1. What is the simplest definition of orthognathic surgery?

(A) The alignment of the jaws to normalize the relationship between the jaws and the

craniofacial complex

(B) The removal of wisdom teeth

(C) The installation of dental implants

(D) The treatment of dental caries

2. What are the intrinsic growth potential areas of the craniofacial complex?

(A) Teeth and gums

(B) Spheno-occipital and sphenoethmoidal synchondroses and the nasal septum

(C) Maxilla and mandible only

(D) Temporal bone and zygomatic arch

3. How does the majority of the bones of the face grow?

(A) With no change after adulthood

(B) In response to adjacent soft tissue and functional demands

(C) By external force application

(D) Through purely genetic development

4. What is the general direction of normal facial growth?

(A) Only vertical

(B) Upward and backward

(C) Only horizontal

(D) Downward and forward with lateral expansion

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5. What influences the growth of the maxilla and mandible?

(A) Only genetic factors

(B) Nutritional intake alone

(C) Remodeling and differential apposition and resorption of bone

(D) Physical therapy techniques

6. Which areas of the body do the functional demands affect during facial

growth?

(A) Nasal, oral, and hypopharyngeal airways; facial muscles; and muscles of

mastication

(B) Only oral cavity

(C) Only the nasal area

(D) Only facial muscles

7. What is a key factor in the development of dentofacial deformities?

(A) The absence of teeth

(B) Simple inflammation

(C) Age alone

(D) The complex processes involved in craniofacial form and function

8. What type of surgery is orthognathic surgery classified as?

(A) Cosmetic dental surgery

(B) Endodontic surgery

(C) Periodontic surgery

(D) Jaw alignment surgery

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9. changes in skeletal morphology can result from

(A) exercise routines

(B) dietary habits

(C) environmental influences

(D) alterations in growth patterns

10. malocclusion can be caused by

(A) improper dental hygiene

(B) abnormal skeletal components

(C) lack of orthodontic care

(D) poor nutrition

11. which of the following is a hereditary factor contributing to malocclusion?

(A) excessive physical activity

(B) lack of sleep

(C) familial tendency toward a prognathic mandible

(D) overconsumption of sugar

12. which racial characteristic is mentioned in relation to malocclusion?

(A) overcrowded teeth in Europeans

(B) underbite in South Americans

(C) anterior bimaxillary protrusion in black Africans

(D) crossbite in Australians

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13. what is craniosynostosis?

(A) downward movement of the jaw

(B) premature fusions of craniofacial sutures

(C) excessive growth of the jaw

(D) increased spacing between teeth

14. which prenatal problem can lead to a mandibular deficiency?

(A) exposure to extreme cold

(B) fetal obesity

(C) intrauterine molding of the developing fetal head

(D) maternal smoking

15. which systemic condition can result in midface hypoplasia?

(A) diabetes

(B) fetal alcohol syndrome

(C) anemia

(D) hypertension

16. congenital abnormalities that can affect facial growth include

(A) wisdom teeth eruption

(B) tooth decay

(C) gum disease

(D) cleft lip and palate

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17. what type of genetic issue can contribute to abnormal facial morphology?

(A) height variations

(B) skin color differences

(C) hair texture variations

(D) syndromes

18. how can prenatal factors affect the jaw development?

(A) altering the location of teeth

(B) by influencing maternal diet

(C) changing jaw structure through muscle use

(D) through molding of the fetal head

19. what damage can occur to a growing child's temporomandibular joint?

(A) enhanced facial aesthetics

(B) improved dental occlusion

(C) asymmetric mandibular growth

(D) increased jaw size

20. what can contribute to abnormal function after birth?

(A) proper oral hygiene

(B) normal lip posture

(C) correct breathing techniques

(D) abnormal tongue position

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21. what is one main objective of orthognathic surgery?

(A) obtain functional occlusion

(B) enhance speech clarity

(C) reduce jaw clenching

(D) eliminate dental caries

22. what might treatment by orthodontics alone compromise?

(A) jaw stability

(B) functional biting

(C) tooth alignment

(D) facial esthetics

23. how does surgery without orthodontics affect facial aesthetics?

(A) reduces respiratory issues

(B) creates a perfect occlusion

(C) enhances jaw growth

(D) improves facial aesthetics

24. what is the ideal outcome for treating dentofacial deformities?

(A) isolation of orthodontic treatment

(B) sole reliance on surgery

(C) focusing only on teeth alignment

(D) integration of orthodontics and surgery

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25. what is vital for obtaining maximum esthetic results in orthognathic surgery?

(A) enhancing gum health

(B) reducing plaque buildup

(C) correct underlying skeletal disharmony

(D) maximizing tooth whitening

26. how does abnormal lip posture influence dental health?

(A) it stabilizes the temporomandibular joint

(B) it enhances jaw growth

(C) it improves dental occlusion

(D) it can lead to environmental influences

27. what are the types of problems orthognathic patients often have?

(A) only cosmetic issues

(B) only functional difficulties

(C) periodontic, endodontic, complex restorative, and prosthetic

(D) only orthodontic and surgical problems

28. what is the first step in the assessment of orthognathic patients?

(A) treatment planning

(B) dental surgery

(C) psychological evaluation

(D) general assessment

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29. what are the two main categories of patient concerns?

(A) surgical and orthodontic

(B) immediate and long-term

(C) pain and discomfort

(D) functional and esthetic

30. which of the following is a functional problem mentioned in the text?

(A) gingival display

(B) difficulty in biting and chewing

(C) facial appearance

(D) oral hygiene

31. how can a patient's health status affect treatment?

(A) it can introduce medical or psychological problems

(B) only dental health matters

(C) it has no impact on treatment

(D) health status is irrelevant

32. what does the assessment of dentofacial deformity include?

(A) only current dental status

(B) psychological history only

(C) history of deformity and its progression

(D) diet and nutrition assessment

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33. which condition is covered under functional problems?

(A) veneers

(B) tooth whitening

(C) orthodontic adjustments

(D) TMJ dysfunction

34. what aspect of the patient's issue relates to esthetic problems?

(A) surgical outcomes

(B) orthodontic alignment

(C) facial or dental appearance

(D) periodontal health

35. what could be a reason for speech difficulties in patients?

(A) gingivitis

(B) malocclusion

(C) cleaning procedures

(D) braces

36. how does the text suggest treatment goals should be defined?

(A) focusing only on surgical options

(B) set by insurance limitations

(C) determined solely by the dentist

(D) based on patient’s perception and problems

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37. Is facial assessment performed in a specific head position?

(A) Only when tilting

(B) Yes, in natural head position

(C) No, any head position

(D) Only in profile view

38. What should be avoided during facial assessment?

(A) Habitual tilting

(B) Evaluating asymmetries

(C) Natural head position

(D) Using a wooden tongue spatula

39. How is a normally proportioned face divided in the frontal view?

(A) Into unequal segments

(B) Into equal halves

(C) Into five parts

(D) Into equal thirds

40. In short-faced patients, what happens to the lower anterior facial height?

(A) It is elongated

(B) It is increased

(C) It remains unchanged

(D) It is reduced

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41. What is the relationship of the middle fifth of the face to the alar base?

(A) It is unrelated

(B) It should be narrower

(C) It should be wider

(D) It should equal its width

42. How is vertical symmetry evaluated?

(A) In reference to the inter-pupillary line

(B) Using facial proportions

(C) By measuring facial width

(D) Through jaw alignment

43. What tool can be used to evaluate canting of the maxillary occlusal plane?

(A) A ruler

(B) A wooden tongue spatula

(C) A dental mirror

(D) A caliper

44. Which type of asymmetries are assessed during facial evaluation?

(A) Only transverse asymmetries

(B) Vertical and transverse asymmetries

(C) Symmetries only

(D) Only vertical asymmetries

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45. What is the purpose of evaluating overall facial balance?

(A) To determine age factor

(B) To identify asymmetries

(C) To measure facial length

(D) To evaluate skin texture

46. In evaluating transverse proportions, what distance should the middle fifth

equal?

(A) The width of the alar base and intercanthal distance

(B) The distance from chin to forehead

(C) The distance between the temples

(D) The width of the jawline

47. What is transverse symmetry evaluated against?

(A) the vertical facial symmetry

(B) the horizontal alignment of teeth

(C) the position of the ears

(D) an imaginary facial midline perpendicular to the inter-pupillary line

48. What should be assessed in relation to the facial midline?

(A) the color of the eyes

(B) the dental midline and chin position

(C) the length of the ears

(D) the width of the jaw

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49. Where should the lower eyelid rest according to the text?

(A) below the pupil

(B) at the inferior border of the iris

(C) at the upper boundary of the sclera

(D) above the eyelash line

50. How much of the central incisors should show with relaxed lips?

(A) 1 mm

(B) no incisors should show

(C) 5-7 mm

(D) 2-3 mm

51. What does profile evaluation assess in facial relationships?

(A) anteroposterior and vertical relationships of all components of the face

(B) skin texture

(C) teeth alignment

(D) only the symmetry of the lips

52. In the context given, what should be evaluated regarding lip form?

(A) symmetry

(B) thickness

(C) moisture level

(D) color

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53. What components are included in the profile evaluation?

(A) nose shape and cheek volume

(B) Jaw relationship and facial convexity

(C) eye color and hair length

(D) ear position and skin tone

54. What planes are mentioned in regard to the lower lip?

(A) nasal plane angle and frontal plane angle

(B) occipital plane angle and zygomatic angle

(C) oral plane angle and auricular angle

(D) submental plane angle and mandibular plane angle

55. What type of show is assessed in upper incisors evaluation?

(A) scleral show

(B) upper incisor show

(C) chin show

(D) lip show

56. What should be avoided in terms of scleral show?

(A) minimal show

(B) excessive scleral show

(C) no eye movement

(D) chirping

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57. What is the focus of intraoral assessment in this context?

(A) the alignment and condition of teeth

(B) the color of gums

(C) the shape of the roof of the mouth

(D) the size of the tongue

58. Assessment of dental arch form includes which dimensions?

(A) horizontal, vertical, and cross-sectional

(B) none of the above

(C) longitudinal, transverse, and depth

(D) transverse, anteroposterior, and vertical

59. What must be identified due to their influence on treatment design?

(A) missing teeth, severe caries, extensive dental restorations, or root resorption

(B) smile design preferences

(C) tooth whitening needs

(D) cosmetic concerns

60. Why is the periodontal status significant during treatments?

(A) it is only relevant before treatment

(B) it has no effect on treatment outcomes

(C) it could be exacerbated during orthodontic and orthognathic surgical treatments

(D) it relates only to cosmetic aspects

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61. What condition can an enlarged tongue cause that affects dental practices?

(A) gum disease

(B) tooth decay

(C) dentoskeletal deformities and instability

(D) bruxism

62. What should be evaluated in relation to mastication during assessment?

(A) only TMJ function

(B) only muscle strength

(C) tooth sensitivity

(D) muscles of mastication and TMJ function

63. What are the two forms of study models mentioned?

(A) physical plaster models or digital e-models

(B) ceramic and metal models

(C) hand-drawn sketches and photos

(D) paper models and 3D printed models

64. Why is obtaining impressions and bite registration important?

(A) to determine cleaning practices

(B) for cosmetic alignment only

(C) for dental cast construction and evaluation

(D) to assess age-related changes in teeth

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65. What is the significance of identifying severe caries in the assessment

process?

(A) it may influence treatment design

(B) it is only important before surgery

(C) it is only a cosmetic concern

(D) it does not affect orthodontic outcomes

66. Which of the following could exacerbate periodontal pathologies?

(A) orthodontic and orthognathic surgical treatments

(B) regular dental check-ups

(C) routine teeth cleaning

(D) tooth whitening procedures

67. In the context of orthodontic treatments, what can macroglossia create

problems with?

(A) only airway management

(B) only speech

(C) masticatory, speech, and airway management

(D) only mastication

68. Impressions in orthodontic assessment are necessary for what?

(A) fitting dental implants

(B) determining oral hygiene practices

(C) dental cast construction and evaluation

(D) designing braces

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69. Which types of radiographs are routinely used in patient evaluation?

(A) X-rays and ultrasounds

(B) Standard photos and physical exams

(C) Panoramic and lateral cephalometric radiographs

(D) CT scans and MRI

70. What is the primary use of panoramic radiographs?

(A) Assess dental-related pathology and mandibular morphology

(B) Analyze neurological functions

(C) Monitor blood pressure

(D) Evaluate heart conditions

71. What morphological aspects can be evaluated using panoramic radiographs?

(A) Breast density and thickness

(B) Fingers and toes

(C) Skin texture and tone

(D) Condylar head and neck, ramus, antegonial angle

72. What is the role of lateral cephalometric radiographs in patient assessment?

(A) Emergency response measures

(B) Quantitative analysis of the dentofacial complex

(C) Overall health screening

(D) Visual inspection for cavities

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73. What kind of analysis can be performed with lateral cephalometric

radiographs?

(A) Quantitative and qualitative analysis

(B) Only qualitative analysis

(C) Only quantitative analysis

(D) Health diagnostics beyond dentistry

74. How are the values obtained from lateral cephalometric radiographs utilized?

(A) Ignored for practical purposes

(B) Only used for medical research

(C) Compared with normal values

(D) Discarded after measurement

75. What method can be used to visualize growth or treatment changes in

cephalometric analysis?

(A) Patient interviews

(B) Direct observation

(C) Digital imaging software

(D) Superimposition of cephalometrics

76. Which anatomical structures are assessed by panoramic radiographs?

(A) Kidney and liver

(B) Inferior alveolar canal and maxillary sinus

(C) Spinal cord and nerves

(D) Heart and lungs

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77. What do lateral cephalometric radiographs measure using landmarks, lines,

and angles?

(A) Height and weight assessments

(B) Eye movement and coordination

(C) Muscle strength and endurance

(D) Different aspects of the dentofacial complex

78. Why is it important to compare values obtained from lateral cephalometric

radiographs with normal values?

(A) To determine patient satisfaction

(B) To verify dental insurance coverage

(C) To assess growth, treatment changes, or relapse

(D) To evaluate emotional health

79. what technology has become the state of the art for radiographic

examinations of facial bones?

(A) X-rays

(B) CT scans

(C) cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT)

(D) MRI

80. what can be reconstructed from CBCT?

(A) 2D images

(B) Only skeletal images

(C) Cephalometric and panoramic views

(D) Only panoramic views

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81. which application is NOT associated with CBCT?

(A) 3D orthognathic prediction planning

(B) Assessment and diagnosis of complex dentofacial problems

(C) Fabrication of 3D models

(D) Traditional radiography

82. how does CBCT contribute to understanding anatomical information?

(A) By providing the position of nerves and teeth and orientation of mandibular rami

(B) By only showing bone structures

(C) By only providing 2D images

(D) By eliminating the need for surgical evaluation

83. which additional diagnostic record involves movement?

(A) 3D images

(B) Clinical photographs

(C) 4D imaging

(D) Static CT scans

84. what was the primary purpose of Angle’s classification originally?

(A) Assessing soft tissue

(B) Evaluating 3D imaging

(C) Describing dental malocclusion

(D) Diagnosing skeletal fractures

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85. which terms are associated with Angle's classification?

(A) Class A, Class B, and Class C

(B) Class I, Class II, and Class III

(C) Grade I, Grade II, and Grade III

(D) Type I, Type II, and Type III

86. how has Angle's classification evolved over time?

(A) It has become less relevant

(B) It now includes skeletal relationships of the maxilla and mandible

(C) It focuses only on dental treatments

(D) It is now only used for children

87. what does 3D orthognathic prediction planning involve?

(A) Evaluating previous surgeries without imaging

(B) Only assessing teeth alignment

(C) Planning surgical interventions with 3D imaging

(D) Planning only for aesthetic changes

88. what type of imaging combines three-dimensional elements with movement?

(A) Skeletal imaging

(B) 2D imaging

(C) 4D imaging

(D) Static imaging

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89. what is the definition of Class I skeletal relationship?

(A) The mandibular base is anterior to the maxillary base.

(B) The maxillary base is shorter than the mandibular base.

(C) The maxillary base is in a normal anteroposterior relationship to the mandibular

base.

(D) The mandibular base is posterior to the maxillary base.

90. how does Class II skeletal relationship differ from Class I?

(A) There is no difference in relationship.

(B) The mandibular base is posterior to the maxillary base.

(C) Both bases are equal.

(D) The maxillary base is longer than the mandibular base.

91. what correlation exists between Class II molar occlusion and Class I skeletal

pattern?

(A) They always indicate a Class II skeletal pattern.

(B) They cannot exist together in any form.

(C) They are identical definitions.

(D) They can coexist with a Class I canine relationship within a Class I skeletal pattern.

92. why is Angle’s original terminology considered inadequate?

(A) It only describes molar relationships.

(B) It does not adequately classify dentofacial skeletal deformities.

(C) It is too complex to use.

(D) It focuses only on maxillary relationships.

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93. what can a Class III skeletal relationship result from?

(A) Solely the maxilla, solely the mandible, or both.

(B) Only from the mandible.

(C) It cannot be classified.

(D) Only from the maxilla.

94. what must be considered when referencing Angle’s classification system?

(A) Canine relationships solely.

(B) Only skeletal patterns.

(C) Molar, canine, or skeleton.

(D) Only molar relationships.

95. how might a Class II skeletal relationship be characterized?

(A) By molar alignment only.

(B) By mandibular retrognathism or maxillary prognathism.

(C) By a forward-positioned mandible.

(D) By equal lengths of both bases.

96. which type of relationship involves the maxillary base being more anterior?

(A) Perfectly aligned.

(B) Class III skeletal.

(C) Class I skeletal.

(D) Class II skeletal.

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97. can a Class III skeletal relationship exist without deformities?

(A) Yes, it can result solely from skeletal positioning.

(B) No, it always presents in Class II.

(C) Yes, but only in a Class I molar occlusion.

(D) No, it always indicates deformities.

98. what implication does premolar extraction have on skeletal classifications?

(A) It removes the ability to classify relationships.

(B) It only affects Class II relationships.

(C) It can allow for Class II molar occlusion to exist within a Class I skeletal pattern.

(D) It aligns all classes identically.

99. what is the primary focus of the pre-surgical treatment phase?

(A) conducting psychological assessments

(B) performing surgical procedures

(C) addressing periodontal and restorative considerations

(D) administering anesthesia

100. what is one of the periodontal considerations mentioned?

(A) bone grafting

(B) oral hygiene instruction

(C) orthodontic adjustments

(D) tooth extraction

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101. which surgical procedure may be necessary for proper tissue health?

(A) root canal therapy

(B) oral cancer surgery

(C) extractions

(D) flap surgery

102. what purpose does soft tissue grafting serve during pre-surgical treatment?

(A) to provide a zone of attached keratinized tissue

(B) to align the jaw correctly

(C) to prepare teeth for extraction

(D) to reduce pain during surgery

103. when must carious lesions be addressed according to the text?

(A) only if they cause pain

(B) early in the pre-surgical treatment phase

(C) after the surgery

(D) during orthodontic treatment

104. why might final restorative treatment be delayed?

(A) to achieve proper skeletal relationships

(B) for financial reasons

(C) due to patient preference

(D) to wait for the healing of gums

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105. what is one goal of pre-surgical orthodontics?

(A) to improve breathing

(B) to enhance aesthetic appearance

(C) to perform extractions

(D) to correct compensatory tooth movement

106. which type of tissue is mentioned as more resistant to orthodontic and

surgical trauma?

(A) muscle tissue

(B) adipose tissue

(C) epithelial tissue

(D) keratinized tissue

107. what is a potential necessity during flap surgery?

(A) to gain access for root planing

(B) to administer local anesthesia

(C) to perform wisdom tooth extraction

(D) to establish a new dental plan

108. which phase involves making restorative considerations?

(A) immediate post-surgical phase

(B) long-term maintenance phase

(C) pre-surgical treatment phase

(D) orthodontic treatment phase

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109. what is the main goal of creating primary malocclusion before surgical

correction?

(A) to prevent further dental issues

(B) to simplify orthodontic treatment

(C) to enhance dental aesthetics

(D) to allow balanced surgical correction of the skeletal bases

110. what is the impact of pre-surgical corrections on malocclusion appearance?

(A) it has no effect on appearance

(B) it always improves the appearance

(C) it may look worse pre-surgically

(D) it makes surgery unnecessary

111. what is the aim of decompensation of dentition in pre-surgical orthodontics?

(A) to improve the angulation of teeth over underlying bone

(B) to enhance overall dental hygiene

(C) to treat cavities

(D) to completely realign jaws

112. what occurs as a compensatory response to a developing dentofacial

deformity?

(A) loss of tooth enamel

(B) undesirable angulation of the anterior teeth

(C) increase in tooth sensitivity

(D) straightening of all teeth

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113. what is corrected before surgery according to the orthodontic approach

described?

(A) dental compensations for the skeletal deformity

(B) color of the teeth

(C) jaw size and structure

(D) oral hygiene practices

114. what does aligning arches in pre-surgical orthodontics address?

(A) color mismatches

(B) crowding, spaces, or rotations

(C) tooth decay

(D) tooth sensitivity

115. which skeletal component's relationship is often disregarded when

repositioning teeth orthodontically?

(A) the mandible

(B) the opposing arch

(C) the neck

(D) the palate

116. which objective is related to the shape and dimensions of the maxilla?

(A) decompensation of dentition

(B) tooth whitening

(C) coordinate arches

(D) dental aesthetics

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117. what does the process of decompensation involve in terms of dental

treatment?

(A) decreasing the number of teeth

(B) repositioning teeth properly over the underlying skeletal component

(C) changing dental materials

(D) extracting affected teeth

118. how does pre-surgical orthodontics prepare for surgical correction?

(A) by completing all dental extractions

(B) by adjusting bite relationships artificially

(C) by correcting dental compensations before surgery

(D) by whitening the teeth

119. what is the purpose of leveling of arches?

(A) to increase the size of the arches

(B) to ensure they occlude properly after surgery

(C) to reduce treatment duration

(D) to align teeth without surgery

120. when can treatment for stable adult deformity begin?

(A) after a year of monitoring

(B) only after multiple consultations

(C) without delay

(D) only if patient agrees to surgery

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121. what is the approach for managing growing children with dentofacial

deformities?

(A) wait for adulthood before addressing

(B) only cosmetic procedures can be performed

(C) immediate surgery is always necessary

(D) functional appliance therapy may be preferred

122. when should orthognathic surgery be considered for patients with growth

deficiencies?

(A) only when they reach adulthood

(B) after multiple failed treatments

(C) never, surgery is always delayed

(D) earlier in their growth phase

123. what is the significance of interceptive surgery?

(A) to make cosmetic adjustments

(B) to enhance bone structure

(C) to restrict unfavorable growth

(D) to prevent tooth extraction

124. what is considered definitive surgery?

(A) any surgery performed under anesthesia

(B) surgery after growth cessation

(C) surgery during the initial growth phase

(D) surgery that is reversible

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125. why might orthognathic surgery be delayed for those with excess growth?

(A) to gather more data

(B) to decrease patient anxiety

(C) to allow for complete growth

(D) to find alternative treatments

126. what aspect of treatment planning is indicated in the text?

(A) should focus solely on cosmetic outcomes

(B) should be ideal for orthognathic surgery

(C) should prioritize immediate results

(D) should not involve patient consultation

127. what is the main goal of managing dentofacial deformity in growing

children?

(A) to minimize subsequent deformity

(B) to enhance jaw size

(C) to avoid braces

(D) to reduce pain during treatment

128. objective 1

(A) determine pre-surgical dental occlusion

(B) determine the final post-surgical dental occlusion

(C) analyze post-operative complications

(D) evaluate surgical risks

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129. objective 2

(A) evaluate dental implant success

(B) demonstrate the post-surgical soft tissue facial appearance

(C) assess pre-surgical soft tissue conditions

(D) measure bone density

130. objective 3

(A) calculate recovery time

(B) determine the magnitude of skeletal hard tissue movement

(C) estimate soft tissue adjustments

(D) analyze surgical team performance

131. methods for achieving objectives

(A) longitudinal studies of dental health

(B) patient interviews post-surgery

(C) model planning based on surgical procedures

(D) random sampling of surgical outcomes

132. model planning description

(A) independent of model accuracy

(B) solely based on patient history

(C) based on mock surgery to determine surgical movement

(D) focused on cosmetic procedures

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133. pre-surgical preparation includes

(A) surgeon's preference alone

(B) models, bite registration, face-bow recording

(C) only X-rays and photographs

(D) patient's feedback

134. semi-adjustable articulator function

(A) mount casts for accurate occlusal setup

(B) perform soft tissue analysis

(C) assess patient satisfaction

(D) create dental implants

135. purpose of intraocclusal wafers

(A) assist in dental cleaning

(B) align osteotomies and dental segments during surgery

(C) restore patient’s bite post-surgery

(D) provide aesthetic enhancement

136. limitations of the described method

(A) is too reliant on theoretical models

(B) may not account for individual variations

(C) only applies to surgical cases

(D) does not include patient education

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137. importance of centric relation bite registration

(A) is only useful for removable prosthetics

(B) is irrelevant to surgical outcomes

(C) focuses on aesthetic outcomes only

(D) ensures accuracy in occlusal relationships

138. final occlusal setup characteristics

(A) is optional for successful surgeries

(B) needs to achieve normal occlusion

(C) should emphasize soft tissue only

(D) focuses primarily on cosmetic results

139. what type of tissue changes does the procedure provide information about

(A) none

(B) fat tissue changes

(C) hard tissue changes

(D) muscle tissue changes

140. how is facial appearance demonstrated in 2D soft tissue profile planning

(A) physical measurements

(B) using X-ray analysis

(C) superimposing digital images

(D) scanning with an MRI

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141. what does the computer manipulate to show desired surgical movements

(A) facial skin

(B) bone structures

(C) muscle layers

(D) soft tissue

142. what is produced by the computer to represent facial esthetic results

(A) paper printout

(B) digital image

(C) physical cast

(D) 3D model

143. what is an advantage of using computer technology in prediction planning

(A) reducing surgical time

(B) eliminating the need for consultations

(C) predicting facial changes

(D) offering guarantees for outcomes

144. how do patients benefit from the facial images created by the technology

(A) easier evaluation of results

(B) reduction in surgery costs

(C) immediate feedback during surgery

(D) no need for pre-surgery consultations

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145. what is a limitation mentioned regarding the predictions of the technology

(A) inaccuracy in results

(B) limited to certain conditions

(C) requires special training

(D) excessive complexity

146. what imaging technique provides bone landmarks for manipulation in

surgery planning

(A) MRI

(B) ultrasound

(C) cephalometric radiograph

(D) CT scan

147. what aspect of the technology helps in providing input into surgical

treatment plans

(A) evaluation of predicted results

(B) financial estimates

(C) patient history records

(D) available medical options

148. what does the procedure fail to inform about regarding tissue changes

(A) hard tissue movements

(B) surgical risks

(C) patient recovery

(D) soft tissue changes

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149. which of the following is NOT a part of the advantages listed for using

technology in surgical prediction planning

(A) enhanced surgeon skill

(B) patient involvement

(C) facial image evaluation

(D) predicting outcomes

150. what type of predictions does the text mention that only show the lateral

profile?

(A) computerized predictions

(B) 3D predictions

(C) surgical predictions

(D) 2D predictions

151. what has improved due to recent advances in imaging technology?

(A) patient outcomes

(B) computer capabilities

(C) precision of surgical correction

(D) accuracy of 2D predictions

152. what technologies are used for 3D computerized surgical planning?

(A) CT acquisition, 3D imaging, or laser scanning

(B) X-ray and MRI

(C) ultrasound and traditional photography

(D) manual modeling and predictions

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153. how is a virtual model of the face constructed?

(A) by superimposing digital photographs on the 3D CT data

(B) by hand-drawing anatomical features

(C) using only two-dimensional images

(D) with traditional sculpture techniques

154. what happens to soft tissue when skeletal components are moved?

(A) soft tissue is ignored in planning

(B) soft tissue is permanently altered

(C) soft tissue changes can be visualized

(D) soft tissue remains unchanged

155. what is one use of 3D computer technology mentioned in the text?

(A) designing the splint

(B) performing actual surgeries

(C) creating 2D images

(D) analyzing patient data

156. what challenge does the text highlight regarding computer predictions?

(A) excessive accuracy of predictions

(B) over-reliance on 3D models

(C) inability to predict every type of surgical change

(D) lack of available technology

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157. what type of deformities are mentioned in relation to surgical correction?

(A) spinal deformities

(B) dentofacial deformities

(C) skeletal deformities

(D) cardiac deformities

158. what is required to conduct the planning for surgical movements?

(A) 2D scans

(B) planned osteotomies

(C) general physical exams

(D) manual sketches

159. how does the text describe the ability of computers in surgical planning?

(A) complete accuracy for all patients

(B) limited accuracy for all patient types

(C) unaffected by patient variability

(D) only effective for non-complex cases

160. what technology is used in the construction process?

(A) computer-aided design and computer-aided manufacturing

(B) 3D printing only

(C) blueprint design

(D) manual drafting

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161. what is the common surgical treatment for dentofacial abnormalities?

(A) cosmetic surgery

(B) orthopedic surgery

(C) plastic surgery

(D) orthognathic surgery

162. how long does the post-surgical hospital stay usually last?

(A) 1 to 4 days

(B) less than 1 day

(C) more than 7 days

(D) 5 to 7 days

163. what classification is associated with excess growth of the mandible?

(A) skeletal class IV

(B) skeletal class III

(C) skeletal class I

(D) skeletal class II

164. what is a characteristic feature of mandibular prognathism?

(A) reverse overjet in the incisor area

(B) class I molar relationships

(C) excessive spacing

(D) dental crowding

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165. which part of the face is particularly prominent in mandibular excess?

(A) lower third of the face

(B) upper third of the face

(C) forehead area

(D) middle third of the face

166. where is orthognathic surgery typically performed?

(A) private practice

(B) outpatient clinic

(C) operating room

(D) dental office

167. what is required during orthognathic surgery?

(A) no anesthesia

(B) sedation only

(C) local anesthesia

(D) general anesthesia

168. which areas may require combined surgical procedures for correction?

(A) just the maxilla

(B) just the mandible

(C) only the midface

(D) maxilla and mandible

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169. what relationship is associated with class III occlusion?

(A) class III molar and canine relationships

(B) class I molar and canine relationships

(C) class II molar and canine relationships

(D) no specific relationships

170. what is a large reverse overjet's effect on patients?

(A) it has no effect on lip closure

(B) it affects only teeth alignment

(C) it may preclude adequate lip closure

(D) it enhances lip closure

171. what are the main techniques for correcting mandibular prognathism?

(A) Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy and maxillary advancement

(B) Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy and vertical ramus osteotomy

(C) Temporomandibular joint therapy and vertical ramus osteotomy

(D) Vertical ramus osteotomy and tooth extraction

172. what does BSSO stand for?

(A) Bilateral superior sagittal osteotomy

(B) Bilateral subsigmoid split osteotomy

(C) Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy

(D) Bilateral symmetrical split operation

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173. what surgical procedure is BSSO most commonly associated with?

(A) mandibular orthognathic surgery

(B) tooth extraction

(C) cosmetic surgery

(D) maxillary sinus surgery

174. which conditions is BSSO indicated for?

(A) mandibular prognathism, retrognathism, and asymmetry

(B) tooth decay and gum disease

(C) jaw dislocation and migraines

(D) facial fractures and sinusitis

175. how is the BSSO procedure initiated?

(A) through an intraoral incision along the external oblique ridge

(B) through a nasal incision

(C) through a facial incision along the cheekbone

(D) through an incision beneath the chin

176. where is the incision for the BSSO located in relation to the second molar?

(A) superiorly to the mesial of the second molar

(B) anteriorly to the second molar

(C) posteriorly to the second molar

(D) inferiorly to the mesial of the second molar

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177. what instruments are used to perform the osteotomy in a BSSO?

(A) scalpel and tweezers

(B) laser and drill

(C) bone-cutting bur or saw

(D) forceps and scissors

178. what is the first step in the BSSO technique?

(A) taking radiographs

(B) making the external incision

(C) performing the lingual cortex osteotomy

(D) administering anesthesia

179. what is the main objective of correcting mandibular prognathism?

(A) to eliminate dental cavities

(B) to achieve proper alignment and function of the jaw

(C) to reduce muscle strain in the face

(D) to improve cosmetic appearance only

180. what is the purpose of the buccal cortex osteotomy

(A) to enhance dental aesthetics

(B) to facilitate a sagittal split of the mandible

(C) to increase jaw mobility

(D) to reduce pain after surgery

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181. what technique is mentioned for fixation during mandible surgery

(A) Soft tissue grafting

(B) Bone cement injection

(C) Electrical stimulation

(D) Transosseous wiring

182. which approach provides the best biomechanical stability for screws in this

procedure

(A) triangulation pattern

(B) hexagonal arrangement

(C) random placement

(D) linear pattern

183. what is a potential complication of mandible surgery

(A) Insufficient jaw strength

(B) Increased salivation

(C) Damage to the inferior alveolar nerve

(D) Excessive bone growth

184. what type of cut is involved in the buccal cortex osteotomy

(A) vertical cut

(B) horizontal cut

(C) diagonal cut

(D) circumferential cut

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185. how long is intermaxillary fixation typically maintained according to the text

(A) 4-6 weeks

(B) 2-4 weeks

(C) 8-10 weeks

(D) 6-8 weeks

186. what structures are split during the osteotomy of the mandible

(A) ramus and posterior body

(B) mental region and symphysis

(C) coronoid process and anterior body

(D) articular eminence

187. what may depend on the degree of damage incurred during surgery

(A) the alignment of teeth

(B) the stabilization of bone

(C) the recovery of the nerve

(D) the recovery of tissue

188. which type of screws are mentioned as included for fixation

(A) bicortical screws

(B) non-vital screws

(C) locking screws

(D) self-tapping screws

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189. what anatomical features are connected by the anterior border of the ramus

osteotomy

(A) superior to the mental foramen

(B) inferior to the coronoid notch

(C) lateral to the lingual nerve

(D) medial to the external oblique ridge

190. What can complications during mandibular surgery be avoided by?

(A) careful planning and surgical technique

(B) generic surgical tools

(C) use of anesthesia

(D) immediate post-op care

191. What are common postoperative complications mentioned?

(A) Loss of sensation in the legs

(B) Increased appetite

(C) Pain, swelling, and limitation of mouth opening

(D) Nausea and vomiting

192. What condition can lead to immediate skeletal relapse after IMF release?

(A) anterior open bite

(B) a fractured skull

(C) changes in taste sensation

(D) permanent numbness in the face

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193. What symptoms might worsen postoperatively according to the text?

(A) allergy symptoms

(B) fatigue symptoms

(C) cold symptoms

(D) preoperative TMJ symptoms

194. What is the primary purpose of vertical ramus osteotomy?

(A) removing wisdom teeth

(B) correction of mandibular prognathism or asymmetry

(C) extending the jaw

(D) tightening facial skin

195. How was the vertical ramus osteotomy originally performed?

(A) through an intranasal approach

(B) through an endoscopic approach

(C) through an extraoral approach

(D) through a transoral approach

196. What incision is used for exposing the ramus of the mandible in vertical

ramus osteotomy?

(A) retroauricular incision

(B) supraorbital incision

(C) submandibular incision

(D) perioral incision

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197. What involves moving the body and anterior ramus section of the mandible

posteriorly?

(A) maxillary augmentation

(B) vertical ramus osteotomy

(C) jaw distraction

(D) mandibular advancement

198. What stabilizes the mandible after the vertical ramus osteotomy?

(A) sutures

(B) bone cement

(C) IMF

(D) metal plates

199. What is the outcome when the proximal segment of the ramus overlaps the

anterior segment?

(A) the jaw is stabilized

(B) the jaw will be misaligned

(C) the patient will experience pain

(D) no significant change occurs

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200. What type of displacement can occur after immediate relapse post-IMF

release?

(A) inferior displacement of the jaw

(B) lateral displacement of the mandible

(C) anterior displacement of the maxilla

(D) superior displacement of the chin

201. Which approach is rarely used nowadays for the procedure?

(A) Extraoral approach

(B) Intraoral approach

(C) Rigid fixation

(D) Direct wiring

202. What is one advantage of the intraoral technique?

(A) Higher complication rate

(B) Increased need for skin incision

(C) More invasive procedure

(D) Decreased risk of damage to the mandibular branch of the facial nerve

203. What complications can arise from the procedure mentioned?

(A) Decreased risk of infection

(B) Improved mobility of the mandible

(C) Enhanced facial aesthetics

(D) Injury to the inferior alveolar and/or lingual nerves

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204. Mandibular deficiency is associated with which skeletal class?

(A) Skeletal class II

(B) Skeletal class I

(C) Skeletal class III

(D) Skeletal class IV

205. What facial feature is noted in mandible deficiency?

(A) Narrower forehead

(B) Wider jawline

(C) Excess labiomental fold

(D) Prominent cheekbones

206. How is the osteotomy performed in the intraoral approach?

(A) Using a traditional scalpel

(B) Using a laser

(C) Using an angulated oscillating saw

(D) Using hand instruments

207. What is a potential consequence of condylar sagging?

(A) Enhanced facial symmetry

(B) Change in jaw alignment

(C) Improved bite function

(D) Reduced risk of nerve injury

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208. Mandibular retrognathism results in what appearance for the chin?

(A) Protruded position

(B) Level with the lips

(C) Retruded position

(D) Prominently forward

209. What does IMF stand for in the context of the procedure?

(A) Intraoral muscular function

(B) Intermaxillary fixation

(C) Invasive manual fixation

(D) Intraoral maxillary fracture

210. What might result from a skeletal relapse?

(A) Return to previous skeletal form

(B) Increased bone density

(C) Improved skeletal stability

(D) Permanent alteration of bone structure

211. what is often observed in patients with mandibular retrognathism?

(A) abnormal posture of the upper lip

(B) excessive vertical chin projection

(C) normal posture of the upper lip

(D) increased mobility of the jaw

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212. which technique is most popular for correcting mandibular retrognathism?

(A) class II molar relationship

(B) BSSO with mandibular advancement

(C) genioplasty only

(D) removal of the lower jaw

213. what is the purpose of a genioplasty?

(A) removal of the chin

(B) elongating the jaw

(C) narrowing the upper lip

(D) advancement of the chin

214. how is genioplasty typically performed?

(A) without any incision

(B) by just suturing the chin

(C) through an intraoral incision from canine to canine

(D) through an external incision on the chin

215. what may be used to stabilize the mandible during genioplasty?

(A) transosseous wiring, screws, or plates

(B) metal rods only

(C) nothing, it's self-stabilizing

(D) only sutures

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216. what can be achieved with genioplasty besides chin repositioning?

(A) lengthening of the jaw only

(B) fixation of teeth

(C) vertical reduction or augmentation and correction of asymmetries

(D) closing of the jaw gaps

217. what relationship can typically be found intraorally in cases of mandibular

retrognathism?

(A) class I molar relationships

(B) normal occlusal relationships

(C) class II molar and canine relationships

(D) class III canine relationships

218. what type of materials can occasionally be used in genioplasty?

(A) liquid fillers

(B) sutures only

(C) natural bone only

(D) alloplastic materials

219. what is maxillary excess?

(A) excessive growth of the maxilla

(B) insufficient growth of the maxilla

(C) shrinkage of the maxilla

(D) normal growth of the maxilla

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220. what may result from vertical maxillary excess?

(A) widening of the nasal bridge

(B) elongation of the lower third of the face

(C) increased jaw strength

(D) shortening of the upper face

221. which dental occlusions may patients with maxillary excess exhibit?

(A) only class I

(B) only class II

(C) class I, class II, or class III

(D) only class III

222. what characterizes transverse maxillary deficiency?

(A) normal bite

(B) anterior cross-bite relationship

(C) posterior cross-bite relationship

(D) overbite relationship

223. what facial profile is typically associated with anteroposterior maxillary

excess?

(A) convex facial profile

(B) concave facial profile

(C) straight facial profile

(D) flat facial profile

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224. what surgical procedure is performed to correct maxillary deformities?

(A) Genioplasty

(B) Bimaxillary surgery

(C) Le Fort I osteotomy

(D) Rhinoplasty

225. how is the maxilla repositioned during Le Fort I osteotomy?

(A) superiorly

(B) posteriorly

(C) inferiorly

(D) laterally

226. which feature is commonly noted in patients with vertical maxillary excess?

(A) less prominent chin

(B) increased upper lip length

(C) excessive inci sive and gingival exposure

(D) retracted gums

227. what is a common characteristic of the nose in patients with vertical

maxillary excess?

(A) hooked nose

(B) narrow nose at the alar base

(C) normal nose width

(D) broad nose

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228. what is one effect of transverse maxillary deficiency on the palate?

(A) constricted palate

(B) widened palate

(C) normal palate

(D) decreased palate height

229. How does the mandible rotate in cases of maxillary deficiency?

(A) Downward and backward

(B) Not at all

(C) Sideways

(D) Upward and forward

230. What are the potential directions for repositioning the maxilla?

(A) None

(B) Only horizontal

(C) Anteroposterior, superior, inferior, transverse

(D) Only vertical

231. What is a common clinical appearance of patients with maxillary deficiency?

(A) Retruded upper lip

(B) Symmetrical facial features

(C) Protruding lower lip

(D) Excessive tooth exposure

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232. What malocclusion is frequently seen in patients with maxillary deficiency?

(A) Class III malocclusion

(B) Class I malocclusion

(C) Class II malocclusion

(D) Open bite

233. What facial feature is associated with maxillary deficiency?

(A) High cheekbones

(B) Prominent chin

(C) Wide forehead

(D) Flat nose

234. What can be observed in patients smiling with maxillary deficiency?

(A) Excessive tooth exposure

(B) Upper lip elevation

(C) No change

(D) Inadequate tooth exposure

235. In which planes may maxillary deficiency occur?

(A) Only transverse

(B) Only anteroposterior

(C) Only vertical

(D) Anteroposterior, vertical, transverse

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236. How does maxillary deficiency affect the facial features?

(A) It enhances facial symmetry

(B) It enlarges the chin

(C) It causes abnormal facial features

(D) It has no effect

237. Which area is affected by maxillary deficiency in relation to the face?

(A) Forehead

(B) Eyebrow area

(C) Paranasal and infraorbital rim areas

(D) Jawline

238. What type of surgery might be indicated for maxillary repositioning?

(A) Sectioning into dentoalveolar segments

(B) Removal of the mandible

(C) Increasing forehead size

(D) Reshaping the nose

239. what is maxillary deficiency typically treated with?

(A) Le Fort III osteotomy

(B) bone grafting

(C) Le Fort II osteotomy

(D) Le Fort I osteotomy

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240. what may be required to improve bone healing and postoperative stability?

(A) chemical agents

(B) antibiotics

(C) bone grafting

(D) metal plates

241. what occurs when there is vertical maxillary deficiency?

(A) the nasal bones are removed

(B) the mandible is affected

(C) the maxilla cannot be repositioned

(D) the maxilla can be repositioned inferiorly

242. which osteotomy type is necessary for severe midface deformities?

(A) Le Fort II or III

(B) Le Fort I

(C) Le Fort V

(D) Le Fort IV

243. what surgical approach is used for Le Fort I osteotomy?

(A) nasal incision

(B) temporal incision

(C) extraoral incision

(D) intraoral incision

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244. what type of incision is made for the Le Fort I procedure?

(A) transverse incision

(B) horizontal incision

(C) circumvestibular incision

(D) vertical incision

245. what is advanced during Le Fort II or III osteotomies?

(A) the maxilla and malar bones

(B) the temporal bone

(C) the mandible

(D) the palatine bone

246. which syndromes commonly require Le Fort II or III procedures?

(A) Marfan syndrome

(B) Turner syndrome

(C) Apert or Crouzon syndrome

(D) Down syndrome

247. how is osteotomy typically performed during a Le Fort I osteotomy?

(A) with a laser

(B) using a screwdriver

(C) with a chisel

(D) using a bur or reciprocating saw

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248. what area does the incision for Le Fort I extend from?

(A) the second molar to the third molar

(B) the canine to the first molar

(C) the premolar to the second molar

(D) the first molar to the contralateral first molar

249. maxillary sinus depth

(A) 3 mm below the apices of the teeth

(B) 5 mm above the apices of the teeth

(C) at the level of the teeth

(D) 2 mm above the teeth

250. osteotomy completion tools

(A) chisels and hammers

(B) osteotomes and mallet

(C) scissors and forceps

(D) saw and drill

251. fixation method for maxilla

(A) three screws

(B) two plates

(C) four plates

(D) single plate

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252. purpose of Le Fort I segmental osteotomy

(A) correct malocclusions

(B) improve aesthetic appearance

(C) repair fractures

(D) reduce jaw size

253. types of Le Fort I osteotomy

(A) two-piece or three-piece

(B) single-piece only

(C) one-piece only

(D) four-piece and five-piece

254. possible complication from surgery

(A) facial muscle paralysis

(B) teeth alignment issues

(C) sinus infection

(D) infraorbital nerve injury

255. bleeding during surgery

(A) normal occurrence

(B) immediate complication

(C) delayed complication

(D) minor issue

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256. intervention for bleeding due to injury

(A) apply ice packs

(B) control large vessels

(C) administer medication

(D) perform stitch up

257. components of maxilla stabilization

(A) only horizontal support

(B) supportive muscle engagement

(C) vertical and horizontal stability

(D) only vertical support

258. osteotomy location during procedure

(A) lower jaw only

(B) upper jaw only

(C) lateral nasal wall and nasal septum

(D) forehead area

259. What can delayed bleeding result from after maxillary surgery?

(A) Ocular trauma

(B) Aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm formation

(C) Nasal obstruction

(D) Bone fusion

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260. What complication may arise from large osteotomy site defects?

(A) Nasal septum deviation

(B) Fibrous union

(C) Chronic sinusitis

(D) Upper jaw dislocation

261. What type of sinusitis can occur post-operatively?

(A) Acute and chronic maxillary sinusitis

(B) Viral sinusitis

(C) Ischemic sinusitis

(D) Allergic sinusitis

262. What anatomical feature may undergo buckling during maxillary surgery?

(A) Maxilla

(B) Mandible

(C) Zygomatic arch

(D) Nasal septum

263. What are rare complications of maxillary surgery mentioned?

(A) Ischemic necrosis of the maxilla

(B) Facial bruising

(C) Throat inflammation

(D) Dental plaque formation

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264. What is often necessary to treat combination deformities of the maxilla and

mandible?

(A) Facial fillers

(B) Bimaxillary orthognathic surgery

(C) Nasal septum correction

(D) Maxillary implants

265. What is the primary goal of bimaxillary orthognathic surgery?

(A) Improving dental hygiene

(B) Increasing jaw strength

(C) Achieving better occlusal, functional, and aesthetic results

(D) Reducing facial asymmetry

266. What is the most common type of combined osteotomies performed?

(A) Mandibular ramus osteotomy

(B) Chin osteotomy

(C) Genioplasty

(D) Le fort osteotomy

267. Fort I osteotomy is primarily used for

(A) gum disease treatment

(B) asymmetry treatment

(C) tooth extraction

(D) facial aesthetics

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268. Which surgical approaches are mentioned for treating asymmetry?

(A) orthodontic braces

(B) facial fillers

(C) maxillary and mandibular surgery

(D) dental implants

269. The main objectives after surgery include achieving

(A) breath freshening

(B) cavity prevention

(C) teeth whitening

(D) final tooth alignment and root parallelism

270. Which of the following is NOT listed as an objective in the postsurgical

treatment phase?

(A) final tooth alignment

(B) improving enamel strength

(C) ideal overbite and overjet

(D) maximal interdigitation

271. Distraction osteogenesis is mentioned as an alternative to

(A) oral hygiene practices

(B) dentistry education

(C) conventional osteotomy techniques

(D) orthodontic options

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272. Which limitation is addressed regarding conventional osteotomy?

(A) surgical recovery time

(B) dental material availability

(C) patient anesthesia

(D) soft tissue adaptation

273. Definitive periodontal and prosthetic treatment can start after

(A) all teeth are extracted

(B) post-surgical swelling reduces

(C) patient is comfortable

(D) final occlusal relationships are established

274. The ultimate aim in the postsurgical treatment phase includes achieving

ideal

(A) gum size

(B) tooth color

(C) jaw alignment

(D) centric occlusion

275. What is required for satisfactory jaw motion during the postsurgical phase?

(A) restorative formulas

(B) patient education

(C) stability of the osteotomy sites

(D) pain management

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276. Which type of surgery is indicated for severe skeletal deficiencies?

(A) distraction osteogenesis

(B) fillers

(C) root canal

(D) teeth whitening

277. what is a consequence of tissue adaptation failure after surgical

repositioning of bone segments?

(A) decreased pain

(B) improved healing

(C) enhanced tissue growth

(D) surgical relapse

278. what is distraction osteogenesis (DO)?

(A) a procedure to reduce swelling in joints

(B) a method to enhance nerve recovery

(C) an immediate bone replacement technique

(D) a process involving separation of bone segments for gradual growth

279. where can bone grafts be harvested from in cases of large bone movement

gaps?

(A) skull

(B) sternum

(C) femur

(D) iliac crest

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280. what does gradual tension on the distracting bone interface promote?

(A) continuous bone formation

(B) bone death

(C) muscle atrophy

(D) rapid healing without tension

281. which tissues undergo adaptive changes due to distraction osteogenesis?

(A) nerves only

(B) muscles and tendons

(C) fat tissue

(D) only bone tissue

282. what is the role of an appliance in distraction osteogenesis?

(A) to facilitate gradual and incremental separation of bone segments

(B) to reduce blood flow

(C) to immobilize the bone

(D) to repair nerves

283. what complications can arise due to excessive loading of TMJ structures?

(A) enhanced joint flexibility

(B) increased severity of neurosensory loss

(C) decreased range of motion

(D) reduced bone density

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284. how does stretching of nerves affect the body post-surgery?

(A) increased severity of neurosensory loss

(B) no effect

(C) improved sensory feedback

(D) reduction in pain sensitivity

285. what type of surgical sites can cause donor site morbidity when harvesting

bone grafts?

(A) non-surgical areas

(B) secondary surgical sites

(C) primary surgical sites

(D) only outpatient clinics

286. what happens to surrounding tissues during the adaptive changes of

distraction osteogenesis?

(A) they undergo various changes alongside bone adaptation

(B) they are replaced with new tissue

(C) they remain unchanged

(D) they begin to deteriorate

287. what is distraction histogenesis in the context of DO?

(A) a concept that includes bone and tissue regeneration

(B) technique for root canal therapy

(C) a form of dental implants

(D) a method for tooth whitening

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288. what is the primary purpose of the DO technique?

(A) to align teeth for cosmetic purposes

(B) to correct significant transverse deficiency of the maxilla

(C) to remove decay from teeth

(D) to enhance tooth enamel

289. how is SARPE performed?

(A) by placing an expansion device and completing a Le Fort I osteotomy

(B) by solely using braces

(C) by surgical extraction of teeth

(D) through the application of veneers

290. what makes the correction of transverse deficiency challenging with

conventional methods?

(A) insufficient patient involvement

(B) its significant nature

(C) lack of available technology

(D) the ease of execution

291. what surgical procedure is performed along with the SARPE technique?

(A) glenoid fossa reconstruction

(B) implants placement

(C) BSSO

(D) Le Fort I osteotomy

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292. what type of tissue limitations can complicate corrections for patients with

cleft lip and palate?

(A) soft tissue limitations

(B) dental caries

(C) hard tissue overgrowth

(D) periodontal disease

293. what does the term 'latency period' refer to in the SARPE process?

(A) the time before the expansion device is activated

(B) the healing period after surgery

(C) the length of the hospital stay

(D) the duration of orthodontic treatment

294. what aspect of tooth structure is affected by performing a midline cut along

the midpalatal suture?

(A) stabilization of occlusal surfaces

(B) separation between the central incisors

(C) extension of dental arch

(D) enhancement of molar occlusion

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295. why might single-stage correction be prevented in patients with cleft lip and

palate?

(A) due to poor hygiene

(B) as a result of age

(C) because of the lack of teeth

(D) due to soft tissue limitations from scarring

296. how does distraction osteogenesis differ from traditional orthodontic

treatment?

(A) it involves surgical intervention for correction

(B) it does not utilize any surgical methods

(C) it requires longer treatment times

(D) it relies solely on braces

297. What is the first phase of Distraction Osteogenesis (DO)?

(A) Distraction phase

(B) Consolidation phase

(C) Latency phase

(D) Surgical phase

298. During which phase does early stages of bone healing begin?

(A) Latency phase

(B) Surgical phase

(C) Consolidation phase

(D) Distraction phase

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299. How long does the latency phase generally last?

(A) 5 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 7 days

(D) 10 days

300. What is the distraction rate during the distraction phase?

(A) 0.25 mm/day

(B) 2 mm/day

(C) 1 mm/day

(D) 0.5 mm/day

301. How often is the distraction appliance activated each day during the

distraction phase?

(A) Three times

(B) Once

(C) Twice

(D) Four times

302. What is the new bone that forms during the distraction phase called?

(A) Callus bone

(B) Regenerate bone

(C) Immature bone

(D) Distraction bone

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303. What happens during the consolidation phase?

(A) The appliance is removed

(B) Bone healing stops

(C) The appliance remains in place

(D) Distraction continues

304. What happens at the osteotomy-bone interface during the latency phase?

(A) Bone healing begins

(B) Osteotomy is performed

(C) Bone is distracted

(D) Consolidation occurs

305. What is meant by the term 'rate of distraction'?

(A) The total distraction achieved

(B) The timing of bone healing

(C) The speed of recovery

(D) The amount of activation per day

306. What term refers to the timing of appliance activation each day?

(A) Rhythm

(B) Rate of distraction

(C) Frequency

(D) Activation schedule

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307. What type of appliance can be used during the surgical phase of DO?

(A) Only extraoral

(B) Intraoral or extraoral

(C) None of the above

(D) Only intraoral

308. What characterizes the distraction phase in terms of bone formation?

(A) Absence of bone formation

(B) Completion of bone healing

(C) Formation of immature bone

(D) Resorption of bone

309. what is the main purpose of the distraction osteogenesis (DO) process?

(A) to reduce treatment time significantly

(B) to eliminate the need for orthodontics

(C) to improve aesthetic appearance quickly

(D) to allow for the mineralization of the regenerate bone

310. what occurs during the remodeling phase of DO?

(A) the initial positioning of the distractors

(B) the placement of bone grafts

(C) the application of normal functional loads to the bone

(D) the assessment of neurosensory loss

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311. what is one advantage of distraction osteogenesis?

(A) elimination of the need for bone grafts

(B) faster recovery time

(C) reduced need for follow-up appointments

(D) increased reliance on pain medication

312. which is a noted disadvantage of distraction osteogenesis?

(A) higher success rates than bone grafts

(B) fewer appointments with healthcare providers

(C) immediate functional recovery

(D) the requirement for two surgical procedures

313. how does distraction osteogenesis affect the temporomandibular joint

(TMJ)?

(A) it usually causes more dysfunction

(B) it inflicts less trauma compared to other procedures

(C) it has no effect on the TMJ

(D) it accelerates degenerative changes

314. what can result from improper positioning of the distraction appliance?

(A) small open bites or asymmetries

(B) decreased treatment costs

(C) immediate bone regeneration

(D) faster appointment scheduling

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315. why might patients experience longer treatment times with distraction

osteogenesis?

(A) less complexity of the prosthetics used

(B) the absence of follow-up care

(C) more frequent appointments with surgeon and orthodontist

(D) the simplicity of the procedure

316. what aspect of distraction osteogenesis can lead to increased costs?

(A) the use of automatic bone regeneration techniques

(B) the need for both placement and removal procedures

(C) the simplicity in training healthcare providers

(D) the availability of pre-made distractors

317. what is a potential outcome of better long-term stability associated with

DO?

(A) reduced likelihood of further surgical interventions

(B) more frequent follow-ups for adjustments

(C) increased discomfort post-treatment

(D) higher rates of nerve damage

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