HARIDWAR UNIVERSITY

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
OF DIPLOMA IN
PHARMACY FOR EXIT
EXAM PREPARATION
(2024-2025)
 Haridwar University
[Link] EXITEXAMATYOUR FINGERTIPS: PHARMACEUTICS

PHARMACEUTICS
was published in the year
(a) 2021 (b) 2022
1. The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia (c) 2023 (d) 2007
was published in 8. The second edition of the Indian
(a) 1955 (b) 1966 Pharmacopoeia was published in
(c) 1947 (d) 1945 (a) 1947 (b) 1955
2. Who publish the Indian Pharmacopoeia (c) 1966 (d) 1975
(a) Central Governor 9. In which year the government of India
(b) Central drug laboratory constituted a permanent Indian
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Pharmacopoeia Committee
(d) Central Indian Pharmacopeial (a) 1955 (b) 1948
Laboratory (c) 1960 (d) 1945
3. International Pharmacopoeia is published 10. The actual process of publishing the first
by Indian Pharmacopeia started in the year of
(a) UNCTAD (b) WHO 1944 under the chairmanship of
(c) UNICEF (d) UNESCO (a) Dr. B. N. Chopra (b) Dr. B. Mukherji
4. Which of the following provides the best (c) Dr. Nityanand (d) Col. R. N. Chopra
definition of Pharmaceutics 11. In 1885, which of the following
(a) It is the study of dosage form design Pharmacopoeias was made official in India
including associated manufacturing (a) Indian Pharmacopoeia
techniques (b) European Pharmacopoeia
(b) It is the study of the effect that the body (c) United States
has on drug (d) British Pharmacopoeia
(c) It is the study of how drugs can be 12. The number of newly added monographs
chemically synthesized in Indian Pharmacopoeia 2022 is
(d) It is the study of the effect that drugs (a) 92 (b) 74
have on the body (c) 63 (d)103
5. The first edition of British Pharmacopoeia 13. The latest Martindale edition is the
was published in which year (a) 29th (b) 40th
(a) 1854 (b) 1857 (c) 42nd (d) 33rd
(c) 1864 (d) 1867 14. Which is an Extra Pharmacopoeia
6. Indian Pharmacopoeia uses (a) BP (b) BPC
(a) Metric system (c) IP (d) Martindale
(b) Avoirdupois system 15. Supplement to IP 1955 was published in
(c) Apothecaries system the year
(d) All of these (a) 1958 (b) 1959
7. Latest edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia (c) 1960 (d) 1961
 Haridwar University

[Link] is a natural sweetener (c) Thiomersal (d) Carotenoids

(a) Brilliant Blue (b) Sucrose 25. Sodium lauryl sulphate is
(c) E133 (d) E132 (w) Preservative (b) Wetting agent
16. Neotame is a type of sweetening agent (c) Deflocculated (d) Ketone
(b) Plant derived (b) Artificial 26. Sweetening agent for diabetic patient is
(c) Neotame (d) Aspartame (x) Sodium saccharine
17. Following kinds of flavor are used for (y) Sucrose
developing a salty taste in the preparation (z) Lactose
EXCEPT (aa) Honey
(c) Butterscotch (b) Apricot
(c) Vanilla (d) Berry Unit Operation
18. Sorbitol is useful mainly as a SIZE REDUCTION
(d) Sweetening agent
27. Factor affecting size reduction include all
(e) Solubilizer
(f) Surfactant of following, EXCEPT
(g) Emulsifier (bb) Stickiness
19. The ingredient which gives pink colour to (cc)Softening temperature
calamine is (dd) Hardness
(h) Zinc oxide (ee) Sublimation
(i) Ferric oxide 28. The process of grinding a substance to very
(j) Titanium dioxide fine powder is termed as
(k) Carmine (ff) Maceration (b) Sublimation
20. Oxidation blocking agent is (c) Trituration (d) Levigation
(l) Tocopherols 29. The working principle of Ball Mill is
(m)Citric acid (gg) Impact
(n) Phosphoric acid (hh) Impact and attrition
(o) Tartaric acid (ii) Attrition
21. Agent from the complex with pharmaceutical (jj) Crushing
ingredient & prevent thedegradation of 30. Which of the following laws is NOT related
pharmaceutical formulations to size reduction
(p) Chelating agent (kk) Fick’s law (b)
(q) Antimicrobial agent Kick’s law
(r) Antioxidant (c) Bond’s law (d) Rittinger’s law
(s) Sweetening agent 31. The type of grinding machine used for size
22. The anthraquinone dye that has a deepred reduction of medicinal substances
color (ll) Punching machine
(t) Beta-carotene (b) Indigo (mm) Ball Mill
(c) Alizarin (d) Anthocyanins (nn) Sugar Mill
23. All are responsible for bitter taste except (oo) Lyophilizer
(u) Wild cherry (b) Walnut 32. Hardinge mill is a variant of
(c) Liquorice (d) Chocolate (pp) Rotary cutter mill
24. Antioxidants are EXCEPT
(qq) Ball mill
(v) Vitamin C (b) Lycopene
(rr) Hammer mill
(ss)Fluid energy mill
 Haridwar University

33. What is the relative amount of solvent for1000 41. In monophasic liquids, the salty tastes is
parts to 10000 parts of solute brought about by the use of
(a) Soluble (dd) Anise (b) Maple
(b) Free soluble (c) Walnut (d) Berry
(c) Very slightly soluble 42. All of the following are the examples of
(d) Sparingly soluble Monophasic liquid dosage form EXCEPT
34. Black fluid is (a) Ointment (b) Elixirs
(e) Homogenous coal tar acid solution (c) Lotion (d) Draughts
(f) Suspension of activated charcoal
(g) Cresol with soap solution SUSPENSION
(h) None of these 43. In a suspension, the particle size is
35. What is rectified spirit a. 5-10 micron (b) 10-15 micron
(i) 75 % ethanol (b) 100% ethanol (c) 0.5-5 micron (d) 8-12 micron
(c) 95.6% ethanol (d) 50% ethanol 44. An example of flocculating agent used in
36. Solvents have both photogenic & suspensions is
photophilic properties a. Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
(j) Levelling solvent b. Sodium lauryl sulphate
(k) Amphiprotic solvent c. Sodium alginate
(l) Differentiating solvent d. Bentonite
(m) Aprotic solvent 45. A quaternary ammonium compound used
37. The dosage form in which fluid containing as antimicrobial in suspension is
the drug is retained in the rectum for the drug to a. Propyl paraben (b) Phenoxyethanol
act either locally or systemically
(c) Chlorocresol (d) Cetrimide
(n) Retention enema
46. A suspensoid in suspension formulation
(o) Evacuant enema
is
(p) Suppositories
a. An active drug
(q) Lotion
b. A solubilizing vehicle
38. Phenolphthalein, rhubarb powder, and
c. A wetting agent
light kaolin are the examples of
(r) Diffusible solids d. A preservative
(s) Indiffusible solids 47. The factors affecting rate of settling
(t) Complexing agents particles of a suspension are based on
(u) Flocculating agent a. Raoult’s law (b) Stoke’s law
39. Give an example of indiffusible solid (c) Henry’s law (d) Poiseuille’s Law
(v) Light Kaolin 48. Which among the following is a thickening
(w) Phenolphthalein agent for suspension
(x) Light magnesium carbonate a. Acacia (b) Tragacanth
(y) Aromatic chalk powder (c) Starch (d) All of these
40. Excipients that increase the aqueous 49. Shake well before use label must be put
solubility of poorly soluble drug are on one of the following
(z) Wetting agents a. Ophthalmic gels
(aa) Solubilizers b. Ocuserts
(bb) Stabilizing agents c. Ophthalmic suspension
(cc)Dispersing agents d. Ophthalmic solution
 Haridwar University

50. Which of the following is responsible for 58. Who is responsible for analysis of
quality objective sample collected
(a) Top level management (t) Manager QC
(b) Middle level management (u) Executive QC
(c) Frontline management (v) Manager production
(d) All of these (w) All of these
59. Liposomes are spherical
51. In cGMP “C” stands for structures,usually between in
(e) Cyclic (b) Current diameter
(c) Continous (d) Complete (x) 80 nm-100 nm
52. ICH guideline for Stability testing of new (y) 60 nm-100 nm
drug substances and products: (c) 55 nm-1000 nm
(f) Q1 B (b) Q1 C (d) 15 nm-1000 nm
(c) Q1 A (d) Q1 F
53. The layout of the premises must be such
that, EXCEPT
60. What is the diameter of Large unilamellar
(g) It reduces risk of errors
vesicle
(h) Also avoids build-up of dirt
(a) 0 to 100nm (b) 600 to 800nm
(i) Increase chance of Cross-
(c) 400 to 600nm (d) 100 to 400nm
contamination
[Link] drug delivery deep into skin bymeans
(j) All of these
of galvanic current is called
54. What do QA and QC stand for
(a) Depilation (b) Intrathecal
(k) Quality assurance and queuing
(c) Inunction (d) Iontophoresis
control
62. Which of the following is a vesicular drug
(l) Quality assurance and quality
delivery system
control
(a) Implant (b) Liposomes
(m) Quality adjustment and quality
(c) Iontophoresis (d) Collodion
completion
63. Ocuserts are
(n) Quality adjustment and queuing
(a) Ear preparations
control
(b) Nasal preparations
55. Which of the following are components
(c) Oral preparations
of GMP
(d) Eye preparations
(o) Product (b) Process
(c) Premises (d) All of these 64. Sonication of liposomal product may
56. How many stages of process validation berelated to conversion of
are there a. MLV to ULV (b) SUV to MLV
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) MLV to SUV (d) None of these
(c) 6 (d) 2 65. Which of the following is NOT a
57. Which of the following is type of process method forenhancing transdermal
validation permeation of drugs
(p) Prospective validation a. Iontophoresis
(q) Retrospective validation b. Sonophoresis
(r) Concurrent validation c. Electrophoresis
(s) All of these d. Hydration of skin
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

PHARMACOLOGY

(c) Watson and Crick

General Pharmacology
(d) Edward Jenner
1. The science deals with the interaction of 8. Which of the following is a disadvantage
exogenously administered chemical of the parenteral route
molecules with living system (a) Rapid action
(a) Anthropology (b) Inconvenient and painful
(b) Bioinformatics (c) Can be given to unconscious patient
(c) Cheminformatics (d) Drug absorption in gut is bypassed
(d) Pharmacology 9. Route of administration for Heparin and
2. Who is known as the father of Warfarin
Pharmacology (a) I.V. and oral (b) S.C. and I.M.
(a) Alexander Fleming (c) Oral and I.V. (d) None of these
(b) Ramnath Chopra 10. Who is known as the father of Indian
(c) Oswald Schmiedeberg Pharmacology
(d) James black
(a) Oswald Schmiedeberg
3. Source of Aspirin is
(b) Ramnath Chopra
(a) Plant (b) Mineral
(c) Paul Ehrlich
(c) Animal (d) Synthetic
4. Drugs used for rare diseases are known as (d) Galen
(a) Orphan drugs 11. Which route of drug administration is most
(b) Rare drugs likely to undergo first-pass effect
(c) Over the counter drugs (a) Intramuscular (b) Intravenous
(d) Emergency drugs (c) Oral (d) Sublingual
5. An orphan drug is one that has 12. Most common route of administration for
(a) Low therapeutic index Insulin is
(b) Special manufacturer economic (a) Subcutaneous (b) Intramuscular
(c) Drug with high toxicity (c) Intravenous (d) All of these
(d) Imported drug from foreign 13. Inert substance given in the grab of
6. Which of the following is NOT among the medicine is called
orphan drugs (a) Placebo (b) Vaccine
(a) Sodium thiosulphate (c) Toxoid (d) Multivitamin
(b) Fomepizole 14. Who is known as the father of Medicine
(c) Liposomal Amphotericin B (a) Ram Nath Chopra
(d) Ketoconazole
(b) Hippocrates
7. Who discovered Penicillin vaccine
(c) Paul Ehrlich
(a) Robert Koch
(d) Galen
(b) Alexander Fleming
 Haridwar University

15. All of the following are MAO inhibitors 23. Identify the calcium channel blocker
EXCEPT (o) Quinidine (b) Lidocaine
(a) Phenelzine (b) Amitriptyline (c) Verapamil (d) Propranolol
(c) Selegiline (d) Moclobemide 24. Heart beat less than 60 beats/min
isregarded as
(p) Bradycardia (b) Tachycardia
Cardiovascular System (c) Hypotension (d) Hypertension
25. Digoxin act on by inhibiting
16. ECG is used to detect the problems
(q) Na+ K+-ATPase
associated with heart, which of the
(r) Myosin light chain kinase
following serves the same function
(s) Na+Cl- antiport
for brain
(t) GLUT-4
(b) EKG (b) EEG
26. What is the term for high blood
(c) EGG (d) EBG pressure
17. The term coronary artery disease is used (u) Hypotension (b) Hypertension
to designate all of the following conditions,
(c) Tachycardia (d) Tachypnoea
EXCEPT
27. This drug inhibits the angiotensin-
(c) Angina Pectoris
converting enzyme
(d) Sudden cardiac death
(v) Captopril (b) Enalapril
(e) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
(c) Ramipril (d) All of these
(f) Myocardial Infarction
28. In congestive cardiac failure,
18. The action of N drug that increases the
digitalisglycosides are used because
force of contraction of myocardium is
it increases
term as
(w)Heart rate
(g) Positive chronotropic effect
(x) Force of myocardial contraction
(h) Negative chronotropic effect
(y) Venous pressure
(i) Positive ionotropic effect
(z) Cardiac filling pressure
(j) Negative ionotropic effect
29. Calcium channel blocker drug
19. Heart rate of 160-180 refers to
containingBenzothiazepine ring
(k) Atrial flutter (b) Atrial fibrillation
(aa) Atenolol (b) Aspirin
(c) Adam syndrome (d) Ectopic activity
20. Dihydropyridine channel blocker is ring (c) Diltiazem (d) Nitro-glycerin
containing Calcium 30. Which of the following is renin
inhibitor
(l) Verapamil (b) Diltiazem
(bb) Losartan (b)
(c) Nifedipine (d) Losartan Benazepril
21. Endothelium dependent relaxing factor of
(c) Remikiren (d) Imidapril
blood
31. Ouabain, a cardiac glycoside
(m)Acetyl choline (b) Nor adrenaline
specifically inhibits which of the
(c) Nitric oxide (d) None of these
active transport system
22. Which one of the following drugs has
(cc) H+K+ATPase (b) Ca++ ATPase
positive inotropic and negative
(c) Na+K+ATPase (d) H+ ATPase
chronotropic action
32. Digitalis is given to the patients
(n) Nifedipine (b) Amlodipine
sufferingfrom
(c) Digoxin (d) Dopamine
(dd) Congestive heart failure
(ee) Left ventricular failure
(ff) Atrial flutter
(gg) All of these
 Haridwar University

33. The primary indication of Tamoxifen

citrate is
(a) Female infertility 43. Why are the vaccines produced through
genetic engineering considered as safe
(b) Endometrial carcinoma
(a) They have only the coat of pathogen
(c) Breast carcinoma (b) They are attenuated form of a pathogen
(d) Endometriosis (c) They have killed form of pathogens
34. Which one of the following drugs (d) They have all the genes of pathogens
specifically inhibits Calcineurin in the 44. What is the basic principle of immunisation
activated T- lymphocytes and vaccination
(e) Daclizumab (b) Prednisone (a) It is based on the number of B and T
(c) Sirolimus (d) Tacrolimus lymphocytes
[Link]-I inhibitor is (b) It is based on the property of memory
(a) Doxorubicin (b) Irinotecan of the immune system
(c) Etoposide (d) Vincristine (c) It is based on antigen-antibody
36. An antibiotic used in cancer chemotherapy interactions
(a) Daunorubicin (b) Tobramycin (d) It is based upon the number of white
blood cells
(c) Novobiocin (d) Amikacin
45. Which IS NOT a live vaccine
37. Vincristine is a
a. Measles (b) Rubella
(a) Antineoplastic (b) Antiviral
(c) Influenza (d) Varicella
(c) Antifungal (d) Antibiotic 46. Following are the bacterial Vaccine
38. Which of the following EXCEPT
immunosuppressant is NOT used for a. Whooping cough vaccine
thetreatment of cancers b. Cholera vaccine
a. Cyclophosphamide c. Poliovirus vaccine
b. Cyclosporine d. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG)
c. Methotrexate 47. Which kind of therapy was
d. 6- Mercaptopurine successfullyaccomplished in the year
39. Which among the following is 1989
classifiedas folate antagonist a. Gene therapy
a. Methotrexate (b) Quinine b. Chemotherapy
c. Immunotherapy
(c) Primaquine (d) Chloroquine
d. Radiation Therapy
40. Which of the following is
48. The Adenosine deaminasedeficiency
pyrimidine antagonist
isbecause of
a. Thioguanine (b) Azathioprine
a. Substitution (b) Inversion
(c) Azaserine (d) Gemcitabine
(c) Deletion (d) Insertion
41. Methotrexate is an antagonist of 49. A collection of methods that allows
(a) Cobalamin (b) Folic acid correction of a gene that has been
(c) Riboflavin (d) Tocopherol diagnosed in child/embryo is called
42. Which of the following is antimetabolite a. Cloning (b) Gene therapy
(a) Methotrexate (c) Chemotherapy (d) Dialysis
(b) Chlorambucil 50. In gene therapy, the genetic defect
(c) Cyclophosphamide iscorrected by delivery of gene
(d) Busulfan into the
individual
a. Incorrect (b) Mutant
(c) Normal (d) Jumping
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

PHARMACOGNOSY

(a) Charaka Samhita

(b) Sushrutha Samhita
and scope of pharmacognosy
(c) Both (a) and (b)
1. Who among the following is known as (d) Yoga sutras
“Father of pharmacognosy” 10. Scientist who isolated morphine from
(a) Posselt (b) Swede Linnaeus opium
(c) Dioscorides (d) Dhanvantari (a) Sertuerner (b) Galen
2. Charaka, a physician belonged to which (c) Seydler (d) Pelletier
system of medicine 11. In 1852 the process of extraction of
(a) Unani (b) Siddha alkaloid was developed by
(c) Homeopathy (d) Ayurveda (a) Posselt and Reiman
3. In 1815, the term “Pharmacognosy” was (b) Stass and otto
used for the first time by _________ in work (c) Hardy and gallows
titled ‘Analecta Pharmacognostica’ (d) William withering
(a) Hippocrates (b) C.A. Seydler 12. Scope of pharmacognosy
(c) Theophrastus (d) Galen (a) Cultivation and domestication of
4. Pharmacognosy is also known as study medicinal plant
of_____ (b) In analysis and phytochemicals
(a) Galenicals (c) Steroid industry herbal preparation
(b) Drugs from animals (d) All of these
(c) Crude drugs 13. Crude drugs obtained from animals
(d) Human Anatomy and Physiology includes
5. Pharmacognosy is an outgrowth of (a) Cinchona (b) Senna
(a) Atharvaveda (b) Materia Medica (c) Ispaghula (d) Cod liver oil
(c) Pharmacopoeia (d) Charak Samhita 14. Papyrus Ebers which contains 700
6. Who is regarded as the father of surgery medicinal herbs and more than 870
in ancient India formulae is
(a) Sushrutha (b) Charaka (a) Indian document
(c) Vasavadatta (d) Dhanvantari (b) American document
7. Name the emperor who written the oldest (c) Pakistani document
known herbal Pen -t’ sao (d) Egyptian document
(a) Shen Nung (b) Charaka 15. Who is universally known as “father of
(c) Seydler (d) Pelletier medicine”
8. Who was the first pharmacist (a) Hippocrates (460-360 B.C.)
(a) Galen (b) Seydler (b) Aristotle (384-322 B.C.)
(c) Sertuerner (d) Aristotle (c) Dioscorides (40-80 A.D.)
9. Well known treatises in Ayurveda are (d) Theophrastus (370-287B.C.)
 Haridwar University

16. Huangdi Neijing is a medicinal text which (d) Ethnopharmacology

belongs to 24. Who isolated the constitution Nicotine
(a) China (b) Japan (a) Posselt and Reiman (1828)
(c) Korea (d) Nepal (b) Gomeriz (1811)
17. Who among the following has contribution (c) Nagai (1887)
on anatomy and physiology of human (d) Pelletier (1820)
beings 25. What term is still used to refer to the
(a) Hippocrates (b) Theophrastus branch dealing with the extraction of plant
(c) Dioscorides (d) Galen and animal drugs
18. De materia medica are associated with
(a) Pharmacognosy
(a) Posselt and Reiman
(b) Pharmacology
(b) Dioscoride
(c) Galenical Pharmacy
(c) Hardy and gallows
(d) Clinical Pharmacy
(d) William withering
19. Scientist who introduced the binomial Classification of crude drugs
system for naming of plants
(a) Dioscorides 26. Crude drugs are broadly classified into
(b) Friedrich Serturner (a) Natural and Herbal
(c) Greenish and Collin (b) Organized and Unorganized
(d) Swede Linnaeus (c) Acidic and Basic
20. “The anatomical atlas of crude drugs” was (d) Functional and Non-functional
published by 27. Drug which is NOT belongs to fruit class
(a) Berg in 1865 (a) Ergot (b) Fennel
(b) Voehl in 1855 (c) Coriander (d) Dill
(c) Tschhirch in 1865 28. Which of the following drug do NOT used
(d) Collin in 1854 as anticancer
21. Who among the following belongs to Plant (a) Podophyllum (b) Curare
kingdom (c) Camptotheca (d) Taxus
(a) Charaka (b) Sushruta 29. Select the INCORRECT group based on
(c) Theophrastus (d) Hippocrates chemical classification
22. The name ‘Pharmacognosy’ is derived (a) Digitalis, Ergot, Clove, Caraway
from two Greek words viz. (b) Nux vomica, Ergot, Cinchona, Datura
(a) Analecta and Pharma (c) Peppermint, Clove, Eucalyptus, Garlic
(b) Pharmakon and Gignosco (d) Digitalis, Senna, Cascara, Liquorice
(c) Gignosco and Pharma 30. The classification of crude drugs, wherein,
(d) None of these equal importance is given to their
23. The study of the pharmacological qualities taxonomy and biogenesis is
of traditional medicinal substance is (a) Chemical classification
called as (b) Taxonomical classification
(a) Phytotherapy (c) Chemotaxonomical classification
(b) Phytochemistry (d) Pharmacological classification
(c) Medical ethnobotany
 Haridwar University

31. Which of the following is a non-absorbable (c) Silk (d) Linen

suture 41. What is the source of the Cargile
a. Cat gut membranesuture
b. Reconstituted collagen w. Sheep (b) Ox
c. Polyamide (c) Silkworm (d) Horse
d. Kangaroo tendon 42. Animal wool fat is
32. Cotton fiber is obtained from the x. Fat (b) Lipid
e. Stem (b) Leaf (c) Wax (d) Fixed oil
(c) Fruit (d) Seed 43. Bombyx mori is related to
33. Cotton consists of epidermal trichomes of y. Flax (b) Silk
species (c) Jute (d) Cotton
f. Gossypium herbaceum
Basic principles involve in the
g. Cannabis Sativa
traditional system of medicine
h. Bombyx mori and method of preparation of
i. Glycyrrhiza glabra ayurvedic formulation
34. Lignans are the constituents of
44. The word “Ayurveda” means
j. Lycopene (b) Flax seed
z. Science of life
(c) Soya (d) Pomegranate
aa. History of people
35. Other name of regenerated cellulose is
bb. Science of medicines
k. Wool (b) Jute
cc. Knowledge of crude drugs
(c) Silk (d) Rayon
45. Who developed the homeopathic
36. Silk fiber contains chemical constituent
systemof medicines
known as
dd. Hippocrates
l. Sericin (b) Keratin
ee. Samuel Hanneman
(c) Cysteine (d) Fibroin
37. What is the biological source of wool ff. Galen
m. Bombyx mori Linn., family gg. Seydler
Bombycidae/Moraceae 46. “Like can be treated by like” is the
n. Cannabis sativa Linn., family fundamental principle of
Cannabinaceae hh. Homeopathy system of medicine
o. Ovis aries Linn., family Bovidae ii. Ayurveda system of medicine
p. Gossypium hirsutum Linn jj. Chinese system of medicine
38. Natural fibre gives test for sulphur is kk. Unani system of medicine
q. Wool (b) Cotton 47. Who developed the Unani system
(c) Silk (d) Jute ofmedicines
39. Wool sweat or Suint consists mainly of ll. Hippocrates (b) Samuel Hanneman
r. Potassium salt of fatty acid (c) Galen (d) Seydler
s. Potassium salt of stearic acid 48. Fundamental principle of
t. Sodium salt of stearic acid homeopathy system involve
u. Sodium salt of fatty acid mm. The law of similarity
40. Which of the following is an absorbable type nn. The law of minimum dose
of suture material oo. Principle of simplex
v. Brocafil (b) Horse hair pp. All of these
 Haridwar University

Pharmacognosy Answer Key

1-c 2-d 3-b 4-c 5-b 6-a 7-a 8-a 9-c 10-a
11-c 12-d 13-d 14-d 15-a 16-a 17-a 18-b 19-d 20-a
21- c 22- b 23- d 24-a 25-c 26-b 27-a 28-b 29- a 30-c
31-b 32-c 33- d 34-b 35-d 36- c 37-c 38-a 39-d 40-a
41- c 42- b 43-a 44- b 45- a 46- b 47-d 48- d 49- b 50- a
51-a 52- d 53-a 54- b 55-a 56- a 57- a 58- a 59- a 60- d
61- c 62- a 63-c 64-a 65- c 66- c 67- b 68-b 69- c 70- d
71- c 72-d 73-d 74-c 75-a 76-b 77- a 78-a 79-c 80-a
81-c 82-c 83-d 84-a 85-c 86-c 87-d 88-d 89-c 90-a
91-b 92-c 93-c 94-b 95-d 96-d 97-a 98-a 99-c 100-a
101-b 102-d 103- b 104-a 105-c 106-a 107-a 108- b 109- d 110-c
111-b 112-a 113- d 114-a 115-d 116-d 117- d 118-a 119-d 120- d
121-c 122-b 123-a 124-c 125-d 126-c 127-b 128-d 129-d 130-b
131-d 132-d 133-d 134-a 135-b 136-b 137-c 138-d 139-d 140-a
141-c 142-a 143-a 144-a 145-b 146-a 147-b 148-a 149- c 150-a
151-a 152-d 153-a 154-a 155-a 156-d 157-b 158-a 159-d 160-a
161-b 162-a 163-b 164-c 165-a 166-c 167-a 168-a 169-d 170-c
171-b 172-d 173- a 174-d 175-b 176-a 177-c 178-a 179-b 180- a
181-b 182-d 183-d 184-c 185-d 186-c 187-b 188-c 189-c 190-b
191-b 192-a 193-b 194-c 195-a 196-c 197-b 198-b 199-d 200- d
201- c 202-a 203-b 204-a 205-a 206- c 207-a 208-d 209-d 210-a
211-a 212- b 213- b 214- c 215- d 216-c 217- d 218- c 219- c 220- c
221- c 222-b 223- d 224-b 225-d 226-b 227-d 228-d 229-d 230-a
231-b 232-c 233-b 234-a 235-c 236- b 237-b 238-a 239-d 240-c
241-b 242-a 243- d 244-b 245-a 246-c 247-c 248-b 249-c 250-d
251-b 252-d 253-b 254- b 255-c 256-d 257-a 258-b 259-a 260-c
261-a 262- b 263-a 264-a 265-a 266-d 267-c 268-c 269-a 270-c
271-a 272-c 273-b 274-a 275-b 276-b 277- b 278-c 279-d 280-a
281-a 282- b 283- d 284- c 285- c 286- d 287- a 288- c 289- a 290- b
291-d 292-d 293-b 294-b 295- d 296-c 297-b 298- c 299- c 300-b
301-d 302-a 303-d 304-c 305-c 306-b 307- a 308-c 309-a 310- c
311-b 312-a 313-c 314-b 315-a 316-d 317-b 318-a 319-a 320-c
321-c 322-b 323-b 324-d 325-b 326-c 327-a 328-a 329-d 330-a
331-c 332-b 333-c 334-c 335-c 336-d 337-a 338-b 339-d 340-d
341- c 342- a 343- a 344-a 345-b 346- c 347-b 348- a 349-b 350-a
351-a 352- d 353- a 354- d 355- c 356- b 357- a 358- a 359- b 360- d
361-a 362- c 363- d 364- b 365- a 366-b 367-b 368-d 369-c 370-b
371-a 372-d 373-b 374- b 375- a 376-c 377-c 378- c 379- d 380-a
381-b 382-a 383- a 384-b 385-a 386-d 387-c 388-b 389-d 390-d
391-d 392- d 393- c 394- a 395- b 396- c 397- a 398- d 399- c 400- c
 Haridwar University
[Link] EXITEXAMATYOURFINGERTIPS: PHARMACEUTICALCHEMISTRY

PHARMACEUTICAL
CHEMISTRY
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Potassium chloride
1. One of the following is true for limit test (d) Hypochlorous acid
(a) It is semi quantitative method 8. Thioglycolic acid is used in the limit test
(b) Designed to identify small quantities of for
impurities (a) Iron (b) Chloride
(c) Designed to control small quantities of (c) Sulphate (d) Lead
impurities 9. Citric acid is added in the limit test for iron
(d) Both (b) and (c) to
2. The parameter used in limit test is (a) Provide an acidic medium
(a) Turbidity (b) To react with iron to produce a purple
(b) Opalescence colour
(c) Colour intensity (c) To form a complex with iron to prevent
(d) All of the above
precipitation
3. Limit tests are conducted to
(d) To react with acid radicals to prevent
(a) Detect the presence or absence of
precipitation
impurities
10. Gutzeit apparatus is used for limit test of
(b) Quantify the impurities
(a) Arsenic (b) Iron
(c) Differentiate the impurities
(c) Sulphate (d) Lead
(d) React with impurities
11. The limit test of Iron depends upon the
4. Limit tests are test designed to identify and
interaction of iron with
control small quantities of impurities
(a) Barium Sulphate reagent
(a) Qualitative (b) Quantitative
(c) Imperative (d) All of the above (b) Diphenyl thiocarbazone
5. In limit test of chloride, which is compared (c) Thioglycolic acid
(a) Turbidity (b) Opalescence (d) Mercuric Chloride
(c) Fluorescence (d) Colour 12. The limit test of lead is done using
6. Standard solution in Limit Test of Sulphates (a) Acetic acid
is prepared using (b) Dithizone
(a) Calcium sulphate (c) Phenol red
(d) Thioglycolic acid
(b) Sodium sulphite
(c) Potassium sulphate 13. The buffer used in the limit test for iron is
(d) Sulphuric acid (a) Sodium acetate
7. Standard solution in Limit Test of Chlorides (b) Sodium carbonate
is prepared using (c) Ammonia and Ammonium chloride
(a) Calcium chloride (d) Ammonium citrate
 Haridwar University

14. An ingredient of anticoagulant solution (a) Treat peptic ulcer

used for storage of whole blood (b) Treat heart burn
(a) Anhydrous citric acid (c) Prophylaxis of stress ulceration
(b) Anhydrous benzoic acid (d) All of these
(c) Anhydrous Tartaric acid 22. Baking soda is
(d) Ascorbic acid (w) Sodium carbonate
15. Sodium lactate is used as (x) Sodium bicarbonate
(e) Sodium supplement (y) Aluminum hydroxide
(f) Expectorant (z) Magnesium hydroxide
(g) Electrolyte replenisher 23. Milk of magnesia is
(h) Diluent (aa) Hydrated magnesium silicate
16. One of the following is an Iron in storage (bb)Hydrated magnesium oxide
protein (cc) Dehydrated magnesium hydroxide
(i) Transferrin (b) Ferritin (dd) Hydrated magnesium hydroxide
(c) Cytochrome (d) Ferrochrome 24. Sodium hydroxide is commonly known as
17. Deferoxamine is used for the treatment of (ee) Slaked lime (b) Spirit of salt
toxicity caused by one of the following ions. (c) Caustic soda (d) Quick lime
Identify that 25. Which of the following combinations of
(j) Arsenic (b) Cyanide antacid are more common
(c) Iron (d) Lead (ff) Aluminum and magnesium compound
(gg) Sodium and magnesium compound
GASTRO-INTESTINAL AGENTS
(hh)Potassium and magnesium compound
18. Hypochlorhydria is condition (ii) None of these
(k) Decrease in HCl secretion in the 26. Acidifiers are the drugs which
stomach (jj) Decrease the acidity
(l) No or little HCl secretion in the (kk)Increase the acidity
stomach (ll) First increase then decrease
(m) Amount of HCl secreted in the stomach (mm) No effect on acidity
increases 27. Which of the following is not antacids
(n) Significant loss of HCl (nn) Magnesium oxide
19. Antacids used (oo) Calcium carbonate
(o) To treat Hyperchlorhydria (pp)Kaolin
(p) For intestinal inflammation (qq)Sodium bicarbonate
(q) For intestinal toxins 28. What is ‘Achlorhydria’
(r) For constipation (rr) A condition in which stomach does
20. Ideal properties of antacid not produce hydrochloric acid
(s) Antacid should not get absorbable (ss) A condition in which stomach produces
(t) Neither be laxative nor be constipated excess amount of hydrochloric acid
(u) Quick acting and exert its effect for a (tt) A condition in which stomach produces
longer period balanced amount of hydrochloric acid
(v) All of these (uu) A condition in which stomach
21. Use of antacids producesno acid
 Haridwar University

29. The shoulder of Oxygen cylinder is 38. An example of five members heterocyclic
painted ring
(a) Black (b) Grey (s) Pyrimidine (b) Pyridine
(c) White (d) Blue (c) Piperidine (d) Pyrrole
39. The hetero atoms present in
Phenothiazine are
(t) Oxygen and Nitrogen
30. Carboxyl group is represented (u) Sulphur and Nitrogen
(b) C=O (b) -COOH (v) Oxygen and Sulphur
(c) -CHO (d) -OH (w) Nitrogen and Nitrogen
31. IUPAC name for the structure CH3-CH2- 40. Example for a five membered heterocyclic
CH2-CH2-R is compound with one hetero atom is
(c) n-Ethyl (b) Pentyl (x) Pyrimidine (b) Furan
(c) Propyl (d) n-Butyl (c) Aziridine (d) Phenanthrene
32. Which of the following is NOT the IUPAC 41. Which of the following is not a six
system of nomenclature membered ring
(d) 1-Butene (b) 2-Methyl propene (y) Pyridine (b) Piperidine
(c) Isobutene (d) 2-Butene
(c) Pyrimidine (d) Pyrrolidine
33. Which of the following is the chief
42. Which one of the following is heterocyclic
constituent of vinegar
compound
(e) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetic acid
(z) Pyrene (b) Thiophene
(c) Methane (d) Ethane
(c) Phenol (d) Aniline
34. Find the odd one among the following
43. Which of the following are names of
(f) Alicyclic compounds
cyclic ether
(g) Heterogeneous compounds
(aa) Oxirane (b) Epoxy alkane
(h) Branched chain compounds
(c) Alkene oxide (d) Carbinol
(i) Aromatic compounds
44. The simplest five membered heterocyclic
35. Pick out the option that is not a functional
nitrogen compound is
group from the following
(bb) Pyrrole (b) Furan
(j) Hydroxyl group
(c) Thiophene (d) Pyridine
(k) Benzene group
(l) Aldehyde group 45. The name of compound given below

(m) Carboxylic acid group

36. Heterocyclic compounds are N
(n) Open chain compounds S
(o) Alicyclic compounds (cc)Thiophene (b) Isothiazole

(p) Aliphatic compounds (c) Thiazole (d) Thiadiazoles

(q) Cyclic compounds 46. What is the suffixes for fully unsaturated
37. Identify the heterocyclic saturated ring compounds with N and ring size 5
(r) Pyrimidine (b) Pyrazine (dd) –irine (b) –ete
(c) Pyridazine (d) Piperazine (c) –ole (d) -ine
 Haridwar University

47. 2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1-trifluoroethane is
Drugs Acting On Automic
(a) Halothane (b) Isoflurane
Nervous System
(c) Sevoflurane (d) Desflurane
48. Ring present in phencyclidine is 57. Heterocyclic rings present in
(a) Pyridine (b) Pyrimidine Pilocarpineare
(c) Piperidine (d) Pyrrole a. Imidazole and Quinoline
49. Ketamine is structural analogue of b. Imidazole and Thiazole
(a) Furosemide (b) Tolbutamide c. Quinoline and Phenanthrene
(c) Glyburide (d) Phencyclidine d. Imidazole and Dihydrofuran
50. Zolpidem belongs to following class 58. The below structure is of
ofdrugs
a. Benzodiazepines CH CH CH3
b. Carbamate
OH NHCH3
c. Imidazopyridine
a. Nor ephedrine
d. None of these
b. Pseudoephedrine
51. Zaleplon is generally
c. Ephedrine
a. Non-benzodiazepine pyrazolo pyrim
d. Nor pseudoephedrine
dine
59. The basic ring system present in the
b. Benzodiazepine pyrazolo pyrimidine
antihypertensive and antiglaucoma
c. Benzodiazepine pyrazolo pyridine
drug Timolol is
d. Non - benzodiazepine pyrazolo
a. 1, 3, 5 - Thiadiazole and Morpholine
pyridine b. 1, 3 - Thiazole and Morpholine
52. Alcohol of Procyclidine is generally c. 1, 2, 5 - Thiadiazole and Morpholine
a. Primary (b) Secondary d. 1, 2, 4 - Thiadiazole and Morpholine
(c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary 60. Which is not a quaternary amine
53. Ring present in Loxapine is a. Physostigmine
(a) Pyridine (b) Piperidine b. Pyridostigmine
(c) Pyrazine (d) Piperazine c. Neostigmine
54. Clozapine is generally (d) Edrophonium
(a) Dibenzoxazepines derivative 61. Which of the following isomer is more
(b) Dibenzodiazepines derivative potent as a muscarinic agonist
(c) Phenothiazine derivative (a) Trans isomer (b) Cis isomer
(d) Pyrimidine derivative (c) R isomer (d) S isomer
55. Among the following agents, the non-ben 62. Which among the followings do not have
zodiazepine sedative hypnotic agent is: an active metabolite
(a) Zolpidem (b) Amitriptyline (a) Morphine (b) Neostigmine
(c) Phenelzine (d) Promethazine (c) Diazepam (d) Digitoxin
56. Longest acting SSRI is: 63. Pilocarpine is an alkaloid containing
(a) Fluoxetine (b) Sertraline (a) Pyrazole (b) Oxazole
(c) Fluvoxamine (d) Paroxetine (c) Imidazole (d) Pyrrole
 Haridwar University

64. Ibuprofen is derivative of b.4, 2-(6-methoxy-2-naphthyl)-acetic

a. Pyrrole acetic acid acid
b. Phenyl alpha methyl acetic acid c. 4, 2-(6-ethoxy-2-naphthyl)-propionic
c. Indole acetic acid acid
d. N-aryl anthranilic acid d. 4 , 2 - ( 6 - m e t h o x y - 2 - n a p h t h y l ) -
65. Heterocyclic ring present in propionic acid
Indomethacin 72. N-aryl anthranilic acid are structural
a. Imidazole (b) Indole analogue of
(c) Indoline (d) Quinoline a. Ibuprofen (b) Indomethacin
66. A Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory Drug (c) Naproxen (d) Diclofenac
derived from anthranilic acid 73. Sulindac is generally ________ derivative
a. Mefenamic acid a. Indole acetic acid
b. Ibuprofen b. Indene acetic acid
c. Indomethacin c. Xanthene
d. Diclofenac Sodium d. Xanthine
67. Given structure is Antiinfective Agent
Cl
74. An organic mercury compound which is
commonly used as antiseptic/ antifungal
O
NH agent is
Cl O
a. Mersalyl acid
OH b. Mercaptomerin
c. Thiomersal
a. Aceclofenac (b) Diclofenac d. Chlormerodrin
(c) Nimesulide (d) Rofecoxib 75. The antifungal drug, fluconazole belongs
68. Flurbiprofen is to the class of
a. 2-(2-fluorobiphenyl-4-yl) propanoic a. Pyridine (b) Azoles
acid (c) Pyrimidines (d) Acridines
b. 2-(2-fluorobiphenyl-8-yl) propenoic 76. Which of the following is a polyene
acid antifungal antibiotic
c. 2-(2-fluorobiphenyl-3-yl) propanoic a. Amphotericin
b. Tolnaftate
acid
c. Undecylenic acid
d. 2-(2-fluorobiphenyl-4-yl) propenoic
d. Cephalothin
acid
77. All the following EXCEPT contain imidazole
69. N-(4-nitro-2- phenoxyphenyl) methane
ring
sulfonamide is the IUPAC name of
a. Clotrimazole (b) Econazole
a. Nimesulide (b) Nabumetone
(c) Fluconazole (d) Ketoconazole
(c) Probenecid (d) Analgin 78. Isoniazid, nicotinamide and Nikethamide
70. Following NSAID is propionic acid the following heterocyclic have ring in
a. Ibuprofen (b) Indomethacin common
(c) Metamizole (d) Diclofenac a. Pyrazine (b) Oxazole
71. The IUPAC name for Naproxen is (c) Pyridine (d) Pyrazole
a. 4, 2-(6-ethoxy-2-naphthyl)-acetic acid
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

BIOCHEMISTRY
(a) Lysosomes (b) Golgi bodies
(c) Mitochondria (d) Cell membrane
1. Who first introduced Biochemistry 9. What is the innermost part of mitochondria
(a) Carl Neuberg in 1903 called
(b) Horace Wells in 1903 (a) Nucleus (b) Cytoplasm
(c) Gardner Quincy Colton in 1903 (c) Matrix (d) Cristae
(d) William T. G. Morton in 1903 10. DNA is stored in which of the following cell
2. Cell term was given by organelle
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Tatum (a) Cell wall (b) Cell Membrane
(c) Schwann (d) De Bary (c) Nucleus (d) Cytoplasm
3. Which is the structural and functional unit 11. RNA is present in which of the following cell
of the living body organelles
(a) Tissues (b) Cells (a) Cell wall (b) Ribosome
(c) Organ systems (d) Organs (c) Nucleus (d) Cytoplasm
4. Which is called as power house of cell 12. Which organelle is responsible for the
(a) Nucleus degradation of cellular compounds
(b) Mitochondria (a) Golgi apparatus
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Lysosomes
(d) Lysosome (c) Peroxisomes
5. Plasma membrane is made up of (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Only proteins and carbohydrates 13. The largest organelle in cell is
(b) Only proteins and lipids (a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Proteins, lipids and carbohydrates (b) Chromosomes
(d) Proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids (c) Nucleus
6. Which region of the endoplasmic reticulum (d) Golgi bodies
(ER) is involved in protein synthesis 14. What is a jelly like substance found floating
(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) inside the plasma membrane
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) (a) Cell sap
(c) Both RER and SER (b) Cytoplasm
(d) Neither RER nor SER (c) Karyoplasm
7. Which organelle functions in synthesis of (d) Mitochondria
Proteins 15. Ribosomes are made up of
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosome (a) RNA only
(c) Cytoskeleton (d) Nucleus (b) RNA and proteins
8. Which of the following cell organelles is (c) RNA, DNA and proteins
(d) Nucleic acids, proteins and lipids
called a suicidal bag
 Haridwar University

16. Bile salts can be identified by

a. Fouchet’s test (b) Hay’s test Introduction to Pathology
of Blood And Urine
(c) Gmelin’s test (d) Benzidine test
17. The level of creatinine is analysed by (c) Corpuscle (d) Calyx
a. Hay’s test (b) Gmelin test
(c) Urease test (d) Jaffe’s test
18. An increase in the concentration
ofplasma potassium causes increase
in
a. Release of renin
b. Secretion of aldosterone
c. Secretion of ADH
d. Release of natriuretic hormone
19. K+ excretion is markedly influenced
by
a. Aldosterone
b. Amount of Na+ delivered to tubules
c. Rate of tubular secretion of H+
d. All of the above
20. Which of the following is the function
ofthe human liver
a. Production of bile
b. Metabolization of fat
c. Metabolization of carbohydrates
d. All of the above
21. Albumin is the most important
protein inblood serum. It is
produced by _______
a. Heart (b) Lungs
(c) Liver (d) Endocrine glands
22. Normal serum triglyceride level
in mg/dlis
(a) 10-35 (b) 145-150
(c) 40-145 (d) 20-50
23. Which of the following test is used for
earlyidentification of renal
impairment
a. Creatinine clearance
b. Urea clearance test
c. Acid load test
d. Urine concentration test
24. Normally urine is of which colour
a. Pale yellow (b) Pink
(c) Orange (d) Brown
25. The functional unit of the kidney is
called a
a. Glomerulus (b) Nephron
 Haridwar University

26. The normal urine output in adult is a. Excellent renal function

(a) 500-800 ml/day(b) 800-2000 ml/day b. Inappropriate secretion of ADH
(c) 2-3 litre/day (d) 3-4 litre/day c. Extreme dehydration
27. Normal pH of urine is d. Presence of glucose or protein
(a) 1.2-2.5 (b) 4.5-7.8 32. What can a urine test show in an
(c) 14 (d) 8-11 undiagnosed diabetic
28. Formation of red blood cells is called a. Ketones
a. Haemocytosis (b) Haemolysis b. Glucose and high amounts of bilirubin
(c) Haemopoiesis (d) Haemocytolysis c. Ketones and adrenaline
29. Normal urine d. Glucose and ketones
a. Neutral (b) Highly acidic 33. Bence Jones Proteins found in urine
(c) Slightly acidic (d) Highly alkaline occur in
30. A test which measures the ability a. Liver diseases (b) Diabetes mellitus
of a compound to diminish the (c) Thalassemia (d) Multiple myeloma
concentration ofsugar in the blood 34. A normal value for glucose in blood is
is (a) 250-350 mg/dl (b) 160-180 mg/dl
a. Hypoglycemic test (c) 100-200 mg/dl (d) 100-120 mg/dl
b. Liver function test 35. Considering the normal urine composition,
c. Hyperglycemic test the urea content is
d. Glucose tolerance test (a) 7.7g/l (b) 8.7g/l
31. Urine specific gravity of 1.054 indicates (c) 9.3g/l (d) 10.2g/l
 Haridwar University
[Link] EXITEXAMATYOURFINGERTIPS : HOSPITALANDCLINICALPHARMACY

HOSPITAL AND
CLINICAL PHARMACY
7. Which one of the following is NOT a
Hospital Pharmacy
salient feature of a Hospital Pharmacy
1. A hospital is called large if it has beds (a) Design of a new drug
(a) > 500 (b) 400-1000 (b) Supply of Pharmaceutical Drugs
(c) 500-1000 (d) >1000 (c) Dispensing of Narcotic Products
2. How many pharmacists are required (d) Supply and storage of ancillary
for a 100 beds hospital products
(a) 10 (b) 06 8. What is minimum space requirement
(c) 05 (d) 02 for Manufacturing ASU drugs
3. The hospital pharmacy requires a (a) 1200 sq. ft. (b) 1600 sq. ft.
minimum of ______ floor space according (c) 1800 sq. ft. (d) 1300 Sq. ft.
to the norms laid down by Drugs and 9. Following are the role of modern
Cosmetics Act, 1940 community pharmacy EXCEPT
(a) 100 Sq. ft. (b) 150 Sq. ft. (a) Care of patients or clinical pharmacy
(c) 250 Sq. ft. (d) 200 Sq. ft. (b) Small scale manufacture of medicines
4. Choose the hospital classified based on (c) Responding to minor ailments
the cost (d) Health promotion
(a) Budget hospital 10. The minimum training hours required
(b) Small hospital for pharmacy registration is ____ hours
(c) Medium hospital (a) 800 (b) 100
(d) Large hospital (c) 500 (d) 300
5. Which among the following is NOT a 11. Only the basis of types of medicine the
role of community pharmacist hospital is
(a) Nutrition counselling (a) Allopathic hospital
(b) Individualization of drug therapy (b) ENT hospital
(c) Rationale use of drugs (c) Kidney hospital
(d) Drug promotion to physicians (d) Cancer hospital
6. Community pharmacies that are 12. Which of the following is NOT an example
individually owned by local pharmacies are of a hospital classified based on clinical
termed as orientation
(a) Food store pharmacies (a) TB Hospitals
(b) Mass merchandiser pharmacies (b) Paediatric Hospitals
(c) Chain pharmacies (c) Allopathic Hospitals
(d) Independent pharmacies (d) Elite Hospitals
 Haridwar University

13. Following drug interactions show 16. Below drugs have opposite effect
enhancing or synergistic effect on CNS
(a) Acetylcholine and atropine a. Alcohol
(b) MAO inhibitor and sympathomimetic b. Amphetamine
drugs c. Both (a) and (b)
(c) Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole d. None of these
(d) Both (b) and (c) 17. Diuretics with digoxin and
always givegood effect
14. Alcohol, phenytoin induced action of (a) ZnCl2 (b) CaCl2
which drug

(c) KCl (d) None of these

(a) Warfarin
[Link] related to drug-food interaction are
(b) Methotrexate
(a) Dilution and absorption of drug
(c) Oral contraceptive
(b) Complexation of drug
(d) Tolbutamide
15. Phenytoin with isoniazid causes (c) Alteration in gastric emptying
a. Phenytoin toxicity (d) All of these
b. Isoniazid toxicity [Link] vitamin is avoided during pregnancy
c. Both (a) and (b) (e) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin D
d. None of these (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin A

Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy Answer Key

1-d 2-c 3-c 4-a 5- a 6-d 7-a 8-a 9-b 10-c

11-a 12-d 13-b 14-c 15-d 16-a 17-a 18-c 19-a 20-b
21-a 22-b 23-a 24-a 25-a 26-b 27-d 28-c 29-d 30-a
31-c 32-a 33-c 34-a 35-b 36-d 37-a 38-a 39-a 40-a
41-d 42-d 43-c 44-b 45-c 46-d 47-a 48-d 49-b 50-d
51-a 52-b 53-b 54-d 55-d 56-d 57-a 58-a 59-d 60-d
61-b 62-b 63-a 64-d 65-b 66-a 67-c 68-a 69-d 70-a
71-c 72-c 73-d 74-d 75-d 76-a 77-a 78-b 79-b 80-d
81-a 82-c 83-d 84-b 85-d 86-c 87-c 88-d 89-c 90-b
91-a 92-a 93-c 94-a 95-d 96-a 97-c 98-d 99-c 100-a
101-c 102-c 103-a 104-b 105-a 106-b 107-b 108-d 109-a 110-b
111-d 112-a 113-a 114-b 115-c 116-a 117-a 118-d 119-d 120-d
121-b 122-c 123-b 124-a 125-d 126-d 127-d 128-a 129-c 130-a
131-d 132-d 133-a 134-c 135-a 136-a 137-a 138-d 139-b 140-b
141-b 142-b 143-c 144-a 145-a 146-a 147-a 148-c 149-c 150-d
151-b 152-c 153-d 154-c 155-a 156-c 157-d 158-d 159-d 160-d
161-a 162-a 163-a 164-d 165-b 166-a 167-c 168-b 169-a 170-a
171-c 172-c 173-d 174-c 175-a 176-c 177-d 178-b 179-d 180-c
181-c 182-d 183-d 184-b 185-c 186-a 187-a 188-a 189-a 190-b
191-d 192-b 193-a 194-a 195-c 196-d 197-c 198-d 199-b 200-d
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

PHARMACY LAW
AND ETHICS

General Principles of Law, History (d) Hathi Committee

7. In 1903, who started a small factory at
and Pharmacy profession Parel, which led to development of Alembic
Chemical Works Ltd. At Baroda
1. Who among the following is referred to the
(a) Prof. T. K. Gajjar
Father of Indian Pharmacy
(b) Smith Stanistreet
(a) M. L. Schroff
(c) Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
(b) Ashima Chatterjee
(d) Mr. Bathgate
(c) R. N. Chopra
8. The Latin word jurisprudentia denotes
(d) H. G. Khorana
(a) Knowledge of guidelines
2. Functional jurisprudence depicts the
interrelationship between (b) Knowledge of law
(a) Law and justice (c) Knowledge of ethics
(b) Law and order (d) Knowledge of rules
(c) Law and duty 9. Drug Enquiry Committee is also known as
(d) Law and function (a) Health care Committee
3. Acharya P. C. Ray in 1901 established the (b) Therapeutic Committee
(a) Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceutical (c) Mukherjee Committee
Works at Calcutta (d) Chopra Committee
(b) Alembic Chemical Works at Baroda 10. The Indian Pharmaceutical Association
(c) Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceuticals was created at
at Calcutta (a) Delhi (b) West Bengal
(d) A small factory at Parel (Bombay) (c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh
4. Which of the following is intends to 11. In 1935, United Province Pharmaceutical
regulate and control various aspects of Association was established which later
social life converted into
(a) Legislation (b) Law (a) Indian Medical Association
(c) Rules (d) Regulations (b) Indian Pharmaceutical Association
5. Chairman of Drugs Enquiry Committee is (c) Indian Pharmacopeia Association
(a) R.N. Chopra (b) Joseph Bhore (d) Indian Pharmacist Association
(c) S. L. Bhatia (d) B. Mukherjee 12. The first pharmacy department of
6. Health Survey and Development Commitee Pharmaceutics was initiated at
is also known as
(a) Central Drug Research Institute
(a) Bhore Committee
(b) Banaras Hindu University (BHU)
(b) Chopra Committee
(c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(c) Bhatia Committee
(d) Institute of Life Sciences
 Haridwar University

(b) Pharmacy Council of India (a) Schedule M

(c) Directorate of Technical Education (b) Second Schedule
(d) All India Council for Technical (c) First Schedule
Education (d) Schedule L
13. Pharmacy inspectors are appointed by 20. As per the definition of D and C Act,
(a) State Government Gudakhu(rubbed against human
(b) State Pharmacy Council teeth) is consideredas
(c) Drugs Controller (q) Food
(d) District Medical Officer
(r) Drug
14. The person other than a registered
(s) Sweetening gum
pharmacist, dispensing any medicine to
(t) Cosmetics
patients is liable for punishment with
21. Which one of the following is a drug
imprisonment or fine up to
as perDrugs and Cosmetics Act
(e) 6 months or 300 rupees
(f) 6 months or 500 rupees (u) Blood (b) Distilled water
(g) 6 months or 1000 rupees (c) Cotton wool (d) All of these
(h) 12 months or 500 rupees 22. Which schedule contains different
types offorms in Drugs and
Drugs and Cosmetics Act Cosmetics Act, 1945
15. When was the Drugs and Cosmetics Act (v) Schedule B (b) Schedule C
(c) Schedule D (d) Schedule A
passed
23. Which Schedule gives information
(i) 10th April 1940
(j) 7th March 1948 about fees for test or analysis by the
(k) 9th September 1994 Central DrugsLaboratories or State
(l) 10th April 1919 Drugs Laboratories
16. Major amendments in Drugs and (w) Schedule F (b) Schedule Y
Cosmetics Act was made in (c) Schedule K (d) Schedule B
(a) 1975 (b) 1982 24. Which one of the following comes
(c) 1985 (d) 1986 under the schedule C of the Drugs
17. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act the and Cosmetics Act
Rules are divided into how many parts (x) OTC products
(y) Drugs from digitalis
(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) 18 (d) 24 (z) Biological products
(aa) Surgical dressings
18. The latest amendment of Drugs and
25. Schedule D in Drugs and Cosmetics
Cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945 is up to
(m) 31st December 2005 Actrefers to
(n) 31st December 2017 (bb)List of poisonous substances
(o) 31st December 2016 (cc) Standards for surgical dressing
(p) 31st December 2015 (dd) List of drugs exempted from
19. Standards to be complied under D & C certainmanufacturing provisions
Act 1940 for drugs imported, (ee) List of drugs exempted from import
manufactured, stocked and exhibited for provision
sale or distribution are covered under 26. Poisonous drugs are covered in
(ff) Schedule E1 (b) Schedule Y
(c) Schedule F (d) Schedule X
 Haridwar University

(c) Imprisonment for 1 year and a fine up d. Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years

to Rs. 1,000 or fine up to 10 lakhs
(d) Imprisonment for 6 months and a fine 33. Keeping false accounts or making false
up to Rs. 500 statement under Narcotic Drugs and
Psychotropic Substance Act, 1985 is
Narcotic Drugs and punishable with
Psychotropic Substances Act a. Imprisonment with 1 year or fine or
both
27. Opium was brought under legislative
b. Imprisonment with 2 year or fine or
control in the year
both
(a) 1957 (b) 1857
(c) 1859 (d) 1851 c. Imprisonment with 3 year or fine or
28. Government of India passed the both
Dangerous Drugs Act in d. Imprisonment with 5 year or fine or
(a) 1945 (b) 1857 both
(c) 1925 (d) 1930 34. Application for cultivation license of opium
29. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic is made on form
Substances Act came into force on (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 8 (d) 10
a. 14th November 1985
35. Coca, opium and hemp come under
b. 15th August 1940
a. Dangerous drug Act
c. 14th November 1948
b. Poison Act
d. 15th January 1985
c. Drug and cosmetics Act
30. Diacetylmorphine is also known as
d. None of these
a. Cocaine (b) Ganja
36. Drugs classified under narcotic drugs and
(c) Heroin (d) Charas
psychotropic agents include all EXCEPT
31. As per Narcotic Drugs Act, ‘Controlled
a. Ephedrine (b) Cocaine
Substance’ means (c) Heroin (d) Hashish
a. Drug banned by states 37. Coca, opium and hemp come under which
b. Drug notified in the central Act
government gazette a. Insecticide Act
c. Drug dispensed by registered medical b. Poisonous Act
practitioner’s order c. Narcotic and Psychotropic Substances
d. Drug included in controlled price list Act
32. Penalty for the cultivation of any Cannabis
d. Spurious Drug Act
plant to produce, sell, purchase, and
38. Example of narcotic drug
transport in contravention of Narcotic
a. Cannabis leaves without tops
Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act and b. Coca leaf without ecgonine
Rules on first conviction is c. Poppy seed
a. Fine up to 10 lakhs d. None of these
b. Rigorous imprisonment up to 6 39. Which of the following is a psychotropic
months substance
c. Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years a. Mazindol (b) Methyprylon
or fine up to 1 lakh (c) Pentazocine (d) All of these
 Haridwar University
[Link] EXITEXAMATYOURFINGERTIPS : DRUGSTOREANDBUSINESS MANAGEMENT

DRUG STORE AND

BUSINESS MANAGEMENT

8. The concept of ‘Consumer Surplus’ was

Introduction
introduced in Economics by
1. The subject matter of economics is (a) Prof. Robbins (b) Prof. Samuelson
distributed into _______ parts (c) Prof. Smith (d) Prof. Marshall
(a) Two (b) Three 9. Business means
(c) Four (d) Five (a) Commerce
2. The average ______and output have inverse (b) Industry and commerce
functional relationship (c) Trade and commerce
(a) Fixed cost (b) Variable cost (d) Selling and buying of goods
(c) Marginal cost (d) Total cost 10. Which of the following is not a
3. Which one of the following is not a factor of manufacturing industry
production (a) Iron and steel works
(b) Flour Mills
(a) Land (b) Labour
(c) Fruit canning
(c) Capital (d) Bank Loan
(d) Mining
4. Which one of the following costs can never
11. A valid definition of a business purpose
become zero
is to
(a) Average cost (b) Fixed cost
(a) Create a customer
(c) Marginal cost (d) Variable cost
(b) Maximize profits
5. Marginal cost is defined as
(c) Serve the society
(a) The change in total cost due to one unit
(d) Increase the wealth of the firm
change in output 12. Who is dormant partner
(b) The change in total cost due to one unit (a) One who takes no active part in
change in input business
(c) The ratio of total cost to total output (b) A working partner
(d) The ratio of total cost to total input (c) Partner for profits
6. Which one of the following is a feature of a (d) Minor partner
perfect competition 13. A Joint stock company is governed by
(a) Selling Cost (a) Companies Act 2006
(b) Group Behaviour (b) Companies Act 1936
(c) Homogenous Product (c) Companies Act 2012
(d) Differentiated Product (d) Companies Act 2013
7. Dynamic Pricing is mostly followed by 14. Wholesalers deal in
(a) Automobile Manufacturing Companies (a) Small quantity of goods
(b) Cooking Gas Supplying Companies (b) Large quantity of goods
(c) On-line Companies (c) Better quantity of goods
(d) Brand Name Food Companies (d) All of the above
 Haridwar University

15. Which of the following is not a componentof (c) 30% (d) 50%
recruitment methods 22. The capital necessary to maintain
(a) Direct method minimum level of stock and for payment of
(b) Indirect method a regular expenses is called
(c) Third party method (v) Fixed capital
(d) Physical examination (w) Revolving capital
(x) Temporary working capital
Banking and Finance
(y) Permanent working capital
16. Overdraft in banking services refers to 23. In utilization of finance, the Fixed Capital
(e) Banks encash their customers bills is invested on which of the following
before they become due for payment (z) Wages and rent
(f) Bank advances a certain sum to (aa) Taxes and interest
customer against some security (bb)Purchase of raw materials
(g) Bank fixes a limit upto which a (cc) Plant and Machinery
customer may borrow money from it
24. The validity period for medium term
against security
finance is up to
(h) Allowing customer to draw cheques
(dd) Below 3 years (b) Above 10 years
even if there is no balance in his account
(c) 3-10 years (d) 3-5 years
17. Mixed bank is a combination of
25. Creditorship securities which provide
(i) Industrial and Co-operative Bank
funds to the company on loan basis rather
(j) Industrial and Commercial Bank
than capital basis is called
(k) Commercial and Savings Bank
(ee) Debentures
(l) Commercial and Exchange Bank
18. The bank launched in India for promoting the (ff) Shares
export and import of goods and services is (gg) Preference share
(m) SBI (b) IFCI (hh) Equity shares
(c) IDBI (d) Exim Bank 26. The loan sanctioned against the pledge of
19. A commercial bank provides the property of the company is called
(n) Short term finance (ii) Mortgage
(o) Interest free finance (jj) Trade credit
(p) Monthly finance (kk)Customer advance
(q) Annual finance (ll) Fixed capital
20. Which one among the following is a typeof co- 27. If a customer is allowed to draw cheques
operative bank even if there is no balance in his account is
(r) Primary credit society called
(s) National small scale industrial (mm) Cash credit (b) Overdraft
corporation (c) Loan (d) Bond
(t) Industrial credit investment 28. When at least 51% shares of business
corporation organization are in the hands of
(u) Exchange bank government it is called
21. In business generally the percentage of working (nn) Public corporation
capital involved in inventories is (a) 45% (b) (oo)Government company
75% (pp)Public company
(qq)Departmental organization
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 1

1. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render (d) None of these

them 8. Antidotes of Arsenic
(a) Less ionized (a) Atropine sulphate
(b) More pharmacologically active (b) BAL
(c) More lipid soluble (c) Sodium nitrite
(d) Less lipid soluble (d) All of these
2. What does Pharmakon mean 9. What is Biochemistry
(a) Drug or medicine (a) Study of chemistry of human body
(b) To make (b) Study of chemistry of carbon
(c) To present compounds
(d) Ayurveda (c) Study of chemistry of living things
3. Least sedating first generation anti- (d) Study of all matter
histaminic is 10. Role of Buffer solution in case of pH
(a) Chlorpheniramine (a) Change pH (b) Increase pH
(b) Pheniramine (c) Maintain pH (d) Decrease pH
(c) Dimenhydrinate 11. Which Titration is known as the
(d) Promethazine Argentometric titration
4. Chemically Veegum is (a) Acid base Titration
(a) Magnesium aluminium silicate (b) Diazotization Titration
(b) Aluminium silicate (c) Gravimetry
(c) Magnesium silicate (d) Precipitation Titration
(d) Magnesium aluminium stearate 12. Stem containing crude drugs is
5. The objective of the Poisons Act, is all the (a) Honey (b) Ashwagandha
following except (c) Ephedra (d) Ipecac
(a) To control the import of poison 13. Papain is an enzyme derived from
(b) To control the possession for sale of (a) Latex of unripe fruit of Carica papaya
poison (b) Latex of riped fruit of Carica papaya
(c) To control the possession of poison (c) Pancreas of sheep
(d) To control the manufacture of poison (d) None of these
6. The minimum number of members in the 14. Which is the following heterocyclic
Private company is compound
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 50 (d) 2
7. ICCU means
(a) Intensive Coronary Care Unit S
(b) Intensive Coronary cause Unit (a) Thiophene (b) Thiazole
(c) Infection Coronary Care Unit (c) Furan (d) Pyrrole
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 2

1. Which of the following, which is a phase II 6. Which act provides regulations for
biotransformation reaction objectionable advertisement
(a) Sulfoxide formation (a) Poisons Act
(b) Nitro reduction (b) Drug and Magic Remedies Act
(c) Ester hydrolysis (c) Medicinal and toilet preparations act
(d) Sulphate conjugation (d) Pharmacy Act
2. Loading dose of a drug primarily depends 7. A Partner he takes active part in the
on business but public does not know him as
(a) Volume of distribution a partner of the firm is known as
(b) Clearance (a) Active Partner
(c) Rate of administration
(b) Nominal Partner
(d) Half life
(c) Secret Partner
3. The full form of IPA
(d) Junior Partner
(a) Indian Pharmaceuticals Association
8. Which is known as antenatal care
(b) Indian Pharmacy Association
(a) Postnatal care
(c) Indian Pharmacist Association
(d) None of these (b) Prenatal care
4. Which of the following definition is correct (c) Both (a) and (b)
about “Pharmaceutics” (d) None of these
(a) It involves design, development and 9. What is Nutrition
evaluation of drugs in combination (a) Study of diet and its relation to health
with an appropriate dosage form (b) Study of different foods and their
(b) The art and science of manufacturing cooking
and dispensing of drugs (c) Study of various recipes
(c) Highly trained, skilled healthcare (d) All of these
professionals with proper education 10. Buffer is a solution of
and training (a) Strong acid and its conjugate base
(d) All of these
(b) Strong base and its conjugate acid
5. Schedule V of the Drugs and Cosmetics
(c) Strong acid and strong base
Rules relates to
(d) Weak acid and its conjugate base
(a) Standards for medical devices
11. Brufen is brand name of
(b) Standards for patent and proprietary
(a) Ketoconazole (b) Ketoprofen
medicines
(c) Guidelines for permission to import (c) Diclofenac (d) Ibuprofen
new drugs 12. Resin containing crude drug is
(d) List of equipment for pharmacy (a) Rosemary (b) Linseed
operations (c) Yield (d) Storax
 Haridwar University

13. All the following describes indirect (a) Tetany (b) Rickets
channel of distribution except (c) Osteomalacia (d) Osteoporosis
(a) Producer Wholesaler Retailer 22. Identify the given structure
Consumer
(b) Producer Agents Wholesaler
Retailer Consumer N
H
(c) Producer Retailer Consumer
(t) Pyrrole (b) Furan
(d) Producer Consumer
(c) Thiophene (d) Pyridine
14. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is
23. C30H48 is the molecular formula of
caused due to
(u) Carotenoids (b) Diterpenes
(e) Decrease production of insulin
(c) Triterpenes (d) Sesquiterpenes
(f) Increase production of insulin
24. The alkaloid that does not have
(g) Decrease production of glucagon
heterocyclic ring with Nitrogen but
(h) Increase production of glucagon
derivedfrom amino acid, is called
15. Which one of these carbamates is used in
(v) Proto alkaloid
glaucoma
(w) True alkaloid
(i) Methacholine (b) Carbachol
(x) Pseudo alkaloid
(c) Pilocarpine (d) All of these
(y) None of these
16. Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is
25. If an agonist can produce
related to direct-acting drugs
submaximal effects and has
(j) Edrophonium (b) Physostigmine
moderate efficacy it’s called
(c) Carbachol (d) Isoflurophate
(z) Partial agonist
17. Which of the following is an aromatase
inhibitor (aa) Antagonist
(k) Tamoxifen (b) Letrozole (bb) Agonist-antagonist
(c) Danazol (d) Taxane (cc)Full agonist
18. Identify the packaging material that is 26. Which of the following agents is a
tamper evident ganglion-blocking drug
(l) Aerosol (b) Blister packs (dd) Homatropine (b)
Hexamethonium
(c) Bubble packs (d) All of these
(c) Rapacuronium (d) Edrophonium
19. What is the full form of NDMA
27. Given structure is
(m) National Disaster Management Area
NHSO2CH3
(n) Natural Disasters Manmade Authority
(o) National Disaster Management O
Authority
(p) National Drainage Management
Authority
NO2
20. In VED analysis D stands for
(ee) Nimesulide (b) Phenylbutazone
(q) Data of receipt of items
(c) Nefopam (d) Aspirin
(r) Desirable item
28. Confirmation of drugs identity,
(s) Deviation of stock
determination of parity & quality &
(c) Daily desired items
detection of nature of adulterant is
21. A decrease in the ionized fraction of
known as
serum calcium causes
(ff) Identification (b) Confirmation
(c) Evaluation (d) Determination
 Haridwar University
OBJECTIVE [Link] EXIT EXAM AT YOUR FINGERTIPS: MODELPAPER-3

MODEL PAPER - 3

1. A receptor which itself has enzymatic (d) Do not work with dangerous
property is machinery
(a) Insulin receptor 7. The Year that begins from 1st of January
(b) Progesterone receptor and ends on 31st of December, is known as
(c) Thyroxine receptor (a) Calendar Year (b) Financial Year
(d) Glucagon receptor (c) Leap Year (d) None of these
2. Flocculated suspension shows the 8. Which is a e-governance system to
(a) Dilatant flow discharge various functions performed by
(b) Plastic flow CDSCO under Drug and Cosmetic Acts, 1940
(c) Pseudo-plastic flow (a) e-commerce (c) e-Pharmacy
(d) None of these (b) Swayam (d) SUGAM
3. Insecticidal principle found in neem
9. Liposomes consist of a bilayer of
(a) Azadirachtin (b) Nimbosterol
(a) Hydrophilic molecules
(c) Nimbin (d) Nimbidin
(b) Hydrophobic molecules
4. Find out the following structure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
COOH
H O (d) None of these
N CH2 10. Which route of drug administration is
most likely to lead to the first-pass effect
H2NO 2S (a) Sublingual (b) Oral
Cl (c) Intravenous (d) Intramuscular
(a) Metolazone (b) Dicoumarol 11. Good clinical practice (GCP) is not required
(c) Furosemide (d) Clopamide in
5. The most effective treatment for genetic (a) Preclinical phase
disorder in the present times is (b) Phase I trial
(a) Gene mapping (c) Phase II studies
(b) Genetic counselling (d) Phase IV studies
(c) Gene therapy 12. Founded in 1901, ___________ was the first
(d) Cloning pharmaceutical manufacturing facility
6. Advice must be given to patients while in India
using MAO Inhibitors (a) Indian Pharmaceutical Company Ltd.
(a) Do not drive vehicle (b) Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceutical
(b) Avoid cheese, alcoholic beverages and Works Ltd.
liver or yeast extract
(c) Calcutta Chemicals
(c) This laxative may color the urine and
(d) Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd.
faeces pink
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 4

1. The study of adverse effects of chemicals (b) Unstable

on living organisms is termed as (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Pharmacodynamics (d) None of these
(b) Pharmacokinetics 9. Which of the following is thermoplastic
(c) Effectiveness (a) Polyvinylchloride (PVC)
(d) Toxicology (b) Polyurethane
2. Surgical catgut is prepared form (c) Polyester
(a) Human saliva (d) Epoxy resins
10. COMT stands for
(b) Testes of mammals
(a) Catecholamine Oxidation Methyl
(c) Head of shark
Transfer
(d) Sub-mucosal layer of small intestine of
(b) Catechol O-Methyl Transferase
sheep and ox
(c) Catecholamine Oxidation Methyl
3. Xylocaine can also be termed as Transferase
(a) Procaine (b) Lidocaine (d) Catechol-Oxidation Methyl
(c) Cocaine (d) Bupivacaine Transferase
4. Which proteins are called messenger 11. 5-Hydroxytyrptamine is commonly
protein known as
(a) Enzymes (b) Hormones (a) Serotonin (b) Histamine
(c) Storage (d) Antibodies (c) Prostaglandins (d) None of these
5. Which is the right of evaluation method of 12. Which type of glass is used for packaging
medication error of nasal and ear drops
(a) Right dose (b) Right drug (a) Type I (b) Type II
(c) Right patient (d) All of these (c) Type III (d) Type IV
6. Mixed bank is a combination of 13. Which of the following is not a natural
fibre
(a) Commercial bank and Industrial Bank
(a) Silk (b) Rayon
(b) Saving Bank and Co-operative Bank
(c) Cotton (d) Hemp
(c) Exchange Bank and Import export
14. Indian Kino tree is
Bank
(a) Ashoka (b) Pterocarpus
(d) Land development Bank and Saving (c) Aloe (d) Lobelia
bank 15. Which are artificial preservatives
7. Education regulation published in which (a) Neem Oil (b) Sodium Chloride
year (c) Honey (d) Benzoates
(a)1991 (b) 1992 16. Which of the following is a glycopeptide
(c) 1949 (d) 1948 antibiotic
8. Thermodynamically emulsion is (a) Vancomycin (b) Penicillin
(a) Stable (c) Clindamycin (d) Tetracycline
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 5

1. The type II, type III and type IV 8. Type I glass is called as
hypersensitivity reactions can be (a) Treated soda lime glass
suppressed by (b) Non parenteral glass
(a) Antihistaminic (c) Borosilicate glass
(b) Corticosteroids (d) Soda lime glass
(c) Sodium Cromoglycate
9. Which of the following drug acts as a
(d) Adrenaline
“Mucolytic”
2. Myrrh belonging to the family
(a) Codeine
(a) Burseraceae (b) Convolvulaceae
(c) Berberidaceae (d) Umbelliferae (b) Carbocisteine
3. According to Lewis acid-base concept AICl3 (c) Chlorpheniramine
(a) An acid (b) A base (d) None of these
(c) A salt (d) A colloid 10. The process of blood making is known as
4. Which of the following vitamins is also (a) Haematopoiesis
known as cobalamin (b) Homeostasis
(a) Vitamin B11 (b) Vitamin B2 (c) Haemolysis
(c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B12 (d) None of these
5. Which is the method for removal of poison 11. Which of the following is used for
(a) Emesis (b) Gastric lavage
packaging of small volume or single dose
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
injections
6. Given the following which one is the
(a) Metal tubes
correct step of accounting
(b) Plastic container
(a) Recording Classifying
Summarizing Interpreting (c) Glass ampoules
(b) Recording Summarizing (d) Plastic sachet
Interpreting Classifying 12. Amygdalin is the constituent of Prunus
(c) Recording Interpreting amygdalus when treated with enzyme
Classifying Summarizing it gives
(d) Recording Interpreting (a) Hydrocyanic acid + Benzaldehyde
Classifying Summarizing (b) Acetic acid + Benzaldehyde + sugar
7. Full form of IAEC (c) Hydrocyanic acid + Acetaldehyde
(a) Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (d) None of these
(b) Institutional Animal Ethics 13. Beta imidazolyl ethylamine is popularly
Corporation
known as
(c) Institutional Animal Entitled Committee
(a) Cycloserine (b) Threonine
(d) Institution of Animal Experiment
(c) Histamine (d) Reserpine
Committee
 Haridwar University
OBJECTIVE [Link] EXIT EXAM AT YOUR FINGERTIPS: MODELPAPER-6

MODEL PAPER - 6

1. Identify the receptor which demonstrates (a) Inhibiting the conversion of

the fastest onset of response, when Angiotensin, I to II
stimulated (b) Inhibiting the release of rennin
(a) Nuclear receptor (c) Inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin
(b) Ionotropic receptors II to the receptor
(c) G-protein coupled receptors (d) Inhibiting the action of aldosterone
(d) Insulin receptor 8. Mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is
2. following are the function of management (a) Topoisomerase inhibition
EXCEPT (b) Increases the polymerization of
(a) Planning (b) Staffing tubulin
(c) Eliminating (d) Controlling (c) Inhibits protein synthesis
3. Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of (d) Alkylation of DNA
the following disorders 9. Alkylating agents are all EXCEPT
(a) Systemic hypertension (a) Busulfan (b) Carmustine
(b) Unstable angina (c) Dacarbazine (d) Etoposide
(c) Pulmonary hypertension 10. Cinchona bark under UV light give __________
fluorescence
(d) Hypertension due to eclampsia
(a) Blue (b) Violet
4. Containers meant for storage of injectables
(c) Orange (d) Green
are made of
11. Which of the following is synonym of
(a) Lime-soda glass (b) Type II glass
asafoetida
(c) Neutral glass (d) Type I and II glass
(a) Ginger (b) Hing
5. Which one of these machines does not
(c) Ferual (d) Sonth
contain any moving part
12. Which institution is responsible for testing
(a) Ball mill
Blood Grouping reagents and diagnostic
(b) Disintegrator
kits for HIV virus, Hepatitis B Surface
(c) Fluid energy mill
Antigen, and Hepatitis C
(d) Colloidal mill
(a) Central Research Institute, Kasauli
6. Characteristic smell of coriander fruit is (b) Veterinary Research Institute,
due to presence of which chemical Izatnagar
constituent (c) National Institute of Biologicals, Noida
(a) Transtridecanal (d) Pasteur Institute of India, Conoor
(b) D- linalool 13. Which one is the heaviest particulate
(c) Coriandral component of the cell
(d) Coriandrine (a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria
7. Aliskiren acts by (c) Cytoplasm (d) Golgi apparatus
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 7

(a) Benzene derivative

1. Following are included in functional
(b) Quinoline derivative
middleman EXCEPT
(c) Steroid
(a) Brokers (b) Factor
(d) Straight chain acid
(c) Auctioneers (d) Wholesaler
10. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of
2. Neuroleptic used as anti-emetic is
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
(a) Haloperidol (b) Hyoscine
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin C
(c) Ondansetron (d) Mosapride
11. Drug is an example of amino alkaloid
3. The short acting anti cholinesterase drug
(a) Ephedrine (b) Atropine
is
(c) Caffeine (d) Theophylline
(a) Edrophonium (b) Demecarium
12. Mannitol is generally
(c) Dyflos (d) Echothiopate
(a) High efficacy diuretics
4. Which of the following cholinomimetics is
(b) Medium efficacy diuretic
a drug of choice for reversing the effects of
(c) Osmotic diuretic
nondepolarizing neuromuscular relaxants
(d) Potassium sparing diuretic
(a) Physostigmine (b) Edrophonium 13. The racemic mixture of L-hyoscyamine is
(c) Pilocarpine (d) Echothiopate called
5. Silk contains a protein known as (a) Homatropine (b) Atroscine
(a) Casein (b) Fibroin (c) Atropine (d) Scopine
(c) Sericin (d) Both (b) and (c) 14. Which of the following is formed when
6. Which of the following deals mostly in the liquid is removed from a gel and only
foods and grocery items the framework remains
(a) Supermarket (a) Xerogel (b) Hydrogel
(b) Departmental Store (c) Swollen Gel (d) None of these
(c) Both (a) and (b) 15. Separation of water from gel on storage
(d) Second Hand Shop is known as
7. The Pharmacy Council of India is (a) Xerogel (b) Syneresis
constituted by the (c) Ageing (d) None of these
(a) Central Government 16. Find out the structure of Cisplatin

(b) State Government NH3 NH3

(c) Parliament Pt Cl Pt
(a) Br (b) Cl NH3
(d) Legislative Assembly
8. Central Drugs Testing Laboratory is located NH3 I
at NH3 NH3

(a) Lucknow (b) Raipur (c) Cl Pt F (d) Cl Pt NH3

(c) Mumbai (d) Ghaziabad
NH3 Cl
9. The cholesterol molecule is a
 Haridwar University
OBJECTIVE [Link] EXIT EXAM AT YOUR FINGERTIPS: MODELPAPER-8

MODEL PAPER - 8

1. Cytochrome P-450 causes metabolism receptor blocker shows Antiplatelet

through process action
(a) Esterification (b) Reduction (a) Losartan (b) Valsartan
(c) Oxidation (d) Sulphonation (c) Irbesartan (d) Candesartan
2. What sweetening agent is used in 8. Followings are mucosal drug delivery
toothpastes systems EXCEPT
(a) Sodium saccharin (a) Buccal delivery systems
(b) Sucrose (b) Ocular delivery systems
(c) Glycerine (c) Parenteral delivery systems
(d) All of these (d) Oral delivery systems
3. Which one of these mills is used for 9. Which among the following is an orally
getting very fine powders of vitamin acting anti thrombin drug
(a) Ball mill (a) Hirudin (b) Lepirudin
(b) Hammer mill (c) Bivalirudin (d) Dabigatran
(c) Fluid energy mill 10. An increase in serum unconjugated
(d) Colloidal mill bilirubin occurs in
(a) Hemolytic jaundice
4. Following is classified as medium
(b) Obstructive jaundice
efficacy diuretics
(c) Nephritis
(a) Thiazide (b) Theophylline
(d) Glomerulonephritis
(c) Amiloride (d) Triamterene
11. Which of the following is respiratory
5. Which of the following is used as a
analeptic drug
tablets lubricant
(a) Picrotoxin (b) Methylphenidate
(a) Liquid paraffin
(c) Caffeine (d) Doxapram
(b) Sodium benzoate
12. Which type of antidote is issued when
(c) SLS
the nature of ingested poison is not
(d) All of these
known
6. Following which disposal method used
(a) Chemical Antidote
for cytotoxic drugs
(b) Physical Antidote
(a) Low and medium temperature
(c) Physiological Antidote
incineration
(d) Universal Antidote
(b) High temperature incineration
13. Plaster of Paris is used for temporary
(c) Disposal to sewers and water courses
support in broken bone is
(d) Directly to landfill
7. Which of the following Angiotensin II (a) CaSO4 ½HO (b) CaSO4 2H2O

(c) CaSO45H2O (d) CaSO4 7H2O

 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 9

1. Which of the following terms is used to (a) Acyclovir (b) Amantadine

describe a drug that has the same effect on (c) Ritonavir (d) Trifluridine
a receptor as the endogenous chemical 9. Gray baby syndrome is associated with
messenger (a) Streptomycin (b) Cephalosporin
(a) Agonist (b) Antagonist (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol
(c) Partial agonist (d) Inverse agonist 10. Which dryer is useful for uniform drying
2. The rotating speed of basket apparatus is of the material as the hot gas surrounds all
(a) 50-120 rpm (b) 25-50 rpm the granules completely
(c) 6-35 rpm (d) 25-50 rpm (a) Tray (b) Vacuum
3. Followings are the types of budgets (c) Freeze (d) Fluidized bed
according to the function EXCEPT 11. In this type of mixing continuous input of
(a) Sales Budget (b) Production Budget energy is required
(c) Current Budget (d) Master Budget (a) Positive mixing (b) Negative mixing
4. Sales return means goods returned to the (c) Neutral mixing (d) Closed mixing
supplier due to 12. Aloe is a mixture of
(a) Good quality (b) Defective quality (a) Barbaloin (b) -barbaloin
(c) Super quality (d) None of these (c) Iso-barbaloin (d) All of these
5. Glidants aid to the tablets 13. Which is not the common use of Tulsi
(a) Colour (b) Taste (a) Antibacterial (b) Expectorant
(c) Flow (d) Odour (c) Insecticide (d) Antiepileptic
6. Volatile oils can be isolated from which 14. Which committee was framed by the
method Government of India in 1953 under the
(a) Distillation chairmanship of Major General S.L. Bhatia
(b) Solvent extraction (a) Bhore Committee
(c) Enfleurage and Ecuelle method (b) Chopra Committee
(d) All of these (c) Bhatia Committee
7. Mechanism of sulfonamides’ antibacterial (d) Hathi Committee
effect is 15. The colour of eye is due to
(a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase (a) Sclera (b) Iris
(b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase (c) Retina (d) None of these
(c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase 16. BCG vaccine provides protection against
(d) Activation of DNA gyrase (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
8. The topically used drug for genital herpes
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Polio
infection is
 Haridwar University
GPATDISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDYEASY

MODEL PAPER - 10

1. Drug is administered through mouth, is (a) Breakage of DNA strand

known as (b) Cross linking of DNA strands
(a) Inhalational route (c) Abnormal pairing of purine and
(b) Enteral route pyrimidine bases
(c) Oral route (d) All of these
(d) None of these 8. BCG vaccine is a
2. Which of the following are examples of (a) Attenuated
primary packaging of medication (b) Toxoid of bacteria
(a) Blister packs and vial (c) Bacterial live vaccine
(b) Bottles and boxes (d) Viral live vaccine
(c) Envelopes and labels
9. Nimesulide is banned in pediatric
(d) Needles and cartons
formulation because
3. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
(a) CNS depression
substances Act has repealed
(b) Liver damage
(a) The Opium Act 1857
(c) CNS side effect
(b) The Opium Act 1878
(d) Physical dependence
(c) Dangerous Drugs Act 1930
(d) All of these 10. CPOE technology stands for
4. In pastes, the concentration of insoluble (a) Computer protected order entry
powder substances is (b) Computerized patient order entry
(a) 20-50% (b) 50-100% (c) Computerized provider order entry
(c) 50-75% (d) None of these (d) Computer-generated password entry
5. Followings are the sources of secondary 11. Which of the following is responsible for
data EXCEPT the yellow colouring in jaundice
(a) Newspapers (a) Urobilinogen (b) Carotene
(b) Publications (c) Bilirubin (d) AST
(c) International Agencies 12. Chemical composition of asbestos
(d) Dealers (a) Cellulose (b) Aluminosilicate
6. Package containing a single dose of a (c) Silica (d) Carbon dioxide
medication 13. In 1856, G Mendel published important
(a) Turnover observation on
(b) Unit dose packaging (a) Plant hybrids
(c) Inventory (b) Plant tissue culture
(d) All of these
(c) Medicinal quality of digitalis
7. Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic action by
(d) Extraction of alkaloids
inducing
Haridwar University