23-12-2024

4504CMD303001240014 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The net torque produced
by the forces 4 N at A, 8 N at B, 6 N at C and 9 N at D at angles indicated is :-

(1) 5.4 N-m (anticlockwise)

(2) 1.8 N-m (clockwise)
(3) 2.0 N-m (clockwise)
(4) 5.4 N-m (clockwise)

2) A rotating table completes one rotation in 10 sec. and its moment of inertia is 100 kg-m2. A person
of 50 kg mass stands at the centre of the rotating table. If the person moves 2m radially away from
the centre, the angular velocity of the rotating table in rad/sec. will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2π

3) For equilibrium of the system, value of mass m should be :-

(1) 9 kg
(2) 15 kg
(3) 21 kg
(4) 1 kg

4) Four identical rods each of mass m and length ℓ make a square frame in xy plane as shown in

figure. Calculate its moment of inertia about the x-axis :-

(1)

(2)

(3) mℓ2
(4) None of these

5) A disc of mass M and radius R is reshaped in the form of ring of same mass but radius 2R. The
radius of gyration increased by a factor :

(1)
(2) 4
(3)
(4) 2

6) A homogeneous disc with a radius 0.2 m and mass 5 kg rotates about geometrical axis. The
angular velocity of the rotation of the disc as a function of time is given by the formula ω = (2 + 6t)
radian/sec. The tangential force applied to the rim of the disc is :-

(1) 1 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 4 N

7) Assertion :- When no external torque is applied and moment of inertia of a rotating body
changes, then its angular momentum remains conserved, but its kinetic energy changes. Reason :-
Angular momentum does not depend upon moment of inertia of the body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

8) A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with angular speed ω on a horizontal plane as shown. The
magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the origin O is:-

(1) (1/2) MR2ω

(2) MR2ω
(3) (3/2) MR2ω
(4) 2MR2ω

9) A ring and a disc have same mass and roll without slipping with the same linear velocity v. If the
total kinetic energy of the ring is 8 J, the kinetic energy of the disc must be :-

(1) 8 J
(2) 16 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 4 J

10) Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point
on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is :-

(1)
–

(2)
–
(3) zero

(4)
–

11) Energy required to move a body of mass m revolving around the earth of mass M and radius R,
from an orbit of radius 4R to 6R is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

12) A planet moving around sun sweeps area A1 in 2 days, A2 in 3 days and A3 in 6 days. Then the
relation between A1, A2 and A3 is :-

(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3

(2) 2A1 = 3A2 = 6A3
(3) 3A1 = 2A2 = 6A3
(4) 6A1 = 3A2 = 2A3

13) Two uniform solid spheres of same material and same radius r are touching each other. If the
density is ρ then gravitational force between them is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Every planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit :

A. The force acting on a planet is inversely proportional to square of distance from sun.
B. Force acting on planet is inversely proportional to product of the masses of the planet and the
sun
C. The centripetal force acting on the planet is directed away from the sun.
D. The square of time period of revolution of planet around sun is directly proportional to cube of
semi-major axis of elliptical orbit.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and D only

(2) C and D only
(3) C and B only
(4) A and C only

15) Which of the curves in figure represents the relation between celsius and Fahrenheit

temperature ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Two solid objects A and B of equal mass are heated at a uniform rate. In the given figure, graphs
A and B respectively represent their temperature variation. What is the ratio of (i) latent heats of A

and B (ii) Specific heats of A and B in solid state?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) 5 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 20 g of water at 40°C. The final temperature of mixture will be :-

(1) 32°C
(2) 16°C
(3) 8°C
(4) 24°C

18) Which of the following cylindrical rods (each made up of same material) will conduct most heat,
when their ends are maintained at same steady temperature difference?

(1) Length = 1 m, Area of Cross-Section = 3 mm2

(2) Length = 2 m, Area of Cross-Section = 3 mm2
(3) Length = 1.5 m, Area of Cross-Section = 7 mm2
(4) Length = 2 m, Area of Cross-Section = 0.5 mm2

19) Statement - I :- Like light radiation, thermal radiations are also electromagnetic radiations.
Statement - II :- Thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.

(1) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are false.

(2) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are true.
(3) Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(4) Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.

20) For an ideal black body (IBB) power radiated at 0°C is P. What will be power radiated by body at
546°C ?
(1) 16 P
(2) 81 P
(3) 27 P
(4) 64 P

21) Assertion (A) :- According to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of loss of heat –dQ/dt of the body
is directly proportional to the difference of temperature between body and surrounding.
Reason (R) :- This law holds for all type of temperature differences.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

22) A container of 5 litre has a gas at pressure of 0.8 m column of Hg. This is joined to an evacuated
container of 3 litre capacity. The resulting pressure inside will be (At constant temperature) :-

(1)
m column of Hg
(2) 0.5 m column of Hg
(3) 2.0 m column of Hg

(4)
m column of Hg

23) A graph between volume V and absolute temperature T was obtained when a given mass of a gas

is heated. During the heating process from state-1 to state-2, the pressure

(1) remained same

(2) decreased
(3) increased
(4) none

24)

A cyclic process is shown in figure. Work done during isobaric expansion is :–

(1) 150 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 400 J
(4) 200 J

25) One mole of an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically from 6 Ltr to 2 Ltr. The initial pressure of
the gas is 105 N/m2. Then find final pressure of gas, if molar specific heat of gas at constant volume

= . [(3)5/3 = 6.19)]

(1) 6.19 × 105 N/m2

(2)

(3) 6.19 N/m2

(4)

26) Assertion (A) :- Work done by a gas in isothermal expansion is more than the work done by the
gas in the same expansion, adiabatically.
Reason (R) :- Temperature remains constant in isothermal expansion and not in adiabatic
expansion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

27) The P–V diagram of helium gas for a certain process A → B is shown in the figure. What is the

heat given to the gas during the process A → B ?

(1) 4P0V0
(2) 6P0V0
(3) 4.5P0V0
(4) 2P0V0

28) The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. veloicity of 200 ms–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105
Nm–2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 ×
105 Nm–2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms–1 is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two spherical bodies A (radius 6 cm) and B (radius 18 cm) are at temperature T1 and T2,
respectively. The maximum intensity in the emission spectrum of A is at 500 nm and in that of B is at
1500 nm. Considering them to be black bodies, what will be the ratio of the rate of total energy
radiated by A to that of B ?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 9

30) For given process, diatomic gas obey P = aV2 (where a = constant). What is the molar heat
capacity of the gas for this process ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Two walls of thicknesses d1 and d2 and thermal conductivities k1 and k2 are in contact. In the
steady state, if the temperatures at the outer surfaces are T1 and T2, the temperature at the common
wall is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The escape velocity of a body on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s. If the same body is projected
upward with velocity 22.4 km/s, the velocity of this body at infinite distance from the centre of the
earth will be:

(1) km/s
(2) Zero
(3) 11.2 km/s
(4)

33) A body of mass m is moved from surface of earth to a height equal to the radius of earth R. The
increase in its potential energy from the surface of the earth is

(1) mgR
(2) 2 mgR

(3)
mgR

(4)
mgR

34) The moment of force at (1,1,1) about origin is given by :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Two discs of the same material and thickness have radii 0.2 m and 0.6 m. Their moments of
inertia about their axes will be in the ratio :

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 1 : 81

SECTION-B

1) A disc of mass m and radius r is free to rotate about its centre as shown in the figure. A string is
wrapped over its rim and a block of mass m is attached to the free end of the string. The system is

released from rest. The speed of the block as it descends through a height h, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
2

(4)
2) A uniform cube of side 'a' and mass 'm' rests on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that is directly above the centre of the face, at a height

above the base. The minimum value of F for which the cube begins to topple about the edge is

(Assume that the cube does not slide).

(1)
mg

(2)
mg

(3)
mg

(4)
mg

3)
A uniform solid cylinder of mass m and radius R is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A horizontal
constant force F is applied at the topmost point so that it starts pure rolling. The acceleration of the
cylinder is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)
A uniform rod of mass m and length ℓ hinged at end A is released from horizontal position shown in
figure. Just after the rod is released :

Column I Column II

(A) Angular acceleration of C (P)

(B) Angular acceleration of B (Q)

 (C) Acceleration of C (R)

(D) Acceleration of B (S)

(1) A → S, B → S, C → R, D → P
(2) A → Q, B → Q, C → R, D → P
(3) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R
(4) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R

5) A body is projected up with the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is (Re = Radius of earth) :-

(1)
Re

(2)
Re

(3)
Re

(4)
Re

6) Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of the distance. Then, the time
period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to :

(1) Rn
(2) R(n+1)/2
(3) R(n–1)/2
(4) R–n

7) A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day, if the temperature is 40°C and gains 4 s a day, if the
temperature is 20°C. The temperature at which clock will show correct time is:-

(1) 25°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 30°C
(4) 55°C

8) A thin walled metal tank of surface area 5m2 is filled with water and contains an immersion heater
dissipating 1kW. The tank is covered with 4 cm thick layer of insulation whose thermal
conductivity is 0.2 watt/ m-K. The outer face of the insulation is at 25°C. The temperature of the
tank in the steady state is -

(1) –15°C
(2) 65°C
(3) 20°C
(4) 90°C

9) In the figure, the distribution of energy density of the radiation emitted by a black body at a given
temperature is shown. The possible temperature of the black body is :

(1) 1500 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 2500 K
(4) 3000 K

10) P–T curve of a cyclic process is shown. If number of moles of the gas are n, the work done by the

gas in the given process is :-

(1) nR (T1 + T3 – T4 + T2)

(2) nR(T1 – T3 – T4 + T2)
(3) nR(T1 + T3 + T4 – T2)
(4) nR(T1 + T3 – T4 – T2)

11) A cyclic process ABCDA is shown in the P–V diagram. Which of the following
curves represent the same process? (Given BC & DA are isothermal curves)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant pressure. The ratio of ΔQ : ΔU : ΔW is :-

(1) 5 : 3 : 2
(2) 5 : 2 : 3
(3) 7 : 5 : 2
(4) 7 : 2 : 3

13) When 0.4 kg of water at 30°C is mixed with 0.15 kg of water at 25°C in a calorimeter the final
temperature is found to be 27°C, find the water equivalent of the calorimeter.

(1) 1.0 kg
(2) 0.45 kg
(3) 0.50 kg
(4) 1.5 kg

14) When a system is taken from state 'a' to state 'b' along the path 'acb', it is found that a
quantity of heat Q = 200 J is absorbed by the system and a work W = 80J is done by it. Along the

path 'adb', Q = 144J. The work done along the path 'adb' is

(1) 6J
(2) 12J
(3) 24J
(4) 18J

15) A lead bullet at 27°C melts when hit on a target. Assuming only 75% of heat is used to melt the
bullet, the velocity of bullet at time of striking is (Take, melting point of lead = 327°C, specific heat
of lead = 0.03 cal/g°C, latent heat of fusion of lead = 6 cal/g)

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 510 m/s
(3) 470 m/s
(4) 410 m/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Determine the number of functional group present in the given compound.

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

2) Which of the following is crotonic acid.

(1) H2C = CH – COOH

(2) C6H5 – CH = CH – COOH
(3) H3C – CH = CH – COOH

(4)

3) How many σ and bonds are present in benzene?

(1) 11σ, 3

(2) 13σ, 2

(3) 12σ, 3

(4) 12σ, 2

4) The correct IUPAC name of is-

(1) 2-Methyl butanoic acid

(2) 2-Ethylprop-2-enoic acid
(3) 2-Carboxybutene
(4) None of the above

5) Common name of H2C = CH – CN is.

(1) Ethenenitrile
(2) Vinyl cyanide
(3) Cyano ethene
(4) prop-2-enenitrile

6) Which of the following is Bivalent functional group

(1) ether
(2) ester
(3) anhyride
(4) all of these

7)

Which of the following will not have same general formula ?

(1) Alkynes and alkadienes

(2) Carboxylic acids and esters
(3) Alkenes and cycloalkanes
(4) Benzene and acetylene

8) IUPAC name of the given compound is.

(1) 5-isopropyl-3, 3-diethyl-4-methyloctane

(2) 3,3-diethyl-5-isopropyl-4-methyloctane
(3) 3,3-diethyl-5-isopropyl-4-ethyloctane
(4) None

9) The IUPAC name of the given compound is : .

(1) 2-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexene

(2) 6-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexene
(3) 1-Bromo-2-methyl cyclohexene
(4) 1-Bromo-2-methyl cyclohex-2-ene

10)

Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(F.G.) (Prefix)

(A) –COOR (i) Oxo

(B) –CONH2 (ii) Formyl

(C) –CHO (iii) Alkoxy carbonyl

(D) (iv) Carbamoyl

Which of the following is the correct option?

(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii

11) Correct IUPAC name of the given compounds is:

(1) 2-bromo-3-ethyl-4-chlorocyclobutanol
(2) 4-bromo-1-chloro-3-ethylcyclobutanol
(3) 2-bromo-4-chloro-3-ethyl cyclohydroxybutane
(4) 2-bromo-4-chloro-3-ethylcyclobutanol

12) Homologous series has:

(1) same I.U.P.A.C.

(2) same functional group
(3) same boiling point
(4) same number of carbons

13) The IUPAC name of the structure is :

(1) 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic acid

(2) 3-Amino-2,3-dicarboxy propanal
(3) 2-Amino-3-formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid
(4) 1-Amino-2-formyl succinic acid
14) IUPAC name of following compound will be :

(1) p-Hydroxy m-amino benzoic acid

(2) 3-Amino-4-hydroxy benzoic acid
(3) 2-Amino-4-carboxy phenol
(4) 2-Hydroxy-5-carboxy aniline

15) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 3,3–diformyl propanoic acid

(2) 3–Formyl–4–oxo–butanoic acid
(3) 3,3–Dioxo propanoic acid
(4) 3,3–Dicarbaldehyde propanoic acid

16) The IUPAC name of the compound :

(1) Propionic acetic anhydride

(2) Ethanoic propanoic anhydride
(3) Aceto ethanoate
(4) Acetoaceticester

17) Which of the following compound has sp, sp2 and sp3 hybrid carbon atoms?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH2
(3) CH3–C≡C–C≡CH
(4) CH2=CH–C≡CH

18) IUPAC name of the given compound is:

Ph-CH=CH-CHO

(1) 3-phenylprop-2-enal
(2) 3-phenylpropenaldehyde
(3) cinnamaldehyde
(4) None of these

19) IUPAC name of radical is

(1) 2–Ethyl propyl

(2) 2–methyl butyl
(3) sec–butyl
(4) Pentyl

20) Which have Z-configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

21) Which has 'E' configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) and are:

(1) Geometrical isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Structure isomer
(4) Conformer

23) Number of geometrical isomers in the given compound is:

CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = N – OH

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 2

24) In which of the following compound dihedral angle is maximum.

(1) Fully eclipsed

(2) Gauche
(3) Anti
(4) Partial eclipsed

25) Stability order of conformer of n-butane is:

(1) Anti > Gauche > Fully eclipsed > Partial eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Anti > Partial eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) Anti > Gauche > Partial eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(4) None of these

26) Assertion: Alkanes show conformational isomerism

Reason: Due to restricted rotation around the carbon-carbon double bond in alkanes

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

27) Which of the following have Trans-configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
28) Relation between following compound is?

(1) Position isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) None

29) Given compounds are

and

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Metamers
(3) Position isomers
(4) Ring chain isomers

30) (A) (B)

(A) and (B) are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Metamers
(4) Functional group isomers

31) Which type of isomerism is mutually shown by the following structures-

(1) Only functional group isomerism

(2) Only chain isomerism
(3) Positional and chain isomerism
(4) Only positional isomerism
32) and are-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Chain isomers

33) and are-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Homologous
(3) Position isomer
(4) None

34) How many positional isomers are possible for dimethylcyclohexane ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

35) Assertion (A) : Chain isomerism is observed in alkanes containing four or more than four
carbon atoms.
Reason (R) : Only alkanes show chain isomerism.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

SECTION-B

1) What is the derived name of iso-butyl alcohol?

(1) Iso butyl carbinol

(2) n-propyl carbinol
(3) Iso propyl alcohol
(4) Iso propyl carbinol

2) As per IUPAC rules, which one of the following groups, will be regarded as the principal
functional group if they are present in a same compound.
(1) –OH
(2) –SH

(3)

(4) –CN

3) The molecular formula of the first member of the family of alkenynes and its name is given by.

(1) C3H6, Alkene

(2) C5H6, pent-1-en-3-yne
(3) C6H8, Hex-1-en-5-yne
(4) C4H4, Butenyne

4) Which of the following is the first member of ester homologous series?

(1) Ethyl ethonoate

(2) Methyl ethonoate
(3) Methyl methanoate
(4) Ethyl methanoate

5) Total No. of hetero atoms present in the following compound is -

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

6) The number of primary, secondary and tertiary carbons in the following structures are

respectively

(1) 6,3,1
(2) 3,6,3
(3) 6,3,3
(4) 3,2,1

7) In which of the following compounds, the carbon chain has been correctly numbered :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Match the column I with column II.

Column-II
Column-I (Position of
(Compound) Br
Substituent)

(A) (i) 3

(B) (ii) 2

(C) (iii) 1

(D) (iv) 5

(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i

(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv

9) IUPAC Name of CH3–NH–CHO is :-

(1) N-methyl methanamide

(2) N-formyl methanamine
(3) N-methyl methanamine
(4) N-formyl-N-methyl amine
10) Which structure represents
2–chloro–3–methyl but–2–en–1–ol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) How many carbon present in parent chain of iso-octane?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

12) Select the correct statement among following :-

(1) At room temperature conformational isomer can be isolate

(2) Torsional strain is due to size of groups or atoms
(3) Infinite conformation are possible for ethane
(4) Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is 60°

13) and are :-

(1) configurational isomer

(2) geometrical isomer
(3) structural isomer
(4) both (1) and (2)

14) Which of the following shows conformational isomerism.

(a) (b)

(c) (d) NH2–OH

(e) (f)

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e
(4) b, d, e, f

15) Which of the following compounds show position, metamerism and functional group isomerism ?

(1) C4H11N
(2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3OC2H5

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Actinomorphic flower is not found in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Datura
(3) Chilli
(4) Gulmohur

2) Which one of the following diagram represents the placentation in tomato (Solanaceae family) ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) "The placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this
ridge forming two rows" That type of placentation is known as :

(1) Marginal
(2) Parietal
(3) Basal
(4) Axile

4) Aestivation of petals in the flower of Gulmohar is correctly shown in :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Bract is :-

(1) Reduced leaf at base of pedicel

(2) Reduced bud at base of thalamus
(3) Reduced bud in axil of leaf
(4) Large sepal
6) The margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction as in-

(1) Calotropis
(2) Lady's finger
(3) Chine rose
(4) Cassia

7) Statement-I :- Stamen are usually brightly coloured to attract insect for fertilisation.
Statement-II :- In radial symmetry, flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one
particular vertical plane.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II incorrect.
(3) Statement-I correct and statement-II incorrect.
(4) Statement-I incorrect and statement-II correct.

8) Sterile stamens is called :-

(1) Staminodes
(2) Epiphyllous
(3) Pistillode
(4) Staminate

9) Which of the following statement is not correct about given diagram ?

(1) Anterior petal is smallest

(2) Present in flower of bean
(3) Posterior petal is innermost
(4) Wings are lateral petals

10) Which pair of plants having free central placentation?

(1) Pea & gram

(2) Pea & prime-rose
(3) Dianthus & prime-rose
(4) China rose & sunflower

11) With Respect of following option which is properly matched for mustard plant.

(1) Hypogynous flower – inferior ovary

(2) Epigynous flower – inferior ovary
(3) Hypogynous flower – Superior ovary
(4) Epigynous flower – Superior ovary

12) Select the correct option for given figure-

(1) Hypogynous
(2) Epigynous
(3) Perigynous
(4) Inferior ovary

13) Select the correct match-

(i) Hypogynous (a) Guava

(ii) Perigynous (b) Brinjal

(iii) Epigynous (c) Plum

(1) i = (c); ii = (b); iii = (a)
(2) i = (a); ii = (c); iii = (b)
(3) i = (b); ii = (c); iii = (a)
(4) i = (b); ii = (a); iii = (c)

14) Identify the given below diagram and choose correct option :-

(1) Racemose inflorescence

(2) Cymose inflorescence
(3) Capitulum infloresence
(4) Raceme inflorescence

15) Which of the following diagrams represents the free central placentation ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) In given following transverse section of ovary, identify the condition of ovary and placentation.

(1) Unilocular, tricarpellary, syncarpous, parietal placentation

(2) Trilocular, tricarpellary, syncarpous, Axile placentation
(3) Multilocular, multi carpellary, syncarpous, axile placentation
(4) Unilocular, tricarpellary, Apocarpous, free central plancentation

17)

Select the correct option with respect to following diagram :-

(1) Liliaceae – Zygomorphic

(2) Solanaceae – Actinomorphic
(3) Liliaceae – Actinomorphic
(4) Fabaceae – Zygomorphic
18) Following floral diagram is of which plant :

(1) Sesbania
(2) Lupin
(3) Ashwagandha
(4) Asparagus

19) Which type of primary xylem is present in given figure :-

(1) Exarch
(2) Endarch
(3) Mesarch
(4) Concentric

20) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only
(a) Radial vascular bundle are found in roots
(b) In closed type of vascular bundle, cambium is absent
(c) In open type of vascular bundle, cambium is absent
(d) In leaves conjoint type of vascular bundles are found

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

21) Trichomes are usually _____ & help in _____

(1) Unicellular, reduction of water loss

(2) Multicellular, reduction of water loss
(3) Multicellular, absorbing water from soil
(4) Unicellular, absorbing water from soil

22)

Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of T.S. of stem. Identify the parts labelled A to E and select
the right option about them :
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D Part-E

(1) Collenchyma Sclerenchyma Cambium Protoxylem Pith

(2) Sclerenchyma Parenchyma Cambium Protoxylem Pith

(3) Collenchyma Parenchyma Cambium Protoxylem Pith

(4) Parenchyma Collenchyma Pith Protoxylem Cambium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Well developed pith is found in :-

(a) Sunflower stem (b) Sunflower leaf
(c) Maize stem (d) Maize root

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a and d
(4) a, b and d

24) Given below is the diagrammatic view of T.S. of stem. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D

and select the right option about them

Part A Part B Part C Part D

Ground Vascular
1 Epidermis Hypodermis
tissue bundles
 Vascular Ground
2 Epidermis Hypodermis
bundles tissue

Ground Vascular
3 Hypodermis Epidermis
tissue bundles

Ground Vascular
4 Hypodermis Epidermis
tissue bundles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) The parenchymatous cells lies between primary xylem and primary phloem in dicot root is
known as :-

(1) Conjunctive tissue

(2) Complementary cells
(3) Secondary medullary rays
(4) Pith

26) If both dicot root and monocot root possess six xylem bundles. The two can be distinguished by:-

(1) Presence of water cavity in dicot root

(2) Occurrence of radial vascular bundle in dicot root
(3) Presence of exarch condition in monocot root
(4) Shape of vessels in Transverse section

27) Assertion : The upper surface of dorsiventral leaf is darker than the lower surface.
Reason : In dorsiventral leaves number of stomata are more on lower surface in comparision to the
upper surface.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) a. Bulliform cells

b. Presence of thick cuticle on upper surface
c. Stomata are present on adaxial and abaxial epidermis in equal proportion
d. Bean-shaped guard cells
Which of the above features(s) belong(s) to dorsiventral leaves ?

(1) Only d
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) b and d
29) Palisade parenchyma is present :-

(1) Below the abaxial epidermis in isobilateral leaves.

(2) Below the adaxial epidermis in isobilateral leaves.
(3) Around the vascular bundles in dorsiventral leaves and isobilateral leaves.
(4) Below the adaxial epidermis in dorsiventral leaves.

30) Which of the following tissues helps in lateral root formation ?

(1) Cortex
(2) Medullary rays
(3) Pericycle
(4) Pith

31) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is found in :-

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot root
(4) Monocot root

32) Root hairs are :-

(1) Unicellular pericycle cells

(2) Multicellular endodermal cells
(3) Unicellular epidermal cells
(4) Multicellular epidermal cells

33) Which tissue system is exclusively parenchymatous ?

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) (1) and (2) both

34) During secondary growth in dicot root cambium is developed by :-

(1) Medullary rays

(2) Pericycle
(3) Conjuctive tissue
(4) Both (2) and (3)

35) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : In grasses, certain abaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into
large, empty, colourless cells, These are called bulliform cells.
Statement-II : When the bulliform cells in the leaves have absorbed water and are turgid, the
leaves curl inwards to minimise water loss.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

SECTION-B

1) Choose the correct floral formula with the help of given floral diagram :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Identify the floral diagram of Brassicaceae :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) Above type of phyllotaxy can be seen in :-

(1) Guava
(2) Chinarose
(3) Alstonia
(4) Mustard

4) The side of flower facing the mother axis is called :-

(1) Posterior
(2) Anterior
(3) Dorsal
(4) Ventral

5) Endospermic seed are found in :-

(1) Wheat
(2) Maize
(3) Pea
(4) Both (1) & (2)

6) What are A, B, C and D in the figure ?

(1) A–Stipule, B–Leaf base, C–Petiole, D–Stem

(2) A–Leaf base, B–Petiole, C–Stipule, D–Stem
(3) A–Leaf base, B–Stipule, C–Petiole, D–Lamina
(4) A–Lamina, B–Leaf base, C–Petiole, D–Stem

7) Fibrous root system present in :-

(1) Wheat
(2) Pea
(3) Gram
(4) Both (2) & (3)

8) Leaf mesophyll is included in :-

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) All of the above

9)

The cross section of plant organ showing the following anatomical feature under microscope:
(a) Casparian band present in endodermis
(b) Pith is large and well developed
(c) Xylem vessels appear circular in transverse section
(d) Pericycle is made up of Parenchyma

Plant organ should be :-

(1) Dicot root
(2) Orchid root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot root

10) Which layer of the dicot stem is rich in starch grains and is also referred as the starch sheath ?

(1) Epidermis
(2) Pericycle
(3) Endodermis
(4) Hypodermis

11) In a Transverse section of plant 'X' following structure are visible ?

(i) Open Vascular bundle
(ii) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
(iii) Hypodermis is madeup of collenchyma
(iv) General cortex is parenchymatous
Plant 'X' is :-

(1) Sunflower stem

(2) Wheat stem
(3) Zea mays stem
(4) Barley stem

12) Assertion : Pith is large and well developed in Monocots root.

Reason : Monocot root do not undergo any secondary growth.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Guard cells

a. Enclose stomatal pore
b. Are dumb-bell shaped in dicots
c. Do not have chloroplast
d. Regulate opening and closing of stomata.
Identify the incorrect statements.

(1) a and b
(2) a and d
(3) b and c
(4) c and d

14) More than six patches of xylem and phloem are seen in the roots of :-

(1) Maize
(2) Bean
(3) Pea
(4) Gram

15) Read A to D and tell the correct order of components from outer side to inner side in a young
dicot stem.
(A) Cortex (B) Pericycle
(C) Epidermis (D) Pith

(1) C, D, B, A
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) C, B, A, D

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Match item in column A with those given in column B.

Column A Column B

(A) Asthma (i) Fibrosis

 Difficulty
(B) Emphysema (ii)
in breathing

Occupational
Alveolar walls
(C) respiratory (iii)
are damaged
disorders
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)

2) Functional residual capacity is :-

(1) TV + ERV
(2) ERV + RV
(3) TV + IRV + ERV
(4) RV + IRV

3) Respiratory volumes are measured by :-

(1) Respirometer
(2) ECG
(3) Bomb calorimeter
(4) Spirometer

4) Assertion :- Adding carbon dioxide to air can stimulates the rate and depth of breathing.
Reason :- Increased O2 in blood has effect on the chemosensitive area.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5) What will be the and in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air ?

(1) lesser, higher

(2) higher, lesser
(3) higher, higher
(4) lesser, lesser

6) Which of the following factors is not favourable for gaseous diffusion across diffusion membrane :-

(1) High diffusion capacity

(2) High solubility
(3) Thickness of diffusion membrane is more than one millimetre
(4) Higher difference in partial pressure of gases

7) Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

a b c d

(1) Inspired Air Expired Air More CO2 More O2

(2) Inspired Air Expired Air More O2 More CO2

(3) Expired Air Inspired Air More O2 More CO2

(4) Expired Air Inspired Air More CO2 More O2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Read the following statements.

(a) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than in Tissue.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is vital capacity
(d) In alveoli PCO2 low and PO2 high.
How many statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) If total O2 transported by blood from lungs to cell in a minute is 500 ml. Then the volume of O2
transported by blood found dissolved in plasma is

(1) 970 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 1000 ml
(4) 30 ml

10) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood.
Statement-II : About 7 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

11) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) ADH helps in water elimination making urine hypotonic

(2) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the bowman's capsule
(3) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the PCT.
(4) Henle's loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine.

12) Difference between glomerular filtrate and plasma is of :-

(1) Sodium
(2) Plasma have more glucose
(3) Glomerular filtrate have more water
(4) Proteins

13)

Identify the part X and its role in tubular secretion:

(1) PCT, secretion of H+, K+

+
(2) DCT, secretion of K , NH3 and H2O
+ +
(3) DCT, secretion of H , K and NH3
(4) Collecting duct, secretion of H+ and K+

14) Minimum reabsorption occurs in :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Descending limb of LOH
(4) Ascending limb of LOH

15) The outline of principal event of micturition is given below :-

(i) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder send signal to the CNS
(ii) The bladder fills with urine and becomes distended
(iii) Micturition
(iv) CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the contraction smooth muscles of bladder and
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter The correct order of steps for urination is :-

(1) i → ii → iii → iv
(2) iv → iii → ii → i
(3) ii → i → iv → iii
(4) iii → ii → i → iv

16) What does the following represent for urine formation, Identify A, B & C :-

(1) A-Secretion, B-reabsorption, C-ultrafiltration

(2) A-ultrafiltration, B-secretion, C-reabsorption
(3) A-Secretion, B-ultrafiltration, C-reabsorption
(4) A-reabsorption, B-ultrafitration, C-secretion

17) Assertion :- The primary function of sweat is to facilitate a cooling effect on the body surface.
Reason :- Small amount of nitrogenous wastes could be eliminated through saliva.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

18) How many of the following statement is/are correct ?

(a) Nearly all essential nutrients & 70-80% of electrolytes and water are secreted by PCT.
(b) Reabsorption is minimum in descending limb of loop of Henle.
(c) Large amounts of water could be reabsorbed from the collecting duct to produce a concentrated
urine.
(d) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to
electrolytes.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

19) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

a. Ureotelic i. Insects

b. Ammonotelic ii. Marine fish

c. Uricotelic iii. Aquatic insect

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

20) Which of the following statements related to renin-angiotensin mechanism are not incorrect ?
(a) A fall in GFR can activate JG cells to release renin.
(b) Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I.
(c) Angiotensin-II being a powerful vasodilator increases glomerular blood pressure & thereby GFR.
(d) Angiotensin-II also activates adrenal medulla to release aldosterone.
(e) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of K+ & H2O from distal parts of tubule.

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, e

21) Statement-I :- The flow of filtrate in two limbs of Henle's loop is in opposite direction.
Statement-II :- Only Henle's loop play a significant role in producing concentrated urine.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

22) Choose incorrect statements regarding WBCs :

(A) Monocytes are 6 - 8%.
(B) Only neutrophils are phagocytic.
(C) Eosinophils are least abundant.
(D) Basophils are involved in inflammatory response.
(E) Lymphocytes are 20-25%.
(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C
(3) C, D, E
(4) A, D

23) A special neural center that can moderate the cardiac function is located in

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

24) Read the following statements and pick the incorrect statement among them.

(1) Heart is the mesodermally derived organ

(2) Mitral value guards the opening between the left atrium and left ventricle
(3) AB +ve blood group is universal recipients due to absence of A, B antigen
(4) SAN is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

25) Which of the following layer is significantly comparatively thinner in veins as compared to an
artery?

(1) Tunica intima

(2) Tunica externa
(3) Tunica fibrosis
(4) Tunica media

26) Assertion :- Atria and ventricle do not contract simultaneously.

Reason :- It occurs due to delay in action potentials at AV node.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

27) Identify the correct sequence of events in a cardiac cycle :-

(1) Joint diastole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole

(2) Atrial systole, ventricular diastole, ventricular systole
(3) Atrial systole, ventricular systole, joint diastole
(4) Ventricular diastole, Joint diastole, ventricular systole, atrial systole

28) Heart in reptiles is :-

(1) 3 chambered in all

(2) 4 chambered except crocodile
(3) 3 chambered except crocodile
(4) 2 chambered

29) Which of the following cell secrete heparin, histamin & serotonin ?

(1) Acidophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neutrophil
(4) Monocyte

30) How many statements are true for lymph in the following ?
(i) Important carrier for nutrients, hormones etc.
(ii) Colourless fluid.
(iii) Fats are absorbed through this in the Lacteals.
(iv) It has more [Link] than blood.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

31) A symptom of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle.
The condition is :-

(1) Angina
(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Heart failure
(4) Vericose veins

32) The time for one cardiac cycle is :-

(1) 0.9 sec

(2) 0.8 sec
(3) 0.08 sec
(4) 0.2 sec

33) S.A. node is present in :-

(1) Right upper corner of Rt. atrium

(2) Left upper corner of Lt. atrium
(3) The ventricles
(4) At interatrial septum

34) Cardiac output is :-

(1) 5 litre/min.
(2) Stroke volume × heart rate
(3) Volume of blood pump by each ventricle in one min.
(4) All of the above

35) Open circulatory system is present in :-

(1) Mollusca & Chordata

(2) Mollusca & Arthropoda
(3) Annelida & Arthropoda
(4) Annelida & Mollusca

SECTION-B

1) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin.
Statement-II : Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

2) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Haemoglobin (i) CO2 transport

(B) Diaphragm (ii) Breathing regulation

(C) Medulla oblongata (iii) Primary respiratory muscle

(D) Bicarbonate (iv) O2 transport

Options :-
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

3) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) (i) 1000-1100 mL

(B) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) (ii) 1200 mL

(C) Tidal volume (TV) (iii) 500 mL

(D) Residual volume (RV) (iv) 2500-3000 mL

Options :-
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

4) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(A) Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in blood as bicarbonate ions.
(B) Oxygen is mostly transported in dissolved form in plasma.

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)

5) Consider the following statements about breathing :-

(A) During expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards.
(B) Expiration is an active process that requires energy.
Find the correct one :-

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)

6) Excretory structure in amphioxus is :-

(1) Protonephridia
(2) Nephridia
(3) Green glands
(4) Kidney

7) Kidney crystals are solid clusters of :

(1) Calcium nitrate and uric acid

(2) Oxalate and uric acid
(3) Calcium carbonate and uric acid
(4) Calcium metabisulphite and uric acid

8) Assertion :- The wall of atria release ANF in response to high B.P. and blood volume.
Reason :- ANF acts as vasodilator and inhibits the release of renin to lower the blood pressure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
9) From the given list of data, which are correctly matched ?

Column-I Column-II

Urea excreted
a. 25-30 mg
per day

Urine output
b. 1-1.5 litres
per day

c. Width of kidney 2-3 cm

Weight of
d. 120-170 gm
kidney

CO2 excreted
e. 200 ml
per day
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) c, d, e
(4) b, d

10) With respect to E.C.G. which statement is correct

(1) P Wave – leads to the relaxation of both atria

(2) T Wave – represent repolarisation of ventricle
(3) T Wave – represent depolarisation of ventricle
(4) QRS complex – initiates relaxtion of ventricle

11) Inter-atrial septum that separates the right and left atria is a

(1) Thick, membranous wall

(2) Thin, muscular wall
(3) Thick, muscular flap
(4) Fibrous, muscular cord

12) Hepatic portal system starts from

(1) Digestive system to liver

(2) Kidney to liver
(3) Liver to heart
(4) Liver to kidney

13) Neural signal through the sympathetic nervous (part of ANS) increases the cardiac
output because of :-

(1) Increasing the rate of heart beat

(2) Increasing the strength of ventricular contraction
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Increasing the stimulation of vagus nerve

14) Which ion has important role in blood clotting :-

(1) Mg+2
(2) Ca+2
(3) Cl–
(4) Na+

15) Which is necessary for blood clotting in the following ?

(1) Thrombin
(2) Fibrin
(3) Thrombokinase
(4) All of the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 4 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 1 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 2 2 3 1 4 2 4 1 4 3 4 3 1 1 4 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Moment of 4 N force

=4× N-m (anti-clockwise)

Moment of 8 N force

=8× × sin 30° N-m (clockwise)

Moment of 9 N force

=9× N-m (clockwise)

Moment of 6 N force = 6 × × sin 0° = 0

∴
= –1.8N-m
= 1.8 N-m(clockwise)

2)

By angular momentum conservation

rad/sec

3) Moment of forces about pivot should be equal to zero.

12g (ℓ) – mg (ℓ/2) – 3g =0

⇒12 – ⇒
⇒ m = 15 kg

4)

5)

Moment of inertia of the disc of mass M and radius R

 ⇒
And for the ring of same mass but radius 2R,
= M(2R)2
⇒ k2 = 2R

Thus,

6) Given that; ω = 2 + 6t rad/s

rad/s2

N-m
Now, τ = FR = 0.6
F = 3 N.

7)

Assertion is true but reason is false.

As no torque is applied, angular momentum remains constant
I1ω1 = I2ω2

Now, Clearly, if moment of inertia decreases, KE of rotation

increases and vice-versa.

8)
V = Rω (Pure rolling)
Angular momentum about origin O.
L0 = MvR + I0ω

= M(Rω)R + =

9) KEring =

KEring = mv2 = 8J
KEdisc =

10)

⇒ and hence r-x =

Potential at point where gravitational field is zero between the masses.

11) Required energy = ΔTE

= =

12) = constant

13)

F=

F=

14)

⇒F∝
⇒ F ∝ m1m2
⇒ This force provides centripetal force and acts towards sun
⇒ T2 ∝ a3 (Kepler’s third law)

16) NCERT-XI, Part-II, Pg. # 289

Latent heat ∝ length of horizontal line
Specific heat ∝

= =

17)

(5 × 80) + 5 × 1 × (T – 0) = 20 × 1 × (40 – T)
⇒ 400 + 5T = 800 – 20T

⇒ = 16°C

18)

19) Light radiation and thermal radiations both belongs to electromagnetic spectrum. Light
radiation belongs to visible, while thermal radiation belongs to infrared region of EM
spectrum. Also, EM radiations does not required medium for propagation.

20) P ∝ T4

21) Newton's law of cooling, holds good only for small difference of temperature.

22)

μRT = cosnt.
∴ P1V1 = P2V2
(0.8) (5) = P2(5 + 3)
P2 = 0.5 m of Hg

23) tanθ = slope =

Slope ∝
24)

w = 2 × 102 (2)
= 400 J

25) In AD process

= (3)5/3 = 6.19
P2 = 6.19 × 105 N/m2

26)

As we know, in thermodynamic processes work done = Area covered by P-V diagram with
volume axis.

Hence, according to following graph.

(Area)1 < (Area)2 ⇒ Wadi < Wiso
Also in isothermal changes temperature remains same but in adiabatic changes temperature
also changes.

27) Change in internal energy from A → B is

Work done in process A → B is equal to the area covered by the graph with volume axis i.e.,

Hence, ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW

28)
29)

30) P = aV2
PV–2 = a
PVn = constant n=–2

CPoly = CV +

CPoly =

32)
Given than
V = 2Ve
So,

34)

35)

36) FBD of Block

mg – T = ma ..(1)
FBD of Disc

T.R = I.α

T.R = I.

T= ..(2)
from eqn (1) & (2)

mg –

a=
Hence acceleration of the block

so velocity v =

37)

38)
F + f = ma ....(i)

(F – f)R =

F–f= ..(ii)
solving (i) and (ii)

a= .

39) *
τH = IH α ⇒ mg × =

⇒α= (same for all points)

* Acceleration of C : aC = αr =

Acceleration of B : aB = αr =

40)

From COME,

⇒
⇒ 16h = 9 (Re + h)

⇒h=

41)

or

42)

...(i)

...(ii)
(i)/(ii)

3θ – 60 = 40 – θ
4θ = 100
43)

T = 65°C

44) λmT = b (where, b = 2.89 × 10–3 mK) ⇒ ≈ 2000 K

45) AB → isochoric process CD

WAB = 0 ; WCD = 0
BC → isobaric DA
WBC = nR(T3 – T2)
WDA = nR(T1 – T4)
Wcyclic = nR(T1 + T3 – T2 – T4)

46) For given graph.

Process AB is isobaric, BC and DA are isothermal, CD is isochoric.
If we plote P-T & V-T graph then

47)

For diatomic gas,

ΔQ : ΔU : ΔW

=
=[Link]

48) 0.4 × (30 – 27°C)

= 0.15 × 1 × (27– 25°) + w × (27– 25°]
⇒ 1.2 = 0.3 + 2w
⇒ w = 0.45 kg

49)

(ΔU)acb = (ΔU)adb [ΔU = Q – W]

200 – 80 = 144 – Wadb
Wadb = 24 J
 50)

75% of KE = Q

V2 = 4 × 4.2 × 104
V = 410 m/s

CHEMISTRY

69)
2-methyl butyl

71)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

⇒ High priority
⇒ Low priority

77)

Same group's are at different side → trans isomer

 83)

Position of π-bond is different, number of carbon is same.

85)

Other organic compounds also show chain isomerism.

96)

Theory based

97) NCERT Pg. # 305

BOTANY

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 63, 64

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 68

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 68

119) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 73

120) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 73

121) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 72

122)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 75

123)

NCERT P. No. # 74, 76

124) NCERT (XI) Pg # 75, figure 6.7(b)

125)

NCERT XI Page # 74

126)

NCERT XI, Pg # 74

127) NCERT (XI) Pg# 76

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 77

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 77

136)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 69

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 69

138) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 60

142)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 58

143) NCERT-XI Pg. # 72

144)
 NCERT Pg. No. 74

145)

NCERT XI Pg # 75

146)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 75, 76

147) NCERT Pg# 74

148) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

150) NCERT XIth Pg. # 75

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186

156) NCERT XI, Pg. # 273

157) NCERT-XI, Fig. 17.3

159) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 274

160) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 189 Para 14.4

161)
NCERT Pg. # 213, 16.5

162)

NCERT Pg. # 208, 16.2

163)

NCERT Pg. # 209, 16.3

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

165) NCERT Pg. # 212, 213, 16.6

166)

NCERT Pg. # 214, 16.8

167)

NCERT Pg. # 212, 16.5

168)

NCERT Pg. # 209/210, 16.3

169)

NCERT Pg. # 205

170)

NCERT Pg. # 212, 16.5

171)

NCERT Pg. # 210/211, 16.4

172) NCERT Page no. 279, 280

173) NCERT Page no. 287

174) XIth NCERT Pg. # 199

176) NCERT XI, Page # 199

177) NCERT XI, Page # 199

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 282

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 279

180) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 282

181)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 288

182)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 284

183)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 284

184)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 285

185)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 282

186) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190, Para 14.4

187) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 189, 190

188) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186

189) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 189, 190

190) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186

191)

NCERT Pg. # 206

192) NCERT Pg. # 213, 16.7

195) XIth NCERT Pg. # 201

197) NCERT XI, Page # 202

198) NCERT XI, Page # 202

199)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 281

200)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 281