SANGRAM-1

2025
All India Open Mock
General Studies
Full Length Test
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(a) 1 only
1. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 only
respect to the Right to Equality:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Article 1 of the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights provides that “all are equal (d) Neither 1 nor 2
before the law and are entitled without
any discrimination to equal protection of 3. In the Indian context, “Transformative
the law.” Constitutionalism” implies:

2. Under Article 14 of the Indian (a) To keep in bounds the exercise of

Constitution, all persons and things in power by organs of state
similar circumstances should be treated (b) Constitutional Morality
alike, both in privileges conferred and
liabilities imposed. (c) Constitutional Amendment
3. Both Individuals and Juristic persons (d) Social Revolution
are entitled to the benefit of Article 14 of
the Indian constitution.
4. Consider the following statements with
respect to the National Commission for
Which of the statements given above Backward Classes:
is/are correct? 1. Article 338B of the Constitution of
(a) 1 and 2 only India provides for the National
Commission for Backward Classes.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. The conditions of service and tenure of
(c) 2 and 3 only the office of the Chairperson and other
Members shall be determined by the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Parliament.

2. Consider the following statements: 3. The Commission has the power to

investigate and monitor all matters
1. According to the Citizenship Act 1955, relating to the safeguards provided for the
no person shall be a citizen of India if he socially, economically and educationally
has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of backward classes under the Constitution.
any foreign State. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
2. The Constitution of India provides for
the rights of citizenship of certain persons (a) 1 and 2 only
who have migrated to India from Pakistan
and rights of citizenship of certain (b) 1 only
migrants to Pakistan.
(c) 2 only
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3

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5. Consider the following statements with 7. Which of the following correctly
respect to the Constitutional Amendment explains ‘socialism’ as envisaged in the
Bill:
Indian polity?
1. The State Legislatures can initiate any 1. Elimination of inequality of income and
Bill or proposal for amendment of the status
constitution.
2. The Constitutional Amendment Bills 2. Abolition of private property
are to be passed by the Parliament in the 3. Put private property under restraints
same way as ordinary Bills.
4. Nationalisation of all means of
3. Previous sanction of the President is
not required for the introduction of the production
Constitutional Amendment Bill in the
Parliament. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is/are
correct? (c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 8. Consider the following statements with
respect to the relationship between
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Articles 32 and 226:
1. Orders under Article 32 will supersede
6. Consider the following statements with the orders of the High Court previously
respect to the Fundamental Duties: passed.
1. Fundamental Duties are directed at the 2. A writ application for the violation of
inculcation of normal civic behaviour. Fundamental Rights should be first made
in the High Court before approaching the
2. Fundamental Duties under Part IVA Supreme Court.
are correlative of Fundamental Rights
under Part III. 3. An application under Articles 32 and
226 is a substantive and not a procedural
How many of the statements given above right.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, and 3

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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9. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Supreme Court:
11. The basic criteria for rainfall to be
called a cloud burst is:
1. Parliament may regulate the procedure
for the appointment of the Chief Justice of (a) 100 mm per hour
India and other judges of the Supreme
Court. (b) 200 mm per hour
2. When the office of the Chief Justice is (c) 100 mm per day
vacant, the senior most judge of the
Supreme Court performs the duties as (d) 200 mm per day
acting Chief Justice.
3. The Supreme Court has exclusive
jurisdiction with regard to questions 12. Consider the following pairs with
regarding the constitutional validity of respect to the passes:
Central Laws.
Passes States
Which of the following statements is/are
correct? 1. Shipki La : Ladakh
2. Talu : Arunachal Pradesh
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Karakoram : Himachal
(b) 1 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly
(c) 3 only matched?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
10. Consider the following statements (c) Only three pairs
with respect to the writ of Habeas Corpus:
(d) None of the above
1. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be
made by any person on behalf of the
detenu including a stranger.
2. While dealing with an application for a 13. The term ‘devonian’ is associated with
writ of Habeas Corpus, the Supreme which of the following?
Court and High Courts may not require
the production of the body of a person (a) Geological Period
detained by the State in all cases.
How many of the statements given above (b) Mountain Peak
is/are correct?
(c) River
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) International Boundary Line
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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14. Consider the following statements 16. The term ‘dhrian’ refers to which of
with respect to the Gondwana System: the following?
1. Gondwana rocks are found in (a) Semi-arid plain
Darjeeling and Sikkim.
(b) Fertile tracts
2. 98% of India’s coal reserves are found (c) Sandy plain
in Gondwana.
(d) Shifting sand dunes
3. Deposits of iron ore, copper, uranium
and antimony are found in Gondwana. 17. Which of the following rivers arises
Which of the statements given above near Hongashenhalli in the Kollar district
is/are correct? of Karnataka and has a catchment area
covering the states of Tamil Nadu,
(a) 1 and 2 only
Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) Ponnaiyar river
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Cauvery river
(c) Pennar River
15. Consider the following glaciers of the
(d) Vaigai river
Himalayan mountains:
Glaciers Location
18. Which of the following forests are
1. Mombil Yaz : Shyok Valley characterised by many species, frequently
buttressed trunks, rougher
2. Biafo : Braldoh Valley
and thicker bark, heavy climbers, less
3. Yarkand Remo : Shingshal Valley bamboos and abundant epiphytes?
4. Siachen : Nubra Valley
(a) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests
How many of the above pairs are (b) Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forests
correctly matched? (c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests
(a) Only one pair
(d) Littoral and Swamp Forests
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) None of the above

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19. Consider the following: 2. Vedic Texts
3. Puranas
1. Differential ground settlement 4. Sangam Texts
2. Solidification
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Ground lurching given below.
4. Fires (a) 1-2-3-4
Which of the following are the effects of (b) 2-3-1-4
earthquakes?
(c) 2-4-1-3
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2-1-4-3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
22. Which of the following Buddhist Texts
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 deals about women’s experience of
renunciation?
(a) Nettipakarana
20. Consider the following:
(b) Milindapanha
1. Termites
(c) Therigatha
2. Rodents
(d) Nidanakatha
3. Decaying plant and animal matter
4. Plant roots 23. The sites Koldihawa, Mahagara,
Kunjhun, Lahuradeva, Didwana-Sambhar
Which of the following contribute to represent:
weathering?
(a) Lower Paleolithic sites
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) Sites of early centres of agriculture
(c) Early Mesolithic sites

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) Sites of earliest cities in the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only sub-continent
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Consider the following statements
with respect to the assemblies mentioned
21. Arrange the composition of the in the Rig Veda:
following Ancient Indian Texts in
chronological order: 1. Sabha is a small and more elite
gathering.
1. Dharmasutras

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2. Samitis played an important role in the 1. Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta
redistribution of resources. Madrassa for the study and teaching of
Muslim law.
3. At Vidatha people performed
socio-religious rituals. 2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit
College for the study of Hindu law.
How many of above statements are
correct 3. The Woods Despatch repudiated the
“downward filtration” theory.
(a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two
(c) All three
25. Which of the following act was passed (d) None
by the British parliament on the basis of
the August Declaration?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 28. Consider the following statements
with respect to the economic impact of
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 British Rule in India in the nineteenth
century:
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
1. The decay of the traditional industries
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 was accompanied by the growth of
modern machine industries.

26. Which of the following Acts decreed 2. British conquest led to the increased
that all recruits to the Civil Service were dependence of the people on agriculture.
to be selected through a competitive
exam? 3. The cotton-weaving and spinning
industries were the worst hit.
(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833 Which of the statements given above
(c) Charter Act, 1853 is/are correct?
(d) Government of India Act, 1858 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
27. Consider the following statements (c) 2 and 3 only
with respect to the education development (d) 1, 2 and 3
in India:

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29. Consider the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2
with respect to Swadeshi Movement:

1. Creative use of traditional popular

festivals and meals as a means of 31. Consider the following statements
reaching out to the masses. with respect to monopoly:
2. Campaigns against evils such as caste 1. No close substitute for the product, a
oppression, early marriage, the dowry firm produces, is available in the market.
system, consumption of alcohol, etc.
2. The cross elasticity of demand between
3. Emphasis was given to self-reliance or the product of the monopolist and the
‘Atmasakti’ product of any other producer must be
4. The Swadeshi Movement was able to very large.
garner the support of the mass of 3. Strong barriers to entry into the
Muslims and especially of the Muslim industry exist.
peasantry.
Which of the statements given above How many of the above is/are associated
with monopoly?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

32. Consider the following components:

30. Consider the following statements
with respect to the Mahajanapadas in the 1. Machinery
6th century BCE:
2. Raw materials
1. Two kinds of states are included in the
list of mahajanapadas- monarchies and 3. Goods in process and fuel
non-monarchical states.
4. Factories
2. Magadha was the most powerful and
eastern-most mahajanpada. How many of the above are the
components of working capital?
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) Only 2
(b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 only

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(d) Relative prices of goods do not reflect
their opportunity costs.
33. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: A country tends to 35. Unemployed workers lack skills
specialise in the production of those required by expanding industries is a
goods for which it has got relative or feature of:
comparative advantage.
(a) Frictional Unemployment
Statement II: A country tends to
specialise in the production of those (b) Structural Unemployment
goods for which it has got higher (c) Cyclical Unemployment
comparative cost.
(d) Natural Rate of Unemployment
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement 36. Which of the following are part of the
II are correct and Statement II is assets of Commercial Banks?
the correct explanation for
Statement I 1. Balance with RBI
(b) Both Statement-I and 2. Capital
Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct 3. Advances
explanation for Statement-I
4. Deposits
(c) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect
but Statement II is correct (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
34. Which of the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
statements given is/are
correct with respect to

the concept of costs? 37. Consider the following statements:

(a) Economic cost is the difference of 1. When the supply of high-powered
accounting cost and input cost. money H decreases.
(b) Economic profit is the sum of total 2. When the currency deposit ratio (k)3 of
revenue and total economic cost. the public decreases.
(c) Opportunity cost of any good is the 3. When the cash or currency
next best alternative good that is reserves-deposit ratio of the banks (r)
sacrificed. falls.

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Which of the statements contribute to the (c) Statement I is correct but
increase in money supply? Statement II is incorrect
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Statement I is incorrect
but Statement II is correct
(b) 1 and 3 only
40. Under which of the
(c) 2 and 3 only
following circumstances
(d) 1, 2 and 3 tight monetary policy of the
RBI may become
redundant?
38. Which of the following is the
consequence when budget deficit is 1. Banks having surplus Cash Reserves
financed through borrowing from the 2. Condition on economic boom prevail in
market: Economy
1. Demand for loanable funds decreases 3. Interest rates in U.S, Eurozone are high
2. Increase in interest rate (a) 1 only
3. Crowd out private investment (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 41. The term ‘Goldilocks zone’ in news is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 associated with:
39. Consider the following statements: (a) Space
Statement I: Inflation redistributes (b) Trade
income and wealth. (c) Geopolitics
Statement II: Unanticipated inflation (d) R-DNA technology
harms creditors and benefits debtors.
Which one of the following is correct in 42. Consider the following statements:
respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The James Webb Space
(a) Both Statement I and Statement Telescope is a large, space-based
II are correct and Statement II is observatory, optimised for ultra violet
the correct explanation for wavelengths.
Statement I
Statement II: The longer wavelengths
(b) Both Statement-I and enable Webb to look further back in time
Statement-II are correct and to find the first galaxies that formed in the
Statement-II is not the correct early Universe.
explanation for Statement-I

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Which one of the following is correct in 3. The causative organism for Chicken
respect of the above statements? pox is a bacteria.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement
II are correct and Statement II is the How many of the statements given above
correct explanation for Statement I is/are correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and (a) 1 only
Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct (b) 1 and 2 only
explanation for Statement-I
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Statement I is incorrect
but Statement II is correct
45. Consider the following regarding
hydrophilic polymers:
43. Consider the following statements 1. Paper manufacture
with respect to the Agni Prime Missile:
2. Textile sizing and finishing
1. Agni-Prime is a three-stage canisterised
solid propellant ballistic 3. Water purification and effluent
missile with a dual redundant navigation treatment
and guidance system.
4. Emulsion paints
2. It has a range of 1,000-2,000km and
was tested for the first time in June 2021. How many of the above are the potential
application areas of Hydrophilic
How many of the statements given above polymers?
is/are correct?
(a) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Consider the following statements

44. Consider the following statements: regarding Bacteria and Archaea:
1. Viruses reproduce only inside the cells 1. Bacteria are unicellular organisms,
of the host organism, which may be a whereas Archaea are multicellular
bacterium. organisms.
2. All microorganisms, such as bacteria, 2. Bacterias reproduce asexually, whereas
algae, protozoa, and fungi, are unicellular. Archaea reproduce sexually.

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3. Both Bacteria and Archaea have a cell 49. Consider the following statements
wall. with respect to the Cryogenic engine:
How many of the statements given above 1. A Cryogenic engine is a type of engine
are correct? that uses liquefied gasses as fuel and
oxidisers.
(a) Only one
2. The power of a Cryogenic engine comes
(b) Only two from rotating motion.
(c) All three 3. The efficiency of the Cryogenic engine
is because of its hypergolic nature.
(d) None
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
47. Aspirin, probably the world’s most
widely used drug, was derived from the (a) 2 and 3 only
leaves of : (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Dasypus novemcinctus (c) 1 only
(b) Salix alba
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Trichechus manatus
(d) Catharanthus roseus
50. Consider the following statements:
48. Consider the following statements 1. mRNA basically uses our own body and
regarding heat: biological processes to potentially treat
diseases and prevent infections.
1. In solids, generally, the heat is
transferred by conduction. 2. mRNA could get into cells without
triggering the body’s defenses.
2. In liquids and gases, the heat is
transferred by convection. How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
3. Medium is required for the transfer of
heat by radiation. (a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above (b) 2 only
are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three
51. Consider the following statements
(d) None with respect to the wetlands:

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1. In wetlands, the rate of oxygen (c) Savanna
diffusion through the waterlogged soils is
high. (d) Tropical Rain Forest
2. Wetlands play a major role in the global
nitrogen cycle.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
54. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The ability to fix nitrogen is distributed
(b) 2 only among the eubacteria and the archea.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The rhizobia bacteria fix nitrogen in the
root nodules of leguminous plants and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 not in non-leguminous plants.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
52. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only
with respect to the deserts:
(b) 2 only
1. Approximately 20% of the surface area
of the Earth is covered by deserts. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. In many deserts, freezing temperatures (d) Neither 1 nor 2
are common at night and tolerance of
frost is almost as important as tolerance
of drought.
55. Consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? 1. The present global climate change
increases the solubility of CO2 and the net
(a) 1 only rate of CO2 uptake by the oceans.
(b) 2 only 2. Warm waters absorb carbon dioxide
from the atmosphere, while cold waters
(c) Both 1 and 2 release carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
53. A characteristic of which of the
following biome is that often many tree (a) 1 only
seedlings and saplings remain in a
suppressed state from year to year? (b) 2 only
(a) Temperate Forest (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Tundra (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

56. Consider the following statements:

58. Which of the following is the term
1. Much of the methane formed in
wetlands and lake sediments doesn’t ‘Global Stocktake’ associated with?
escape to the atmosphere.
(a) Kyoto Protocol
2. Methane from ancient geological (b) Paris Agreement
formations contains 14C.
(c) Ramsar Convention
3. Increase in meat consumption by
humans is directly linked to the increase (d) Convention on Biological Diversity
in methane levels. (CBD)

How many of the statements given above 59. The Emissions Gap Report (EGR), an
is/are correct? annual report is published by:
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) UNEP
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) UNFCC
(c) 3 only (c) UNDP
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) The United Nations Convention to
Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
57. Consider the following statements
with respect to the nitrogen pollution:
60. Which of the following is not a
1. Nitrogen pollution contributes directly greenhouse gas?
to human diseases including cancer and
heart diseases. (a) Carbon Monoxide

2. Nitrogen deposition leads to decreased (b) Water Vapour

pollen formation by many plants. (c) Nitrous Oxide
3. Nitrogen pollution is much greater in (d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
the major agricultural areas of the world.
How many of the statements given above 61. Which of the following led to the
is/are correct? development of the Deccan traps?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Batholiths

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(b) Lapolith (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) Sills
(d) Dykes 64. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: By early morning hours
in winter, the earth is cooler than the
air above.
62. Consider the following statements Statement II: Cold air at the hills and
with respect to dust particles: mountains, produced during the
1. Dust particles are concentrated in the night, flows under the influence of
lower layers of the atmosphere since they gravity.
cannot be transported to great heights.
Which one of the following is correct in
2. Higher concentration of dust particles respect of the above statements?
are found in equatorial and polar regions.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement
How many of the statements given above II are correct and Statement II is
is/are correct? the correct explanation for
Statement I
(a) 1 only (b) Both Statement-I and
(b) 2 only Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is not the correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect
but Statement II is correct
63. Consider the following factors:
1. Latitude of a place 65. Consider the following:
2. Altitude of a place Tropical Cyclone Location
1. Cyclone : Atlantic
3. Distance from the sea
2. Hurricane : Indian Ocean
4. Air-mass and ocean currents 3. Typhoon : South China Sea
5. Local aspects 4. Willy-willy : Western Pacific

Which of the above factors controls How many of the above pairs are
temperature distribution?
correctly matched?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Only one pair
(b) 1, 2, and 5 only (b) Only two pairs
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) Only three pairs

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(d) None of the above 1. Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea
water and making up shorelines in high
latitudes are called cirques.
66. Consider the following statements 2. The long axes of drumlins are
with respect to the clouds: perpendicular to the direction of glacier
movement.
1. Cloud is a mass of minute water
droplets or tiny crystals of ice. How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
2. Cirrus clouds are formed at high
altitudes and are always black or dark (a) 1 only
grey in colour.
(b) 2 only
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
69. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. UNRWA was established by the UN
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 General Assembly Resolution “to carry out
[…] direct relief and works programmes”
for Palestine refugees.
2. The Agency has a mandate to engage in
67. Consider the following statements political negotiations or durable solutions.
with respect to salinity:
How many of the statements given above
1. The salinity of the Indian Ocean is is/are correct?
greater than that of the Red Sea.
(a) 1 only
2. The Bay of Bengal is more saline than
the Arabian Sea. (b) 2 only
How many of the statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
70. Oromia and Amhara regions in news
(c) Both 1 and 2 for prolonged conflict are located in:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Somalia
(b) Ethiopia
68. Consider the following statements: (c) Sudan
(d) Libya

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71. The term ‘Shansab’ during the (a) 1 and 3 only
Mughal era refers to which of the
following? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Land Tax (c) 3 only
(b) Rent-free Land (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Water Tax
(d) Coins
72. The great Sanskrit compendium of 75. Consider the following statements
music Samgita-Ratnakara was composed with respect to the Subsidiary Alliance:
during the reign of which of the following?
1. The basic principles of the Subsidiary
(a) Akbar alliance were formulated prior to the
British by the French in South India.
(b) Sultan Firoz Shah
2. Subsidiary Alliance had provisions for
(c) Muhammad Shah Rangeela territorial cessions.
(d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq 3. Tipu Sultan of Mysore entered into a
Subsidiary Alliance with the British.
How many of the statements given above
73. Rabatak inscription of Afghanistan is/are correct?
provides valuable details about which of
the following dynasties? (a) 1 and 2
(a) Sakas (b) 1 only
(b) Kushanas (c) 2 only
(c) Mauryans (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Guptas
76. What was the name given to an
Indian agent of the East India Company,
74. Consider the following statements who was in charge of information
with respect to the Jataka Stories: gathering?
1. Themes of hierarchy and pollution (a) Banian
taboos occur frequently.
(b) Aurang
2. Jataka stories also deal with Animals.
(c) Mukhim
3. Jataka stories are set in the age of
Buddha. (d) Shroff
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?

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77. What is the common factor 80. Hayʼat Tahrir al-Sham, an Islamist
experienced by Burkina Faso, Mali, Niger, political and paramilitary organisation,
Guinea in recent years? has been very actively conducting
operations recently in:
(a) Floods
(a) Turkey
(b) IMF bailout
(b) Syria
(c) Military Juntas
(c) Qatar
(d) Increase in food production
(d) Ukraine

78. The book “Quarterlife” released

recently was written by: 81. Consider the following statements:
(a) Meena Kandasamy 1. As a result of higher rate of inflation in
India, the US dollar will appreciate and
(b) Anuja Chauhan the Indian rupee will depreciate.
(c) Kamala Surriyya 2. Devaluation (depreciation) will reduce
a country’s trade deficit.
(d) Devika Rege
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
79. Which of the following are the (a) 1 only
bordering countries of the Baltic Sea?
(b) 2 only
1. Belarus
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Germany
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Latvia
4. Estonia
82. Which of the following is the
5. Sweden consequence of the demonstration effect
of consumption?
How many of the given above is/are
correct? 1. Increase in consumption
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Reduction in capacity to save
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only 3. Consumption behaviour depends on
absolute real income
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only

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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
83. Consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement I: Under the KCC Scheme,
credit is made available at a very
subsidised rate of 4% per annum. 85. Consider the following statements
with respect to the money market and
Statement II: The Kisan Credit Card capital market:
scheme aims at providing adequate
1. Bonds are issued by companies,
and timely credit support for the financial institutions, municipalities or
consumption requirements of farmer government companies and are normally
households. secured assets.
2. Certificate of Deposits (CDs) are
Which one of the following is correct in short-term secured instruments issued by
respect of the above statements? the banks for their cash management.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement
II are correct and Statement II is 3. Commercial Papers (CPs) are
the correct explanation for short-term unsecured instruments issued
Statement I by the companies for their cash
management.
(b) Both Statement-I and
Statement-II are correct and How many of the statements given above
Statement-II is not the correct is/are correct?
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but (a) 1 and 3 only
Statement II is incorrect (b) 3 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect
but Statement II is correct (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
84. Consider the following statements: 86. Which of the following biosphere
reserves covers Parts of Betul,
1. Cash Management Bills are type of Hoshangabad and Chindwara districts of
T-bills but are issued for maturities less Madhya Pradesh?
than 91 days.
(a) Pachmarhi
2. Dated G-Secs are securities carry a
fixed or floating coupon. Generally, the (b) Panna
tenor of dated securities ranges from 5
years to 40 years. (c) Achanakamar - Amarkantak
How many of the statements given above (d) Dibru-Saikhowa
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
87. Consider the following statements:

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1. Wetlands are protected under the 1. Leatherback Turtle (Dermochelys
Indian Forest Act (1927), the Forest coriacea) is distributed only in the Indian
(Conservation) Act (1980), and the Indian Ocean.
Wildlife (Protection) Act (1972).
2. All the coastal states of India have
2. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary is a large nesting of Leatherback Turtle.
shallow wetland located in Karnataka.
3. It is the largest extant marine turtle in
How many of the statements given above the world.
is/are correct?
How many of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following statements
with respect to the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972: 90. Consider the following statements
with respect to the Hangul:
1. Hunting of wild animals is permitted in
certain cases under law. 1. Hangul is a highly threatened and the
only subspecies of the Red deer (Cervus
2. No grazing of any live-stock shall be elaphus) to be found in India.
permitted in a National Park.
2. Hangul is one of the most critically
3. The Tiger Conservation Authority is endangered species found in the
headed by Prime Minister. temperate grasslands of western
Himalayas.
How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. Consider the following statements

regarding Leatherback Turtle: 91. Consider the following statements
with respect to the powers of the
Governor:

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1. The Governor has the power to appoint (a) Sir Frederick Whyte
judges of the state High Court.
(b) Vithalbhai J. Patel
2. The Governor has no emergency
powers to meet the situation arising from (c) Sir Muhammad Yakub
external aggression but has
emergency powers to deal with armed (d) G.V. Mavalankar
rebellion.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 94. Consider the following statements:

(c) Both 1 and 2 Statement I: The Constitution of the

Indian Republic is the product of a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 political revolution.
Statement II: The Constitution of India
was made by the public themselves,
92. Consider the following statements through representatives assembled in a
with respect to the joint sitting: sovereign Constituent Assembly.
1. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting Which one of the following is correct in
is one-tenth of the total number of respect of the above statements?
members of the Lok Sabha. (a) Both Statement I and Statement
II are correct and Statement II is
2. At a joint sitting, the Speaker, or the the correct explanation for
person acting as such, shall not vote. Statement I
3. In case of deadlock between the two (b) Both Statement-I and
Houses, it is obligatory upon the Statement-II are correct and
President to summon the Houses to meet
in a joint sitting. Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
Which of the following statements is/are (c) Statement I is correct but
correct?
Statement II is incorrect
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Statement I is incorrect
(b) 2 and 3 only but Statement II is correct
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 95. With respect to the Constitutional
history of India, which of the following
dates is considered as appointed Day?
93. Who was appointed as the first
Speaker of the Central Legislative (a) August 15th, 1947
Assembly?

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(b) November 26th, 1947 (b) 2 only
(c) January 26th, 1950 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) July 18th, 1947 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. Which of the following are the 98. Consider the following statements
characteristics of Sovereignty? regarding Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
Grameen Kaushalya Yojana:
1. Absolute and unlimited
1. The scheme "Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
2. Universality or all comprehensiveness Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)"
is a program of the Ministry of Human
3. Divisible Resources Development (MHRD).
4. Impermanent 2. The target group for DDU-GKY is poor
rural youth in the age group 25-35.
5. Inalienable
3. Benefits of the programme include
How many of the above is/are correct? skill training, placement assistance,
post-placement support.
(a) 1 and 5 only
How many of the above statements is/are
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 correct?
(c) 1, 2, and 4 (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
97. Consider the following government (d) 1, 2 and 3
schemes:
1. The Nikshay Poshan Yojana is a
Government of India initiative to 99. Consider the following statements
incentivise private sector healthcare with respect to bamboo:
providers for notifying polio cases to the
government. 1. Bamboo grown in the non-forest area
comes under the scope of regulations on
2. AB PM-JAY is the largest health the forest produces.
assurance scheme in the world which
aims at providing a health cover of ₹
10,00,000 per family per year for 2. National Bamboo Mission has
secondary and tertiary care provisions to establish units for
hospitalisation. bio-energy extraction.
How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Consider the following statements

with respect to the "One Nation One
Ration Card" (ONORC) Scheme:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of
Agriculture.
2. The ONORC will also help achieve the
target set under SDG 1: End poverty in all
its forms every where
3. The scheme is eligible to all ration
cardholders or beneficiaries covered
under the National Food Security Act
(NFSA), 2013.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Focus on PRICES- Political, Religious, Intellectual/Institutional, Cultural,
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Prelims Test Series is designed to cover the syllabus completely.
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1. Ans: c
Explanation:
Article 7 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides that” all are equal
before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the Law.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
● The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a milestone document in the
history of human rights, it set out, for the first time, fundamental human rights to
be universally protected.
● The Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on
10 December 1948.
Article 1: All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.

Article 2: Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration,
without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or
other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status.
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.
Article 4: No one shall be held in slavery or servitude; slavery and the slave trade shall be
prohibited in all their forms.
Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment
or punishment.
Article 6: Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the
law.
Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled, without any discrimination,
to equal protection of the law.

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution

● The underlying principle of Article 14 is that all persons and things similarly
circumstanced should be treated alike, both in privileges conferred and
liabilities imposed.
● Amongst equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered.
● The like should be treated alike. What is prohibited is discrimination between
persons who are substantially in similar circumstances or conditions.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Article 14 applies to “ any person” and is not limited to citizens alone.
Both individual and juristic persons are entitled to the benefit of Article 14.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

2. Ans: b
Explanation:
Part II (Article 5-9) of the Constitution of India deals with citizenship
Article 5: Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution
Article 6: Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from
Pakistan
Article 7: Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan
Article 8: Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India
Article 9: Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
According to the Constitution of India (Article 9), no person shall be a citizen of India if
he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

3. Ans: d
Explanation:
Transformative Constitutionalism
One of the key functions of constitutionalism is to keep in bounds the exercise of powers by
organs of the State. However, in its modern form, constitutionalism goes beyond its
classical function by obligating constitutional functionaries in the exercise of their powers
to attain the transformation of society so as to make positive changes in the life of every
citizen.
The phrase “transformative constitutionalism” is widely traceable to the work of US
Professor Karl E. Klare. According to him, transformative constitutionalism refers to:
“A long-term project of constitutional enactment, interpretation, and enforcement
committed to transforming a country’s political and social institutions and power
relationships in a democratic, participatory, and egalitarian direction. Transformative
constitutionalism connotes an enterprise of inducing large-scale social change through
nonviolent political processes grounded in law”.
In the context of India, transformative constitutionalism implies social revolution.
Constitutional morality
English historian, George Grote is widely associated with the evolution of the principle of
constitutional morality, which implies showing respect to the authority and paramountcy
of the Constitution.
Hence, option d is correct.

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4. Ans: b
Explanation:
Article 338B. National Commission for Backward Classes—(1) There shall be a
Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as the
National Commission for Backward Classes.
Statement 1 is correct.
(2) Subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament, the Commission
shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other Members and the
conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and
other Members so appointed shall be such as the President may, by rule, determine.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission shall be
appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and
seal.
(4) The Commission shall have the power to regulate its own procedure.
(5) It shall be the duty of the Commission—
(a) to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards
provided for the socially and educationally backward classes under this Constitution
or under any other law for the time being in force or under any order of the Government
and to evaluate the working of such Safeguards;
Statement 3 is incorrect.

5. Ans: b
Explanation:
Subject to the procedure laid down in Article 368, the Indian Constitution vests power upon
the ordinary legislature of the Union, i.e. Parliament, and there is no separate body for
amending the Constitution.
The State Legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the
constitution.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Constitutional Amendment Bills are to be passed by the parliament in the same way
as ordinary Bills. They may be initiated in either House and may be amended like other
Bills, subject to the majority required by Article 368.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Previous sanction of the President is not required for introducing in Parliament any Bill
for amendment of the Constitution.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

6. Ans: a
Explanation:
Upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, Part IV-A and Article 51A
dealing with Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
in 1976.
51A. Fundamental duties— It shall be the duty of every citizen of India—
(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag
and the National Anthem;
(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the
nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; ]
(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the
case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years (inserted by 86th
Amendment Act, 2002).

Fundamental Duties and their enforcement

Provisions as to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be promoted
only by constitutional methods. But they can be used to interpret ambiguous statutes.
Article 51-A is confined to the citizens, unlike some of the articles relating to fundamental
rights (e.g. Article 21) which extend to all persons.
Though Fundamental Duties are directed at the inculcation of normal civic behaviour,
it cannot be concluded that they are correlative (having a mutual relationship) of
Fundamental Rights under Part III.
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

7. Ans: b
Explanation:
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The goal of the Indian polity is socialism which was ensured by inserting the word ‘socialist’
in the Preamble, by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976. It has been inserted to
spell out expressly the high ideals of socialism.
It is to be noted, however, that the ‘socialism’ envisaged by the Indian Constitution is not
the usual scheme of State socialism which involves ‘nationalisation’ of all means of
production, and the abolition of private property.
As the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi explained- “We have always said that we have our
own band of socialism. We will nationalise the sectors where we feel the necessity. Just
nationalisation is not our type of socialism.”
Though the word ‘Socialism’ is vague, our Supreme Court has observed that its principal
aim is to eliminate inequality of income and status and standards of life, and to
provide a decent standard of life to the working people.
The Indian Constitution, therefore, does not seek to abolish private property altogether
but seeks to put it under restraints so that it may be used in the interests of the nation,
which includes the upliftment of the poor.
Instead of a total nationalisation of all property and industry, it envisages a ‘mixed
economy’, but aims at offering ‘equal opportunity’ to all, and the abolition of ‘vested
interests’.
Hence, option b is correct.

8. Ans: c
Explanation:
Article 32- Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part.
Article 32(2): The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs,
including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and
certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred
by this Part ( Fundamental Rights).
Article 226- Power of High Courts to issue certain writs.
Relationship of Articles 32 and 226
The power of the High Courts to issue writs is not in derogation of the analogous power of
the Supreme Court under Article 32(2). The result is that an order under Article 32 will
supersede the orders of the High Court previously passed.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
An application under Article 32 can always be made directly to the Supreme Court as
Article 32 is itself a fundamental right and not contingent on going to the High Court
under Article 226 first.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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It is substantive and not a procedural right.
Substantive right is a right, as life, liberty, or property, recognized for its own sake and as
part of the natural legal order of society.
Procedural rights are the rights that are protected by procedural law, which is the set of
rules that govern how courts conduct business and how cases proceed
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

9. Ans: b
Explanation:
Article 124(C)- Power of Parliament to make law ––Parliament may, by law,
regulate the procedure for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India and other
Judges of the Supreme Court and Chief Justices and other Judges of the High
Courts and empower the Commission to lay down by regulations the procedure
for the discharge of its functions, the manner of selection of persons for
appointment and such other matters as may be considered necessary by it.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Article 126: Appointment of acting Chief Justice—When the office of Chief
Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is, by reason of absence or
otherwise, unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of the office
shall be performed by such one of the other Judges of the Court as the President
may appoint for the purpose.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Article 131(A): Exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to questions as
to constitutional validity of Central laws.
Article 131(a) was repealed by the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977. This
implies that questions regarding the constitutional validity of central laws is not the
exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

10. Ans: c
Explanation:
The writ of Habeas Corpus has been considered to be the bulwark of personal liberty. Its
objective is the speedy release by judicial decree of a person who is illegally restrained.
It is a procedural writ.
This writ is directed at enquiring the circumstances in which the person was detained. It is
primarily designed to secure a person from unlawful restraint mainly of the State and in
certain cases, even by private parties.

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An application for a writ of habeas corpus can be made by any person on behalf of the
detenu including a stranger as well as by the detenu himself.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
While dealing with an application for+ a writ of habeas corpus under Articles 32 and
226 of the constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts may not require the
production of the body of a person detained by the State in all cases (Kanu Sanyal vs.
District Magistrate, Darjeeling, (1973).
The habeas corpus jurisdiction of the courts comes into play to determine the well-being of
a person, to conduct enquiry in cases of persons going missing from police custody and the
deaths of persons in police custody.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
11. Ans: a
Explanation:
A cloudburst refers to a sudden downpour within a radius of a few kilometres. The area
affected by a cloudburst typically does not exceed 20-30 sq km. The downpour is always
short lived but is capable of causing heavy loss of life and property and leading to untold
miseries to human beings, animals, etc. Over 100 mm of rain in an hour is the basic
criteria for a cloud to be called a cloudburst.
Hence, option a is correct.

12. Ans: a
Explanation:
Shipki La
The Uttarakhand boundary is demarcated by the watershed between the Satluj on one
hand, and the Kali, the Alaknanda, and the Bhagirathi on the other. This boundary crosses
the Satluj near the Shipki La on the Himachal-Tibet border.
Hence, 1st pair is incorrectly matched.
Talu-Pass
The 1,140 km long boundary between India and China runs from the eastern limit of
Bhutan to a point near Talu-Pass at the trijunction of India (Arunachal Pradesh), Tibet
and Myanmar.
Hence, 2nd pair is correctly matched.

Karakoram Pass

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The 2,152 km long sector of the Sino-Indian border separates the Union Territory of
Ladakh of India from the Sinking province of China. The boundary in the western sector
runs along the Muztaghata range and the Aghil Mountain across the Karakoram Pass via
QuaraTagh Pass and along the main Kunlun Range to a point east of 80 degrees East
longitude and 40 km north of Hajit Langer.
Hence, 3rd pair is incorrectly matched.

13. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Devonian is defined as a geological period lasting around 60 million years,
characterised by the expansion of land-plant cover, the appearance of seed plants and
terrestrial tetrapods, and significant climatic changes leading to the spread of land
vegetation and the onset of the Late Paleozoic Ice Age.
The Devonian was a time of major evolutionary innovation in the marine realm. The
Devonian has been called the ‘Age of Fishes’.
Hence, option a is correct.

14. Ans: d
Explanation:

The main areas of Gondwana rocks in the peninsula are along the Damodar Valley in
Jharkhand, along the Mahanadi River valley in Chhattisgarh and Odisha, in the
southern part of Madhya Pradesh and a series of troughs along the Godavari from
Nagpur to the delta. In the extra-peninsular region, these rocks are found in Kashmir,
Darjeeling and Sikkim.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Economically, the Gondwana rocks are the most important in India, containing about 98
per cent of its coal reserves. They have rich deposits of iron ore, copper, uranium and
antimony.
Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

15. Ans: b

Explanation:

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Glaciers Location
1. Mombil Yaz Shingshal Valley
2. Biafo Braldoh Valley
3. Yarkand Remo Shyok Valley
4. Siachen Nubra Valley

Hence, only 2 pairs are correctly matched.

16. Ans: d
Explanation:
The Rajasthan Plain
The western extremity of the Great Plain of India consists of the Thar or the Great Indian
Desert which covers western Rajasthan and the adjoining parts of Pakistan. About
two-thirds of the Indian desert lies in Rajasthan, west of the Aravali Range, and the
remaining one-third is in the neighbouring states of Haryana, Punjab and Gujarat.
The Marusthali, a vast desert is an undulating plain whose average elevation is about 325m
above mean sea level, accounting for greater part of the Marwar plain.
The eastern part of the Marusthali is rocky while its western part is covered by
shifting sand dunes locally known as dhrian.
The eastern part of the Thar Desert, up to the Aravali Range is a semi-arid plain which is
known as the Rajasthan Bagar. It runs in a northeast to south-west direction from the
edge of the Aravali in the east to the 25 cm isohyet (line joining places of equal rainfall) in
the west. It is drained by a number of short seasonal streams originating from the Aravali
and supports agriculture in some patches of fertile tracts called rohi.
The river Luni, is a seasonal stream which flows towards the south-west to the Rann of
Kachchh. The tract north of the Luni is known as thali or sandy plain.
Hence, option d is correct.

17. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Ponniyar or the Dakshina Pinakini river, rises near Hongashenhalli village at an
elevation of about 900 m in the Kolar district of Karnataka state.
The Ponnaiyar Basin is the second largest interstate-flowing river basin between the Pennar
and Cauvery basins.
It covers a large area in the state of Tamil Nadu besides the areas covered in the
states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

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Kaveri (Cauvery) is the most revered and sacred river of south India and is designed as the
‘Dakshina Ganga’ or ‘the Ganga of the South’. The source of this river lies at Taal
Cauvery on the Brahmagiri range of hills in the Western Ghats situated in the Coorg
Plateau (Coorg district of Karnataka).
The Penneru river springs from the Nandi Durg peak in Karnataka and flows in the
northward direction. It then enters Andhra Pradesh and takes an easterly course. It forms a
narrow estuary before it joins the Bay of Bengal.
South of the Cauvery delta, there are several streams, of which Vaigai is the largest. It flows
through dry channels and tends to get lost intermittently and appear again on the surface.

Hence, option a is correct.

18. Ans: b
Explanation:
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests: These are rain forests that grow in the areas where the
annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm, the annual temperature is about 250-270 C, the average
annual humidity exceeds 77 per cent and the dry season is distinctly short. They are found
along the western side of the Western Ghats, Arunachal Pradesh, upper Asaam, Nagaland,
Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The important
species of these forests are mesua, white cedar, calophyllum, toon, dhup, palaquium etc.
Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forests: Bordering the areas of tropical wet evergreen forests are
comparatively drier areas of the tropical semi-evergreen forests. Here the annual rainfall is
200-250 cm, the mean annual temperature varies from 250 C to 270 C and the relative
humidity is about 75 per cent. These forests are found on the western coast, Assam, lower
slopes of the Eastern Himalayas, Odisha and Andamans. These forests are characterised
by many species, frequently buttressed trunks, rougher and thicker bark, heavy
climbers, less bamboos and abundant epiphytes.
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests: These are found in areas of moderate rainfall of 100 to
200 cm per annum, mean annual temperature of about 270 C and the average annual
relative humidity of 60 to 75 per cent. Such areas include a belt running along the Western
Ghats, Shiwalik Range, Manipur,Mizoram, hills of eastern Madhya Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh, Chota Nagpur Plateau, most of Odisha, parts of West Bengal and in the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Littoral and Swamp Forests: These forests occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and
creeks prone to tidal influences and are also known as delta or tidal forests. While littoral
forests occur alongat several places along the coast, swamp forests are confined to the
deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery. The most
important species found in these forests are Sundri, burguiera, sonneratia, agar, bhendi,
keora, nipa etc.

Hence, option b is correct.

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19. Ans: c
Explanation:
Effects of Earthquakes
Earthquake is a natural hazard. The following are the immediate hazardous effects of
earthquakes:
(i) Ground Shaking
(ii) Differential ground settlement
(iii) Land and mud slides
(iv) Soil liquefaction
(v) Ground lurching
(vi) Avalanches
(vii) Ground displacement
(viii) Floods from dam and levee failures
(ix) Fires
(x) Structural collapse
(xi) Falling objects
(xii) Tsunami
The first six listed above have some bearings upon landforms, while others may be
considered the effects causing immediate concern to the life and properties of people in the
region. The effect of tsunami would occur only if the epicentre of the tremor is below
oceanic waters and the magnitude is sufficiently high.
Hence, option c is correct.

20. Ans: d
Explanation:
Biological Activity and Weathering
Biological weathering is contribution to or removal of minerals and ions from the
weathering environment and physical changes due to the growth or movement of
organisms. Burrowing and wedging by organisms like earthworms, termites, rodents
etc., help in exposing the new surfaces to chemical attack and assist in the
penetration of moisture and air.
Human beings, by disturbing vegetation, ploughing and cultivating soils, also help in
mixing and creating new contacts between air, water and minerals in the earth's materials.
Decaying plant and animal matter help in the production of humic, carbonic and other
acids, which enhance decay and solubility of some elements.
Plant roots exert a tremendous pressure on the earth's materials, mechanically
breaking them apart.
Hence, option d is correct.

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21. Ans: d
Explanation:
Texts Time-Period
Vedic Texts : Around 2000 BCE to 500 BCE
Vedanga Texts : 600 BCE to 200 BCE
Puranas : 60 BCE to 550 CE
Dharmasutras : 600 BCE to 300 BCE
Smritis : 200 BCE to 900 CE
Tripitaka : 600 BCE to 300 BCE
Sangam texts : 300 BCE to 300 CE
Tirukkural : 500 CE to 600 CE
Tamil epics (Silappadikaram and Manimekalai): 500 CE to 600 CE
Hence, option d is correct.

22. Ans: c
Explanation:
The three Pitakas are divided into books known as the Nikayas.
The Khuddaka Nikaya also contains the Dhammapada (a collection of verse dealing mainly
with ethical sayings) and the Theragatha and Therigatha (songs of Buddhist monks and
nuns).
The Therigatha, describes women’s experience of renunciation, is especially important
because it is one of the very few surviving ancient Indian texts composed by or attributed to
women.
Milandapanha (1st century BCE - 1st century CE) which consists of a dialogue on various
philosophical issues between King Milinda ( Indo-Greek Menander ) and the monk
Nagasena.
The Nettigandha or Nettipakarana (The Book of Guidance) belongs to (1st century BCE -
1st century CE) and gives a connected account of the teaching of Buddha.
The first connected life story of the Buddha occurs in Nidanakatha (1st century).
Hence, option c is correct.

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23. Ans: b
Explanation:
Some of the earliest agriculture centres in the sub-continent:
Koldihawa and Mahagara: Uttar Pradesh
Lahuradeva: Uttar Pradesh
Kunjhun: Madhya Pradesh
Didwana-Sambhar: Rajasthan
Hence, option b is correct.

24. Ans: d
Explanation:
The Rig Veda mentions about different assemblies.
The sabha seems to have been a smaller, more elite gathering, whereas the samiti
appears to have been a larger assembly presided over by the Rajan( King ). Such
assemblies have played an important role in the redistribution of resources.
Hence, statements 1 & 2 are correct.
The vidatha has been understood as a tribal assembly with diverse functions. However, it
actually refers to a local congregation of people meeting to perform socio-religious rituals
and ceremonies for the well-being of the settlement.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

25. Ans: c
Explanation:
The Government of India Act 1919
The British government made a declaration on August 20, 1917, that the Policy of His
Majesty’s Government (HMG) was that of —
Increasing associations of Indians in every branch of the administration and the gradual
development of self-governing institutions with a view to the progressive realisation of
responsible government in British India as an integral part of the British Empire.
Hence, option c is correct.

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26. Ans: c
Explanation:
Till 1853, all appointments to the Civil Service were made by the directors of the East India
Company, who placated the members of the Board of Control by letting them make some of
the nominations.
The directors fought hard to retain this lucrative and prized privilege and refused to
surrender it even when their other economic and political privileges were taken away by
Parliament. They lost it finally in 1853 when the Charter Act decreed that all recruits to
the Civil Service were to be selected through a competitive examination.
Hence, option c is correct.
27. Ans: c
Explanation:
In 1781, Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of
Muslim law and related subjects; and in 1791, Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit
College for the study of Hindu law and philosophy. Both these institutions were designed
to provide a regular supply of qualified Indians to help administration of law in the courts of
the company.
Hence, statements 1 & 2 are correct.
The Wood’s Despatch (the document despatched from the Court of Directors and popularly
named after Sir Charles Wood, President of the Board of Control) of 1854 was another step
in the development of education in India. The Despatch asked the Government of India
to assume responsibility for the education of the masses. It thus repudiated the
“downward filtration” theory.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

28. Ans: c
Explanation:
The economic policies followed by the British led to the rapid transformation of India’s
economy into a colonial economy. There was a sudden and quick collapse of the urban
handicraft industry.
The railways enabled British manufacturers to reach and uproot the traditional industries
in the remotest villages of the country.
The cotton-weaving and spinning industries were the worst hit. The decay of the
traditional industries was not accompanied by the growth of modern machine
industries.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct & statement 3 is correct.

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Thus, British conquest led to the de-industrialisation of the country and increased
dependence of the people on agriculture.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

29. Ans: b
Explanation:
Among the several forms of struggle thrown up by the movement, some are:
(a) Boycott and public burning of foreign goods.
(b) Crops of volunteers or samitis were another major form of mass mobilisation widely
used by the Swadeshi Movement.
(c) The creative use of traditional popular festivals and meals as a means of
reaching out to the masses.
(d) Emphasis was given to self-reliance or ‘Atmasakti’ for re-assertion of national
dignity, honour and confidence.
(e) Campaigns against evils such as caste operation, early marriage, the dowry
system, consumption of alcohol, etc.
(f) In the cultural sphere, the impact of the Swadeshi Movement was most marked. The
songs at that time by Rabindranath Tagore (Amar Sonar Bangla) and fairy tales
such as Thakurmar Jhuli (Grandmother’s Tales) by Dakshinaranjan Mitra
Majumdar are still popular.
Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
The main drawback of the Swadeshi Movement was that it was not able to garner the
support of the mass of Muslims and especially of the Muslim peasantry.
Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
30. Ans: a
Explanation:
Two kinds of states are included in the list of mahajanapadas- monarchies (rajyas) and
non-monarchical states known as ganas or sanghas. The translation of gana and sangha
as ‘republic’ is misleading. These were oligarchies, where power was exercised by a group of
people. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avati were the most powerful states in the 6th
century BCE.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The kingdom of Magadha (the most powerful state) roughly covered the modern Patna
and Gaya districts of present Bihar. Initially, its capital was Girivraja or Rajagriha, near
modern Rajgir.
Anga corresponded roughly to the present-day Bhagalpur and Monghyr districts of bihar. It
was the easternmost mahajanapada. The Champa river (which can probably be identified
with the Chandan) was its boundary with Magdha, which lay to its west.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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31. Ans: b
Explanation:
Monopoly is said to exist when one firm is the sole producer or seller of a product
that has no close substitutes. If there is to be a monopoly the cross elasticity of
demand between the product of the monopolist and the product of any other
producer must be very small. Cross elasticity of demand shows a change in the demand
for a good as a result of a change in the price of another good.
Hence, statement 1 is correct & statement 2 is incorrect.
The barriers that prevent the firms from entering the industry may be economic in nature
or else of institutional and artificial nature. In case of monopoly, barriers are so strong
that they prevent the entry of all firms except the one that is already in the field.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

32. Ans: d
Explanation:
Capital may be classified into fixed capital or working capital. Fixed capital are durable-use
products’ goods which are used in production again and again till they wear out.
Machinery, tools, railways, tractors, factories etc., are all fixed capital. Fixed capital
does not mean fixed in location. Capital like plant, tractors and factories are called fixed
because if money spent upon these durable goods, remains fixed for a long period in
contrast with the money spent on purchasing raw materials which is released as soon as
goods made with them are sold.
Working capital, on the other hand, are single-use producers’ goods like raw materials,
goods in process and fuel. They are used up in a single act of production. Moreover,
money spent on them is fully recovered when goods made with them are sold in the market.
Hence, option d is correct.

33. Ans: c
Explanation:

The fundamental cause of international specialisation and, hence, international trade is the
difference in costs of production. It is the relative differences in costs that determine the
products to be produced by different countries. Considering climatic conditions, availability
of minerals and other resources and differences in costs arising from them, every country
seems to be better suited for the production of certain articles rather than for others. A

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country tends to specialise in the production of those goods for which it has got
relative or comparative advantage.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A country can produce numerous goods. But it will not produce all of them since it will
simply not be paying to do so. It will be much better if after comparing the costs of various
articles that it can produce, it selects those in which the comparative costs are lower or in
which it enjoys a relative advantage.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
34. Ans: c
Explanation:
Economic cost is the sum of accounting cost and input cost.
Economic profit is the difference of total revenue and total economic cost.
Opportunity cost of any good is the next best alternative good that is sacrificed.
Relative prices of goods tend to reflect their opportunity costs.
Hence, option c is correct.

35. Ans: b
Explanation:
Frictional Unemployment: It comprises of workers who have voluntarily quit their
previous jobs and are searching for new better jobs or looking for employment for the first
time. They are unemployed because of frictions such as lack of market information about
jobs, lack of perfect mobility on the part of the workers.
Structural Unemployment: It is a characteristic of a growing economy and
unemployed workers look skills required by expanding industries.
Cyclical Unemployment: It is due to the deficiency of effective demand. It increases greatly
during recession and depression.
Natural Rate of Unemployment: Frictional and structural unemployment together
constitute natural rate of unemployment.
Hence, option b is correct.

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36. Ans: a
Explanation:

Liabilities Assets .
Capital Cash and Balances with RBI
Reserves and Surplus Balances with other banks and money at call and
short notice
Deposits Investment in government and other securities
Borrowings Advances
Fixed assets

37. Ans: c
Explanation:
Money supply increases
When the supply of high-powered money (i.e., reserve money) H increases.
High-powered money consists of notes and coins issued by RBI and the Government.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
When the currency deposit ratio (k)3 of the public decreases.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
When the cash or currency reserves-deposit ratio of the banks (r) falls.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

38. Ans: c

Explanation:
When budget deficit is financed through borrowing from the market, the demand for
money or loanable funds increases which, given the supply of money, causes interest
rate to rise. Rise in interest rate tends to reduce or crowd out private investment.
Hence, option c is correct.

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39. Ans: a
Explanation:

An important effect of inflation is that it redistributes income and wealth in favour of some
at the cost of others. Inflation adversely affects those who receive relatively fixed incomes
and benefits businessmen, producers, traders and others who enjoy flexible incomes.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Inflation benefits: debtors, producers, traders
Inflation harms: creditors, fixed income groups, pensioners, wealth holders of cash, bonds
and debentures.
Hence, statement 2 is correct & statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.

40. Ans: b

Explanation:
Raising interest rates by RBI may not lead to restriction of bank credit when:
● Bank may have surplus liquidity or cash reserves with them and may not follow
tight monetary policy.
● If there are boom conditions, aggregate demand for goods would be high, and
demand for credit may not be affected by higher lending rates.
● It is easy for corporates to borrow through ECBs especially when interest rates
in U.S Eurozone are low.
● When corporate sector is able to raise money from capital market especially
when stock market prices are rising
Hence, option b is correct.

41. Ans: a
Explanation:
The 'Goldilocks Zone,' or habitable zone, is the range of distance with the right
temperatures for water to remain liquid. Discoveries in the Goldilocks Zone, like
Earth-size planet Kepler-186f, are what scientists hope will lead us to water––and one day
life.
Hence, option a is correct.

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42. Ans: d
Explanation:
What is the James Webb Space Telescope?
The James Webb Space Telescope, also called Webb or JWST, is a large, space-based
observatory, optimised for infrared wavelengths, which complements and extends the
discoveries of the Hubble Space Telescope.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It has longer wavelength coverage and greatly improved sensitivity. The longer
wavelengths enable Webb to look further back in time to find the first galaxies that
formed in the early Universe, and to peer inside dust clouds where stars and planetary
systems are forming today.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
43. Ans: b
Explanation:
Agni-Prime is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile with dual
redundant navigation and guidance system, according to DRDO.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It has a range of 1,000-2,000km and was tested for the first time in June 2021.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

44. Ans: a
Explanation:
Viruses are also microscopic but are different from other microorganisms. They, however,
reproduce only inside the cells of the host organism, which may be a bacterium.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Microorganisms may be single-celled like bacteria, some algae and protozoa, or
multicellular, such as many algae and fungi.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Chickenpox is an illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

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45. Ans: d
Explanation:
Hydrophilic polymers are those polymers that dissolve in, or are swollen by, water.
Many compounds of major technical and economic importance fall within this definition,
including many polymers of natural origin. Many foodstuffs containing substantial amounts
of carbohydrate and proteins can be classified as hydrophilic polymers.
Applications of hydrophilic and water-soluble industrial polymers are diverse. Over 150
different applications have been identified but the most important include:
(a) Paper manufacture, where water-soluble polymers are used in formation of the paper
web, in pulp retention, and as the binder of coating compositions
(b) Textile sizing (during spinning of the yarn), and finishing (of the woven fabrics)
(c) Water purification and effluent treatment (in flocculation processes)
(d) In the formulation and production of many specialist fluids, where it is necessary to
control the viscosity and the flow properties, e.g. in water-based adhesives and in emulsion
paints
(e) In film-forming materials, where the flexibility and moisture sensitivity of the film can be
modified by the incorporation of plasticisers, humectants, or cross-linking agents, e.g.
many water-soluble polymer mixtures such as water-based adhesives and emulsion paints,
and coatings for paper
Hence, option d is correct.

46. Answer: a
Explanation:
● Bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotes, single-celled microorganisms with no nuclei.
● Archaea and Bacteria share a number of features with each other, but they are also
distinct domains of life:
● Both Archaea and Bacteria are unicellular organisms.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
● Archaea and bacterial cells lack organelles or other internal membrane-bound
structures.
● Archaea and Bacteria generally have a single circular chromosome, a piece of
circular, double-stranded DNA located in the nucleoid of the cell.
● Archaea and Bacteria reproduce asexually through binary fission, a process in
which an individual cell reproduces its single chromosome and splits in two.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Almost all prokaryotes have a cell wall, a protective structure that allows them to
survive in extreme conditions, which is located outside of their plasma membrane.

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● The composition of the cell wall differs significantly between the domains of Bacteria
and Archaea:
● Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, a complex of proteins and
sugars. Some bacteria have an outer capsule outside the cell wall.
● Archaeal cell walls are composed of polysaccharides (sugars).
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

47. Answer: b
Explanation:
The nine-banded armadillo [Dasypus novemcinctus] has been used to study leprosy and
prepare a vaccine for the disease.
Aspirin, the world’s most widely used drug, was derived from the leaves of the
tropical willow, Salix alba.
The Florida manatee (Trichechus manatus), an endangered mammal, is being used to help
understand haemophilia.
The rose periwinkle (Cargaranthus roseus), a Madagascar plant, has yielded two potent
drugs effective in treating blood cancer.
Hence, option b is correct.
48. Answer: b
Heat flows from a body at a higher temperature to a body at a lower temperature. There are
three ways in which heat can flow from one object to another: conduction, convection, and
radiation.
In solids, generally, the heat is transferred by conduction. In liquids and gases, the
heat is transferred by convection. No medium is required for the transfer of heat by
radiation.
The materials that allow heat to pass through them easily are conductors of heat. The
materials that do not allow heat to pass through them easily are called insulators.
CONDUCTION
The process by which heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an object
is known as conduction. Through solid substances only
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
CONVECTION
The water and air are poor conductors of heat. The heat is transferred from particle to
particle through a vertical rising of heat known as convection, in which heated particle rises
up, and cool particles come toward the heat.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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RADIATION
The heat from the sun comes to us by another process known as radiation. Radiation is an
automatic process that doesn’t require any medium to transfer heat.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
49. Ans: c
Explanation:
A cryogenic engine is a type of rocket engine that uses liquefied gasses as fuel and
oxidizers. The term cryogenic refers to the fact that these liquefied gasses must be kept at
cryogenic temperatures, that is, very low temperatures (below -150 degree Centigrade).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A cryogenic engine will typically employ Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen
(LH2) as propellants, instead of conventional rocket fuel options.
As opposed to electric motors, whose power comes from rotating motion, cryogenic
engines are reaction engines. In order to work, they throw mass in one direction and rely
on the reaction thrust in the opposite direction. A small amount of fuel goes to the turbine.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Advantages of cryogenic engines are:
More environmentally-friendly than other options
Non-toxic and non-corrosive
Able to reduce the cost of launch operations
Efficient and high-specific impulse
Safer than other options in terms of ground safety, they’re non-hypergolic
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The disadvantages of this type of engine include:
Liquid Hydrogen presents a low density
Their cryogenic storage requires of complex equipment that must be carefully tailored by
experts in cryogenic engineering
Presents the need for devising an ignition system

50. Ans: c
Explanation:
mRNA—or messenger RNA—is a molecule that contains the instructions or recipe that
directs the cells to make a protein using its natural machinery. To enter cells smoothly,
mRNA travels within a protective bubble called a Lipid Nanoparticle. Once inside, our cells
read the mRNA as a set of instructions, building proteins that match up with parts of the
pathogen called antigens. The immune system sees these foreign antigens as
invaders—dispatching defenders called antibodies and T-cells—and training the immune
system for potential future attacks. So, if and when the real virus comes along, the body
might recognize it—sounding the alarm to help defend against infection and illness.

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mRNA instructs cells in the body to make specific proteins, and proteins play many
essential roles in our bodies. mRNA basically uses our own body and biological
processes to potentially treat diseases and prevent infections.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Research partners Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman at the University of
Pennsylvania were able to engineer mRNA in a way that could get into cells without
triggering the body’s defenses. That breakthrough enabled continued scientific advances
that led to the development and authorisation of the first mRNA vaccines for COVID-19 in
2020 and solidified the promise of the technology.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
51. Ans: b
Explanation:
Wetlands are an intermediate type of ecosystem between terrestrial and aquatic ones: they
have soils that are waterlogged, either perpetually or very frequently.
Only a limited amount of oxygen can dissolve in water, and oxygen diffuses through
water at a rate 10,000-fold more slowly than through air.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The oxygen in wetland soils is rapidly depleted by the high rates of microbial decomposition
there, fed by abundant inputs of dead plant materials. This slow rate of oxygen diffusion
through the waterlogged soils ensures that the soils remain oxygen free, but microbial
processes continue in the absence of oxygen, and cause a variety of important
biogeochemical changes. One of these, the bacterial conversion of dissolved nitrate to N2
gas, is a critical influence on the global distribution of this major nutrient.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

52. Ans: b
Explanation:
In their most extreme form, the deserts are too arid to bear any vegetation, including both
some hot deserts such as Death Valley in California and some of the cold deserts of
Antarctica. Approximately, 10% of the surface area of the Earth is covered by deserts.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In many deserts, freezing temperatures are common at night and tolerance of frost is
almost as important as tolerance of drought.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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53. Ans: d
Explanation:
Tropical rain forests experience high solar radiation received throughout the year and
regular, abundant, and reliable rainfall. The production is achieved, overwhelmingly, high
in the dense forest canopy of evergreen foliage. It is dark at ground level except where fallen
trees create gap.
A characteristic of this biome is that often many tree seedlings and saplings remain
in a suppressed state from year to year, and only leap into action if a gap forms in the
canopy above them.
Hence, option d is correct.

54. Ans: a
Explanation:
The ability to fix nitrogen is widely though irregularly distributed among both the
eubacteria (‘true’ bacteria) and the archaea (Archaebacteria), and many of these have
been caught up in tight mutualisms with distinct groups of eukaryotes.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Rhizobia bacteria fix nitrogen in the root nodules of most leguminous plants (peas,
beans and their relatives) and just one nonlegume, Parasponia.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
55. Ans: d
Explanation:
In general, if there were no change in ocean physics and circulation, it is expected that the
ocean would take up more carbon dioxide as the concentration in the atmosphere
increases, simply because higher atmospheric concentration increases the diffusion of the
gas. On the other hand, the surface oceans are warming as the global climate warms,
and this lowers the solubility of carbon dioxide and, therefore, reduces the net rate of
uptake by the oceans.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Carbon dioxide is quite soluble in seawater, but the solubility varies with water
temperature; warm ocean waters release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, while
cold waters absorb it.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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56. Ans: c
Explanation:
Much of the methane formed in the wetlands and lake sediments escapes to the
atmosphere.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Methane formed from biological processes such as the decomposition of organic matter in
recent years contains 14C, it is being continuously produced in the atmosphere.
On the other hand, methane from ancient geological formations contains no 14C,
because this radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5,730 years and will have decayed
away over a time period of millions of years.
Most of the methane is produced by bacterial methanogenesis in flooded rice paddies in the
oxygen-free guts of cows and other livestock, and during bacterial decomposition of organic
matter in landfills, sewage treatment facilities, and manure from livestock, all of which are
often oxygen-free as well.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Human activity is simply creating new environments for this natural process of
methanogenesis on a massive scale. The single largest of these sources, after fossil fuels, is
animal agriculture. Animal agriculture emissions have grown tremendously over the past
half-century as global meat production has increased 5-fold and continues to rise. The
drivers behind this increased consumption are both human population growth and an
increase in meat consumption per person.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

57. Ans: b

Explanation:
Nitrogen pollution contributes directly to human diseases including cancer and heart
diseases, by catalysing, along with methane and other hydrocarbon gases, the formation of
toxic ozone in the lower atmosphere (which also damages forest and agricultural
productivity), by forming into very fine particles, and by the reaction of nitrate with
organic matter in the human gut to form potently carcinogenic compounds called
nitrosamines.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Nitrogen pollution affects the health of both animals and humans through indirect,
ecologically mediated mechanisms. For instance, nitrogen deposition leads to increased
pollen formation by many plants, increasing allergies.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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Nitrogen pollution is much greater in some regions than in others: the hot spots include
most of Europe, India, eastern China, the eastern portion of the United States, and
southern Brazil. These correspond to the major agricultural areas of the world and are
the regions seeing the greatest use of nitrogen fertiliser.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

58. Ans: b
Explanation:
The global stocktake was established under Article 14 of the Paris Agreement. It is a
process for Member States and stakeholders to assess whether they are collectively making
progress towards meeting the goals of the Paris Climate Change Agreement. The global
stocktake assesses everything related to where the world stands on climate action and
support, identifying the gaps, and working together to agree on solutions pathways, to 2030
and beyond. The first global stocktake took place at COP 28 in 2023.
Hence, option b is correct.

59. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Emissions Gap Report (EGR) is an annual report published by the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP) that tracks the gap between current and desired global
emissions.
Hence, option a is correct.
60. Ans: a
Explanation:
Greenhouse gases consist of carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, nitrous oxide,
chlorofluorocarbons, and water vapor. Water vapor, which reacts to temperature changes,
is referred to as a 'feedback', because it amplifies the effect of forces that initially caused the
warming.
Hence, option a is correct.

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61. Ans: d
Explanation:
Volcanic Landforms-Intrusive Forms
The lava that is released during volcanic eruptions on cooling develops into igneous rocks.
The cooling may take place either on reaching the surface or also while the lava is still in
the crustal portion. Depending on the location of the cooling of the lava, igneous rocks are
classified as volcanic rocks (cooling at the surface) and plutonic rocks (cooling in the crust).
The lava that cools within the crustal portions assumes different forms. These forms
are called intrusive forms.
They are as follows:
Batholiths: A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust
develops in the form of large domes. They appear on the surface only after the denudational
processes remove the overlying materials.
Lacoliths: These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by
a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite
volcanoes, only these are located at deeper depths.
Lapolith: As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in
a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms. In
case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called lapolith.
Phacolith: A wavy mass of intrusive rocks, at times, is found at the base of synclines or at
the top of anticlines in folded igneous country. Such wavy materials have a definite conduit
to source beneath in the form of magma chambers (subsequently developed as batholiths).
These are called the phacoliths.
Sills: The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sills or sheets,
depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner ones are called sheets, while the
thick horizontal deposits are called sills.
Dykes: When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land,
it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to
develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes. These are the most
commonly found intrusive forms in the western Maharashtra area. These are considered
the feeders for the eruptions that led to the development of the Deccan traps.
Hence, option d is correct.

62. Ans: d
Explanation:
The atmosphere has a sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate
from different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and
disintegrated particles of meteors. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower

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layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great
heights.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate
regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt
particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce
clouds.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

63. Ans: d
Explanation:
Factors Controlling Temperature Distribution
The temperature of air at any place is influenced by (i) the latitude of the place; (ii) the
altitude of the place; (iii) distance from the sea, the airmass circulation; (iv) the
presence of warm and cold ocean currents; (v) local aspects.
The latitude: The temperature of a place depends on the insolation received. It has been
explained earlier that the insolation varies according to the latitude; hence the temperature
also varies accordingly.
The altitude: The places near the sea-level record higher temperature than the places
situated at higher elevations. In other words, the temperature generally decreases with
increasing height. The rate of decrease of temperature with height is termed as the normal
lapse rate. It is 6.5°C per 1,000 m.
Distance from the sea: Compared to land, the sea gets heated slowly and loses heat
slowly. Land heats up and cools down quickly. Therefore, the variation in temperature over
the sea is less compared to land. The places situated near the sea come under the
moderating influence of the sea and land breezes which moderate the temperature.
Air-mass and Ocean currents: The places, which come under the influence of warm
air-masses experience higher temperature and the places that come under the influence of
cold air masses experience low temperature. Similarly, the places located on the coast
where the warm ocean currents flow record higher temperature than the places located on
the coast where the cold currents flow.
Hence, option d is correct.

64. Ans: b
Explanation:

Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called the normal lapse
rate. At times, the situation is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called the

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Inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually short-duration but quite common
nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is an ideal situation for
inversion.
The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the
earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal
throughout the year. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the
atmosphere. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread
horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Dense fogs in the mornings are
common occurrences, especially during the winter season. This inversion commonly lasts
for a few hours until the sun comes up and begins to warm the earth.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the hills
and mountains, produced during the night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being
heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up
deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage. It
protects plants from frost damage.
Hence, statement 2 is correct. But statement 2 doesn’t explain statement 1.

65. Ans: a
Explanation:
Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and
move over to the coastal areas bringing about large scale destruction caused by violent
winds, very heavy rainfall and storm surges. This is one of the most devastating natural
calamities. They are known as Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Hurricanes in the
Atlantic, Typhoons in the Western Pacific and South China Sea, and Willy-willies in
the Western Australia.
Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions
favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are: (i) Large sea surface
with temperature higher than 27° C; (ii) Presence of the Coriolis force; (iii) Small variations
in the vertical wind speed; (iv) A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic
circulation; (v) Upper divergence above the sea level system.
Hence, only 3rd pair is correctly matched.

66. Ans: a
Explanation:
Cloud is a mass of minute water droplets or tiny crystals of ice formed by the
condensation of the water vapour in free air at considerable elevations. As the clouds
are formed at some height over the surface of the earth, they take various shapes.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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According to their height, expanse, density and transparency or opaqueness clouds are
grouped under four types: cirrus, cumulus, stratus, nimbus.
Cirrus: Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 - 12,000m). They are thin and
detached clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.
Cumulus: Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of
4,000 7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have
a flat base.
Stratus: As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky.
These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with
different temperatures.
Nimbus: Nimbus clouds are black or dark grey. They form at middle levels or very near to
the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun.
Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are
shapeless masses of thick vapour.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

67. Ans: d
Explanation:
All waters in nature, whether rain water or ocean water, contain dissolved mineral salts.
Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. It is
calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater. It is
usually expressed as parts per thousand (o/oo ) or ppt. A salinity of 24.7 o/oo has been
considered as the upper limit to demarcate ‘brackish water’.
Horizontal Distribution of Salinity
The salinity for normal open ocean ranges between 33o/oo and 37 o/oo. In the
land-locked Red Sea, it is as high as 41o/oo, while in the estuaries and the Arctic, the
salinity fluctuates from 0 - 35 ppt, seasonally.
In hot and dry regions, where evaporation is high, the salinity sometimes reaches to 70 ppt.
The salinity variation in the Pacific Ocean is mainly due to its shape and larger areal extent.
Salinity decreases from 35 ppt - to 31 ppt in the western parts of the northern hemisphere
because of the influx of melted water from the Arctic region.
The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is around 36 ppt. The highest salinity is
recorded between 15° and 20° latitudes. Maximum salinity (37 ppt ) is observed between
20° N and 30° N and 20° W - 60° W. It gradually decreases towards the north.
Baltic Sea records low salinity due to the influx of river waters in large quantity. The
Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high evaporation. Salinity is, however,
very low in the Black Sea due to the enormous freshwater influx by rivers.
The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is 35 o/oo.

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Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to the influx of river
water. On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to high evaporation
and low influx of fresh water.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

68. Ans: d
Explanation:

Glacial Valleys/Troughs
Glaciated valleys are trough-like and U-shaped with broad floors and relatively smooth, and
steep sides. The valleys may contain littered debris or debris shaped as moraines with
swampy appearance. There may be lakes gouged out of rocky floor or formed by debris
within the valleys. There can be hanging valleys at an elevation on one or both sides of the
main glacial valley. The faces of divides or spurs of such hanging valleys opening into main
glacial valleys are quite often truncated to give them an appearance like triangular facets.
Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high
latitudes) are called fjords/fiords.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Drumlins
Drumlins are smooth oval ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till with some
masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice
movement. They may measure up to 1 km in length and 30 m or so in height. One end of
the drumlins facing the glacier called the stoss end is blunter and steeper than the other
end called tail. The drumlins form due to dumping of rock debris beneath heavily loaded ice
through fissures in the glacier. The stoss end gets blunted due to pushing by moving ice.
Drumlins give an indication of the direction of glacier movement.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

69. Ans: a
Explanation:
UNRWA was established by UN General Assembly Resolution 302 (IV) of 8 December
1949 “to carry out […] direct relief and works programmes” for Palestine refugees. The
Agency began operations on 1 May 1950.
UNRWA has a humanitarian and development mandate to provide assistance and
protection to Palestine refugees pending a just and lasting solution to their plight.
UNRWA derives its mandate from the UN General Assembly, the Agency’s parent organ, and

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it is only the General Assembly that can define the UNRWA mandate. The Agency’s mandate
is not set out in a single source or document. Rather, the Agency’s mandate is derived
primarily from UN General Assembly resolutions.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Agency’s mandate has evolved over the years, as set out in various General Assembly
resolutions, to extend to the provision of emergency services to persons in its area of
operations who are currently displaced and in serious need of continued assistance as a
result of the 1967 and subsequent hostilities. The mandate has also evolved to
accommodate the changing needs and political situation of Palestine refugees, including
with respect to protection activities.
UNRWA provides humanitarian assistance and contributes to protection of refugees
through essential service delivery, primarily in the areas of basic education, primary health
care and mental health care, relief and social services, microcredit, and emergency
assistance, including in situations of armed conflict, to millions of registered Palestine
refugees located within its five fields of operations (Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, West Bank,
including East Jerusalem, and Gaza). The Agency does not have a mandate to engage in
political negotiations or durable solutions.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

70. Ans: b
Explanation:
A prolonged drought rocked Ethiopia from 2020-2023, most communities in Ethiopia’s
northern, southern and southeastern regions face the worst levels of food insecurity.
While the Ethiopian government resolved the conflict with the Tigray People Liberation
Front and has experienced relative peace since November 2022, lingering tensions in
Western Tigray persist. Concurrently, discord in Oromia and Amhara regions has
escalated.
Hence, option b is correct.

71. Ans: d
Explanation:
Akbar issued Gold, Silver and copper coins.
Gold coins -The ‘shansab’ weighed a little more than 10 tolas. Ilahi was t he other gold
coins of smaller value.
Silver Coins -The chief silver coin was the rupee. Jalali was the square silver rupee issued
in 1577.
Copper Coins- The chief copper coin was the Dam, it was also called as Paisa.

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Hence, option d is correct.
72. Ans: b
Explanation:
The Sufi saints brought music to India. The first musician who was permitted to sing in the
court of Iltutmish was Hamid-ud-din, the leader of the Sufis, a philosopher and Qazi of
Delhi.
The great Sanskrit compendium of music Samgita-Ratnakara was composed in 1238
during the rule of Sultan Firoz Shah, the son of Iltutmish. It took note of all the
contemporary moods and modes of music.
Hence, option b is correct.
73. Ans: b
Explanation:
The Rabatak inscription was discovered in Bhaglan province, Afghanistan.
The 23-line inscription, written in the Bactrian language and Greek script, proved to be a
valuable record belonging to Kanishka’s reign.
The Rabatak inscription throws important light on Kushana’s genealogy. The inscription
also clearly indicates that Vima Kadphises and Kanishka were father and son.
The inscription states that Kanishka’s empire included Kaundinya, Ujjayini, Saketa,
Kaushambi, Pataliputra, and Champa.
Hence, option b is correct.
74. Ans: d
Explanation:
The Jataka stories reflect a society marked by deep differences based on class and caste.
The themes of hierarchy and pollution taboos occur frequently in the stories.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Jataka consist of stories within stories. Each tale has four parts. There is an
introductory story set in the gar of the Buddha. Then comes the main story, set in a
mythical past., wherein the Buddha appears as the protagonist or witness. The third part is
a verse that summarises the crux of the story, and the fourth and final part links the story
of the past with the present.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
As is the case with other folk tales, the Jatakas deal with real concerns and issues of
human society, even when the stories apparently deal with animals. Animals, like
humans, are described as living in an unequal world. Sometimes, an inferior animal is

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made to realise his inferiority vis-a-vis superior ones. At other times, weaker animals are
shown as getting the better of stronger ones through cunning.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
75. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Subsidiary Alliance was put into effect by Lord Wellesley (1798-1805), although
its basic principles had been formulated earlier by powers such as the French in
southern India.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
According to the principles of this alliance system, any Indian ruler accepting the alliance
was to maintain British forces within his territory and make the necessary financial
arrangements for its upkeep. This could assume the form of territorial cessions as well.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ruler also had to maintain a British resident in his court whose intervention in foreign
policy issues had to be accommodated. In short, the native ruler lost a considerable part of
his autonomy. The Nizam of Hyderabad was the first to enter into this alliance; Tipu
Sultan rejected it summarily.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
76. Ans: a
Explanation:
Banian was the name given to an Indian agent of the East India Company, who was in
charge of information gathering, of securing capital for investment and of marketing.
Aurang refers to a collecting centre for textiles. The Company organised several such
collection centres where weavers were assembled and ordered to produce cloth according to
specifications.
Mukhim, muhurir, dihidar, tagdidar were the hierarchy of officials at the production centre
or aurang.
Shroff is a term derived from the word sarraff meaning banker. Typically these functions
were money assaying and issuing and discounting of hundis or bills of exchange.
Hence, option a is correct.

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77. Ans: c
Explanation:
In Africa, in recent years, one country after another—Burkina Faso, Mali, Niger,
Guinea—has seen ineffectual elected governments fall to military juntas.
Hence, option c is correct.

78. Ans: d
Explanation:
“Quarterlife” book by Devika Rege (released in September 2024)dives into the psyche
of the generation born on the cusp of India’s economic liberalisation in 1991: young
people awakening into political consciousness in the 21st century, confused by the baggage
of their colonial inheritance and globalisation bringing in non-Indian ways of thinking and
living.
Hence, option d is correct.

79. Ans: d
Explanation:
There are nine countries with a shoreline at the Baltic Sea: Denmark, Germany, Poland,
Russia, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, Finland, and Sweden.

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Map source: National Online Project

Hence, option d is correct.

80. Ans: b
Explanation:
Hayat Tahrir al-Sham (HTS) fighters, affiliated with al-Qaeda, have entered
northeastern neighbourhoods of Hama, Syria, following intense fighting. The Syrian army
confirmed the rebel incursion after fierce battles and announced a redeployment of forces
outside the city.
Hence, option b is correct.
81. Ans: a
Explanation:
A higher rate of inflation in India will lead to a rise in the import of US goods into India and
the reduction in the Indian exports to the USA. It will cause the foreign exchange rate of
dollar in terms of rupees to rise and the price of the Indian rupee in terms of dollar will fall.
Thus, as a result of higher rate of inflation in India, the US dollar will appreciate and
the Indian rupee will depreciate.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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Devaluation or depreciation makes the imports from abroad expensive in terms of domestic
currency (rupees in case of India) and therefore the imports tend to fall. With exports
increasing and imports declining, devaluation or depreciation is expected to reduce a
country’s trade deficit.
However, it may be noted that the effect of devaluation or depreciation on the balance
of trade is ambiguous and quite uncertain because a good deal depends on the price
elasticity of exports and imports of a country.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

82. Ans: c
Explanation:
In developing countries, one of the hindrances to capital formation is the demonstration
effect. Demonstration leads to initiation of superior consumption standard. It stimulates
consumption among poor which increases their propensity to consume and
consequently reduce their capacity to save.
Desire for superior conspicuous consumption generally outruns the consumer means.
Thus, consumption behaviour depends not on absolute real income but relative levels
of real income. It does not depend on what we can afford but what the others afford and
enjoy.
Hence, option c is correct.

83. Ans: b
Explanation:
The KCC Scheme was introduced with the objective of providing adequate and timely credit
to the farmers for their agricultural operations. The Government of India provides interest
subvention of 2% and Prompt Repayment Incentive of 3% to the farmers, thus making the
credit available at a very subsidised rate of 4% per annum.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Objective/Purpose
The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at providing adequate and timely credit support from
the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedures to the
farmers for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below :
1. To meet the short-term credit requirements for the cultivation of crops;
2. Post-harvest expenses;
3. Produce marketing loan;
4. Consumption requirements of farmer household;
5. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture;
6. Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities

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Hence, statement 2 is correct. But statement 2 doesn’t explain statement 1.

84. Ans: c
Explanation:
What is a Government Security (G-Sec)?
A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government
or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such
securities are short-term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than
one year) or long-term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original
maturity of one year or more).
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities
while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the
State Development Loans (SDLs). G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are
called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
Treasury bills or T-bills, are money market instruments, are short-term debt instruments
issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91
days, 182 days and 364 days. Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest.
Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.

Dated G-Secs - Dated G-Secs are securities carry a fixed or floating coupon (interest
rate), which is paid on the face value, on half-yearly basis. Generally, the tenor of
dated securities ranges from 5 years to 40 years.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Cash Management Bills (CMBs) - In 2010, the Government of India, in consultation with
RBI, introduced a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs), to
meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs
have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
85. Ans: b
Explanation:
Bonds are broadly similar to debentures. They are issued by companies, financial
institutions, municipalities or government companies and are normally not secured
by any assets of the company (unsecured).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Money Market instruments (loan instruments up to one year tenure)

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● Treasury Bills (T-bills) are short term instruments issued by the Government for its
cash management
● Certificate of Deposits (CDs) are short-term unsecured instruments issued by
the banks for their cash management.
● Commercial Papers (CPs) are short-term unsecured instruments issued by the
companies for their cash management.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect & statement 3 is correct.
86. Ans: a
Explanation:
Presently, there are 18 notified biosphere reserves in India.
Biosphere Reserves in India (as on Dec, 2023)
S. Name Location (State)
No.
1 Nilgiri Part of Wayanad, Nagarhole, Bandipur and
Madumalai, Nilambur, Silent Valley and Siruvani hills
(Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka).
2 Nanda Devi Part of Chamoli, Pithoragarh, and Bageshwar districts
(Uttarakhand).
3 Nokrek Part of Garo hills (Meghalaya).
4 Great Nicobar Southern most islands of Andaman And Nicobar
(A&N Islands).
5 Gulf of Mannar Indian part of Gulf of Mannar between India and Sri
Lanka (Tamil Nadu).
6 Manas Part of Kokrajhar, Bongaigaon, Barpeta, Nalbari,
Kamprup and Darang districts (Assam)
7 Sunderbans Part of delta of Ganges and Brahamaputra river
system
(West Bengal).
8 Simlipal Part of Mayurbhanj district (Orissa).
9 Dibru-Saikhowa Part of Dibrugarh and Tinsukia Districts (Assam)
10 Dehang-Dibang Part of Siang and Dibang Valley in Arunachal
Pradesh.
11 Pachmarhi Parts of Betul, Hoshangabad and Chindwara
districts of Madhya Pradesh.
12 Khangchendzonga Parts of Khangchendzonga hills and Sikkim.
13 Agasthyamalai Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas in Kerala.
14 Achanakamar - Covers parts of Anupur and Dindori districts of
Amarkantak M.P. and parts of Bilaspur districts of
Chhattishgarh State.
15 Kachchh Part of Kachchh, Rajkot, Surendra Nagar and Patan
Civil Districts of Gujarat State
16 Cold Desert Pin Valley National Park and surroundings;
Chandratal and Sarchu&Kibber Wildlife Sancturary
in Himachal Pradesh

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17 Seshachalam Hills Seshachalam Hill Ranges covering parts of Chittoor
and Kadapa districts of Andhra Pradesh
18 Panna Part of Panna and Chhattarpur districts in Madhya
Pradesh

Hence, option a is correct.

87. Ans: a
Explanation:
Wetlands are protected under various national laws, including the Indian Forest Act
(1927), the Forest (Conservation) Act (1980), and the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act
(1972).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary is a large shallow wetland located in the northeastern
region of Uthukuli Taluk, Tiruppur District, Tamil Nadu.
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary, covering 5,151.6 hectares, in Tamil Nadu's Villupuram District,
north of Pondicherry .
The Tawa Reservoir, located at the confluence of the Tawa and Denwa rivers near Itarsi in
Madya Pradesh.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
88. Ans: a
Explanation:
THE WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972
Section11: Hunting of wild animals to be permitted in certain cases—(1) (a) the Chief
Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has
become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by
order in writing and stating the reasons therefore, permit any person to hunt such animal
or cause such animal to be hunted.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Section 35(7): No grazing of any live-stock shall be permitted in a National Park and
no live-stock shall be allowed to enter therein except where such live-stock is used as a
vehicle by a person authorised to enter such National Park.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Tiger Conservation Authority shall consist of the following members, namely:—
(a) the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests—Chairperson;

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(b) the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and
Forests—Vice-Chairperson;
(c) three members of Parliament of whom two shall be elected by the House of the
People and one by the Council of States;
(d) eight experts or professionals having prescribed qualifications and experience in
conservation of wild life and welfare of people living in tiger reserve out of which at least
two shall be from the field of tribal development;
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

89. Ans: b
Explanation:
Leatherback turtle (Dermochelys coriacea) is one of the most charismatic creatures
inhabiting the tropical and temperate waters from Pacific to North Atlantic and
throughout the Indian Ocean.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It is the largest extant marine turtle in the world and follows the longest migratory route
known for turtles. The species is currently listed as Vulnerable under the IUCN red list and
has been given the highest level of protection under Schedule I (Part II) of the Indian Wildlife
protection Act, 1972.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
In India, Leatherback nesting is specific only to the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
90. Ans: c
Explanation:
Kashmir Stag or Hangul is one of the most critically endangered species found in the
temperate grasslands of western Himalayas.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Dachigam National Park in Kashmir represents one such grassland habitat that supports
Hangul, a highly threatened and the only subspecies of the Red deer (Cervus elaphus)
to be found in India, which is now confined only to the Kashmir Valley.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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91. Ans: d
Explanation:
The Governor has the power to appoint the council of ministers, Advocate-General and the
Members of the State Public Service Commission.
Article 217(1): Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant
under his hand and seal
The Governor has no power to appoint Judges of the state High Court. He is consulted
by the President in the appointment of the Chief Justice and the Judges of the High Court
of the state.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 352(1): The Governor has no emergency powers to meet the situation arising
from external aggression or armed rebellion as the President has.
Article 356: The Governor has the power to make a report to the President whenever he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the state can not be carried
on in accordance with the provision of the constitution, thereby inviting the President to
assume to himself the functions of the Government of the state or any of them. [This is
popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
92. Ans: c
Explanation:
When a Bill other than a Money Bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill, passed
by one House is rejected by the other House or the Houses have finally disagreed as
to the amendments made in the Bill. President may, by public notification convene a joint
sitting.
This provision is only an enabling one, empowering the President to take a step for resolving
a deadlock between the two Houses. It is not obligatory upon him to summon the
Houses to meet in a joint sitting.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
At a joint sitting, the Speaker presides and the Secretary-General, Lok Sabha acts as
Secretary-General of the joint sitting.
During the absence of the Speaker from any joint sitting, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
or if he is also absent, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha or if he
too is absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the
sitting, presides.
The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members
of the two Houses.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

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At a joint sitting, the Speaker, or the person acting as such, shall not vote in the
first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of equality of
votes.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
93. Ans: a
Explanation:
The institution of Speaker or President dates back to 1921, when the Central Legislative
Assembly was constituted for the first time under the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.

Sir Frederick Whyte, a member of the House of Commons, known for his ability,
special qualifications and a deep knowledge of parliamentary procedure, was
nominated and appointed by the Governor-General as the first Speaker of the Central
Legislative Assembly for a period of four years.

Vithalbhai J. Patel was the first non-official member to be elected as the Speaker
of the Legislative Assembly on 24 August 1925.
Speaker Patel resigned his office on 28 April 1930. He was succeeded by Sir Muhammad
Yakub on 9 July 1930.

G.V. Mavalankar was elected as speaker on 24 January 1946 and continued till 1952.

Hence, option a is correct.

94. Ans: d
Explanation:
The Constitution of the Indian Republic is the product not of a political revolution but
of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people
who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Republican Constitution of India was made by the people themselves, through
representatives assembled in a sovereign Constituent Assembly.
Practically, the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the
constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been
imposed by an imperial power,the republican constitution was made by the peoples
themselves through the representatives assembled in sovereign constituent assembly

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Hence, statement 2 is correct.
95. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Indian Independence Act was passed by the British Parliament on July 5, 1947, and
received royal assent on July 18, 1947. The Act came into effect on August 15, 1947
Fifteenth day of August , in India Independence Act 1947 was referred to as " the
appointed day.
Appointed day is a phrase used to indicate the day on which an appropriate Secretary of
State makes a commencement order bringing one or more statutory provisions into effect.
Hence, option a is correct.
96. Ans: d
Explanation:
Characteristics of Sovereignty
● Absolute and unlimited means, neither within the state nor outside, are there any
powers superior to the sovereign.
● Universality or all comprehensiveness means the sovereign is supreme over the
persons, associations, and things within the state.
● Sovereignty is Indivisible, which means that if sovereignty is divided, there arises
the possibility of two or more sovereigns.
● Sovereignty is Permanent in the same way as the state itself is permanent.
● Sovereignty is inalienable as it cannot be transferred.
Hence, option d is correct.
97. Ans: d
Explanation:
The NIKSHAY - TB Notification incentive for Private Sector scheme is a Government
of India initiative to incentivise private sector healthcare providers for notifying
tuberculosis (TB) cases to the government. The scheme was launched in 2018 and is
implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Eligibility
1. All patients with tuberculosis (TB) who are notified to the government on or after
April 1, 2018, including those who are already being treated for TB, are eligible for
financial incentives.
2. To be eligible for the incentives, patients must be registered or notified on the
NIKSHAY portal.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
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Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) is the largest health assurance scheme in
the world which aims at providing a health cover of ₹ 5,00,000 per family per year for
secondary and tertiary care hospitalisation to over 10.74 crores poor and vulnerable
families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) that form bottom 40% of the Indian
population. PM-JAY is fully funded by the Government and the cost of implementation is
shared between the Central and State Governments.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

98. Ans: b
Explanation:
The scheme "Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)" is a skill
training and placement program of the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD). The
program focuses on the rural poor youth and its emphasis on sustainable employment
through the prominence and incentives given to post-placement tracking, retention, and
career progression.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
DDU-GKY is designed to provide high-quality skill training opportunities to the rural poor,
and also to establish a larger ecosystem that supports trained candidates to secure a better
future. DDU-GKY aims to skill rural youth who are poor and provide them with jobs having
regular monthly wages at or above the minimum wage.
The target group for DDU-GKY is poor rural youth in the age group 15-35.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Benefits
● Skill Training: The program provides skill training to beneficiaries in a variety of
sectors, including agriculture, construction, retail, and hospitality. The training is
designed to be industry-relevant and to equip beneficiaries with the skills they need
to secure employment.
● Placement Assistance: The program provides placement assistance to beneficiaries
by connecting them with potential employers. The program also provides support to
beneficiaries during the job search process, such as resume writing and interview
preparation.
● Post-Placement Support: The program provides post-placement support to
beneficiaries to help them adjust to their new jobs. This support may include
mentorship, counseling, and access to resources.
● Career Progression Support: The program provides career progression support to
beneficiaries to help them advance in their careers. This support may include
training, mentorship, and access to networking opportunities.
● Incentives for Higher Placements: The program provides incentives to PIAs for
placing beneficiaries in higher-paying jobs. This incentive is designed to encourage
PIAs to place beneficiaries in jobs that are commensurate with their skills and
experience.

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Hence, statement 3 is correct.

99. Ans: b
Explanation:
Resultant to this historic amendment, bamboo grown in the non-forest area is out of the
scope of regulations on the forest produces. During the year 2022-23, the NBM has been
merged with Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) scheme.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The restructured National Bamboo Mission primarily focuses on the development of
complete value chain of bamboo sector to link growers with consumers starting from
planting material, plantation, creation of facilities, skilled manpower and brand processing
marketing, micro, small & medium enterprises, skilled manpower and brand building
initiative in a cluster approach mode.
Presently the scheme is being implemented in 24 States/UTs. The NBM has provisions to
raise bamboo plantations as well as to establish units for bio-energy extraction,
activated carbon product, charcoal making, pellet making, Ethanol gasifier, etc for
government agencies and private entrepreneurs.
The scheme is applicable to all farmers in India.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

100. Ans: b
Explanation:
The "One Nation One Ration Card" (ONORC) Scheme was launched by the Department
of Food & Supplies and Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public
Distribution in 2018. It is a national Ration Card portability scheme to ensure food
security for all including internal migrants within India. It enables migrant workers and
their family members to access PDS benefits from any Fair Price Shop anywhere in the
country, thus ensuring the food security through the inter-state portability of ration cards
under the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Benefits
1. It will benefit approximately 81 crore beneficiaries by digitising Ration Cards.
2. This system allows all NFSA beneficiaries, particularly migrant beneficiaries, to
claim either full or part food grains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the country
through an existing ration card with biometric/Aadhaar authentication in a
seamless manner.

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3. With the ONORC, all the beneficiaries in one state can get the same fair rations in
other states where the ration card was issued.
4. The scheme will ensure food security of migrant labourers who move to other states
to seek better job opportunities.
5. It will improve the mechanism to identify fake/duplicate ration cards. It seeks to
provide universal access to PDS food grains for migrant workers.
6. Ration card portability will be achieved by implementing an IT-driven system that
installs ePoS devices in each Fair Price Shop (FPS).
7. The ONORC will also help achieve the target set under SDG 2: Ending hunger
by 2030.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Eligibility
1. The scheme is eligible for all ration cardholders or beneficiaries covered under
the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, with Aadhaar Card numbers
seeded.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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