his forecast when he anticipated, for instance, that the
nation’s financial center would shift from New York to Washington, others maintain that one of Drucker’s
core concepts –“management by objectives”- is flawed and has never really been proven to
work effectively. Specifically, critics say that the system is difficult to implement, and that companies often
wind up overemphasizing control, as opposed to fostering creativity, to meet their goals. Drucker didn’t shy
away from controversy, either.
F. Throughout his career, Drucker expanded his position that management was “a liberal art” and
he infused his management advice with interdisciplinary lessons including history, sociology, psychology,
philosophy, culture and religion. He also strongly believed that all institutions, including those in the private
sector, had a responsibility for the whole society. “The fact is,” Drucker wrote in 1973, “that in modern
society there is no other leadership group but managers. If the managers of our major institutions, especially
in business, do not take responsibility for the common goal, no one else can or will.” In his books, lectures
and interviews, the emergence of knowledge workers is only one of the demographic changes Drucker
warns businesses to prepare for. Others include a decreasing birth rate in developed countries, a shift in
population from rural to urban centers, shifts in distribution of disposable income and global
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competitiveness. Drucker believes these changes will have a tremendous impact on business. Drucker held
a profound skepticism of macroeconomic theory and contended that economists of all schools fail to explain
significant aspects of modern economies. Business “gums” have come and gone during the last 50 years,
but Drucker’s message continues to inspire managers. During the 1990s, Drucker wrote about
social, political and economic changes of the “postcapitalist” era, which he says are as profound as those of
the industrial revolution. In Managing for the Future: The 1990s and Beyond (1992), Drucker discussed the
emergence of the “knowledge worker”- whose resources include specialized learning or competency rather
than land, labor or other forms of capital.
Questions 82-85: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading
passage? In boxes 82-85, write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
82. Drucker believed the employees should enjoy the same status as the employers in a company.
83. Middle management tasks will change since companies become more complicated and run business
globally.
84. Drucker strongly support that economists of schools have resources to explain the problems of modern
economies at least in a macroeconomics scope.
85. Drucker’s ideas proposed half a century ago are out of date in modern days.
Your answers:
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
Part 4: Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following
questions. (1.0 point)
The Creators of Grammar
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word
sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations
in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to
take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this
complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called “primitive” tribes have
clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between “you
and I”, “several other people and I” and “you, another person and I”. In English, all these meanings are
summed up in the one, crude pronoun “we”. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language,
no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who created
grammar?
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is
created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence. Many
historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to
answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how
languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from
a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer’s rule. Since they had no
opportunity to learn each other’s languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins
are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar,
and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom.
[A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [B] Interestingly,
however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to
it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of
words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [D] Complex
grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not
simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages.
Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was
documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in
1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip
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reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures
that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no
consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was
already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older
children, the younger children’s language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of
grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A
new creole was born.
Some linguists believe that many of the world’s most established languages were creoles at first.
The English past tense -ed ending may have evolved from the verb “do”. “It ended” may once have been
“It end-did”. Therefore, it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by
children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when
they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical,
complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
86. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures.
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar.
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language.
87. Which sentence is CLOSEST in meaning to the highlighted sentence? “Grammar is universal and
plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.”
A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common than languages that contain a little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
88. The phrase “from scratch” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.
A. from the very beginning B. in simple cultures
C. by copying something else D. by using written information
89. What can be inferred about the slaves’ pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar. B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves. D. It was created by the land-owners.
90. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
“It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin
language, nor the language of the colonizers.”
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
91. The word “make-shift” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. complicated and expressive B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse D. private and personal
92. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT _______
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
93. The word “consistent” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by _______.
A. natural B. predictable C. imaginable D. uniform
94. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT _______
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
95. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.

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Your answers:
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.
Part 5: You are going to read a newspaper article about a young professional footballer. For questions
96-105, choose from the sections (A – D). The sections may be chosen more than once. Write your
answers in the corresponding number boxes provided (1.0 point)
Which paragraph…
96. states how surprised the writer was at Duncan’s early difficulties?
97. says that Duncan sometimes seems much more mature than he really is?
98. describes the frustration felt by Duncan’s father?
99. says that Duncan is on course to reach a high point in his profession?
100. suggests that Duncan caught up with his team-mates in terms of physical development?
101. explains how Duncan was a good all-round sportsperson?
102. gives an example of how Gavin reassured his son?
103. mentions Duncan’s current club’s low opinion of him at one time?
104. mentions a personal success despite a failure for the team?
105. explains how Duncan and his father are fulfilling a similar role?
Rising Star
Margaret Garelly goes to meet Duncan Williams, who plays for Chelsea Football Club.
A. It’s my first time driving to Chelsea’s training ground and I turn off slightly too early at the London
University playing fields. Had he accepted football’s rejections in his early teenage years, it is exactly the
sort of ground Duncan Williams would have found himself running around on at weekends. At his current
age of 18, he would have been a bright first-year undergraduate mixing his academic studies with a bit of
football, rugby and cricket, given his early talent in all these sports. However, Duncan undoubtedly took
the right path. Instead of studying, he is sitting with his father Gavin in one of the interview rooms at
Chelsea’s training base reflecting on Saturday’s match against Manchester City. Such has been his rise to
fame that it is with some disbelief that you listen to him describing how his career was nearly all over before
it began.
В. Gavin, himself a fine footballer – a member of the national team in his time – and now a professional
coach, sent Duncan to three professional clubs as a 14 year-old, but all three turned him down. “I worked
with him a lot when he was around 12, and it was clear he had fantastic technique and skill. But then the
other boys shot up in height and he didn’t. But I was still upset and surprised that no team seemed to want
him, that they couldn’t see what he might develop into in time. When Chelsea accepted him as a junior, it
was made clear to him that this was more of a last chance than a new beginning. They told him he had a lot
of hard work to do and wasn’t part of their plans. Fortunately, that summer he just grew and grew, and got
much stronger as well.”
C. Duncan takes up the story: “The first half of that season I played in the youth team. I got lucky - the first-
team manager came to watch us play QPR, and though we lost 3-1, I had a really good game. I moved up
to the first team after that performance.” Gavin points out that it can be beneficial to be smaller and weaker
when you are developing - it forces you to learn how to keep the ball better, how to use “quick feet” to get
out of tight spaces. “A couple of years ago, Duncan would run past an opponent as if he wasn’t there but
then the other guy would close in on him. I used to say to him, “Look, if you can do that now, imagine what
you’ll be like when you’re 17, 18 and you’re big and quick and they won’t be able to get near you.” If
you’re a smaller player, you have to use your brain a lot more.”
D. Not every kid gets advice from an ex-England player over dinner, nor their own private training sessions.
Now Duncan is following in Gavin’s footsteps. He has joined a national scheme where people like him give
advice to ambitious young teenagers who are hoping to become professionals. He is an old head on young
shoulders. Yet he’s also like a young kid in his enthusiasm. And fame has clearly not gone to his head; it
would be hard to meet a more likeable, humble young man. So will he get to play for the national team?
“One day I’d love to, but when that is, is for somebody else to decide.” The way he is playing, that won’t
be long.
Your answers:
96. 97. 98 99. 100.
101. 102. 103. 104. 105.

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IV. WRITING (5.0 POINTS)
Part 1: For questions 106-110, complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
the same as the sentence provided before it. (0.5 point)
106. We couldn’t have been successful in our business without my father’s investment.
 If it________________________________________________________________.
107. John didn’t celebrate until he received the offer of promotion in writing.
 Not until____________________________________________________________.
108. People believe that Maradona was the best football player in the 20th century.
 Maradona ___________________________________________________________.
109. “Would you like to come over to my house for a slide show?” Laura said to me.
 Laura invited ________________________________________________________.
110. Would you mind not smoking in here?
 I’d rather___________________________________________________________.
Part 2: For questions 111-115, complete each of the following sentences by using the words given so
that it has the similar meaning with the sentence provided before it. Do not change the word given.
(0.5 point)
111. The girl in blue is temporarily in the first place of the list of the candidates. (BEING)
 For the time__________________________________________________________.
112. My children are not accustomed to watching VTV news after dinner. (HABIT)
 My children are not ____________________________________________________.
113. Even if they don’t like the idea, they’ll have to go with her. (WHETHER)
 They’ll ______________________________________________________________.
114. Unfortunately, all her efforts were unsuccessful. (NOTHING)
 Unfortunately, all her ___________________________________________________.
115. She is different from his brother in almost all respects. (BEARS)
 She _________________________________________________________________.
Part 3: Graph description (1.5 points)
The chart below shows the amount of leisure time enjoyed by men and women of different
employment status in a particular country between 1998 and 1999. Summarize the information by
selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words

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Part 4: Essay writing (2.5 points)
Write an essay on the following topic:
Some people say free time activities for teenagers should be controlled by parents. Others say
that they should be free to choose what they do in their spare time. Discuss both views and give your
opinion.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words.
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_THE END_

Họ tên thí sinh:................................................................Số báo danh:.........................................................

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG CẤP TỈNH THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024
MÔN: Tiếng Anh
Đáp án gồm: 03 trang

I. LISTENING (5.0 POINTS)

Part 1: (2.0 points) 0.2 point for each correct answer
1. keogh/ KEOGH 2. 15 hours 3. garden 4. music 5. story
6. 470 7. farm 8. toy 9. pillow 10. 0914638520

Part 2: (2.0 points) 0.2 point for each correct answer

11.C 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.A
16. fertiliser / 17. soup 18. (working) light 19. (waterproof) 20. (marked) trails /
fertilizer / torch jacket path

Part 3: (1.0 point) 0.2 point for each correct answer

21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C

II. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (3.0 POINTS)

Part 1: (2.0 points) 0.1 point for each correct answer
26. B 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. D
36. A 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. B

Part 2: (1.0 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer

46. primary 51. sympathetic
47. minimising/minimizing 52. indispensable
48. effectively 53. qualification
49. willingness 54. competition
50. uncomfortable 55. familiarity

III. READING (5.0 POINTS)

Part 1: (1.0 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer
56. D 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. A
61. C 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. D

Part 2: (1.0 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer

66. since 67. until/before 68. have/use/ 69. with 70. However
utilize/ utilise
71. first 72. in 73. a 74. ate 75. number/quantity

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Part 3: (1.0 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer
76. vi 77. v 78. viii 79. iii 80. iv 81. i
82. NG 83.T 84.F 85. F

Part 4: (1.0 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer

86. A 87. A 88. A 89. C 90. D
91. B 92. B 93. D 94. D 95. A

Part 5: (1.0 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer

96. A 97. D 98. B 99. D 100. B
101. A 102. C 103. B 104. C 105. D

IV. WRITING (5.0 POINTS)

Part 1: (0.5 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer
106. If it hadn’t been for my father’s investment, we couldn’t have been successful in our business.
107. Not until he received the offer of promotion in writing did John celebrate.
108. Maradona is believed to have been the best football player in the 20th century.
109. Laura invited me to come over to her house for a slide show.
110. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here.
Part 2: (0.5 point) 0.1 point for each correct answer
111. For the time being, the girl in blue is in the first place of the list of the candidates.
112. My children are not in the habit of watching VTV news after dinner.
113. They’ll have to go with her whether they like the idea or not.
114. Unfortunately all her efforts came to nothing.
115. She bears little/ hardly any resemblance to his brother.

Part 3: (1.5 points)

* Contents (1.0 point)
- The report MUST cover the following points:
+ Introduce the chart (0.2 point) and state the striking features (0.2 point)
+ Describe main features with relevant data from the charts and make relevant comparisons (0.6 point)
- The report MUST NOT contain personal opinions. (A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to personal
opinions found in the answer.)
* Language use (0.5 point) The report should:
- demonstrate a wide variety of lexical and grammatical structures,
- have correct use of words (verb tenses, word forms, voice,…); and mechanics (spelling, punctuations,...).

Part 4: (2.5 points)

The mark given to part 4 is based on the following criteria:

1. Task achievement (0.8 point)

a. All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
b. Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples, evidence,
personal experience, etc.

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2. Organization (0.7 point)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
b. The essay is well-structured:
- Introduction is presented with a clear thesis statement introducing the points to be developed.
- Body paragraphs develop the points introduced with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragraph
must have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary.
- Conclusion summarizes the main points and offers personal opinions (prediction, recommendation,
consideration,…) on the issue.
3. Language use (0.5 point)
a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (0.5 point)
c. Correct punctuation and no spelling mistakes
d. Legible handwriting

V. SPEAKING: (2.0 POINTS)

1. Task achievement (0.5 point)
a. All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
b. Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples, evidence,
personal experience, etc.

2. Organization (0.5 point)

a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
b. The speech is well-structured:

3. Language use (0.5 point)

a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures
c. Correct pronunciation
d. Fluency
4. Pronunciation and fluency (0.5 point)
* Note: The judges musn’t subtract the candidates’ points if they get excellent answers but speak less than
5 minutes.

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