INDEX

S.No Page No.

Contents
1 Course Structure 1

2 Chapter 1 – Real Numbers 2

3 Chapter 2 - Polynomials 22

4 Chapter 3 – Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 47

5 Chapter 4 – Quadratic Equations 75

6 Chapter 5 – Arithmetic Progression 96

7 Chapter 6 - Triangles 117

8 Chapter 7 – Coordinate Geometry 139

9 Chapter 8 – Introduction to Trigonometry 160

10 Chapter 9 – Some Applications of Trigonometry 184

11 Chapter 10 - Circles 204

12 Chapter 11 – Areas Related to Circles 222

13 Chapter 12 – Surface Areas and Volumes 243

14 Chapter 13 - Statistics 272

15 Chapter 14 - Probability 294

16 CBSE Sample Paper 2024 – 2025 & Marking Scheme 321

17 Sample Paper Analysis 338

18 Practice Paper I 339

19 Practice Paper II 347

20 Practice Paper II 355

21 Practice Paper IV 363

22 Answer Key for Practice Papers 370

 CLASS X – MATHEMATICS
SUBJECT CODE – 041
SESSION 2024 – 2025
COURSE STRUCTURE

Units Unit Name Chapters Marks

I Number System Real Numbers 06

Polynomials

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables

II Algebra 20
Quadratic Equations

Arithmetic Progression

III Coordinate Geometry Coordinate Geometry 06

Triangles
IV Geometry 15
Circles

Introduction to Trigonometry
V Trigonometry 12
Some Applications of Trigonometry

Areas Related to Circle

VI Mensuration 10
Surface Areas and Volumes

Statistics
VII Statistics & Probability 11
Probability

Total 80

Internal Assessment 20 marks

Pen Paper Test & Multiple Assessment 10 marks
Portfolio 05 marks
Lab Activities 05 marks

1
 CHAPTER 1 – REAL NUMBERS
Key Concepts
Rational Numbers

The numbers which can be represented in the form of where q  0 and p and q are integers are

called rational numbers.

Irrational Numbers
Irrational numbers are the numbers which are non-terminating and non-repeating.

Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic

Every composite number can be expressed (factorised) as a product of primes, and this

factorisation is unique, apart from the order in which the prime factors occur.

Theorem

Let p be a prime number. If p divides a2, then p divides „a‟, where „a‟ is a positive integer.

Results
 Rational and irrational numbers together constitute Real numbers.

 A number ends with the digit zero if and only if it has either 2 or 5 as its prime factors.

 The sum, difference, product and quotient of two irrational numbers need not always be

irrational number.

 There are more irrational numbers than rational numbers between two consecutive

numbers.

 Highest Common Factor (HCF) is the product of the smallest power of each common

prime factor in the numbers.

 Lowest Common Multiple (LCM) is the product of the greatest power of each prime

factor, involved in the numbers.

2
Prime Factorisation Method to find HCF and LCM

 HCF(a, b) = Product of the smallest power of each common prime factor in the numbers.

 LCM(a, b) = Product of the greatest power of each prime factors, involved in the numbers.

Note: HCF of two numbers is always less than or equal to their LCM. Also, LCM is always a

multiple of HCF.

an where n is a natural number can end with digit 0, if prime factors of „a‟ contain 2 m x 5n, where

m and n are natural numbers.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. HCF of co-primes a and b is

a) ab b) 1 c) a d) b

2. The LCM and HCF of two rational numbers are equal, then the numbers must be

a) prime b) co-prime c) composite d) equal

3. If the LCM of „a‟ and 18 is 36 and the HCF of „a‟ and 18 is 2, then a = .......

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1

4. The smallest number which gives remainders 8 and 12 when divided by 28 and 32 respectively

is...

a) 180 b) 240 c) 204 d) 210

3
5. The smallest 4-digit number divisible by 15, 24 and 36 is

a) 1000 b) 1208 c) 1800 d) 1080

6. The largest number which exactly divides 280 and 1245 leaving remainders 4 and 3 respectively is

a) 36 b) 54 c) 138 d) 72

7. The sum of two numbers is 1215 and their HCF is 81, then the possible numbers of pairs of
such numbers are
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

8. If ( ) and ( ) then ( )

a) 90 b) 180 c) 360 d) 540

9. The HCF of two numbers is 27 and their LCM is 162. If one of the numbers is 54, what is the
other number?
a) 36 b) 45 c) 9 d) 81

10. The product of two numbers is 1600 and their HCF is 5. The LCM of the numbers is
a) 8000 b) 1600 c) 320 d) 1605

11. If p, q are two consecutive natural numbers, then H.C.F. (p, q) is

a) p b) q c) 1 d) pq

12. Product of two co-prime numbers is 117. Their L.C.M. should be

a) 1 b) 117 c) equal to their H.C.F d) lies between 1 to 117

13. LCM of the given number „x‟ and „y‟ where y is a multiple of „x‟ is given by
a) x b) y c) xy d)

14. Three farmers have 490 kg, 588 kg and 882 kg of wheat respectively. Find the maximum
capacity of a bag so that the wheat can be packed in exact number of bags.
a) 98 kg b) 290 kg c) 200 kg d) 350 kg

15. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 5 (both inclusive) is
a) 5 b) 60 c) 20 d) 100

16. If the HCF of 65 and 117 is 13, LCM of 65 and 117 is 45 x a, then value of a is
a) 9 b) 11 c) 13 d) 17
4
17. Two numbers are in the ratio 15:11, if their HCF is 13, then numbers will be
a) 195 & 143 b) 190 & 140 c) 185 & 163 d) 185 & 143

18. If HCF(a, 8) = 4, LCM(a, 8) = 24, then a is

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

19. Find the largest number which divides 129 and 545, leaving remainders 3 and 5 respectively.

a) 81 b) 18 c) 545 d) 129

20. Find the least number which when divided by 35, 56 and 91 leaves the same remainder 7 in

each case.

a) 3640 b) 7 c) 3647 d) None of these

21. Two positive integers m and n are expressed as and where p and q are
prime numbers. The LCM of m and n is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

22. If two positive integers p and q can be expressed as and , where a

and b are prime numbers then LCM(p, q) is

a (b) c d

23. If and LCM(a, b, c) = 3780, then x is equal to

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

24. If 3825 = then the value of x + y – 2z is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

25. If the product of two co-prime numbers is 553, then their HCF is

(a) 1 (b) 553 (c) 7 (d) 79

26. If the prime factorisation of 2520 is then the value of a + 2b is

(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 7

5
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: The HCF of two numbers is 18 and their product is 3072. Then their LCM = 169.

Reason: If a, b are two positive integers, then HCF x LCM = a x b.

2. Assertion: 12n ends with the digit zero, where n is natural number.

Reason: Any number ends with digit zero, if its prime factor is of the form 2m x 5n, where m, n

are natural numbers.

3. ssertion: √ is an irrational number, where is a prime number.

Reason: Square root of any prime number is an irrational number.

4. Assertion: For any two positive integers a and b, HCF (a, b) x LCM (a, b) = a x b

Reason: The HCF of two numbers is 8 and their product is 280. Then their LCM is 40.

5. Assertion: 3 is a rational number.

Reason: The square roots of all positive integers are irrationals.

6
6. Assertion: HCF(11, 17) is 1.

Reason: If p and q are prime numbers, then HCF(p, q) = 1

7. Assertion: If LCM = 182, product of integers is 26 x 91, then HCF = 13.

Reason: LCM x Product of integers = HCF.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. To enhance the reading skills of grade X students, the school nominates you and two of your

friends to set up a class library. There are two sections - Section A and Section B of grade X.

There are 32 students in Section A and 36 students in Section B.

i) What is the minimum number of books you will acquire for the class library, so that they can
be distributed equally among students of Section A or Section B?
a) 144 b) 128 c) 288 d) 272

ii) If the product of two positive integers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM is true,
then the HCF (32, 36) is .....
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

iii) 36 can be expressed as a product of its primes as

a b c d

iv) 7 × 11 × 13 × 15 + 15 is a

a) Prime number b) Composite number c) Neither prime nor composite d) None of the

above

v) If p and q are positive integers such that p = ab2and q = a2b, where a and b are prime numbers,

then the LCM (p, q) is .......

a b c d

7
2. Klick has a camera that takes film that allows 24 exposures, whereas Snapp has a camera that

takes film that allows 36 exposures. Both of them want to be take the same number of

photographs and complete their rolls of film.

i) Minimum number of exposures that should be taken by each

a) 24 b) 36 c) 72 d) 12

ii) Number of rolls Klick should buy

a) 6 b) 3 c) 2 d) 12

iii) Number of rolls Snap should buy

a) 6 b) 3 c) 2 d) 12

iv) Which Mathematical concept was used in finding minimum number of exposures taken by
each
a) HCF b) LCM c) Neither HCF nor LCM d) Fundamental theorem of Arithmetic

3. Swathi wants to organize her birthday party. She was happy on her birthday. She is very health

conscious. So decided to serve fruits only to the guests. She has 36 apples, 60 bananas at home

and decided to serve them. She wants to distribute the fruits among guests. She does not want to

discriminate among guests, so she decided to distribute the fruits equally among all.

i) How many maximum guests Swathi can invite?

a) 12 b) 120 c) 6 d) 180

ii) How many apples and bananas will each guests get?
a) 3 apples 5 bananas b) 5 apples 3 bananas c) 2 apples 4 bananas d) 4 apples 2 bananas

iii) Vedika decide to add 42 mangoes. In this case how many maximum guests Swathi invite?
a) 12 b) 120 c) 6 d) 180

iv) If Swathi decide to add 3 more mangoes and instead 6 apples, in this case how many
maximum guests Swathi can invite?
a) 12 b) 30 c) 15 d) 24

v) How many total fruits will each guest get from case (iii)?
a) 36 b) 60 c) 17 d) 23
8
4. Sandhya on the very first day of her job in a bank, noticed that there are six bells which keep

on tolling at regular intervals. She noticed that toll of their intervals are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 minutes

respectively. If all the six bells commence tolling together, at 10 a.m., then answer the following

questions:

Based on the given information, answer the following questions:

(i) At what time will they again toll together?

ii How many times these bells will toll together during the working hours of Sandhya‟s job, if

Sandhya works for 8 hours in a day?

5. A seminar is being conducted by an Educational Organisation, where the participants will be

educators of different subjects. The number participants in Hindi, English and Mathematics are

60, 84 and 108 respectively

(i) In each room the same number of participants are to be seated and all of them being in the

same subject, hence find the maximum number of participants that can accommodated in each

room.

(ii) What is the minimum number of rooms required during the event?

(iii) Find the LCM of 60, 84 and 108.

(iv) Find the Product of HCF and LCM of 60, 84 and 180.

6. A seminar is being conducted by an educational organisation, where the participants will be

educators of different subjects. The number of participants in Hindi, English and Mathematics are

60, 84 and 108 respectively.

Based on the above information, answer the following:

(i) Find the sum of the powers of each prime factor of 108.

9
(ii) In each room the same number of participants are to be seated and all of them being in the

same subject, hence find the maximum number of participants that can accommodated in each

room?

(iii) What is the minimum number of rooms required during the event?

(iv) Find the LCM of 60, 84 and 108.

7. In a morning walk, Naveeka, Arjun and Vedant step off together, their steps measuring 240

cm, 90 cm, 120 cm respectively. They want to go for a juice shop for a health issue, which is

situated near by them.

Based on the above information, answer the following:

(i) Find the sum of the powers of all common prime factors of the numbers 240, 90 and 120.

(ii) Find the minimum distance of shop from where they start to walk together, so that one can

cover the distance in complete steps.

(iii) Find the number of common steps covered by all of them to reach the juice shop.

8. Khushi wants to organize her birthday party. She was happy on her birthday. She is very health

conscious, thus she decided to serve fruits only. She has 36 apples and 60 bananas at home and

decided to serve them. She wants to distribute fruits among guests. She does not want to

discriminate among guests so she decided to distribute equally among all.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions

(i) How many maximum guests Khushi can invite at the most?

(ii) How many apples and bananas will each guest get?

(iii) If Khushi decides to add 42 mangoes also. In this case how many maximum guests Khushi

can invite?

(iv) If khushi decides to add 3 more mangoes and instead 6 apples, in this case how many

maximum guests khushi can invite?

10
9. Indian Army is the third biggest military contingent in the World next to USA and China.

However, there are many firsts that make Indian army stand out in the world, making us all

Indians very proud. Knowing them, will help you celebrate Republic Day with greater vigour and

gratitude. On 71th republic day Parade in Delhi Captain RS Meel is planning for parade of

following two group: (a) First group of Army contingent of 624 members behind an army band of

32 members. (b) Second group of CRPF troops with 468 soldiers behind the 228 members of

bikers. These two groups are to march in the same number of columns. This sequence of soldiers

is followed by different states Jhanki which are showing the culture of the respective states.

(i) What is the maximum number of columns in which the army troop can march?

(ii) What is the maximum number of columns in which the CRPF troop can march?

(iii) What should be subtracted with the numbers of CRPF soldiers and the number of bikers so

that their maximum number of column is equal to the maximum number of column of army

troop?

(iv) What should be added with the numbers of CRPF soldiers and the number of bikers so that

their maximum number of column is equal to the maximum number of column of army troop?

10. Teaching Mathematics through activities is a powerful approach that enhance student‟s

understanding and engagement. Keeping this in mind, Ms.Mukta planned a prime number game

for class 5 students. She announces the number 2 in her class and asked the first student to

multiply it by a prime number and then pass it to second student. Second student also multiplied

it by a prime number and passed it to third student. In this way by multiplying to a prime number,

the last student got 173250.

Now, Mukta asked some questions as given below to the students:

(i) What is the least prime number used by students?

(ii) How many students are in the class?

11
(iii) What is the highest prime number used by students?

(iv) Which prime number has been used maximum times?

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. Atul, Ravi and Tarun go for a morning walk. They step off together and their steps measure

40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that

each can cover the same distance in complete steps?

2. The LCM of two numbers is 14 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 600. If one

number is 280, then find the other number.

3. If two positive integers X and Y are expressible in terms of primes as X = p 2q3 and Y = p3q

what can you say about their LCM and HCF. Is LCM a multiple of HCF? Explain.

4. Find the largest number which divides 70 and 125 leaving remainder 5 and 8 respectively.

5. Show that cannot end with the digit or for any natural number .

6. There is a circular path around a sports field, Priya takes 18 min. to drive one round of the

field, while Ravish takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose they both start at the same point and

at the same time and go in the same direction. After how many minutes will they meet again at

the starting point?

7. Explain why (17 × 5 × 11 × 3 × 2 + 2 × 11) is a composite number?

8. The length, breadth and height of a room are 8 m 50 cm, 6 m 25 cm and 4 m 75 cm

respectively. Find the length of the longest rod that can measure the dimensions of the room

exactly.

9. A class of 20 boys and 15 girls is divided into n groups so that each group has x boys and y

girls. Find x, y and n.

10. Three alarm clocks ring at intervals of 4, 12 and 20 minutes respectively. If they start ringing

together, after how much time will they next ring together?

12
11. In a school, there are two sections of class X. There are 40 students in the first section and 48

students in the second section. Determine the minimum number of books required for their class

library so that they can be distributed equally among students of both sections.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Prove that √ is an irrational number.

2. Prove that √ √ is irrational.

3. Find the largest number that will divide 398, 436 and 542 leaving remainders 7, 11, and 15

respectively.

4. In a seminar on the topic „liberty and equality‟ the numbers of participants from Hindi, Social

Science and English department are 60, 84 and 108 respectively. Find the minimum number of

rooms required if in each room the same number of participants are to be seated and all of them

being in the same subject.

√
5. Prove that is an irrational number, given that √ is an irrational number.

√
6. Given that √ irrational, hence show that is irrational.

√
7. Given that √ irrational, hence show that is irrational.

8. A school has invited 42 Mathematics teachers, 56 Physics teachers and 70 Chemistry teachers

to attend a Science workshop. Find the minimum number of tables required, if the same number

of teachers are to sit at a table and each table is occupied by teachers of the same subject.

9. Prove that (√ √ ) is an irrational number, given that √ is an irrational number.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Three sets of English, Hindi and Sociology books dealing with cleanliness have to stacked in

such a way that all the books are stored topic-wise and height of each stack is the same. The

13
number of English books is 96, number of Hindi books is 240 and the number of Sociology books

is 336. Assuming that the books are of same thickness, determine the number of stacks of

English, Hindi and Sociology books.

2. Prove that √ is an irrational number. Hence show that √ is also an irrational number.

3. Prove that √ √ is irrational, where and are primes.

4. A fruit vendor has 990 apples and 945 oranges. He packs them into baskets. Each basket

contains only one of the two fruits but in equal number. Find the number of fruits to be put in

each basket in order to have minimum number of baskets.

5. A circular field has a circumference of 360km. Three cyclist start together and can cycle 48km,

60km and 72km a day, round the field. When will the meet again?

14
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. The HCF of two numbers a and b is 5 and their LCM is 200. Find the product ab.

a) 1 b) 1000 c) 40 d) None of these.

2. In a school there are two sections, namely A and B, of class X. There are 30 students in section
A and 28 students in section B. Find the minimum number of books required for their class
library so that they can be distributed equally among students of section A or section B.
a) 58 b) 420 c) 2 d) None of these

3. The LCM of two prime numbers p and q (p > q) is 221, the value of 3p – q is
a) 4 b) 28 c) 38 d) 48

4. Assertion: The H.C.F. of two numbers is 16 and their product is 3072. Then their L.C.M. =
162.
Reason: If a and b are two positive integers, then H. C. F.× L. C. M. = a × b

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. 144 cartons of Coke cans and 90 cartons of Pepsi cans are to be stacked in a canteen. If each

stack is of the same height and if it contains equal cartons of the same drink, what would be the

greatest number of cartons each stack would have?

15
6. Given that HCF (306, 1,314) = 18. Find LCM (306, 1,314).

7. Show that √ is an irrational number.

SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. Find the greatest number that will divide 382, 509 and 636 leaving remainders 4, 5 and 6

respectively.

9. Prove that ( √ ) is irrational.

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. Find the largest number which on dividing 1251, 9377 and 15628 leaves remainders 1, 2

and 3 respectively.

11. Show that there is no positive integer n, for which √ √ is rational.

SECTION E

12. Today, she has planned a prime number game. She announces the number 2 in her class and

asked the first student to multiply it by a prime number and then pass it to second student. Second

student also multiplied it by a prime number and passed it to third student. In this way by

multiplying to a prime number the last student got 173250. He told this number to Shalvi in class.

Now she asked some questions to the students as given below.

Today, she has planned a prime number game. She announces the number 2 in her class and

asked the first student to multiply it by a prime number and then pass it to second student. Second

student also multiplied it by a prime number and passed it to third student. In this way by

multiplying to a prime number the last student got 173250. He told this number to Shalvi in class.

Now she asked some questions to the students as given below.

16
i) How many students are in the class?

ii) What is the highest prime number used by student? (Or) What is the least prime number used

by students?

iii) Which prime number has been used maximum times?

17
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. b) 1 1. (d) Assertion (A) is 1. i) c 1. 2520 1. Proof 1. 48, 2, 5 and 7.

false but reason (R) is
2. d) equal ii) b) 4 2. 80 2. Proof 2. Proof
true.
3. c) 4 iii) a 3. 3. 17 3. Proof
2. (d) Assertion (A) is
.
4. c) 204 false but reason (R) is iv) Composite 4. 12 and 21 4. 45
LCM is a multiple
true. number v) b
5. d) 1080 of HCF. 5. Proof 5. 30 days.
3. (a) Both assertion 2. i) c) 72
6. c) 138 4. 13 6. Proof
(A) and reason (R)
ii) c) 3
7. c) 4 are true and reason 5. Proof. 7. Proof

8. b) 180 (R) is the correct iii) c) 2 8. 14, 12

6. 3 minutes
explanation of
iv) b) LCM
9. d) 81 7. It has more than two 9. Proof
assertion (A).
3. i) a) 12 factors.
10. c) 320
4. (c) Assertion (A) is
11. c) 1 true but reason (R) is ii) a) 3 apples 5 8. 25cm

false. bananas
9. n = 7, x = 4 and y = 3
12. b) 117
5. (c) Assertion (A) is iii) c) 6 10. 1 hour
13. b) y
true but reason (R) is
18
14. a) 98 kg false. iv) c) 15 11. 240

15. b) 60 6. (a)Both assertion v) d) 23

(A) and reason (R)
16. c) 13 4. i) 12 noon
are true and reason
17. a) 195 & 143 (R) is the correct ii) 4
explanation of
18. c) 12 5. i) 12
assertion (A).
19. b) 18 ii) 21
7. (c)Assertion (A) is
20. c) 3647 true but reason (R) is iii) 3780

21. (c) false. iv) 45360

22. d 6. i) 5

23. (c) 3 ii) 12

24. (c) 2 iii) 21

25. (a) 1 iv) 3780

26. (a) 12 7. i) 3

ii) 720cm

19
iii) 30

8. i) 12

ii) 3 apples & 5

bananas

iii) 6

iv) 15

9. i) 16

ii) 12

iii) 4 Soldiers, 4 bikes

iv) 12 Soldiers, 12
bikes

10. i) 3

ii) 7

iii) 11

iv) 5

20
UNIT TEST

1. b) 1000

2. b) 420

3. c) 38

4. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

5. 18

6. 22,338

7. Proof

8. 126

9. Proof

10. 625

11. Proof

12. i) 7 ii) 11 or 2 iii) 5

21
 CHAPTER 2 – POLYNOMIALS
Key Concepts

Polynomial
An expression consisting of the sum of two or more terms each of which is the product of a

constant and a variable raised to an integral power.

An algebraic expression of the form: a0 + a1 x + a2 x2 + a3 x3 + ………+anxn….. in which a0, a1,

a2, a3…an are coefficients and x is a variable having non-negative integral exponents is called a

polynomial in x.

Degree of Polynomial
The degree of a polynomial in one variable is the largest exponent in the polynomial.

Types of Polynomials
Constant Polynomial
A polynomial of degree 0 is called a constant polynomial.

Linear Polynomial
A polynomial of degree 1 is called a linear polynomial.

Quadratic Polynomial
A polynomial of degree 2 is called a quadratic polynomial.

Cubic Polynomial
A polynomial of degree 3 is called a cubic polynomial.

Standard form of a Polynomial

If the terms in a polynomial are written in ascending or descending powers of the variable in it,
then the polynomial is said to be in Standard Form.

Value of Polynomial
If p(x) is a polynomial in x and if a is any real number, then the value of polynomial obtained by

replacing x by a in p(x) and it is denoted by p(a).

22
Zero of polynomial
If p x is a polynomial in x and if „a‟ is any real number, such that p a = 0, then „a‟ is called a

zero of the polynomial p(x).

For any linear polynomial ax + b, zero of the polynomial will be given by the expression P(- ).

Remark
In general, the number of zeroes a polynomial depends upon the degree of the polynomial. A

polynomial of degree „n‟ has „n‟ zeroes.

Geometrical Meaning of the Zeroes of a Polynomial

The graph of a polynomial p(x) of degree n can intersects or touches the x axis at at-most n

points. The number of real zeroes of the polynomial is the number of times its graph touches or

intersects x axis.

Graph of Polynomials

Linear Polynomial: The graph of a linear polynomial p(x) = ax + b is a straight line that

intersects X-axis at one point only.

Quadratic Polynomial: (i) Graph of a quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is a parabola

which opens upwards, if a > 0 and intersects X-axis at a maximum of two distinct points.

(ii) Graph of a quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is a parabola which opens downwards, if

a < 0 and intersects X-axis at a maximum of two distinct points.

23
Results

For a quadratic polynomial

 If the zeros are both positive, then a and c have the same sign and b has the opposite sign.

 If the zeros are both negative then a, b and c have the same sign.

24
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The zeros of the polynomial are

a) –3, 1 b) –3, –1 c) 3, –1 d) 3, 1

2. The zeros of the polynomial √ are

√ √ √
a √ √ b √ c d) none of these

3. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial ( ) is then the value of k is

a) b) c) d)

4. It is given that the difference between the zeros of is and . Then,

a b) c) d)

5. If a and b are zeroes of the polynomial , then the value of is

a) b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

6. The zeroes of the polynomial ( ) are

a) m, m + 3 b) -m, m + 3 c) m, -(m + 3) d) -m, -(m + 3)

7. Which of the following is/are not graph of a quadratic polynomial?

8. The graph of the polynomial p(x) is given as below, the zeroes of p(x) are
a) -3, -2, 0 and 0 b) -2, 0, 2 and 3
c) -3, -2, 0 and 2 d) -3, 0, 2 and 3

9. If one zero of the polynomial ( ) ( ) are negative to each other, then

the value of k is
a) -5 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3

25
10. If and are zeroes of the polynomial ( ) ( ) such that ( )( )
then the value of c is

a) -1 b) 1 c) d)

11. Suppose and are zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) ( ) ( )

such that , then the value of k is

a) b) - c) d) none of these

12. If one zero of the polynomial ( ) ( ) is twice the other zero, then the
value of k is
a) b) - c) d) none of these

13. If the square of difference of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) is

equal to 144, then the value of p are
a) ± 9 b) ± 12 c) ± 15 d) ± 18

14. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial is , then its other zero is

a) b) c) d)

15. If the degree of polynomial p(x) is n, then the maximum number of zeroes it can have is
a) n b) n2 c) n3 d) none of these

16. Zeroes of the polynomial are

a) b) c) d) none of these

17. If p(x) is a polynomial of degree one and p(a) = 0, then a is said to be:
a) Zero of p(x) b) Value of p(x) c) Constant of p(x) d) none of the above

18. Zeroes of a polynomial can be expressed graphically. Number of zeroes of polynomial is

equal to number of points where the graph of polynomial is:
a) Intersects x-axis b) Intersects y-axis c) Intersects y-axis or x-axis d) None of the above

19. What is the number of zeroes that a linear polynomial has/have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

20. The graph of the polynomial is an upward parabola if

a) a > 0 b) a < 0 c) a = 0 d) a = 1
26
21. If the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = ( ) √ is √ , then the
value of k is

(a) √ (b) 2 (c) 2√ (d)

22. The zeroes of a polynomial are twice the zeroes of the polynomial
. The value of p is

(a) (b) (c) -5 (d) 10

23. If and ( )are the zeroes of the polynomial then ( ) is equal to

(a) -10 (b) 10 (c) ±10 (d) 8

24. What should be subtracted from the polynomial , so that 15 is the zero of the
resulting polynomial?

(a) 30 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16

25. A quadratic polynomial, one of whose zeroes is √ and the sum of whose zeroes is 4 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

27
1. Assertion: P(x) = 4x3 – x2 + 5x4 + 3x – 2 is a polynomial of degree 3.

Reason: The highest power of x in the polynomial P(x) is the degree of the polynomial.

2. Assertion: If one zero of poly-nominal p(x) = (k2 + 4)x2 + 13x + 4k is reciprocal of other, then

k = 2.

Reason: If (x – a) is a factor of p(x), then p(a) = 0 i.e. a is a zero of p(x).

3. Assertion: The graph y = f(x) is shown in figure, for the polynomial f (x). The number of zeros

of f(x) is 3.

Reason: The number of zero of the polynomial f(x) is the number of points of which f(x) cuts or

touches the axes.

4. Assertion: Degree of a zero polynomial is not defined.

Reason: Degree of a non-zero constant polynomial is 0.

5. Assertion: If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 2kx + 8 is 2 then value of k

is 1.

Reason: Sum of zeroes of a quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c is .

6. Assertion: If the product of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 3x + 5k is -10 then

value of k is -2.

Reason: Sum of zeroes of a quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c is

28
7. Assertion: A quadratic polynomial, sum of whose zeroes is 8 and their product is 12

is x2 – 20x + 96.

Reason: If and be the zeroes of the polynomial f(x), then polynomial is given by

f(x) = ( ) .

8. Assertion: A quadratic polynomial having 4 and 3 as zeroes is .

Reason: The quadratic polynomial having and as zeroes is given by p(x) = ( ) .

9. Assertion: Zeroes of ( ) are .

Reason: The polynomial whose zeros are √ √ is .

10. Assertion: If and be the zeroes of the polynomial , then is

Reason: If and be the zeroes of the polynomial , then and .

11. Assertion: If the graph of a polynomial touches x-axis at only one point, the polynomial
cannot be a quadratic polynomial.

Reason: A polynomial of degree n (n > 1) can have at most n zeroes.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. If we jerk a stretched rope certain waves are produced on the rope. The figure given below

shows a part of the wave. Answer the given questions by looking at the figure:

i) The shape which is shown in the graph is

a) spiral b) ellipse c) linear d) parabola

ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0

iii) The graph of , opens upwards if

a a≥0 b) a = 0 c) a < 0 d) a > 0

iv) The expression of the given polynomial is

29
a b c d

v) The zeroes of the polynomial are

a) 1, – 4 b) –1, – 4 c) –1, 4 d) 1, 4

2. A park in Shakti Nagar in Delhi has swings made of rubber and iron chain. Kanishka who is

studying in class X has noticed that this is a Mathematical shape, she has learned in Maths class.

She drew the shape of the swing on her notebook as shown. Following questions raised in her

mind.

i) The shape of the curve is

a) spiral b) ellipse c) linear d) parabola

ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial (shape of the swing)?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0

iii) The zeroes of the polynomial shown above are

a) –1, 5 b) –1, 3 c) 3, 5 d) – 4, 2

iv) The expression of the polynomial is

a b c d

v) The value of the polynomial if x = 1 is

a) –4 b) 5 c) – 5 d) 6

3. The below curve represents a polynomial p(x). The curve meets the x-axis at A and B, and the

y-axis at C. Also OA = 2 units and AB = 4 units. Observe the below diagram and answer the

questions that follow.

30
i) p(x) is a _____ polynomial.

a) linear b) quadratic c) cubic d) biquadratic

ii) Zeros of p(x) are

a) 0 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 2 and 6 d) 0, 2 and 6

iii) The graph of parabola opens upwards, then

a) a > 0 b) a = 0 c) a < 0 d a≤0

iv) p(x) = ________

a b) c) d)

v) The coordinates of C are

a) (12, 0) b) (– 12, 0) c) (0, – 12 ) d) (0, 12)

4. Priya and her husband Aman who is an architect by profession, visited France. They went to

see Mont Blanc Tunnel which is a highway tunnel between France and Italy, under the Mont

Blanc Mountain in the Alps, and has a parabolic cross-section. The mathematical representation

of the tunnel is shown in the graph.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

i) The zeroes of the polynomial whose graph is given, are

a) -2, 8 b) -2, -8 c) 2, 8 d) -2, 0

ii) What will be the expression of the polynomial given in diagram?

a b c d

31
iii) What is the value of the polynomial represented by the graph, when x = 4?

a) 22 b) 23 c) 24 d) 25

iv) If the tunnel is represented by . Then its zeroes are

a) -1, -2 b) 1, -2 c) -1, 2 d) 1, 2

v) If one of the zero is 4 and sum of zeroes is - 3, then representation of tunnel as a polynomial is

a b c d

5. A company is going to make frames as part of a new product they are launching. The frame

will be cut out of a piece of steel as shown in the diagram below.

The inside of the frame has to be 11cm by 6cm and the width of the frame is x cm from each side.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

i) The length of outer rectangle is

a) 11 + x b) 11 + 2x c) 11 – x d) 11 – 2x

ii) The expression for the area of outer rectangle is

a) (11 + 2x)( 6 + 2x) b) (11 – 2x)(6 – 2x)

c) 2[(11 + 2x) + (6 + 2x)] d) none of these

iii) The polynomial formed by the area of the outer rectangle is a

a) constant polynomial b) linear polynomial

c) quadratic polynomial d) cubic polynomial

32
iv) The zeroes of the polynomial formed cuts the x-axis at

a) b) c) d)

v) The graph of the polynomial formed cut the x-axis at

a) 1 point b) 2 points c) 3 points d) will not intersect the x axis

6. The figure given here shows the path of a diver, when she takes a jump from the diving board.

Clearly it is a parabola. Annie was standing on a diving board, 48 feet above the water level. She

took a dive into the pool. Her height in feet above the water level at any time „t‟ in seconds is

given by the polynomial h(t) such that h(t) = – 16t2 + 8t + k.

i) What is the value of k?

a) 0 b) -48 c) 48 d)

ii) At what time will she touch the water in the pool?
a) 30 seconds b) 2 seconds c) 1.5 seconds d) 0.5 seconds

iii Rita‟s height in feet above the water level is given by another polynomial p(t) with
zeroes – 1 and 2. Then p(t) is given by
a) t2 + t – 2 b) t2 + 2t – 1 c) 24t2 – 24t + 48 d) – 24t2 + 24t + 48

iv) A polynomial q(t) with sum of zeroes as 1 and the product as – 6 is modelling nu‟s height in

feet above the water at any time t (in seconds). Then q(t) is given by

a) t2 + t + 6 b) t2 + t – 6 c) – 8t2 + 8t + 48 d) 8t2 – 8t + 48
33
v) The zeroes of the polynomial r(t) = – 12t2 + (k – 3)t + 48 are negative of each other. Then k is

a) 3 b) 0 c) – 1.5 d) – 3

7. One day, due to heavy storm an electric wire got bent as shown in the figure. It followed some

mathematical shape of curve. Answer the following questions below.

i) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial (shape of the wire)

ii) Find the zeroes of the polynomial.

iii) Find the quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are -3 and 4

iv) If one zero of the polynomial x2 – 5x - 6 is 6 then find the other zero

8. Just before the morning assembly a teacher of kindergarten school observes some clouds in the

sky and so she cancels the assembly. She also observes that the cloud has a shape of the

polynomial. The mathematical representation of a cloud is show in the figure.

34
(i) Find the zeroes of the polynomial represented by the graph.

(ii) What will be the expression for the polynomial represented by the graph?

(iii) What will be the value of the polynomial represented by the graph when x = 3?

(iv) If and are the zeroes of the polynomial ( ) , then .

9. A ball is thrown in the air so that t seconds after it is thrown its height h meter above its
starting point is given by the polynomial .

Observe the graph of the polynomial and answer the following questions:

(i) Write zeroes of the given polynomial.

(ii) Find the maximum height achieved by ball.

(iii) After throwing upward, how much time did the ball take to reach to the height of 30m?

(iv) Find the two different values of t when the height of the ball was 20m?

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. If one zero of the polynomial ( ) is reciprocal of the other, find the value

of a.

2. If (x + a) is a factor of the polynomial , find the value of a.

3. If and are the zeros of the polynomial , find the value of .

4. If and are the zeros of the polynomial ( ) , find the value of ( ).

5. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , then find the value

of .
35
6. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , find the value of k

if .

7. Find the value of k such that the polynomial ( ) ( ) has sum of its zeroes

equal to half of their product.

8. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , then find a

quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are and .

9. Find the value of p, for which one root of the quadratic polynomial is 6

times the other.

10. If and are the zeroes of the polynomial ( ) , find the value of k, such

that .

11. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – 3x + p is 3, find the other zero. Also, find the

value of p.
4 3
12. If and are the zeroes of the polynomial ( ) , find the value of +

13. If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = kx2 – 4x + 2k is same as their

product, find the value of k.

14. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = 4x2 – 8kx + 8x – 9 is negative of the other, then

find the zeroes.

15. If –5 is one of the zeroes of 2x2 + px – 15 and the quadratic polynomial p(x2 + x) + k has both

the zeroes equal to each other. Find k.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial √ √ and verify the relationship

between the zeros and the coefficients.

36
2. If and are the roots of the quadratic polynomial , then find the

values of a and b.

3. If and are the zeros of the polynomial ( ) such that , then find

the value of k.

4. If and are the zeros of the polynomial ( ) , find the value of ( ).

5. If and are the zeros of the polynomial ( ) , find the value of ( ).

6. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , then evaluate the

following: i) ii)

7. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , then evaluate the

following: i) ii)

8. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , then find the quadratic

equation whose zeroes are and .

9. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial are double in value to the zeroes of

, find the values of p and q.

10. If p and q are zeroes of the polynomial , show that .

11. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , find a quadratic

polynomial whose zeroes are and .

12. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , find the quadratic

polynomial whose zeroes are and .

13. Find the quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are square of the zeroes of the polynomial

x2 – x – 1.

14. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 – 2x + 3, then form a quadratic

polynomial whose zeroes are + 2 and + 2.

37
15. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 + 4x + 3, form a quadratic

polynomial whose zeroes are and .

16. Find a quadratic polynomial whose sum of the zeroes is 8 and difference of the zeroes is 2.

17. If and are the zeroes of the polynomial ( ) ( ) ( ) such that

then find the value of k.

18. If are the zeroes of the polynomial , then find the value of
( )( ).

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , find a quadratic

equation whose zeroes are and .

2. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) , find a quadratic

polynomial whose zeros are .

3. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) satisfying the

relation then find the value of .

38
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. If 2 and –3 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1)x + b, then the value of a + b is

a) –5 b) 0 c) 6 d) –6

2. If two zeroes of a quadratic polynomial are √ and √ , then the quadratic polynomial

is

a) x2 – 10x – 7 b) x2 – 10x + 6 c) x2 – 10x + 14 d) x2 – 10x + 7

3. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial are

a) both positive b) both negative c) one positive and one negative d) both equal

4. Assertion: If zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = 5x2 – 11x – (k – 3) are reciprocal of each other,

then k = -2

Reason: The product of the zeroes of the polynomial ax2 + bx + c is .

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks

5. Form a quadratic polynomial, one of whose zeroes is √ and sum of zeroes is .

39
6. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ( ) = then find the value

of .

7. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial ( ) is negative of the other,

then find the zeros of .

SECTION C
Each carry 3 marks

8. Show that and are the zeroes of the polynomial and verify the relationship

between zeroes and coefficient of polynomial.

9. If product of the zeroes of the polynomial is , then find the zeroes of the

polynomial ( ) ( ) .

SECTION D
Each carry 5 marks

10. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, show that

( + 1) ( + 1) = 1 – c.

11. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – 5x + 7, then find a quadratic

polynomial whose zeroes are (3 + 4 ) and (4 + 3 ).

SECTION E

12. Mrs.A is a Mathematics Teacher. She knows how important Mathematics assignments are.

These help to review classwork, to include study habits, to learn to use resources etc.

Today she prepared the following assignment on application of relation between the zeroes

and and the coefficient of a quadratic polynomial x2 + x – 6.

i) Find the value of + .

40
ii) Evaluate – (Or) Find the value of .

iii) Find the value of .

41
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. c 1. (d) Assertion (A) is 1. i) d ii) a iii) d 1. 1.

√
1. , -
√
false but reason (R) is iv) a v) c
2. c
√ √ 2. 2. , -
2.
true.
2. i) d ii) a iii) b
3. -1 3. k = 2
3. b) 3.
2. (b) Both assertion
iv) c v) a
4. 7
(A) and reason (R) 4.
4. c)
3. i) b ii) c iii) a
are true but reason 5. -56
5. c) 3 5.
(R) is not the correct iv) a v) d
6. -16
6. b) -m, m + 3 explanation of
4. i) a ii) b iii) c 6. i)
7. 7
assertion (A).
7. d) iv) d v) b
ii)
8. ( )
3. (c) Assertion (A) is
8. c) -3, -2, 0 and 2 5. i) b ii) a iii) c
( ) √
true but reason (R) is 7. i)
9. a) -5 iv) d v) b
false. 9. p = 3
ii)
10. a) -1 6. i) c ii) b iii) d
4. (b)Both assertion

42
11. c) (A) and reason (R) iv) c v) a 10. k = -2 8. ( )

are true but reason

7. i) 3 ii) -2, 0, 2 11. p = -9, other zero 9.
12. b)
(R) is not the correct
iii) is
10. Proof.
13. d) explanation of
iv) -1 11.
assertion (A). 12.
14. a)
8. i) -3.5 & 0.5 12.
5. (a) Both assertion 13. k = 2
15. a) n 13.
(A) and reason (R) ii) x2 + 3x + 1.75
14. and 14.
16. b) are true and reason
iii) 19.75
(R) is the correct 15. .
15.
17. a) Zero of p(x) iv) 272
explanation of
17. k = 7
18. (a) Intersects x- assertion (A). 9. i) 0 and 5

axis 19. b) 1 18. -16

6. (b)Both assertion ii) or

20. a) a > 0 (A) and reason (R)

iii) t = 2
are true but reason
21. (b) 2
iv) t = 1 & 4
(R) is not the correct

43
22. (a) explanation of

assertion (A).
23. (b) 10

24. (c) 15 7. (d)Assertion (A) is

25. (b) false but reason (R) is

true.

8. (a) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R)

are true and reason

(R) is the correct

explanation of

assertion (A).

9. (c)Assertion (A) is

true but reason (R) is

false.

44
 10. (a) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R)

are true and reason

(R) is the correct

explanation of

assertion (A).

11. (d) Assertion (A)

is false but Reason
(R) is true.

UNIT TEST

1. d) –6

2. d) x2 – 10x + 7

3. b) both negative

4. (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

45
5.

6. -5

7. −1 and −2

8. Verification

9. -

10. Proof

11.

12. i) -1 ii) ±5 (Or) 13 iii) -19

46
 CHAPTER 3 – PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES

Key Concepts

Linear Equation in two variables

An equation of the form ax + by + c = 0, where a, b, and c are real numbers such that a and b are

not both zero is called a linear equation in two variables.

Pair of Linear Equations in two variables

Two linear equations in same two variables x and y are called pair of linear equations in two

variables.

General form of Pair of Linear Equations

The general form of pair of linear equations in two variables is a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and

a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 where a1, a2, b1, b2, c1, c2 are real numbers.

Solution

The solution of pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 is the ordered

pair (x, y) which satisfies both the equations.

Consistent or Independent System

A system of simultaneous linear equations is said to be consistent, if it has atleast one solution.

Dependent System

A system which represents a pair of equivalent equations and has an infinite number of solutions

is called as dependent system or consistent with infinite solutions.

Inconsistent System

A system of simultaneous linear equations is said to be inconsistent if it has no solution.

47
 Result

Ratio Graphical Representation Algebraic Interpretation Consistency

𝒂𝟏 𝒃𝟏
 Intersecting Lines Unique Solution Consistent
𝒂𝟐 𝒃𝟐

𝒂𝟏 𝒃𝟏 𝒄𝟏
= = Co-incident Lines Infinitely many solutions Consistent
𝒂𝟐 𝒃𝟐 𝒄𝟐

𝒂𝟏 𝒃𝟏 𝒄𝟏
=  Parallel Lines No solution In-consistent
𝒂𝟐 𝒃𝟐 𝒄𝟐

(i) The graph of x = constant is a line parallel to the y-axis.

(ii) The graph of y = constant is a line parallel to the x-axis.

(iii) The graph of y = ± x is a line passing through the origin.

Algebraic Methods for Solving a Pair of Linear Equations

Substitution Method

Steps used in this method to solve a pair of linear equations are given below.

Step I: Find the value of one variable x (or y) in

terms of other variable i.e., y (or x) form an equation

Step II: Substitute this value of x (or y) in other

equation, then it reduces to a linear equation in one
Substitution Method variable. i.e., in term of y (or x) which can be
sloved easily.

Step III: Substitute the value of y (or x) obtained in

step II in the equation which is used to obtain the
value of other variable in step I.

48
Elimination Method

Steps used in this method to solve a pair of linear equations are given below.

Elimination Method

Step I: Firstly; make the coefficient of one variable (x or y)

numerically equal by multiplying both equations by some
suitable non-zero constant.

Step II: Now, add or subtract both equations, so that one

variable is eliminated and remaining equation has one
variable.

Step III: Solve the equation in one variable to get the value
of this variable (x or y).

Step IV: Substitute this value (x or y) in any one of the given

equations to get the value of other variable.

Relative Speed

Suppose two bodies are moving at a different speed in the same direction.

Let the speed of 1st body be x km/hr and the speed of the 2nd body is y km/hr.

So, their relative speed is = (x – y) km/hr [x > y]

49
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x – 2y = 5 then
a) x = 2, y = 3 b) x = 2, y = -3 c) x = 3, y = 2 d) x = 3, y = -2

2. If x – y = 2 and then

a) x = 4, y = 2 b) x = 5, y = 3 c) x = 6, y = 4 d) x = 7, y = 5

3. If and then
a) x = 1, y = 2 b) x = 2, y = 1 c) x = 3, y = 2 d) x = 2, y = 3

4. The system and has a unique solution only when

a) k = 0 b k≠0 c) k = 3 d k≠3

5. The system and has no solution, when

a) k = 10 b k ≠ 10 c) d) k = -21

6. If the lines given by and are parallel then the value of k is

a) b) c) d)

7. For what values of k do the equations kx – 2y = 3 and 3x + y = 5 represent two lines

intersecting at a unique point?
a) k = 3 b) k = -3 c) k = 6 d) all real values except -6

8. The pair of equations and has

a) a unique solution b) exactly two solutions c) infinitely many solutions d) no solution

9. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, it is being given that ( ), ( ),

( ) and ( ) . Then,

a) b) c) d)

10. If a pair of linear equations is consistent then their graph lines will be

a) parallel b) always coincident c) always intersecting d) intersecting or coincident

11. The graphs of the equations and are two lines which are

a) coincident b) parallel c) intersecting exactly at one point d) perpendicular to each other

50
12. The graphs of the equations and are two lines which are

a) coincident b) parallel c) intersecting exactly at one point d) perpendicular to each other

13. Two lines are given to be parallel. The equation of one of the lines is 3x – 2y = 5. The
equation of the second line can be:
a) 9x + 8y = 7 b) –12x – 8y = 7 c) –12x + 8y = 7 d) 12x + 8y = 7

14. If and then the value of ( ) is

a) b) c) d)

15. The angles of a triangle are x, y and 40°. The difference between the two angles x and y is
30°. The value of 2x + y is
a) 225° b) 230° c) 140° d) 150°

16. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then a ÷ b =

a) 1 b) –2 c) 2 d) 3

17. For what values of a and b does the following pair of equations have an infinite number of

solutions? 2x + 3y = 7; a(x + y) – b (x – y) = 3a + b – 2

a) 3 and 1 b) 5 and 1 c) 4 and 3 d) 5 and –2

18. For what values of p and q the system of equations, 2x + 3y = 7;

(p + q + 1)x + (p + 2q + 2)y = 4 (p + q) + 1 will represent coincident lines ?
a) 1, 5 b) 3, 5 c) 4, 3 d) 3, 2

19. Two numbers are in the ratio 5:6. If 8 is subtracted from each of the numbers, the ratio
becomes 4:5, then the numbers are
a) 25 and 30 b) 40 and 48 c) 30 and 36 d) 45 and 54

20. The length and breadth of a field if its area is 540 m2 and perimeter is 96 m are

a) 36 m and 15 m b) 18 m and 30 m c) 9 m and 60 m d) 25 m and 21.6 m

21. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digits of the number
get reversed. The number is:
a) 45 b) 72 c) 63 d) 36

22. The graph of y = 5 is a line parallel to the

a) x-axis b) y-axis c) both axis d) none of these
51
 23. What type of straight lines will be represented by the system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and
4x + 6y = 7?
a) intersecting b) parallel c) coincident d) none of these

24. The sum of numerator and denominator of a fraction is 12. If the denominator is increased by
3, the fraction becomes . The fraction is

a) b) c) d)

25. Shipra gave a note of 2,000 for a pair of jeans worth 500. She was returned 11 notes in

denominations of 200 and 100. Which pair of equations can be used to find the number of

200 notes, x, and the number of 100 notes y? How many notes of 200 did she get?

a) x + y = 11 and 200x + 100y = 1500; 4 b) x = y + 11 and 200x + 100y = 2000; 4

c) x + y = 15 and 200x + 100y = 1800; 10 d) x + y = 15 and 100x + 200y = 1800; 12

26. In the equations shown below, a and b are unknown constants. 3ax + 4y = −2 2x + by = 14

If (–3, 4) is the solution of the given equations, what are the values of a and b?

a) a = 5, b = 2 b) a = 5, b = –2 c) a = 2, b = 5 d) a = –2, b = 5

27. Which of these linear equations have a unique solution?

a) b) c) d)

28. The sum of two numbers is 1000 and the difference between their squares is 256000, then the
numbers are
a) 616 and 384 b) 628 and 372 c) 564 and 436 d) None of them

29. Two numbers are in the ratio 1:3. If 5 is added to both the numbers, the ratio becomes 1:2.
The numbers are
a) 4 and 12 b) 5 and 15 c) 6 and 18 d) 7 and 21
52
30. The coordinates of the vertices of triangle formed between the lines and y-axis from the graph is

a) (0, 5), (0, 0) and (6.5, 0) b) (4, 2), (6, 0) and (6.5, 0)
c) (4, 2), (0, 0) and (0, 5) d) none of these

31. The pair of equations x = 2a and y = 3b a, b ≠ 0 graphically represents straight lines which
are:
(a) coincident (b) parallel
(c) intersecting at (2a, 3b) (d) intersecting at (3b, 2a)

32. The value of „p‟ for which the pair of linear equations (3p + 5)x + 2y – 7 = 0 and
10x – 2y + 7 = 0 has infinitely many solutions is
(a) -5 (b) 5 (c) (d)

33. If (k, 3) is the point of intersection of the lines represented by x + py = 6 and x = 15, then (k,
p) will be
(a) (15, 3) (b) (15, –3) (c) (3, 15) (d) (–15, 3)

34. In the given figure, graphs of two linear equations are shown. The pair of these linear
equation is
(a) consistent with unique solution
(b) consistent with infinitely many solutions
(c) inconsistent
(d) inconsistent but can be made consistent by extending these lines

53
35. If ax + by = and bx + ay = 0, then value of x + y is
(a) (b) a + b (c) a – b (d)

36. Two lines are given to be parallel. The equation of one of these lines is 5x – 3y = 2. The
equation of the second line can be
(a) -15x – 9y = 5 (b) 15x + 9y = 5 (c) 9x – 15y = 6 (d) -15x + 9y = 5

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: The linear equations x – 2y – 3 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 20 = 0 have exactly one solution.

Reason: The linear equations 2x + 3y – 9 = 0 and 4x + 6y – 18 = 0 have a unique solution.

2. Assertion: If the pair of lines are coincident, then we say that pair of lines is consistent and it

has a unique solution.

Reason: If the pair of lines are parallel, then the pair has no solution and is called inconsistent pair

of equations.

3. Assertion: The graph of the linear equations 3x + 2y = 12 and 5x – 2y = 4 gives a pair of

intersecting lines.
Reason: The graph of linear equations a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 gives a pair of

intersecting lines if .

4. Assertion: The graphic representation of the equations x + 2y = 3 and 2x + 4y + 7 = 0 gives a

pair of coincident lines.

54
Reason: The graph of linear equations a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 gives a pair of

coincident lines if .

5. Assertion: The value of k for which the system of equations 3x + ky = 0, 2x – y = 0 has a

unique solution is .

Reason: The system of linear equations a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 has a unique

solution if .

6. The value of k for which the system of linear equations 3x – 4y = 7 and 6x - 8y = k have

infinite number of solution is 14.

Reason: The system of linear equations a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 has a unique

solution if .

7. Assertion: A pair of linear equations has no solution if it is represented by intersecting lines

graphically.

Reason: If the pair of lines are intersecting, then the pair has unique solution and is called

consistent pair of equations.

8. Assertion: The pair of linear equations 2px + 3y = 7. 2x + y = 6 has exactly one solution for all

real values of p except 5.

Reason: Let a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 be two linear equations and if ,

then the pair of equations represents unique solution.

9. Assertion: The pair of linear equations 5x – 6y = 7 and 7x – 8y = 9 has a unique solution.

Reason: Let a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 be two linear equations and if

, then the pair of linear equations represent parallel lines and they have no solution.

55
10. Assertion: When k = 1, then linear equations 4x – (3k + 2)y = 20 and (11k – 3)x – 10y = 40

have infinitely many solutions.

Reason: a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 have infinitely many solutions if .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. Teachers and students of class X of a school had gone to Nandan Kannan for study tour. After

visiting different places of Nandan Kannan, lastly, they visited bird‟s sanctuary and deer park.

Rohan is a clever boy and keen observer. He put the question to his friends “How many birds are

there and how many deer are there at particular time in Nandan Kannan ” Rahul‟s friend,

Nishitha gave the correct answer as follows:

„Nishitha answered that total animals have 1000 eyes and1400 legs.‟

Based on the above information, answer the following questions

i) If x and y be the number of birds and deer respectively, what is the equation of total number of

eyes?

ii) What is the equation of total number of legs?

iii) How many birds are there in the Zoo?

iv) How many deer are there in the Zoo?

v) Total number of animals (birds and deer)

2. From Rajiv Chowk Metro station, if Charu buys 4 tickets to Karol Bagh and 6 tickets to Hauz

Khas, then total cost is 92, but if she buys 6 tickets to Karol Bagh and 10 tickets to Hauz Khas,

then total cost is 148.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions

i) Write the algebraically the situation 1.

ii) Express the situation 2 algebraically.

iii) Find the fare from Rajiv Chowk to Karol Bagh.

56
iv) Find the fare from Rajiv Chowk to Hauz Khas.

3. Mr. Manoj arranged a lunch partly for some of his friends. The expense of the lunch is partly

constant and partly proportional to the number of guests. The expenses amount to 650 for 7

guests and 970 for 11 guests.

Denote the constant expense by x and proportional expense per person by y and answer the

following questions:

i) Represent both the situations algebraically.

ii) Find the proportional expense for each person.

iii) Write the cost of fixed expenses of party.

iv) If there are 15 guests at the lunch party, then what amount Mr. Manoj has to pay?

4. Mr Pawan Mishra is the owner of a famous amusement park in Hajaribagh in Jharkhand. The

ticket charge for the park is 150 per child and 250 per adult. One day the cashier of the park

found that 300 tickets were sold and 55000 were collected.

Answer the following questions:

i) Let the number of children visited be x and the number of adults visited be y. Which of the

following is the correct system of equations?

ii) How many children visited the amusement park?

iii) How many adults visited the amusement park?

iv) How much amount will be collected if 250 children and 350 adults visit the amusement park?

5. During examination in a school, seats are arranged in rows. If 3 students are extra in a row,

there would be 1 row less. If 3 students are less in a row there would be 2 rows more.

Answer the following questions:

i) If x be the number of students in each row and y be the number of rows, then represent the

above as system of linear equations.

57
ii) Find the total number of rows in the class.

iii) Find the number of students in each row.

iv) What is the total number of students in the class?

6. Sanjeev a student of class X, goes to Yamuna river with his friends. When he saw a boat in the

river, then he wants to sit in boat. So his all friends are ready to sit with him. In this order,

Sanjeev is sitting on a boat which upstream at a speed of 8 km/h and downstream at a speed of 16

km/h. When Sanjeev is in the boat, some questions are arises in the mind, then answer the given

questions.

(i) Find the speed of boat in still water.

(ii) Determine the speed of stream.

(iii) Find the average speed of stream and boat in still water.

7. Akhila went to a fair in her village. She wanted to enjoy rides on the giant wheel and play

hoopla (a game in which you throw a ring on the items kept in a stall and if the ring covers any

object completely you get it). The number of times she played hoopla is half the number of times

she rides the giant wheel. If each ride costs ₹3 and a game of hoopla costs ₹4 and she spent 20 in

the fair.

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) Write the representation of given statement algebraically.

(ii) Find the number of times she played hoopla and rides the giant wheel.

(iii) Find the intersection points of the line 3x + 4y = 20 on x and y-axes.

8. The residents of a housing society at Jaipur decided to build a rectangular garden to beautify

the garden. One of the members of the society made some calculations and informed that if the

length of the rectangular garden is increased by 2m and the breadth reduced by 2 m, the area gets

58
reduced by 12 sq. m. However, when the length is decreased by 1 m and breadth increased by

3m, the area of the rectangular garden is increased by 21 sq. m.

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) Express the above situation algebraically.

(ii) Find the dimensions of that rectangular park.

(iii) Find the value of k for which the system of equations x + y - 4 = 0 and 2x + ky = 3 has no

solution.

9. Gagan went to a fare. He ate several rural delicacies such as jalebis, chaat etc. He also wanted

to play the ring game in which a ring is thrown on the items displayed on the table and the

balloon shooting game. The cost of three balloon shooting games exceeds the cost of four ring

games by 4. Also, the total cost of three balloon shooting games and four ring games is 20. Based

on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) Taking the cost of one ring game to be x and that of one balloon game as y, find the pair of

linear equations describing the given statement.

(ii) Find the cost of one ring game and one balloon game.

(iii) Find the total cost of five ring games and eight balloon games.

(iv) Cost of which game is more and by how much?

10. Points A and B representing Chandigarh and Kurukshetra respectively are lamost 90km apart

from each other on the highway. A car starts from Chandigarh and another from Kurukshetra at

the same time. If these cars go in the same direction, they meet in 9 hours and if these cars go in

opposite direction the meet in hours. Let X and Y be two cars starting from points A and B

respectively and their speeds be x km/hr and y km/hr respectively.

Based on the above information, answer the following:

(i) When both cars move in the same direction, then represent the situation algebraically.
59
(ii) When both cars move in the opposite direction, then represent the situation algebraically.

(iii) Find the speed of the cars X and Y.

11. Mr.Manoj Jindal arranged a lunch party for some of his friends, The expense of the lunch are

partly constant and partly proportional to the number of guests. The expenses amount to ₹ 650 for

7 guests and ₹ 970 for 11 guests.

Denote the constant expense by ₹ x and proportional expense per person by ₹ y. Based on the

information, answer the following questions:

(i) Represent the above situations algebraically.

(ii) Find the proportional expense for each person.

(iii) Determine the constant expense for the party.

(iv) If there would be 15 guests at the lunch party, then what amount Mr.Jindal has to pay?

12. Two schools „P‟ and „Q‟ decided to award prizes to their students for two games of Hockey

Rs. x per students and Cricket Rs. y per student. School „P‟ decided to award a total of Rs. 9500

for the two games to 5 and 4 students respectively; while school „Q‟ decided to award Rs. 7,370

for the two games to 4 and 3 students respectively.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Represent the following information algebraically (in terms of x and y).

(ii) What is the prize amount for hockey?

(iii) Prize amount on which game is more and by how much?

(iv) What will be the total prize amount if there are 2 students each from two games?

13. A coaching institute of Mathematics conducts classes in two batches I and II and fees for rich

and poor children are different. In batch I, there are 20 poor and 5 rich children, whereas in batch

II, there are 5 poor and 25 rich children. The total monthly collection of fees from batch I is

60
Rs.9000 and from batch II is Rs. 26,000. Assume that each poor child pays x per month and each

rich child pays y per month.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Represent the information given above in terms of x and y.

(ii) Find the monthly fee paid by a poor child.

(iii) If there are 10 poor and 20 rich children in batch II, what is the total monthly collection of

fees from batch II?

(iv) Find the difference in the monthly fee paid by a poor child and a rich child.

14. Essel world is one of India‟s largest amusement parks that offeres a diverse range of thrilling

rides, water attractions and entertainment options for visitors of all ages. The park is known for

its iconic “Water Kingdom” section, making it a popular destination for family outings and fun-

filled adventure. The ticket charges for the park are ₹ per child and ₹ per adult.

On a day, the cashier of the park found that 300 tickets were sold and an amount of ₹ was

collected.

Based on the above, answer the following questions:

(i) If the number of children visited be x and the number of adults visited be y, then write the

given situation algebraically.

(ii) How many children visited the amusement park that day?

(iii) How many adults visited the amusement park that day?

(iv) How much amount will be collected if 250 children and 100 adults visit the amusement park?

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. If and , find the values of and .

2. Solve for x and y by using the method of substitution. 43x + 67y = –24; 67x + 43y = 24.

61
3. Find the solution of the pair of equations: and . Hence find α if

y = α x + 1.
4. The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 3 less than twice the denominator.

If the numerator and denominator are decreased by 1, the numerator becomes half the

denominator. Determine the fraction.

5. The taxi charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge together with the charge of the distance

covered. For a journey of 10 km the charge paid is ₹ 75 and for a journey of 15 km the charge

paid is ₹ 110. What will a person have to pay for travelling 25 km?

6. Five years ago, a man was thrice as old as his son and ten years later he will be twice as old as

his son. Find the present ages of the man and his son.

7. If twice the son‟s age in years is added to father‟s age, the sum is 70. But, if twice the father‟s

age is added to the son‟s age, the sum is 95. Find the ages of father and son.

8. Find c if the system of equations cx + 3y + (3 – c) = 0; 12x + cy – c = 0 has infinitely many

solutions?
9. For what value of k, the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many solutions:

2x + 3y = 7 and (k + 1)x + (2k – 1)y = 4k + 1.

10. For what value of k, will the following pair of equations have infinitely many solutions:

2x + 3y = 7 and (k + 2)x – 3(1 – k)y = 5k +1.

11. The angles of a triangle are x, y and 40o. The difference between two angles x and y is 30o.

Find x and y.

12. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:4. If 6 is added to each number, the ratio becomes 7:8. Find

the numbers.

13. A fraction becomes if 2 is added to both numerator and denominator. However, if 4 is

subtracted from both numerator and denominator, then fraction becomes . Find the fraction.

62
14. Two years ago, Shiva was thrice as old as his daughter and six years later, he will be four

years older than twice her age. How old are they now?

15. The sum of two numbers is 8. If their sum is four times their difference, find the numbers.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Draw the graph of each of the following equations: 2y – x = 8 and 5y – x = 14 and y – 2x = 1

From the graph, read the vertices of the triangle obtained.

2. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically: 3x + y – 11 = 0 and x – y – 1 = 0

Shade the region bounded by these lines and y-axis. Also, find the area of the region bounded by

these lines and y-axis. Also find the vertices.

3. Draw the graphs of the equations: 4x – y – 8 = 0 and 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 Also, determine the

vertices of the triangle formed by the lines and the x-axis. Also, find the area of the triangle.

4. Solve for and . Use method of Elimination.

5. Solve for and ( ) .

6. Solve for and ( ) ( ) ( )( ) .

7. A fraction is such that if the numerator is multiplied by 3 and the denominator is reduced by 3,

we get . But if the numerator is increased by 8 and the denominator is doubled, we get, . Find

the fraction.

8. Seven times a given two-digit number is equal to four times the number obtained by

interchanging the digits and the difference of the digits is 3. Find the number.

9. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 12. The number obtained by reversing the order

of the digits of the given number exceeds the given number by 18. Find the two-digit number.

10. Five times the age of a man is twelve times the age of his son. 5 years ago, the ratio of their

ages was 11:4. Find their present ages.

63
11. If in a rectangle, the length is increased and breadth is reduced each by 2 m, the area is

reduced by 28 sq. m. If, however, the length is reduced by 1 m and breadth increased by 2 m, the

area increases by 33 sq. m. Find the area of the rectangle.

12. The area of a rectangle remains the same if the length is increased by 7 metres and the breadth

is decreased by 3 metres. The area remains unaffected if the length is decreased by 7 metres and

breadth is increased by 5 metres. Find the dimensions of the rectangle.

13. Find the values of a and b for which the following pair of linear equations have an infinite
number of solutions: ( ) ( ) .

14. Find the values of m and n for which the following system of linear equations has infinitely
many solutions: ,( ) ( ) ( ).

15. Find the value of k for which the pair of linear equations
( ) ( ) ( ) has no solutions.

16. The sum of the digits of a 2-digit number is 12. Seven times the number is equal to four times

the number obtained by reversing the order of the digits. Find the number.

17. Find the values of x and y from the following pair of linear equations: 62x + 43y = 167,

43x + 62y = 148.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. On selling a TV at 5% gain and a fridge at 10% gain, a shopkeeper gains ₹ 3250. But, if he

sells the TV at 10% gain and the fridge at 5% loss, he gains ₹ 1500. Find the actual cost price of

TV and that of the fridge.

2. A man invested an amount at 12% per annum simple interest and another amount at 10% per

annum simple interest. He received an annual interest of ₹2600. But, if he had interchanged the

amounts invested, he would have received ₹140 less. What amounts did he invest at the different

rates?

64
3. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train had been 6 kmph faster, it

would have taken 4 hours less than the scheduled time. And, if the train were slower by 6 kmph,

it would have taken 6 hours more than the scheduled time. Find the length of the journey.

4. A man can row downstream 20 km in 2 hours, and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. Find his speed of

rowing in still water. Also, find the speed of the current.

5. A man invested an amount at 10% per annum and another amount at 8% per annum simple

interest. Thus, he received ₹1350 as annual interest. Had he interchanged the amounts invested,

he would have received ₹45 less as interest. What amounts did he invest at different rates?

6. Ten years ago, the age of the father was four times that of his son. Five years ago, the age of

the father was three times the age of his son. Find their present ages.

7. Two years ago, a father was five times as old as his son. Two years later, his age will 8 more

than three times the age of the son. Find the present ages of father and son.

8. A railway fare for half-ticket costs half of the full fare but reservation charges are the same on

a half ticket as on a full ticket. Priya reserved first class full ticket from station A to station B

costing ₹2300. Her friend Jatin reserved first class full ticket and first-class half ticket from

station A to station B cost ₹3500. Find the fare of full ticket and reservation charges.

9. Vijay had some bananas and he divided them into two lots A and B. He sold the first lot at the

rate of ₹2 for 3 bananas and the second lot at the rate of ₹1 per banana and got total of ₹400. If he

had sold the first lot at the rate of ₹1 per banana and the second lot at the rate of ₹4 for 5 bananas,

his total collection would have been ₹460. Find the total number bananas he had.

10. If three times the greater of two numbers is divided by the smaller one, we get 4 as the

quotient and 3 as the remainder. Also, if seven times the smaller number is divided by greater

one, we get 5 as the quotient and 1 as the remainder. Find the numbers.

65
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines will be:

a) parallel b) always coincident c) intersecting or coincident d) always intersecting

2. The values of and in and are

a) b) c) d)

3. Two numbers are in the ratio 5:6. If 8 is subtracted from each of the numbers, the ratio

becomes 4:5, then the numbers are

a) 25 and 30 b) 40 and 48 c) 30 and 36 d) 45 and 54

4. Assertion: Mukesh has some goats and hens in his shed. Upon counting, Mukesh found that the

total number of legs is 112 and the total number of heads is 40. Then the number of hens in shed

are 34.

Reason: The linear equations used in assertion are 4x + 2y = 112 and x + y = 40.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. There are 10 paise and 25 paise coins in a purse. If there are 60 coins whose value is ₹8.25,

find the number of coins of each kind.

66
6. Solve: 99x + 101y = 499; 101x + 99y = 501. Use method of Elimination.

7. Find the value of k for which the system of equations 3x + y = 1, (2k – 1)x + (k – 1)y = (2k + 1)

has no solution (inconsistent).

SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator

and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator.

Determine the fraction.

9. A two-digit number is obtained by either multiplying the sum of its digits by 8 and adding 1 or

by multiplying the difference of digits by 13 and adding 2. Find the number. How many such

numbers exist?

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have been 10 km/h

faster, it would have taken 2 hours less than the schedule time. And, if the train were slower by

10 km/hr, it would have taken 3 hours more than the schedule time. Find the distance covered by

the train.

11. Five times the age of a man is twelve times the age of his son. 5 years ago, the ratio of their

ages was 11:4. Find their present ages.

SECTION E

12. One day Mahima visited a shopping mall with her mother. There, she observed different

stores, such as Shoe store, Clothes store, Fruit store etc.

67
 Price List of Shoe Store Price List of Cloth Store Price List of Fruit Store
Types of Shoes Price (₹) Types of Clothes Price (₹) Fruits Price (₹)
Casual 500 T-Shirt 300 Apple 70 per kg
Formal 350 Trouser 600 Orange 40 per kg
Sports 750 Blazer 2000 Guava 30 per kg

i) Mahima's mother purchased x trousers and y kg oranges for ₹1400. She also purchased x pairs

of sport shoes and y kg apple for ₹1850. Write the equations relates x and y? [1 mark]

(Or)

Mahima bought a Blazer and gave eleven notes in denominations of ₹200 and ₹100. Which

pair of equations can be used to find the number of ₹200 notes as x and the number of ₹100

notes as y? [1 mark]

ii) Mahima's mother bought 5 kg fruit in which there are oranges and guavas. She paid ₹160.

Find the weight of oranges and guavas. [2 marks]

iii) Write the condition of linear equations and has

unique solution. [1 mark]

68
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. c) x = 3, y = 2 1. (c) Assertion (A) is 1. i) x + y = 500 1. 1. A(2, 5), B(–4, 2) 1.₹ and

true but reason (R) is ii) x + 2y = 700 and C(1, 3). ₹

2. c) x = 6, y = 4
2. x = 1, y = –1
false. iii) 300 iv) 200 v)
2. Area = 18 sq. units 2. and
3. a) x = 1, y = 2
500 3.
2. (d) Assertion (A) is and vertices of the
3. 720km
4. d k ≠ 3
false but reason (R) is 2. i) triangle are P(0, 11),
4.
4. &
5. a) k = 10 true. ii) R (0, –1) and Q(3, 2).
5. ₹
iii) ₹ iv) ₹ 5. ₹
6. d) 3. (a) Both assertion 3. Area = 10 sq. units
6. 50 years and 20
(A) and reason (R) 3.i) 6. 50 years & 20 years
4. x = 7 and y = 13
7. d) all real values years
are true and reason
except -6 7. 42 years & 10 years
5. x = -a and y = b
(R) is the correct 7. 40 years, 15 years
8. d) no solution ii) ₹ iii) ₹ 8. ₹2200 & ₹ 100
explanation of 6. .
8. c = 6
assertion (A). iv) ₹
9. b) 9. 500
9. k = 5 7.
4. (d) Assertion (A) is 4. i) x + y = 300;
10. d) intersecting or

69
coincident false but reason (R) is 3x + 5y = 1100 10. k = 4 8. 36 10. 18 and 25

true. ii) 200 iii)10

11. b) parallel 11. 85o & 55o 9. 57
iv)
5. (a) Both assertion
12. a) coincident 12. 18 and 24 10. 60 years, 25 years
(A) and reason (R) 5. i) –x + 3y = 3
13. c) –12x + 8y = 7 13. 11. 253 sq. m.
are true and reason 2x – 3y = 6

14. c) (R) is the correct 12. 28 m, 15 m

ii) 4 iii) 9 iv) 36 14. 38 years & 14 years
explanation of
15. a) 225° 13. and
6. i) 12 15. 5 & 3
assertion (A).
16. d) 3 ii) 4 14. and
6. (c) Assertion (A) is
17. b) 5 and 1 iii) 8 15. k = -1
true but reason (R) is
7. i) x - 2y = 0 &
18. d) 3, 2 false. 16. 48
3x + 4y = 20
19. b) 40 and 48 7. (d) Assertion (A) is 17. x = 2 and y = 1
ii) 4 & 3
false but reason (R) is
20. (b) 18 m and 30
true. iii) ( ) and ( )
m

8. i) x – y = 4,
70
21. b) 72 8. (d) Assertion (A) is 3x – y = 24

false but reason (R) is ii) 10m, 6m

22. a) x-axis
true. iii) k = 2
23. b) parallel
9. (b) Both Assertion
24. c) (A) and Reason (R) 9. i) 4x - 3y = -4 & 4x

are true but Reason + 3y = 20

25. a) x + y = 11 and
(R) is not the correct
200x + 100y = 1500; ii) (2, 4)
explanation of
4 26. c) a = 2, b = 5 iii) 42
Assertion (A).
27. b) iv) (2)
10. (a) Both assertion
28. b) 628 and 372 10. i) x – y = 10
(A) and reason (R)

29. b) 5 and 15 are true and reason ii) x + y = 70

(R) is the correct iii) 40km.hr &

30. c) (4, 2), (0, 0)
explanation of 30km/hr
and (0, 5)
assertion (A). 11. i) x + 7y = 650 &
31. (c) intersecting at
71
(2a, 3b) x + 11y = 970

32. (a) -5 ii) ₹80

33. (b) (15, –3) iii) (₹90)

34. (d) inconsistent iv) ₹1290

but can be made
consistent by 12. i) 5x + 4y = 9500

extending these lines & 4x + 3y = 7370

35. (c) a – b ii) ₹980

36. (d) -15x + 9y = 5 iii) Cricket, 170

iv) ₹4260)

13. i) 20x + 5y = 9000

& 5x + 25y = 26000
ii) ₹200

iii) ₹2200

iv) ₹800

14. i)

72
 ii)

iii)

iv)₹

UNIT TEST

1. c) intersecting or coincident

2. b)

3. b) 40 and 48

4. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true

5. Number of 10 paise coins is 45 and number of 25 paise coins is 15.

6. x = 3; y = 2.

7. k = 2

8.

9. 41
73
10. 600 km.

11. 60 years, 25 years

12. i) 600x + 40y = 1400 and 750x + 70y = 1850 (Or) x + y = 11 and 200x + 100y = 2000 ii) 1 kg and 4 kg iii) b

74
 CHAPTER 4 – QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

Key Concepts

Quadratic Equation

A quadratic equation in the variable x is of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real

numbers and a  0.

Roots of Quadratic Equation

real number α is said to be a solution/root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0

if aα2 + bα + c = 0.

Methods to find roots of Quadratic Equation

 If ax2 + bx + c = 0 can be reduced to the product of two linear factors, then the root of the

quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 can be found by equating each factor to zero.

 Roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 can be obtained by using the formula:

√
x=

Nature of Roots

For the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a  0 expression D = b2 – 4ac is discriminant.

(a) If b2 – 4ac > 0, the quadratic equation has two distinct real roots

(b) If b2 – 4ac = 0, the quadratic equation has two real and equal roots

(c) If b2 – 4ac < 0, the quadratic equation has no real roots.

Results

For quadratic equation, ax2 + bx + c = 0, a  0

𝑐
o If a + b + c = 0 then roots of the quadratic equation are 1 and .
𝑎

𝑐
o If a + c = b or a – b + c = 0 the roots of the quadratic equation are -1 and -
𝑎

75
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Value of for which the quadratic equation , has equal roots is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 0, 8

2. If is a root of the equation , then the value of is:

a) 2 b) –2 c) d)

3. The quadratic equation √ has

a) Two distinct real roots b) Two equal real roots

c) No real roots d) More than 2 real roots

4. If the sum of a number and its reciprocal is , then, the number is

a) b) 3 c) 4 d) 10

5. If where then

a) 1, 2 b) –1, –2 c) 1, –2 d) 2, –3

6. Two numbers differ by 4 and their product is 192. The numbers are:

a) 12 and 16 b) 10 and 6 c) 20 and 24 d) 18 and 14

7. Roots of the equation √( ) are

a) 3, 1 b) 4, 1 c) 3, 2 d) 2, 3

8. The ratio of the sum and product of the roots of the equation is

a) 7:12 b) 7:18 c) 3:2 d) 2:3

9. If the sum of the roots of the equation is equal to product of the roots then

the value of k is

a) b) c) d)

10. If the equation ( ) has equal roots then

a) 1 or 4 b) –1 or 4 c) 1 or – 4 d) –1 or – 4

11. If the equation has no real roots then

a) b) c) d) none of these
76
12. For what values of , the equation has real roots

a) b) c) d) none of these

13. The roots of equation are:

a) 4, 6 b) 4, 4 c) 4, 5 d) 2, 8

14. If then the value of are:

a) –6 and –2 b) +6 and –2 c) –6 and 2 d) 6 and 2

15. Product of the age of a child five years ago with his age nine years after is 15. His present

age is:

a) 4 years b) 6 years c) 5 years d) none of these

16. If has two roots and , the value of is:

a) –1 b) 1 c) 2 d) –2

17. If the roots of are real and distinct then

a) √ √ b) √ only c) √ only d) either √ or √

18. The perimeter of a rectangle is 82 m and its area is 400 m2. The breadth of the rectangle is

a) 25 m b) 20 m c) 16 m d) 9 m

19. The length of a rectangular fi eld exceeds its breadth by 8 m and the area of the field is 240

m2. The breadth of the field is

a) 20 m b) 30 m c) 12 m d) 16 m

20. The roots of the equation are

a) real, unequal and rational b) real, unequal and irrational c) real and equal d) imaginary

21. Roots of the quadratic equation √ are

a) √ √ b) √ √ c) √ √ d) √ √

77
22. If , where , then

a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 3, 5

23. If the sum of the squares of two consecutive natural numbers is 421, then the numbers are:

a) 14 and –15 b) 14 and 15 c) 13 and 15 d) –13 and –15

24. Roots of the quadratic equation √ are

√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
a) b) c) d)

25. If x = 1 is a common root of the equations ax2 + ax + 3 = 0 and x2 + x + b = 0, then the value

of a ÷ b =

a) b) c) d)

26. If sinα and cosα are the roots of the equation then

(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. If x = 5 is a solution of the quadratic equation ( ) , then the value of k

is

(a) 11 (b) -11 (c) 13 (d) -13

28. If the roots of equation are real and equal, then which of the
following relation is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

29. If the discriminant of the quadratic equation is 16, then the value of c is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) √

30. The ratio of the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation is

(a) 5:21 (b) 2:7 (c) 21:5 (d) 7:2

78
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: If one root of the quadratic equation 6x2 – x – k = 0 is , then the value of k is 2.

Reason: The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 has almost two roots.

2. Assertion: (2x – 1)2 – 4x2 + 5 = 0 is not a quadratic equation.

Reason: An equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, where a, b, c ∈ R is called a quadratic

equation.

3. Assertion: The roots of the quadratic equation x2 + 2x + 2 = 0 are imaginary

Reason: If discriminant D = b2 – 4ac < 0 then the roots of quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are

imaginary.

4. Assertion: 3x2 – 6x + 3 = 0 has repeated roots.

Reason: The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 have repeated roots if discriminant D > 0.

5. Assertion: The values of x are , a for a quadratic equation .

√
Reason: For quadratic equation , .

6. Assertion: The equation has equal roots then the value of k is .

Reason: The equation has equal roots if D = 0.

79
7. Assertion: Sum and product of roots of are and respectively.

Reason: If and are the roots of , then sum of roots and

product of roots = .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. Kavita and her mother Bhawna went for a small picnic. After having their morning breakfast,

Kavita insisted to travel in a motorboat. The speed of the motorboat was 18 km/hr in still water.

Kavita, being a Mathematics student wanted to know the speed of current. So, she noted the time

for upstream and downstream. She found that for covering the distance of 24 km, the boat took 1

hour more for upstream than downstream.

Answer the following questions:

i) Let the speed of stream be x km/hr, then speed of the motorboat upstream be

a) 18 km/hr b) (18 + x) km/hr c) (18 – x) km/hr d)

ii) What is the relation between speed, distance and time?

a) distance = speed × time b) distance = speed ÷ time

c) distance = speed – time d) none of these

iii) Which is the correct quadratic equations for the given condition?

a) x2 + 48x – 324 = 0 b) x2 – 48x – 324 = 0 c) –x2 + 48x – 324 = 0 d) x2 + 48x + 324 = 0

iv) What is the speed of the stream?

a) 8 km/h b) 6 km/h c) 4 km/h d) 9 km/h

v) How much time did the motorboat take going downstream?

a) 60 minutes b) 120 minutes c) 180 minutes d) none of these

2. Nikasha and Kanishka are very close friends. Nikasha owns a Honda City and Kanishka owns

Tyota Corolla. They go for a picnic by their cars. Kanishka‟s car travels at x km/hr while

80
Nikasha‟s car travels at 5 km/hr more than Nikasha‟s car. Nikasha‟s car takes 1 hour less than

Kanishka‟s car in covering 360 km. nswer the following questions:

i What will be the distance covered by Nikasha‟s car in 5 hours

a) 5(x + 5) km b) 2(x + 5) km c) (2x + 5) km d) 3x + 10 km

ii) Which of the following quadratic equation describe the condition?

a) x2 + 5x – 1500 = 0 b) x2 + 5x – 1800 = 0 c) x2 + 10x – 1500 = 0 d) 2x2 + 5x – 1500 = 0

iii What is the speed of the Nikasha‟s car

a) 45 km/h b) 50 km/h c) 40 km/h d) 35 km/h

iv) How much time did Nikasha take to cover 360 km?

a) 9 hrs b) 10 hrs c) 8 hrs d) 7 hrs

v) How much time did Kanishka take to travel 360 km?

a) 7 hours b) 8 hours c) 10 hours d) 6 hours

3. There is a triangular playground as shown in the below figure. Many children and people are

playing and walking in the ground.

As we see in the above figure of right angled triangle playground, the of the sides are 5x cm and

(3x – 1) cm and the area of the triangle is 60 sq.cm.

Answer the following questions

i) Find the value of x.

ii) Find the length of AB and BC.

iii) Find the length of the side AC

iv) Calculate the perimeter of the triangle

81
4. The two gears in the figure resemble two circles which touch each other externally. The sum of

their areas is 130π sq.cm and distance between their centres is 14cm.

i) Taking the radius of one circle to be x cm, represent the quadratic equation for the situation.

ii) Find the radii of the two circle.

iii) Find the roots of the quadratic equation .

iv) Find the value of p which the quadratic equation x(x – 4) + p = 0 has real and distinct roots.

5. The speed of a motorboat is 20km/hr. For covering the distance of 15km the boat took 1 hour

more for upstream than downstream.

Answer the following questions

i) If the speed of the stream is x km/hr, then what is the speed of the motorboat in upstream?

ii) If the speed of the stream is x km/hr, then what is the speed of the motorboat in downstream?

iii) Find the speed of the current.

iv) Find the time taken by the motorboat to cover 15km upstream.

6. Raj and Ajay are very close friends. Both the families decide to go to Ranikhet by their own

cars. Raj‟s car travels at a speed of x km/h while jay‟s car travels 5 km/h faster than Raj‟s car.

Raj took 4 hours more than Ajay to complete the journey of 400 km.

i What will be the distance covered by jay‟s car in two hours

ii What is the speed of Raj‟s car

iii) How much time took Ajay to travel 400 km?

82
7. John and Jivanti are playing with marbles. They mixed up their marbles without knowing, how

many marbles they had before mixing. But now they have 45 marbles altogether. While playing

they lost 10 marbles. Since they are not knowing the number of marbles they had in the

beginning, so they agreed that both of them lost 5 marbles each, and the product of the number of

marbles they now have is 124. Now they want to know the number of marbles each one brought

to play. Help them.

i If John had „x‟ marbles then write the expression for number of marbles Jivanti had.

(ii) Represent the above information in the form of a quadratic equation.

(iii) Find the no. of marbles with John by solving a quadratic equation.

8. Noida authority decided to make a park for the people, so that the persons make them

physically fit and take a fresh air. A grassy park is in the form of rectangle having length 20 m

and breadth 14 m. At the centre of the park, there is a rectangular pool, which is at a distance of

equal width around it, there is a path having an area of 120 m2.

Based on the given information, solve the following questions:

(i) If the centre pool is at x metre distance from around the park, then write the length and breadth

of the pool (in metre).

(ii) If the area of path is 120 m2, then express the quadratic equation in terms of x.

(iii) Determine the nature of the roots of the equation obtained above.

(iv) Find the width of the pool.

9. In cricket match of world cup 2016, Ashwin took 2 wickets less than twice the number of

wickets taken by Ishant. The product of the numbers of wickets taken by these two is 24.

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) If Ishant took x wickets in the world cup, then find the wickets taken by Ashwin.

(ii) Represent the above situation in form of quadratic equation.

83
(iii) Discuss the nature of the roots of the above obtained quadratic equation.

(iv) Find the number of wicket taken by Ashwin.

10. In the picture given below, one can see a rectangular in-ground swimming pool installed by a

family in their backyard. There is a concrete sidewalk around the pool of width x m. The outside

edges of the sidewalk measure 7 m and 12 m. The area of the pool is 36 sq. m.

Based on the given information, solve the following questions:

(i) Write the representation of the length and breadth of the pool algebraically

(ii) Form a quadratic equation in terms of x.

(iii) Find the length and width of the sidewalk around the pool.

11. A rectangular floor area can be completely tiled with 200 square tiles. If the side length of

each tile is increased by 1 unit, it would take only 128 tiles to cover the floor.

(i) Assuming the original length of each side of a tile be x units, make a quadratic equation from

the above information.

(ii) Write the corresponding quadratic equation in standard form.

(iii) Find the value of x, the length of side of a tile by factorization.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. Solve for √ √ √ .

2. Solve for (√ ) √ .

84
3. Solve for ( ) .

4. Solve: ( ) .

5. Solve: √

6. Solve: ( ) ( ) .

7. If the roots of the quadratic equation ( ) ( ) ( ) are equal prove

that 2a = b + c.

8. If the equation ( ) ( ) has equal roots, prove that ( )

9. The sum of the squares of two consecutive odd numbers is 394. Find the numbers.

10. A two-digit number is four times the sum of the digits. It is also equal to 3 times the product

of digits. Find the number.

11. The altitude of a right-angled triangle is 8 more than its base. If the hypotenuse is 40cm, then

find the length of the base.

12. Divide 12 into two parts such that the sum of the squares is 74.

13. Find the value of c for which the quadratic equation 4x2 – 2(c + 1)x + (c + 4) = 0 has equal

roots.

14. If and are roots of the equation , prove that .

15. Find the value of k for which the quadratic equation (k + 1)x2 – 6 k + 1 x + 3 k + 9 = 0, k ≠ -1

has equal roots.

16. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorization method: .

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Find the roots of the quadratic equation: .

2. Solve for .

3. Solve for .

85
4. Solve for x: ( ) ( ) .

5. Solve for ( ) ( ) .

6. Solve for * +
( )( )

7.
( )

8. ( ) ( )

9. A two-digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18. When 63 is subtracted from the

number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.

10. The age of a man is twice the square of the age of his son. Eight years hence, the age of the

man will be 4 years more than three times the age of his son. Find their present ages.

11. The diagonal of a rectangular fi eld is 16 m more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 14

m more than the shorter side then find the lengths of the sides of the field.

12. A two-digit number is 4 times the sum of its digits and twice the product of its digits. Find the

number.

13. In a class test Raveena got a total of 30 marks in English and Mathematics. Had she got 2

more marks in Mathematics and 3 marks less in English then the product of her marks obtained

would have been 210. Find the individual marks obtained in two subjects.

14. The denominator of a fraction is one more than twice its numerator. If the sum of the fraction

and its reciprocal is , find the fraction.

15. Three consecutive natural numbers are such that the square of the middle number exceeds the

difference of the squares of the other two by 60. Find the numbers.

16. In a two-digit number, the digit at the unit‟s place is 5 less than the digit at the ten‟s place.

The product of the digits is 36. Find the number.

86
17. Find the value of c for which the quadratic equation ( ) ( ) ( )

has real and equal roots.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A train travels a distance of 90 km at a constant speed. Had the speed been 15 km/hr more, it

would have taken 30 minutes less for the journey. Find the original speed of the train.

2. An aeroplane left 30 minutes later than its scheduled time and in order to reach its destination

1500 km away in time, it had to increase its speed by 250 km/h from its usual speed. Determine

its usual speed.

3. A boat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream, than to

return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.

4. A takes 6 days less than the time taken by B to finish a piece of work. If both A and B together

can finish it in 4 days, find the time taken by B to finish the work.

5. Two pipes running together can fill a cistern in minutes. If one pipe takes 3 minutes more

than the other to fill it, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.

6. In a flight of 2800 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed is

reduced by 100 km/hr and time of flight increased by 30 minutes. Find the original duration of

the flight.

7. A motorboat whose speed in still water is 24 km/hr, takes 1 hour more to go 32 km upstream

than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.

8. In a rectangular part of dimensions 50 m × 40 m a rectangular pond is constructed so that the

area of grass strip of uniform breadth surrounding the pond would be 1184 m2. Find the length

and breadth of the pond.

87
9. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels at a distance

of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to

complete the total journey, what is the original average speed?

10. The total cost of a certain length of a piece of cloth is 200. If the piece was 5 m longer and

each metre of cloth costs 2 less, the cost of the piece would have remained unchanged. How

long is the piece and what is its original rate per metre?

11. A takes 10 days less than the time taken by B to finish a piece of work. If both A and B

together can finish the work in 12 days, find the time taken by B to finish the work.

12. One pipe can fill a cistern in (x + 2) hours and the other pipe can fill the same cistern in

(x + 7) hours. If both the pipes when opened together take 6 hours to fill the empty cistern, find

the value of x.

13. The time taken by a person to cover 150 km was 2 hrs more than the time taken in the return

journey. If he returned at a speed of 10 km/hr more than the speed of going, what was the speed

per hour in each direction?

14. If a boy‟s age and his father‟s age amount together to 24 years. Fourth part of the product of

their ages exceeds the boy‟s age by 9 years. Find how old they are.

15. A two-digit number is 5 times the sum of its digits and is also equal to 5 more than twice the

product of its digits. Find the number.

16. If Nidhi were 7 years younger than what she actually is, then the square of her age (in years)

would be 1 more than 5 times her actual age. What is her present age?

88
17. A shopkeeper buys a number of books for ₹ 1,800. If he had bought 15 more books for the

same amount, then each book would have cost him ₹ 20 less. Find how many books he bought

initially.

18. In a flight of 2800km an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed is

reduced by 100km/h and by doing so the time of flight is increased by 30 minutes. Find the

original duration of the flight.

19. The denominator of a fraction is one more than twice the numerator. If the sum of the fraction

and its reciprocal is . Find the fraction.

20. Find the value of k for which the quadratic equation ( ) ( ) ( )

has real and equal roots.

21. The age of a man is twice the square of the age of his son. Eight years hence, the age of the

man will be 4 years more than three times the age of his son. Find their present ages.

89
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30
SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. Roots of the quadratic equation ( ) are

a) b) c) d)

2. Roots of the equation (x – 1)2 – 5(x – 1) – 6 = 0 are:

a) (7, 0) b) (6, 0) c) (7, 6) d) (6, –7)

3. If ( where ), then

a) b) c) d)

4. Assertion: 4x2 – 12x + 9 = 0 has repeated roots.

Reason: The quadratic equation ax2+ bx + c = 0 have repeated roots if discriminant D > 0.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. Find the value of k for which the given quadratic equation has real and equal roots
x2 + k(4x + k – 1) + 2 = 0.

6. Divide 16 into two parts such that twice the square of the larger part exceeds the square of the
smaller part by 164.

7. Solve: ( √ ) √ .
90
SECTION C
Each carry 3 marks

8. Solve for x: ( )

9. The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is five times the length of its shortest side. The

numerical value of the area of the triangle is 15 times the numerical value of the length of the

shortest side. Find the length of the three sides of the triangle.

SECTION D
Each carry 5 marks

10. Some students arranged a picnic. The budget for food was 240. Because four students of the

group failed to go, the cost of food to each student got increased by 5. How many students went

for the picnic?

11. Seven years ago, Varun's age was five times the square of Swati's age. Three years hence

Swati's age will be two fifths of Varun's age. Find their present ages.

SECTION E

12. Raghav has a field with total area 1260m2. He uses it to grow wheat and rice. The land used to

grow wheat land is rectangular in shape while the rice land is in the shape of a square. The length

of wheat land is 3 meters more than twice the length of rice land.

Answer the following questions

i) If the length of the rice land is x metre, find the total length of the field in metre. [1mark]
(Or)
Find the perimeter of the field. [1 mark]

ii) If the total area of the field is 1260 m2, find the value of x. [2 marks]

iii) Find the area of wheat land. [1 mark]

91
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. d) 0, 8 1. (b) Both Assertion 1. i) c ii) a iii) a iv) 1.

√
or √ 1. or 1.
√
(A) and Reason (R) b v) a
2. a) 2 2. or 2.
2. or √
are true but Reason
2. i) a ii) b iii) c
3. c) No real roots 3.
(R) is not the correct
3. or 3. or
iv) a v) b
4. b) 3 explanation of 4. 12 days
3. i) x = 3 ii) 15cm 4. or
Assertion (A). 4. or
5. c) 1, –2 5. 8 minutes.
and 8 cm iii) 5. or
2. (a) Both Assertion 5. or
6. a) 12 and 16 17cm iv) d) 6. 3 hours 30 minutes
(A) and Reason (R) 6.
40cm 6.
7. a) 3, 1 7. 8km/hr
are true and Reason
7.
4. i)
8. d) 2:3 (R) is the correct 8. Length = 34m and

explanation of ii) 3 and 11 iii) 8.

7. Proof breadth = 24m
9. d)
Assertion (A). iv)
8. Proof 9. 92 9. 42km/hr
10. a) 1 or 4
3. (a) Both Assertion 5. i) 20 – x ii) 20 + x
10. 4 years and 32 10. Length of the

92
11. c) (A) and Reason (R) iii) 10 km/hr 9. 13 and 15 years piece of cloth is 20 m

are true and Reason iv) 1 hours. and rate per meter is
12. b) 10. 24 11. Length = 24m and
(R) is the correct 10.
breadth = 10m
6. i) 2(x + 5) km 11. 24cm
13. d) 2, 8 explanation of
ii) 20 km/hr 11. 30 days.
12. 36
Assertion (A). 12. 7 and 5
14. d) 6 and 2 iii) 16 hours
12. x = 8
13. 12, 18 or 13, 17
4. (c) Assertion (A) is 7. i) (45 – x) 13. c = –3 or c = 5
15. b) 6 years
true but Reason (R) is 13. 20km/hr &
ii) 14.
false. 14. Proof
16. b) 1 30km/hr

5. (d) Assertion (A) is 15. k = 3 15. 9, 10 and 11

17. d) either iii) 9 or 36 14. 22 years & 2 years
false but Reason (R)
√ or √ 16. 94
8. i) (20-2x) m and 16. x = 8 or x = -3 15. 45
is true.
(14-2x) m)
18. c) 16 m 17. c = 3
16. 16 years
6. (a) Both Assertion ii)
19. c) 12 m
(A) and Reason (R) 17. 30 books
iii) Real and distinct
20. d) imaginary are true and Reason
roots 18.
(R) is the correct
iv) 2m

93
 explanation of 9. i) (2x-2) or
21. a) √ √
Assertion (A). ii)
19.
22. b) 1, 3
7. (a) Both Assertion iii) Roots are real and
distinct 20. k = 0 and 3
23. b) 14 and 15 (A) and Reason (R)
iv) 6 wickets
√ √
are true and Reason 21. 4 & 32
24. a) 10. i) (12 - 2x) m and
(R) is the correct
(7 - 2x)m
25. a) explanation of
ii)
Assertion (A).
26. (b)

iii) 9m &
27. (b) -11

11. i)
28. (c)
( )

29. (c) -1 ii)

30. (b) 2:7

iii) x = 4

94
UNIT TEST

1. a)

2. a) (7, 0)

3. c)

4. (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

5. k = -1 or

6. 10 and 6

7. √

8.

9. 16cm, 30 cm and 34cm.

10. 16

11. 9 years and 27 years

12. i) 3x + 3 (Or) 8x + 6 ii) 20 iii) 860m2

95
 CHAPTER 5 – ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION

Key Concepts

Sequence
Some numbers arranged in a definite order, according to a definite rule, are said to form a

sequence.

Arithmetic Progression

An arithmetic progression is a list of numbers in which each term is obtained by adding a fixed

number d to the preceding term, except the first term.

A sequence is called an arithmetic progression (AP), if the difference of any of its terms and the

preceding term is always the same. i.e., an – an-1 = constant.

Term

Each of the number in the list of arithmetic progression is called a term of an A.P

Common difference of A.P

The difference between the two successive terms of an A.P is called the common difference.

d = a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 =.... = an – an-1

Finite and Infinite Arithmetic Progression

The arithmetic progression having finite number of terms is called a finite arithmetic progression.

The arithmetic progression having infinite number of terms is called an infinite arithmetic

progression.

General Form of an Arithmetic Progression

The general form of an .P is a, a+ d, a+ 2d, a+3d…..

If the A.P a, a + d, a + 2d………  is reversed to  ,  -d, -2d………a, then  the common

difference changes to negative of original sequence common difference.

96
General Term or nth term of an A.P

The general term of an A.P is given by: an = a + (n – 1)d, where a is the first term and d is the

common difference.

The nth term of an A.P is the difference of the sum to first n terms and the sum to first (n-1) terms

of it. i.e an = Sn – Sn-1.

Number of Terms in A.P

The number of terms in an A.P can be obtained by n = + 1, where l is last term of an A.P.

Consider an AP whose first term is a, common difference is d and number of terms is n.

𝑛
When n is odd, ( ) th term is the middle term. So, in this case the middle term is given by
𝑛
𝑎 ( ) 𝑑.

𝑛 𝑛
When n is even, th term and ( ) th terms are middle terms. So, in the case the middle
𝑛 𝑛𝑑
term is given by 𝑎 ( ) 𝑑 and 𝑎

Special Numbers of A.P

o Three special numbers in A.P are a – d, a, a + d.

o Four special numbers in A.P are a – 3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d.

Results

If a, b, c, are in AP, then

 (a + k), (b + k), (c + k) are in AP

 (a – k), (b – k), (c – k) are in AP

 ak, bk, ck, are in AP.

𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
 , , are in A.P
𝑘 𝑘 𝑘

𝑎 𝑐
 b= 97
Sum of n term of an A.P

Sum of n terms of an A.P is given by: Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d] or Sn = [a + l].

Note: We use the 1st Form of the Sum Formula, when the common difference d is known and use

the 2nd Form when the last term l is known.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The common difference of the A.P is

a) q b −q c −2 d) 2

2. If k, 2k – 1 and 2k + 1 are three consecutive terms of an A.P., then the value of k is

a) 2 b) 3 c) –3 d) 5

3. The next term of the .P. √ √ √ is

a) √ b) √ c) √ d) √

4. The value of a30 – a20 for the A.P 2, 7, 12, 17, ... is

a) 100 b) 10 c) 50 d) 20

5. In an .P., if a = −10, n = 6 and an = 10, then the value of d is

a) 0 b) 4 c −4 d)

6. If the sum of first m terms of an A.P. is 2m2 + 3m, then what is its second term?

a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12

7. If the 10th term of an A.P.is 52 and 17th term is 20 more than the 13th term, then find the A.P.

a) 40, 45, 50,..... b) 45, 50, 55,..... c) 17, 22, 27,..... d) 7, 12, 17,.....

8. The number of terms in the A.P. 3, 6, 9, 12,...., 111 is

a) 25 b) 40 c) 37 d) 30

9. For what value of n, are the nth terms of two .P.‟s 52, 54, 56, ..... and 4, 12, 20, ..... equal

a) 11 b) 12 c) 10 d) 9

98
10. Three numbers in an A.P. have sum 18. Its middle term is

a) 6 b) 8 c) 3 d) 2

th
11. In an A.P., the sum of first n terms is . Find its term.

a) 45 b) 50 c) 60 d) 75

12. Find the sum of first 15 multiples of 8.

a) 840 b) 1020 c) 960 d) 920

13. Find the sum of first 10 terms of the A.P x – 8, x – 2, x + 4, ...

a) 10x + 210 b) 10x + 190 c) 5x + 190 d) 5x + 210

14. The sum (– 6) + (0) + (6) + ..... upto 13th term =

a) 390 b) 1380 c) 378 d) 1830

15. If the common difference of an A.P. is 5, then what is a18 –a13?

a) 5 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

16. In an , if , then is:

a) 6 b) 7 c) 20 d) 28

17. In an P, if , then will be:

a) 0 b) 3.5 c) 103.5 d) 104.5

18. The th term of the P is:

a) –20 b) 20 c) –30 d) 30

19. Which term of the AP: 21, 42, 63, 84, ... is 210?
a) 9th b) 10th c) 11th d) 12th

20. Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is –1 and that of

the other is –8. Then the difference between their 4th terms is:

a) –1 b) –8 c) 7 d) –9

21. The sum of first five multiples of 3 is:

a) 45 b) 55 c) 65 d) 75
99
22. If the sum of terms of an .P. is , then which of its term is
a) 25th b) 26th c) 27th d) 28th

23. If 3rd and the 9th terms of an AP are 4 and –8 respectively, then which term of the AP is
zero?
a) 3rd b) 4th c) 5th d) 6th

24. The sum of first 25 terms of an AP, whose nth term is given by an = 7 –3n is:
a) 500 b) 600 c) 700 d) –800

25. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 ... + 199 =

a) 9000 b) 10000 c) 11000 d) 12000

26. If the common difference of an A.P is 7, then is equal to

(a) 14 (b) 20 (c) 28 (d) 35

27. The common difference of the .P. ....is

(a)-1 (b) 1 (c)-2q (d) 2q

28. If k + 7, 2k – 2 and 2k + 6 are three consecutive terms of an A.P, then the value of k is

(a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 5 (d) 1

29. The 7th term from the end of the A.P. : – 8,– 5, –2, ...,49 is :

(a) 67 (b) 13 (c) 31 (d) 10

30. Two A.P.s have the same first term. The common difference of the first A.P. is – 3 and of the
second A.P. is – 5. The difference of the 6th term of the second A.P. from that of the first A.P. is
(a) 2 (b) – 8 (c) – 10 (d) 10

31. In an A.P., if the first term a = 7, nth term and the sum of first n terms , then

n is equal to

(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 26

100
32. The common difference of the A.P is

(a) -2x (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 2x

33. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P is and its common difference is 6, then its first
term is

(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3

34. Three numbers in A.P have the sum 30. What is its middle term?

(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 8

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: Let the positive numbers a, b, c be in A.P., then are also in .P.

Reason: If each term of an A.P. is divided by a non-zero constant, then the resulting sequence is

also in A.P.

2. ssertion: Common difference of the P −5, −1, 3, 7, . . . . . . . . .. is 4.

Reason: Common difference of the AP a, a + d, a + 2d,..........is given by d = 2 nd term − 1st term.

3. Assertion: The sum of series with nth term an = 9 – 5n is -465 when number of terms n = 15.

Reason: Given series in .P. and sum of terms of an .P. is ( ) .

101
4. Assertion: Three consecutive terms 2k + 1, 3k + 3 and 5k – 1 form an AP than k is equal to 6.

Reason: In an P a, a + d, a + 2d, ….. the sum to n terms of the P is ( ) .

5. Assertion: If nth term of an AP is 7 - 4n, then its common differences is -4.

Reason: Common difference of an AP is given by .

6. Assertion: Sum of first hundred even natural numbers divisible 5 is 500.

Reason: Sum of first n terms of an AP is given by where last term.

7. Assertion: If Sn is the sum of first n terms of an AP then its nth term an is given by

Reason: The 10th term of the P 5, 8, 11, 14, …. is 35.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. In a class the teacher asks every student to write an example of A.P. Two friends Geeta and

Madhuri writes their progressions as –5, –2, 1, 4, ... and 187, 184, 181, .... respectively. Now, the

teacher asks various students of the class the following questions on these two progressions. Help

students to find the answers of the questions.

i) Find the 34th term of the progression written by Madhuri.

a) 286 b) 88 c) –99 d) 190

ii) Find the sum of common difference of the two progressions.

a) 6 b) –6 c) 1 d) 0

iii) Find the 19th term of the progression written by Geeta.

a) 49 b) 59 c) 52 d) 62

iv) Find the sum of first 10 terms of the progression written by Geeta.

a) 85 b) 95 c) 110 d) 200

v) Which term of the two progressions will have the same value?

a) 31 b) 33 c) 32 d) 30
102
2. Amit was playing a number card game. In the game, some number cards (having both +ve

or –ve numbers) are arranged in a row such that they are following an arithmetic progression. On

his first turn, Amit picks up 6th and 14th card and finds their sum to be –76. On the second turn he

picks up 8th and 16th card and finds their sum to be –96.

i) What is the difference between the numbers on any two consecutive cards?

a) 7 b) –5 c) 11 d) –3

ii) The number on first card is,

a) 12 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7

iii) What is the number on the 19th card?

a) –88 b) –83 c) –92 d) –102

iv) What is the number on the 23rd card?

a) –103 b) –122 c) –108 d) –117

v) The sum of numbers on the first 15 cards is

a) –840 b) –945 c) –427 b) –420

3. The given figure shows playing cards stacked together. 42 cards are stacked in the manner. 12

cards are in the bottom row, 10 in the next row, 8 in the row next to it and so on. Based on the

above situation, answer the following questions:

i) The total number of rows in which the cards are stacked is:

a) 7 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9

(ii) The number of cards in the top row is:

a) 4 b) 6 c) 1 d) 2

iii) The mathematical concept applied in solving the above problem is:

a) Linear equations b) Probability

c) Arithmetic Progression d) Coordinate Geometry

103
(iv) The number of cards in the third row is:

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

(v) The number of cards in the seventh row is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 6

4. Your elder brother wants to buy a car and plans to take loan from a bank for his car. He repays

his total loan of ₹1,18,000 by paying every month starting with the first instalment of ₹1000. If he

increases the instalment by ₹100 every month, answer the following:

i) Find the amount paid by him in 30th instalment.

ii) Calculate the amount paid by him in the 30 instalments.

iii) What amount does he still have to pay after 30th instalment?

iv) If total instalments are 40 then amount paid in the last instalment?

v) Find the ratio of the 1st instalment to the last instalment.

5. In a pathology lab, a culture test has been conducted. In the test, the number of bacteria taken

into consideration in various samples is all 3-digit numbers that are divisible by 7, taken in order.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions

i) How many bacteria are considered in the fifth sample?

ii) How many samples should be taken into consideration?

iii) Find the total number of bacteria in the first 10 sample.

iv) How many bacteria are there in the 7th sample from the last?

6. In the month of April to June 2022, the exports of passenger cars from India increased by 26%

in the corresponding quarter of 2021–22, as per a report. A car manufacturing company planned

to produce 1800 cars in 4th year and 2600 cars in 8th year. Assuming that the production increases

uniformly by a fixed number every year.

Based on the above information answer the following questions.

104
i) Find the production in the 1st year.

ii) Find the production in the 12th year.

iii) Find the total production in first 10 years.

iv) In which year the total production will reach to 15000 cars?

7. While playing a treasure hunt game, some clues(numbers) are hidden in various spots

collectively forms an A.P. If the number on the nth spot is 20 + 4n, then the answer the following

questions to help the player in spotting the clues.

i) Which number is on the first spot?

th
ii Which number is on the n − 2 spot?

iii) What is the sum of all the numbers on the first 10 spots?

(iv) Which spot is numbered as 116?

8. In a class the teacher asks every student to write an example of AP. Two boys Aryan and

Roshan writes their progressions as -5,-2, 1,4 ...... and 187, 184, 181,..... respectively.Now the

teacher asks the various students of the class the following questions on this progressions. Help

students to find the answers of the following.

(i) Find the sum of common difference of the two progressions.

(ii) Find the 34th term of the progression written by Roshan.

(iii) Find the sum of first 10 terms of the progression written by Aryan.

(iv) Which term of the two progressions will have the same value?

9. A school has decided to plant some endangered trees on 51st World Environment Day in the

nearest park. They have decided to plant those trees in few concentric circular rows such that

each succeeding row has 20 more trees than the previous one. The first circular row has 50 trees.

105
Based on the above given information, answer the following questions:

(i) How many trees will be planted in the 10th row?

(ii) How many more trees will be planted in the 8th row than in the 5th row?

(iii) If 3200 trees are to be planted in the park, then how many rows are required?

(iv) If 3200 trees are to be planted in the park, then how many trees are still left to be planted

after the 11th row?

10. Treasure hunt is an exciting and adventurous game where participants follow a series of

clues/numbers/maps to discover hidden treasures. Players engage in thrilling quest, solving

puzzles and riddles to unveil the location of the coveted prize.

While playing a treasure hunt game, some clues(numbers) are hidden in various spots collectively

forming an A.P. If the number on the nth spot is 20 + 4n, then answer the following questions to

help the players in spotting the clues:

(i) Which number is on first spot?

(ii) Which spot is numbered as 112?

(iii) What is sum of all the numbers on the first 10 spots?

(iv) Which number is on the (n-2)th spot?

106
SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. Which term of the .P 3, 15, 27, 39,…… will be 120 more than its 21st term?

2. The 15th term of an AP is 3 more than twice its 7th term. If the 10th term of the AP is 41, then

find its nth term.

3. The 9th term of an P is zero. Prove that its 29th term is double of its 19th term.

4. Find how many integers between and are divisible by

5. Divide 24 in three parts such that they are in AP and their product is 440.

6. Find the 20th term from the last term of the A.P.: 3, 8, 13, ...... 253.

7. If 7 times the 7th term of an A.P. is equal to 11 times its 11th term, then find its 18th term.

8. Find the middle term of the A.P. 213, 205, 197, .....37.

9. Solve the equation: 1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + ... + x = 287.

10. How many terms of an A.P. 9, 17, 25, .... must be taken to give a sum of 636?

11. The 19th term of an AP is equal to three times its 6th term. If its 9th term is 19, find the AP.

12. Find the value of the middle most term (s) of the AP: –11, –7, –3, ..., 49.

13. For an .P., show that .

14. Which term of the P: is the first negative term

15. The sides of a right-angled triangle are in AP. Show that they are in the ratio 3:4:5.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. The sum of the 2nd and the 7th term of an A.P. is 30. If its 15th term is 1 less than twice its 8th

term, find the A.P.

2. If Sn denotes the sum of first n terms of an A.P., prove that S30 = 3[S20 – S10].

3. If m times the mth term of an A.P. is equal to n times its nth term, then find the (m + n)th term

of the A.P.

107
4. The sum of the first seven terms of an A.P is 182. If its 4th and the 17th terms are in the ratio

1:5, find the A.P.

5. If the pth, qth, rth terms of an A.P. be x, y, z respectively, show that x(q – r) + y(r – p) + z(p – q) = 0.

6. The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 21 and the sum of their squares is 155. Find the numbers.

7. Divide 32 into four parts which are in AP such that the product of extremes to the product of

means is 7:15.

8. If sum of the first 6 terms of an AP is 36 and that of the first 16 terms is 256, find the sum of

first 10 terms.

9. If in an A.P., the sum of first m terms is n and the sum of its first n terms is m, then prove that

the sum of its first (m + n) terms is –(m + n).

10. If the sum of first four terms of an A.P. is 40 and that of first 14 terms is 280. Find the sum of

its first n terms.

11. The sum of four numbers in A.P. is 42. If the product of extreme terms is 90; find the

numbers.

12. If (p + 1)th term of an AP is twice the (q + 1)th term, prove that (3p + 1)th term is twice the

(p + q + 1)th term.

13. If the sum of the 3rd and the 8th terms of an AP is 7 and the sum of the 7th and the 14th terms

is –3, find the 10th term.

14. In an P, prove that .

15. The interior angles of a polygon are in arithmetic progression. The smallest angle is 120° and

the common difference is 5°. Find the number of sides in the polygon.

16. In an A.P, the sum of three consecutive terms is 24 and the sum of their squares is 194. Find

the numbers.

108
17. The ratio of the 10th term to its 30th term of an A.P is 1:3 and the sum of its first six terms is

42. Find the first term and the common difference of A.P.

18. A man starts his job with a certain monthly salary and earns a fixed increment every year. If

his salary was ₹ after 4 years of service and ₹ after 10 years of service, what was

his starting salary and what was the annual increment?

19. If the sum of the first 14 terms of an A.P is 1050 and the first term is 10, then find the 20 th

term and the nth term.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. If the ratio of the sum of the first n terms of two .P.‟s is 7n + 1 : 4n + 27 , then find the ratio

of their 9th terms.

2. The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 12 and sum of their cubes is 288. Find the numbers.

3. The ratio of the sums of first m and first n terms of an A.P. is m2:n2. Show that the ratio of its

mth and nth terms is (2m – 1):(2n – 1).

4. If the first term of an A.P. is 2 and the sum of first five terms is equal to one-fourth of the sum

of the next five terms, find the sum of the first 30 terms.

5. The ratio of the 11th term to the 18th term of an A.P. is 2:3. Find the ratio of 5th term to the 21st

term, and also the ratio of the sum of the first 5 terms to the sum of the first 21 terms.

6. The sum of first sixteen terms of an A.P. is 112 and the sum of its next fourteen terms is 518.

Find the A.P.

7. The sum of the first five terms of an A.P. and the sum of first seven terms of the same A.P.

is 167. If the sum of the first ten terms of this A.P. is 235, find the sum of its first twenty terms.

8. Let the sum of first n, 2n, 3n terms of an AP be S1, S2 and S3 respectively show that S3 = 3(S2 – S1).

9. If S1, S2, S3 be the sums of n terms of 3 arithmetic progressions, the first term of each being 1

and the respective common differences are 1, 2, 3, then prove that S1 + S3 = 2S2.

109
10. The sum of four consecutive numbers is an AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of first and

the last term to the product of two middle terms is 7:15. Find the numbers.

11. The sum of first and eight terms of an A.P is 32 and their product is 60. Find the first term and

common difference of the A.P. Hence, also find the sum of its first 20 terms.

12. In an A.P of 40 terms, the sum of first 9 terms id 153 and the sum of last 6 terms is 687.

Determine the first term and common difference of A.P. Also, find the sum of all the terms of

the A.P.

110
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. The first four terms of an AP whose first term is 3x + y and common difference is x – y are

a) 3x + y, 2x + 2y, x + 3y, 4y b) 3x – y, 2x – 2y, x – 3y, 4y

c) 3x + y, 2x, x – y, -2y d) 3x + y, 4x, 5x – y, 6x – 2y

2. The common difference of an P, the sum of whose terms is , is

a) b) c) d)

th th th
3. If term of an P be zero, then the ratio of its and term is:
a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:3 d) 3:1
4. Assertion: The sum of the first n terms of an AP is given by . Then its nth term

Reason: nth term of an AP, whose sum to n terms , is given by

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
th th th
5. If times the term of an is equal to times its terms, then find its term.

6. Find the number of natural numbers between 101 and 999 which are divisible by both 2 and 5.

7. Find x, if and are three consecutive terms are in AP such

that ∈ .
111
SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. Divide 56 into four parts which are in AP such that the ratio of product of extremes to the

product of means is 5: 6.

9. The sum of first six term of an A.P is 42. The ratio of the 10th term to its 30th term is 1:3.

Calculate the first and 13th term of the A.P.

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. If denote the sum of the first terms of an .P., prove that ( ).

11. If the sum of p terms of an A.P. is q and the sum of q terms is p, show that the sum of (p + q)

terms is – (p + q).

SECTION E

12. Meena‟s mother start a new shoe shop. To display the shoes, she put 3 pairs of shoes in 1st

row, 5 pairs in 2nd row, 7 pairs in 3rd row and so on.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions

(i) Find the difference of pairs of shoes in 17th row and 10th row.

(ii) On next day, she arranges x pairs of shoes in 15th row, then find x.

(iii) If She puts a total of 120 pairs of shoes, then find the number of rows required

(Or)

(iv) If She puts a total of 120 pairs of shoes, then how many shoes will be there in last

row?

112
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. c −2 1. (a) Both Assertion 1. i) b ii) d iii) a 1. 31st term 1. 1, 5, 9, .... 1.

(A) and Reason (R) iv) a v) b

2. b) 3 2. 2. Proof
2. 2, 4 and 6, or 6, 4
are true and Reason
2. i) b ii) d iii) b
3. c) √ 3. Proof 3. (m + n)th term of the and 2. 1
(R) is the correct
iv) a v) d
AP is 0.
4. c) 50 explanation of 4. 37 3. Proof
3. i) b ii) d iii) c
Assertion (A). 4. 2, 10, 18, ...
5. b) 4 5. 5, 8, 11 or 11, 8, 5 4. – 2550
iv) c v) b
2. (a) Both Assertion 5. Proof
6. a) 9 6. 158 5. 1: 3 and 5: 49
4. i) 3900 ii) 73500
(A) and Reason (R)
6. 5, 7, 9
7. d) 7, 12, 17, .... iii) 44500 iv) 5900 7. 0 6. –8, –6, –4,…
are true and Reason
v) 10:49 7. 2, 6, 10, 14 or 14,
8. c) 37 (R) is the correct 8. 125 7. 970
10, 6, 2
explanation of 5. i) 133 ii) 128
9. d) 9 9. 40 8. Proof
Assertion (A). 8. 100
iii) 1365 iv) 952
10. a) 6 10. 12 9. Proof
3. (a) Both Assertion 9. Proof
10. 2, 6, 10, 14, or 14,

113
11. b) 50 (A) and Reason (R) 6. i) 1200 ii) 3400 11. 3, 5, 7, ..... 10. ( 10, 6, 2

are true and Reason ) or ( )

12. c) 960 iii) 21000 iv) 13 12. 17 and 21 11. d = ±4 and =
(R) is the correct
11. 6, 9, 12 and 15. 800 or -160
13. b) 50 7. i) 24 ii) 12 + 4n 13. Proof
explanation of
12. a = 5, d = 3 and
th
12. Proof
14. a) 390 Assertion (A). iii) 420 iv) 24 14. term
2540
13. -1
15. c) 25 4. (b) Both Assertion 8. i) 0 15. Proof

(A) and Reason (R) 14. Proof

16. d) 28 ii) 88 16. 7, 8, 9 or 9, 8, 7
are true but Reason
15. 9
17. b) 3.5 iii) 85 17. a = 2 and d = 2
(R) is not the correct
18. ₹ and
18. b) 20 explanation of iv) n = 33
₹
th
Assertion (A).
19. b) 9. i) 230
19. 200, 10n
5. (a) Both Assertion
20. c) 18 ii) 60
(A) and Reason (R)
21. a) 45 iii) 16
are true and Reason

th
22. c (R) is the correct iv) 1550

114
23. c) 5th explanation of 10. i) 24

Assertion (A).
24. c) 700 ii) 23

6. (d) Assertion (A) is iii) 420

25. b) 10000
false but Reason (R) is
iv) 12 + 4n
26. (c) 28
true.

27. (a)-1
7. (c) Assertion (A) is

28. (b) 17 true but Reason (R) is

false.
29. (c) 31

30. (d) 10

31. (c) 23

32. (b) -2

33. (a) 7

34. (b) 10

115
UNIT TEST

1. d) 3x + y, 4x, 5x – y, 6x – 2y

2. a)

3. b) 2:1

4. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5. 0

6. 89

7. 4

8. 8, 12, 16, 20

9. 2 and 26

10. Proof

11. Proof

12. i) 14 ii) 31 iii) 10 (Or) 2

116
 CHAPTER 6 - TRIANGLES

Key Concepts

Similar Figures

Two figures having the same shapes are called the similar figures.

Similar Polygons

Two triangles are said to be similar if (i) their corresponding angles are equal (ii) their

corresponding sides are in proportional.

Criterion for Similarity of Triangles

AAA Similarity

If in two triangles, corresponding angles are equal, then their corresponding sides are in the same

ratio (or proportion) and hence the two triangles are similar.

AA Similarity

If two angles of one triangle are respectively equal to two angles of another triangle, then the two

triangles are similar.

SSS Similarity

If in two triangles, sides of one triangle are proportional to(i.e., in the same ratio of ) the sides of

the other triangle, then their corresponding angles are equal and hence the two triangles are

similar.

SAS Similarity

If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of the other triangle and the sides including these

angles are proportional, then the two triangles are similar.

117
Important Theorems

Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales Theorem)

If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct

points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.

Converse of Basic Proportionality Theorem

If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then the line is parallel to the third

side.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In the figure, O is the point of intersection of two chords AB and CD such that OB = OD. Then

triangles OAC and ODB are:

a) equilateral but not similar b) isosceles but not similar

c) equilateral and similar d) isosceles and similar

2. In the given figure, if DE || BC, then length of EC is:

a) 5 cm b) 4 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm

3. In ∆ BC, D and E are points on the sides B and C respectively such that DE || BC.

If AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3, then the value of x is:

a) 3 cm b) 2 cm c) 1.5 cm d) 1 cm

4. In the given figure, DE || AC and DF || AE. If the lengths of BF and FE are 4cm and 5cm

respectively, then the length of EC is:

a) 11.25 cm b) 9.6 cm c) 12.5 cm d) 13.2 cm

118
5. D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that

AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, BC = 7.5 cm and DE || BC. Then, length of DE (in cm) is:

a) 2.5 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

6. If in two triangles and , then

a) b) c) d)

7. Two poles of height 6 m and 11 m stand vertically upright on a plane ground. If the length of

shadow of smaller pole is 12 m, then length of shadow of bigger pole is

a) 22 m b) 14 m c) 13 m d) 11 m

8. It is given that, ∆ BC~∆EDF such that B = 5 cm, C = 7 cm, DF = 15 cm and DE = 12 cm

then the sum of the remaining sides of the triangles is

a) 23.05 cm b) 16.8 cm c) 6.25 cm d) 24 cm

9. If Δ BC and ΔDEF are similar triangles such that A = 57° and E = 83° then C is

a) 33o b) 30o c) 40o d) 83o

10. In Δ BC, DE || BC and D = 4cm, B = 9cm. C = 13.5 cm then the value of EC is

a) 6 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 9 cm d) none of these

11. Δ BC is such that B = 3 cm, BC = 2 cm and C = 2.5 cm. If ΔDEF Δ BC and FE = 4

cm, then the perimeter of ΔDEF is

a) 12 cm b) 13 cm c) 14 cm d) 15 cm

12. A street light bulb is fixed on a pole 6 m above the level of the street. If a woman of height

1.5m casts a shadow of 3 m, find how far she is away from the base of the pole is

a) 12 m b) 10 m c) 9 m d) 11 m

13. A 15 metres high tower casts a shadow 24 meters long at a certain time and at the same time,

a telephone pole casts a shadow 16 meters long then the height of the telephone pole is

a) 12 m b) 10 m c) 9 m d) 11 m

119
14. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB ∥ DC and P and Q are points on AD and BC, respectively

such that PQ ∥ DC . If PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, then AD is

a) 20 cm b) 40 cm c) 60 cm d) 80 cm

15. A vertical stick of length 7.5 m casts a shadow 5 m long on the ground and at the same time a

tower casts a shadow 24 m long then the height of the tower is

a) 20 m b) 40 m c) 60 m d) 36m

16. In the given figure, if M and N are points on the sides OP and OS respectively of ΔOPS, such

that MN||PS, then the length OP is

(a) 6.8 cm (b) 17cm (c) 15.3 cm (d) 9.6 cm

17. In the figure, X and Y are two points on the sides AB and AC respectively in ΔABC, such

that AX = 3.4 cm, AB = 8.5 cm, AY = 2.6 cm and YC = 3.9 cm. Which of the following relation

is correct?

(a) BC = 2XY (b) 3BC = 2XY (c) BC is not parallel to XY (d) BC || XY

120
18. In ΔXYZ, XY = 6cm. If M and N are two points on XY and XZ respectively such that MN ||

YZ and XN = , then the length of XM is

(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 4 cm

19. In the given figure Δ BC is shown. DE is parallel to BC. If D = 5cm, DB = 2.5cm and
BC = 12cm, then DE is equal to

(a) 10cm (b) 6cm

(c) 8cm (d) 7.5cm

20. If a vertical pole of length 7.5cm casts a shadow 5m long on the ground and at the same time,
a tower casts a shadow 24m long, t hen the height of the tower is

(a) 20m (b) 40m (c) 60m (d) 36m

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

121
1. Assertion: A line drawn parallel to any one side of a triangle intersects the other two sides

proportionally.

Reason: Parallel lines cannot be drawn to any one side of a triangle.

2. E and F are the points on the sides PQ and PR respectively of a triangle PQR. PE = 4 cm,

QE = 4.5cm, PF = 8 cm and RF = 9 cm.

Assertion: EF is not parallel to QR

Reason: In a triangle if two sides are divided proportionally by a line then the line is parallel to

the third side.

3. ssertion : D and E are points on the sides B and C respectively of a Δ BC such that

DE║BC then the value of x is 4, when D = x cm, DB = x – 2) cm, AE = (x + 2) cm and EC =

(x – 1) cm. Reason : If a line is parallel to one side of a triangle then it divides the other two sides

in the same ratio.

4. ssertion: If a line intersects sides B and C of a Δ BC at D and E respectively and is

parallel to BC, then .

Reason: If a line is parallel to one side of a triangle, then it divides the other two sides in the same

ratio.

5. Assertion: ABCD is a trapezium with DC || AB. E and F are points on AD and BC respectively

such that EF || AB. Then .

Reason: Any line parallel to parallel sides of a trapezium divides the non-parallel sides

proportionally.

6. Assertion: ABCD is a trapezium with DC || AB. E and F are points on AD and BC

respectively, such that EF || AB. Then .

Reason: Any line parallel to parallel sides of a trapezium divides the non-parallel sides
proportionally.

122
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. Swimmer in Distress: A lifeguard located 20 metre from the water spots a swimmer in distress.

The swimmer is 30 metre from shore and 100 metre east of the lifeguard. Suppose the lifeguard

runs and then swims to the swimmer in a direct line, as shown in the figure.

i) How far east from his original position will he enter the water? (Hint: Find the value of x in the

sketch).

ii) Which similarity criterion of triangle is used?

iii) What is the distance of swimmer from the shore?

2. Rohan is very intelligent in maths. He always try to relate the concept of maths in daily life.

One day he is walking away from the base of a lamp post at a speed of 1 m/s. Lamp is 4.5 m

above the ground.

i) If after 2 second, length of shadow is 1 meter, what is the height of Rohan?

ii) What is the minimum time after which his shadow will become larger than his original height?

iii) What is the distance of Rohan from pole at this point?

iv) What will be the length of his shadow after 4 seconds?

123
3. The law of reflection states that when a ray of light reflects off a surface, the angle of incidence

is equal to the angle of reflection.

Ramesh places a mirror on level ground to determine the height of a pole (with traffic light fired

on it). He stands at a certain distance so that he can see the top of the pole reflected from the

mirror. Ramesh‟s eye level is 1.5 m above the ground. The distance of Ramesh and the pole from

the mirror are 1.8 m and 6 m respectively.

i) Which criterion of similarity is applicable to similar triangles?

ii) What is the height of the pole?

iii) Now Ramesh moves behind such that distance between pole and Ramesh is 13 meters. He

places mirror between him and pole to see the reflection of light in right position. What is the

distance between mirror and Ramesh?

iv) What is the distance between mirror and pole?

4. A Frame House: A frame-house is a house constructed from a wooden skeleton, typically

covered with timber board. The concept of similar triangles is used to construct it. Look at the

following picture:

124
i) The front view of house (i) is shown along side in which point P on AB is joined with point Q

on AC. If PQ || BC, AP = x m, PB = 10m, AQ = (x – 2)m, QC = 6m, then find the value of x

ii) The side view of house (i) is shown below in which point F on AC is joined with point G on

De. If ACED is a trapezium with AD || CE, F and G are points on non-parallel sides AC and DE

respectively such that FG is parallel to AD, then

iii) The front view of house (ii) is shown along side in which point S on PQ is joined with point T

on PR. If and , then angle

iv) Again consider the front view of house (ii). If S and T are points on side PQ and PR

respectively such that ST || QR and PS:SQ = 3:1. Also TP = 6.6m, then find PR.

125
SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC. If

AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3, find the value of x.

2. In the given figure, AB is parallel to CD. If OA = 3x – 19, OB = x – 4, OC = x – 3 and OD = 4,

determine x.

3. Prove that the line segment joining the mid-points of the adjacent sides of a quadrilateral form

a parallelogram.

4. A vertical stick 12cm long casts a shadow 8cm long on the ground. At the same time, a tower

casts a shadow 40m long on the ground. Determine the height of the tower.

5. In the adjoining figure, ∆AHK is similar to ∆ABC. If AK = 10 cm, BC = 3.5 cm and HK = 7

cm, find AC.

6. In the given figure, LM || AB. If AB = x – 3, AC = 2x, BM = x – 2, BC = 2x + 3, find the value

of x.

7. D and E are respectively the points on the sides B and C of a ∆ BC such that B = 5.6cm,

AD = 1.4cm, AC = 7.2cm and AE = 1.8cm. Show that DE || BC.

8. From the side PQ of ∆PQR cut off segment PL = QS. Draw LM || PQ and ST || PR. Show that

MT || PQ.

126
9. In ∆ BC, points P, Q and R lie on sides BC, C and B respectively. If BP = PC, PQ || B

and QR || BC. Prove that RP || CA.

10. In given figure, = , prove that i ∆E B ~ ∆ECD ii B || CD.

11. In given figure, express x in terms of a, b and c.

12. In given figure, if ADE = B, AD = 4.8cm, AE = 7.2cm, BE = 4cm and BC = 8cm, find

DE.

13. PQRS is a trapezium with PQ y SR. If M and N are two points on the non-parallel sides PS

and QR respectively, such that MN is parallel to PQ, then show that

14. In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral. Diagonal bisects and both. Prove that
(i) (ii) AB = BC.

127
15. In Δ BC, altitudes D and BE are drawn. If D = 7cm, BE = 9cm and EC = 12cm then find
the length of CD.

16. In the given figure, . If AK = 8cm, BC = 3.2cm and HK = 6.4cm, then find
the length of AC.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. A vertical pole of length 6 m casts a shadow 4 m long on the ground and at the same time a

tower casts a shadow 28 m long. Find the height of the tower.

2. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other proportionally, prove that it is a trapezium.

3. In the given Fig., and . Prove that is an isosceles triangle.

4. ABC is a triangle in which AB = AC and D is a point on AC such that BC2 = AC × CD. Prove

that BD = BC.

5. In a figure, if EF || DC || AB, prove that = .

128
6. In the figure, prove that AD = BE if A = B and DE || AB.

7. P is the mid-point of the side BC of ∆. If Q is the mid-point of AP and BQ when produced

meets AC in L, prove that LA = CA.

8. In the given figure, AB || DE and BD || EF, prove that DC2 = CF x AC.

9. In the given figure, ABR ~ PQR. If PQ = 30cm. AR = 45cm, AP = 72cm, QR = 42cm,

find PR, AB and BR.

10. In given figure, QA and PB are perpendicular to AB. If AO = 10cm, BO = 6cm and PB =

9cm. Find AQ.

129
11. The perimeter of two similar triangles are 30cm and 20cm respectively. If one side of first

triangle is 12cm, determine the corresponding side of the other triangle.

12. In the given figure, BCD is a trapezium with B || DC. If ∆ ED is similar to ∆BEC, prove

that AD = BC.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Prove that, if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in

distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.

2. In Fig, and . Prove that .

3. Sides AB and AC and median AD of a triangle ABC are respectively proportional to sides PQ

and PR and median PM of another triangle PQR. Show that ∆ BC ~ ∆PQR.

4. In trapezium ABCD, AB||DC and DC = 2AB. EF || AB, where E and F lie on BC and AD

respectively, such that . Diagonal DB intersects EF at G. Prove that 7EF = 11AB.

5. ABCD is a parallelogram, P, Q, R and S are the points of trisection of sides AB, BC, CD and

DA respectively. Prove that PQRS is a parallelogram.

6. In the given figure, PA, QB and RC each perpendicular to AC and AP = x, QB = z, RC = y,

AB = a and BC = b. Prove that + = .

130
7. In the figure, EFGD is a square and BAC = 90°. Prove that (i) AGF ~ DBG

(ii) AGF ~ EFC iii ∆DBG ~ DEFC (iv) DE2 = BD × EC.

8. In given figure, ACB = 90o and CD AB, prove that = .

9. ABD is a triangle in which and . Prove that (i)

(ii) (iii) .

10. ABC is a right triangle with , , and . Prove that

(i) (ii)

131
11. In the given figure, MNOP is a parallelogram and AB || MP. Prove that QC || PO.

12. In the given figure, two medians PD and QE of D PQR meet each other at O.

Prove that

(i)

(ii) PO = 2 OD

(iii)

13. In trapezium PQRS, PQ || SR and SR = 2PQ. A line segment FE drawn parallel to PQ

intersects PS at F and QR at E such that Diagonal QS intersects FE at G. Prove

that .

132
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. In the given figure, write the value of x.

a) 9 cm b) 10.5 cm

c) 13.5 cm d) 12 cm

2. In the given figure Δ BC ~ ΔPQR. The value of x is

(a) 2.5 cm (b) 3.5 cm

(c) 2.75 cm (d) 3 cm

3. If in the given figure, ∥ and ∥ , then

a) CF + AC b) CF x AC

c) CF + 2AC d) None of these

4. ssertion: D and E are points on the sides B and C respectively of a Δ BC such that D =

5.7cm, DB = 9.5cm, AE = 4.8cm and EC = 8cm then DE is not parallel to BC.

Reason: If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then it is parallel to the third

side.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

133
SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. In given figure, DE || BC. If AD = x, DB = x – 2, AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, find the value

of x.

6. In figure, AB || DC, find the value of x.

7. In ABC, DE || BC. If AC = 6.4cm, AE = 4cm, BC = 3.5cm and BD = 3cm. Find AD and

DE.

SECTION C
Each carry 3 marks

8. In given figure, ABR ~ PQR. If PQ = 40cm, AR = 60cm, AP = 82cm and QR = 55cm, find

PR and BR.

9. P and Q are points on sides AB and AC respectively of ABC. If AP = 3cm, PB = 6cm, AQ =

5cm and QC = 10cm, show that BC = 3PQ.

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. Prove that the line segments joining the mid-points of the sides of a triangle form four

triangles each of which is similar to the original triangle.

11. ABCD is a parallelogram. P is themed-point of the side CD. BP meets diagonal AC at X.

Prove that 3AX = 2AC.

134
SECTION E

12. Vijay is trying to find the average height of a tower near his house. He is using the properties

of similar triangles. The height of Vijay‟s house, if 20m when Vijay‟s house casts a shadow 10m

long on the ground. At the same time, the tower casts a shadow 50m long on the ground and the

house of Ajay casts 20m shadow on the ground.

i) What is the height of the tower?

ii What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when Vijay‟s house casts a shadow of

12m?

iii What is the height of jay‟s house?

iv) When the tower casts a shadow of 40m, same time what will be the length of the shadow of

jay‟s house

135
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. d) isosceles and 1. (c) Assertion (A) is 1. i) 40 metres ii) AA 1. x = 1 1. 42m 1. Proof

similar true but Reason (R) is iii) 60 metres

2. x = 11 or 8. 2. Trapezium 2.
false.
2. d) 2 cm 2. i) 150 metres
3. Parallelogram 3. Isosceles Triangle 3. ∆ BC ~ ∆PQR
2. (d) Assertion (A) is
3. d) 1 cm ii) 3 sec iii) 3 metres
4. 60m 4. BD = BC 4. 7EF = 11AB
false but Reason (R)
iv) 2 metres
4. a) 11.25 cm
is true. 5. 5 cm 5. = 5. PQRS is a
3. i) AA criterion
5. b) 3 parallelogram
3. (a) Both assertion 6. 9
6. DE || AB
ii) 5 metres
6. a) (A) and reason (R) 6. + =
7. DE || BC
7. LA = CA
are true and reason iii) 3 metres
7. a) 22 m
8. MT || PQ. 7. (i) AGF ~
(R) is the correct 8. DC2 = CF x AC.
iv) 10 metres
8. a) 23.05 cm DBG
explanation of 9. RP || CA
9. 27cm, 50cm & (ii) AGF ~ EFC
o
assertion (A). 4. i) c) 5m ii)
9. c) 40
10. i ∆E B ~ ∆ECD 70cm
iii ∆DBG ~ DEFC

136
10. b) 7.5 cm 4. (a) Both assertion iii) iv) 8.8m (ii) AB || CD 10. 15cm (iv) DE2 = BD × EC.

(A) and reason (R)

11. d) 15 cm 11. x = 11. 8cm 8. =
are true and reason
12. c) 9 m 12. 3.4cm 12. AD = BC
(R) is the correct 9. (i)

13. b) 10 m explanation of 13. Proof

assertion (A). (ii)
14. c) 60 cm 14. Proof
(iii)
5. (a) Both Assertion
15. d) 36m
15. or .
(A) and Reason (R)
16. (c) 15.3 cm
are true and Reason 16. AC = 4 10. (i)

17. (d) BC || XY (R) is the correct

explanation of
18. (b) 1.5 cm (ii)
Assertion (A).
19. (c) 8cm
6. (a) (A) Both
11. Proof
20. (d) 36m Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) are true
12. Proof
and Reason (R) is the

137
 correct 13. Proof

explanation of
Assertion (A)

UNIT TEST

1. c) 13.5 cm

2. (d) 3 cm

3. b) CF x AC

4. (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

5. x = 4

6. 8 or 9

7. 5cm and 2.2cm

8. 22cm & 150cm

9. BC = 3PQ

10. Proof

11. 3AX = 2AC

12. i) 100m ii) 60m iii) 40m iv) 40m

138
 CHAPTER 7 – COORDINATE GEOMETRY

Key Concepts
Cartesian Co-ordinate System
This system has X-axis called abscissa and Y-axis called ordinate. (0, 0) is the origin. Both the

axes divide the Cartesian plane into four parts called quadrants.

Distance Formula
The distance between two points A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) in the cartesian plane is given

by d = √( ) ( ) .

The distance of a point P(x, y) from the origin O (0, 0) is given by d =√ .

Note: The co-ordinates of a point on the X-axis are of the form (x, 0) and that of the point on Y-

axis are (0, y).

139
Condition of Collinearity of Three Points

Points A B, and C are collinear, if they lie on the same straight line. e.g., B lies between A and C,

if AB + BC = AC.

Section Formulae
Internal Division

The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the line segment joining A(x1, y1) and

B(x2, y2) internally in the ratio m1: m2, are ( , ).

Mid-Point

The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which is the mid - point of the line segment joining

A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) are ( , ).

Centroid of the triangle

If A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3) be the vertices of the triangle Centroid of the triangle is

given by G = ( , ).

Result: The centroid of the triangle divides the median in the ratio of 2: 1.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If the distance between the points (2, –2) and (–1, x) is 5, one of the value of x is:
a) –2 b) 2 c) –1 d) 1

2. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(–2, 8) and B(–6, –4) is:

a) (–4, –6) b) (2, 6) c) (–4, 2) d) (4, 2)

3. The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is:

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 5

4. The distance of the point P(–6, 8) from the origin is:

a) 8 b) √ c) 10 c) 6

140
5. AOBC is rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length of its
diagonal is:
a) 5 b) 3 c) √ d) 4

6. If the coordinates of one end of a diameter of circle are (2, 3) and the coordinates of its centre
are (–2, 5), then the coordinates of the other end of the diameter are:
a) (–6, 7) b) (6, –7) c) (6, 7) d) (–6, –7)

7. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices A(–2, 3), B(6, 7) and
C(8, 3) is:
a) (0, 1) b) (0, –1) c) (–1, 0) d) (1, 0)

8. The vertices of a parallelogram in order are A(1, 2), B(4, y), C(x, 6), D(3, 6), then the value of

x and y respectively are :

a) 6, 2 b) 3, 6 c) 5, 6 d) 1, 4

9. If ( ) is the mid-point of the line segment, joining the points Q(–6, 5) and R(–2, 3), then

the value of a is:

a) –4 b) –12 c) 12 d) –6

10. The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three vertices of the ∆AOB as
shown in the figure is:

a) (a) (x, y) b) (y, x) c) ( ) d) ( )

11. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q, respectively. If (2, –5) is the

mid-point of PQ, then the coordinates of P and Q respectively are:

a) (0, –5) and (2, 0) b) (0, 10) and (–4, 0) c) (0, 4) and (–10, 0) d) (0, –10) and (4, 0)

12. If the centroid of the triangle formed by (7, x), (y, –6) and (9, 10) is (6, 3), then the value of

x and y respectively are:

a) 5, 3 b) 5, 2 c) –3, 2 d) 6, 5

13. The ratio in which P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, –3) is :

a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:3 d) 1:1

141
14. If A(5, 1), B(1, 5) and C(–3, –1 are the vertices of ∆ BC, then length of median D is:

a) √ units b) √ units c) √ units d) √ units

15. ABCD is a rectangle, whose three vertices are B(4, 0), C(4, 3) and D(0, 3), then the length of
one of its diagonals is:
a) 7 units b) 6 units c) 6.5 units d) 5 units

16. If the distances of P(x, y) from A(5, 1) and B(–1, 5) are equal, then:
a) x = y b) 3x = 5y c) 5x = 2y d) 3x = 2y

17. The perimeter of triangle formed by the points (0, 0), (2, 0) and (0, 2) is:
a) 4 units b) 6 units c) √ units d) √ units

18. The ratio in which the line joining the points (5, 3) and (–1, 6) is divided by y-axis is:
a) 5:3 b) 2:3 c) 4:5 d) 5:1

19. If the point P(6, 3) divides the line joining A(4, 2) and B(8, 4), then:

a) ( ) b) c) ( ) d)

20. Two of the vertices of a ∆ABC are A(–1, 4) and B(5, 2) and its centroid is (0, –3). The
coordinates of the vertex C are:
a) (4, 3) b) (4, 15) c) (–4, –15) d) (–15, –4)

21. PQ is a diameter of a circle with centre O(2, – 4). If the coordinates of the point P are (– 4, 5),
then the coordinates of the point Q will be
(a) (– 3, 4.5) (b) (– 1, 0.5) (c) (4, – 5) (d) (8, – 13)

22. The ratio in which the line segment joining the points A(– 2, – 3) and B(3, 7) is intersected
internally by the y-axis is:
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 7 (d) 7 : 3

23. A line segment joining the points P(–5, 11) and Q is divided internally by the point M(2, –3)
such that PM : MQ = 7 : 2. The coordinates of Q are

(a) (4, – 7) (b) (27.5, – 52) (c) (– 7, 4) (d) ( )

24. D is a median of Δ BC with vertices 5, -6), B(6, 4) and C(0, 0). Length of AD is equal to
(a) √ units (b) 2√ units (c) √ units (d) 10 units
142
25. XOYZ is a rectangle with vertices X(-3, 0), O(0, 0), Y(0, 4) and Z(x, y). The length of its
each diagonal is
(a) 5 units (b) √ units (c) units (d) 4 units

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: The point which divides the line joining the points A(1, 2) and B(- 1, 1) internally in

the ratio 1: 2 is ( ).

Reason: The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the line segment joining the points

A(x1 , y1 ) and B(x2 , y2 ) in the ratio m1 : m2 is ( ).

2. Assertion: The point on the x - axis which if equidistant from the points A(- 2, 3) and B(5, 4) is
(2, 0).
Reason: The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the line segment joining the points

A(x1 , y1 ) and B(x2 , y2 ) in the ratio m1 : m2 is ( ).

3. Assertion: Ratio in which the line 3x + 4y = 7 divides the line segment joining the points (1, 2)
and (- 2, 1) is 3:5.
Reason: The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the line segment joining the points

A(x1 , y1 ) and B(x2 , y2 ) in the ratio m1 : m2 is ( ).

143
4. Assertion: C is the mid-point of PQ, if P is (4, x), C is (y, - 1) and Q is (- 2, 4), then x and y

respectively are -6 and 1.

Reason: The mid-point of the line segment joining the points P(x1 , y1) and Q(x2 , y2) is

( )

5. Assertion: The point (0, 4) lies on y -axis.

Reason: The x co-ordinate on the point on y -axis is zero.

6. Assertion: The value of y is 6, for which the distance between the points P(2, - 3) and Q(10, y)
is 10.
Reason: Distance between two given points A(x1 , y1 ) and B(x2 , y2 ) is given by,

AB = √( ) ( )

7. Assertion: The possible values of x for which the distance between the points A(x, - 1) and

B(5, 3) is 5 units are 2 and 8.

Reason: Distance between two given points A(x1 , y1 ) and B(x2 , y2 ) is given by,

AB = √( ) ( )

8. Assertion: If the points A(4, 3) and B(x, 5) lies on a circle with the centre O(2,3) then the value
of x is 2.
Reason: The mid-point of the line segment joining the points P(x1 , y1) and Q(x2 , y2)

is ( )

9. Assertion: Mid-point of a line segment divides line in the ratio 1:1.

Reason: The ratio in which the point (– 3, k) divides the line segment joining the points (– 5, 4)

and (– 2, 3) is 1∶2.

10. Assertion: Centroid of a triangle formed by the points (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is at origin,
then a + b + c = 0.
Reason: If A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3) be the vertices of the triangle Centroid of the triangle

is given by G = ( , ).

144
11. Assertion: The point which divides the line segment joining the points A(1, 2) and B(-1, 1)

internally in the ratio 1:2 is ( ).

Reason: The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points

( ) and ( ) in the ratio are ( ).

12. Assertion: Mid-point of a line segment divides the line segment in the ratio 1:1.

Reason: The ratio in which the point (-3, k) divides the line segment joining the points (-5, 4) and
(-2, 3) is 1:2.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. The diagram shows a model of Rocket which is made on a graph paper. Look at the model and

answer the following questions:

i) The mid-point of the segment joining the points F and G is:

a) (–1, 2) b) (2, –1) c) (–2, 1) d) none

ii) The distance of the point A from the x-axis is:

a) 4 units b) 3 units c) 1 unit d) none

iii) The distance between the points A and C is:

a) √ b) 2 √ c) 3 √ d) none

iv) The co-ordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points A and B in the
ratio 1:3 internally is:
a) (4, 2.5) b) (3, 3) c) (3, 3.5) d) none

v) The coordinates of D are:

a) (–1, 0) b) (– 4, –1) c) (– 2, –5) d) (–4, 0)

2. Two brothers Mahesh and Sudhir were at home and have to reach school. Mahesh went to

library first to return a book and the reaches school directly whereas Sudhir went to Skate Park

first to meet his friend and then reaches school directly. The places have been shown in a

coordinate plane. Here all distances are in km.

145
i) How far is school from their home?

ii) What is the extra distance travelled by Mahesh in reaching his school?

iii) What is the extra distance travelled by Sudhir in reaching his school?

3. Mr Pankaj Chugh aged 50 years, is a senior Maths teacher and is living in New Delhi. As per

the government‟s directive, he had taken his first dose of COVID-19 vaccine in the month of

April 2021 in a city hospital. Now he wants to take his second dose of the vaccine. The following

map is showing three vaccination centers around his home. Let O represents his home.

Vaccination centers are at A, B and C as shown in the figure below.

i) According to the figure, in which ratio vaccination centre B dividing the line joining

vaccination centre A and C?

ii) Assuming that Mr Chugh went to center B and vaccine doses are finished. Then what is the

closest distance he has to cover to reach another vaccination center?

146
iii) Find the distance between his home to the vaccination center C.

iv) Calculate the distance between the vaccination centers A and C.

4. In a cinema hall, peoples are seated at a distance of 1m from each other, to maintain the social

distance due to CORONA virus pandemic. Let three peoples sit at the points P, Q and R whose

coordinates are 6, −2 , 9, 4 and 10, 6 respectively.

Based on the above information, answer the following

i) Find the distance between P and R.

ii) Find the midpoint of the line segment joining P and R.

iii) If a point A lie on the straight-line joining Q and R such that it divides the distance between

them in the ratio of 1: 2. Then find the coordinates of A.

iv) Find the ratio in which Q divides the line segment joining P and R.

5. A craftsman thought of making a floor pattern after being inspired by the above design. To

ensure accuracy in his work, he made the pattern on the Cartesian plane. He used regular

octagons, squares and triangles for his floor tessellation pattern.

Use the above figure to answer the questions that follow:

i) What is the length of the line segment joining points B and F?

ii The centre „Z‟ of the figure will be the point of intersection of the diagonals of quadrilateral

WXOP. Then what are the coordinates of Z?

147
iii) What are the coordinates of the point on y axis equidistant from A and G?

iv) What is the area of Trapezium AFGH?

6. All of the persons know that smoking is injurious to health. So, some college students decided

to start a campaign. To raise social awareness about hazards of smoking, they started "NO

SMOKING" campaign. Some students were asked to prepare campaign banners in the shape of

triangle which is as shown in the figure:

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) Find the coordinates of the mid-point of Q and R.

(ii) Find the point on X-axis, which is equidistant from points Q and R.

(iii) Find the centroid of the triangle PQR.

7. Partha, a software engineer, lives in Jerusalem for his work. He lives in the most convenient

area of the city from where bank, hospital, post office and supermarket can be easily accessed. In

the graph, the bank is plotted as A(9, 5), hospital as B(– 3, – 1) and supermarket as C(5, – 5) such

that A, B, C form a triangle.

148
Based on the above given information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the distance between the bank and the hospital.

(ii) In between the bank and the supermarket, there is a post office plotted at E which is their mid-

point. Find the coordinates of E.

(iii) In between the hospital and the supermarket, there is a bus stop plotted as D, which is their

mid-point. If Partha wants to reach the bus stand from the bank, then how much distance does he

need to cover?

(iv) P and Q are two different garment shops lying between the bank and the hospital, such that

BP = PQ = QA. If the coordinates of P and Q are (1, a) and (b, 3) respectively, then find the

values of „a‟ and „b‟.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. P(–2, 5) and Q(3, 2) are two points. Find the co-ordinates of the point R on PQ such that

PR = 2QR.

2. Find the ratio in which P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3)

and B(6, – 3). Hence find m.

149
3. In what ratio does the point P(– 4, 6) divide the line segment joining the points A(– 6, 10) and

B(3, – 8)?

4. If the line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, – 8) is trisected at the points P and Q,

find the coordinates P.

5. The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q(2, –5) and

R(–3, 6), find the co-ordinates of P.

6. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points Q(a + b, b – a) and R(a – b, a + b), then prove

that bx = ay.

7. Prove that the point (3, 0), (6, 4) and (–1, 3) are the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle.

8. If the mid-point of the line segment joining * + and B(x + 1, y – 3) is C(5, – 2), find x, y.

9. If A (5, 2), B (2, – 2) and C (–2, t) are the vertices of a right angled triangle with B = 90°,

then find the value of t.

10. Show that the points ( )( ) and ( √ √ ) are the vertices of the equilateral

triangle.

11. Find the area of a rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0), (4, 5), (–1, 4) and (–2, –1) taken in order.

12. ABCD is a rectangle, whose three vertices are B(4, 0), C(4, 3) and D(0, 3). Find the length of

one of its diagonals.

13. Prove that the points (2, –2), (–2, 1) and (5, 2) are the vertices of a right triangle. Also, find

the area of this triangle.

14. Find the length of the median AP of the triangle ABC whose vertices are A(1, –1), B(0, 4)

and C(–5, 3).

15. Prove that the diagonals of a rectangle bisect each other and are equal.

16. In what ratio is the line segment joining the points (3, -5) and (-1, 6) divided by the line y = x?

150
17. Points A(-1, y) and B(5, 7) lie on a circle with centre O(2, -3y) such that AB is a diameter of

the circle. Find the value of y. Also find the radius of the circle.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. The line segment joining the points A(3, 2) and B(5, 1) is divided at the point P in the ratio 1:2

and it lies on the line 3x – 18y + k = 0. Find the value of k.

2. If the point C(– 1, 2) divides internally the line segment joining A(2, 5) and B(x, y) in the ratio

3:4, find the coordinates of B.

3. The line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, –8) is trisected at the points P and Q such

that P is nearer to A. If P also lies on the line given by 2x – y + k = 0, find the value of k.

4. Find the ratio in which the line x – 3y = 0 divides the line segment joining the points (–2, – 5)

and (6, 3). Find the coordinates of the point of intersection.

5. If coordinates of two adjacent vertices of a parallelogram are (3, 2), (1, 0) and diagonals bisect

each other at (2, – 5), find coordinates of the other two vertices.

6. The centre of a circle is (2a, a – 7). Find the values of a if the circle passes through the point

(11, –9) and has diameter √ units.

7. If two vertices of an equilateral triangle be ( ) ( √ ), find its third vertex.

8. Show that DABC, where A(–2, 0), B(2, 0), C(0, 2) and DPQR where P(–4, 0), Q(4, 0) and

R(0, 4) are similar triangles.

9. The medians of a triangle meet at (0, -3) and its two vertices are (-1, 4) and (5, 2). Find the

third vertex of the triangle.

10. If (a, b) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(10, –6) and B(k, 4) and

a – 2b = 18, find the value of k and the distance AB.

151
11. ABCD is a rectangle formed by the points A(-1, -1), B(-1, 6), C(3, 6) and D(3, -1). P, Q, R

and S are mid-points of sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Show that diagonals of

quadrilateral PQRS bisect each other.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Find the vertices of the triangle the mid-points of whose sides are (3, 1), (5, 6) and (–3, 2).

2. The base BC of an equilateral triangle ABC lies on y-axis. The co-ordinates of point C are

(0, – 3). The origin is the mid-point of the base. Find the co-ordinates of the point A and B. Also

find the co-ordinates of another point D such that BACD is a rhombus.

3. If P(9a – 2, – b) divides the line segment joining A(3a + 1, – 3) and B(8a, 5) in the ratio 3:1.

Find the values of a and b.

4. Find the centre of a circle passing through the points (6, –6), (3, –7) and (3, 3).

5. Find the coordinates of the centroid of a triangle whose mid points of the sides are (–1, 6),

(5, 6) and (2, 0).

152
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. The co-ordinates of vertex of Δ BC are – 4, 2) and a point D which is mid-point of BC are

2, 5 . The coordinates of centroid of Δ BC are

a ( ) b ( ) c ( ) d ( )

2. The distance between the points (a cos q + b sin q, 0) and (0, a sin q – b cos q) is:

a) b) c) √ d) √

3. The point which lies on the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points
A(–2, –5) and B(2, 5) is
a) (0, 0) b) (0, 2) c) (2, 0) d) (–2, 0)

4. Assertion: The point on the X -axis which if equidistant from the points A(- 2, 3) and B(5, 4) is
(2, 0)
Reason: The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the line segment joining the points

A(x1, y1) and B(x2 , y2) in the ratio m1:m2 is ( )

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. Points −1, y and B 5, 7 lie on a circle with centre O 2, −3y .Find the value(s) of y. Hence,

find the radius of the circle.

153
6. Find the ratio in which the point P(m, 6) divides the join of A(–4, 3) and B(2, 8). Also, find the

value of „m‟.

7. If Q(0, 1) is equidistant from P(5, –3) and R(x, 6), find the value of x. Also, find the distance
QR.

SECTION C
Each carry 3 marks

8. The line segment joining the points (3, –4) and (1, 2) is trisected at the points P and Q. If the

coordinates of P and Q are (p, –2) and ( ) respectively, find the value of p and q.

9. Find a relation between x and y such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the point (3, 6)

and (–3, 4).

SECTION D
Each carry 5 marks

10. A(6, 6), B(12, 6), C(14, 2) and D (3, 2) are the vertices of a trapezium ABCD. Perpendicular

AP divides DC in the ratio 3:8. Find the area of the trapezium.

11. If the mid-point P of the line joining (3, 4) and (k, 7) is (x, y) and the line 2x + 2y + 1 = 0

passes through P, find the value of k. Also, find the co-ordinates of P.

SECTION E

12. In a city, a circular park is situated with center O(3, 3). There are two exit gates P and Q

which are opposite to each other. The location of exit gate „P‟ is 5, 3 .

i) Find the location of exit gate „Q‟.

ii) What will be the distance between two exit gates P and Q?

iii) If a pole R(x, 5) is standing on a boundary of a circular park that is equidistant from P and Q
then, find the value of „x‟.
(Or)
In what ratio does the center O (3, 3) divides the line segment joining the points P and Q?
154
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. b) 2 1. (d) Assertion (A) is 1. i) a ii) a (iii) b 1. ( ) 1. 19 1. (–1, 7), (–5, –3),

false but reason (R) is (iv) c v) c (11, 5)

2. c) (–4, 2) 2. (–5, –2).
2. m = 0
true.
2. i) 3km ii) 7.48km 2. ( √ )
3. b) 3 3. k = – 8.
2. (b) Both assertion 3.
iii) 4.33km
3. a = 1, b = -3
4. c) 10 (A) and reason (R) 4. ( )
4. (3, – 2).
3. i) 3:2 ii) √
are true but reason 4. (3, -2)
5. c) √
5. (16, 8) 5. (1, – 12) and (3, –
(R) is not the correct iii) 10 iv) √
6. a) (–6, 7) 10)
explanation of 6. Proof
4. i) √ units
7. b) (0, –1) assertion (A). 6. 3, 5
ii) (8, 2) iii) ( ) 7. Proof
3. (d) Assertion (A) is 7.
8. a) 6, 2
8. x = 6 and y = -1
false but reason (R) is iv) 3:1
( √ ) or ( √ ).
9. b) –12
true. 9. t = 1
5. i) √ units
8. Proof
10. a) (x, y) 4. (a) Both assertion
ii) ( ) iii) 10. Proof
(A) and reason (R) 9. (-4, -15)

155
11. d) (0, –10) and (4, are true and reason ( ) 11. 24 sq. units. 10. a = 16,

0) (R) is the correct AB = √ units.

iv) sq. units 12. 5 units
explanation of
12. b) 5, 2 11. Proof
6. i) ( ) 13. 12.5 sq. units.
assertion (A).
13. d) 1:1
5. (a) Both assertion 14.
√
ii) ( )
14. b √ units (A) and reason (R)
15. Proof
are true and reason iii) ( )
15. d) 5 units
(R) is the correct 16. 8:7
16. d) 3x = 2y 7. i) √ units
explanation of
17. y = -1 and radius
ii) (7, 0)
17. d) √ units assertion (A).
= 5 units
iii) √ units
6. (d) Assertion (A) is
18. d) 5:1
iv) a = 1 & b = 5
false but reason (R) is
19. b) AP = PB true.

20. c) (–4, –15) 7. (a) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R)

21. (d) (8, – 13)
are true and reason

156
22. (b) 2 : 3 (R) is the correct

explanation of
23. (a) (4, – 7)
assertion (A).
24. (a) √ units
8. (b) Both assertion

25. (a) 5 units (A) and reason (R)

are true and but

reason (R) is not the

correct explanation of

assertion (A).

9. (c) Assertion (A) is

true but Reason (R) is

false.

10. (a) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R)

are true and reason

(R) is the correct

157
 explanation of

assertion (A).

11. (d) Assertion (A)

is false , but

Reason(R) is true.

12. (c) Assertion (A)

is true but Reason (R)
is false

UNIT TEST
1. a ( )

2. c) √

3. a) (0, 0)

4. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5. y = -1, Radius = 5 and y = 7, Radius = √

6.

158
7. √

8.

9. 3x + 4y – 5 = 0

10. 24 sq. units

11. ( )

12. i) (1. 3) ii) 4 units iii) 3 (Or) 1:1

159
 CHAPTER 8 – INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY

Key Concepts

Trigonometric Ratios of the angle

In trigonometry, we deal with relations between the side and angles of a triangle.

Ratios of the sides of a right-angled triangle with respect to its acute angles are called

trigonometric ratios of the angle.

Six Trigonometric Ratios

sinθ = cosecθ =

cosθ = secθ =

tanθ = cotθ =

Relations between Trigonometric Ratios

(a) Reciprocal Relations

i cosecθ = or sinθ = or cosecθ x sinθ = 1

ii secθ = or cosθ = or secθ x cosθ = 1

iii cotθ = or tanθ = or cotθ x tanθ = 1

(b) Quotient Relations

i tanθ = ii cotθ =

160
Trigonometric ratios for angle of measure 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° in tabular form

θ 0o 30o 45o 60o 90o

sinθ 0 ⁄ √ ⁄ 1
√

cosθ 1 √ ⁄ ⁄ 0
√

tanθ 0 ⁄ 1 √ Not Defined

√

cosecθ Not Defined 2 √ ⁄ 1

√

secθ 1 ⁄ √ 2 Not Defined

√

cotθ Not Defined √ 1 0

√

Trigonometric Identities

An equation involving trigonometric ratios of an angle is said to be a trigonometric identity if it is

satisfied for all values of θ for which the given trigonometric ratios are defined.

Identity 1 Identity 2 Identity 3

sin2θ + cos2θ = 1 cosec2θ – cot2θ = 1 sec2θ – tan2θ = 1

sin2θ = 1 - cos2θ cosec2θ = 1 + cot2θ sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ

cos2θ = 1- sin2θ cot2θ = cosec2θ - 1 tan2θ = sec2θ - 1

161
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If and then, the value of is:

a) b) c) d) 1

2. If then, is equal to:

a) b) c) d)

3. If then, is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2√ d) √

4. Triangle TRY is a right-angled isosceles triangle then, is:

a) √ b) 2√ c) 1 + 2√ d)
√

5. If ( ) and ( ) then, and will be, respectively:

a) b) c) d)

162
6. 1 + tan θ + sec θ 1 + cot θ – cosec θ =

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) -1

7. In triangle , right angled at , If , then the value of is

a) b) c) 1 d) None of these

8. In ∆OPQ, right-angled at P, OP = 7 cm and OQ – PQ = 1 cm, then the values of sin Q is

a) b) c) 1 d) None of these

9. If , then the value of is

a) b) c) d) None of these

10. The value of ( ) ( ) is

√
a) b) c) d) None of these

11. If then value of is

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

12. If , then the value of the expression ( ) is

a) 1 b) c) 2 d) 3

13. If is right angled at , then the value of ( ) is

√
a) 0 b) 1 c) d)

14. If is an acute angle and , then the value of is

√
a) 1 b) c) d) √

15. ( )( )
a) 0 b) c) 1 d) none of these

163
16. If √ , then

a) b) 1 c) d)
√

17. If , then

a) 100 b) c) -2 d) 2

18. (1 + tan2θ 1 – sinθ 1 + sinθ =

a) 0 b) –1 c) 1 d) 2

19. If cosec θ – sin θ = a, sec θ – cos θ = b, then a2 b2(a2 + b2 + 3) =

a) 3 b) –3 c) 1 d) –1

20. If , then
√

√
a) b) c) d)

21. The value of ( ) is

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) – 1

22. If , where and , then the value of is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

23. If ( ), then is equal to

√
(a) (b) (c) (d)
√ √ √

24. If , then the value of is

(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)

25. If , then the value of is

(a) (b) (c) (d) –m

164
26. If ( ) , then value of ( ) is equal to

(a) (b) (c) 0 (d) √

√

27. If ( ), then value of ( ) is

(a) (b) √ (c) 1 (d) 0

√

√
28. If and then ( ) is

(a) √ (b) (c) 1 (d) not defined

√

√ √
29. If , then is

(a) √ (b) (c) 1 (d) 0

√

30. If , then the value of ( ) is

(a) (b) (c) (d) 0

√ √

31. If then the value of is

(a) 36 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 18

32. If then the value of cot is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

165
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. ssertion: If and then the value of .

Reason : For any value of

2. Assertion: Sin A is the product of Sin and A.

Reason: The value of sinθ increases as θ increases.

3. ssertion: ( ) is equal to .

Reason : The value of decreases as increases.

4. ssertion: If and , then .

Reason : For any value of

5. ssertion: The value of is .

Reason : and .

6. ssertion: The value of is .

√ √
Reason: Value of and

7. ssertion: If then .

Reason: for any value of .

8. ssertion: The value of is

Reason: for any value of .

√
9. ssertion: The value of is

Reason : is not defined for .

166
10. ssertion: The value of ( )( ) is .

Reason : for any value of .

√
11. ssertion: If ( ), then the value of is

Reason: For every angle .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. A right triangle is a triangle in which one angle is a right angle (90°). The relation between the

sides and angles of a right triangle is the basis of trigonometry. During the environment

awareness campaign, a student of class-X made a cardboard ABC in the form of a right triangle,

right angled at B, AB = 5 cm and ACB = 30°.

i) Find length of side BC.

ii) Evaluate the length of AC.

iii) Find tanA.

iv) Evaluate ( ).

2. The rod AB of a TV disc antenna is fixed at right angle to the wall and a rod BC supporting the

disc as shown in the figure. AB = 4m, and BC = 8m.

Answer the following questions

(i) Find the value of tanθ.

(ii) Find the value of θ.

(iii) Evaluate .

(iv) Determine the value of value of sinA + tanB.

3. Kings and queens used the Tower in times of trouble to protect their possessions and

themselves. Arms and armour were made, tested and stored here until the 1800s. The Tower also

controlled the supply of the nation‟s money. ll coins of the realm were made at the Tower Mint
167
from the reign of Edward I until 1810. Kings and queens also locked away their valuables and

jewels at the Tower and even today, the Crown Jewels are protected by a garrison of soldiers. A

tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground, which is 15 m away from the

foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60°.

i) Find the height of the tower in the above situation.

ii) If the above tower casts a shadow of length 2√3 m on the ground when the sun's elevation is

60°. Find the height of the tower.

iii) The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground 30 m away from the

foot of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower.

iv) In the above situation if AB = 30 m and AC = 60 m. Find A.

4. The Circus Arts Program is one of the most popular activities at Camp Lohikan. It brings a

level of excitement and enthusiasm to the camp experience that can't be found at home or in

school. A circus artist is climbing a 20 m long rope, which is tightly stretched and tied from the

top of a vertical pole to the ground such that the angle made by the rope with the ground level is

30°.

i) Find the height of the pole in the above situation.

ii) In the above situation, if AB = 5 m and ACB = 30° then find the length of the side BC.

iii) In the above situation, if the height of pole is 3 m and the length of rope is 6 m then find

ACB.

iv) Find the value of .

5. Kite flying is also a major part of Makar Sankranti, although the states of Gujarat and

Rajasthan indulge in this with a lot more enthusiasm. Makar Sankranti is a major harvest festival

celebrated in India and is dedicated to the Sun God, Surya. It is the first major festival to be

celebrated in India and usually takes place in January, this year the festival will be celebrated on
168
January 14. Aditya flying a kite at a height of 60 m above the ground. He attached the string to

the kite is temporarily tied to a point on the ground. The inclination of the string with the ground

is 60°.

i) In the above situation, find the length of the string, assuming that there is no slack in the string.

ii) The string of a kite is 100 m long and it makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. If these is

no slack in the string, find the height of the kite from the ground.

iii) A kite is flying at a height of 30 m from the ground. The length of string from the kite to the

ground is 60 m. Assuming that there is no slack in the string, find the angle of elevation of the

kite at the ground.

iv) Find the value of ( ).

6. A sailing boat with triangular masts is as shown below. Two right triangles can be observed

Triangles PQR and PQS, both right-angled at Q. The distance QR = 2 m and QS = 3 m and height

PQ = 5 m.

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) Find the value of cosecR.

(ii) Find the value of tanS + cotR.

(iii) Determine the value of .

(iv) Find the value of .

169
7. Three friends-Sanjeev, Amit and Digvijay are playing hide and seek in a park. Sanjeev and

Amit were supposed to hide and Digvijay had to find both of them. If the positions of three

friends are at A, B and C respectively as shown in the figure and forms a right-angled triangle

such that AB = 9 m, BC= 3√3 m and B = 90°.

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) Find the measure of by using trigonometric ratio.

(ii) Find the measure of C by using trigonometric ratio.

(iii) Find the value of cos2A.

(iv) Find the value of ( ).

8. Two aeroplanes leave an airport one after the other. After moving on runway, one flies due

North and other flies due South. The speed of two aeroplanes is 400km/hr and 500km/hr

respectively. Considering PQ as runway and A and B are any two points in the path followed by

two planes, then answer the following.

(i) Find ; if .

(ii) Find cotB.

170
(iii) Find secA.

(iv) Find coesecB.

9. nitha, a student of class 10 has to made a project on „Introduction to Trigonometry‟. She

decides to make a bird house which is triangular in shape. She uses cardboard to make the bird

house as shown in the figure. Considering the front side of bird house as right angled triangle

PQR, right angled at R. Based on the information, answer the following questions:

(i) If , then

(ii) Find the value of

(iii) Find the value of

10. anya and her father go to meet her friend Juhi for a party. When they reached to Juhi‟s

place, Aanya saw the roof of the house, which is triangular in shape. If she imagined the

dimensions of the roof as given in figure, then answer the following questions:

(i) If D is the mid-point of AC, then find BD.

(ii) Find the value of sinA + cosC.

171
(iii) Find the value of .

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. If find the value of .

2. If √ and , find the value of .

3. Evaluate

4. Prove that:

( )
5.Prove that

6. If , √ .

7. If , √ .

8. If find .

9. In ∆ BC, right angled at B, B = 24 cm, BC = 7 cm. Determine, (i) tan A, sec A (ii) cosec C,

cot C.

( )( )
10. If , then evaluate .
( )( )

11. If , prove that .

√

12. Evaluate: .

13. If , verify that .

14. If cos (40° + x) = sin 30°, find the value of x.

15. If find the value of .

16. Solve: √

172
17. A rhombus of side 14 cm has two angles of 60° each. Find the lengths of the diagonals of the

rhombus.

18. If and are acute angles such that tan , tan and ( ) ,

find A + B.

19. If is an acute angle and , find the value of .

20. In , right angled at and . Determine and .

21. If ( ) and ( ) , where , then find the value of

√

sec(2A – 3B).

22. Find the value of x such that .

23. Evaluate: √ √ .

24. If A = and B = , verify that sin(A + B) = sinA cosB + cosA sinB.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Prove that ( ) ( ) .

2. Prove that: .

3. If prove that or .

4. Prove that:

5. Prove that: ( ) .

6. If , prove that .

√
7. Find acute angles and , if ( ) and ( ) .

8. If ( ) ( ) and ( ) , find anc , when they are

√

acute.

173
9. Prove that: .

10. √ then prove that .

11. If and , prove that ( ) .

12. If √ show that √

13. Prove that: ( ) ( ) ( )

14. Show that: ( )( )

15. Prove that .

( )
16. Prove that ( )
( )

17. Prove that ( ) ( ) ( )

18. Prove that , if

√

19. If and , then prove that ( ) .

20. Prove that √ .

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Prove that

2. Prove that .

3. Prove that

4. If , then find the value of .

5. Prove that: .

6. Show that:

7. Prove that: .

8. If and , prove that ( ) ( )

174
9. Show that

10. Prove that: ( )( ) .

175
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. If √ , then

a) b) c) d)

2. The value of ( ) ( ) is

a) 6 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4

3. The value of ( ) ( ) is

a) b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

4. Assertion: The value of in not possible.

Reason: Hypotenuse is the largest side in any right-angled triangle.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. ABC is a triangle, right angled at A. If C = 60°, B = 30°, and BC = 3 cm, find the remaining

parts of ∆ BC.

√
6. If ( ) and ( ) ( ) , then find A and B.
√

7. Prove that: .

176
SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. Show that: ( )( ) .

( )( )
9. Prove that: ( )
.

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. If and , prove that .

11. If and , prove that ( ) ( )

SECTION E

12. „Skysails‟ is that genre of engineering science that uses extensive utilization of wind energy

to move a vessel in the sea water. The „Skysails‟ technology allows the towing kite to gain a

height of anything between 100 metres – 300 metres. The sailing kite is made in such a way that

it can be raised to its proper elevation and then brought back with the help of a „telescopic mast‟

that enables the kite to be raised properly and effectively.

Based on the following figure related to sky sailing, answer the questions:

i) In the given figure, if √ , where is acute angle, then find the value of . [1mark]

ii) What should be the length of the rope of the kite sail in order to pull the ship at the angle

(calculated above) and be at a vertical height of 300 m? [2 marks]

(Or)

What should be the distance BC in order to pull the ship at the angle (calculated above) and be at a

vertical height of 300 m? [2 marks]

iii) If the length of the rope, C = 200m and θ = 30°, then find the vertical height AB.

177
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. b 1. (a) Both assertion 1. i) √ ii) 10 1. 1. Proof 1. Proof

(A) and reason (R) cm iii) √

2. c) 2. Proof 2. Proof
2.
are true and reason iv) 1
3. Proof 3. Proof
3. a) 0 (R) is the correct 3. 5
2. i) ii) iii) 1
√
explanation of 4. Proof 4.
4. a) √ 4. Proof
assertion (A). iv) √ 5. Proof
5. b) 5. Proof 5. Proof
2. (d) Assertion (A) is
3. i) √ ii) 6 m 6. Proof
6. c) 2 √
6. 6.
false but reason (R) is
iii) √ iv) 7.
7. b) true. 7. Proof
7.
√
4. i) 10 m ii) √ 8. A = B = C = 30o
3. (b) Both assertion 8. 1
8. a)
8. √
(A) and reason (R) iii) 30° iv) 2 9. Proof

9. c) are true but reason 9. i ii 10. Proof

5. i) √ ii)
(R) is not the correct

178
10. c) explanation of √ 10. 11.

assertion (A)
11. c) 90° iii) 30° iv) 11. 12. √

4. (a) Both assertion

12. a) 1 √ 12. 9 13. Proof
(A) and reason (R) 6. i)

13. a) 0 are true and reason 13.

ii)
(R) is the correct
14. b) 14.
explanation of iii)
15. c) 1 assertion (A). 15.
iv)
16. c) 5. (b) Both assertion 16.
7. i)
(A) and reason (R)
17. d) 2 17. √ .
ii)
are true but reason
18. c) 1 18.
(R) is not the correct iii)

19. c) 1 explanation of 19. 2

iv)
assertion (A).
20. c) 20. 30° & 60°
8. i)
6. (a) Both assertion

179
21. (c) 1 (A) and reason (R) ii) 21. √

22. (b) are true and reason

22. x = 4
iii)
(R) is the correct
√
23. (c) 23. 4
explanation of
iv)
24. (a) assertion (A) 24. Verification
9. i) ( )
25. (c) 7. (a) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R) ii) ( )

26. (a)
√
are true and reason
iii) (-1)
27. (c) 1 (R) is the correct

explanation of 10. i) 6m
28. (a) √
assertion (A)
ii) √
29. (c) 1
8. (a) Both assertion iii) 2

30. (a) (A) and reason (R)

√

are true and reason

31. (a) 36
(R) is the correct

180
32. (d) explanation of

assertion (A)

9. (b) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R)

are true but reason

(R) is not the correct

explanation of

assertion (A)

10. (a) Both assertion

(A) and reason (R)

are true and reason

(R) is the correct

explanation of

assertion (A)

11. (a) Both assertion

181
 (A) and (R) are true.
Reason(R) is the
correct explanation of
Assertion (A)

UNIT TEST

1. a)

2. a) 6

3. c) 2

4. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5. √

6.

7. 1

8. Proof

182
9. Proof

10. Proof

11. 1

12. i) 30° ii) 600 m (Or) √ iii) 100 m

183
 CHAPTER 9 – SOME APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY

Key Concepts

Line of sight

When an observer looks from a point O at an object P, then the line OP is called the line of sight.

Angle of elevation

The angle of elevation of an object viewed is the angle formed by the line of sight with the

horizontal when it is above the horizontal level. i.e. the case when we raise our head to look the

object.

Angle of Depression

The angle of depression of an object viewed is the angle formed by the line of sight with the

horizontal when it is below the horizontal level. i.e., the case when we lower our head to look at

the object.

184
 (i) The angle of elevation of a point P as seen from a point O is always equal to the
angle of depressions of O as seen from P.

(ii) The angles of elevation and depressions are always acute angles.

(iii) If the observer moves towards the perpendicular line(tower/building), then the
angle of elevation increases and if the observer moves away from the perpendicular
line(tower/building), then the angle of elevation decreases.

(iv) If the height of the tower is doubled and the distance between the observer and foot

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. From a point on the ground, which is 15 m away from the foot of a vertical tower, the angle

of elevation of the top of the tower, is found to be 60°. The height of the tower (in metres) is

a) √ b) 1 √ c) 15 d) 7.5

2. A lamp post √ m high casts a shadow 5 m long on the ground. The Sun‟s elevation at this

moment is

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

3. The length of the shadow of a tower standing on level ground is found to be 2x metres longer
when the Sun‟s elevation is 30° than when it was 45°. The height of the tower (in metres) is
a) (√ ) b) (√ ) c) √ d) √

4. If two towers of height h1 and h2 subtend angles of 60° and 30° respectively at the mid-point

of the line joining their feet, then h1:h2 is

a) 3:1 b) √ c) √ d) 1:3
185
5. Suppose a straight vertical tree is broken at some point due to storm and the broken part is

inclined at a certain distant from the foot of the tree. If the top of broken part of a tree touch

the ground at a point whose distance from foot of the tree is equal to height of remaining part,

then its angle of inclination is

a) 30° b) 60° c) 45° d) none of these

6. The angle of depression of a car parked on the road from the top of a 150 m high tower is 30°.

The distance of the car from the tower (in metres) is

a) 50√ b) 150√ c) 150√ d) 75

7. The length of shadow of a tower on the plane ground is √ times the height of the tower. The

angle of elevation of sun is:

a) 45° b) 30° c) 60° d) 90°

8. A ladder, leaning against a wall, makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. If the foot of the

ladder is 9.5m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is

a) 10 b) 16m c) 18m d) 19m

9. The length of a string between a kite and a point on the ground is 85 m. If the string makes an

angle θ with the ground level such that tanθ = , then the height of the kite is

a) 75 m b) 78.05 m c) 226 m d) None of these

10. The top of two poles of height 20 m and 14 m are connected by a wire. If the wire makes an

angle of 30° with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is

a) 12 m b) 10 m c) 8 m d) 6 m

11. An observer, 1.5 m tall is 20.5 m away from a tower 22 m high, then the angle of elevation of

the top of the tower from the eye of the observer is

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

186
12. The tops of two towers of heights x and y, standing on a level ground subtend angles of 30°

and 60° respectively at the centre of the line joining their feet. Then, x:y is

a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:3 d) 3:1

13. On the level ground, the angle of elevation of a tower is 30°. On moving 20 m nearer, the

angle of elevation is 60°. The height of the tower is

a) 10m b) √ c) 15m d) 20m

14. In a rectangle, the angle between a diagonal and a side is 30° and the length of this diagonal is

8 cm. The area of the rectangle is

a) b) c) √ d) 8√
√

15. From the top of a hill, the angles of depression of two consecutive km stones due east are

found to be 30° and 45°. The height of the hill is

a) (√ ) b) (√ ) c) (√ ) d) (√ )

16. If the length of the shadow on the ground of a pole is √ times the height of the pole, then the
angle of elevation of the sun is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

187
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: If the height and length of the shadow of a man are the same, then the angle of

elevation of the Sun is 45°.

Reason: The value of tan 45° = 0.

2. Assertion: Mohini looks at a top of tree and angle made is 45°. She moves 10 m back and again

looks at the top of tree, but this time angle made is 30°, then height of the tree is .
√

Reason: The angle of elevation and depression can be acute or obtuse angle.

3. Assertion: The height of an observer is h m. He stands on a horizontal ground at a distance

√ from a vertical pillar of height 4h m. The angle of elevation of the top of the pillar as seen

by the observer is .

Reason : The value of √ .

4. Assertion: If a vertical tower of height 50 m casts a shadow of length √ m, then the angle of

elevation of the Sun is 60°.

Reason: If the angle of elevation of the Sun decreases, then the length of shadow of a tower

increases.

5. Assertion: A ladder 16 m long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an

angle of 60° with the wall, then the height of the wall is 8 m.

√
Reason: The value of .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. An electrician has to repair an electric fault on the pole of height 5 m. She needs to reach a

point 1.3 m below the top of the pole to undertake the repair work (see figure).

188
i) What is the length of BD?

ii) What should be the length of ladder, when inclined at an angle of 60° to the horizontal?

iii) How far from the foot of pole should she place the foot of the ladder?

iv) If the horizontal angle is changed to 30°, then what should be the length of the ladder?

2. There are two temples on each bank of a river. One temple is 50 m high. A man, who is

standing on the top of a 50 m high temple, observed from the top that the angle of depression of

the top and foot of other temples are 30° and 60° respectively. ( Take √ )

i) Find the width of the river.

ii) Evaluate the height of the other temple.

3. There are two balconies in a house. First balcony is at a height of 3 m above the ground and

other balcony is 6 m vertically above the lower balcony. Ankit and Radha are sitting inside the

two balconies at points G and F, respectively. At any instant, the angles of elevation of a

Parachute from these balconies are observed to be 60° and 45° as shown below.

189
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

i) Who is closer to the Parachute?

ii) Find the value of DF.

iii) Find the height of the Parachute from the ground.

iv) If the Parachute is moving towards the building, then what you can say about both angles of

elevation?

4. A girl 8 m tall spots a parrot sitting on the top of a building of height 58 m from the ground.

The angle of elevation of the parrot from the eyes of girl at any instant is 60°. The parrot flies

away horizontally in such a way that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 8 s,

the angle of elevation of the parrot from the same point is 30°.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions. Take √ )

(i) Find the distance of first position of the parrot from the eyes of the girl.

(ii) Find the distance between the girl and the building.

(iii) How much distance covers parrot covers?

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(iv) Find the speed of the parrot in 8s.

5. A lighthouse is a tower with a bright light at the top and serves as a navigational aid and also

warns ships of dangerous areas. In the given figure, a man on top of a 75 m high lighthouse is

observing two ships approaching towards its base. Observe the figure carefully and answer the

following questions:

i) Find the distance of ship B from the foot of the lighthouse.

ii) Find the distance of ship C from the foot of the lighthouse.

iii) Determine the distance between the two ships.

iv) What would have been the distance between the two ships if the ships were on either side of

the lighthouse?

6. Due to short circuit, a fire has broken out in New Home Complex. Two buildings, namely X

and Y have mainly been affected. The fire engine has arrived and it has been stationed at a point

which is in between the two buildings. A ladder at point O is fixed in front of the fire engine.

The ladder inclined at an angle 60° to the horizontal is leaning against the wall of the terrace (top)

of the building Y. The foot of the ladder is kept fixed and after some time it is made to lean

against the terrace (top) of the opposite building X at an angle of 45° with the ground. Both the

buildings along with the foot of the ladder, fixed at „O‟ are in a straight line.

191
Based on the above given information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the length of the ladder.

ii Find the distance of the building Y from point „O‟, i.e. O .

(iii) Find the horizontal distance between the two buildings.

(iv) Find the height of the building X.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. From the top of a 7 m high building the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the

angle of depression of its foot is 45°. Find the height of the tower.

2. The tops of two towers of height x and y, standing on the ground, subtend the angles of 30°

and 60° respectively at the centre of the line joining their feet, then find x:y.

3. From the top of light house, 40 m above the water, the angle of depression of a small boat is

60°. Find how far the boat is from the base of the light house.

4. An observer 1.5 metres tall is 20.5 metres away from a tower 22 metres high. Determine the

angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the eye of the observer.

5. The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 40 m longer when the Sun's

altitude is 30° than when it is 60°. Find the height of the tower.

6. From a point on a bridge across a river, the angles of depression of the banks on opposite sides

of the river are 30° and 45°, respectively. If the bridge is at a height of 3 m from the banks, find

the width of the river.

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7. The length of a string between a kite and a point on the ground is 85 m. If the string makes an

angle θ with the ground level such that tanθ = then find the height of the kite from the ground.

Assume that there is no slack in the string.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. From the top of a 120 m high tower, a man observes two cars on the opposite sides of the tower

and in straight line with the base of tower with angles of depression as 60° and 45°. Find the

distance between two cars.

2. The shadow of a tower at a time is three times as long as its shadow when the angle of

elevation of the sun is 60°. Find the angle of elevation of the sun at the time of the longer shadow.

3. The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 50 m high building from the top of a tower

are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower and the horizontal distance between the

tower and the building. Use √

4. A man standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10 m above water level, observes the angle of

elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of hill as 30°. Find the

distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill.

5. A 7 m long flagstaff is fixed on the top of a tower standing on the horizontal plane. From point

on the ground, the angles of elevation of the top and bottom of the flagstaff are 60° and 45°

respectively. Find the height of the tower correct upto one place of decimal. Use √

6. An observer finds the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a certain point on the

ground is 30°. If the observer moves 20 metres towards base of the tower, the angle of elevation

of the top increases by 15°. Find the height of the tower.

7. The lower window of a house is at a height of 2 m above the ground and its upper window is 4

m vertically above the lower window. At certain instant, the angles of elevation of a balloon from

193
these windows are observed to be 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the balloon above

the ground.

8. A tree, 12 m high, is broken by the wind in such a way that its top touches the ground and

makes an angle 60° with the ground. At what height from the bottom, the tree is broken by the

wind?

9. Two men on either side of the cliff 80 m high observe the angles of elevation at the top of the

cliff to be 30° and 60° respectively. Find the distance between the two men.

10. From a point P on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30° and that of

the top of a flagstaff fixed on the top of the tower is 45°. If the length of the flagstaff is 5 m, find

the height of the tower. Use √

11. A person standing on the bank of the river, observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the

opposite bank is 60°. When he retreats 20 m from the bank, he finds the angle to be 30°. Find the

height of the tree and breadth of the river.

12. An aeroplane when at a height of 3600 meters, passes vertically over another aeroplane at an

instant when their angles of elevation at the same observation point are 45° and 30° respectively.

How many metres higher is the first plane from the second?

13. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60°

and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°. Determine the height of the tower.

14. As observed from the top of a 100 m high lighthouse from the sea level, the angles of

depression of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side

of the lighthouse, find the distance between the two ships. Use √

15. From a balloon vertically above a straight road, the angles of depression of two cars at an

instant are found to be 45° and 60°. If the cars are 100 m apart, find the height of the balloon.

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LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The two palm trees are of equal heights and are standing opposite to each other on either side

of the river, which is 80 m wide. From a point O between them on the river the angles of

elevation

of the top of the trees are 60° and 30°, respectively. Find the height of the trees and the distances

of the point O from the trees. Use √

2. The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a building 50 meters high as observed from

the top of a tower are 30 and 60 respectively. Find the height of the tower, and also the

horizontal

distance between the building and the tower.

3. A vertical tower stands on horizontal plane and is surmounted by a vertical flag-staff of height

6m. The angles at a point on the bottom and top of the flag-staff with the ground are 30° and 45°

respectively. Find the height of the tower. Use √

4. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of a tower is 30° and the angle of

elevation of the top of a tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 50 m high, then

find the height of the building.

5. A moving boat observed from the top of a 150 m high cliff, moving away from the cliff. The

angle of depression of the boat changes from 60° to 45° in 2 minutes. Find the speed of the boat.

6. The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point A on the ground is 60°

and at a point B, 40 metres vertically above A, the angle of elevation is 45°. Find the height of

tower PQ and distance AQ.

7. The angle of elevation of a jet fighter from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 15

seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the jet is flying at a speed of 720 km/hr, find the

constant height. (√ )

195
8. Amit standing on a horizontal plane, finds a bird flying at a distance of 200 m from him at an

elevation of 30°. Deepak standing on the roof of 50 metres high building, finds the angle of

elevation of the same bird to be 45°. Both Amit and Deepak are on opposite sides of the bird.

Find the distance of bird from Deepak.

9. The angle of elevation θ of a vertical tower from a point on the ground is such that its tangent

is . On walking 192 metres towards the tower in the same straight line, the tangent of the angle

of elevation φ is found to be . Find the height of the tower.

10. A fire in a building B is reported on telephone to two fire stations E and F, 10 km apart from

each other on a straight road. E observes that the fire is at an angle of 60° to the road and F

observes that it is at an angle of 45° to the road. Which station should send its team and how

much will this team have to travel? [Take √ and √ .

11. A tower, in a city, is 150 m high and a multi-storeyed hotel at the city centre is 20 m high.

The angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the top of hotel is 30°. A building, h metres

high, is situated on the straight road connecting the tower with the city centre at a distance of 200

m from the tower. Find the value of h, if the top of the hotel, and top of the building and top of

the tower are in a straight line. Also, find the distance of the tower from city centre. (√

).

12. A man in a boat rowing away from a lighthouse of 100 m high takes 2 minutes to change the

angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse from 60° to 30°. Find the speed of the boat in

metres per minute. (√ ).

13. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of

30 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the plane is flying at a constant height of

√ , find the speed of the plane in km/h.

196
14. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of tower is observed to be 60°.

From a point 40 m vertically above the first point of observation, the angle of elevation of the top

of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower and its horizontal distance from the point of

observation.

15. The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 60 m above the surface of the water of a lake is

30° and the angle of depression of its shadow in water of the lake is 60°. Find the height of the

cloud from the surface of the water.

16. A pole of 6m high is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole

observed from a point P on the ground is 60° and the angle of depression of the point from the top

of the tower is 45°. Find the height of the tower and the distance of point P from the foot of the

tower. Use √

17. From the top of a building 60m high, the angles of depression of top and bottom of the

vertical lamp post are observed to be 30o and 60o respectively. (i) Find the horizontal distance

between the building and the lamp post. (ii) Find the distance between the tops of the building

and the lamp post.

18. The angle of elevation of an aircraft from a point A on the ground is 60 o. After a flight of 30

seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30o. The aircraft is flying at a constant height of

√ at a uniform speed. Find the speed of the aircraft.

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 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. If the elevation of the sun changes from 30° to 60° then the difference between the lengths of

shadows of a pole 15 m high, is

a) 7.5m b) 15m c) √ d) √

2. If the angles of elevation of a tower from two points distant a and b (a > b) from its foot and in

the same straight line from it are 30° and 60° respectively, then the height of the tower is:

a) √ b) √ c) √ d) √ √

3. If the height and length of the shadow of a man are the same, then the angle of elevation of the

sun is

a) 30° b) 60° c) 45° d) 15°

4. Assertion (A): When we move towards the object, angle of elevation decreases.

Reason (R): As we move towards the object, it subtends large angle at our eye than before.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. An observer, 1.7 m tall, is √ m away from a tower. The angle of elevation from the eye of

observer to the top of tower is . Find the height of tower.

198
6. From a point P on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of a 10 m tall building is 30°. A

flag is hosted at the top of the building and the angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from P

is 45°. Find the length of the flagstaff. [Take √

7. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a point on the ground is 30°. What will be the

angle of elevation, if the height of the tower is tripled?

SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. Two pillars of equal heights stand on either side of a road which is 100 m wide. At a point on

the road between the pillars, the angles of elevation of the tops of the pillars are 60° and 30°. Find

the height of each pillar and position of the point on the road. Take √

9. A boy standing on a horizontal plane finds a bird flying at a distance of 100 m from him at an

elevation of 30°. A girl standing on the roof of 20-metre-high building finds the angle of

elevation of the same bird to be 45°. Both the boy and the girl are on opposite sides of the bird.

Find the distance of bird from the girl.

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. The angles of depression of the top and bottom of an 8 m tall building from the top of a multi-

storeyed building are 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the multi-storeyed building and

the distance between the two buildings.

11. The angle of elevations of an aeroplane from a point on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 15

seconds the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the aeroplane is flying at a constant height of

√ , find the speed of the aeroplane in km/hr.

199
SECTION E

12. A cyclist is climbing through a 20 m long rope which is highly stretched and tied from the top

of a vertical pole to the ground as shown below.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

i) Find the height of the pole, if angle made by rope with the ground level is 60°.

ii) If the angle made by the rope with the ground level is 60°, then find the distance between artist

and pole at ground level.

iii) If the angle made by the rope with the ground level is 45°. Find the height of the pole.

iv) If the angle made by the rope with the ground level is 45° and 3 m rope is broken, then find

the height of the pole.

200
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. b) √ 1. (c) Assertion (A) is 1. i) 3.7 m ii) 4.28 m 1. ( √ ) 1. 189·28 m. 1. 20 m and 60 m

true but Reason (R) is iii) 2.14m iv) 7.4m

2. c) 2. 2. 2. 75m and 43.30 m
false. 2. i) 28.90m ii) 33.33
3. a) (√ ) √ 3. 118.25 m. 3. 8.19 m.
m 3.
2. (c) Assertion (A) is
3. i) Radha is closer 4. 40m 4.
4. a) 3:1 true but Reason (R) is 4. 45°
to the Parachute
5. c) 45° false. because the angles of 5. 9.6 m
5. 34.64 m 5. 19.02 km/h
elevation of
3. (a) Both Assertion 6. (√ )
6. b) 150√ Parachute from these 6. 109.3 metres.
6. (√ )
(A) and Reason (R) balconies are
7. b) 30° 7. 8 m 7. 2598 m
observed to be 45°. 7. 75 m
are true and Reason
So, Radha is closer to
8. d) 19m 8. 5.52 m
(R) is the correct 8. √
the Parachute than
explanation of Ankit. 9. 184.8 m
9. a) 75 m 9. 180 m.
ii) h m
Assertion (A).
10. a) 12 m iii) ( √ ) 10. 6.8 m
10. E must send its
4. (d) Assertion (A) is iv) (c) If the

201
11. b) 45° false but Reason (R) Parachute is moving 11. 17.32 m team to B and this

is true. towards the building, team will have to

12. c) 1:3 12. 1521.147 m
then both angles of travel 7.3 km to reach
5. (b) Both Assertion
13. b) √ 13. (√
elevation will B.
(A) and Reason (R)
) metres.
14. c) √ decrease.
are true but Reason 11. 34.5 metres &
4. i) ii) 14. 73.2 m
(R) is not the correct √ √ 225.16 metres.
15. b) (√ )
explanation of iii) 15. ( √ ) 12. 57.74 m/min
16. (a) iv) 7 225. m/s
Assertion (A).
13. 864 km/h
5. i) √

ii) 75 m 14. 60 m

iii) (√ )
15. 120 m.

iv) (√ ) 16. h = d = 8.19m.

6. i) 17. 34.64m & 20m

ii)
18. or

202
 iii) ( √ ) approx.

iv) √

UNIT TEST
1. c) √

2. b) √

3. b) 60°

4. (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

5.

6. 7.32 m
7.

8. 43.3m

9. √

10. 18.93 m

11. 720 km/hr.

12. i) √ ii) 10m iii) √ iv)

√
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 CHAPTER 10 – CIRCLES

Key Concepts

Circle
A circle may be regarded as a collection of points in a plane at a fixed distance from a fixed point.
The fixed point is called the centre of the circle. The fixed distance between the centre of the
circle and the circumference, is called radius.

The perimeter of the circle is referred to as the circumference of the circle.

Tangent
A tangent to a circle is a line that intersects the circle only at one point.

Point of Contact
The common point of the circle and the tangent is called point of contact.

Length of Tangent
The length of the segment of the tangent from the external point P and the point of contact with
the circle is called the length of the tangent.

Secant
A line, which intersects the circle in two distinct points, is called a secant.

Chord
A chord of a circle is a line segment joining any two points on the circumference.

Results
 A tangent to a circle is a special case of the secant when the two end points of the

corresponding chord coincide.

 There is no tangent to a circle passing through a point lying inside the circle.

 There are exactly two tangents to a circle through a point outside the circle.

 At any point on the circle there can be one and only one tangent.

 The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of

contact.

204
  The lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

 The centre lies on the bisector of the angle between the two tangents.

 There can be infinite number of chords passing through a point which is inside the circle.

 Tangents drawn at the end points of a diameter of a circle are parallel.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In the figure, PQ is a chord of circle and PT is the tangent at P such that QPT = 60°, then

POQ is equal to:

a) (a) 135° b) 150°

c) 120° d) 110°

2. If the radii of two concentric circles are 4 cm and 5 cm, then the length of each chord of one

circle which is tangent to the other circle is:

a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 1 cm

3. In the figure, AB is a chord of circle and AOC is its diameter such that ACB = 50°. If AT is

the tangent to the circle at the point A, then BAT is equal to:

a) 65° b) 60°

c) 50° d) 40°

4. In the figure, the pair of tangents AP and AQ drawn from an external point A to a circle with

centre O are perpendicular to each other and length of each tangent is 5 cm. Then radius of the

circle is:

a) 10 cm b) 7.5 cm

c) 5 cm d) 2.5 cm

5. If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an

angle of 80°, then POA is equal to:

a) 50° b) 60° c) 70° d) 80°

205
6. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and PT is the tangent at P,

POQ = 70°, then TPQ is equal to

a) 55° b) 70°

c) 45° d) 35°

7. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at its centre. The length of the chord

(in cm) is

a) √ b) √ c) d) √
√

8. The length of the tangent drawn from a point 8 cm away from the centre of circle of radius 6

cm is

a) √ b) 2√ c) 10cm d) 5cm

9. In figure, PQ is tangent to the circle with centre at O, at the point B. If AOB = 100°, then

ABP is equal to

a) 50° b) 40°
c) 60° d) 80°

10. In the given figure, PQ and PR are two tangents to a circle with centre O. If QPR = 46°, then

QOR is

a) 67° b) 134°
c) 44° d) 46°

11. From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 12 cm and the distance of Q from the

centre is 15 cm. The radius of the circle is

a) 9 cm b) 12 cm c) 15 cm d) 24.5 cm

12. In the given figure, AP, AQ and BC are tangents to the circle. If AB = 5 cm, AC = 6 cm and

BC = 4 cm, then the length of AP (in cm) is

a) 7.5 b) 15
c) 10 d) 9
206
13. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle, then the value of x is

a) b)

c) d)

14. In the given figure, QR is a common tangent to the given circles touching externally at the

point T. The tangent at T meets QR at P. If PT = 3.8cm, then the length of QR is

a) 3.8 b) 7.6

c) 5.7 d) 1.9

15. In the given figure, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle such that its sides

AB, BC, CD and DA touch the circle at P, Q, R and S respectively. If AB = x cm, BC = 7cm,

CR = 3cm and AS = 5cm, then x is

a) 10 b) 9

c) 8 d) 7

16. In the given figure, PA and PB are two tangents drawn to the circle with centre O and radius 5

cm. If APB = 60°, then the length of PA is

(a) (b) √ (c) (d) 10cm

√ √

17. In the given figure, tangents PA and PB to the circle centred at O, from point P are

perpendicular to each other. If PA = 5cm, then length of AB is

(a) 5cm (b) √ (c) √ (d) 10cm

207
18. In the given figure, PT is tangent to a circle with centre O. Chord PQ subtends an angle of

at the centre. The measure of is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

19. Maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles intersecting at two

distinct points is

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

20. In the given figure, if PT is a tangent to a circle with centre O and , then the

measure of x is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

21. In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to the circle. If then the measure of

is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

208
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: TA and TB are two tangents drawn from an external point T to a circle with centre
„O‟. If TBA = 75° then ABO = 25°.

Reason: The tangent drawn at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point
of contact.

2. Assertion: The tangent drawn at the end points of a diameter of a circle are parallel.

Reason: Diameter of a circle is the longest chord.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. In the figure, quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribing a circle with centre O and AD ^ AB. If

radius of incircle is 10 cm, then find the value of x.

2. In the given figure, two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to circle with centre O from an external

point T. Prove that PTQ = 2 OPQ.

209
3. In the fig, AB and CD are common tangents to two circles of unequal radii. Prove that AB =

CD.

4. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle from an external point P. CD is

another tangent touching the circle at Q. If PA = 12 cm, QC = DQ = 3 cm, then find PC + PD.

5. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end points of a chord of a circle make equal angles with

the chord.

6. In Fig, ABC is a triangle in which B = 90°, BC = 48 cm and AB = 14 cm. A circle is

inscribed in the triangle, whose centre is O. Find radius of incircle.

7. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end points of a chord of a circle make equal angles with

the chord.

210
8. In given figure, O is the centre of the circle and LN is a diameter. If PQ is a tangent to the

circle at K and , find PKL.

9. In Fig., AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that AP = 5 cm and APB =

60°. Find the length of chord AB.

10. In the given figure PQ is chord of length 6 cm of the circle of radius 6 cm. TP and TQ are

tangents to the circle at points P and Q respectively. Find PTQ.

11. In the given figure, PAQ and PBR are tangents to the circle with centre „O‟ at the points A

and B respectively. If T is a point on the circle such that QAT = 45° and TBR = 65°, then find

ATB.

12. Two concentric circles have radii 4 cm and 5 cm. XY is a chord of the outer circle which

touches the inner circle. Find the length of XY.

13. In the given figure, x, y and z are the sides of a right triangle, where z is the hypotenuse.

Prove that the radius r of the circle which touches the sides of the triangle is given by r = .

211
14. In the given figure, AB and CD are tangents to circle centred at O. Is Justify

your answer.

15. In the given figure, a circle centred at origin O has radius 7cm, OC is median of ΔO B. Find

the length of median OC.

16. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If then find the value of x.

17. In the given figure, Δ BC is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of BC, if R = 4cm,

BR = 3cm and AC = 11cm.

212
SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

2. In given Fig., two circles touch each other at the point C. Prove that the common tangent to the

circles at C, bisects the common tangent at P and Q.

3. If a circle touches the side BC of a triangle ABC at P and extended sides AB and AC at Q and

R respectively, prove that AQ = ( ).

4. In figure AB is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents to the circle at A

and B intersect at P. Find the length of AP.

5. In Figure PQ and RS are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB

with point of contact C intersecting PQ at A and RS at B. Prove that AOB = 90°.

6. In the given figure a circle is inscribed in a ∆ABC having sides BC = 8 cm, AB = 10 cm and

AC = 12cm. Find the length BL, CM and AN.

213
7. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to a circle from an external point P such that

PA = 4 cm and BAC = 135°. Find the length of chord AB.

8. In the given figure, PQ is a chord of a circle and PT is the tangent at P such the QPT = 60°.

Find PRQ.

9. In the given figure, there are two concentric circles with centre O and radii 5 cm and 3 cm. PA

and PB are tangents to these circles from an external point P. If PA = 12 cm, then find the length

of PB.

10. The tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circle with centre O, such that APB=120o. Prove

that OP = 2AP.

11. If a hexagon PQRSTU circumscribes a circle, prove that PQ + RS + TU = QR + ST + UP.

12. In the given figure, two concentric circles have radii 3 cm and 5 cm. Two tangents TR and TP

are drawn to the circles from an external point T such that TR touches the inner circle at R and

TP touches the outer circle at P. If TR = √ cm, then find the length of TP.

214
13. A circle with centre O and radius 8cm is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in which P, Q, R,

S are the points of contact as shown. If AD is perpendicular to DC, BC = 30cm and BS = 24cm,

then find the length DC.

14. In the given figure, PQ is tangent to a circle centred at O and show

that BP = BQ.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary

angles at the centre of the circle.

2. a, b and c are the sides of a right triangle, where c is the hypotenuse. A circle, of radius r,

touches the sides of the triangle. Prove that r = .

3. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. Determine APC, if DA and DC are tangents

and ADC = 50°.

215
4. PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a

point T. Find the length of TP.

5. From a point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle C(O, r). If OP = 2r, show that

∆ PB is equilateral.

6. In the figure, a triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 2 cm such that the

segments BD and DC into which BC is divided by the point of contact D are of lengths 4 cm

and 3 cm respectively. If area of ∆ BC = 21 cm2, then find the lengths of sides AB and AC.

216
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 25

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. How many tangents can a circle have from a point lying inside the circle?

a) 2 b) infinitely many c) 1 d) none of these

2. Two concentric circles of radii a and b where a > b, are given, the length of a chord of the

larger circle which touches the other circle is

a) √ b) 2√ c) √ d) 2√

3. If AB is chord of a circle with centre O & PQ is a tangent to the circle at B with reflex

, then

a) 105° b) 150°

c) 210° d) 75°

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
4. In given figure, AB is the diameter of a circle with center O and AT is a tangent. If

AOQ = 58°, find ATQ.

5. In figure, PQ is a chord of a circle centre O and PT is a tangent. If QPT = 60°, find PRQ.

6. A circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that AB + CD = BC + DA.

217
SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

7. Prove that the lengths of two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

8. Two tangents PQ and PR are drawn from an external point to a circle with centre O. Prove that

QORP is a cyclic quadrilateral.

SECTION D
Each carry 5 marks

9. ∆ BC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm such that segments BD and DC into

which BC is divided are of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the sides AB and AC.

10. Two tangents making an angle of 120° with each other are drawn to a circle of radius 6 cm.

Find the length of each tangent.

218
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. c) 120° 1. (d) Assertion (A) is 1. 21 cm 1. Proof 1. Proof

2. b) 6 cm not true but Reason

2. Proof 2. Proof 2. Proof
(R) is true.
3. c) 50°
3. Proof 3. Proof 3. 115°
2. (b) Both Assertion
4. c) 5 cm
(A) and Reason (R) 4. 9cm 4. 4.
are true but Reason
5. a) 50°
5. Proof
(R) is not the correct 5. Proof 5. Proof
6. d) 35° explanantion for
6. 6cm
Assertion. 6. 3cm, 5cm and 7cm 6. 7.5cm and 6.5cm

7. b) √ 7. Proof
7. √
8. b) 2√
8.
8.
9. a) 50°
9. 5cm
9. √
10. b) 134°
10.
10. OP = 2AP
11. a) 9 cm

219
 12. a) 7.5 11. 70° 11. Proof

13. a) 12. 6cm 12. 12cm

14. b) 7.6 13. Proof 13. 14cm

15. b) 9 14. 14. Proof

16. (b) √ √
15.

17. (b) √ 16.

18. (d) 17. 10cm

19. (c) 2

20. (d)

21. (a)

UNIT TEST

1. d) none of these
220
2. b) 2√

3. d) 75°

4.

5.

6. AB + CD = BC + DA.

7. Proof

8. Proof

9. AOB = 90°.

10. √

221
 CHAPTER 11 – AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES

Key Concepts

Circle

A circle may be regarded as a collection of points in a plane at a fixed distance from a fixed point.

The fixed point is called the centre of the circle. The fixed distance between the centre of the

circle and the circumference, is called radius.

A tangent to a circle is a line that intersects the circle only at one point.

The perimeter of the circle is referred to as the circumference of the circle.

Chord

A chord of a circle is a line segment joining any two points on the circumference.

Arc

An arc of a circle is a part of the circumference.

Diameter

A diameter of a circle is a chord which passes through the centre of the circle.

Segment of a Circle

The portion (or part) of a circular region enclosed between a chord and the corresponding arc is

called a segment of the circle.

222
Sector of a Circle

The portion (or part) of the circular region enclosed by the two radii and the corresponding arc is

called a sector of the circle.

Perimeter of Circle

P = 2πr units

Area of Circle

= πr2 sq. units

Perimeter of Semi-Circle

P = πr + d or r π + 2 units

Area of Semi-Circle

A = πr2 sq. units

Area of Sector and Length of Sector

rea of the sector of angle θ = x πr2 sq. units

Length of an arc of a sector of angle θ = x 2πr units.

Area of Minor Segment APB = Area of the sector OAPB – rea of ΔO B

Area of Minor Segment AQB = Area of Circle – Area of minor segment APB

Area of Major sector OAQB = Area of circle – Area of minor sector OAPB

Area of a ring or Area of enclosed between two concentric circles

= π R + r R – r) sq.units.
223
Results

 The distance moved by a rotating wheel in one revolution is equal to the

circumference of the wheel.

 The number of revolutions completed by a rotating wheel in

𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒

one minute = .
𝐶𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑚𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑙

 The sum of the arcs of major and minor sectors of a circle is equal to the

circumference of the circle.

 The sum of the areas of major and minor sectors of a circle is equal to the area of

the circle.

 Angle described by minute hand in 60 minutes = 360°.

 Angle described by minute hand in one minute = 6°.

 Angle described by hour hand in 12 hours = 360°.

 Angle described by hour hand in 1 hour = 30°.

 Angle described by hour hand in one minute = °.

Some Important Formulae

i rea of triangle Base Height
√
ii rea of equilateral triangle ( Side )

iii rea of rectangle = Length Breadth

iv rea of square ( Side )

224
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Perimeter of a sector of a circle whose central angle is 90° and radius 7 cm is

a) 35 cm b) 25 cm c) 77 cm d) 7 cm

2. The area of a circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 10 cm is

a 40π cm² b 30π cm² c 100π cm² d 25π cm²

3. In a circle of diameter 42 cm, if an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre, where π =

then length of arc is

a) 11 cm b) cm c) 22 cm d) 44 cm

4. The perimeter of a sector of radius 5.2 cm is 16.4 cm, the area of the sector is

a) 31.2 cm² b) 15 cm² c) 15.6 cm² d) 16.6 cm²

5. The diameter of a circle whose area is equal to sum of the areas of the two circles of radii 40

cm and 9 cm is

a) 41 cm b) 49 cm c) 82 cm d) 62 cm

6. The area of minor segment made by a chord which subtends right angle at the centre of a circle

of radius 10cm is

a) 24.5 cm2 b) 25.5 cm2 c) 24.5 cm2 d) 28.5 cm2

7. The figure shows two concentric circles with centre O and radii 3.5cm and 7cm. If

, then the area of the of the shaded region is

a) b)

c) d) None of these

8. The sum of the areas of two circles, which touch each other externally, is 153 π. If the sum of

their radii is 15, then the ratio of the larger to the smaller radius is

a) 4:1 b) 2:1 c) 3:1 d) None of these

225
9. The area of a circular ring formed by two concentric circles whose radii are 5.7 cm and 4.3 cm

respectively is Take π = 3.1416

a) 43.98 sq.cm b) 53.67 sq. cm c) 47.24 sq.cm d) 38.54 sq.cm

10. A sector is cut from a circular sheet of radius 100 cm, the angle of the sector being 240o. If

another circle of the area same as the sector is formed, then radius of the new circle is

a) 79.5 cm b) 81.6 cm c) 83.4 cm d) 88.5 cm

11. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4π to 8π, then its area is

a) halved b) doubled c) tripled d) quadrupled

12. If the ratio of the areas of the two circles is 25:16, then the ratio of their circumferences is

a) b) c) d)

13. rea of a sector to circle of radius 6 cm is 9π cm2, then the length arc of the corresponding arc

of the circle is

a 6π cm b 3 π cm c 5 π cm d 8 π cm

14. The length of an arc of a circle with radius 12 cm is 10 π cm. The central angle of this arc is

a) 120o b) 6o c) 75o d) 150o

15. A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 225cm2. If the same wire

is bent into the form of a circle, then the area of the circle is ( )

a) b c d

16. Radii of two circles are 4 cm and 3 cm respectively. There is another circle, which is having
area equal to the sum of the areas of two circles whose radii are known. Find the diameter (in cm)
of the third circle.
a) 5 b) 7 c) 0 d) 14

17. The ratio of areas of two circles whose ratio of circumferences is in the ratio of 3:1 will be

a) 3:1 b) 1:3 c) 1:9 d) 9:1

226
18. Area of a square is same as area of a circle. What will be the ratio of their perimeters?

a) 1:1 b) √ c) √ d) None of these

19. The angle through which the minute hand of the clock moves from 8 to 8:35 is:

a) 210° b) 90° c) 60° d) 45°

20. Area of a quadrant of circle whose circumference is 22 cm is: ( )

a) 3.5 cm2 b) 3.5 cm c) 9.625 cm2 d) 17.25 cm2

21. The diagonals of a rhombus ABCD intersect at O. Taking „O‟ as the centre, an arc of radius 6

cm is drawn intersecting OA and OD at E and F respectively. The area of the sector OEF is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

22. If the length of an arc of a circle subtending an angle 60° at its centre is 22 cm, then the radius

of the circle is

(a) √ (b) 21cm (c) √ (d) 42cm

23. If the sector of a circle with diameter 14 cm makes an angle 90° at the centre, then the

perimeter of the sector is

(a) 25 cm (b) 11 cm (c) 36 cm (d) 22 cm

24. If an arc subtends an angle of at the centre of a circle, then the ratio of its length to the

circumference of the circle is

(a) 2:3 (b) 1:4 (c) 4:1 (d) 1:3

25. The area of the sector of a circle of radius 12cm is . The central angle of this sector is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

227
26. If in the given figure, and then the area of the shaded

region is

(a) (b) (c) 7 (d)

27. A chord of a circle of radius 10cm subtends a right angle at its centre. The length of the chord

(in cm) is

(a) √ (b) √ (c) (d) 5

√

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is 28 cm.

228
Reason: Circumference = 2π × radius.

2. Assertion: If the outer and inner diameter of a circular path is 10m and 6m, then area of the

path is 16π m2.

Reason: If R and r be the radius of outer and inner circular path respectively then area of

path = π R2 – r2).

3. Assertion: If a wire of length 22 cm is bent in the shape of a circle, then area of the circle so

formed is 40 cm2.

Reason: Circumference of the circle = length of the wire.

4. Assertion: If the circumference of two circles are in the ratio 2:3, the ratio of their areas is 4:9.

Reason: The circumference of a circle of radius r is 2πr and its area is πr2.

5. Assertion: Area of the square inscribed in a circle of radius r is 2r2 sq.units.

Reason: Area of the major segment of a circle = Area of circle – Area of minor segment.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. It is a clock that uses a pendulum, a swinging weight, as its timekeeping element. From its

invention in 1656 by Christiaan Huygens, the pendulum clock was the world‟s most precise

timekeeper, accounting for its widespread use. Their greater accuracy allowed for the faster pace

of life which was necessary for the Industrial Revolution. The home pendulum clock was

replaced by less-expensive, synchronous, electric clocks in the 1930s and 40s. Pendulum clocks

are now kept mostly for their decorative and antique value. Dhriti bought a pendulum clock for

her living room. the clock contains a small pendulum of length 45 cm. the minute hand and hour

hand of the clock are 14 cm and 6 cm long respectively.

i) What is the area swept by the minute hand in 14 minutes?

ii) What is the angle described by hour hand in 10 minutes?

229
iii) What is the distance covered by the tip of hour hand in 3.5 hours?

iv) If the tip of pendulum covers 66 cm in complete oscillation, what is the angle described by

pendulum at the centre?

2. Raju put a fence around a circular field and the total cost came upto ₹ 6000 at ₹ 30 per metre.

He now wants to plough the field.

Using the information given, answer the following questions:

i) What is the perimeter of field?

ii) What is the radius of field?

iii) Calculate is the area of the field.

iv) Find the cost of ploughing the field at the rate of ₹. per .

3. In a village, there was no playground for children. If a child had to practice for any sports then

the child had to go to the city stadium which is 20 km from the village. But village has a circular

unused land and villagers decided to convert this unused land into a football ground, with athletic

track around it, so that children can practice their choice of sports in village itself. Villagers also

planned six seating areas with chairs (brown colour) and six seating area without chairs (grey

colour) as shown in the figure. Athletic track (light blue) is between the football ground (light

green) and seating area. The distance between the centre of the ground and the boundary of the

stadium is 140 m, width of the athletic track is 30 m and AB is 20 m.

230
i) What is the area of the football ground?

ii) What is the length of the athletic track (inner boundary)?

iii) What is the length of the athletic track (outer boundary)?

iv) How much area is allocated for six seating corners with chairs?

4. A stable owner has four horses. He usually tie these horses with 7 m long rope to pegs at each

corner of a square shaped grass field of 20 m length, to graze in his farm. But tying with rope

sometimes results in injuries to his horses, so he decided to build fence around each horse and let

them freely move and graze separately in their own area. π = 3.14

i) Find the total area of the field in which these horses can graze. ( )

ii) How much the length of the rope of each horse be increased so that they can graze in

maximum area without encroaching in each other‟s area (new length of rope after increase)?

iii) What is the area of the field that is left un-grazed after increasing the length of the

rope π = 3.14

iv) If the length of the rope is increased as per part (ii) above, find the cost of fencing around

every horse so that the owner leave these horses untied inside these fenced areas, if the cost per

meter length of the fencing is ₹50.

231
SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. The short and long hands of a clock are 4 cm and 6 cm long respectively. Find the sum of

distances travelled by their tips in 2 days. * +

2. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Find the diameter of the wheel.

3. The circumference of a circular park is 660 m. A 7 m wide path surrounds it. Find the cost of

putting gravel on the path at the rate of ₹ 10 per m2 and the cost of fencing the outer boundary at

the rate of ₹6 per metre.

4. A wire when bent in the form of a square, encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is

bent in the form of a circle, find the area of the circle.

5. The minute hand of a clock is 20 cm long. Find the area on the face of the clock described by

the minute hand between 8 am and 8:45 am.

6. What is the area of the circle, the circumference of which is equal to the perimeter of a square

of side 11 cm?

7. Two concentric circles have their areas in the ratio 9:16 and the radius of the inner circle is 7

cm. Calculate the diameter of the outer circle.

8. If the difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm, then find, the

circumference (in cm) of the circle.

9. The circumference of a circle is 22cm. Calculate the area of its quadrant (in cm2).

10. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand

in 5 minutes.

11. A chord is subtending an angle of 90° at the centre of a circle of radius 14 cm. Find the area

of the corresponding minor segment of the circle.

232
12. Find the area of the shaded region if length of radius of each circle is 7 cm. Each circle

touches the other two externally.

13. The perimeter of a certain sector of a circle of radius 5.6m is 20. Find the area of the sector.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Find the area of the minor segment of a circle of radius 14 cm, when the angle of the

corresponding sector is 60°.

2. A chord AB of circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre of the circle. Find the

area of major and minor segments. (Use π = 3.14)

3. A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m by means of a

5 m long rope. Find (i) The area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze. (ii) The

increase in the grazing area if the rope were 10 m long instead of 5 m.

4. Find the area of the segment shown in the figure if radius of the circle is 21 cm and

AOB = 120°.

5. A cow is tied with a rope of length 14 m at the corner of a rectangular field of dimensions

20 m × 16 m. Find the area of the field in which the cow can graze. Also find the area of

remaining part.

6. The circumference of a circular park is 660 m. A 7 m wide path surrounds it. Find the cost of

putting gravel on the path at the rate of ₹10 per m2 and the cost of fencing the outer boundary at

the rate of ₹6 per metre.

233
7. The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of ₹24 per metre is ₹5280. If the field is to be

ploughed at the rate of ₹0.50 per m2, find the cost of ploughing the field. ( )

8. Find the area of the major segment APB, in the figure of a circle of radius 35 cm and

AOB = 90°. ( )

9. A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. Find the area of the

corresponding minor segment of the circle. [Use and √ +

10. The wheels of a car are of diameter 80 cm each. How many complete revolutions does each

wheel make in 10 minutes when the car is travelling at a speed of 66 km per hour?

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A round table cover has six equal designs, as shown in the figure. If the radius of the cover is

28 cm, find the cost of making the designs at the rate of ₹ per Use √

2. Two circles touch externally. The sum of their areas is 130π sq.cm and the distance between

their centres is 14cm. Find the radii of the circles.

3. Two circles touch internally. The sum of their areas is 169π sq.cm and distance between their

centres is 7cm. Find the radii of the circles.

4. Find the difference of the areas of two segments of a circle formed by a chord of length 5cm

subtending an angle of 90o at the centre.

5. Find the area of the shaded region in Fig., if radii of the two concentric circles with centre O

are 7 cm and 14 cm, respectively and AOC = 40°.

234
6. An arc of a circle of radius 21cm subtends an angle of 60o at the centre. Find (i) the length of

the arc (ii) the area of the minor segment of the circle made by the corresponding chord.

7. In the given figure, diameter AC and BD of the circle intersect at O. If and OA =

10cm, then

(i) find the length of the chord AB.

(ii) find the area of shaded region. Take and √

235
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. Which constant ratio is denoted by ( )

diameter area circumference area
a) b) c) d
circumference circumference diameter diameter

2. If the diameter of a semi-circular protractor is 14 cm, then the perimeter of the protractor is:

a) 26 cm b) 14 cm c) 28 cm d) 36 cm

3. The outer and inner diameters of a circular ring are 34 cm and 32 cm respectively. The area of

the ring is:

a) 66π b) 60π c) 33π d) 29π

4. Assertion: The area of circular playground is , the cost of fencing this ground at the

rate of per is .

Reason: If R and r be the radius of outer and inner circular path, then the area of the ring will

be ( ).

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. The diameter of the wheel of a bus is 140 cm. How many revolutions per minute must the

wheel make in order to keep a speed of 66 km per hour?

236
6. Find the area of a quadrant of a circle, where the circumference of circle is . Use +

7. A copper wire, when bent in the form of a square, encloses an area of 484 cm2. If the same

wire is bent in the form of a circle, find the area enclosed by it.

SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. A chord of a circle of radius 12 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. Find the area of the

corresponding segment of the circle. ( Use and √ )

9. The short and long hands of a clock are 4 cm and 6 cm long respectively. Find the sum of

distances travelled by their tips in 2 days.

SECTION D
Each carry 5 marks

10. Find the difference of the areas of a sector of angle 120o and its corresponding major sector of

a circle of radius 21 cm.

11. The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of Rs. 24 per metre is Rs. 5280. The field is to

be ploughed at the rate of Rs. 0.50 per m2. Find the cost of ploughing the field.

SECTION E

12. A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of sides 15m by means of

a 5m long rope (see the given figure).

237
i) What is the area of the grass field?

ii) Find the area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze.

iii) Evaluate the grazing area if the rope were 10m long instead of 5m.

iv) Determine the increase in the grazing area if the rope were 10m long instead of 5m.

238
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

o
1. b) 25 cm 1. (a) Both Assertion 1. i) ii) 1. 1910.85 cm. 1. ( √ ) 1.

(A) and Reason (R) iii) 11 iv)

2. d 25π cm² 2. 220 cm 2. 3 and 11
2.
are true and Reason
2. i) 200m ii) 31.81m
3. c) 22 cm 3. 3. 5 and 12
(R) is the correct 3. and
iii)
4. c) 15.6 cm² explanation of 4. 4. ( + )cm2
iv) ₹4773
Assertion (A).
5. c) 82 cm 5. 4. (
√
)
3. i) 5.
2. (a) Both Assertion
6. d) 28.5 cm2 ii) 6. 5. 6. (i) 22cm (ii)
(A) and Reason (R)
iii)
7. a)
are true and Reason 7. 6. &
√
iv) ( )
(R) is the correct 7. 10cm,
8. a) 4:1 8.
8. 44 cm
explanation of 4. i) b approx.
9. a) 43.98 sq.cm 9.
Assertion (A). ii) 10m iii) 9.

10. b) 81.6 cm 10.

3. (d) Assertion (A) is iv)

239
11. d) quadrupled false but Reason (R) is 10.

true.
12. c) 11.
4. (a) Both Assertion
13. b 3 π cm 12.
(A) and Reason (R)

14. d) 150o are true and Reason 13.

(R) is the correct

15. a)
explanation of
16. c) 0 Assertion (A).

17. d) 9:1 5. (d) Assertion (A) is

false but Reason (R) is

18. c) √
true.

19. a) 210°

20. c) 9.625 cm2

21. (a)

240
 22. (b) 21cm

23. (a) 25 cm

24. (b) 1:4

25. (a)

26. (a)

27. (b) √

UNIT TEST

circumference
1. c)
diameter

2. d) 36 cm

3. c) 33π

4. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5. 250

241
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. 1925

12. i) ii) iii) iv)

242
 CHAPTER 12 – SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES

Key Concepts

Surface Area
It is the sum of the total exposed area of three dimensional solid objects.

Volume
It is the amount of space occupied by an object.

Cuboid
cuboid has six faces. Let the length of cuboid be „l‟, breadth be „b‟ and height be „h‟.

 Volume = l x b x h.

 Lateral Surface Area 2(l + b)h

 Total Surface Area = 2(lb + bh + hl)

 Length of the diagonal = √ .

Cube
cube has six identical faces. Let each edge of a cube be „a‟.

 Volume = a3.

 Lateral Surface Area = 4a2

 Total Surface Area = 6a2

 Diagonal = √ a.

Right Circular Cylinder

A solid obtained by revolving a rectangular lamina about one of its sides is called a right circular

cylinder. Let „r‟ be the base radius and „h‟ be the vertical height of a cylinder.

 Volume = πr2h

 Curved Surface rea = 2πrh

 Total Surface rea = 2πr h + r .

243
Hollow Cylinder

Solid like pipes are in the shape of hollow cylinder. Let „R‟ be the external radius, „r‟ be the

internal radius and „h‟ be the height of a hollow cylinder.

 Area of cross-section = π R2 – r2)

 Volume = πh R2 – r2)

 Curved Surface rea = 2πh R + r

 Total Surface rea = 2π R + r R – r + h)

 Thickness of cylinder = R – r.

Right Circular Cone

A solid obtained by revolving a right-angled triangular lamina about any side (other than the

hypotenuse is called a right circular cone. Let „r‟ be the base radius, „h‟ be the vertical height and

„l‟ be the slant height of a right circular cone.

 Volume = πr2h

 Curved Surface rea = πrl

 Total Surface rea = πr l + r

 Slant height (l) = √ .

Sphere

sphere is a solid obtained on revolving a circle about any of its diameters. Let „r‟ be the radius

of sphere.

 Volume = πr3

 Curved Surface rea = 4πr2.

Hemisphere

When a sphere is cut by a plane through its centre into two equal parts, then each part is called a

hemisphere.
244
  Volume = πr3

 Curved Surface rea = 2πr2

 Total Surface rea = 3πr2.

Note:

 For Surface area of combination of the solid objects, only look at the uppermost/the

exposed portions of the objects.

 For volume of the combination the solid objects, simply take the sum of the volume of all

the objects involved.

 The total surface area of the solid formed by the combination of solids is the sum of the

curved surface area of each of the individual parts.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2. Its radius is

a) 7 cm b) 14 cm c) 21 cm d) 28 cm

2. A cylinder and a cone are of same base radius and of same height. The ratio of the volume of

the cylinder to that of the cone is

a) 2:1 b) 3:1 c) 2:3 d) 3:2

3. A piece of paper is in the shape of a semi-circular region of radius 10 cm. It is rolled to form a

right circular cone. The slant height is

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15 cm d) 20 cm

4. The base radii of two circular cones of the same height are in the ratio 3:5. The ratio of their
volumes are
a) 9:25 b) 5:3 c) 9:5 d) 3:25

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5. The curved surface area of glass having radii 3 cm and 4 cm respectively and slant height 10
cm is
a) 55 cm² b) 110 cm² c) 220 cm² d) 440 cm²

6. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is

a) 9.7 cm3 b) 77.6 cm3 c) 58.2 cm3 d) 19.4 cm3

7. If a marble of radius 2.1 cm is put into a cylindrical cup full of water of radius 5cm and

height 6 cm, then how much water flows out of the cylindrical cup?

a) 38.8 cm3 b) 55.4 cm3 c) 19.4 cm3 d) 471.4 cm3

8. The number of balls of radius 1cm that can be made from a solid sphere of radius 4cm is

a) 64 b) 16 c) 12 d) 4

9. A sphere of 6cm radius is dropped into a cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The radius

of the vessel is 8cm. If the sphere is submerged completely, then the surface area of the water

rises by

a) 2cm b) 3cm c) 4cm d) 4.5cm

10. A solid is hemispherical at the bottom and conical above. If the surface areas of two parts are

equal, then the ratio of the radius and height of the conical part is

a) 1:3 b) 1: √ c) √ : 1 d) 1:1

11. From a right circular cylinder of radius 10cm and height 21cm, a right circular cone of same

base radius is removed. If the volume of the remaining portion is 4400cm3, then the height of the

cone removed is

a) 15cm b) 18cm c) 21cm d) 24cm

12. A right cylindrical vessel is full with water. How many cones have the same diameter and

height as those of the right cylinder will be needed to store that water?

a) 2cm b) 3cm c) 4cm d) 5cm

246
13. If the height and the diameter of a right circular cylinder are 32cm and 6cm respectively, then

the radius of the sphere whose volume is equal to the volume of the cylinder is

a) 3cm b) 4cm c) 6cm d) None of these

14. A spherical iron ball is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of base diameter 14cm containing

water. The water level is increased by 9 cm. What is the radius of the ball?

a) 3.5cm b) 7cm c) 9cm d) 12cm

15. A solid cube of side 5.5cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The

diameter of the vessel is 11cm. If the cube is wholly submerged, the level of water will rise by

a) 3.75cm b) 0.75cm c) 1.75cm d) 2.85cm

16. A sphere of copper is dropped into a cylinder of radius r and height h(>4r) which is half filled

with water. If the diameter of the sphere is , the water will raise through which one of the

following?

a) b) c) d)

17. The volume of a cuboid is twice the volume of a cube. If the dimensions of the cuboid are

9cm, 8cm and 6cm, the total surface area of the cube is

a) 72cm2 b) 216cm2 c) 432cm2 d) 108cm2

18. A sphere of radius 5cm exactly fits into a cubical box. The ratio of the surface area of the box

and the surface area of the sphere is

a) 19:9 b) 21:11 c) 23:13 d) 25:13

19. A cuboid of size 8cm x 4cm x 2cm is cut into cubes of equal size 1cm side. What is the ratio

of the surface area of the original cuboid to the surface areas of the all the unit cubes so formed?

a) 13:4 b) 8: 3 c) 7:24 d) 7: 12

247
20. A right circular cylinder having a diameter 12cm and height 15cm is full of icecream. The

icecream is to be filled in cones of height 12cm and diameter 6cm having a hemispherical shape

on the top. The number of cones which can be filled with icecream is

a) 15 b) 12 c) 10 d) None of these

21. A rectangular sheet of paper 40cm x 22cm is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height 40cm.

The radius of the cylinder is

a) 3.5cm b) 5.3cm c) 2.5cm d) 5

22. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved keeping the height same then the

ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of the original cylinder is

a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:4 d) 4:1

23. The volume and the surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then the radius of sphere

is

a) 1 unit b) 2 units c) 3 units d) None of these

24. A rectangular sheet of paper 40 cm × 22 cm is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height

40 cm. The radius of the cylinder (in cm) is:

a) 3.5cm b) 5.3cm c) 2·5cm d) 5cm

25. A cone of height 7 cm and base radius 3 cm is curved from a rectangular block of wood

10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm. The percentage of wood wasted is:

a) 34% b) 46% c) 54% d) 66%

26. A cap is cylindrical in shape, surmounted by a conical top. If the volume of the cylindrical

part is equal to that of the conical part, then the ratio of the height of the cylindrical part to the

height of the conical part is

(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3 (c) 2:1 (d) 3:1

248
27. A solid sphere is cut into two hemispheres. The ratio of the surface areas of sphere to that of

two hemispheres taken together is

(a) 1:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2

28. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be carved out from a solid cube of edge

2cm is

a b c d

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: Total surface area of the cylinder having radius of the base 14 cm and height 30 cm

is 3872 cm2.

Reason: If r be the radius and h be the height of the cylinder, then total surface area = 2πrh + 2πr2.

2. Assertion: If the height of a cone is 24 cm and diameter of the base is 14 cm, then the slant

height of the cone is 15 cm.

Reason: If r be the radius and h the slant height of the cone, then slant height = √ .

249
3. Assertion: If the radius of a cone is halved and volume is not changed, then height remains
same.
Reason: If the radius of a cone is halved and volume is not changed then height must become four

times of the original height.

4. Assertion: If a ball is in the shape of a sphere has a surface area of 221.76 cm2, then its
diameter is 8.4 cm.

Reason: If the radius of the sphere be r, then surface area, S = 4πr2, i. e. r = √

5. Assertion: No. of spherical balls that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge

is 44 cm, each ball being 4 cm. in diameter, is 2541.

Volume of one ball

Reason: Number of balls = .
volume of lead

6. Assertion: Two cubes each of edge length 10cm are joined together. The total surface area of
newly formed cuboid is .
Reason: Area of each surface of cube of side 10cm is .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. The students of Class 10 were taken on a factory visit to see how the vehicles tyres were being

manufactured. The factory visit was a new experience for all of them as they could see the

manufacturing process from very close. The students saw lot of tanks which were made of

stainless steel (including lid and base) to store water. The biggest tank was marked with height 13

m and diameter 3 m. Every manufacturing unit needs storage tank for water.

250
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

i) What is the formula for calculating total surface area of the tank?

ii) Calculate the total surface area of the tank whose dimensions are marked.

iii) How much water can be stored in the tank?

iv) Calculate the area of stainless-steel sheets required to make the tank without lid?

2. Mathematics teacher Swathi of a school took her 10th standard students to show Red fort. It

was a part of their educational trip. The teacher had interest in history as well. She narrated the

facts of Red Fort to students. Then the teacher said in this monument one can find combination of

solid figures. There are 2 pillars which are cylindrical in shape. Also 2 domes at the corners

which are hemispherical 7 smaller domes at the centre. Flag hoisting ceremony on Independence

Day takes place near these domes.

i) How much cloth material is required to cover 2 big dome?

ii) Evaluate the curved surface area of two pillars if height of the pillar is 7m and radius of the

base is 1.4m.

iii) Calculate the volume of the hemisphere if its radius is 3.5m.

iv) Find the ratio of sum of volumes of two hemispheres of radius 1cm each to the volume if

sphere of radius 2cm.

3. In the month of December 2020, it rained heavily throughout the day over the city of

Hyderabad. Anil observed the raindrops as they reached him. Each raindrop was in the shape of a

hemisphere surmounted by a cone of the same radius of 1 mm. Volume of one of such drops is

3·14 mm3.

Anil collected the rainwater in a pot having a capacity of . [Use √ = 1.4]

Based on the above information, answer the following:

i) Find the total height of the drop.

251
ii) Evaluate the total surface area of the drop.

iii) As the drop fell into the pot, it changed into sphere, what will be the radius of the sphere?

iv) How many drops will fill the pot completely?

4. Swathi is studying in X standard. While helping her mother in kitchen, she saw rolling pin

made of steel and empty from inner side, with two small hemispherical ends as shown in the

figure.

Based on the above information, answer the following:

i) Find the curved surface area of two identical cylindrical parts, if the diameter is 2.5cm and

length of each part is 5cm.

ii) Find the volume of big cylindrical part.

iii) Calculate the volume of two hemispherical ends having diameter 2.5cm.

iv) Evaluate the curved surface area of two hemispherical ends.

5. Arun a X standard student makes a project on corona virus in science for an exhibition in his

school. In this project, he picks a sphere which has volume 38808cm3 and 11 cylindrical shapes,

each of volume 1540cm3 with length 10 cm.

Based on the above information, answer the following:

i) Find the diameter of the base of the cylinder.

ii) Find the diameter of the sphere.

iii) Calculate the curved surface area of the one cylindrical shape.

iv) Evaluate the total area covered by cylindrical shapes on the surface of sphere.

252
6. A company manufactures boxes for gift packing. A group of employees of this company

prepares cuboidal shaped boxes. For this they follow the given process.

1. Take a rectangular cardboard.

2. Cut a square of same size at each corner.

3. Fold the remaining part and fix with the help of gum and paper.

4. The box id ready.

Length and breadth of cardboard box are 61cm and 46cm the squares are cut at each corner of

rectangle are of side 8cm. Boxes are covered with rectangular cuboidal lid of same size.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

i) Swathi purchased 6 glasses of cylindrical shape to gift her friend Uma. The height of the glass

is 12cm and diameter 7cm. If the glasses are packed in the gift box then find the remaining

volume in the box.

ii) Harini wanted to gift wrap the box, find the area of gift-wrapping paper to wrap the box.

iii) Vanya packed some balls of radius 3.5cm in the box. Find the maximum number of balls

which can be packed in the box C.

iv) If Vihaan puts 5 such boxes keeping one above the other, find the total surface area of the

shape so formed.

7. In one corner of the drawing room, a flower basket is kept inside the glass, lies on the table.

The basket is designed in such a way that everyone pleases to see it.

The shape of flower basket is hemisphere with radius 60cm and upper shape is conical with

height 120cm from the bottom surface.

253
i) Find the capacity of the class.

ii) Evaluate the volume of the cone.

iii) Calculate the curve surface area of hemisphere.

iv) If the cost of painting the glass outside is ₹1.20 per , find the total cost of painting the CSA

of the glass.

8. The word circus has the same root as circle. In a closed circular area, various entertainment

acts including human skill and animal training are presented before the crowd.

A circus tent is cylindrical upto height o 8m and conical above it. The diameter of the base is 28m

and total height of tent is 18.5m.

Based on the above, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the slant height of the conical part.

(ii) Determine the floor area of the tent.

(iii) Find the area of the cloth used for making tent.

(iv) Find the total volume of air inside an empty tent.

9. Tamper proof tetra packed milk guarantee both freshness and security. This milk ensures

uncompromised quality, preserving the nutritional values within and making it a reliable choice

for health conscious individuals.

500ml milk is packed in a cuboidal container of dimensions 15cm x 8cm x 5cm. These milk

packets are then packed in cuboidal cartons of dimensions 30cm x 32cm x 15cm.

254
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the volume of the cuboidal carton.

(ii) Find the total surface area of a milk packet.

(iii) How many milk packets can be filled in a carton?

(iv) How much milk can the cup (shown in the figure) hold?

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. The volume of a right circular cylinder with its height equal to the radius is . Find the

height of the cylinder. ( Use ).

2. A solid is in the shape of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of same base radius. If the curved

surface areas of the hemispherical part and the conical part are equal, then find the ratio of the

radius and the height of the conical part.

3. From a solid right circular cylinder of height 14 cm and base radius 6 cm, a right circular cone

of same height and same base removed. Find the volume of the remaining solid.

4. A right circular cylinder and a cone have equal bases and equal heights. If their curved surface

areas are in the ratio 8:5, show that the ratio between radius of their bases to their height is 3:4.

5. A cylindrical glass tube with radius 10 cm has water upto a height of 9 cm. A metal cube of

8 cm edge is immersed completely. By how much the water level will rise in the glass tube?

6. Two cones have their heights in ratio 1:3 and radii in the ratio 3:1. What is the ratio of their

volumes?

7. A cubical ice-cream brick of edge 22 cm is to be distributed among some children by filling

ice-cream cones of radius 2 cm and height 7 cm up to its brim. How many children will get the

ice cream cones?

255
8. A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends.

The length of the entire capsule is 14mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find its surface

area.

9. The length, breadth and height of a rectangular solid are in the ratio 5:4:2. If the total surface

area is 1216 cm2, find the length, breadth and height of the solid. Also, find the volume of the

solid.

10. The cost of painting the total outside surface of a closed cylindrical oil tank at 50 paise per sq.

decimetre is ₹198. The height of the tank is 6 times the radius the base of the tank. Find its

volume correct to 2 decimal places.

11. The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m and it is 2 m long. How much area will it cover in 5

revolutions? ( Take ).

12. A cylindrical jar of radius 6 cm contains oil. Iron spheres, each of radius 1.5 cm are inserted

in the oil. How many spheres are necessary to raise the level of oil by 2 cm?

13. A cylinder, whose height is two-thirds of its diameter, has the same volume as a sphere of

radius 4 cm. Calculate the radius of the base of the cylinder.

14. Three equal cubes are placed side by side in a row. Find the ratio of the surface area of the

new cuboid so formed to the sum of the surface areas of the three cubes.

15. In the given figure, from a cuboidal solid metallic block of dimensions 15 cm × 10 cm × 5 cm

a cylindrical hole of diameter 7cm is drilled out. Find the surface area of the remaining

block. ( Take ).

256
16. An iron pole consisting of a cylindrical portion 110cm height and of base diameter 12cm is

surmounted by a cone 9cm high. Find the mass of the pole given that 1cm3 of iron has 8g

mass(approx.).

17. A cylindrical pencil is sharpened to produce cone at one end with no overall loss of length. If

the diameter of the pencil is 1cm and the length of the conical portion is 2cm. Calculate the

volume of the shavings. Give your answer correct to two places of decimals. ( Use )

18. Determine the ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will exactly fit inside

the cube.

19. A solid is made by joining a hemisphere and a cone on the same base but on opposite side. If

volume of the solid is π cubic cm and height of the cone is 4cm, then find the base radius.

20. Two cylindrical cans have bases of the same size. The diameter of each is 14cm. One of the

cans is 1cm high and the other is 20cm high. Find the ratio of their volumes.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical end. The total height of the solid is 20

cm and the diameter of the cylinder is 7 cm. Find the total volume of the solid. ( Use )

2. A cylindrical tank of radius 40 cm is filled upto height 3.15 m by an other cylindrical pipe with

the rate of 2.52 km/h in hour. Calculate the diameter of cylindrical pipe?

3. A heap of rice is in the form of a cone of base diameter 24 m and height 3.5 m. Find the

volume of the rice. How much canvas cloth is required to just cover the heap?

4. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of same radius on its

circular face. The total height of the toy is 15.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy.

257
5. A vessel is in the form of hemispherical bowl surmounted by a hollow cylinder of same

diameter. The diameter of the hemispherical bowl is 14cm and the total height of the vessel is

13cm. Find the total surface area of the vessel. * Use +

6. A wooden toy was made by scooping out a hemisphere of same radius from each end of a solid

cylinder. If the height of the cylinder is 10cm, and its base is of radius 3.5cm, find the volume of

wood in the toy. * Use +

7. Due to sudden floods, some welfare associations jointly requested the government to get 100

tents fixed immediately and offered to contribute 50% of the cost. If the lower part of each tent is

of the form of a cylinder of diameter 4.2 m and height 4 m with the conical upper part of same

diameter but height 2.8 m, and the canvas to be used costs ₹100 per sq. m, find the amount, the

association will have to pay.

8. A cubical block of side 10 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the largest diameter that

the hemisphere can have? Find the cost of painting the total surface area of the solid so formed, at

the rate of ₹ 5 per sq. cm. [Use π = 3.14]

9. In figure, a tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top of same diameter. If

the height and diameter of cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 3 m respectively and the slant height of

conical part is 2.8 m, find the cost of canvas needed to make the tent if the canvas is available at

the rate of ₹ 500/sq. metre. * Use +

258
10. A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled with

water. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel

rises by . Find the diameter of the cylindrical vessel.

11. A building is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a hemispherical dome. The base

diameter of the dome is equal to of the total height of the building. Find the height of the

building, if it contains of air.

12. A circus tent is in the form of a right circular cylinder and a right circular cone above it. The

diameter and the height of the cylindrical part of the tent are 126 m and 5 m respectively. The

total height of the tent is 21 m. Find the total surface area of the tent. Also, find the cost of the

tent, if the canvas used costs ₹12 per square meter. * Use +

13. An iron pillar has some part in the form of a right circular cylinder and remaining in the form

of a right circular cone. The radius of the base of each of cone and cylinder is 8 cm. The

cylindrical part is 240 cm high and the conical part is 36 cm high. Find the weight of the pillar, if

one cu. cm of iron weights 7.8 grams.

14. Swathi has a vessel in the form of an inverted cone, open at the top of height 11cm and radius

of top as 2.5cm and is full of water. Metallic spherical balls, each of diameter 0.5cm are put in the

th
vessel due to which of the water in the vessel flows out. Find how many balls were put in the

vessel.

15. A metallic cylinder has radius 3cm and height 5cm. To reduce its weight, a conical hole is

drilled in the cylinder. The conical hole has a radius of cm and its depth is Calculate the

ratio of the of the volume of metal left in the cylinder to the volume of the metal taken out in

conical shape.

259
16. 50 circular plates each of radius 7cm and thickness cm are placed on above another to form a

solid right circular cylinder. Find the total surface area and the volume of the cylinder so formed.

17. A solid cylinder of base radius 7cm and height 24cm is surmounted by a cone of same base

radius and same vertical height. A hemisphere surmounts the cylinder at the other end. Find the

surface area of the solid.

18. A water tank open at the top is hemispherical at the bottom and cylinder above it. If the radius

of the hemisphere is 12cm and the total capacity of the tank is 3312πm3, find the ratio of the

surface areas of the spherical and cylindrical portions.

19. The height of a solid cylinder is 15cm and the diameter of its base is 7cm. Two equal conical

holes each of radius 3cm and height 4cm are cut off. Find the volume of the remaining solid.

20. A cylindrical can of internal diameter 21cm contains water. A solid sphere whose diameter is

10.5cm is lowered into the cylindrical can. The sphere is completely immersed in water.

Calculate the rise in the water level, assuming that no water over flows.

21. The difference between the outer and inner radii of a hollow right circular cylinder of length

14cm is 1cm. If the volume of the metal used in making the cylinder is 176cm3. Find the outer

and inner radii of the cylinder.

22. The inner and outer radii of a hollow cylinder surmounted on a hollow hemisphere of same

radii are 3cm and 4cm respectively. If height of the cylinder is 14cm, then find its total surface

area (inner and outer).

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A toy in the shape of right circular cylinder with a hemisphere on one end and a cone on the

other end. The height and radius of the cylinder are 13cm and 5cm respectively. The radii of the

260
hemispherical and conical parts are the same as that of the cylindrical part. Calculate the surface

area of the toy of height of the conical part is 12cm.

2. A petrol tank is a cylinder of diameter 21cm and length 18cm fitted with conical ends each of

axis length 9cm. Determine the capacity of the tank.

3. A tent in the shape of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone. The height

of the cylindrical and the conical parts are 40m and 21m respectively. If the base diameter of the

tent is 56m, find the area of the required canvas to make this tent, if 20% of the area is consumed

in folding and sewing.

4. The figure represents a solid consisting of a right circular cylinder with a hemisphere at one

end and a cone at the other end. Their common radius is 7cm. The height of the cylinder and cone

are of each 4cm. Find the volume of the solid.

5. A vessel of hollow cylinder fitted with a hemispherical bottom of the same base. The depth of

the cylinder is and the diameter of hemisphere is 3.5m. Calculate the volume and the

internal surface area of the vessel.

6. A solid wooden toy is in the form of a hemi-sphere surmounted by a cone of same radius. The

radius of hemi-sphere is 3.5cm and the total wood used in the making of toy is . Find

the height of the toy. Also, find the cost of painting the hemi-spherical part of the toy at the rate

of ₹10 per cm2. * Use +

261
7. A conical vessel of radius 6cm and height 8cm is completely filled with water. A sphere is

lowered into the water and its size is such that when it touches the sides, it is just immersed. What

fraction of water overflows?

8. A sphere is placed inside an inverted hollow conical vessel of base radius 5cm and vertical

height 12cm. If the highest point of the sphere is at the plane of the base of the cone, find the

radius of the sphere. Also, find the ratio of the volumes of the sphere and conical vessel.

9. A cylindrical vessel with diameter 16cm and height 10.5cm is full of water. A solid cone of

base radius 7cm and height 9cm is completely immersed in it. Find the volume of (i) water

displaced from the cylindrical vessel (ii) water left in the vessel.

10. A cracker rocket is in the shape of right circular cone standing on a right circular cylinder. If

height of the conical portion is half the height of the cylinder portion, radius of the cylinder is

3.5cm, whereas the radius of the conical portion is two times of the cylinder. Total height of the

solid is 21cm, find the volume of the rocket.

11. The largest possible hemisphere is drilled out from a wooden cubical block of side 21 cm

such that the base of the hemisphere is on one of the faces of the cube. Find:

(i) the volume of wood left in the block,

(ii) the total surface area of the remaining solid.

12. A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone. Ratio of the

radius of the cone to its slant height is 3:5. If the volume of the toy is 240π cm3, then find the total

height of the toy.

262
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. Two cones have their heights in the ratio 1:3 and radii in the ratio 3:1, then the ratio of their

volumes is

a) 1:3 b) 3:1 c) 2: 3 d) 3:2

2. A heap of rice is in the form of a cone of base diameter 24 m and height 3.5 m. How much

canvas as cloth is required to just cover the heap?

a) 105.5 m2 b) 471.42 m2 c) 173.5 m2 d) None of these

3. If two cubes of edge 3cm each are joined end to end, then the surface area of the resulting
cuboid is
a) b) c) d)

4. Assertion: Total surface area of the cylinder having radius of the base 14 cm and height 30 cm

is 3872 cm2.

Reason: If r be the radius and h be the height of the cylinder, then total surface area = (2πrh +

2πr2).

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

263
SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks

5. The area of the base of a right circular cylinder is 15400 cm2 and its volume is 92400 cm3. Find

the area of its curved surface.

6. Lead spheres of diameter 6 cm are dropped into a cylindrical beaker containing some water and

are fully submerged. If the diameter of the beaker is 18 cm and the water rises by 40 cm, find the

number of lead spheres dropped in the water.

7. Three cubes each of 5cm edge are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting

cuboid.

SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. An iron pillar consists of a cylindrical portion 2.8 m high and 20 cm in diameter and a cone 42

cm high is surmounting it. Find the weight of the pillar, if 1 cm3 of iron weighs 7.5 g.

9. From a solid cylinder whose height is 8 cm and radius 6 cm a conical cavity of height 8 cm and

of base radius 6 cm is hollowed out. Find the volume of the remaining solid correct to the two

places of decimal. Also, find the total surface area of the remaining solid. ( = 3.1416).

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. A solid consisting of a right cone standing on a hemisphere is placed upright in a right

circular cylinder full of water and touches the bottom. Find the volume of water left in the

cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 60 cm and its height is 180 cm, the radius of the

hemisphere is 60 cm and height of the cone is 120 cm, assuming that the hemisphere and the cone

have common base.

264
11. A toy is in the form of a right circular cylinder closed at one end and with hemisphere on the

other end. The height and the radius of the base of the cylinder are 15cm and 6cm respectively.

The radius of the hemisphere and the base of the cylinder are the same. Calculate the total surface

area and the volume of the toy. If the toy is painted at the rate of per , fid the cost of

painting the toy. ( )

SECTION E

12. Adventure camps are the perfect place for the children to practice decision making for

themselves without parents and teachers guiding their every move. Some students of a school

reached for adventure at Sakleshpur. At the camp, the waiters served some students with a

welcome drink in a cylindrical glass and some students in a cylindrical glass and some in

hemispherical cup whose dimensions are shown below. After that they went form a jungle trek

was enjoyable but tiring. As dusk fell, it was time to take shelter. Each group of four students was

given a canvas of area 551m2. Each group had to make a conical tent to accommodate all the four

students. Assuming that all the stitching and wasting incurred while cutting, would amount to

1m2, the students put the tents. The radius of the tent is 7m.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

i) Calculate the volume of the cylindrical cup.

ii) Evaluate the volume of the hemispherical cup.

265
iii) Find the height of the conical tent prepared to accommodate four students.

iv) How much space on the ground is occupied by each student in the conical tent?

266
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers

1. a) 7 cm 1. (a) Both Assertion 1. i) 1. 2 cm. 1. 680.17 cm3 1.

(A) and Reason (R)

2. b) 3:1 ii) 2. √ 2. 4cm 2.
are true and Reason
3. b) 10 cm iii) 3. 3. and 3.
(R) is the correct

4. a) 9:25 explanation of iv) 4. Proof 4.

Assertion (A). 4.
5. c) 2. i) 5. 1.629 cm. 5.
2. (d) Assertion (A) 5.
6. d) 19.4 cm3 ii) 6. 3:1
6. ₹
is false but Reason
6.
7. a) 38.8 cm3 iii) 7. 363
(R) is true. 7. .
7. ₹.
8. a) 64 8.
3. (d) Assertion (A) iv)
8. , 40:81
is false but Reason 3. i) 2mm 8. ₹
9. d) 4.5cm 9.
(R) is true. 9. 462 , 1650
9. ₹16500
10. b) 1: √ ii) 10.
4. (a) Both Assertion 10.

267
11. c) 21cm (A) and Reason (R) 11. 10. 18cm 11. 6835.5 cm3
iii) ( )
are true and Reason
12. b) 3cm 12. 16 11. 6m & 2992.5 cm2
iv)
(R) is the correct
13. c) 6cm 13. 4cm 12. 12. 14cm
explanation of 4. i)

14. b) 7cm Assertion (A). 14. 7:9 13.

ii)

15. c) 1.75cm 5. (c) Assertion (A) 15. 14. 440

iii)
is true but Reason
16. b) 16. 102.28kg 15. 133:2
(R) is false. iv)

17. b) 216cm2 17. 1.05 16. 1408 , 3850

6. (d) Assertion (A) 5. i) 14cm

18. b) 21:11 is not true but 18. 6:π 17. 609π

ii) 42cm
Reason (R) is true.
19. c) 7:24 19. 2cm 18. 4:5
iii)

20. c) 10 20. 1:2 19. 502.1

iv)

21. a) 3.5cm 20. 1.75cm

6. i)
21. 2.5cm and 1.5cm

268
22. c) 1:4 ii) 22.

23. a) 1 unit iii) 28 or approx.

24. a) 3.5cm iv)

25. a) 34% 7. i)

26. (b) 1:3

ii)

27. (c) 2:3

iii)

28. d
iv) ₹

8. i)

ii)

iii)

iv)

269
 9. i)

ii)

iii)

iv) or

UNIT TEST

1. b) 3:1

2. b) 471.42 m2

3. a)

4. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5.

6. 90

7. 350

8. 693 kg
270
9.

10.

11.

12. i) ii) iii) iv)

271
 CHAPTER 13 – STATISTICS

Key Concepts

Class Mark

Class Mark =

Class size

Class size (h) = Upper limit – Lower limit

Mean

The arithmetic mean is a mathematical representation of the typical value of a series of numbers,

computed as the sum of all the numbers in the series divided by the count of all numbers in the

series. The arithmetic mean is sometimes referred to as the average or simply as the mean.

(i) Direct Method

̅= , where f is frequency

(ii) Assumed Mean Method

̅=A+ , where A is assumed mean and d = x – A.

Mode

Mode is that value among the observations which occurs most often i.e, the value of the

observation having the maximum frequency. If in a data more than one value have the same

frequency, then the data is said to be multi-modal.

In a grouped frequency distribution, the class which has the maximum frequency is called modal

class.

Mode = l + ( )xh

272
Where l = lower limit

h = class size

f0 = frequency of the class preceding the modal class

f1 = frequency of the modal class

f2 = frequency of the class succeeding the modal class.

Median

A median is the middle number in a sorted list of numbers. To determine the median value in a

sequence of numbers, the numbers must first be arranged in value order from lowest to highest. If

there is an odd amount of numbers, the median value is the number that is in the middle, with the

same amount of numbers below and above. If there is an even amount of numbers in the list, the

middle pair must be determined, added together and divided by two to find the median value. The

median can be used to determine an approximate average.

Median = l + ( ) x h,

l = lower limit of the median class

cf = cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class

f = frequency of the median class

h = class size

Empirical Formula

3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The mean weight of a class of 35 students is 45kg. If the weight of a teacher be included, the

mean weight increases by 500 grams, then the weight of the teacher is

a) 63 kg b) 61 kg c) 64 kg d) 70 kg

273
2. In the following distribution

Monthly Income Range (in ₹) No. of Families

Income more than ₹ 10,000 100
Income more than ₹ 13,000 85
Income more than ₹ 16,000 69
Income more than ₹ 19,000 50
Income more than ₹ 22,000 33
Income more than ₹ 25,000 13

The number of families having income range (in ₹) 16,000 – 19,000 is

a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 19

3. Mean of the following frequency distribution is

Class 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50
Frequency 8 12 10 11 9

a) 25. 3 b) 25.2 c) 24 d) 25.5

4. The numbers 3, 5, 7 and 9 have their respective frequencies x – 2, x + 2 , x – 3 and x + 3. If the

arithmetic mean is 6.5, then the value of x is

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

5. If the mean of the numbers 27 + x, 31 + x, 89 + x, 107 + x, 156 + x is 82, then the mean of

130 + x, 126 + x, 68 + x, 50 + x, 1 + x is

a) 75 b) 157 c) 82 d) 80

6. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6. The

lower limit of the class is

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 12

7. If the mean of the observations x, x + 3, x + 5, x + 7 and x + 10 is 9, then the mean of the last

three observations is

a) b) c) d)
274
8. For the data (2, 9, x + 6, 2x + 3, 5, 10, 5) if mean is 7, then mode is

a) 3 b) 5 c) 9 d) 10

9. The mean of 5 observation is 15. If the mean of first three observations is 14 and last three

observations is 17, then the third observation is:

a) 18 b) 19 c) 17 d) 20

10. If the difference of mode and median of a data is 24, then the difference of median and mean

is

a) 12 b) 24 c) 8 d) 36

11. The times (in seconds) taken by 150 athletes to run a 110 m hurdle race are tabulated below

Class 13.8 - 14 14 – 14.2 14.2 – 14.4 14.4 – 14.6 14.6 – 14.8 14.8 - 15
Frequency 2 4 5 71 48 20

The number of athletes who completed the race in less than 14.6 s is

a) 11 b) 71 c) 82 d) 130

12. For the following distribution

Marks No. of students

Below 10 3
Below 20 12
Below 30 27
Below 40 57
Below 50 75
Below 60 80

The modal class is

a) 10-20 b) 20-30 c) 30-40 d) 50-60

13. Mode of the following grouped frequency distribution is

Class 3 - 6 6 - 9 9 - 12 12 - 15 15 - 18 18 - 21 21 - 24
Frequency 2 5 10 23 21 12 3

275
a) 13.6 b) 15.6 c) 14.6 d) 16.6

14. If the number of runs scored by 11 players of a cricket team of India are 5, 19, 42, 11, 50, 30,

21, 0, 52, 36, 27, then median is

a) 30 b) 32 c) 36 d) 27

15. Consider the following frequency distribution

Class 0 - 5 6 - 11 12 - 17 18 - 23 24 - 29
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11

The upper limit of the median class is

a) 17 b) 17.5 c) 18 d) 18.5

16. If and , then mean ̅ is equal to

a) 13 b) 12.75 c) 13.25 d) 14.25

17. Life time of electric bulbs are given in the following frequency distribution.

Life time
250 - 300 300 - 350 350 - 400 400 - 450 450 - 500
(in hours)
No. of bulbs 5 14 21 12 10

The class mark of the modal class is

a) 350 b) 375 c) 400 d) 150

18. The modal class of data given below is 10–15, then

Class Interval 0 - 5 5 - 10 10 - 15 15 - 20 20 - 25
Frequency 8 6 f 4 3

a) f < 9 b f≥9 c) f > 9 only d) f < 3

19. If the median of the data: 6, 7, x – 2, x, 17, 20 written in ascending order, is 16. Then x is

equal to

a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18

276
20. If mode of a series exceeds its mean by 12, then mode exceeds the median by

a) 4 b) 8 c) 6 d) 10

21. For some data with respective frequencies , the value of

( ̅ ) is equal to
(a) ̅ (b) 1 (c) (d) 0

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: The arithmetic mean of the following given distribution is 13.81.

x 4 7 10 13 16 19
f 7 10 15 20 25 30

Reason: ̅ .

2. Assertion: If the number of runs scored by 11 players of a cricket team of India are 5, 19, 42,

11, 50, 30, 21, 0, 52, 36, 27 then median is 30.

th
Reason : Median ( ) value, if is odd.

277
3. Assertion: If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of median

is 64.

Reason: Median = (mode + 2 mean)

4. Assertion: If the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, x, 10, 15 is x, then x = 9.25.

Reason: If x1, x2, x3, ..., xn are n values of a variable X, then the arithmetic mean of these values is

given by .

5. Assertion: Consider the following frequency distribution:

Class 10 -15 15 - 20 20 - 25 25 - 30 30 - 35
Frequency 5 9 12 6 8

The modal class is 10 – 15.

Reason: The class having maximum frequency is called the modal class.

6. Assertion: Consider the following frequency distribution:

Class 3 - 6 6 - 9 9 - 12 12 -15 15 - 18 18 - 21
Frequency 2 5 21 23 10 12

The mode of the above data is 12.4

Reason: The value of the variable which occurs most often is the mode.

7. Assertion: If for a certain frequency distribution, l = 24.5, h = 4, f0 = 14, f1 = 14, f2 = 15, then

the value of mode is 25.

Reason: Mode of a frequency distribution is given by: Mode ( ) .

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. Education with vocational training is helpful in making a student self-reliant and to help and

serve the society. Keeping this in view, a teacher made the following table giving the frequency

distribution of a student undergoing vocational training from the training institute.

278
i) Median class of the above data is:

a) 20 - 24 b) 20.5 - 24.5 c) 19.5 - 24.5 d) 24.5 - 29.5

(ii) Model class of the above data is:

a) 20-24 b) 19.5-24.5 c) 25-29 d) 24.5-29.5

iii) The empirical relationship between mean, median, mode is :

a) Mode = 3 Median + 2 Mean b) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

c) Mode = 3 Mean + 2 Median d) 3 Mode = Median – 2 Mean

iv) If mode = 80 and mean = 110, then the median is:

a) 200 b) 500 c) 190 d) 100

v) The mode is the:

a) middlemost frequent value b) least frequent value

c) maximum frequent value d) none of these

2. The age-wise participation of students of a school in the International Yoga day Celebration

that was held in the school ground is shown in the following distribution. By analysing the data

given below answer the questions that follow:

If in all 181 students participated, then answer the following questions:

i) The median class of the data is:

a) 9 - 11 b) 11 - 13 c) 13 - 15 d) 15 - 17

ii) The value of missing frequency(x) is:

a) 12 b) 10 c) 13 d) 14

iii) The modal class is:

a) 13 - 15 b) 11 - 13 c) 15 - 17 d) 17 - 19
279
iv) The class mark of the modal class is:

a) 17 b) 16 c) 15 d) 14

v) The sum of lower limits of the median class and upper limit of modal class is:

a) 26 b) 28 c) 30 d) 32

3. Transport department of a city wants to buy some Electric buses for the city. For which they

want to analyse the distance travelled by existing public transport buses in a day.

The following data shows the distance travelled by 60 existing public transport buses in a day.

Daily distance travelled (in km) 200 – 209 210 - 219 220 - 229 230 - 239 240 - 249
Number of buses 4 14 26 10 6

i) Determine the median class.

ii) Find the cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class.

iii) Evaluate the median of the distance travelled.

iv) If the mode of the distance travelled is 223.78 km, then find the mean of the distance travelled

by the bus.

4. An electric scooter manufacturing company wants to declare the mileage of their electric

scooters. For this, they recorded the mileage (km/charge) of 50 scooters of the same model.

Details of which are given in the following table.

Mileage(km/charge) 100 - 120 120 - 140 140 - 160 160 - 180

No. of scooters 7 12 18 13

i) Write the empirical relationship between mean, mode and median.

ii) Find the average mileage.

iii) Obtain the modal value of the given data.

iv) Determine the median of the given data.

280
5. Air Quality Index: AQI is an index for reporting air quality daily. The purpose of the AQI is to

help people know how the local air quality impacts their health. The Environmental Protection

Agency (EPA) calculates the AQI for five major air pollutants:

1. Ground-level ozone

2. Particle pollution/particulate matter (PM2.5/pm 10)

3. Carbon Monoxide

4. Sulphur dioxide

5. Nitrogen dioxide

The higher the AQI value, the greater the level of air pollution and the greater the health

concerns.

AIQ 270 - 280 280 - 290 290 - 300 300 - 310 310 - 320 320 - 330 Total
No. of weeks 4 10 14 20 24 8 80

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

i) Estimate the mean AQI.

ii) In which class does the median of distribution lie?

iii)In which class does the mode of distribution lie?

iv) What is the median AQI?

6. BINGO is game of chance. The host has 75 balls numbered 1 through 75. Each player has a

BINGO card with some numbers written on it. The participant cancels the number of the card

when called out a number written on the ball selected at random. Whosever cancels all the

numbers on his/her card, say BINGO and wins the game.

The table given below, shows the data of one such game where 48 balls were used before Tara

said „BINGO‟.

281
Based on the above information, answer the following:

(i) Write the median class.

(ii) When first ball was picked up, what was the probability of calling out an even number?

(iii) Find median of the given data.

(iv) Find the mode of the given data.

7. Vocational training complements traditional education by providing practical skills and hands-

on experience. While education equips individuals with a broad knowledge base, vocational

training focuses on job-specific skills, enhancing employability thus making the student self-

reliant. Keeping this in view, a teacher made the following table given the frequency distribution

of students/adults undergoing vocational training from the training institute.

Age
15 - 19 20 - 24 25 - 29 30 - 34 35 - 39 40 - 44 45 - 49 50 - 54
(in years)
No. of participants 62 132 96 37 13 11 10 4

From the above, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the lower limit of the modal class of the above data?

(ii) Find the median class of the above data.

(iii) Find the number of participants of age less than 50 years who undergo vocational training.

(iv) Give the empirical relationship between mean, median and mode.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. Find the mean of the following distribution:

Class 3 - 5 5 - 7 7 - 9 9 - 11 11 - 13
Frequency 5 10 10 7 8

282
2. Find the mode of the following data:

Class Interval 0 - 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100 100 - 120 120 - 140

Frequency 6 8 10 12 6 5 3

3. Find the unknown values in the following table:

Class Interval Frequency Cumulative Frequency

0 - 10 5 5
10 - 20 7 x1
20 – 30 x2 18
30 - 40 5 x3
40 - 50 x4 30

4. Find the mean of the following data:

x 4 6 9 10 15
f 5 10 10 7 8

5. If the mean of the following distribution is 7.5. find the value of the missing frequency f.
Variable(x) 5 6
9 10 11 12 7 8
Frequency(f) 20 17 16 10 f 6 7 6

6. If the mean of the following distribution is 6, find the value of p.

x 2 4 6 10 p+5
f 3 2 3 1 2

7. Find the arithmetic mean for the following frequency distribution.

x 76 79 82 85 88
f 10 36 84 54 16

8. Find the mode of the following frequency distribution.

Marks 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 – 40 40 - 50 50 - 60
No. of Students 12 35 45 25 13

9. Find the mode of the following frequency distribution.

283
 Expenditure on 300- 310- 320- 330- 340- 350- 360- 370-
Total
food 309 319 329 339 349 359 369 379
No. of workers 10 20 24 38 48 27 17 6 190

10. Find the median of the following frequency distribution.

Marks obtained 20 25 35 40 50
No. of Students 5 11 24 16 5

11. Find the median of the following date.

Marks 20 25 35 40 50
No. of Students 5 10 24 16 5

12. The lengths of 40 leaves of a plant are measured to the nearest millimetre and the data
obtained is represented in the following table.
Length (in mm) 118 - 126 127 - 135 136 - 144 145 - 153 154 - 162 163 - 171 172 - 180
No. of leaves 3 5 9 12 5 4 2

Find the median length of leaves.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. The median of the following data is 16. Find the missing frequencies a and b, if the total of the

frequencies is 70.

Class Interval 0 - 5 5 - 10 10 - 15 15 - 20 20 - 25 25 - 30 30 – 35 35 - 40
Frequency 12 a 12 15 b 6 6 4

2. The mode of the following data is 67. Find the missing frequency x.

Class 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 80 - 90
Frequency 5 x 15 12 7

3. The mean of the following distribution is 25.2. Find the missing frequency m?

Class Interval 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50
Frequency 8 m 10 11 9

284
4. The arithmetic mean of the following distribution is 50. Find the value of p.
Class Interval 0 - 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100
Frequency 17 p 32 24 19

5. Find the mean of the following frequency distribution.

Class Interval 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50
Frequency 7 10 15 8 10

6. The mode of the following series is 154. Find the missing frequency f.
Class Interval 120 - 130 130 - 140 140 - 150 150 - 160 160 - 170
Frequency 2 8 f 20 8

7. The following table shows the marks obtained by 100 students of class X in a school during a

particular academic session. Find the mode of this distribution.

Less Less Less Less Less Less Less Less Less

Marks
than 10 than 20 than 30 than 40 than 50 than 60 than 70 than 80 than 90
No. of
10 15 30 50 72 85 90 95 100
Students

8. Find the mode of the following distribution.

Height(in cm) Above 30 Above 40 Above 50 Above 60 Above 70 Above 80
Number of plants 34 30 27 19 8 2

9. The median of the following frequency distribution is 35. Find the value of x.
Income 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70
Frequency 2 3 x 6 5 3 2

10. Find the median of the following data

More than More than More than More than More than More than More than
Profit(in
or equal to or equal to or equal to or equal to or equal to or equal to or equal to
rupees)
5 10 15 20 25 30 35
No. of
30 28 16 14 10 7 3
shops

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LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Daily wages of 110 workers, obtained in a survey, are tabulated below:

Daily Wages 100 - 120 120 - 140 140 - 160 160 - 180 180 - 200 200 - 220 220 - 240
No. of Workers 10 15 20 22 18 12 13

Compute the mean daily wages and modal daily wages of these workers.

2. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5. Find the values of f1 and f2.
Class Interval 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 – 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 Total
Frequency f1 5 9 12 f2 3 2 40

3. Literacy rates of 40 cities are given in the following table. If it is given that mean literacy rate
is 63.5, then find the missing frequencies x and y.
Literacy rate
35-40 40-45 40-50 50-55 55-60 60-65 65-70 70-75 75-80 80-85 85-90
(in %)
Number of cities 1 2 3 x y 6 8 4 2 3 2

4. On annual day of a school, 400 students participated in the function. Frequency distribution
showing their ages is as shown in the following table:
Age (in years) 5 - 7 7 - 9 9 - 11 11 - 13 13 - 15 15 - 17 17 - 19
No. of Students 70 120 32 100 45 28 5

Find mean and median of the above data.

5. The mean of the following distribution is 48.7. Evaluate the missing frequencies corresponding

to classes 40 – 50 and 50 – 60 respectively.

Class Interval 20 - 30 30 – 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 Total

Frequency 13 18 3x + 2 2y + 3 12 10 100

6. The mean of the following data is 42. Find the missing frequencies x and y, if the total

frequency is 100.

Class Interval 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 – 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80
Frequency 7 10 x 13 y 10 14 9

286
7. The following table shows the ages of the patients admitted in a hospital during a year.

Age (in years) 5 - 15 15 – 25 25 - 35 35 - 45 45 - 55 55 - 65

No. of patients 6 11 21 23 14 5

Find the mode and the mean of the data given above. Compare and interpret the two measures of

central tendency.

8. If the mode of the following date is 45 find x and y if .

Class 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 – 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80
Frequency 4 8 x 12 10 4 y

9. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5, find the value of x and y

Class Interval 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 – 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 Total

Frequency x 5 9 12 y 3 2 40

10. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 46, find the missing frequencies x
and y.
Class Interval 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 Total
Frequency 12 30 x 65 y 25 18 230

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 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is
a) 22 b) 23.5 c) 24 d) 24.5

2. The mean of 15 numbers is 25. If each number is multiplied by 4, mean of the new numbers is
a) 60 b) 100 c) 10 d) none of these

3. The mean, mode and median of the observations, 7, 7, 5, 7 and x are the same. Then the
observation x is
a) 10 b) 9 c) 8 d) 7

4. Assertion: The arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution is 25.

Class Interval 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 Total

Frequency 12 30 x 65 y 25 18 230

Reason: ( ̅) , where (lower limit + upper limit) of ith class interval and fi is its

frequency.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. Calculate the mode of the following data:

Daily wages (in ₹) 100 - 120 120 - 140 140 - 160 160 - 180 180 - 200 200 - 220 220 - 240
No. of workers 10 15 20 22 18 12 13

288
6. Form the frequency distribution table for the following data:

Marks (Out of 90) Number of students

More than or equal to 80 4

More than or equal to 70 6

More than or equal to 60 11

More than or equal to 50 17

More than or equal to 40 23

More than or equal to 30 27

More than or equal to 20 30

More than or equal to 10 32

More than or equal to 0 34

7. Find the median of the following data:

Height(in cm) Less than 120 Less than 140 Less than 160 Less than 180 Less than 200
No. of students 12 26 34 40 50

SECTION C
Each carry 3 marks

8. Find the value of p, if the mean of the following distribution is 20.

x 15 17 19 20 + p 23
f 2 3 4 5 6

9. Compute the median marks for the following data.

Marks 0 & above 10 & above 20 & above 30 & above 40 & above 50 & above
No. of students 50 46 40 20 10 3

289
SECTION D
Each carry 5 marks

10. The mean of the following data is 19. Find the missing frequencies x and y, if the total
frequency is 80.
Class 0 - 5 5 - 10 10 - 15 15 - 20 20 - 25 25 - 30 30 - 35 35 - 40
Frequency 6 8 x 19 20 y 8 3

11. Find the values of frequencies x and y in the following frequency distribution table if N = 100

and median is 32.

Mark 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60
No. of students 10 x 25 30 y 10

SECTION E

12. A stopwatch was used to find the time that it took a group of students to run 100m.

Time (in sec) 0 - 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100

No. of students 8 10 13 6 3

Based on the above data, answer the following:

i) Estimate the mean time taken by a student to finish the race.

ii) What will be the upper limit of the modal class?

iii) Find the sum of lower limits of median class and modal class.

iv) How many students finished the race within 1 minute?

290
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II Long Answers
1. a) 63 kg 1. (a) Both Assertion 1. i) c ii) b iii) b 1. 8.15 1. a = 8, b = 7 1. ₹ and

2. d) 19 (A) and Reason (R) iv) d v) b

2. 65. 2. x = 8
3. b) 25.2 are true and Reason
2. i) c ii) b iii) a 2. and
3. x1 = 12, x2 = 6, 3. 12
4. c) 5 (R) is the correct
iv) d v) b
x3= 23 and x4 = 7 3. x = 5 and y = 4.
5. a) 75 explanation of 4. 28
3. i) 219.5 – 229.5
6. b) 7 Assertion (A). 4. 9 4. 10.17 and 9.625
5. 25.8
7. c) 2. (d) Assertion (A) is ii) 18 iii) 224.12 km
5. 8 5. 20 & 27
6. 12
false but Reason (R)
8. c) 9 iv) 224.29 km
6. 7 6. 12 & 25
is true. 7. 41.82.
9. a) 18
4. i) 3 Median =
3. (c) Assertion (A) is 7. 82.45 7. 36. 8 years & 35.37
10. a) 12 8. 63.75
true but Reason (R) is Mode + 2 Mean
11. c) 82 8. 33.33 8. 10 & 2
false. 9. 5
ii) 144. 8 km/charge
12. c) 30-40 4. (c) Assertion (A) is
9. ₹ . 9. 3 & 6
10. 17.5
13. b) 15.6 true but Reason (R) is iii) 150.91

14. d) 27 10. 35 10. 34 & 46

false.

291
15. b) 17.5 5. (d) Assertion (A) is iv) 146.67 11. 35

16. c) 13.25 false but Reason (R)

5. i) 304.25 12. 146.75
17. b) 375 is true.
ii) 300 – 310
18. b f ≥ 9 6. (b) Both Assertion
iii) 310 – 320
19. c) 17 (A) and Reason (R)
iv) 306
20. b) 8 are true but Reason
6. i) 30 – 45
(R) is not the correct
21. (d) 0
ii)
explanation of

Assertion (A). iii) 40.5

7. (d) Assertion (A) is iv) 51

false but Reason (R)

7. i) 19.5
is true.
ii) 19.5 – 24.5

iii) 361

iv) Mode = 3 Median

– 2 Mean

292
UNIT TEST

1. c) 24

2. b) 100

3. b) 9

4. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5. ₹

6.
Marks 0 -10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 80 - 90
No. of students 2 2 3 4 6 6 5 2 4

7. 138.57

8. p = 1

9. 27.5

10. x = 10, y = 6

11. x = 9 and y = 16

12. i) 43 ii) 60 iii) 80 iv) 31

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 CHAPTER 14 - PROBABILITY
Key Concepts
Probability
Probability is a concept which numerically measures the degree of certainty of the occurrence of

events.

Random Experiment

A random experiment is one in which the exact outcome cannot be predicted before conducting

the experiment. However, one can list out all possible outcomes of the experiment.

Sample Space
The set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment is called its sample space and it is

denoted by the letter S.

Sure event
The sample space of a random experiment is called sure or certain event as any one of its

elements will surely occur in any trail of the experiment.

Impossible event
An event which will not occur on any account is called an impossible event. It is denoted by φ.

Favourable outcomes
The outcomes corresponding to the occurrence of the desired event are called favourable
outcomes of the event.

Classical Definition of Probability

A be any event, P(A) denotes is probability and it is defined as follows

P(A) =

Results
 The probability of an event A lies between 0 and 1, both inclusive. That is

0≤P ≤ 1.

 The probability of sure event is 1.

 The probability of impossible event is 0. 294

𝐴̅
 Remarks

o The word unbiased means each outcome is equally likely to occur. For example,

an unbiased die indicates that each of the outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6 has equal

chances to occur.

o The pack or deck of playing cards consists of 52 cards, 26 of red colour and 26 of

black colour. There are four suits each of 13 cards namely hearts (♥), spades (♠),

diamonds (♦) and clubs (♣). Each suit contains ace, king, queen, jack or knave, 10,

9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2. There are 4 aces, 4 kings, 4 queens, 4 jacks, 4 tens, and so on

in a pack. Kings, queens, and jacks are called face cards (or) picture cards.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A card is selected at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability of its being
a face card is
a) b) c) d)

2. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 7 black balls. What is the probability that a ball
drawn from the bag at random will be neither red nor black?
a) b) c) d)

3. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be:
a) p – l b) p c) 1 – p d)

4. A girl calculates that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000

tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought?

a) 40 b) 240 c) 480 d) 750

5. An unbiased die is tossed once. The probability of getting a multiple of 2 or 3 is

a) b) c) d)

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6. letter is chosen at random from the word „M THEM TICS‟. What is probability that it will
be a vowel?
a) b) c) d)

7. letter is chosen at random from the letter of the word „ SS SSIN TION‟, then the
probability that the letter chosen is a vowel and is in the form of , then value of x is

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

8. Two unbiased coins are tossed then the probability of getting no heads is , then ( ) is

a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 25

9. If three coins are tossed together, then the probability of getting two head is

a) b) c) d) None of these

10. Two dice are thrown together, the probability that sum of the two numbers will be a multiple

of 4 is

a) b) c) d)

11. A number x is selected from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and then a second number y is randomly
from the numbers 1, 4, 9, then the probability that the product xy of the two numbers will be less
than 9 is

a) b) c) d)

12. One ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered 1 to 40. The
probability that the selected ticket has a number, which is a multiple of 7, is
a b c

13. A school has five houses A, B, C, D and E. A class has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8 from

house B, 5 from house C, 2 from house D and rest from house E. A single student is selected at

random to be the class monitor. The probability that the selected student is not from A, B and C is

a b) c) d)
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14. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad eggs in the lot

is

a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 28

15. The probability that the drawn card from a pack of 52 cards is neither an ace nor a spade is

a b c) d)

16. Two dice are thrown at a time, then the probability that the difference of the numbers shown

on the dice is 1 is

a) b) c) d)

17. A numbers from 1 to 100 was chosen at random. What is the probability that this number is a

prime number between 75 and 85?

a) b) c) d)

18. For an event E, ( ) ( ̅) , then the value of is

a) -2 b) 2 c) 1 d) -1

19. A dice thrown twice, the probability of getting 4, 5 or 6 in the first throw and 1, 2, 3 or 4 in

the second in the second throw is

a) b) c) d)

20. In a family of 3 children, the probability of having at least one boy is

a) b) c) d)

21. All queens, jacks and aces are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. The remaining cards

are well-shuffled and one card is picked up at random from it. The probability of that card to be a

king is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

297
22. The probability of getting a chocolate flavoured ice cream at random, in a lot of 600 ice

creams is 0.055. The number of chocolate flavoured ice creams in the lot is

(a) 33 (b) 55 (c) 11 (d) 44

23. Two dice are thrown at the same time and the product of the numbers appearing on them is

noted. The probability that the product of the numbers lies between 8 and 13 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

24. From the data 1, 4, 7, 9, 16, 21, 25, if all the even numbers are removed, then the proability of

getting at random a prime number from the remaining is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

25. Two dice are rolled together. The probability of getting sum of numbers on the two dice as 2,

3 or 5 is

a b c d

26. Two dice are rolled together. The probability of getting the sum of the two numbers to be

more that 10 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. Two dice are thrown together. The probability that they show different number is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

28. The probability of guessing the correct answer to certain question is If the probability of not

guessing the correct answer to this question is then the value of x is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

298
29. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 7 black balls. The probability that a ball drawn

from the bag at random will be neither red nor black is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: In a cricket match a batsman hits a boundary 9 times out of 45 balls he plays. The

probability that in a given throw he does not hit the boundary is .

Reason: P(E) + P (not E) = 1.

2. Assertion: The probability of a sure event is 1.

Reason: Let E be an event. Then 0 ≤ P E ≤ 1.

3. Assertion: It is given that in a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students not having the

same birthday is 0.992, then the probability that the 2 students have the same birthday is 0.128.

Reason: If n(A) = 1 and n(S) = 13, then P(A) = .

4. Assertion: The probability of winning a game is 0.4, then the probability of losing it is 0.6.

Reason: P(E) + P (not E) = 1.

299
5. Assertion: An even is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is 0.0001.

Reason: Reason: If P(A) denote the probability an event A, then 0 ≤ P A ≤ 1.

6. Assertion: When two coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of getting no tail is .

Reason: The probability of getting head (i.e no tail) in one toss of a coin is .

7. Assertion: In rolling a dice, the probability of getting number 8 is zero.

Reason: Its an impossible event.

8. Assertion: In a simultaneously throw a pair of dice. The probability of getting a double is

Reason: Probability of an event may be negative.

9. Assertion: The probability of getting a prime number when a die is thrown once is .

Reason: Prime numbers on a die are 2, 3, 5.

10. Assertion: If a box contains 5 white, 2 red and 4 black marbles, then the probability of not

drawing a white marble from the box is .

Reason: ( ̅ ) ( ), where E is any event.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. On a weekend Rani was playing cards with her family. The deck has 52 cards. If her brother
drew one card.
i) Find the probability of getting a king of red colour.

ii) Find the probability of getting a face card.

iii) Find the probability of getting a jack of hearts.

iv) Find the probability of getting a red face card.

v) Find the probability of getting a spade.

2. Rahul and Ravi planned to play Business (board game) in which they were supposed to use

two dice.

300
i) Ravi got first chance to roll the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two

numbers appearing on the top face of the dice is 8?

ii) Rahul got next chance. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers

appearing on the top face of the dice is 13?

iii) Now it was Ravi‟s turn. He rolled the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the

two numbers appearing on the top face of the dice is less than or equal to 12?

iv) Rahul got next chance. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers

appearing on the top face of the dice is equal to 7?

v) Now it was Ravi‟s turn. He rolled the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the

two numbers appearing on the top face of the dice is greater than 8?

3. In a play zone, Sujesa is playing arcade game which consists of 50 teddy bears, 40 pokemons,

30 tigers and 60 monkeys. Sujesa picks a puppet at random.

i) Find the probability of getting a tiger.

ii) Write the probability of getting a monkey.

iii) What is the probability of getting a teddy bear?

iv) Find the probability of not getting a monkey.

4. Teacher wants to distribute chocolates in his class on farewell party. The chocolates are of

three types: Milk chocolate, White chocolate and Dark chocolate. If the total number of students

in the class is 66 and everyone gets a chocolate, then answer the following questions.

i) If the probability of distributing milk chocolates is then find the number of milk chocolates

teacher has.

ii) If the probability of distributing dark chocolates is then find the number of milk chocolates

teacher has.

iii) Find the probability of distributing white chocolate.

301
iv) Find the probability of distributing both milk and white chocolate.

5. In a toy shop, there is a spinning wheel for their customers. The spinning wheel has different

types of prizes as shown in figure. A customer can only spin the wheel after buying something

from the shop.

On the basis of above information answer the following questions.

i) If Mr. Mehta spins the wheel, then find the probability that he gets 15% discount.

ii) If Mrs. Rita spins the wheel, then find the probability of getting video game.

iii) Deepak spins the wheel, find the probability that the wheel stops at basket.

iv) Find the probability that one customer wins 75% discount.

6. In the month of May, the weather forecast department gives the prediction of weather for the

month of June. The given table shows the probabilities of forecast of different days:

(i) Find the number of sunny days in June.

(ii) Find the value of x, if the number of cloudy days in June is 5.

(iii) Find the probability of the day that is not rainy.

(iv) If sum of x and y is , then find the number of rainy days in June.

302
7. Blood group describes the type of blood a person has. It is a classification of blood on the

presence of absence of inherited antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. Blood

types predict whether a serious reaction will occur in a blood transfusion. In a sample of 50

people, 21 had type O blood, 22 had type A, 5 had type B and rest had type AB blood group.

(i) What is the probability that a person chosen at random had type O blood?

(ii) What is the probability that a person chosen at random had type AB blood group?

(iii) What is the probability that a person chosen at random had neither type A nor type B blood

group?

(iv) What is the probability that person chosen at random had either type A or type B or type O

blood group?

8. Vivek is very fond of collecting balls of different colours. He has a total of 25 balls in his

basket out of which five balls are red in colour and eight are white. Out of the remaining balls,

some are green in colour and the rest are pink.

Based on the above information, solve the following questions:

(i) If the probability of drawing a pink ball is twice the probability of drawing a green ball, then

find the number of pink balls.

(ii) Find the probability of drawing a ball of colour other than green colour.

(iii) Find the probability of drawing either a green or white ball.

(iv) What is the probability that drawn ball is neither a pink nor a white ball?
303
9. Rohit wants to distribute chocolates in his class on his birthday. The chocolates are of three

types: milk chocolate, white chocolate and dark chocolate. If the total number of students in the

class is 54 and everyone gets a chocolate, then answer the following questions:

(i) If the probability of distributing milk chocolates is , then find the number of milk chocolates

Rohit has.

(ii) Find the number of dark chocolates Rohit has if the probability of distributing dark chocolate

is .

(iii) Evaluate the probability of distributing white chocolate.

(iv) Find the probability of distributing both milk and white chocolate.

10. In a party, some children decided to play musical chair game. In the game, the person playing

the music has been advised to stop the music at any time in the interval of 3 minutes after he start

the music in each turn. On the basis of the given information, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the probability that the music will stop within first 30 seconds after starting?

(ii) Find the probability that the music will stop within 45 seconds after starting.

(iii) Find the probability that the music will not stop after 2 minutes after starting.

(iv) What is the probability is that the music will not stop within first 60 seconds after starting?

11. Rahul goes to a fete Mussoorie. There he saw a game having prizes – wall clock, power

banks, puppets and water bottles. The game consists of a box having cards inside it, bearing the

numbers 1 to 200 one on each card. A person has to select a card at random. Now the winning of

prizes has the following conditions:

Wall clock – If the number on the selected card is a perfect square.

Power Bank – If the number on the selected card is multiple of 3

Puppet – If the numbers of the selected card is divisible by 10.

304
Water bottle – If the number of the selected card is a prime number more than 100 but less

than 150.

Better luck next time – If the number on the selected card is perfect cube.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the probability of winning a puppet a puppet.

(ii) Find the probability of winning a water bottle.

(iii) What is the probability of getting a wall clock?

iv Find the probability of getting „Better luck next time‟.

12. Two friends were playing a game with two dice. Anju has a blue dice and Nithish has a grey

dice. They decided to throw both the dice simultaneously and note down all the possible

outcomes appearing on the top of both the dice.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the probability of getting the sum of numbers on two dice is 16.

(ii) Find the probability that both the numbers are prime numbers.

(iii) What is the probability that product of two numbers is odd?

(iv) Find the probability that difference between numbers is zero.

13. Four friends are playing with cards. One of them hides all the 2‟s, 5‟s and jacks from the deck

of 52 cards and then shuffles the remaining cards. Now, he tells to one of his friends to pick a

card at random from the remaining cards.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:

i Find the probability of getting „6 of spade‟.

(ii) Find the probability of getting a black diamond.

(iii) What is the probability of getting a face card?

(iv) What is the probability of getting a red card?

305
14. In a toy shop, there is a spinning wheel for their customers. The spinning wheel has different

types of prizes as shown in the figure. A customer can only spin the wheel after buying

something from the shop.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:

(i) If Mr.Sharma spins the wheel, then what is the probability that he gets 100% discount?

(ii) If Anita spins the wheel, find the probability of getting no prize.

(iii) Anush spine the wheel, find the probability that the wheel stops at soccer ball.

(iv) What is the probability that one customer wins 15% discount.

15. Mr.Verma is a production manager in a factory that makes footballs. On one day, he noticed

that at every 100 pieces produced in the factory, 15 are defective. If the total number of footballs

produced in one day in the factory is 22000, then answer the following questions:

(i) Find the total number of defective footballs produced in one day.

(ii) A football is selected at random, then find the probability of selecting defective football.

(iii) A football is selected at random, then find the probability of selecting non-defective football.

16. Two families – Gupta‟s and Singhal‟s are lived in a colony. Gupta family has two children

while Singhal family has 3 children.

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the probability that Mr.Singhal has exactly 2 girls and 1 boy.

(ii) Find the probability that Gupta has atleast 1 boy.

(iii) Find the probability that Singhal has no boy.

(iv) Find the sum of probabilities that both families have exactly two girls.

17. In a survey on holidays, 120 peopke were asked to state which type of transport they used on

their last holiday. The following pie chart shows the result of the survey.

306
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions:

(i) If one person is selected at random, find the probability that he/she travelled by bus or ship.

(ii) Which is most favourite mode of transport and how many people used it?

(iii) A person is selected at random, If the probability that he did not use train is , find the

number of people who used train.

(iv) The probability that randomly selected person used aeroplane is . Find the revenue

collected by air company at the rate of ₹5000 per person.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS I

1. A die is thrown twice. Find the probability that (i) 5 will come up at least once. (ii) 5 will not

come up either time.

2. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting (i) a composite number, (ii) a prime

number.

3. An integer is chosen at random between 1 and 100. Find the probability that it is (i) divisible

by 8. (ii) not divisible by 8.

4. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of

getting

neither a red card nor a queen.

5. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the product of the number

appeared is less than 18.

307
6. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball from

the bag is thrice that of a red ball, find the number of blue balls in the bag.

7. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting (i) exactly 1 head (ii) at

most 1 head (iii) at least 1 head.

8. Ravi throws two different dice together and finds the product of the two numbers obtained.

Prabu throws a die and squares the number obtained. Who has the better chance to get the number

25?

9. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the numbers obtained have (i)

even sum (ii) even product.

10. Cards marked with numbers 3, 4, 5, ….., 50 are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. card

is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the selected card bears a perfect square

number.

11. A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times and noting the outcome each time. If getting the

same result in all the tosses is a success, find the probability of losing the game.

12. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability that: (i) the card drawn is a

king (ii) the card drawn is black and a king.

13. Swathi and Hamida are friends. What is the probability that both will have: (i) different

birthdays? (ii) the same birthday?

14. What is the probability that a leap year, selected at random will contains 53 Sundays?

15. If 65% of the population has black hair, 25% has brown hair and the remaining has white hair,

what is the probability that a person selected at random has (i) white hair (ii) brown or black hair.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS II

1. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the number obtained (i) have a

sum less than 7 (ii) have a product less than 16 (iii) is a doublet of odd numbers.

308
2. A bag contains 15 white and some black balls. If the probability of drawing a black ball from

the bag is thrice that of drawing a white ball, find the number of black balls in the bag.

3. Three different coins are tossed together. Find the probability of getting (i) exactly two heads.

(ii) at least two heads (iii) at least two tails.

4. From a pack of 52 playing cards, Jacks, Queens and Kings of red colour are removed. From the

remaining, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that drawn card is: (i) a black king,

(ii) a card of red colour, (iii) a card of black colour.

5. From a deck of 52 playing cards, Jacks and kings of red colour and Queen and Aces of black

colour are removed. The remaining cards are mixed and a card is drawn at random. Find the

probability that the drawn card is (i) A black Queen (ii) A card of red colour (iii) A Jack of black

colour.

6. Cards numbered 11 to 60 are kept in a box. If a card is drawn at random from the box, find the

probability that the number on the drawn card is (i) an odd number, (ii) a perfect square number,

(iii) divisible by 5, (iv) a prime number less than 20.

7. A box contains 100 red balls, 200 yellow balls and 50 blue balls. If a ball is drawn at random

from the box, then find the probability that it will be (i) a blue ball, (ii) not a yellow ball, (iii)

neither yellow nor a blue ball.

8. A bag contains white, black and red balls only. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. If the

probability of getting a white ball is and that of a black ball is then find the probability of

getting a red ball. If the bag contains 20 black balls then find the total number of balls in the bag.

9. Two different dice are rolled together. Find the probability of getting (i) the sum of numbers on

two dice to be 5, (ii) even number on both dice, (iii) a doublet.

309
10. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. Find the probability

that the card drawn is (i) a card of spades or an ace, (ii) a black king, (iii) neither a jack nor a

king, (iv) either a king or a queen.

11. All the black face cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. The remaining cards

are well shuffled and then a card is drawn at random. Find the probability of getting a (i) face

card, (ii) red card, (iii) black card, (iv) king.

12. The probability of selecting a blue marble at random from a jar that contains only blue, black

and green marbles is . The probability of selecting a black marble at random from the jar is . If

the jar contains 11 green marbles, find the total number of marbles in the jar.

13. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting: (i) an even number as

the sum (ii) the sum as a prime number (iii) a total of at least 10 (iv) a multiple of 3 as the sum.

14. If 2 black kings and 2 red aces are removed from a deck of 52 cards, find the probability of

getting (i) an ace of heart (ii) a king (iii) an ace (iv) a heart (v) a red card.

15. A bag contains 12 balls, out of which x are white. (i) If one ball is drawn at random, what is

the probability that it will be a white ball? (ii) If 6 more white balls are put in the bag, the

probability of drawing a white ball will become double than that in (i), find x.

310
 UNIT TEST
Duration: 1 hour Marks: 30

SECTION A
Each carry 1 mark

1. In a survey, it is found that every fifth person possess a vehicle. The probability of a person

„not possessing the vehicle‟ is:

a) b) c) d) 1

2. coin is tossed 1000 times and 560 times a „tail‟ occurs. The empirical probability of

occurrence

of a Head in this case is:

a) 0.50 b) 0.56 c) 0.44 d) 0.056

3. A man is known to speak truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and a number other than six

comes up, then the probability that he reports it is a six is

a) b) c) d) 1

4. Assertion: If a die is thrown, the probability of getting a number less than 3 and greater than 2

is zero.

Reason: Probability of an impossible event is zero.

Reason:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of

Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

311
SECTION B
Each carry 2 marks
5. Cards marked with numbers 5 to 50 are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. A card is drawn

from the box at random. Find the probability that the number on the taken out card is (i) a prime

number less than 10 (ii) a number which is a perfect square.

6. If a number is chosen at random from the numbers -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3. What is the probability

that

7. 20 tickets on which numbers 1 to 20 are written mixed thoroughly and then a ticket is drawn at

random out of them. Find the probability that the number on the drawn ticket is a multiple of

3 or 7.

SECTION C

Each carry 3 marks

8. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that (i) the sum of the numbers

appeared is less than 7. (ii) the product of the numbers appeared is less than 18.

9. A die has its faces marked 0, 1, 1, 1, 6, 6. Two such dice are thrown together and the total score

is recorded. (i) How many different scores are possible? (ii) What is the probability of getting a

total of 7?

SECTION D

Each carry 5 marks

10. The king, the jack and the 10 of spades are lost from a pack of 52 cards and a card is drawn

from the remaining cards after shuffling. Find the probability of getting a (i) red card (ii) black

jack (iii) red king (iv) 10 of hearts.

312
11. A pair of dice is thrown once. Find the probability of (i) getting a total of 5 on two dice,

(ii) getting a multiple of 2 on one dice and a multiple of 3 on the other.

SECTION E

12. A die is numbered in such a way that its faces show the numbers 1, 3, 3, 4, 2, 6. It is thrown

twice and the product of the score is noted. Complete the table and answer the questions below:

1 3 3 4 2 6
1 1 3 3 4 2 6

3 9 12

3 9 18

4 16

2 6 12

6 18 24 12

i) Write the probability of getting the product as 18.

ii) Find the probability of getting the product, as an odd number.

iii) What is the probability of getting the product as at least 10?

iv) Determine the probability of getting the product a number which is not a multiple of 3.

313
 ANSWERS

MCQ A – R Questions Case Study Short Answers I Short Answers II

1. a) 1. (a) Both Assertion 1. i) ii) iii) 1. and 1. , and

(A) and Reason (R)

iv) v)
2. b) 2. and 2. 45
are true and Reason

3. c) 1 – p (R) is the correct 2. i) ii) 0 iii) 1 3. , and

3. and
explanation of iv) v)
4. c) 480 4. , and
Assertion (A). 4.

5. d) 3. i) ii)
2. (b) Both Assertion 5. 0, ,
5.

6. (A) and Reason (R) iii) iv)

6. 15 6. , ,
are true but Reason
7. b) 6 4. i) 22 ii) 30
(R) is not the correct 7. , , 7. , ,

8. d) 25 explanation of iii) iv)

8. Prabu 8. , 15
Assertion (A).
9. b) 5. i) ii)
9. ,
3. (d) Assertion (A) is 9. , ,

314
10. d) false but Reason (R) iii) iv) 10. 10. , , ,

is true.
11. c) 6. i) 15 11. 11. , , ,
4. (a) Both Assertion
ii) 12. 20
12. b (A) and Reason (R) 12. ,

are true and Reason

iii) 13. , , ,
13. b) 13. ,
(R) is the correct
iv) 4 14. 0, , , ,
14. b) 14 explanation of 14.

Assertion (A). 7. i)
15. a 15. , ,3
15. ,
5. (b) Both Assertion
ii)
16. b)
(A) and Reason (R)

are true but Reason iii)

17. b)
(R) is not the correct
18. -2 iv)
explanation of

19. a) Assertion (A). 8. i) 8)

6. (b) Both Assertion

315
20. d) (A) and Reason (R) ii)

are true but Reason

21. (a) iii) )
(R) is not the correct

22. (a) 33 explanation of iv)

Assertion (A).
23. (a) 9. i) 18

7. (a) Both Assertion ii) 24

24. (b) (A) and Reason (R)
iii)
are true and Reason
25. a
(R) is the correct iv)

26. (d) explanation of

10. i)
Assertion (A).
27. (b)
8. (c) Assertion (A) is ii)
28. (a) 2
true but Reason (R) is
iii)
29. (a) false.

9. (d) Assertion (A) is

316
false but Reason (R) iv)

is true.
11. i)
10. (d) Assertion (A)

is false but Reason ii)

(R) is true.
iii)

iv)

12. i) 0)

ii)

iii)

iv)

13. i)

317
ii)

iii)

iv)

14. i)

ii)

iii)

iv)

15. i) 3300

ii)

iii)

318
 16. i)

ii)

iii)

iv)

17. i)

ii)

iii)

iv) ₹70,000

UNIT TEST

1. b)

2. c) 0.44
319
3. b)

4. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

5. ,

6.

7.

8. ,

9. 6,

10. , ,

11. ,

12. i) ii) iii) iv)

320
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Class X Session 2024-25
MATHEMATICS STANDARD (Code No.041)
TIME: 3 hours MAX.MARKS: 80

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 38 questions.
2. This Question Paper is divided into 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. In Section A, Questions no. 1-18 are multiple choice questions (MCQs) and questions no. 19
and 20 are Assertion- Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
4. In Section B, Questions no. 21-25 are very short answer (VSA) type questions, carrying 02 marks
each.
5. In Section C, Questions no. 26-31 are short answer (SA) type questions, carrying 03 marks each.
6. In Section D, Questions no. 32-35 are long answer (LA) type questions, carrying 05 marks each.
7. In Section E, Questions no. 36-38 are case study based questions carrying 4 marks each with
sub parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
8. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Question of Section B, 2
Questions of Section C and 2 Questions of Section D has been provided. An internal choice has
been provided in all the 2 marks questions of Section E.
9. Draw neat and clean figures wherever required.
10. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.
11. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. The graph of a quadratic polynomial p(x) passes through the points (-6,0), (0, -30), 1
(4,-20) and (6,0). The zeroes of the polynomial are
A) - 6,0 B) 4, 6 C) - 30,-20 D) - 6,6

2. The value of k for which the system of equations 3x-ky= 7 and 6x+ 10y =3 is 1
inconsistent, is
A) -10 B) -5 C) 5 D) 7

3. Which of the following statements is not true? 1

A) A number of secants can be drawn at any point on the circle.
B) Only one tangent can be drawn at any point on a circle.
C) A chord is a line segment joining two points on the circle
D) From a point inside a circle only two tangents can be drawn.

4. If nth term of an A.P. is 7n-4 then the common difference of the A.P. is 1
A) 7 B) 7n C) - 4 D) 4

321
5. The radius of the base of a right circular cone and the radius of a sphere are each 5 cm 1
in length. If the volume of the cone is equal to the volume of the sphere then the height
of the cone is
A) 5 cm B) 20 cm C) 10 cm D) 4 cm

6. 5 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 1
If tan𝜃 = then is equal to
2 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
11 3 9
A) B) C) D) 4
9 2 11

7. In the given figure, a tangent has been drawn at a point P on the circle centred at O. 1

T P
If ∠ TPQ= 110𝑂 then ∠POQ is equal to
A) 110𝑂 B) 70𝑂 C) 140𝑂 D)55𝑂

8. 5 5 1
A quadratic polynomial having zeroes - √ and √ is
2 2
A) 𝑥 2 − 5√2 x +1 B) 8𝑥 2 - 20 C) 15𝑥 2 - 6 D) 𝑥 2 - 2√5 x -1

9. Consider the frequency distribution of 45 observations. 1

Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

Frequency 5 9 15 10 6
The upper limit of median class is
A) 20 B) 10 C) 30 D) 40

10. O is the point of intersection of two chords AB and CD of a circle. 1

B
D O

A C

If ∠𝐵𝑂𝐶 = 80𝑂 and OA = OD then 𝛥𝑂𝐷𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛥𝑂𝐵𝐶 are

A) equilateral and similar B) isosceles and similar
C) isosceles but not similar D) not similar

322
11. The roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 +x-1 = 0 are 1
A) Irrational and distinct B) not real
C ) rational and distinct D) real and equal

12. If 𝜃 = 30𝑜 then the value of 3tan𝜃 is 1

1 3
A)1 B) C) (D) not defined
√3 √3

13. 396 1
The volume of a solid hemisphere is 𝑐𝑚 3.The total surface area of the solid
7
hemisphere (in sq.cm) is
396 594 549 604
A) B) C) D)
7 7 7 7

14. In a bag containing 24 balls, 4 are blue, 11 are green and the rest are white. One ball is 1
drawn at random. The probability that drawn ball is white in colour is
1 3 11 5
𝐴) B) C) D)
6 8 24 8

15. The point on the x- axis nearest to the point (-4,-5) is 1

A) (0, 0) B) (-4, 0) C ) (-5, 0) D) (√41, 0)

16. Which of the following gives the middle most observation of the data? 1
A) Median B) Mean C) Range D) Mode

17. A point on the x-axis divides the line segment joining the points A(2, -3) and B(5, 6) in 1
the ratio 1:2. The point is
7 3
A) (4, 0) B) ( , ) C) (3, 0) D) (0,3)
2 2

18. A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of playing cards. The probability of getting red 1
face card is
3 1 3 3
𝐴) B) C) D)
13 2 52 26

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option
A)Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
B)Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
C)Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D)Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A): HCF of any two consecutive even natural numbers is always 2. 1
Reason (R): Even natural numbers are divisible by 2.

20. Assertion (A): If the radius of sector of a circle is reduced to its half and angle is 1
doubled then the perimeter of the sector remains the same.

323
 Reason (R): The length of the arc subtending angle θ at the centre of a circle of radius r
𝛱𝑟𝜃
= 180
.

Section B

Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21. (A)Find the H.C.F and L.C.M of 480 and 720 using the Prime factorisation method. 2
OR
(A) The H.C.F of 85 and 238 is expressible in the form 85m -238. Find the value of
m.

22. (A) Two dice are rolled together bearing numbers 4, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12. Find the 2
probability that the product of numbers obtained is an odd number
OR
(B) How many positive three digit integers have the hundredths digit 8 and unit’s
digit 5? Find the probability of selecting one such number out of all three digit
numbers.

23. 2𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 60𝑜 − 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 30𝑜 2

Evaluate:
𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 45𝑜

24. Find the point(s) on the x-axis which is at a distance of √41 units from the point (8, -5). 2

25. Show that the points A(-5,6), B(3, 0) and C( 9, 8) are the vertices of an isosceles 2
triangle.

Section C

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. (A) In 𝛥ABC, D, E and F are midpoints of BC,CA and AB respectively. Prove that 3
△ 𝐹𝐵𝐷 ∼ △ DEF and △ DEF ∼ △ ABC

OR

(B) In 𝛥ABC, P and Q are points on AB and AC respectively such that PQ is parallel
to BC.

324
 Prove that the median AD drawn from A on BC bisects PQ.

P Q
R

B D C

27. The sum of two numbers is 18 and the sum of their reciprocals is 9/40. Find the 3
numbers.

28. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeroes of a polynomial 6𝑥 2 -5x+1 then form a quadratic 3

polynomial whose zeroes are 𝛼 2 and 𝛽 2 .

29. If cosθ + sinθ = 1 , then prove that cosθ - sinθ = ±1 3

30. (A) The minute hand of a wall clock is 18 cm long. Find the area of the face 3
of the clock described by the minute hand in 35 minutes.
OR
(B) AB is a chord of a circle centred at O such that ∠AOB=60˚. If OA = 14 cm

then find the area of the minor segment. (take √3 =1.73)

A B

31. Prove that √3 is an irrational number. 3

Section D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32. (A) Solve the following system of linear equations graphically: 5

x+2y = 3, 2x-3y+8 = 0
OR
(B) Places A and B are 180 km apart on a highway. One car starts from A and
another from B at the same time. If the car travels in the same direction at

325
 different speeds, they meet in 9 hours. If they travel towards each other with the
same speeds as before, they meet in an hour. What are the speeds of the two
cars?

33. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. 5

Using above result, find the length BC of 𝛥ABC. Given that, a circle is inscribed in
𝛥ABC touching the sides AB, BC and CA at R, P and Q respectively and AB= 10 cm,
AQ= 7cm ,CQ= 5cm.

R Q

B C
P

34. A boy whose eye level is 1.35 m from the ground, spots a balloon moving with the wind 5
in a horizontal line at some height from the ground. The angle of elevation of the
balloon from the eyes of the boy at an instant is 60𝑜 . After 12 seconds, the angle of
elevation reduces to 30°. If the speed of the wind is 3m/s then find the height of the
balloon from the ground. (Use √3= 1.73)

35. Find the mean and median of the following data: 5

Class 85-90 90-95 95-100 100-105 105-110 110-115

frequency 15 22 20 18 20 25

OR
The monthly expenditure on milk in 200 families of a Housing Society is given below
Monthly 1000- 1500- 2000- 2500- 3000- 3500- 4000- 4500-
Expendit 1500 2000 2500 3000 3500 4000 4500 5000
ure
(in Rs.)
Number 24 40 33 x 30 22 16 7
of
families

Find the value of x and also find the mean expenditure

Section E

Section E consists of 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each.

36. Ms. Sheela visited a store near her house and found that the glass jars are arranged
one above the other in a specific pattern.

326
 On the top layer there are 3 jars. In the next layer there are 6 jars. In the 3rd layer from
the top there are 9 jars and so on till the 8th layer.

On the basis of the above situation answer the following questions.

(i) Write an A.P whose terms represent the number of jars in different layers starting
from top . Also, find the common difference. 1

(ii) Is it possible to arrange 34 jars in a layer if this pattern is continued? Justify your
answer. 1

(iii) (A) If there are ‘n’ number of rows in a layer then find the expression for finding the 2
total number of jars in terms of n. Hence find 𝑆8 .
OR
(iii) (B) The shopkeeper added 3 jars in each layer. How many jars are there in the 5th 2
layer from the top?
.

37.

P Q

B C
E F
Triangle is a very popular shape used in interior designing. The picture given above
shows a cabinet designed by a famous interior designer.
Here the largest triangle is represented by △ ABC and smallest one with shelf is
represented by △ DEF. PQ is parallel to EF.
(i) Show that △ DPQ ∼ △ DEF.
1

327
 𝑃𝑄
(ii) If DP= 50 cm and PE = 70 cm then find .
𝐸𝐹 1

𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 △𝐴𝐵𝐶
(iii) (A) If 2AB = 5DE and △ ABC ∼ △ DEF then show that is constant.
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 △𝐷𝐸𝐹
OR 2
(iii) (B) If AM and DN are medians of triangles ABC and DEF respectively then prove
that △ ABM ∼ △ DEN.
2

38.
Metallic silos are used by farmers for storing grains. Farmer Girdhar has decided to
build a new metallic silo to store his harvested grains. It is in the shape of a cylinder
mounted by a cone.
Dimensions of the conical part of a silo is as follows:
Radius of base = 1.5 m
Height = 2 m
Dimensions of the cylindrical part of a silo is as follows:
Radius = 1.5 m
Height = 7 m
On the basis of the above information answer the following questions.
(i) Calculate the slant height of the conical part of one silo. 1

(ii) Find the curved surface area of the conical part of one silo. 1

(iii)(A) Find the cost of metal sheet used to make the curved cylindrical part of 1 silo at
2
the rate of ₹2000 per 𝑚 2.
OR
(iii) (B) Find the total capacity of one silo to store grains. 2

328
 Marking Scheme
Class X Session 2024-25
MATHEMATICS STANDARD (Code No.041)
TIME: 3 hours MAX.MARKS: 80

Q.No. Section A Marks

1. D) -6,6 1

2. B) -5 1

3. D) From a point inside a circle only two tangents can be drawn. 1

4. A) 7 1

5. B) 20 cm 1

6. 11 1
A)
9
7. C) 140𝑂 1

8. B) 8𝑥 2 - 20 1

9. C) 30 1

10. B) isosceles and similar 1

11. A) Irrational and distinct 1

12. 3 1
C)
√3
13. 594 1
B)
7
14. 3 1
B)
8
15. B) (-4, 0) 1

16. A) median 1

17. C) (3,0) 1

18. 3 1
D)
26
19. B) 1

20. D) 1

329 1
 Section B

21. (A) 480 = 25 x 3 x 5 ½

720 = 24 x 32 x 5 ½

LCM (480,720) = 25 x 32 x 5 = 1440 ½

HCF (480, 720) = 24 x 3x 5 = 240 ½

OR

85 = 5x17, 238 = 2x7x17

(B)
HCF( 85, 238) = 17 1
17 = 85xm -238
m=3 1

22.(A) Total number of possible outcomes = 6x6=36 ½

For a product to be odd, both the numbers should be odd.
Favourable outcomes are (7,7) (7,9) (7,11) (9,7) (9,9) (9, 11) (11,7) (11,9)
(11,11)
no. of favourable outcomes = 9
9 1 1
P (product is odd) = or ½
36 4

OR
(B) ½
Total number of three-digit numbers = 900.
Numbers with hundredth digit 8 & and unit’s digit 5 are 805,815,
1
825,....,895
Number of favourable outcomes = 10 ½
10 1
P(selecting one such number) = or
900 90

23. √3 2 1 2 1½
2 ( ) −( )
2 √3
2
(√2)
7 ½
=
12
24 Let the required point be (x,0) ½

√(8 − 𝑥)2 + 25 = √41 ½

=> (8 − 𝑥)2 = 16
=> 8 - x =土4
=> x = 4 , 12
Two points on the x-axis are (4,0) & (12,0). 1

330 2
25. AB = √(3 + 5)2 + (0 − 6)2 = 10 ½
BC = √(9 − 3)2 + (8 − 0)2 = 10
½
AC = √(9 + 5)2 + (8 − 6)2 = 10√2
½

Since AB = BC, therefore 𝛥 ABC is isosceles ½

Section C

26.(A)

3 1
2 4 5 6

Since D, E, F are the mid points of BC, CA, AB respectively

Therefore, EF||BC, DF||AC, DE||AB 1
BDEF is a parallelogram
∠ 1= ∠ 2 & ∠ 3 = ∠ 4
1
𝛥 FBD ～ 𝛥 DEF
Also, DCEF is a parallelogram
∠ 3= ∠ 6 & ∠ 1 = ∠ 2 ( proved above)
1
𝛥 DEF ～ 𝛥 ABC

OR

P R Q

(B)
B D C

Since PQ//BC therefore 𝛥 APR ～ 𝛥 ABD

𝐴𝑃 𝑃𝑅
=> = …….. (i) 1
𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐷

331
3
 𝛥 AQR ～ 𝛥 ACD
𝐴𝑄 𝑅𝑄
=> = …….. (ii)
𝐴𝐶 𝐷𝐶
1
𝐴𝑃 𝐴𝑄
Now, = ……….(iii)
𝐴𝐵 𝐴𝐶
𝑃𝑅 𝑅𝑄
Using (i), (ii) & (iii), = 1
𝐵𝐷 𝐷𝐶
But, BD = DC
=> PR = RQ or AD bisects PQ

27. Let the numbers be x and 18-x. ½

1 1 9 1
+ =
𝑥 18−𝑥 40
=> 18×40 = 9x(18-𝑥)
=> 𝑥 2 -18 𝑥 + 80=0
=> （𝑥-10)(𝑥-8）=0
1
=> 𝑥=10, 8.
=> 18-𝑥 =8, 10 ½
Hence two numbers are 8 and 10.

28. 5 1 1
From given polynomial 𝛼 + 𝛽 = , 𝛼𝛽 =
6 6
5 1 13 1
𝛼2 + 𝛽2 = ( )2 - 2x =
6 6 36

1 1 ½
2 2
And 𝛼 𝛽 = ( )2 =
6 36

13 1
𝑥2 - 𝑥+
36 36 ½
 Required polynomial is 36𝑥 2 -13 𝑥+1

29. (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) 2 + (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) 2 = 2 ( 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 ) = 2

=> (1)2 + (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) 2 = 2 1½
=> (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃) 2 = 1 1
=> 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 = 土 1 ½

30.(A) Angle described by minute hand in 5 min = 30°.

length of minute hand =18 cm = r.
Area swept by minute hand in 35 minutes
22 30
=( 7 x18x18×360) x 7 2
1
= 594 𝑐𝑚2 .
OR

(B) Area of minor segment = Ar. Sector OAB- Ar. 𝛥 OAB

90 22 √3 2
= x × 14x14 - x 14x14
360 7 4 1
= 69.23 cm2

4
332
31. Let √3 be a rational number.
𝑝 ½
∴ √3 = , where q≠0 and let p & q be co-prime.
𝑞
3q2 = p2 ⟹ p2 is divisible by 3 ⟹ p is divisible by 3 ----- (i) 1
⟹ p = 3a, where ‘a’ is some integer
9a2 = 3q2 ⟹ q2 = 3a2 ⟹q2 is divisible by 3 ⟹ q is divisible by 3----- (ii) 1

(i) and (ii) leads to contradiction as ‘p’ and ‘q’ are co-prime. ½

Section D

32.(A) x+2y=3, 2x-3y+8=0

Correct graph of each equation 2+2 = 4
Solution x=-1 and y=2 1

OR

(B) Let car I starts from A with speed x km/hr and car Il Starts from B with
speed y km/hr (x>y)

Case I- when cars are moving in the same direction.

Distance covered by car I in 9 hours = 9x.
Distance covered by car II in 9 hours = 9y
Therefore 9 (x-y) = 180
=> x-y= 20 ……………. (i) 2
case II- when cars are moving in opposite directions.

Distance covered by Car I in 1 hour = x

Distance covered by Car II in 1 hour = y
2
Therefore x + y=180 ………….. (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get, x=100 km/hr, y=80 km/hr. 1

33. Correct given, to prove, construction, figure 1

Correct proof 2

AR = AQ = 7cm ½
BP = BR = AB-AR = 3cm ½
CP =CQ = 5cm ½
BC = BP+PC = 3+5 = 8 cm ½

333 5
34. Correct
B figure
C 1mark

h
h
60˚
30˚
A F
x G
1.35 m
D E
Let A be the eye level & B, C are positions of balloon
Distance covered by balloon in 12 sec = 3x12 = 36 m
1
BC = GF = 36 m

ℎ
tan 600 = √3 = 𝑥 1
=> h = 𝑥 √3 …….. (i)

1 ℎ 1
tan 300 = = 𝑥+ 36
√3
𝑥+36
=> h = …….. (ii)
√3
Solving (i) and (ii) h= 18√3 = 31.14 m 1
Height of balloon from ground = 1.35 + 31.14 = 32.49 m

35. Correct
𝑥−102.5 table
Class x f u= fu cf
5 2marks

85-90 87.5 15 -3 -45 15

90-95 92.5 22 -2 -44 37

95-100 97.5 20 -1 -20 57

100-105 102.5 18 0 0 75

105-110 107.5 20 1 20 95

110-115 112.5 25 2 50 120

𝛴f = 120 𝛴fu = -39

39
Mean = 𝑥 = 102.5 - 5 x
120 1
= 100.875 ½
Median class is 100-105 ½
5
Median = 100 + 18 (60-57) = 100.83 1

OR

334 6
 Monthly Expenditure fi xi fixi Correct
table
1000-1500 24 1250 30,000 2marks
1500-2000 40 1750 70,000
2000-2500 33 2250 74,250
2500-3000 X=28 2750 77,000
3000-3500 30 3250 97,500
3500-4000 22 3750 82,500
4000-4500 16 4250 68,000
4500-5000 7 4750 33,250
1
172+x=200
X=28
532500 1
Mean= 200

= 2662.5 1

Section E

36.(i) First term a = 3, A.P is 3, 6, 9, 12…..,24 ½

common difference d = 6-3 = 3 ½

(ii) 34 = 3+ (n-1)3
1 ½
=> n = 34/3 = 11 which is not a positive integer.
3
Therefore, it is not possible to have 34 jars in a layer if the given pattern is
½
continued.
(iii)(A) 𝑛 ½
𝑆𝑛 = 2
[ 2x3 + (n-1) 3]
𝑛
= 2 [ 6 + 3n-3] 1
𝑛
= [ 3+3n]
2
𝑛
=3 [1+n]
2
8 ½
𝑠8 = 3 x 2 (1+8)
= 108
OR

A.P will be 6, 9, 12, …..

(iii) (B) ½
a= 6, d=3

𝑡5 = 6 + (5-1)3
1
= 6 + 12
= 18
½

37. (i) ∠DPQ = ∠DEF

∠PDQ =∠EDF
1
(ii) Therefore 𝛥 DPQ ∼ 𝛥 DEF
DE = 50 + 70 = 120 cm ½
𝐷𝑃 𝑃𝑄
=
𝐷𝐸 𝐸𝐹

335 7
 𝑃𝑄 50 5 ½
Therefore 𝐸𝐹 = 120 or 12

(iii) (A)
𝐴𝐵 5 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐶
𝐷𝐸
= 2 = 𝐸𝐹 = 𝐷𝐹
5 1
⇒ AB = 2 DE
5
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 △𝐴𝐵𝐶 (𝐷𝐸 + 𝐸𝐹 + 𝐹𝐷) 5
= 2 𝐷𝐸 + 𝐸𝐹 + 𝐹𝐷 = 2 ( Constant) 1
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 △𝐷𝐸𝐹

OR

(iii)(B) Correct
fig. ½
P Q mark

B M C
E N F
𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶 𝐵𝐶/2 𝐵𝑀
= = =
𝐷𝐸 𝐸𝐹 𝐸𝐹/2 𝐸𝑁
1
Also ∠B =∠E

½
Therefore △ ABM ∼ △ DEN.

38. (i) l= √𝑟 2 + ℎ2
½
= √(1.5)2 + (2)2
= √2.25 + 4
= √6.25
= 2.5 m ½

(ii) CSA of cone = 𝛱rl

22 ½
= 7 x 1.5 x 2.5
= 11.78 𝑚2 ½

(iii) (A) CSA of cylinder = 2𝛱 rh

22 1
= 2 x 7 x 1.5 x 7
= 66 𝑚2
Cost of metal sheet used = 66 x 2000 1
= ₹1,32,000

OR
Volume of cylinder = 𝛱 h 𝑟2
(iii) (B) 22
= 7 x (1.5)2 x 7
= 49.5 𝑚3 ½

336 8
 1
Volume of cone = 3 𝛱 𝑟 2 h
1 22
=3 x 7 x (1.5)2 x 2
= 4.71 𝑚3 1

Total capacity = 49.5 + 4.71 = 54.21 𝑚3 ½

337 9
 CLASS X – MATHEMATICS
SAMPLE PAPER ANALYSIS
Unit Unit Chapter Section A Section B Section C Section D Section E Total
No. MCQ AR
I Number System Real Numbers 1(1) 1* (2) 1(3) 3(6)
II Algebra Polynomials 2(2) 1(3) 2(5)
Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 1(1) 1*(5) 2(6)
Quadratic Equations 1(1) 1(3) 2(4)
Arithmetic Progression 1(1) 1(4) 2(5)
III Coordinate Geometry Coordinate Geometry 2(2) 2(4) 4(6)
IV Geometry Triangles 1*(3) 1(4) 2(7)
Circles 3(3) 1(5) 4(8)
V Trigonometry Introduction to Trigonometry 2(2) 1(2) 1(3) 4(7)
Some Applications of Trigonometry 1(5) 1(5)
VI Mensuration Areas Related to Circles 1(1) 1*(3) 2(4)
Surface Areas and Volumes 2(2) 1(4) 3(6)
VII Statistics and Statistics 2(2) 1*(5) 3(7)
Probability Probability 2(2) 1*(2) 3(4)
Total 18(18) 2(2) 5(10) 6(18) 4(20) 3(12) 38(80)

Note: (i) Numeric outside the bracket indicates the number of questions (ii) Numeric inside the bracket indicates the marks
* Indicates that question has an internal choice
338