CRI 180: NON-INSTI

1. The following are the total extinction of criminal liability means that the entire penalty is
extinguished, and there is no more criminal liability, EXCEPT;
a. By the death of the convict
b. By serving of the sentence
c. By conditional pardon
d. By prescription of crime
2. What is the exception provided in Section 12 of the Act regarding the release on recognizance
after final judgment or commencement of sentence?
a. The benefits provided under this act shall not be allowed in favor of an accused after the
judgment has become final
b. The benefits provided under this act shall be allowed in favor of an accused after the
judgment has become final
c. The benefits provided under this Act shall not be allowed in favor of an accused after the
accused has started serving the sentence
d. The benefits provided under this Act shall be allowed in favor of an accused after the accused
has started serving the sentence
3. It is also known as the “Recognizance Act of 2012”.
a. R.A. 10107
b. R.A. 10389
c. P.D. 968
d. E.O. 292
4. Who can grant a Special Time Allowance?
a. Trial court
b. Director of BUCOR
c. Chief of Police
d. Prosecutor
5. It is also known as the “Recognizance Act of 2012”.
a. R.A. 10107
b. R.A. 10389
c. P.D. 968
d. E.O. 292
6. It refers to a mode of securing the release of any person in custody or detention for the
commission of an offense who is unable to post bail due to abject poverty.
a. Recognizance
b. Benefits of clergy
c. Judicial Reprieve
d. Transportation
7. What is the duty of the courts in determining whether an accused should be deemed an indigent?
a. To use their discretion
b. To strictly adhere to the salary and property requirements
c. To consider only the accused’s capacity to support themselves
d. To deny indigent status to all accused individuals.
8. What is the primary purpose for the courts to use their discretion in determining indigent status?
a. To create instability and inconsistency
b. It ensures consistency in the application of the law

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 c. It encourages favoritism towards certain individuals
d. It creates confusion and uncertainty
9. What role does stability and uniformity play in the court’s determination of indigent status?
a. It is not relevant to the determination
b. It ensures consistency in the application of the law
c. It encourages favoritism towards certain individuals
d. It creates confusion and uncertainty.
10. One-fifth of the sentence for loyalty equivalent shall be deducted from the inmate’s sentence if,
after the inmate abandoned prison due to calamity and surrendered himself within 48 hours. What
kind of time allowance best describes the above cited issue?
a. STAL
b. GCTA
c. Commutation
d. TASTM
11. What branch of the CJS is charged with the responsibility for the supervision and rehabilitation of
convicted offenders?
a. Correction
b. Prosecution
c. Court
d. Community
12. An offender who is surrenders from escaping because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the
pronouncement of the passing away of the calamity shall be granted.
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. 1 /4 reduction of sentence
c. 1 /2 reduction of sentence
d. 2/5 reduction of sentence
13. How many hours are given to PDL to surrender himself to the authorities after escaping during
calamities?
a. 45 hours
b. 40 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 60 hours
14. Tanggol who surrenders from escaping because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the
pronouncement of the passing away of calamity. How much is the reduction of his sentence?
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. 1 /2 reduction of sentence
c. 2/ 5 reduction of sentence
d. 4/5 reduction of sentence
15. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has never been involved in any trouble, no matter
how minor. If you were the prion director, how many days for each month would you approve as
Maya’s good conduct time allowance?
a. 20 days
b. 23 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days

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16. Tanggol who opted to stay in the place of confinement during the declaration of calamity. How
much is the reduction of his sentence?
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. 1 /2 reduction of sentence
c. 2/ 5 reduction of sentence
d. 4/5 reduction of sentence
17. Kevin has been in prison for the past 12 months and always involved in rehabilitation programs.
If you were the prison director, how many days for each month would you approve as Kevin’s
good conduct time allowance?
a. 20 days
b. 23 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days
18. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal severity of the punishment through a
compromise with the church.
a. Pardon
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Reprieve
d. Benefits of clergy
19. During which period of imprisonment does a qualified prisoner receive the highest rate of
deduction per month of good behavior according to Section 2?
a. First two years
b. Third to fifth years
c. Sixth to tenth years
d. Eleventh and successive years
20. According to Section 2, what is the rationale behind the increasing rate of deduction for good
behavior over time/
a. To incentivize good behavior throughout the sentence
b. To punish recidivism more severely
c. To reduce overcrowding in prison
d. To comply with international standards for prisoner treatment.
21. In determining whether an offender may be placed on probation, the court shall consider all
information relative to which of the following:
a. Character
b. Antecedents and environment
c. Mental and physical conditions of the offender
d. All of these
22. What circumstance can disqualify an accused from availing of the benefits provided under
Section 7?
a. Making untruthful statements in the sworn affidavit
b. Being a first-time offender.
c. Escaping from legal confinement without justification
d. Committing a crime while on probation, parole, or conditional pardon
23. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:
a. Do away the miscarriage of justice
b. Break the rigidity of the law

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 c. Restore the political and civil rights
d. All of the above
24. Mr. Castro, Juliano and Pineda conspired to commit robbery, are they qualified to apply for
parole?
a. Yes, because the crime committed is robbery
b. No, because they are not yet convicted
c. Yes, because the crime of robbery is not on the disqualifications for parole
d. No, because they are group and amnesty should be granted instead of parole
25. The post-sentence investigation report of a probation officer shall be submitted to the court not
later than _______.
a. 15 days from the receipt
b. 30 days from the receipt of the order
c. 60 days from receipt of the order
d. 45 days from the receipt of the order
26. What is the act of grace from sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual
from punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the president
thru the recommendation of the Board of pardons and parole?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Parole
d. Commutation of Sentence
27. Under section 4 of P.D. 968 that no application shall be granted if the defendant has perfected an
___ from the judgment of conviction.
a. Trial
b. Appeal
c. Pre-trial
d. Any of these
28. Kumander Juan D. Makatwiran filed a petition for pardon. Which among these cases could be the
one wherein he is not qualified for pardon?
a. Murder
b. Rape
c. Impeachment
d. Brigandage
29. What is the frequency with which the appropriate official must ensure GCTAs are processed,
according to Section 4?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Annually
30. The parole and probation administration administer a ____ correctional program.
a. Community-based
b. Integrated
c. Institutional
d. Traditional
31. Mr. Castro was sentenced to a prison term of Prision Correctional. Is he qualified for Probation?
a. No. his sentence is 3 years

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 b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years
c. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years
d. Yes, his sentence is more than 6 years
32. The central goal of probation administration is to enhance the safety of the community by
reducing the incidence of criminal acts by persons__;
a. To a convicted
b. Previously convicted
c. Just been convicted
d. Not yet convicted
33. The trial court will approve the requested outside travel if it is for more than?
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 10 days
d. 15 days
34. The following are the qualifications for a prisoner to be qualified to apply for parole, EXCEPT:
a. The prisoner has already served the minimum penalty of his sentence
b. The maximum penalty of imprisonment exceeds one year
c. The maximum penalty does not exceed one year
d. The said release is conditional, defending on his good behavior
35. In case of violation of election laws, the parole may only be granted upon favorable
recommendation for the President. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
36. It is the authority of the president to suspend the execution of the penalty, reduce the sentence and
extinguish criminal liability.
a. Executive clemency
b. Pardon
c. Amnesty
d. Probation
37. Who is the shoemaker in Boston, USA where the first probation originated?
a. John Augustus
b. Edward Savage
c. Alexander Maconochie
d. Henry Savage
38. Rehabilitation of convicted offenders who are incarcerated inside jails are called
a. Parole
b. Institutional treatment
c. Probation
d. Probation community-based treatment
39. He is the superintendent of the penal colony at Norfolk Island I Australia and introduced the
Mark system.
a. Zebullon Brockway
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. Walter Crofton

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 d. Evelyn Brise
40. He is the director of the Irish Prison who introduced the Irish system which was a modification of
the Mark System.
a. Zebullon Brockway
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. Walter Crofton
d. Evelyn Brise
41. In the case of grant of pardon, the Director or Warden shall, on the date of release:
a. Read to the prisoner the conditions of the pardon in the language or dialect known to him or
her
b. Make known to the prisoner the consequences of violating such conditions
c. Require the prisoner to acknowledge acceptance of such conditions as a pre-requisite to
actual release
d. All of these
42. How often does the Probation Office submit a written report on the activities of the person
released on recognizance?
a. Quarterly
b.Annually
c. Monthly
d.Bi-annually
43. Under what circumstance should the court order the arrest of the accused?
a. If the accused fails to appear at the trial without justification
b.If the accused is the subject of a complaint for the commission of another offense involving
moral turpitude
c. If the accused is the subject of a complaint for a non-related offense
d.If the accused is found to be innocent
44. Who may file a petition for absolute pardon?
a. A prisoner whose maximum sentence is served or granted final release and discharge or court
termination of probation
b. A prisoner who has served at least one-half (1/2) of the maximum of the original indeterminate
and/or definite prison term
c. A prisoner who has served 15 years in prison
d. A prisoner who bas served his minimum sentence
45. Where to file application for probation?
a. Trial court
b.Judge
c. PPA
d.President
46. The probationer whose application for probation has been given due course by the proper court
has failed to present himself/herself to the proper office within seventy-two (72) hours from
his/her receipt of the Probation Order.
a. Absconding petitioner
b.Absconding probationer
c. Absconding parole
d.Absconding pardonee

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47. Who may authorize a probationer to travel outside his area of operational/territorial jurisdiction
for a period of more than ten (10) days but not exceeding thirty (30) days?
a. CPPO
b. Probation officer
c. Regional Director
d. Administrator
48. Provided that a probationer wants to travel outside his operational/territorial jurisdiction, when
will she file a Request for Outside Travel?
a. PPA form 7
b. 5 days before the intended travel
c. CPPO
d. Probation officer
49. The number of persons who can avail amnesty, EXCEPT:
a. Communist Rebel Group
b. Political Prisoners
c. Group Prisoners
d. Group of Juveniles
50. President Marcos appointed Mr. Cacal as a chairman of BPP who shall hold office of terms for a
term of ___.
a. 4 years, without prejudice to appointment
b. 6 years, with prejudice to appointment
c. 4 years, with prejudice to appointment
d. 6 years, without prejudice to appointment
51. Jardiel is serving his sentence for 11 years, according to the new law of Good Conduct Time
allowance, how many days per month will be deducted to Jardiel?
a. 20 days
b. 23 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days
52. Cariaga committed an offense of oral defamation and slander by deed as prescription of crime
shall be prescribed in.
a. 6 months
b. 2 months
c. 1 year
d. 5 years
53. A pardon does not exempt the offender from the payment of civil indemnity imposed upon him
by the sentence.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially False
54. It refers to reprieve, absolute pardon, conditional pardon with or without parole conditions and
commutation of sentence as may be granted by the President.
a. Probation
b. Parole
c. Executive Clemency

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 d. Amnesty
55. In the United States, pardon developed out of the conflict between the King and the Nobles who
threatened his powers. Pardon was applied to members of the Royal family who committed
crimes, and occasionally to those convicted of offenses against the royal power.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false
56. Who is responsible for appointing a Parole and Probation Officer to the MSEC, as mentioned in
Section 3?
a. The President of the Philippines
b. The Director of the BUCOR
c. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
d. The Secretary of the Department of Justice
57. Cacal during imprisonment, he shall be allowed an additional deduction of how many days for
each month if he study, teaching or mentoring service time rendered.
a. The accused’s popularity in the community
b. The accused’s political affiliations
c. The accused’s capacity to support dependents
d. The accused’s social media presence
58. Board of Pardons and Parole is composed of how many members?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 6
d. 8
59. What is required of the custodian before the court in relation to the appearance of the accused?
a. To pay fines
b. To execute an undertaking to produce the accused whenever required
c. To submit a written apology
d. To provide a financial guarantee
60. What is the penalty for a custodian who fails to deliver or produce the accused before the court,
upon due notice, without justifiable reason?
a. 1 year imprisonment
b. 6 months imprisonment
c. 3 years imprisonment
d. 2 years imprisonment
61. What is the role of the probation officer in monitoring a person released on recognizance?
a. The have no role in monitoring the person’s activities
b. They are responsible for monitoring and evaluating the activities of the person
c. They only submit a report if the person violates the conditions of release
d. They are only responsible for providing recommendations to the court
62. How often does the Probation Office submit a written report on the activities of the person
released on recognizance?
a. Quarterly
b. Annually
c. Monthly

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 d. Bi-annually
63. Jimuel is serving her sentence for 32 months and has never been involved in any violation in rules
and regulation on institutional correction. How many days is he entitled to the deduction of his
sentence?
a. 20 days
b. 23 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days
64. The legal responsibility of paying money for damage to another person’s health, business, or
property.
a. Criminal Liability
b. Administrative liability
c. Civil liability
d. Civil cases
65. Is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse a certain
time.
a. Prescription of crime
b. Prescription of penalties
c. Total extinction
d. Partial extinction
66. Yerro committed Light offenses, the prescription of crime shall prescribe in.
a. 6 months
b. 2 months
c. 1 year
d. 5 years
67. What disqualifies an accused from availing of the benefits provided under Section 7?
a. Being a recidivist or quasi-recidivist
b. Making untruthful statements in the sworn affidavits
c. Committing a crime aggravated by the circumstance of reiteration
d. Violating the conditions of bail or release on recognizance without valid justification
68. Is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a
certain time.
a. Prescription of crime
b. Prescription of penalties
c. Total extinction
d. Partial extinction
69. Which factor may the courts consider in determining whether an accused should be deemed an
indigent?
a. The accused’s popularity in the community
b. The accused’s political affiliations
c. The accused’s capacity to support dependents
d. The accused’s social media presence
70. Serve at least ___ for prisoners sentenced to Reclusion Perpetua or Life Imprisonment for crimes
or offenses committed before January 1, 1994 is one of the minimum requirements before
commutation of sentence is granted.
a. 10 days

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 b. 20 days
c. 10 years
d. 20 years
71. Refers to the exemption of an individual, within certain limits or conditions from the punishment,
which the law inflicts for the offense he committed resulting in the partial extinction of his
criminal liability.
a. Executive Clemency
b. Absolute Pardon
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Reprieve
72. Who is the appointing authority for the member of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
a. PPA
b. Chief executive
c. Secretary
d. Administrator
73. Which of the following is NOT considered a purpose of commutation of sentence?
a. To break the rigidity
b. To extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply
c. To prevent the commission of offense
d. To save the life of a person sentenced to death
74. A temporary stay of the execution of a sentence.
a. Parole
b. Pardon
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Reprieve
75. A probationer who has not reported for initial supervision within the prescribed period and/or
whose whereabouts could not be found, located or determined despite best diligent efforts within
a reasonable period of time.
a. Absconding applicant
b. Absconding probationer
c. Absconding parolee
d. Absconding pardonee
76. What law amends the Good Conduct Time Allowance?
a. RA 10591
b. RA 10592
c. RA 6975
d. RA 8551
77. As to the time to avail of amnesty may be given when;
a. After conviction
b. Before, during and after conviction
c. Before and after conviction
d. Before conviction
78. The one granted in direct terms such as Presidential proclamation or a law enacted by the
legislature granting amnesty.
a. Limited amnesty
b. Conditional amnesty

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 c. Express Amnesty
d. General Amnesty
79. Prescription of crimes punishable by death, reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall be
prescribed in.
a. 10 years
b. 15 years
c. 20 years
d. 5 years
80. The grant of amnesty is subject to the fulfillment of certain requisites, such as the filling of an
application, the laying down of arms, and the taking of an oath of allegiance.
a. Limited Amnesty
b. Conditional Amnesty
c. Express Amnesty
d. General Amnesty
81. Amnesty is a general pardon extended to individual persons generally exercised by the Chief
Executive with the concurrence of congress.
a. Parole
b. Pardon
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Reprieve
82. Refers to the reimbursement to the victim made by the offender, most with money through
occasionally with services.
a. Civil Liability
b. Fine
c. Penalty
d. Restitution
83. Who has the authority to grant executive clemencies?
a. President with the congress
b. Judge
c. President
d. BPP
84. After the expiration of the maximum sentence of a client, the Board shall, upon the
recommendation of the Chief Probation and Parole Officer that the client has substantially
complied with all the conditions of his parole/pardon, will issue a?
a. Release document
b. Probation order
c. Certificate of release
d. Certificate of final release and discharge
85. What agency recommends to the President the grant of pardon?
a. Chief Parole and Probation Officer
b. Parole and Probation Officer
c. Board of Pardon and Parole
d. Secretary of Justice
86. What report should be provided by a parole officer if the client carries out an offense while under
direction and the case filed against him is not yet definite by the court?
a. Status report

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 b. Violation Report
c. Infraction report
d. Progress report
87. What agency of the government that has authority?
a. PPA
b. DOJ
c. BPP
d. DILG
88. After release of a prisoner that was given parole, within how many days should he report to the
probation and parole officer assigned to him?
a. 45 days
b. 30 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
89. Before the grant of conditional pardon, an inmate should have served at least one half (1/2) of the
maximum original indeterminate and/or definite prison term in cases where the crime committed
is heinous crime. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
90. A parolee may not transfer from the place of residence designated in his Release Document
without the prior written approval of either the Regional Director or the Administrator subject to
the confirmation of the Board. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
91. Amnesty may only be granted after conviction. It is granted by the Chief Executive.
a. The former statement is true, the latter statement is false
b. Both statements are true
c. The former statement is false, the latter statement is true
d. Both statements are false
92. The power to grant executive clemency is vested by the court who has jurisdiction over the case.
It can only be granted with the concurrence of the congress.
a. The maximum penalty of imprisonment of the defendant is more than six years
b. The maximum penalty of imprisonment of the defendant is not more than six years
c. The defendant was previously convicted of a crime before and the penalty of imprisonment
exceeds one month
d. The defendant has been given probation before
93. Darius is a probationer and he wants to request for outside travel, he wants to have a vacation for
2 weeks outside his area of jurisdiction. Who has the authority to approve the request to travel
outside of Mr. Balmond?
a. The probation officer who supervised Darius
b. Any probation officer
c. The Chief Probation and Parole officer

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 d. The Regional Director
94. The period of time given to a probation officer to conduct Post-sentence Investigation?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
95. Who among the following officials has the authority to grant allowances for good conduct?
a. Mayor of a city
b. Prosecutor
c. Chief of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
d. Secretary of the Department of Justice
96. Cindy was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of imprisonment for 2 years. While
serving his sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison and several inmates
escaped. Cindy returned the following day, how many years would be deducted from his
sentence?
a. 4 years
b. 8 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years
97. GCTA is a kind of ____ that can only be denied if the prisoner breaks the rules and only after due
process is observed.
a. Right
b. Privileges
c. Discretion
d. Liberty

1. Which pillars of the Criminal Justice System that is always called the prime mover force?
a. Community

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 b. Law Enforcement
c. Prosecution
d. Correction
2. This is a non-institutional correction program, a disadvantage that significantly relies heavily on
the competence and training of staff, proper program design and implementation, and ongoing evaluation
and monitoring.
a. Limited control and supervision
b. Lack of resources and support
c. Inconsistent program quality
d. Limited capacity and suitability
3. Which historical period saw the emergence and widespread use of the "benefit of clergy" as a
legal concept?
a. The Middle Ages
b. The Renaissance
c. The Enlightenment
d. The Industrial Revolution
4. During the time of King Henry VIII, how many crimes were punishable by death?
a. 50 crimes
b. 100 crimes
c. 150 crimes
d. 200 crimes
5. When can a trial court suspend the execution of a sentence and place a defendant on probation?
a. After the defendant is convicted and sentenced
b. Before the defendant is convicted
c. Only after an appeal has been filed
d. Whenever the court deems it necessary
6. Who can provide recognizance for a defendant if they are incapable of posting bail?
a. The defendant themselves
b. A family member
c. A responsible member of the community
d. The probation officer
7. It is well - settled that probation is a matter of …
a. Compassion
b. Freedom
c. Privilege
d. Right
8. What is the alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person serves a part of his
sentence and is allowed to complete a sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision?
a. Probation
b. Pardon
c. Parole
d. Absolute Pardon
9. What is the alternative to incarceration that allows convicted persons to remain at large and
under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the granting
court?
a. Probation
b. Work release
c. Parole
d. Pardon
10. What pillar is called and tagged as the weakest of five pillars?
a. Law Enforcement

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 b. Correction
c. Court
d. Community
11. It is the disadvantages in non-institutional settings where there is still a stigma owing to incorrect
views of leniency and whether it is safe for the community. What is the most appropriate term given the
situation described above?
a. Public safety concerns
b. Inconsistent program quality
c. Public perception and resistance
d. Limited control and supervision
12. A location where convicts are reintegrated into the community through non-institutional
correction methods. The program in question includes a technique for determining the risk level of
participants. This is one of the negative aspects of non-institutional education.
a. Public safety concerns
b. Public perception and resistance
c. Limited control and supervision
d. Inconsistent program quality
13. How did the transportation system evolve over time?
a. It shifted from exile to lifelong imprisonment.
b. It transformed into a strategy for providing cheap labor to colonies.
c. It became a method for immediate execution of offenders.
d. It turned into a system of fines for criminal acts.
14. Why were offenders given the option of transportation?
a. To increase the population of colonies
b. As a replacement for harsh penalties in England
c. To encourage lifelong exile
d. To meet labor demands in the home country
15. According to the enactment of P.D. 968, what is one of the purposes of probation?
a. Increase the population of prisons
b. Promote correction and rehabilitation of offenders
c. Impose excessive costs on the society
d. Encourage high rates of recidivism
16. The United States of America has three pillars and is considered as the standard of many nations.
In our country, what pillar is considered as the informal pillar?
a. Court
b. Correction
c. Community
d. Prosecution
17. One of the advantages of non-institutional correction, is that it is a program that has flexibility to
tailor interventions and services to meet the specific needs of each offender?
a. Cost-effectiveness
b. Rehabilitation focused
c. Community involvement
d. Individualized approach
18. Sanillian, a child in conflict with the law, is put in a non-institutional community program, which
provided him with benefits that led people to believe he was just a normal person with no criminal record.
What benefits are being highlighted?
a. Community Involvement
b. Individualized Approach
c. Reduced Social Stigma
d. Capacity Management

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19. What is the first step in the process of applying for probation?
a. Serving the prison sentence
b. Filing an application within 15 days after conviction
c. Hiring an attorney
d. Requesting a probation officer
20. Since the women's correctional facility is overcrowded, Maggie is 18 years old, and 1 day is
penalized by arresto menor by the court. The resources are scarce and in need of space. She is put under
the jurisdiction of a non-institutional correctional facility. What advantages are described above?
a. Reduced social stigma
b. Capacity management
c. Cost-effectiveness
d. Rehabilitation focused
21. It is the conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a
correctional facility
a. Amnesty
b. Pardon
c. Probation
d. Parole
22. This process of bringing the five components of the criminal justice system together—the
police, prosecutors, courts, penal facilities, and the community—in order to create a scheme of reciprocal
responsibility within the context of community development. What is discussed above?
a. Correction
b. Court
c. CJS
d. Community
23. It is a non-institutional program outside traditional institutions, often emphasizing community
reintegration. Instead of focusing solely on punitive measures, these entities aim to educate, tackle the
root causes of criminal behavior, and provide the necessary tools and support for successful reintegration
into society.
a. Community Involvement
b. Individualized Approach
c. Reduced social stigma
d. Rehabilitation focused
24. What is the attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative
to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community-based treatment
programs?
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government
d. Parole and Probation Administration
25. This is the pillar where the criminal emerges and creates a circumstance where a victim is, and
after penalization he is reintegrated to be part of this place.
a. Law Enforcement
b. Court
c. Correction
d. Community
26. How did the "benefit of clergy" contribute to reducing the harshness of punishment?
a. By introducing rehabilitation programs
b. By promoting community service for offenders
c. By providing alternative forms of punishment for clergy
d. By exempting certain individuals from severe penalties

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27. What does the term "binding over for good behavior" imply in the context of recognizance?
a. A promise to perform community service
b. A commitment to financial restitution
c. A pledge to abstain from misconduct
d. A requirement to attend rehabilitation programs
28. Who is responsible for recommending a Request for Outside Travel for more than 30 days
outside the operational/territorial jurisdiction of the Probation Office?
a. The court
b. The Board of Pardons and Parole
c. The Supervising Probation Officer
d. The Chief Probation and Parole Officer
29. Which of the following has the authority to decide the terms and conditions of probation for a
defendant?
a. The defendant's attorney of the petitioner
b. The appellate court where the case is appealed
c. The trial court who tried the case
d. The probation officer
30. In which state did the first completely state-administered probation system emerge?
a. New York
b. Rhode Island
c. New Jersey
d. California
31. Who has the authority to grant judicial clemency?
a. President with the Congress
b. Judge
c. President
d. BPP
32. Mignon is a fellow who is arrested and detained by the law enforcer in the case of robbery. What
pillar is the next place to go in evaluating the cases filed by the People of the Philippines?
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Court
d. Community
33. In relation to question number22. Following the review of Mignon's case, this pillar will decide
what will happen next in the case and sentence him accordingly.
a. Court
b. Correction
c. Community
d. Prosecution
34. How many times can an individual be on probation under the provisions PD 10707?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Three times
d. No limit `
35. Dispo, a native of Brgy. Mistulang-Tinadhana, a highly urbanized city. A society in which basic
needs are met by offering resources such as counseling services, educational programs, and vocational
training; these programs provide offenders a stronger sense of community connection and support.
a. Capacity management
b. Rehabilitation-focused
c. Cost-effectiveness
d. Community Involvement

17
36. Can probation be granted if the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or a fine only?
a. No, probation can only be granted for non-imprisonment sentences.
b. Yes, probation can be granted for both imprisonment and fine sentences.
c. Yes, but only for imprisonment sentences.
d. No, probation can only be granted for non-fine sentences.
37. According to the benefits of probation, how does it protect society?
a. By imposing harsh penalties on all offenders
b. By placing non-dangerous offenders under close supervision
c. By promoting overcrowding in jails
d. By excluding first-time offenders from probation
38. Can an order granting or denying probation be appealed?
a. Yes, it is appealable to the appellate court.
b. No, it is not appealable.
c. Yes, but only to the Supreme Court.
d. No, but there is an exemption to some instances.
39. What action does the trial court take upon receiving an application for probation?
a. Rejects the application
b. Approves the application without further review
c. Suspends the execution of the sentence in the judgment
d. Files the application for later consideration
40. What is the purpose of the Post-Sentence Investigation Report (PSIR)?
a. To determine the offender's guilt or innocence
b. To decide the length of the sentence
c. To recommend whether the offender should be granted probation
d. To assign a probation officer to the case
41. What do you call to the continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer?
a. Affiliation Guidance
b. Pre-sentenced Investigation
c. Supervision
d. Probation Guidance
48, What is the maximum probation period for a probationer who was sentenced to imprisonment of more
than 1 year?
a. Not more than 2 years
b. Not more than 6 years
c. Not more than 1 year
d. Not more than 3 years
42. Who among the following was given the title “Father of Prison Reform” in the United States?
a. Zebulon Brockway
b. Robert Peel
c. John Howard
d. Alexander Maconochie
43. How many days in advance should a probationer file a Request for Outside Travel with the
Probation Office for travel of up to 30 days?
a. At least 30 days before the travel
b. At least 10 days before the travel
c. At least 5 days before the travel
d. It can be filed on the day of travel
44. What specific criteria were often used to determine eligibility for the "benefit of clergy"?
a. Educational achievements
b. Social status
c. Religious affiliation

18
 d. Martial prowess
45. What is this designated pillar of the criminal justice system where individuals, having been
detained and convicted, await final judgment while striving for rehabilitation and serving the remaining
days of their sentence as sanctioned by the court?
a. Correction
b. Community
c. Law Enforcement
d. Prosecution
46. What title is attributed to John Augustus for his pioneering efforts in advocating for more lenient
sentences for convicted criminals?
a. Father of Incarceration
b. Pioneer of Capital Punishment
c. Father of Probation
d. Advocate of Exile
47. Among the following, who is eligible to apply for probation?
a. Pedro who is not yet convicted
b. Juan whose sentence does not exceed 6 years
c. Tomas who was once granted a probation before
d. Judas whose sentence does exceed 6 years
48. What was the initial purpose of the preventive justice system described, involving a court-ordered
responsibility or pledge?
a. To expedite criminal trials
b. To enforce financial penalties
c. To ensure the peace and good behavior of an individual
d. To provide rehabilitation programs for offenders
49. What is the blueprint of parole by Alexander Maconochie?
a. Elmira system
b. Mark system
c. Irish System
d. Release System
50. What is the unprecedented achievement of martial law which transported the Philippine
corrections toward the modern system of convict rehabilitation?
a. Parole Law
b. Probation Law
c. Indeterminate sentence law
d. Probation law

1. What is the etymological origin of the word "probation"?

a. Greek word probare meaning punishment
b. Latin word probare meaning to prove or to test
c. French word probare meaning crime
d. German word probare meaning justice
2. What is one of the purposes of the enactment of P.D. 968?
a. To increase prison sentences for offenders
b. To promote the correction and rehabilitation of offenders through individualized treatment
c. To abolish probation as a form of punishment
d. To prioritize punishment over reformation
3. How does probation contribute to protecting society?
a. By increasing the cost of detention
b. By promoting recidivism among detained offenders
c. By preventing the excessive cost of detention

19
d. By encouraging the clogging of courts
4. In what way does probation protect the family?
a. By promoting restitution
b. By preserving justice
c. By maintaining the unity of the home
d. By depriving the wife and children of the husband and father
5. How does probation assist the Government?
a. By increasing the population of prisons and jails
b. By intensifying the clogging of courts
c. By lessening the load of prosecutors
d. By undermining law enforcement efforts
6. What is one way in which probation helps the offender?
a. By decreasing earning power
b. By isolating the individual from the community
c. By restoring dignity
d. By increasing the severity of punishment
7. What is one of the benefits of applying the provisions of P.D. 968?
a. Increasing crime rates by offering freedom to offenders
b. Preventing crime by aiding offenders in treatment and rehabilitation in the community
c. Ignoring modern humanistic trends in penology
d. Placing dangerous offenders under close supervision in the community
8. How does P.D. 968 contribute to preventing youthful or first-time offenders from turning into hardened
criminals?
a. By increasing punitive measures
b. By promoting overcrowding in jails
c. By providing a second chance through rehabilitation
d. By isolating offenders from the community
9. What financial benefit does P.D. 968 offer?
a. Increasing expenses in maintaining jails
b. Cutting enormous expenses in maintaining jails
c. Encouraging tax burdens on offenders
d. Advocating for the construction of more jails
10. Giving a chance for a penitent offender's repentance, which could be less likely if he were to serve a
jail sentence is one purpose of probation. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false
11. Probation is a matter of _______________ but a matter of ______________ if granted.
a. privilege, right
b. right, privilege
c. privilege, privilege
d. right, right
12. Which of the following appears to have been the first method of reducing the harshness of
punishment?
a. Benefit of Clergy
b. Judicial Reprieve
c. Recognizance
d. Transportation
13. What was the purpose of judicial reprieves in Early English law?
a. To increase the severity of the law

20
b. To withhold punishment temporarily and reduce its severity
c. To encourage new trials and appeals to other courts
d. To deport prisoners without any conditions
14. It is sometimes known as "binding over for good behavior”?
a. Benefit of Clergy
b. Judicial Reprieve
c. Recognizance
d. Transportation
15. Who is considered as the first probation officer?
a. John Augustus
b. Edward Savage
c. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. Teodulo Natividad
16. Who is considered as the father of probation in the US?
a. John Augustus
b. Edward Savage
c. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. Teodulo Natividad
17. What is the second state to enact an adult probation system in the US?
a. Massachusetts
b. Vermont Island
c. Rhode Island
d. New Jersey
18. What law renamed the Probation Administration to Parole and Probation Administration?
a. Act No. 4221
b. PD 968
c. EO 292
d. PD 603
19. What is the first probation law in the Philippines?
a. Act No. 4221
b. PD 968
c. EO 292
d. PD 603
20. Who is the father of probation in England?
a. John Augustus
b. Edward Savage
c. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. Teodulo Natividad
21. What law created the Probation Office under the Department of Justice?
a. Act No. 4221
b. PD 968
c. EO 292
d. PD 603
22. What is the integrated machinery involved with the arrest, prosecution, punishment, and
reforming/rehabilitation of criminals?
a. Non-Institutional Correction
b. Criminal Justice System
c. Correction
d. Community
23. Mr. A is a convicted offender and has already served his minimum sentence. Is he qualified to apply
for probation?

21
a. Yes
b. No
c. Either
d. Neither
24. Who is the authority granting parole?
a. Court
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Probation and Parole Administration
d. Congress
25. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Community-based Treatment Program?
a. Parole
b. Probation
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Incarceration
26. Among the 5 Pillars of CJS, this pillar has authority to try, hear, and determine cases brought before
it.
a. Law enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Court
d. Correction
27. In 1880, which state was the first to establish a probation system?
a. Massachusetts
b. Vermont Island
c. Rhode Island
d. New Jersey
28. Which of the following predecessors of probation suspended the imposition of punishment in order to
reduce the severity of punishment?
a. Benefit of Clergy
b. Judicial Reprieve
c. Recognizance
d. Transportation
29. What do you call the person that is placed on probation?
a. Probationer
b. Petitioner
c. Parolee
d. Pardonee
30. A convicted offender with probationable penalty is allowed to file an application for probation. This
statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
31. One of the objectives of community-based correction programs is to penalize the perpetrator and
make him accountable. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
32. How many days is given to a qualified convicted offender to apply for probation?
a. 3 days
b. 15 days

22
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
33. What pillar of CJS is considered as the initiator?
a. Law enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Court
d. Correction
34. What is the designation of a person placed on pardon?
a. Probationer
b. Petitioner
c. Parolee
d. Pardonee
35. An executive clemency granted by the president.
a. Probation
b. Parole
c. Pardon
d. Recognizance
36. The temporary stay or suspension of sentence.
a. Reprieve
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Parole
d. Pardon
37. An act of the president reducing the penalty of a convict.
a. commutation of sentence
b. Reprieve
c. Pardon
d. Parole
38. A kind of pardon where there are no conditions attached.
a. Conditional pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Absolute pardon
39. Pardon is exercised?
a. Before trial
b. After conviction
c. During trial
d. After the commission of a crime
40. Who is the authority granting probation?
a. President
b. Trial Court
c. Appellate court
d. Congress
41. Edward Savage was a Boston police captain who became?
a. The first probation officer
b. The first paid probation officer
c. The father of probation in United States
d. The World’s father of probation
42. The fourth state of the United States to enact a probation law?
a. Vermont
b. New York
c. New Jersey

23
d. Minnesota and Illinois
43. The ground for declaring Act 4221 unconstitutional?
a. It denies the equal protection of the law
b. It provides opportunity to convicted offenders to be reformed
c. It grants convicted offenders to serve their sentence in the community
d. It is not considered effective in reforming a convicted offender
44. Presidential Decree 968 is also known as?
a. Adult Probation law of 1976
b. Juvenile Probation law of 1974
c. Adult Probation law of 1967
d. Adult Probation law of 1986
45. The following are forerunners of probation, EXCEPT;
a. Benefits of clergy
b. Transportation
c. Deportation
d. Recognizance
46. Considered as the direct ancestor of probation?
a. Reprieve
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Recognizance
d. England
47. The one intended to supply new colonies with cheap labors?
a. Recognizance
b. Transportation
c. Reprieve
d. Benefits of clergy
48. The one literally means to prove or to test?
a. Probatio
b. Probare
c. Motu Proprio
d. Reprieve
49. The disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court and to supervision of a probation officer.
a. Probation
b. Parole
c. Conditional pardon
d. Amnesty
50. The pillar of CJS that reforms and rehabilitates criminal offenders?
a. Law enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Court
d. Correction
51. All EXCEPT one are the purposes of Probation:
a. Prevent the commission of offenses
b. Provide opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender which might be less probable if he were
to serve a prison sentence.
c. Determination by the court as to whether or not probation would serve the ends of justice and the best
interest of the public and the applicant.
d. Promote the corrections and rehabilitations of an offender by providing him with individualized
treatment.
52. When should an application for probation be filed?

24
a. Any time before the offender starts serving his sentence but within fifteen (15) days from the
promulgation or notice of the judgment of conviction.
b. Any time after the offender starts serving his sentence but within fifteen (15) days from the
promulgation or notice of the judgment of conviction.
c. Any time before the offender starts serving his sentence fifteen (15) days from the promulgation or
notice of the judgment of conviction.
d. Any time before and after the offender starts serving his sentence but within fifteen (15) days from the
promulgation or notice of the judgment of conviction.
53. Where shall an application for probation be filed?
a. with the court that tried and sentenced the offender.
b. with the court that have no jurisdiction over his/her case.
c. with the court that did not tried and sentenced the offender.
d. within the court wherein the case is pending.
54. All EXCEPT one are CANNOT be granted for probation:
a. Those sentenced to serve a prison term of more than six (6) years;
b. Those convicted of any crime against the national security or the public order;
c. Those previously convicted by imprisonment of not less than one (1) month and one (1) day and/or a
fine not less than two hundred pesos (Php 200.00);
d. Those who have not been once been placed on probation under the law.
55. When an application for probation is denied___.
a. The offender will sent by the sentencing court to prison to serve his sentence.
b. The offender will not sent by the sentencing court to prison to serve his sentence.
c. The offender will appeal in court.
d. The offender will apply for bail.
56. May an offender be released from confinement while his application for probation is pending?
a. Yes, the applicant may be released.
b. Yes, the applicant may be released under the bail he filed in the criminal case, or under recognizance.
c. Yes, the applicant may not be released under the bail he filed in the criminal case, or under
recognizance.

d. Yes, the applicant will send by the sentencing court to prison to serve his sentence.
57. How many times can one can be granted for probation?
a. Twice
b. Once
c. Thrice
d. Four times
58. All EXCEPT one are conditions imposed by the court on an offender who is released on probation:
a. To report to his probation officer at least twice a month.
b. To report to the probation officer within seventy-two (72) hours after he receives the order of the court
granting probation;
c. Not to commit any other offense while on probation;
d. Comply with any other lawful conditions imposed by the court.
59. All EXCEPT one are the other ways of terminating probation:
a. Termination before expiration of the period
b. Termination by the Pardon of the probationer
c. To the custody of responsible member of the community.
d. Death of the probationer.
60. Who has the power to grant, deny or modify revoke and terminate probation?
a. President
b. Warden
c. Judge

25
d. Probation Officer

1. When to avail Amnesty?

a. Before the trial of the case, even before conviction
b. During and after the trial of the case, even after conviction
c. Before, during and after the trial of the case, even after conviction
d. During and after the trial of the case, even after conviction
2. Who can avail Amnesty?
a. Group of prisoners, generally political prisoners
b. individual prisoner, generally political prisoner
c. Group of prisoners, generally not political prisoners
d. Individual prisoner, generally not political prisoner
3. It refers to an act of grace given with the concurrence of congress. It is usually extended to group
of person who committed political offense.
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Amnesty
d. Reprieve
4. It refers to an act of sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense, and is
rarely, if ever, exercised in favor of a single individual, and is usually exercised in behalf of a
certain class of persons, who are subject to trial but have not yet been convicted?
a. Amnesty
b. Parole
c. Pardon
d. Probation
5. It refers to a general pardon extended to a group of persons generally exercised by the Chief
Executive with the concurrence of congress.
a. Absolute Pardon
b. Parole
c. Amnesty
d. Conditional Pardon
6. What crime is covered by Amnesty?
a. Crimes against chastity
b. Crimes against person
c. Crimes against national security
d. Crimes against sovereignty of the state
7. All EXCEPT one when Amnesty is hereby granted to members of the RPMP-RPA-ABB who
have committed crimes in pursuit of their political beliefs, whether punishable under the Revised
Penal Code or special penal laws, including but not limited to the following:
a. Conspiracy to commit treason
b. Rebellion or insurrection
c. Conspiracy to vomit sedition
d. Direct assault
8. Does Amnesty require the approval of the congress?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe

26
 d. Sometimes
9. Amnesty is derived from Greek word ____.
a. amnestia
b. amnasthia
c. amnesthia
d. amnastia
10. All EXCEPT one, are the kinds of Amnesty:
a. Implied Amnesty
b. General Amnesty
c. Selected Amnesty
d. Individual Amnesty
11. It refers to a kind of Amnesty that is one granted in direct terms such as Presidential proclamation
or law enacted by the legislature granting amnesty.
a. Implied Amnesty
b. Express Amnesty
c. Individual Amnesty
d. General Amnesty
12. It refers to a kind of amnesty when the grant of amnesty is subject to fulfillment of certain
requisites, such as the filling of an application, the laying down of arms, and the taking of an oath
of allegiance.
a. General Amnesty
b. Conditional Amnesty
c. Unconditional Amnesty
d. Implied Amnesty
13. It refers to a kind of amnesty that expressed in broad terms and does not lay down specific
requirements and procedures.
a. General Amnesty
b. Conditional Amnesty
c. Unconditional Amnesty
d. Selected Amnesty
14. It is also known as the Probation Law of 1976.
a. P.D. 986
b. P.D.978
c. P.D.968
d. P.D. 976
15. It is also known as the Administrative Code of 1987 and the Probation Administration was
renamed to Parole and Probation Administration.
a. E.O. 292
b. R.A. 9165
c. R.A. 10389
d. E.O. 468
16. It is also known as the Revitalization of Volunteer Probation Aide Program.
a. E.O. 292
b. E.O. 468
c. R.A. 10707
d. R.A. 10389
17. An act amending Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended on November 26, 2015.

27
 a. R.A. 10389
b. R.A. 9165
c. R.A. 10707
d. R.A.6975
18. In Memorandum of Agreement between DDB and PPA, the PPA was given ___.
a. the task to supervise a person who is placed on probation or community service under
voluntary service program.
b. the responsibility of monitoring and evaluating the activities of the person released on
recognizance.
c. the duty of investigating and supervising first-time minor drug offenders placed under
suspended sentence.
d. Added function of supervising prisoners who, after serving part of their sentence in jail are
released on parole or granted pardon with parole conditions.
19. The following are the functions of PPA, EXCEPT:
a. To promoted the correction and rehabilitation of criminal offenders
b. To promote the reformation of criminal offenders and reduce the incidence of recidivism
c. To administer the parole and probation system
d. To exercise the supervision over parolees, pardonees and probationers
20. What is the mission of PPA?
a. By 2024, the DOJ-PPA is the ASEAN’s model of community-based corrections in crime
prevention.
b. The PPA is mandated to conserve and /or redeem convicted offenders and prisoners who are
under the probation or parole system.
c. Provide cheaper alternative to the institutional confinement of first-time offenders who are
likely to respond to individualized, community-based treatment programs.
d. To rehabilitate and reintegrate persons on community-based corrections for peace and social
justice.
21. Act. No. 4103 is otherwise known as ___.
a. Recognizance Act of 2012
b. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
c. Indeterminate Sentence Law
d. Probation Law of 1976
22. Who is the Chairman of BPP?
a. President
b. Administrator
c. Secretary of Justice
d. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
23. The Regional, Provincial and City Offices of the Administration shall each be headed by a
Regional Probation and Parole Officer, Provincial/City Probation and Parole Officer,
respectively, all of whom shall be appointed by the Secretary upon the recommendation of the
____.
a. President
b. Secretary of Justice
c. Administrator
d. Warden
24. Who is the ex-officio member of the BPP?
a. Director of the Bureau of Correction

28
 b. Administrator
c. Secretary of Justice
d. President
25. All EXCEPT one are the members of the BPP:
a. Psychologist
b. Psychiatrist
c. Sociologist
d. Clergyman
26. In the absence of the Chairman of the BPP, the ____ shall preside.
a. Deputy administrator
b. Administrator
c. Secretary of Justice
d. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
27. The members of the board shall be appointed by the President upon the recommendation of the
Secretary and shall hold office for a term of___, without prejudice to appointment.
a. 3 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. 1 year
28. The form of the Release Document shall be prescribed by the board and shall contain the latest…
a. 1” x 1” photograph and right thumbprint of the prisoner.
b. 1” x 1” photograph and left thumbprint of the prisoner.
c. 2” x 2” photograph and right thumbprint of the prisoner.
d. 2” x 2” photograph and left thumbprint of the prisoner.
29. After release from confinement, a client is supervised by a __________ for rehabilitation. The
parole supervision period extends until the maximum sentence is completed, subject to Section 6
of Act No. 4103 for early release and discharge.
a. Probation Officer
b. Parole and Probation Officer
c. Probation and Parole Officer
d. Warden
30. In Arrival report, within how many days will the Probation and Parole Officer concerned shall
inform the Board thru the Technical Service, Parole and Probation Administration in the date
where the client will report for supervision?
a. within fifteen (15) working days
b. fifteen (15) working days
c. not later than fifteen (15) working days
d. later than fifteen (15) working days
31. In Outside Travel, a Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize a client to travel outside
his area of operational jurisdiction for a period of _______.
a. not more than fifteen (15) days
b. not more than twenty (20) days
c. not more than twenty-five (25) days
d. not more than thirty (30) days
32. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize a client to travel outside his area of
operational jurisdiction for a period of not more than ______.
a. 10 days

29
 b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
33. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days. It shall be approved by the _____.
a. Regional Director
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Probation and Parole Officer
d. Parole and Probation Administration
34. A Parolee may work or travel abroad if he has no pending criminal case in any Court. Application
for travel and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration and confirmed by the ____.
a. Regional Director
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Probation and Parole Officer
d. Parole and Probation Administration
35. Parole given by the Board of Pardons and Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner.
This statement is:
a. Yes
b. True
c. No
d. False
36. If a client dies during supervision, the Probation and Parole Officer shall immediately transmit a
certified true copy of the client’s death certificate to the _____ recommending the closing of the
case.
a. Regional Director
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Probation and Parole Officer
d. Parole and Probation Administration
37. What report should be submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer to the Board when a
parolee/pardonee commits another offense during the period of his surveillance, and the case filed
against him has not yet been decided by the court?
a. Spot Report
b. Progress Report
c. Violation Report
d. Final Report
38. It refers to the report submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer on violations committed by a
parolee/pardonee of the conditions of his release on parole or conditional pardon while under
supervision?
a. Progress Report
b. Status Report
c. Summary Report
d. Violation Report
39. It refers to a report when a Parolee commits another offense during the period of his parole
supervision and the case filed against him is not yet decided by the court.
a. Summary Report
b. Status Report
c. Progress Report
d. Infraction Report

30
40. It refers to a report when the Parolee has been subsequently convicted of another crime.
a. Progress Report
b. Status Report
c. Infraction Report
d. Summary Report
41. Upon receipt of an Infraction Report, the ______ may order the arrest or recommitment of the
client.
a. Regional Director
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Probation and Parole Officer
42. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole after the
latter shall have served ______ of the unserved portion of his maximum sentence.
a. 1/3
b. ¼
c. ½
d. 1/5

43. The following prisoners shall not be granted parole, EXCEPT:

a. Those convicted of an offense punished with Death penalty, Reclusion Perpetua, or Life
imprisonment;
b. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy, or proposal to commit treason or espionage;
c. Those who are not habitual delinquents i.e., those who, within a period of ten (10) years
from the date of release from prison or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less
serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa and falsification, are found guilty of any of
said crimes a third time or oftener;
d. Those who were granted Conditional Pardon and violated any of the terms thereof; h.
Those whose maximum term of imprisonment does not exceed one (1) year or those with
definite sentence;
44. The following factors may be considered by the Board in the grant of conditional pardon,
commutation of sentence or parole, EXCEPT:
a. the risk to other persons, including the victim, his witnesses, his family and friends, or the
community in general, the possibility of retaliation by the victim, his family, and friends
b. the age of the petitioner, the gravity of the offense and the way it was committed, and the
institutional behavior or conduct and previous criminal record, if any;
c. Those suffering from any mental disorder as certified by a government
psychiatrist/psychologist;
d. availability of after-care services for the petitioner who is old, seriously ill or suffering
from a physical disability;
45. The ____ shall cause the publication in a newspaper of general circulation the names of prisoners
convicted of heinous crimes or those sentenced by final judgment to Reclusion Perpetua or Life
imprisonment, who may be considered for release on parole or for recommendation for absolute
or conditional pardon.
a. Parole and Probation Administration
b. Probation Officer
c. Board of Pardons and Parole

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 d. Dangerous Drugs Board
46. When an _____ is filed, the Board may consider the same by requesting the person objecting to
attach thereto evidence in support thereof.
a. appeal
b. objection
c. summary report
d. infraction report
47. The following shall be considered by the Board in deciding whether or not to recommend
executive clemency or to grant parole, EXCEPT:
a. carpeta
b. mittimus
c. release document
d. prison record
48. The following are the purposes of Commutation of Sentence, EXCEPT:
a. To do away with the miscarriage of Justice.
b. To break the rigidity of law.
c. To extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply.
d. To save the life of a person sentenced to death.
49. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted
without any condition. It restores to the individual his civil and political rights and remits the
penalty imposed for the offense of which he was convicted.
a. Pardon
b. Absolute Pardon
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Amnesty
50. It is conditional when it is granted by the Chief Executive subject to the conditions imposed on
the recipient and accepted by him. Usually, the person granted with conditional pardon has served
a portion (at least ½ of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence) of his sentence in prison.
a. Pardon
b. Absolute Pardon
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Amnesty
51. When filing a petition for Commutation of Sentence, the board may review the petition of a
prisoner for commutation of sentence if the following minimum requirements are met, EXCEPT:
a. At least one-third (1/4) of the definite or aggregate prison terms;
b. At least one half (1/2) of the minimum of indeterminate or aggregate minimum of the
indeterminate prison terms;
c. At least ten (10) years for inmates sentenced to one (1) Reclusion Perpetua or one (1) life
imprisonment, for crimes/offenses not punishable under Republic Act No. 7659 and other
special laws;
d. At least thirteen (13) years, for inmates who’s indeterminate and/or definite prison term
were adjusted to a definite prison term of forty (40) years in accordance with the
provisions of Article 70 of the Revised Penal Code, as amended;
52. It refers to a temporary stay of the execution of a sentence.
a. Amnesty
b. Commutation of Sentence
c. Reprieve

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 d. Pardon
53. In the Philippines, the pardoning power is vested in the ____.
a. Judge
b. President
c. BPP
d. PPA
54. All EXCEPT one are the limitation of the Pardoning power of the President:
a. It may be exercised only before conviction by final judgment.
b. It may not exercised over civil contempt.
c. It cannot be exercised in violation of tax laws.
d. It may not be exercised for offenses in impeachment cases.
55. In the supporting documents of petition for Absolute Pardon, the affidavits of at least ___
responsible members of the community where the petitioner resides.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
56. For Conditional pardon, an inmante should have served at least ___ of the maximum original
indeterminate and/or definite prison term.
a. 1/3
b. ¼
c. ½
d. 1/8
57. To assist the Board in monitoring compliance with the conditions imposed upon the Pardonee, the
Board shall place the Pardonee under the supervision of a ___.
a. Probation officer
b. BPP
c. PPO
d. PPA
58. Upon the determination that a Pardonee has violated the conditions thereof, the ___ shall
recommend to the President his arrest or recommitment.
a. BPP
b. PPA
c. PPO
d. Regional Director
59. Upon the receipt of the Summary Report, the Board shall, upon the recommendation of the CPPO
that the Pardonee has complied with all the conditions of his pardon, issue a ___.
a. Certificate of Discharge from Prison
b. Termination Report
c. Summary Report
d. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
60. In Certificate of Release, once accepted, the ___ shall issue in favor of the prisoner a Certificate
of Discharge from Prison.
a. BPP
b. Regional Director
c. Director of Corrections or Warden
d. CPPO

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1. What law was given the Parole and Probation Administration a task to supervise a person who is
placed on probation or community service under the voluntary service program?

a. RA 9165
b. RA 10389
c. RA 10707
d. RA 9061
2. Tangol together with his 8 colleagues is undergoing trial for the crime of Treason. While their
case is pending, President Duterte granted them an amnesty. Was the president correct in doing such?
a. No, because his case still pending
b. No, because he was not yet convicted
c. Yes, because amnesty is available before, during and after conviction
d. Yes, because amnesty is only dependent on the President's discretion.
3. What is the executive clemency that may be granted to classes of persons or communities who
may be guilty of political offense?
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Amnesty
d. Probation
4. The form of the Release Document shall be prescribed by the board and shall contain the latest
_____________________.
a. 1” x 1” photograph and right thumbprint of the prisoner.
b. 1” x 1” photograph and left thumbprint of the prisoner.
c. 2” x 2” photograph and right thumbprint of the prisoner.
d. 2” x 2” photograph and left thumbprint of the prisoner.
5. The Parole and Probation administration shall be headed by, whom?

a. Undersecretary
b. President
c. Administrator
d. Deputy Administrator
6. What is the primary purpose of the amendments to the existing Rules on Parole and the existing
Guidelines for Recommending Executive Clemency, as stated in Resolution No. OT-11-02-12?
a. To increase the maximum prison terms for inmates
b. To expedite the grant of parole and executive clemency
c. To implement stricter conditions for inmates' release
d. To enhance the authority of trial courts in granting clemency
7. After release from confinement, a client is supervised by a __________ for rehabilitation. The
parole supervision period extends until the maximum sentence is completed, subject to Section 6 of Act
No. 4103 for early release and discharge.
a. Probation Officer
b. Probation and Parole Officer
c. Administrator
d. Warden
8. According to Section 3 of the amended Guidelines, in what circumstances will the Board
recommend the grant of executive clemency to the President?
a. If the inmate has completed a rehabilitation program
b. If the trial court or appellate court recommends clemency
c. If the inmate is a first-time offender
d. If the inmate is a foreign national
9. It refers to a report when the Parolee has been subsequently convicted of another crime.

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 a. Progress Report
b. Status Report
c. Infraction Report
d. Summary Report
10. In Arrival report, within how many days will the Probation and Parole Officer concerned shall
inform the Board thru the Technical Service, Parole and Probation Administration in the date where the
client will report for supervision?
a. Not later than 5 working days
b. Not later than 10 working days
c. Not later than fifteen 15 working days
d. Not later than fifteen 30 working days
11. Upon receipt of an Infraction Report, the ______ may order the arrest or recommitment of the
client.
a. Regional Director
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Probation and Parole Officer
12. Which of the following refers to the total extinction of criminal liability of the individual to
whom, it is granted without any condition whatsoever and restores to the individual to his civil rights and
the penalty imposed for the particular offense of which he was convicted.
a. Executive clemency
b. Absolute Pardon
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Pardon
13. The ____ shall cause the publication in a newspaper of general circulation the names of prisoners
convicted of heinous crimes or those sentenced by final judgment to Reclusion Perpetua or Life
imprisonment, who may be considered for release on parole or for recommendation for absolute or
conditional pardon.
a. Parole and Probation Administration
b. Probation Officer
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Dangerous Drugs Board
14. What is amnesty?
a. A general pardon given to a group of people and is typically used by the executive branch with
Congress approval.
b. A pardon given to an individual of people and is typically used by the executive branch with
Senate approval.
c. A general pardon given to a group of people and is typically used by the executive branch with
Senate approval.
d. A general pardon given to a group of people and is typically used by the executive branch with
Congress approval.
15. When an _____ is filed, the Board may consider the same by requesting the person objecting to
attach thereto evidence in support thereof.
a. appeal
b. objection
c. summary report
d. infraction report
16. Who has the authority to grant parole?
a. President
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Board of Pardons and Parole

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 d. Governors
17. Which among the following does NOT belong to the new composition of board as amended by
EO no. 154?
a. Sociologist
b. Clergyman
c. Psychologist
d. Educator
18. Amnesty should only be granted with the approval of the ________.
a. Senate.
b. Congress.
c. Judge.
d. President.
19. Who has the authority to grant pardon?
a. President
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Governors
20. The temporary stay or suspension of sentence?
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Pardon
c. Reprieve
d. Parole
21. It is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right. Can be granted only
after final conviction.
a. Absolute pardon
b. Conditional pardon
c. Reprieve
d. Commutation of sentence

22. According to Section 20, how is the document evidencing the President's grant of executive
clemency sent to the prisoner, and who is responsible for its implementation?
a. Sent directly to the prisoner, implemented by the Board
b. Sent to the prisoner through the Director of the Bureau of Corrections, implemented by the
President
c. Sent to the prisoner through the Warden of the jail, implemented by the Director or Warden
d. Sent to the prisoner through the Board, implemented by the Department of Justice
23. Sec. 19 of Art. __ of the 1987 Philippine Constitution authorizes the President of the Philippines
to grant not only pardon but also reprieve, commutation of sentence, remission of fines and forfeitures
and amnesty.
a. V
b. VI
c. VIII
d. VII
24. Which section requires the Probation and Parole Officer to periodically submit a Progress Report
regarding a PARDONEE's case if violations or deviations from obligations occur, as mentioned in
Section 25?
a. Section 26
b. Section 27
c. Section 28
d. Section 25
25. It is an act of the President reducing the penalty of a convict?

36
 a. Parole
b. Pardon
c. Commutation of sentence
d. Reprieve
26. Which among the following best describe the mission of Parole and Probation Administration?
a. To rehabilitate and reintegrate persons on community-based corrections for peace and social
justice
b. To conserve and/or redeem convicted offenders and prisoners who are under the probation or
parole system.
c. To provide a cheaper alternative to the institutional confinement of first-time offenders who are
likely to respond to individualization.
d. To promote the reformation of criminal offenders and reduce the incidence of recidivism for
peace and order.
27. Amnesty may only be granted after conviction. It is granted by the Chief Executive.
a. The former statement is true, the latter statement is false
b. Both statements are true
c. The former statement is false, the latter statement is true
d. Both statements are false
28. President Marcos appointed Mr. Manansala as a chairman of BPP to hold offices of terms.
a. 4 years, without prejudice to appointment
b. 6 years, with prejudice to appointment
c. 4 years, with prejudice to appointment
d. 6 years, without prejudice to appointment
29. According to Section 26, what action does the Board take upon determining that a PARDONEE
has violated the conditions of his pardon?
a. Issue a Warning
b. Recommend arrest or recommitment to the President
c. Extend the period of supervision
d. Impose additional conditions
30. The power to grant executive clemency is vested by the court who has jurisdiction over the case.
It can only be granted with the concurrence of the Congress.
a. The former statement is true, the latter statement is false
b. Both statements are true
c. The former statement is false, the latter statement is true
d. Both statements are false
31. In case of grant of pardon, the Director or Warden shall, on the date of release:
a. Read to the prisoner the conditions of pardon in the language or dialect known to him or her
b. Make known to the prisoner the consequences of violating such conditions
c. Require the prisoner to acknowledge acceptance of such conditions as a pre-requisite to actual
release
d. All of the above

32. According to Section 4, under what circumstances can the Board recommend the grant of
executive clemency when none of the extraordinary circumstances listed in Section 3 exist?
a. If the inmate has not undergone psychological testing
b. If the inmate has served at least one-half of the maximum prison term
c. If the inmate has a clean institutional conduct record
d. If the inmate is facing pending appeals or cases
33. The following prisoners shall not be granted parole, EXCEPT:
a. Those convicted of an offense punished with Death penalty, Reclusion Perpetua, or Life
imprisonment;

37
 b. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy, or proposal to commit treason or espionage;
c. Those who are not habitual delinquents i.e., those who, within a period of ten (10) years from
the date of release from prison or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical
injuries, robbery, theft, estafa and falsification.
d. Those who were granted Conditional Pardon and violated any of the terms thereof; h. Those
whose maximum term of imprisonment does not exceed one (1) year or those with definite
sentence
34. In Section 23, what action should the PARDONEE take within the prescribed period after the
grant of executive clemency?
a. Submit a report to the President
b. Present himself to the Probation and Parole Officer
c. Attend a rehabilitation program
d. Notify the Board of his release

35. What action should the Parole and Probation Officer take if the PARDONEE fails to report
within fifteen (15) days from the date of his release, according to Section 23?
a. Report to the President
b. Notify the Board
c. File a case against the PARDONEE
d. Request an extension from the President

36. What is the effect of amnesty?

a. Withholding of punishment
b. Reducing punishment
c. Suspension of punishment
d. Extinguish criminal liability
37. What is the act of pardon given to political prisoners?
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Amnesty
38. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may be granted
without favorable recommendation of _________________.
a. CSC
b. President
c. Congress
d. COMELEC
39. The other term for the Chief Executive of the Philippines?
a. Vice President
b. President
c. Senate
d. Congress
40. If amnesty is given before or after the institution of the criminal prosecution and
sometimes after conviction. Pardon is given when?
a. After serving the sentence
b. After completion of the minimum sentence
c. After conviction
d. After the sentence
41. What is the key distinction between amnesty and pardon regarding the timing of their application
in relation to criminal prosecution or conviction?

38
 a. Amnesty is granted after conviction, while pardon is granted before or after the institution of
criminal prosecution.
b. Amnesty and pardon are interchangeable terms used for political offenses.
c. Amnesty is granted exclusively after conviction, while pardon is granted before the institution
of criminal prosecution.
d. Amnesty and pardon are both exclusively granted before the institution of criminal prosecution.
42. What is a general pardon, which is granted to groups of individuals and is normally utilized by
the executive branch with the agreement of Congress?
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Amnesty
43. Which among the rehabilitation programs treats crime as a violation of people and relationships?
a. Volunteerism
b. Therapeutic community
c. Restorative justice
d. Restitution justice
44. Margarita Conyelo is a renegade who joined the NPA after graduating from a prestigious
university. She surrendered to the authorities during the Marawi siege. As a result, with Congress's
approval, she was awarded an entire pardon. What type of executive clemency was granted to her?
a. Commutation of Sentence
b. Amnesty
c. Reprieve
d. Pardon
45. Who shall appoint the Administrator and Deputy Administrator of PPA?
a. President upon the recommendation of undersecretary
b. President upon the recommendation of department of justice
c. President upon the recommendation of secretary
d. President upon the recommendation of the Vice president.
46. What executive order amended the composition of the Board of Pardon and Parole?
a. EO no. 83
b. EO no. 94
c. EO no. 154
d. EO no. 156
47. What is the primary goal of amnesty in the context of legal and political discussions?
a. To encourage criminal behavior
b. To provide a pathway to citizenship.
c. To increase penalties for certain offenses
d. To promote strict law enforcement measures
48. Which among the following is the responsibility of PPA under the legal basis of RA. 10389?
a. Monitoring prisoners who, after serving part of their sentence in jails are released on parole.
b. Investigating and supervising first-time minor drug offenders placed under suspended sentence.
c. Supervise a person who is placed on probation or community service under the voluntary
service program.
d. Monitoring and evaluating the activities of the person released on recognizance.
49. Within how many days shall a pardonee/parolee present himself to the Probation and Parole
Officer from the date of his release from confinement.
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 5 days

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50. What is the name of the law that gave the Governor General of the Philippine Islands the
authority to pardon and reprieve people in 1916?
a. McArthur Law
b. Commonwealth Law
c. Jones Law
d. McKenzie Law
51. Applications for the grant of amnesty shall be filed under oath with the Amnesty Commission
within how many years?

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 4 years
d. 3 years
52. What kind of amnesty is one granted in direct terms such as Presidential proclamation or a law
enacted by the legislature granting amnesty?
a. Limited
b. Unconditional
c. General
d. Express
53. Proclamation No. 8- President Manuel Roxas, granted amnesty to ________ and resistance
fighters on Sept. 7, 1946. Who was the group desired in the question above?
a. Guerilla
b. HUKBALAHAP (Hukbong Bayan Laban sa Hapon)
c. PKM (Pambansang Kaisahang mga Magbubukid)
d. KKK (Kataastaasan, Kagalanggalang na Katipunan ng mga Anak ng Bayan)
54. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize a client to travel outside his area of
operational jurisdiction for a period of not more than ______.
a. 10 days.
b. 15 days.
c. 20 days.
d. 30 days.
55. If a client dies during supervision, the Probation and Parole Officer shall immediately transmit a
certified true copy of the client’s death certificate to the _____ recommending the closing of the case.
a. Regional Director
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Probation and Parole Officer
d. Parole and Probation Administration
56. What report should be submitted by the Parole and Probation Officer to the Board when a
parolee/pardonee commits another offense during the period of his surveillance, and the case filed against
him has not yet been decided by the court?
a. Violation Report
b. Progress Report
c. Status Report
d. Infraction Report
57. The Board may consider the case of a recommitted parolee for the grant of a new parole after the
latter shall have served ______ of the unserved portion of his maximum sentence.
a. 1/3
b. ¼
c. ½
d. 1/5
e. T

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58. Which of the following is NOT a required supporting document for a petition for absolute pardon
according to Section 7?
a. Affidavits from responsible community members
b. Clearances from the National Bureau of Investigation
c. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
d. Proof of attendance at religious services
59. The following factors may be considered by the Board in the grant of conditional pardon,
commutation of sentence or parole, EXCEPT:
a. The risk to other persons, including the victim, his witnesses, his family and friends, or the
community in general, the possibility of retaliation by the victim, his family, and friends
b. The age of the petitioner, the gravity of the offense and the way it was committed, and the
institutional behavior or conduct and previous criminal record, if any;
c. Those suffering from any mental disorder as certified by a government
psychiatrist/psychologist;
d. Availability of after-care services for the petitioner who is old, seriously ill or suffering from a
physical disability;
60. The following shall be considered by the Board in deciding whether or not to recommend
executive clemency or to grant parole, EXCEPT:
a. Carpeta
b. Mittimus
c. Release document
d. Prison record

41