CAIRO, FEBRUARY 2006 - (EXAM.
# 3)
Kindly answer the following questions, using the attached answer sheet. Do not write on
this paper.
WISH YOU GOOD LUCK
1. Engine EPR is defined as:
A) The ratio of Inlet pressure (Pt2) to Exhaust Pressure (Pt7)
B) The ratio of Inlet static pressure to EGT
C) The ratio of Exhaust pressure (Pt6) to Pitot pressure (Pt1)
2. In an air conditioning Pack, what is the purpose of the compressor?
A) To compress the air entering the cabin, to provide a cabin altitude lower than aircraft
altitude.
B) To compress, and therefore warm the air, as part of the air-cycle machine cooling
process.
C) To compress the air to remove excess water vapour.
3. What is the lowest Decision Height (DH) and RVR allowed for a Category 2 Approach?
A) 150 ft. AGL / 500 meters RVR
B) 100 ft RA / 350 meters RVR
C) 50 FT RA / 250 meters RVR
4. VMCG is defined as:
A) The minimum speed at which directional control can be maintained with zero yaw if an
outboard engine should fail.
B) Following the failure of the critical engine, the minimum speed at which the aircraft can
be kept straight after applying full reverse on all operating engines.
C) The minimum speed at which directional control can be maintained on the ground using
rudder control only, following the failure of an outboard engine.
5. Which of the following statement is true in respect of a balanced field takeoff?
A) V1 will always be reached within 60% of the TORA, and must not be less than 1.15Vs
B) With an engine failure at V1, the aircraft can either be stopped on the available runway,
or can continue the takeoff to be at 35 feet and a speed of V2 by the end of the available
runway.
C) With an engine failure at V1, the aircraft can either be stopped on the available runway,
or can continue the takeoff to be at 50 feet and a speed of V2 by the end of the available
clearway.
6. If the altimeter setting has been changed from 30.25 to 29.95, what is the approximate change
in the altimeter reading?
A) Altimeter will read 30ft. higher.
B) Altimeter will read 300ft. higher.
C) Altimeter will read 300ft. lower.
7. In RVSM airspace, aircraft will be operated between:
A) FL 290 – FL 410
B) FL 280.5 – FL 420
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C) FL 280 – FL 400
8. RNP 5 defines RNAV operations which satisfy a required track keeping accuracy of:
A) +/- 5 NM for at least 50% of the flight time.
B) +/- 5 NM for at least 95% of the time.
C) +/- 10 NM for at least 95% of the time.
9. Calibrated Airspeed is :
A) Indicated Airspeed corrected for position and instruments errors.
B) Indicated Airspeed corrected for position and instruments errors and compressibility for
altitude.
C) Indicated Airspeed corrected for instruments error.
10. Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA) is:
A) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.
B) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way, if provided.
C) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway and the stop
way, if provided.
11. What should be done if the weather condition at the departure airport is lower than the required
landing minimums?
A) A takeoff alternate should be designated within 2 hrs. from the departure airport at
normal cruising speed under the most adverse forecasted wind condition during that
period with all engines operating.
B) A takeoff alternate should be designated within 2 hrs. from the departure airport at
normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C) A takeoff alternate should be designated within 2 hrs. from the departure airport at
normal cruising speed under the most adverse forecasted wind condition during that
period with one engine inoperative.
12. If after flying 120 Nm, you are 4 miles off course, what heading correction should you use to
regain track in 60 Nm?
A) 12 degrees.
B) 6 degrees.
C) 24 degrees.
13. With reference to a turbine engine, BY-PASS ratio is:
A) The ratio of air entering the turbine, to the air through the combustion section.
B) The ratio of the air mass flow through the turbine section to the air mass flow through
the first stage of the compressor.
C) The ratio of the total air mass flow entering the fan stage to the air mass flow through
the turbine section.
14. In RVSM airspace approaching the FL assigned by ATC, you can overshoot the altitude by:
A) 200 feet.
B) 150 feet
C) 300 feet
15. If the aircraft PITOT system became blocked in flight, which of the following statements
would be true?
A) If the aircraft descended, the indicated airspeed would increase.
B) If the aircraft climbed, the indicated airspeed would increase.
C) The indicated airspeed would not change.
16. The maximum ROC or ROD while leveling of in RVSM airspace is:
A) 2000 feet.
B) 1500 feet.
C) 1000 feet.
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17. In RVSM airspace, what is the vertical separation between aircraft traveling in the same
direction on the same airway?
A) 2000 feet
B) 1000 feet
C) 3000 feet
18. What action should be taken when you are “cleared for approach” while being radar vectored
on an unpublished route?
A) Descend to minimum sector altitude.
B) Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.
C) Descend to minimum sector altitude and wait for further ATC instructions.
19. What is the indication of a “HUNG’ start on a turbine engine?
A) Rapid rise in EGT, accompanied by a low RPM.
B) Slow or zero rise in fuel flow in response to RPM.
C) Stagnant RPM and EGT indication, possible with low fuel flow.
20. For determining the braking action in a contaminated runway condition what does the
following indicator means 88////// :
A) All runways are operational and the contamination condition has ceased.
B) All runways are non-operational due to braking action reported to be unreliable.
C) All runways are contaminated but reports are not available or not updated.
21. Which of the following is NOT included in the empty operating weight of the aircraft?
A) Unusable fuel.
B) Best rate of climb.
C) Best specific fuel consumption.
22. Best Lift over Drag speed (L/D) will give:
A) Best gradient of climb
B) Best rate of climb
C) Best specific fuel consumption
23. According to the “Rules of the Air”, if two aircraft are approaching each other head on; each
should alter course….
A) To the LEFT
B) To the RIGHT
C) As directed by TCAS, if fitted
24. An aircraft is taking off in the vicinity of a thunderstorm, when it experiences a strong tailwind
gust. The immediate effect of this will be:
A) The airspeed and groundspeed will rapidly increase.
B) The groundspeed and airspeed rapidly decrease.
C) The groundspeed remains the same, and airspeed decreases.
25. In an Aerodrome Weather Forecast (TAF), the wind direction is given in:
A) Degrees Magnetic
B) Degrees True
C) It varies depending on the local magnetic variations
26. The most sever clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is normally found:
A) Directly below the jet stream
B) Slightly above the core, on the Polar side
C) Below the core on the side closest to the Equator
27. What effect will landing at a higher than recommended touchdown speed have on
hydroplaning?
A) No effect on hydroplaning, but will increase landing roll distance.
B) Reduces hydroplaning if heavy breaking is immediately applied.
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C) Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of how much braking is applied
28. In an aircraft Electrical System, a Trnasformer in a (T/R) unit is used to :
A) Change DC power to AC
B) Change AC power to DC
C) Change AC power to AC
29. If an INS system fails in-flight, and is re-started, it may be:
A) Re-initialized, and used for Navigation, provided the position is re-inserted
B) Used for Navigation, if the gyroscopes remain erect
C) Used for Attitude Reference only, or not at all
30. What would be an appropriate response to an engine start-up tailpipe fire?
A) Shut off HP valve, pull FIRE handle, and discharge the engine fire bottle
B) Shut off HP valve, (Pull FIRE Handle, if necessary), and motor engine
C) Shut off HP valve, (Pull FIRE Handle, if necessary), AND REQUEST Ground Crew to
discharge a fire extinguisher into the tailpipe.
31. Which statement of the following is true in regards to the Minimum Obstruction Clearance
Altitude (MOCA) :
A) Provide a known obstruction clearance within 10NM of the route centre line.
B) Provides a 1000-Foot obstacle clearance within a radius of 25NM from the navigational
facility upon which the MOCA is predicated.
C) In the USA it assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM from
a VOR.
32. Which Transponder codes should be squawked to signify MAYDAY, Hijack and Loss of
Communications in proper order?
A) 7600, 7500 and 7700
B) 7600, 7700 and 7500
C) 7700, 7500 and 7600
33. A temperature inversion is a condition which exists only in :
A) Unstable air
B) Stable air
C) Beginning of summer or the end of winter
34. You are flying in IFR weather conditions and have two way radio communications failure.
What altitude should be used?
A) An altitude that is at least 1000 ft. above the highest obstacle along the route and
squawk 7700 on the transponder.
B) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised you to expect, or the MEA which is
lowest.
C) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised you to expect, or the MEA, whichever
is highest.
35. Which statement is true about viscous hydroplaning?
A) It occurs at 2 times the speed dynamic hydroplaning can be expected
B) It occurs at 1.5 times the speed dynamic hydroplaning can be expected
C) It occurs at lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning
36. Which letter indicates RVSM approval for the ICAO flight plan?
A) R
B) W
C) Y
37. Which of the following statements is true concerning Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude (MEA)?
A) It provides at least 2000 feet obstacle clearance within 10 N.M.
B) It is the lowest published altitude between two radio fixes, ensuring obstacle clearance
and (in some countries) navaid reception
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C) It is the lowest published altitude on an airway, ensuring acceptable navaid coverage
within 22 miles of the VOR
38. When operating the aircraft pressurization system in MANUAL mode, to increase the cabin
altitude you would:
A) Close the outflow valve(s)
B) Open the outflow valve(s)
C) Flaps which are fully extended
39. According to the ‘Rules of the Air”, if two aircrafts are converging at the same altitude, which
one should give way?
A) Both, it is the responsibility of each pilot to avoid collision
B) The aircraft which has the other on its LEFT
C) The aircraft which has the other on its RIGHT
40. Dutch Roll is an oscillation around which aircraft axis?
A) Roll and Pitch
B) Yaw and Pitch
C) Yaw and Roll
41. What is the required reserve fuel quantity for domestic operation:
A) Enough for 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption
B) Enough for 45 minutes fuel consumption at holding speed above 1500 ft.
C) Enough for 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption with the critical engine inop.
42. When making a routine transponder code changes, the inadvertent selection of which codes
should be avoided?
A) 7700, 7600, 7400
B) 7600, 7500, 7400
C) 7700, 7600, 7500
43. The chemical imbalance in the body resulting from lack of carbon dioxide is known as:
A) Vertigo
B) Aerotitis
C) Hyperventilation
44. An A/C descending at 300 Kts, glide angle with an increase in weight, will:
A) Increase.
B) Decrease.
C) Remain same.
45. What does the term “dew point” refer to :
A) The spread between actual temperature and temperature during evaporation
B) The temperature at which the evaporation and condensation points are equal.
C) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
46. While flying at FL 350, the altimeter was set correctly. At transition level, the pilot failed to set
local setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 ft., what would the altimeter indicate after
landing? E?
A) 1300 ft.
B) 650 ft.
C) Sea level
47. When climbing at a constant indicated airspeed:
A) Mach # decreases.
B) Mach # increases.
C) Mach # remains the same.
48. Typical weather associated with an ANTICYCLONE in winter could be:-
A) Unstable air, possibility of Thunderstorms
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B) Stable air, possibility of fog
C) Steep Pressure gradient, possibility of strong gusty winds
49. How should a pilot report to ATC if he encounters turbulence that, one third to two-thirds of
the time, causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, causes variations in indicated airspeed,
while the A/C remains in control :
A) Occasional moderate turbulence
B) Occasional moderate chop
C) Intermittent moderate turbulence
50. A “STANDARD” holding pattern is one where the turns are made:
A) To the RIGHT
B) To the LEFT
C) Right or Left, as published
51. In takeoff performance 1st segment of climb is:
A. V1 TO 35 feet.
B. V2 at 35 feet to gear up.
C. V2 at 35 feet till flap retraction altitude.
52. When available, using a lower flap setting for takeoff:
A. Improves climb performance.
B. Reduces climb performance.
C. Has no affect on climb performance.
53. On a swept wing, as the MACH No. increases:
A. The center of pressure moves forward.
B. The center of pressure moves rearward.
C. The wing stalls.
54. An Aerodrome Met Report (METAR), contains a cloud report of “SCT 020, BKN 035, FEW
100”. This means:
A. More than half cover at 2000 feet less than half cover at 3500 feet, less than one quarter
cover at 10,000 feet.
B. Less than half cover at 2000 feet, more than half cover at 3500 feet, less than one
quarter cover at 10,000 feet.
C. Less than half cover at 200 feet, more than half cover at 350 feet, less than one quarter
cover at 1,000 feet.
55. What effect does a winglet have on an aerofoil?
A. It increases induced drag and decreases the aspect ratio.
B. It decreases induced drag and increases the aspect ratio.
C. It increases the stalling speed.
56. If the TAS is 480 Kts and local speed of sound is 600 Kts, what is the Mach #?
A. 0.8
B. 0.6
C. 0.9
57. How does the thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC) vary with altitude?
A. Increases with altitude.
B. Decreases with altitude.
C. Remains same with increase in altitude.
58. What type of fire extinguisher is most effective on electrical fires?
A. HALON (BCF)
B. Water
C. CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)
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59. An A/C carrying 48.8 tons of fuel, if the specific gravity of fuel goes down, the weight of fuel:
A. Will decrease
B. Will increase
C. Will remain same
60. Why is fuel normally used from tanks in the order CENTER, INNER, OUTER?
A. If gravity feeding is necessary, you will always have the outer tanks full
B. To decrease the chance of fuel leakage from the vent tanks
C. For wing bending relief
GOOD LUCK
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ANSWER KEY – EXAM # (3)
CAIRO, FEBRUARY 2006
Q.# A B C Q.# A B C
1. ● О О 31. О О ●
2. О ● О 32. О О ●
3. О ● О 33. О ● О
4. О О ● 34. О О ●
5. О ● О 35. О О ●
6. О О ● 36. О ● О
7. ● О О 37. О ● О
8. О ● О 38. О ● О
9. ● О О 39. О О ●
10. О ● О 40. О О ●
11. О ● О 41. ● О О
12. О ● О 42. О О ●
13. О О ● 43. О О ●
14. О ● О 44. О ● О
15. О ● О 45. О О ●
16. О ● О 46. О О ●
17. ● О О 47. О ● О
18. О ● О 48. О ● О
19. О О ● 49. О О ●
20. О О ● 50. ● О О
21. О ● О 51. О ● О
22. ● О О 52. ● О О
23. О ● О 53. О ● О
24. О О ● 54. О ● О
25. О ● О 55. О ● О
26. О ● О 56. ● О О
27. О О ● 57. О О ●
28. О О ● 58. ● О О
29. О О ● 59. ● О О
30. О О ● 60. О О ●
