03-07-2024

6201CMD30300124005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) If is the length of a side of an equilateral triangle, then the distance of its centroid from
any of its vertices is

(1) 6 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 1 cm

2) If the volumes of a cube and a sphere are equal, then the ratio of side of the cube to radius of the
sphere is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The ratio of volume of a cone to a cylinder of same base area and height is

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

4) If the angle of the arc of a circle is and its radius is 7 cm, the length of the arc is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) in minutes of arc is
(1) 60
(2) 120
(3) 1200
(4) 3600

6) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If then the value of is

(1)
(2) 6x
(3) 3x + 4
(4) 3x

8) The product of 0.0001 and 0.0002 is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) If the surface area of a sphere is S, its volume is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If 27 identical solid spheres of radius 'r' are combined to form a bigger sphere, the radius of the
bigger sphere is

(1) 27r
(2) 9r
(3) 6r
(4) 3r

11) from the sequence 1, 4, 9, x, y, 36, 49, 64, 81, z, 121, ------------. Then the product of x and z is

(1) 160
(2) 250
(3) 1600
(4) 2500

12) Statement I: Every rectangle is a parallelogram.

Statement II: Every parallelogram need not be a rectangle.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and the Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct and the Statement II is incorrect

13) In a triangle ABC if sin A is then cos A is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

14) sinAsinB + CosACosB =

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) If h is very much smaller when compared to R, the value of the expression is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) If velocity depends on time as v = at + u (where a and u are constants), the shape of velocity -
time graph (v is velocity and t is time)

(1) Straight line

(2) Circle
(3) Parabola
(4) Ellipse

17) If 6, 8 and A are the pythogorian triplets, then A is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 10

18) is

(1) 10
(2) 210
(3) 19
(4) 20

19)

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 4049

20) If then is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) The product of and is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

22) The slope and y-intercept of " " are respectively

(1) 4 and
(2) and 4
(3) 2 and
(4) 1 and 4

23) If then is

(1) x
(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Slope of the curve - A and curve - B are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) then X is

(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 12
(4) 15

28) if then v is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) y is a function of x, then for y to be maximum or minimum.

Statement-I: if y is minimum.

Statement-II: If is maximum.

(1) Statement I is true and Statement-II is false

(2) Statement I is false and Statement-II is true
(3) Both are false
(4) Both are true
30) is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3)
(4)

31) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

32) Match the following based on the triangle shown below:

Column I Column II

(A)
(P)

(B)
(Q)

(C)

(D)
(1) A - P, B - P, C - Q, D - Q
(2) A - Q, B - Q, C - P, D - P
(3) A - Q, B - P, C - Q, D - P
(4) A - P, B - Q, C - Q, D - P

33) From a sphere of radius R another sphere of radius is removed, then the volume of the
remaining part of the sphere is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) is

(1) 100
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

35) If then y can be

(1) fourth power of x

(2) cube root of x
(3) reciprocal of x
(4) None of the above

SECTION - B

1) If then is

(1) K4
(2) K3
(3) K2
(4) K

2) If and then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A balloon is connected to a meteorological ground station by a cable of length 215 m inclined at

to the horizontal. Determine the height of the balloon from the ground. Assume that there is no
slack in the cable.

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

4)

(1)
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 1

5) If and then which of the following is true?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

6) If A and B are two complementary angles, then

(1) zero
(2) 1

(3)

(4)

7) A glass sphere weighs 0.9 lb. How much does another such sphere weigh if its circumference is
eight times as large?

(1) 57.6 lb
(2) 468.1 lb
(3) 7.2 lb
(4) 460.8 lb

8) The triangles below are similar. The value of x is:

(1) 93
(2) 88
(3) 2.9
(4) 93.5

9) Find the area of the shaded segment. Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.

(1) 201 m2
(2) 274 m2
(3) 73 m2
(4) 128 m2

10) Find the sum and the product of the roots of the equation

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) The sum of the first 20 terms of an arithmetic progression whose first term is 5 and common
difference is 4, is

(1) 820
(2) 830
(3) 850
(4) 860

12) Find the sum of the series

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The centre of a circle is and one end of the diameter AB is A(3, 5). Find the coordinates
of the other end B.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

14) If then x = ___________.

(1) 40
(2) 256
(3) 1024
(4) None of these

15) If and then find the value of x.

(1) 0.0699
(2) 0.0233
(3) 0.233
(4) 10

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) The number of neutrons present in atom is

(1) 39
(2) 19
(3) 20
(4) None of these

2) According to Rutherford atomic model which among the following statement is correct:

(1) Electrons are static around the nucleus

(2) Electrons revolves around the nucleus
(3) Electron does not decreases it energy at the time of revolution
(4) Electron obeys the law of conservation of momentum at the time of revolution

3)

The total number of orbitals in a shell with principle quantum number.

(1) 2n
(2) 2n2
(3) n2
(4) n + 1

4) Proton is

(1) Nucleus of deuterium

(2) Ionized hydrogen molecule
(3) Ionized hydrogen atom
(4) An particle

5) Out of X-Ray, infrared rays, visible ray and microwaves, the largest frequency is

(1) X-rays
(2) IR rays
(3) Visible
(4) Microwaves

6) Statement-1: is not applicable for macroscopic particles.

Statement-2: The orbital angular momentum of p-subshell is

Statement-3: orbital has one angular node.

(1) TTT
(2) TTF
(3) TFT
(4) FTT

7) In hydrogen atom, electron is excited to 6th energy level, Which is/are correct about the hydrogen
spectrum?
(1) Total 15 emission lines are observed in spectrum.
(2) 4 emission lines belong to Lyman series and 5 emission lines belong to Balmer series.
(3) 2 emission lines belong to Brackett series and 3 emission lines belong to Paschen series.
(4) One emission line belongs to Humphrey series.

(1) 1 and 3 only

(2) 3 and 2 only
(3) 2, 3 and 4 only
(4) 1, 2 and 4 only

8) The number of electron in a neutral atom is equal to it's

(1) Atomic mass number

(2) Atomic number
(3) Equivalent weight
(4) Electron affinity

9) particles are represented by

(1) Lithium atoms

(2) Helium nuclei
(3) Hydrogen nuclei
(4) Mass less particle

10) Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Isotopes have same number of protons

(2) Isobars have same nucleons number
(3) Isobars have same number of protons
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) Radius of 2nd shell of (where Bohr radius) is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The wavelength of spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to

(1) Number of electrons undergoing transition

(2) The nuclear charge of atom
(3) Velocity of an electron undergoing transition
(4) The difference in the energy levels involved in the transition

13) Which of the following equation was suggested by de-Broglie

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Calculate the frequency of yellow radiations have wavelength of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The potential energy of an electron in hydrogen atom is its kinetic energy will be

(1) 1.51 eV
(2) 15.10 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(4) 1.36 eV

16)

For which of the following species Bohr model is not valid

(1) He+
(2) H
(3) Li2+
(4) Mg2+

17) How many 3d electrons can have spin quantum number

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 10

18) Statement-1: f-subshell can accomodate maximum 14 electron.

Statement-2: d-subshell can accomodate 10 electrons.
Statement-3: 4s is closer to nucleus than 3d.

(1) TTT
(2) TTF
(3) FTF
(4) TFT
19) Which orbital/orbitals cannot exist?
(a) 2d (b) 1p
(c) 3g (d) 4f

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b and c only
(3) c, d and a only
(4) a and c only

20)

Statement-1: Spin quantum number is derived from Schrodinger equation.

Statement-2: Magnetic quantum number tells about orbital angular momentum along z axis.
Statement-3: Spin of electron have no relation with energy.

(1) FTT
(2) TTT
(3) FTF
(4) FFT

21) In which of the following orbital/orbitals the number of radial nodes and angular nodes are
same?
(a) 4p (b) 3p
(c) 5d (d) 6f

(1) b and c only

(2) c, a and b only
(3) a and b only
(4) a, c and d only

22) Choose the correct pair regarding the properties given in bracket.
(a) 4d > 5s (angular node).
(b) 4s = 4p (energy in hydrogen atom)
(c) 3d > 4s (radial node)
(d) 4s > 3s (radial node)

(1) b, d and c only

(2) a, b and d only
(3) d and c only
(4) a, b and c only

23) How many electrons with are there in an atom having atomic number 54?

(1) 3
(2) 10
(3) 14
(4) 20
24) The maximum number of electrons possible to accomodate in a subshell is equal to

(1)
(2) 2n2
(3)
(4)

25) Multiplication of electron velocity and radius for a orbit in an atom is

(1) Proportional to mass of electron

(2) Proportional to square of mass of electron
(3) Inversely proportional to mass of electron
(4) Does not depend upon mass of electron

26) Match Column I ions with Column II indicated properties:

Column I Column II

(A) Fe2+ (p) No unpaired electrons

(B) Cr3+ (q) 5 unpaired electrons

(C) Mn2+ (r) 4 unpaired electrons

(D) Ca2+ (s) 3 unpaired electrons

(1) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s
(2) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p
(3) A - q, B - r, C - p, D - s
(4) A - p, B - s, C - q, D - r

27)

According to Bohr theory, the radius (r) and velocity (v) of an electron vary with the increasing
principal quantum number 'n' as:-

(1) r increases, v decreases

(2) r and v both increases
(3) r and v both decreases
(4) r decreases, v increases

28) The velocity of electron moving in 3rd orbit of He+ is v. The velocity of electron moving in 2nd orbit
of Li+2 is

(1)

(2)

(3) v
(4) None of these
29) The momentum of a particle which has a de Broglie wavelength of 0.1 nm is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be-

(1) 125
(2) 0.25
(3) 5.4
(4) 10

31)

The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. will be:

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

32)

Which electronic configuration does not follow the Aufbau rule?

(1) 1s22s22p6
(2) 1s22s22p43s2
(3) 1s2
(4) 1s22s22p63s2

33) The orbital identified by quantum numbers n and

(i) n = 4, = 1 (ii) n = 4, = 0
(iii) n = 3, = 0 (iv) n = 3, = 1.
Can be placed in order of increasing energy

(1) iii < iv < i < ii

(2) iii < iv < ii < i
(3) i < iii < ii < iv
(4) iii < i < iv < ii

34) Spin angular momentum for electron is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

35) Heisenberg uncertainity principle is valid for

(1) Moving electron

(2) Motor car
(3) Stationary particles
(4) Both (2) and (3)

SECTION - B

1) Which of the following configuration follows the Hund's rule of max multiplicity

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion (A): It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
Reason (R): The path of momentum of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

3) Assertion (A): There are 5 electrons in the 3d sub-shell of Cr.

Reason (R): Half filled sub-shells are more stable.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

4) Which of the following orbital is not possible?

(1) 5p
(2) 6s
(3) 4d
(4) 3f

5) Which is correct for any H-like species- (En represents the energy of nth orbit)

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

6)

The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Assertion (A): and are isobars.

Reason (R): and have the same mass numbers.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

8)

The correct set of quantum numbers for the last electron of Na+ is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) Which series have highest energy in hydrogen spectrum?

(1) Balmer
(2) Brackett
(3) Pfund
(4) Lyman

10) Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by these.

Quantum number Information provided

(A) Principal quantum (1) Orientation of the

number orbital

(B) Azimuthal quantum (2) Energy and size of

number orbital

(C) Magnetic quantum

(3) Spin of electron
number

(D) Spin quantum

(4) Type of subshell
number

(1) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1
(2) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3
(3) A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1
(4) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

11) The limiting line in Balmer series will have a frequency of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) If the de-Broglie wavelength of the fourth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is the
circumference of the orbit will be

(1)

(2) 4 nm

(3)
(4) 16 nm

13) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength, moving with same speed?

(1)
(2) P
(3) CO2
(4) SO2

14) Match the electronic configuration with the rule that it is violating.

Column I Column II

(P) Only Aufbau's

principle
(i)

(Q) Only Pauli's

exclusion principle
(ii)

(R) Only Hund's rule

(iii)

(S) Aufbau's and

Hund's rule
(iv)
(1) P - i, Q - ii, R - iii, S - iv
(2) P - iii, Q - iv, R - ii, S - i
(3) P - ii, Q - iv, R - i, S - iii
(4) P - ii, Q - i, R - iv, S - iii

15)

An electron is moving in 3rd orbit of Li+2 and its separation energy is y. The separation energy of an
electron moving in 2nd orbit of He+ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) y

BOTANY
 SECTION - A

1) The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested for years or months in :

(1) Diplotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Telophase-I

2) Identify the metaphase-I from the following figures

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The number of bivalents are 20. What will be the number of chromosomes during anaphase-II at
each pole ?

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 10
(4) 20

4) Meiosis is significant because it :-

(1) increases genetic variability
(2) helps in the conservation of specific chromosome number
(3) is important for evolution
(4) All

5) Which of the following is unique feature of meiosis?

(1) Shortening of chromosomes

(2) Formation of spindle fibre
(3) Formation of nucleolus from satellite chromosome
(4) Pairing and recombination between homologous chromosomes

6) Identify the wrong statement about meiosis:

(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(2) Four haploid cells are formed
(3) At the end of meiosis the number of chromosomes are reduced to half
(4) Two cycle of DNA replication occurs

7) Which is not a characteristic of telophase?

(a) Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes.
(b) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
(c) Nuclear envelope assemble around chromosome clusters.
(d) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
(e) Chromosome clusters and their identity is lost

(1) a, b and d only

(2) a and d only
(3) b and c only
(4) c, d and e only

8) Assertion (A): Meiosis causes variations in population from one generation to the next.
Reason (R): Variations are very important for the process of evolution.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

9) Choose the correctly matched pairs and the correct option:

(a) Leptotene - chromosomes become invisible.
(b) Zygotene - pairing of homologous chromosomes.
(c) Pachytene - dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place.
(d) Diplotene - bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads.
(e) Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place.

(1) (a) and (b) correct

(2) (a) and (d) correct
(3) (b) and (e) correct
(4) (b) and (c) correct

10) Crossing over requires an enzyme:

(1) Recombinase
(2) Catalase
(3) Lipase
(4) Hexokinase

11) Anaphase-II differs from anaphase I in:

(1) Involvement of splitting of centromere

(2) Separating the homologous chromosomes
(3) Resulting in reduction of chromosome number
(4) It occurrence in diploid cells

12)

Which of the following statements is correct for cells in quiescent stage (G0)?
(a) are metabolically inactive.
(b) do not divide.
(c) may divide if required for the organism.

(1) a only
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

13) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also shows :

(1) Splitting of centromeres

(2) Synthesis of tubulin protein
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane

14) Chiasmata clearly observed in:

(1) Diplotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Leptotene

15) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(a) Recombination
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasmata visible
(d) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (b), (a), (c), (d)

16)

The given diagram illustrates a cell :

Which of the following statements regarding the image is false ?

(1) The nuclear envelope is disappearing
(2) It is an animal cell
(3) It is in telophase
(4) The cell furrow is forming

17) Mitosis can occurs in

(1) Haploid cell

(2) Diploid cell
(3) Triploid cell
(4) All of these

18) Arrange the following figures (of stages of meiosis) in the order of their occurrence and choose
the correct option

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(1) A→C→D→B
(2) B→D→C→A
(3) B→D→A→C
(4) C→B→D→A

19) Which pair is wrong ?

(1) Go stage – Heart cells

(2) Recombinase – Crossing over
(3) Transition to metaphase – Diplotene
(4) Double metaphasic plate – Metaphase-I

20) A typical (eukaryotic) cell cycle is illustrated by human cells in culture. These cells divide once in
approximately every :-

(1) 1 hour
(2) 12 hours
(3) 23 hours
(4) 24 hours

21) Which statement is correct about cell division?

During G1 phase the cell is metabollically inactive and continuously grows but does not replicate
(1)
its DNA
(2) G2-phase makes the period during which DNA synthesis takes place in nucleus
(3) If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then after S-phase it decreases to 1C
There is no increase in the chromosome number at G2 phase. If G1 phase has 2n number of
(4)
chromosomes it remains the same i.e. 2n

22) Centrioles undergo duplication during (i) of __(ii)__ and begin to move towards opposite poles
of the cell during (iii) stage of __(iv)__ :-

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) S-Phase Interphase Prophase Mitosis
(2) S-Phase Interphase Anaphase Mitosis
(3) Prophase Mitosis Metaphase Mitosis
(4) Prophase Mitosis Anaphase Mitosis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of :-

(1) Two chromatids and one centromere

(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres

24) Match the following columns correctly :

Column-I Column-II
Terminalisation
(A) Zygotene (i)
of chiasmata
Appearance of
(B) Diplotene (ii)
recombination nodules
Dissolution of
(C) Pachytene (iii)
synaptonemal complex
Formation of
(D) Diakinesis (iv) synaptonemal
complex
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

25) Identify the given diagram Which one statement is true for above diagram?

(1) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate

(2) Sister chromatids separate
(3) Nuclear membrane start to reappear
(4) Homologous chromosome separate

26)

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs in

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Anaphase-I

27)

Meiosis ensures the production of _____ phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms, where
as fertilization restores _____ phase

(1) diploid, haploid

(2) haploid, triploid
(3) diploid, triploid
(4) haploid, diploid

28)
A diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating formation of two cells from one cell is given above.
Identify the different phases (A,B,C&D) of cell cycle with their corresponding events :-
I - DNA replication.
II - First gap phase.
III - Protein synthesis.
IV - Actual phase of cell division.

I II III IV
(1) B A A,B,C D
(2) B A,C C D
(3) A,C B C D
(4) B A C D
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Statement-I : Centromere splits and chromatids separate in anaphase.

Statement-II : The final stage of meiotic prophase-I is diakinesis.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

30) Read the following statements:

(a) Interkinesis is generally short lived
(b) Metaphase chromosome is made up of one sister chromatid.

(1) Only (b) is correct

(2) Only (a) is incorrect
(3) (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(4) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect.

31) In yeast, cell cycle is completed in about-

(1) 24 hours
(2) 24 minutes
(3) 90 minutes
(4) 90 hours

32) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: The M-phase represents the phase when actual cell division occurs.
Statement B: Interphase represents the phase between two successive M-phases.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) Both the statements are correct

33) Most dramatic period of cell cycle is-

(1) Gap 1 only

(2) M-phase
(3) S-phase only
(4) Interphase

34) Prophase is marked by the initiation of-

(1) DNA synthesis

(2) Decondensation of chromosomal material
(3) Condensation of chromosomal material
(4) Centriole duplication

35) Which one is incorrect w.r.t. interkinesis?

(1) It is phase between two stages of a meiosis

(2) It is generally short lived
(3) It includes DNA replication along with duplication of other organelles
(4) Followed by prophase II

SECTION - B
1) Which of the following graph correctly represents DNA content (2C) and chromosome number
(2n) of a diploid cell undergoing different stages of cell cycle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) (A) Appearance of chiasmata.

(B) Appearance of tetrad.
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata.
(D) Dissolution of synaptonomal complex.
(E) Chromosomes get fully condensed.
(F) Meiotic spindle assembled.
How many of the above events occur during final stage of prophase-I?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

3) How many asters are present in an animal cell during prophase.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) During cell division when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which ___(A)___
conditon arises leading to the formation of ___(B)___

(1) A – Polyploidy ; B – Polytene chromosomes

(2) A – Multinucleated ; B – Syncytium
(3) A – Multinucleated ; B – Polyploidy
(4) A – Polytene chromosomes ; B – Syncytium

5) Read the following statements with respect to meiosis and select the correct option stating which
ones are true and which ones are false:
A. Meiosis increases genetic variability in the population which is essential for evolution
B. Synaptonemal complex develops between two synapsed homologous chromosomes
C. Each chromosome of a bivalent attaches with two spindles in metaphase I
D. At anaphase I , the centromere splits but sister chromatids do not separate

A B C D

(1) T T F F

(2) F T T F

(3) F F T T

(4) T F F T

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6)

What will be DNA amount in meiotic II products if DNA is 20 picogram in meiocyte at G2-stage?

(1) 5 pg
(2) 10 pg
(3) 20 pg
(4) 40 pg

7)

A cell divides every minute. At this rate of division it can fill a 100 ml of beaker in one hour. How
much time does it take to fill a 25 ml beaker?

(1) 15 minutes
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 58 minutes
(4) 29 minutes

8) Crossing over takes place between –

(1) Sister chromatids of Homologous chromosome

(2) Non Sister chromatids of Homologous chromosome
(3) Sister chromatids of Non Homologous chromosome
(4) Non Sister chromatids of Non Homologous chromosomes

9) Diakinesis of prophase-I of meiosis-I is marked by

(1) Chiasmata formation

(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(4) Crossing over

10) "Bouquet-stage" occur in which sub stages of prophase - I?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

11) The two asters together with spindle fibres form:-

(1) Mitotic apparatus

(2) Metaphase plate
(3) Astral rays
(4) Centrosome

12) Meiosis can take place in:-

(1) Prokaryotic cell

(2) Haploid cell
(3) Both haploid & diploid cell
(4) Diploid cell

13) In which phase of mitosis, cell does not have nucleolus?

(1) Interphase
(2) Telophase
(3) Late prophase
(4) All of these
14) Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of bivalent is called:-

(1) Terminalisation
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Interkinesis
(4) Synapsis

15) Alignment of bivalents on equatorial plate occurs during

(1) Metaphase of mitosis

(2) Metaphase II
(3) Prophase II
(4) Metaphase I

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Sycon exhibit which level of organisation?

(1) Organ level

(2) Organ system level
(3) Cellular level
(4) Tissue level

2) Which is the only Phylum possessing pseudocoelom?

(1) Ashchelminthes
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Cnidaria

3) Represented below is the condition of body cavity in animals. Which one of the following phylum
could be an example of this condition.

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Chordates

4) Bath sponge is also called as

(1) Euplectella
(2) Spongilla
(3) Euspongia
(4) Scypha

5) Through ostia the water enters into the _________.

(1) Coelenteron
(2) Hypostome
(3) Spongocoel
(4) Osculum

6) Water transport system in sponges will help in

(1) Food gathering

(2) Respiratory exchange
(3) Acts as Hydroskeleton
(4) Both (1) & (2)

7) Coral have skeleton which is made up of ________.

(1) Spicules
(2) Calcium Carbonate
(3) Calcium bicarbonate
(4) Spongin fibers

8) Metagenesis is exhibited by

(1) Planaria
(2) Sycon
(3) Obelia
(4) Ctenoplana

9) Brain coral is also called as

(1) Physalia
(2) Bombyx
(3) Meandrina
(4) Gorgonia
10) Cnidocytes have a stinging capsule/apparatus known as ________.

(1) Nephridia
(2) Nematophore
(3) Nematocyst
(4) Cnidocells

11) Refer the following statement and answer the question

‘Name of “X” is derived from stinging capsules. It exhibits metagenesis containing two body forms in
which sessile and cylindrical form is called “Z”and umbrella shaped and free swimming is called “Y”.
Identify X, Y, Z.

X Y Z

(1) Coelenterata Polyp Medusa

(2) Cnidaria Medusa Polyp

(3) Ctenophora Radula Hypostome

(4) Porifera Osculum Radula

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

12) Identify the figure with its correct name and phylum.

(1) Sycon-Porifera
(2) Aurelia-Coelenterata
(3) Ascaris-Ctenophora
(4) Taenia-Platyhelminthes

13) Which of the following is a living fossil?

(1) Balanoglossus
(2) Echinus
(3) Limulus
(4) Ancyclostoma

14) A file like rasping organ for feeding called radula present in the phylum

(1) Chordata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Arthropoda

15) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum mollusca?

(1) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals

Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot
(2)
and visceral hump
(3) The mouth contains a file like rasping organ for feeding called radula
(4) All of the above

16) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Platyhelminthes has incomplete digestive system

(2) In coelenterates the arrangement of cells is more complex
(3) Nereis is monoecious but earthworms and leeches are dioecious
Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals of those phylum whose over two-thirds of
(4)
all named species on earth are arthropods.

17) Which of the following group of animals belong to the same phylum.

(1) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm

(2) Prawn, scorpion, locusta
(3) Sponge, sea anemone, starfish
(4) Malarial parasite, amoeba, mosquito

18) Which of the following is a correct match of a phylum with its three examples?

(1) Platyhelminthes - planaria, schistosoma, enterobius

(2) Mollusca- loligo, sepia, octopus
(3) Porifera- spongilla, sycon, pennatula
(4) Cnidaria- physalia, aurelia,eupectella

19) Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statements?
(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented and coelomate animals
(ii) The body consists of head, thorax, abdomen and have jointed appendages
(iii) Circulatory system is of open type
(iv) Excretion takes place through malphigian tubules.

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Mollusca
(4) Echinodermata

20) Match the characteristic feature/terms given in column I with the phylum to which they belong
given in column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
(Characteristic feature/term) (Phylum)

(A) Choanocytes (I) Platyhelminthes

(B) Cnidoblasts (II) Ctenophora

(C) Flame cells (III) Porifera

(D) Nephridia (IV) Coelenterata

(E) Comb plates (V) Annelida

(1) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - V, E - III
(2) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - V, E - III
(3) A - V, B - I, C - III, D - II, E - IV
(4) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - V, E - II

21) Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option.

(1) A - Male Ascaris, B - Hirudinaria (leech), C - Nereis

(2) A - Female Ascaris, B - Nereis, C - Hirudinaria (leech)
(3) A - Female Ascaris, B - Hirudinaria (leech), C - Nereis
(4) A - Male Ascaris, B - Nereis, C - Hirudinaria (leech)

22) Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by the given figure?
(1) Diploblastic in nature
(2) Having radial symmetrical body
(3) Dioecious with direct development
(4) Presence of sensory tentacles on anterior head region

23) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata?
(i) They are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or free swimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(ii) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening called hypostome.
(iii) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(iv) Examples are sycon, spongilla and euspongia.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(4) All of these

24) In the given statements choose the correct option about ascaris

(1) External fertilisation

(2) The tail of male is straight
(3) Females are longer than males
(4) Females are thin than males

25) Silkworm is also called as

(1) Apis
(2) Culex
(3) Laccifer
(4) Bombyx

26) The sea urchin is also called as

(1) Cucumaria
(2) Asterias
(3) Echinus
(4) Ophiura

27) The cucumaria belongs to the phylum

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Hemichordata
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Mollusca

28) Assertion: The phylum porifera to Echinoderms are non- chordates.

Reason: During embryonic stage these animals don't have notochord.

If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

29) Assertion:Ctenophores exhibit Bioluminescence.

Reason: Ctenophores are exclusively marine.

(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

30) _______ is responsible for maintaining the current of water by using the flagella in sponge.

(1) Osculum
(2) Porocytes
(3) Spongocoel
(4) choanocytes

31) Aquatic annelids(like Nereis) possess lateral appendages called_ which help in swimming.

(1) Spicules
(2) Visceral hump
(3) Radula
(4) Parapodia

32) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(1) Prawns have gills for respiration

(2) Nematocysts are characteristic feature of the phylum cnidaria
(3) Butterfly have joined appendages
(4) Animals that belong to phylum porifera are exclusively marine

33) Which of the following is not a characteristic of phylum echinodermata?

(1) They have water vascular system
(2) They have endoskeleton
(3) They have notochord during the embryonic stage
(4) They have bilateral symmetry at larva stage

34) A student brought home a strange animal which he found outside under a rock. It had a moist
skin, a complete digestive system, a ventral nerve cord and had gone through torsion. Identify the
phylum of the animal.

(1) Porifera
(2) Annelida
(3) Mollusca
(4) Echinodermata

35) Which of the following statements(i-iv) are incorrect?

(i) Circulatory system in arthropods is of closed type
(ii) Parapodia in annelids helps in swimming
(iii) Phylum mollusca is the second largest animal phylum
(iv) Aschelminthes are dioecious.

(1) (i) only

(2) (iii) only
(3) (i) & (iii) only
(4) (iii) & (iv)

SECTION - B

1)

A list of animals is given below. Identify the animals with open circulatory system and choose the
correct answer.
(i) Neris (ii) Cockroach
(iii) Earthworm (iv) Prawn
(v) Silverfish (vi) Snail.

(1) iii, iv and vi

(2) i, ii, iv and vi
(3) ii, iv, v and vi
(4) iii, iv and v

2) Match the terms feature given in column I with their examples given in column II and select the
correct match from the option given below.

Column I Column II
(Term/Feature) (Examples)

(I)
(A) Gregarious pest
Hirudinaria
 (B) Vector (II) Planaria

(C) Oviparous with

(III) Sepia
indirect development

(D) Metameres (IV) Aedes

(E) High regeneration

(V) Locust
capacity
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV, E - V
(2) A - III, B - V, C - II, D - IV, E - I
(3) A - III, B - II, C - V, D - II, E - IV
(4) A - V, B - IV, C - III, D - I, E - II

3) Identify the figure with its correct name and phylum.

(1) Cucumaria - Echinodermata

(2) Ascidia - Urochordata
(3) Balanoglossus - Hemichordata
(4) Hirudinaria - Annelida

4) Which of the following feature is not correct regarding the figure given below?
(1) It is an aquatic form
(2) Circulatory system is of open type
(3) It possesses parapodia for swimming
Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a double ventral nerve
(4)
cord

5)

Consider following features:

(a) Organ system level of organisation.
(b) Bilateral symmetry.
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body.
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

6) A student was given a specimen to identify on basis of the characteristics given below
(i) They are metamerically segmented
(ii) They have closed circulatory system
(iii) They have circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion
Identify the specimen

(1) Prawn
(2) Pheretima
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Ctenoplana

7) Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one of the four options all the items A, B and C are
correctly identified?
 A B C

(1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla

(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon

(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia

(4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

8) Column I contains zoological names of animals and column II contains their common name. Match
the following and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(A) Physalia (I) Sea anemone

(B) Meandrina (II) Brain coral

(C) Gorgonia (III) Sea fan

(IV) Portuguese
(D) Adamsia
man-of-war
(1) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(3) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(4) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

9) Metamerism is found in

(1) Ancyclostoma
(2) Hirudinaria
(3) Sepia
(4) Sycon

10) The tusk shell is also called as

(1) Chaetopleura
(2) Dentalium
(3) Aplysia
(4) Ophiura

11) Assertion: Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates.

Reason: Body cavity in these organisms is not lined by mesoderm.

(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

12) Given below is the characteristics of Phylum Arthropoda. Pick the incorrect option.

(1) Jointed appendages

(2) Metamerism
(3) Parapodia
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton

13) In which of the following flat worms shows resembelence with round worm?

(1) Body plan

(2) Level of organisation
(3) Coelom
(4) Symmetry

14) Phylum annelida resembles mollusca in

(1) Level of organisation

(2) Metameric segmentation
(3) Presence of open type circulation
(4) Presence of calcareous shell

15) In which phylum all animals are exclusively marine

(1) Mollusca
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Both (2) and (3)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 1 4 4 3 1 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 4

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 4 1 2 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 1 4 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 4 3 4

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 2 3 3

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 1 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 (2) 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 2 4 4 4 3 3 1

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 3 2 1 2 (1) 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

From

2)

Volume of the cube = a3

Volume of the sphere

given

3)

Volume of a cone is 1/3 of volume of a cylinder. (For equal base area and height).
So 1 : 3.

4)
 5)

6)

7)

8)

9)

10)

When spheres are combined volumes are added upto to volume of a bigger sphere.

So

R = 3r.

11)
Sequence is the square of natural members
So x = 16, y = 25 and z = 100

12)

Each angle in rectangle is but not necessary for parallelogram.

13)

So,

14)

Formula:

15)

From binomial expansion

for x <<1

so

16)

v = at + u is in the form of y = mx + c
so it is a linear equation. it is a straight line.

17)

So A = 10

18)

=1
so 1 + 1 + 1 + ....... (20 times) = 20.
 19)

20)

from method

21)

22)

on comparision m = 4 and c =

23)

24)

For A: Slope

For B: Slope

25)
 26)

27)

28)

29)

For y to be minimum

For y to be maximum.

30)

Geometric progression
First term a = 1
common ratio

Sum = 2

31)

sum is

32)
 33)

34)

35)

y must be a constant, which is independent of 'x'.

36)

37)

38)
 39)

40)

41)

42)

more volume, more mass

Vsphere1 = v and mass 0.9 lb

Vsphere2
so mass of sphere 2 is

43)

Two triangles are similar so

x = 88
 44)

Area of the sector of

Area of the triangle

area of the shaded part

45)

Sum of the roots is

Product of the roots is

46)

47)

Sequence is in G.P
 48)

'C' is mid point of AB

49)

50)

CHEMISTRY

51) A = P + n
n=A-P
=A-Z
= 39 - 19 = 20.

52) Fact.

53) Fact.

54) Hydrogen atom has one electron and one proton.

55) Rays > X - Rays > Visible Rays > IR > Microwave.

56) Heisenberg is applicable for microscopic particles.

orbital angular momentum

No.of nodal surface

57) Total emission lines

58) for neutral atom

Atomic number = no.of electron.

59) particle is the nucleus of He

p=2 p=2
e=2 e=0
n=2 n=2

60) Fact.

61) n = 2 for He+

Z=2
 62)

63)

(for wave nature of particle)

64) Wavelength of light

frequency

65) PE = 2KE

KE =

66) Only for single electron species.

67) 3d

68) Conceptual.

69) Those orbital do not exist for which

70) Schrodinger wave mechanics does not involve spin quantum number.

71)

Subshell

s 0

p 1

d 2
 f 3
no.of radial nodes;
no.of angular nodes
Total number of nodes

Subshell

4p

3p

5d

6f

72) 4d > 5s
angular node for
angular node for
Radial node

73)
Z = 54, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p6
Number of electrons in d-orbital

74) Number of electrons in a particular sub-level

75)
for an orbit, the value of n is constant
mvr = constant

m = mass of electron.

77) Velocity

78)

... (i)
79)

80) The expression for wavelength is written as

The last line is a line of shortest wavelength or highest energy. When we get the last
line wavelength.

For Lyman series, and for Balmer series

Therefore,

81) and

83) Higher the value of more will be energy.

84)

The magnitude of spin angular momentum of an electron is given by

85) Fact.

86) Electron in a subshell are paired only when all the orbital of a subshell is half filled with
parallel spin.
87) Fact.

88)
1s22s22p63p64s13d5

Half filled more stable.

89) The possible value in a shell

In third orbit possible value are
But not 3(f)

90) from innert to outerside of an atom, the gap in between the orbitals will decreases
gradually.

for an atom, the energy is inversely proportional to the square of the principle quantum
number.

91) Fact.

92) Isobars = for different atom same mass number.

94) Lyman series

95) Fact.

96) The limiting line of Balmer series transition from to 2nd orbit

97) We have angular momentum of electron revolving in Bohr orbit is

circumference

But acceleration to de-Broglie

So, circumference

for n = 4,
 circumference =

98) De-broglie wavelength,

Assuming velocity to be same for all

mass of SO2 is largest among these

will have least de-Broglie wavelength.

100)

... (i)
y = 13.6

Separation energy of electron moving in 2nd orbit of He+

BOTANY

101) Ncert Page 126.

The oocytes of some vertebrates female get arrested for year or months in diplotene.

102)

Ncert page 127.

1 → Transition to metaphase.
2 → Mitotic metaphase.
3 → Metaphase-I.
4 → Anaphase-II.

103) Ncert Page 126.

20 bivalents = 40 chromosome(2n), in anaphase II each pole show (n) number of chromosome,
so its 20.
 104) NCERT Pg # 128

105)

NCERT Page 126 and 128.

106)

Ncert Page 127.

107) Ncert Page 124.

108) Ncert Page 128.

Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of an organisms from one
generation to the next. genetic variations are important force in evolution because it allow
natural selection to increase (or) decrease the frequency of alleles.

109) Ncert Page 126.

110)

Ncert Page 126.

111)

NCERT Pg # 127.

112)

NCERT page 122.

113) Ncert Page 121.

114)

NCERT XI Pg # 126.

115)

NCERT XI Pg # 126

116)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 124.

117)

NCERT - Pg. # 125.

118)
NCERT Page 127 and 128.

119)

Ncert page 123.

120)

NCERT XI Pg. # 121.

121) NEW NCERT XI Pg. # 121

122)

NCERT Pg. # 121 to 123.

123) NCERT XI pg no.126.

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 126.

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126 to 127.

126) Ncert Page 126.

127) Ncert Page 129 (Summary).

128) NCERT#XI Pg. No. 121.

129)

NCERT XI Pg # 123 and 126.

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123 and 127.

131)

Ncert page 163.

132)

Ncert page 163.

133)

Ncert page 164.

 134)

Ncert page 164.

136)

Ncert Page 121.

In S-phase DNA Content become double (2C to 4C) but chromosome number remains same (2n to
2n), chromosome number becomes double in anaphase of M-phase.

137)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 126.

138)

NCERT Page 122.

139)

NCERT XI Pg.#124

140)

Ncert Page 126 to 128.

(C) and (D) are false. The microtubules of the spindle fibres from opposite poles attach to the
centromere of the chromosome facing towards it. Univalent (dyad) chromosomes containing two
chromatids held together at the centromere separate and move towards opposite poles at the
anaphase I.

141) Ncert page 121 and 128.

142) Ncert page 125.

59 th min half ( 50 ml)
58 th min 1/4 th( 25 ml)

143)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126.

144)
NCERT PAGE NO. 126
The final stage of meiotic prophase-I is Diakinesis and is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.

145) Allen old module page 237.

146) Allen old module page 237.

147) Allen old module page 237.

148) Allen old module page 249.

149) Allen old module page 237.

150)

Ncert page 168.

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT Pg no.37

152)

NCERT Pg no.39

153)

NCERT pg no. 39

154)

NCERT Pg no.41

155)

NCERT Pg no.40

156)

NCERT Pg no.40

157)

NCERT Pg no.41

158)
NCERT Pg no.41

159)

NCERT Pg no.41

160)

NCERT Pg no.41

161)

NCERT Pg no.41

162)

NCERT Pg no.42

163)

NCERT Pg no.44

164)

NCERT Pg no.44

165) NCERT Pg no.44

166)

NCERT Pg no.43

167)

NCERT Pg no.44

168)

NCERT Pg no.45

169)

NCERT Pg no.44

172)

NCERT pg no-44.

173)

NCERT Pg no.52

174)
NCERT Pg no.43

175)

NCERT Pg no.44

176)

NCERT Pg no.45

177)

NCERT Pg no.45

179)

NCERT Pg no.42.

180)

NCERT Pg no.40

181)

NCERT Pg no.43

182)

NCERT Pg no.41

183)

NCERT Pg no.45

184)

NCERT Pg no.44

185)

NCERT Pg no.44

186) Allen module.

188)

Ncert pg no- 45.

189)

Ncert pg no- 43

190) Allen module.

 191)

NCERT Pg no.43

194)

NCERT Pg no.43

195)

NCERT Pg no.44

196)

NCERT Pg no.43

197)

NCERT Pg no.44

198)

Allen module pg no.41

199)

allen module pg no.45

200)

allen module pg no.44