PRESENTS

PREVIOUS YEARS CHAPTERWISE

QUESTION PAPERS (2010- 2024)

3RD PROFESSIONAL MBBS PART 1

COMPILED BY: ARKAPROBHA MONDAL

EDITED BY: KAUSHIK PAL
RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

COMMUNITY MEDICINE
SYLLABUS & PROBABLE PAPER DISTRIBUTION

PAPER 1 PAPER 2
 Concepts of Health and Disease  Demography and family planning
 Epidemiology  Preventive medicine in Obstetrics,
 Epidemiology of Communicable and Paediatrics and Geriatrics
Non-communicable diseases  Nutrition and Health
 Environment and health  Occupational Health
 Hospital waste management  Communication for Health
 Health Information and basic Education
medical statistics  Health Planning and Management
 Disaster Management  Health Care of the Community
 Health Programs in India  Medicine and Social Science
 International Health
 Genetics and Health

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REFERENCES FROM
K. PARK (27TH EDITION) {PAGE NO.}

CONCEPT OF HEALTH & DISEASES

LONG QUESTIONS:
1) Enumerate the determinants of health. How environmental and socio-economic
conditions act as determinants of health in a community? (2023) 18-20
2) What is meant by natural history of disease? Describe the different stages with
suitable illustration. Explain how the concept of prevention can be applied in relation
to different stages. (2022) 41, 47
3) Define Health. Enumerate the various indicators of Health. What is “Health for All”?
2+7+3 ('20) 14, 24, 37
4) What are the characteristics of an ideal indicator? Enumerate the morbidity
indicators. Briefly describe the Infant mortality rate and case fatality rate. ('18) 24-26
5) Enumerate the levels of prevention & modes of intervention in each level. Discuss
the level of prevention in context of diabetes. 4+8 (’16) 47, 49
6) What do you mean by indicators of health? Write down the different disability rates
with example. What is the concept of disability limitation? 4+3+5(‘15)? 24
7) Describe the natural history of disease, briefly discuss the different levels of
prevention and modes of intervention as applied to Pulmonary Tuberculosis. 4+8('14)
41, 47-50, 212
8) What do you mean by multifactorial causation of disease? Describe with suitable
examples. 6+6 (2013) 40
9) Enumerate the determinants of health. How do socio economic conditions act as one
of the determinants of health? 4+8 (2011) 18, 20

SHORT NOTES:
1) Human development Index (HDI). (2022) 17
2) Iceberg phenomenon of disease. ('19) 46
3) Sources of health information. ('18) 968
4) DALY ('14,17) 26
5) Human Development Index. ('11) 17
6) Healthy lifestyles. ('10) 19
7) Cost effectiveness analysis in health ('21) 999

EXPLAIN WHY:
1) Community diagnosis is the first step towards community health action. (2023P1) 56
2) We need to be more careful about the hidden part of the iceberg. (2022 P1) 46
3) Goals and Objectives are not synonymous. (2022 P1)
4) There are differences between primordial & primary prevention. (20 P1) 48
5) Primordial prevention is a subset of primary prevention (2015 P2) 48
6) WHO definition of ‘Health’ has defect (2012 PI) 14

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PRINCIPLES OF EPIDEMIOLOGY & EPIDEMIOLOGIC

METHODS
LONG QUESTIONS:

1) ASHAs of a sub-centre in 'X' district reported an outbreak of fever with rash cases of
under five children in the month of February 2024. HMIS data shows poor
immunisation coverage in this sub-centre for the year 2023 with lots of 'left out' and
'drop out' cases. What do you mean by an outbreak? What stands for 'left out' and
"drop out' cases? As an administrative officer of district 'X', how will you investigate
this outbreak? 1+2+2+10 (2024) 147
2) How epidemiological studies are classified? Briefly describe the steps of case control
study to find out the association between lung cancer and smoking. 4+6 (2023) 70,
79-82
3) Write the National Immunization Schedule for under five children. What is cold chain?
Write dos and don’ts while handling a vaccine carrier loaded with vaccine. 6+2+4
(2022 P1) 116, 132, 135
4) What is epidemiology? Write down the differences between case-control and cohort
study. Enumerate different types of biases in analytical epidemiological studies.
2+6+4 (2022 P1) 60, 81, 87
5) Classify epidemiological studies. Explain the epidemiological feature of cyclic trend &
secular trend in disease occurrence with example. What is confounding in
epidemiological studies? 4+6+2 (2021 P1) 70, 73-74, 80
6) Give a brief account of different types of human reservoir of infection. Describe in
brief the methods of controlling reservoir 6+6 (2019 P1) 103, 132
7) Give a step-by-step description of how to conduct a descriptive cross-sectional study
to assess the extent of overweight and obesity among medical students of your
institution. 12 (2019 P1) 71-78
8) Enlist the types of epidemiological studies. Discuss the importance of incubation
period in epidemiological studies, Describe different time trends in disease
occurrence. 3+4+5 (2017 P1) 70, 73
9) Define epidemiology. How can you estimate the disease risk in case control study?
What are the biases in case control study including the process of elimination as
applicable? 2+4+6 (2016 P1) 60, 81
10) Describe the salient features of different types of time trends in disease occurrence
with suitable examples. What are the different possible changes over time that you
should keep in mind while interpreting time trends 9+3 (14 P1) 72-74
11) In your district immunisation rate has fallen to 50%. How would you investigate to find
out the reason? How do you concurrently try to increase the immunization rate? 6+6
(2012 P1)
12) What are the different types of epidemics? How would you investigate an epidemic of
fever in your block? 4+8 (2012 P1) 72, 147
13) Define epidemiology? Enlist the type of epidemiological studies. Briefly explain the
merits and demerits of case control and cohort study design. 2+4+6 (10 P1) 60, 70,
82, 87
14) A 7days old baby is brought to your OPD with excessive cry, refusal of feed &
convulsions. Discuss diagnosis, case management & preventive studies as per
national immunization program? 12 (2010 P1) AEFI, 123

SHORT NOTES:
1) Importance of incubation period. ('21) 107
2) Population attributable risk. ('19) 86

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3) Triple blinding in epidemiological studies (16) 91

EXPLAIN WHY:
1) Bias and confounding are not synonymous. (2024) 80-81
2) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine has been introduced into NIS. (2023P1) 113
3) Natural history of disease is best established by cohort study. (2023 P1) 83
4) Pulse polio program is still going on. (2022 P1) 247
5) Carriers, though less infectious are epidemiologically dangerous. (2017 P1) 103
6) Use of auto disable syringes in national immunisation program has several
advantages. (2017 P2)
7) Significance of a false positive screening test. (2016 P2)
8) Cohort studies are not always prospective (2015 P1) 84
9) Carriers are more danger than cases (2013,09 P1)
10) Carrier stage of a disease is not amenable to control. (2010 P1)
11) AEFI include events beyond side effects of vaccines (2011 P1) 123

SCREENING FOR DISEASES

SHORT QUESTIONS:
1) Interpretation of false negatives of a screening test ('12) 156
2) Multiphasic screening ('18) 153
3) Significance of a false positive screening test. (16) 156

EXPLAIN WHY:
1) Monitoring & surveillance are not synonymous. (2023, 20 P1) 46
2) Screening and case finding are not synonymous (2022,13 P1) 152
3) Ideal screening test needs some criteria to be fulfilled (2020 P1) 153
4) Screening and diagnostic test differ. (2018 P1) 151
5) Screening test and diagnostic test are not synonymous (2015 P1)
6) Sensitivity and specificity of a screening test are inversely related (2014 P1) 155
7) Sentinel surveillance of disease is better than periodic mass screening (2010 P1) 46

EPIDEMIOLOGY & COMMUNICABLE DISEASE

LONG QUESTIONS:

1) One adult man has attended your hospital with complaints of fever, emaciation,
abdominal swelling and darkening of skin. He had history of travel to Bihar. What is
the most probable diagnosis? How the disease can be treated? What are the
preventive and control measures for the disease? 1+4+5+5 (2024) 355, 480
Leishmaniasis
2) A 10-year-old boy, scratch by street cat on left leg with oozing of scanty blood.
Wound was washed casually by water stored in a bucket. Wound has been dressed
along with inj. TT, and then referred to emergency dept of a MC. Write down line of
management for the boy in present situation. Describe preventive measures for
controlling the disease. 10+5 (2023 P1) 360-362

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3) A 25-year-old person presented in OPD of a primary health centre with cough and
fever for one-month, occasional blood-streaked sputum, and weight loss. Write down
the diagnostic algorithm for the suspected disease as per the relevant national
programme. Mention the treatment regimen for drug sensitive cases for adults
according to the programme.6+6 (2022 P1) 214-217, 220-221
4) What are the different modes of transmission of covid 19 infection? Who are high risk
groups? Discuss its prevention.4+4+4(2021 P1) 194, 196, 204.
5) Mention the objectives of RNTCP. Discuss the new protocol for diagnosing a case of
pulmonary tuberculosis & steps of management. 2+5+5 (2020 P2) 214, 220, 486
6) A case of dog bite has reported to your health centre. How will you categorize the
dog bite injury? Describe the local treatment of the wound. Discuss the various
available schedules of anti-rabies treatment to be provided as per category of the
wound. 3+3+6 (2020, 2019, 2014, 2012, 2010, 2009 P1) 324-325
7) What are the cardinal signs of leprosy? How will you classify & treat a case of leprosy
according to NLEP guidelines? What are the important complications of leprosy?
{How to diagnose & modes of preventions} 2+7+3 (2020P1) 362, 365, 372.
8) There has been a report of deaths owing to Dengue in your district Hospital. How will
you manage the situation & take preventive measures to control the problem? {How
dengue can be diagnosed} 6+6 (2020, related 2016,2013, 2010 P1) 293-299
9) Vaccination campaign against Measles and Rubella is going to start in a block.
Prepare appropriate health education plan for this campaign. 12 (2019 P2)
10) After attending school picnic, large number of students developed diarrhoea and
vomiting within 12 hours. How will you investigate the problem 12 (2019, 2015 P1)
265
11) Enumerate diseases under National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme
(NVBDCP). Write down a brief note on integrated vector control. Describe in brief the
national drug policy 2014 on Malaria. 4+4+4 (2018,2015 P1) 307, 472, 477
12) A sputum positive pulmonary TB patient was found sputum smear +ve after 5 months
of treatment with category –I. what is your inference about the case? What is the next
line management as per RNTCP 2+10 (2017 P1) 211, 221
13) A six-month-old child was brought by the mother at OPD, presenting with loose stool
for more than three times with vomiting from last night. On examination, the child was
found restless and drinking eagerly. Classify the disease. Outline the management.
What information you want to make the mother aware of the situation? 4+6+2 (2017
P1) 263, 265
14) Significant numbers of cases of jaundice were reported from an urban locality. As a
health expert how do you investigate it & what remedial measures do you suggest for
the problems 6+6 (2017 P1) 250
15) Mention the modes of transmission of HIV or AIDS, Explain the role of high-risk group
and bridge population in HIV transmission, Outline the strategies undertaken in
national program to reduce transmission from high-risk group. 2+3+7 (2016 P1) 395-
396, 502
16) Cases of adverse events following immunisation (AEFI) are being reported from sub
centres of a Block. Due to apprehensions among people dropouts for Immunisation
are also being increased. How the AEFI are classified – mention with examples.
Describe important health managerial functions / measures needed to be undertaken
to address and overcome the problems in that Block. 4+8 (2014 P2) 123, 126

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17) Illustrate how the levels of prevention and modes of intervention can be applied to
Poliomyelitis. 12 (2010 P1)

SHORT NOTES:

1) Intra-dermal rabies vaccination. (2013 P1) 325

2) Chemotherapy of Multi-bacillary Leprosy. (2012 P1) 371
4) Hepatitis B vaccine. ('10) 254

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Zinc is important in the treatment of diarrhea (2023 P1) 268

2) Tuberculosis is an old disease but a new threat. (2021 P1)
3) Isolation & quarantine are not synonymous. (2021,16 P1) 133
4) AIDS is a behavioural disease. (2020 P1) 392
5) Rehabilitation is an integral part of leprosy control. (2019 P1) 376
6) Sputum smear examination is the method of choice for finding in TB (2015 P1) 214
7) Hepatitis B infection should be considered more dangerous than HIV infection
(2013P1) 251
8) All influenza pandemics are caused by influenza A and not by B or C (2012 P1) 172
9) Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme gives priority on detection of new
smear positive cases (2012 P1)
10) Vitamin A supplementation is necessary after Measles infection (2011 P1) 166
11) Role pre-test counselling for HIV/AIDS is useful (2010 P1)
12) Role of IPV in polio eradication (2010 P1) 244

EPIDEMIOLOGY OF NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES

LONG QUESTIONS:

1) What are the risk factors for development of breast cancer? How will you screen a
suspected case of breast cancer? What is cancer registry? (4+4+2) (2024) 439, 442
2) What is carcinoma-in-situ? Mention its importance. How is the screening of cervical
cancer done at community level? Enumerate the risk factors of cervical cancer.
2+4+5+4 (2023 P1) 439, 441
3) Name 4 non-communicable diseases of public health importance in India. Describe
risk factors and preventive measures of one of the mentioned non-communicable
diseases. 2+5+5 (2022 P1)
4) Risk factor of hypertension is multiple. Identify the modifiable risk factors for
hypertension & briefly discuss the non-pharmacologic components in management of
hypertension. 4+8 (2021 P1) 428-429
5) A 35-year sedentary obese man with smoking habit is found to have blood pressure
of 126/100 mm. of Hg. How will you classify this blood pressure? Describe the
management with special emphasis on diet of the person. 4+8 (2018 P1) 426-429
6) Many school students in your block are found suffering from reduce ability to see the
board-work by the teachers in the classroom .as BMOH how will you manage the
situation 12 (2018 P1) 458

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7) What do you mean by Essential Hypertension? What is prevalence in India? What

are the risk factors for it? What preventive measures should you take to reduce
prevalence and complication due to hypertension? 2+2+3+5 (2015 P1) 426-429
8) Rising trends in the occurrence of diabetes has been observed throughout India.
Describe the epidemiological determinants of diabetes. Discuss the methods of
primary prevention of type 2 diabetes. 7+5 (2014 P1) 448, 450
9) What are the early signs of cancer? Describe in brief of the epidemiology of oral
cancer and its primary level of prevention. 4+4+4 (2013 P1) 438
10) What are the risk factors of coronary heart diseases? Describe the different
measures to prevent and control of coronary heart diseases, 8+4 (2012 P1) 420-423

SHORT NOTES

1) Lifestyle management to prevent Diabetes Mellitus. (2022 P1) 449

2) Social factors related to mental health problem (2021 P2)
3) Modifiable risk factors of hypertension. (2017,14 P2) 428
4) Cancer registry. (2016) 438

EXPLAIN WHY

1) Majority of blindness can be prevented. (17) 458

2) BMI is the best of all indices of obesity. ('15) 453
3) Lung cancer can be prevented by primary preventive Measures-Justify. (12) 444

HEALTH PROGRAMMES IN INDIA

LONG QUESTIONS

1) A 2-year-old male child presented at the immunisation clinic. His weight is between -
2SD and -3SD for his age. What measures will you take for his management under
the ICDS scheme? Enumerate the beneficiaries under the scheme. Discuss the
services provided under this scheme. 5+4+6 (2024)
2) What is full form of ASHA? Write down the eligibility criteria for selecting ASHA in
West Bengal. Give a brief outline of role of ASHA in maternal and new-born care,
2+4+6 (2019 P2) 516, 700
3) What do you mean Essential Obstetric Care? What are the services delivered under
Essential Obstetric Care according to RCH II programme? What is the importance of
Maternal Death review? 2+7+3 (2015 P2) 519, 520, 522
4) What are the health problems of adolescent? Mention the National Programmes
concerning improvement of adolescent health. Outline four important health
educational messages for benefit of an adolescent girl. 3+9 (2014 P2) 532
5) Enumerate different components of ICDS programme. 12 (2013 P2) 674
6) Mention the package of services under RCH programme. Outline as to how the
services are provided through different levels of health care facilities available in a
block. 4+8 (2013 P2) 518

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7) Enumerate the different vector borne diseases, Describe the principle of vector
control programme according to the existing National Programme. 4+8 (2012 P2)
477
8) Enumerate major causes of blindness in India. Outline the strategies adopted for
control blindness under National Programme. 4+8 (2011 P1) 503, 456

SHORT NOTES

1) Laboratory network under RNTCP (2016 P1) 487

2) Janani – Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, (2022 P2) 522
3) Village Health & Nutrition Day (VHND).('21, 14)
4) Integrated vector management. ('12)

EXPLAIN WHY

1) ICTC should be supported by ART/link ART Centre -- Explain. ('14)

2) A Revised ICDS growth chart currently in operation differ from earlier one- Explain.
('11)
3) ASHA links health care delivery with community. ('10) 700

DEMOGRAPHY AND FAMILY PLANNING

LONG QUESTIONS:

1) A 25-year-old mother with 2 children aged 5 years and 1 year has come to the OPD
for family planning advice. Discuss different methods of contraception to the mother
with merits and demerits. Enumerate the fertility indicators. What do you mean by
NRR 1? (10+4+1) (2024) 563, 564, 568
2) Define 'Dependency ratio. What is "Demographic burden" and " Demographic
Bonus"? Discuss the measures available to prevent declining sex ratio. 2+4+4 (2024)
559
3) Describe the modern contraceptive methods approved for use in India. What is the
‘Cafeteria Choice’? How are the contraceptive services delivered to the community in
a rural area? 6+2+2 (2023 P2) 588, 568
4) In a Block in W.B, Couple Protection rate is much less as compared to neighbouring
blocks. What measures will you take as BMOH to improve the situation? Mention
Goals of National Population policy. 9+3 (2020 P2) 568,?
5) A 28-year-old mother with children aged 4 year and 1 year, has come to you for
family planning advice.Describe different methods of contraception that can be
offered to her with merits and demerits, 12 (2018 P2)
6) Write down the National Socio Demographic Goals for 2015. Outline the steps for
evaluation of Family Planning Programme, 6+6 (2015 P2) 593
7) Define “sex ratio”. What are the factors behind declining sex ratio in India? What are
the measures adopted to correct the situation? 2+4+6 (2015 P2) 558+?

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8) In a block of Nadia district CPR (couple protection rate) is less in comparison to

neighbouring blocks. What are the social causes of poor CPR and what measures
will you take up as a BMOH to improve the situation? 4+8 (2014P2) ?

SHORT NOTES:

1) Injectable contraceptives. (2022, 20) 577

2) Merits of a joint family. ('20) 799
3) Stages of demographic cycle. ('19) 554
4) Prioritisation in health planning. ('19)
5) Family physician. ('18)
6) Unmet need for family planning. (11) 585

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Acculturation has both merits & demerits (2022 P2) 787

2) Demographic transition has a role in economic growth of nation (2022 P2)
3) Census is an important source of health information (2021 P1) 968
4) Declining sex ratio had many adverse consequences (2021 P2)
5) Sample registration system provides more reliable estimates of birth and death rates
at the national and state level than other existing systems. (2019 P1)
6) Family as a unit of health. (2019 P2) 799
7) Family performs many functions (2018 P2) 799
8) India is in the third stage of the demographic cycle. (2016 P2) 554
9) NRR may be regarded superior method to GRR for measuring population growth (15
P2) 564
10) Population pyramid is important for public health. (2014 P2) 557

PREVENTIVE MEDICINE IN OBSTETRICS, PAEDIATRICS

AND GERIATRICS
LONG QUESTIONS:

1) Prevalence of anaemia among pregnant women is high compared to state and

national average in the block of your posting. On enquiry, the ANMs reported that the
pregnant women are unwilling to consume IFA tablets given to them during antenatal
check-ups. As BMOH of the block, design an implementation plan to address the
issue. 10 (2024)
2) Define perinatal mortality rate. Mention the different causes of perinatal mortality in
India. What are the goals of India Newborn Action Plan (INAP)? 2+8+2 (2022 P2)
642, 643
3) Define Geriatrics. Enumerate the common health problems of elderly in our country.
Discuss their control and preventive measures, 2+5+5 (2022 P2) 677-679
4) Define infant mortality rate (IMR). Mention important cause of IMR. Describe
important socio-cultural factors affecting infant mortality. 2+5+5 (2021 P2) 647-649

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5) What are the different maternal health problem in India. Explain antenatal care. 6+6
(2021 P2) 598-605
6) Define Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR). Outline of the strategies under national
programme to bring down the maternal mortality in India. Give a brief account of
Maternal Death Review at community level. 12 (2019 P2) 635, 640
7) Considering its effect on present and future lives of children, name the most
important anthropometric indicator of undernutrition with justification. Enumerate the
components of IYCF. Write down the steps of counselling of a woman with a three-
month-old child and complaining of ‘not enough milk. 3+4+5 (2019 P2)
8) A recently delivered (2 weeks back) mother has come for check-up. Mention the
components of post-natal check-up. What might be the post-natal complications?
What measures can be taken to improve post-natal care at community level (18 P2)
606
9) In a block of west Bengal, recent statistics showed a lower rate of institutional
delivery. As a health administrator of, that block, what measures you like to adopt for
improving institutional delivery in your block. 12 (2017 P2)
10) What do you mean by neonatal mortality? Why is it so important? Write in brief the
components of essential newborn care with special reference to breast feeding.
2+3+7(2016 P2) 608, 643
11) Define “Low Birth Weight “. What is its prevalence in India and the target to achieve?
What measures would yoų like to adopt as BMOH to reduce the Low Birth Weight in
your block. 2+2+8 (2015 P2) 611-614
12) Define Maternal mortality ratio and maternal mortality rate. Describe the important
cultural and social factor affecting infant mortality. 4+4+4 (2014 P2) 635, 649
13) Prepare an action plan to conduct an IEC campaign in your block to reduce anaemia
among pregnant women. 12 (2010 P2)

SHORT NOTES:

1) Birth preparedness and complication readiness. (2024)

2) IMR current scenario in India. (2022) 647
3) Facility based newborn care. (2016)
4) Geriatrics health problems. ('15)
5) Juvenile delinquency. ('15,13,) 665
6) PNDT Act. (13)
7) Health problems of Geriatric population. (13) 677
8) Child labour. ('12) 668
9) Kangaroo care. ('12) 615

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Home based neonatal care is an essential intervention in preventing neonatal death.

(2023 P2) 608
2) Breast milk is deal & only food for infants till 6 months of age. (2021 P2) 606
3) FRUS will reduce MMR. (2017, 09 P2)
4) Apart from growth monitoring, ‘Growth chart’ has many other uses (2015,10 P2) 623
5) Institutional deliveries can reduce maternal mortality to a great extent (2010 P2)

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NUTRITION AND HEALTH

LONG QUESTIONS:

1) A 5-year-old boy is taken to Paediatric OPD. His mother says that he cannot see
properly in dim light during night. On examination, triangular pearly white foamy spots
were found on bulbar conjunctiva of both the eyes. 1+5+3+2+4 730-731, Vit. A
deficiency
a) Which micronutrient is responsible for above condition?
b) Describe the symptoms and sign of that micronutrient deficiency.
c) How the boy can be treated?
d) What are the dietary sources of’ that micronutrient?
e) Briefly describe the National Health Program related to this health problem.
2) Many children are reported to be suffering from severe acute malnutrition in a rural
block of a district. Briefly mention the steps that can be taken for screening and
management of these cases. 4+8 (2022, 2012 P2) 766-768
3) How do you assess the nutritional status of family? Explain Diet survey & its types.
6+6 (2020, 2017P2) 762, 764
4) Mention the causes and detrimental effects of nutritional anaemia. Describe the
measures undertaken to combat anaemia among adolescents according to national
Program. 4+4+4 (2018 P2) 757
5) Name the important inorganic chemicals of health significance present in ground
water of West Bengal. Describe in brief the health effects & control measures of
anyone. 2+5+5 (2017 P1)
6) Enlist the disorders caused by iodine deficiency. What are the strategies to control
iodine deficiency disorders in India? 6+6 (2017 P2) 505, 739
7) What is a balanced diet? Enumerate different nutritional problems prevalent in India.
How primary prevention plays an important role in prevention of protein energy
undernutrition 2+4+6 (2017 P2) 767, 751, 753.
8) Define malnutrition. How will you assess the quality of a protein? Name the nutritional
programme currently available in India. Discuss any one of them. 2+3+2+5 (2016 P2)
749, 775, 766
9) Enumerate four major nutritional problems in our country. How would you assess the
nutritional status of the under five in a community? 2+10 (2012 P2) 753, 762
10) What is malnutrition? Discuss its prevention strategies in terms of different levels of
preventions. 4+8 (2011 P2) 766-768
11) Enumerate different types of food intoxicants. Suggest measures to control epidemic
dropsy in your area. 12 (2010 P2) 771-772

SHORT NOTES:

1) Food fortification (2023) 773

2) Foods additives. ('20) 762, 772
3) Prevention of IDD. ('20) 505
4) Endemic fluorosis (17) 758
5) Neurolathyrism (17) 759
6) Pasteurization of milk. (16) 769

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7) Food safety. (’16) 774

8) Spectrum of iodine deficiency disorders. ('11) 739
9) common homemade oral rehydration solution. ('10)

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Dietary fibre has protective role in individual diet. (2024) 729

2) Parboiled rice is nutritionally superior to milled rice. (2021,18,11 P2) 741
3) Iodisation of salt is a good example of food fortification. (2020 P2)
4) Vitamin A deficiency is related to many ocular & extra ocular manifestations (2020
P2) 730
5) Combining rice and pulse in diet is a good practice. (2019 P2)
6) Zinc is given with ORS in treatment of ‘Diarrhoea (2018 P2) See diarrhoea of
communicable diseases.
7) ORS is an example of appropriate technology. (2018 P2)
8) Supplementary nutrition & therapeutic nutrition is different. (2017 P2)
9) Food additives and food adulteration are not synonymous. (2013 P2) 772-773
10) Short term high dose Vit. A supplementation is useful for prevention of
Xerophthalmia. (2012 P2) 756

ENVIRONMENT & HEALTH

LONG QUESTIONS

1) What is 'smog'? The AQI of your city is falling within the range of 200-300 during the
last 7 days in the month of March. What will be the health effects of the above
situation? What measures can be adopted to tackle the situation? (2+4+4) (2024)
860, 864-865
2) Enumerate the sources of air pollution. Name any four air pollutants. Describe the
effects of air pollution. How air pollution can be controlled? (2022) 860, 864-865
3) Mention the characteristics of safe & wholesome water. Classify water borne
diseases. Briefly discuss the three methods for water purification at household
level.2+4+6('21) 833, 837, 843
4) What are the causes of air pollution? Mention its effects on human health. How air
pollution can be prevented and controlled? ('19) 860, 864-865
5) Define "safe and wholesome water". Discuss the different tests for the bacteriological
surveillance of drinking water.4+8(’13) 833, 847.

SHORT NOTES

1) Bacteriological Surveillance of water quality. ('15) 847

2) Biological treatment of sewage. ('13) 890
3) Principle of chlorination of water. ('13) 841
4) Hazards of noise pollution. ('11) 869
5) Sanitary landfill. ('11) 881

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

6) Water borne diseases. ('10) 837

7) Types of ventilation (’17) 866
8) Bacterial indicators of drinking water quality (’17) 8477
9) Biological filter. ('20) 838
10) Indoor air pollution. ('18) 862
11) Biochemical oxygen demand ('21) 888
12) Sanitation barrier. (2018) 883

EXPLAIN WHY

1) The mere addition of chlorine to water is not chlorination. (2019 P1) 841
2) Integrated vector management is the most effective method of vector control.
(2016 P1) See Health Program
3) Overcrowding is a health hazard (2013 P1) 879
4) Sanitation barrier aims at breaking the transmission cycle of faecal borne
Diseases (2011 P1) 883

HOSPITAL WASTE MANAGEMENT

LONG QUESTIONS

1) Name the different types of biomedical wastes generated in your hospital. Write the
measures for their disposal as per national guidelines. 4+3+3 (2023P1)
2) What is biomedical waste? What are the health hazards of improper handling of
biomedical waste? Briefly describe the process of disposal from generation site to
point of disposal of different categories of biomedical wastes. 2+3+7 (2020 P1) 915
3) A recent public demonstration has occurred in a block primary health centre about
the disposal of biomedical waste contaminating water body by the side of the
hospital. As a BMOH of the hospital what measures would you like to adopt for
proper waste management of your hospital. 12 (2016 P1)
4) Name the different types of biomedical waste generated in your hospital. Suggest
measures for their disposal as per National and State Level rules. What is the
importance of waste tracking? 3+7+2 (2012 P1) 919

SHORT NOTES

1) Principles of Biomedical Waste management. ('15)

EXPLAIN WHY

1) Biomedical waste should be segregated at source. (’17, 2024)

2) There are 4 types of colour coding bags as per biomedical waste management
rule 2016, amended in 2018. ('21)
3) Injection safety is important for the recipient, provider, and community (18 P1)
4) Biomedical waste should be segregated at source. (2017 P1)

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

DISASTER MANAGEMENT
LONG QUESTIONS

1) Define disaster. What are the common disasters faced by people of India? Name one
natural and one manmade disaster in recent past. As a BMOH of a BPHC located
near a coastal area what preparedness would you have to manage disaster?
2+5+2+6(2023 P2) 921, 923
2) What is disaster? Management in Relation to recent cyclone Amphan 3+9 (21 P1)
921, 923,
3) What do you mean by ‘Disaster’? What are common causes of disaster? As a BMOH
of a cyclone prone block how will you proceed for preparedness to tackle the
impending disaster in your block? 2+3+7 (2015 P1) 921, 924
4) Enumerate different health hazards occur during and following flood.As a BMOH
describe your preparedness plan to mitigate such hazards in future. 12 (2011 P1)
924
5) What is disaster? What are aspects of disaster management? Outline the
management aspect of disaster impact in a flood prone area. 2+2+8 (2012 P1) 921,
923

SHORT NOTES

1) Disaster preparedness (’14)

2) Vaccination in disaster. ('18) 924
3) Triage. ('18) 923
4) Disaster cycle. (2022)(2024) 923

EXPLAIN WHY

1) Human factor is more important than environmental factor in causing accidents.

(2024) 922
2) Triage approach can provide maximum benefits in disaster situation. (16) 923

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
LONG QUESTIONS

1) Discuss the different types of occupational hazards with example. As a safety

inspector on a visit to a factory, what measures will you suggest to the authorities for
protection of the workers? 4 + 6 (2024) 932, 939
2) Enumerate various laws/ acts protecting health of worker in India. Describe the
medical benefits and their modes of provision to the beneficiary under ESI act. 4+6
(2023 P2) 942-943

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

3) What is pneumoconiosis? Enumerate the different type of causative factors

responsible for pneumoconiosis. What are the measures to be undertaken to prevent
pneumoconiosis? 2+4+6 (2022 P2) 933, 939
4) Enumerate different types of occupational hazards with example. Outline the
measure to prevent one of those,6+6 (2021 P2) 932, 939
5) Define social security. Mention different benefits available for the industrial worker
under ESI Act. Discuss medical benefits. 2+4+6 (2021P2) 943
6) What are the eligibility criteria for enrolment in ESI Scheme? Describe the benefits
under ESI Scheme. 3+9 (2020 P2) 943
7) In an accident in a factory, a male worker lost his left lower limb below thigh.
Enumerate the benefits he is entitled to under ESI Act, In case of death of the worker
what are the benefits his family is entitled to get? What are the steps to be taken from
the management to prevent future occurrence of such event? 6+3+3 (2019 P2) 943
8) What are the eligibility criteria for enrolment in ESI scheme? Write in brief the
benefits available under ESI scheme during and after working tenure. What are the
services available under medical benefits? 4+4+4 (2016 P2) 943
9) Define “Factory” under Indian Factories Act 1948. Write in brief the provisions
recommended in Indian Factories Act 1948 to protect health of the workers. 2+10
(2015 P2)
10) Many cases of silicosis were reported from a Pottery and Ceramic industry. As an
Industry Health Officer, what measures will you recommend for prevention and
control the problem. 12 (2014 P2) 939
11) Name the types of occupational hazards. Describe the different medical measures for
prevention of occupational disease. 4+8 (2013P2) 932, 939
12) Define Ergonomics. Discuss the importance of preplacement examination with
suitable example. 12 (2010 P2) 939

SHORT NOTES

1) Pre-placement examination. ('12) 939

2) Hazards of radiation. ('15) 936
3) Sickness absenteeism. ('14) 937
4) Ergonomics. ('11) 930

EXPLAIN WHY

1) Social security measures have a great role in preventing the health problems –
explain with examples. (’14)
2) Periodical examinations are effective in prevention of occupational diseases (’11)
940.
3) A farmer may suffer from various occupational hazards. ('20) 933
4) Radiation has its short term and long-term side effects. (2022)

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

HEALTH INFORMATION & BASIC MEDICAL STATISTICS

LONG QUESTIONS

1) Describe measures of central tendency with examples. Explain why median is a better
measure of central tendency in a widely dispersed data. (8+2) (2024) 975-976

2) What is sampling? What are the different types of sampling? Describe them briefly with
their advantages and limitations. 2+4+6 ('13) 977-978

SHORT NOTES

1) Types of sampling. ('15) 978

2) Normal curve. ('13) 977
3) Measures of dispersion. (12,16,'21) 976
4) Source of health information. ('11) 968
5) Standard normal curve. ('10,'18) 977
6) Statistical Averages. ('12) 975
7) Simple random sampling. ('19) 978
8) Rate, ratio and proportion. ('19) 63
9) Normal curve. (2022)
10) Graphical representation of statistical data. (2023) 972

EXPLAIN WHY

1) For small samples, median is a better measure of central tendency than mean. ('14)
975
2) The census is an important tool of health information. (16) 968
3) The terms ‘normal curve’ and ‘standard normal curve” are not synonymous. ('19) 977
4) Data carry little meaning when considered alone. ('18)

COMMUNICATION FOR HEALTH EDUCATION

SHORT NOTES

1) Role playing (15) 993

2) Principles of primary health care with examples (16)
3) Barriers of communication. ('19,'21) 984
4) Communication Process. (2022) 982-983

EXPLAIN WHY

1) Telemedicine is now an important field in medical communication. (2020 P2)

2) Interpersonal communication is better than mass media for advocacy purpose. ('13)
3) Interpersonal communication is more effective in behaviour change than mass
communication. ('19) 983

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

HEALTH PLANNING & MANAGEMENT

LONG QUESTIONS (All questions have same answer: page 997-999, planning cycle)

1) Immunisation dropouts and left outs are found to be quite high for consecutive years
in a block. Mention the possible reasons and outline the measures that can be
adopted by the health administrator in that block to improve the situation.4+8 (2016
P2)
2) In a block 40% of eligible couples are protected by modern contraceptive methods.
As a BMOH outline the intervention to improve the situation. 12 (13 P2)
3) Maternal mortality ratio in a block is found to be persistently high. As a BMOH outline
he – Investigation procedure to find out the causes of maternal mortality and
Intervention to be adopted to reduce the MMR. 6+6 (2013. 07 P2)
4) There is sudden rise of infant mortality rate in a block. What are the measures you
would like to adopt to reduce the IMR in block? 4+8 (2012 P2)
5) Percentage of fully immunized children is very low while left out & drop rates are
unacceptably high in your block. What measures you will adopt as a BMOH to
improve the situation? 12 (2011 P2)
6) Proportion of institutional delivery is very low in your district. There is also poor
arrangement19 of JSY referral transport & Ayushmati scheme. What steps you would
take as a CMOH to improve the situation? 12 (2011 P2)
7) Define health education. How it differs from BCC? Briefly outline the different health
education measures to prevent cervical cancer as a BMOH. 12 (2011 P2)

SHORT NOTES

1) Cost effective and cost benefit analysis in health care. (2024) 999
2) Budgeting. (2019 P2) 1000

EXPLAIN WHY

1) Health education is not a propaganda. (2024)

2) Prioritization is an important prerequisite health planning. (2023, 2016,14,11 P2) 998
3) “Feedback” is very important in health planning. (2015 P2)
4) Cost effective analysis and cost benefit analysis are not synonymous (2013 P2) 999

HEALTH CARE OF THE COMMUNITY

LONG QUESTIONS:

1) What is Primary Health Centre? Enumerate elements of Primary Health Care.

Describe the principles of primary health care. Enumerate the services provided at a
Primary Health Centre. Discuss the role of medical officer in PHC. 2+3+5+5 (2023,
20 P2) 693, 706, 712
2) Enumerate the functions of primary health centre. What are the services provided by
sub centre? 6+6 (2021, 18 P2) 706
3) Enumerate the objectives of school health programs. Briefly mention different
components under the programme. 6+6 (2017 P2) 658

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

4) What are the average populations catered in relation to health- in a village, sub-
centre, PHC, BPHC or CHC? Who serves at the level of sub-Centre? What are the
activities carried out at BPHC/CHC? 3+2+7 (2016 P2)
5) What are the functions of Block Primary Health Centre? Mention the National
Programs under a BPHC. What is “Record Linkage” and what is Tracking of
Beneficiaries under Maternal Child Health Care. 4+4+2+2 (2014 P1) 970
6) Discuss the three-tier system of Health Care Delivery of your state. What are the
reforms made to give better service to people? Discuss the role of Private Partner
Partnership (PPP) in efficient delivery of health services. 2+4+6 (12P2)
7) Enumerate the principles of PHC. How is it delivered in rural area? 4+8 (11P2) 693,
700

SHORT NOTES

1) Principles of Primary Health Care. (16, '10) 693

2) Preventive services offered by your Medical College & Hospital. (14)
3) Central Government Health Scheme ('13) 719
4) Health insurance scheme. ('12) 719
5) Voluntary Health Agency. ('11) 720

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Equitable distribution of health services is an important principle of primary health

care. (2024)
2) Community participation is essential for Success of public health programme (2016
P2)
3) Accessibility can’t be equated with acceptability of health services (14 P2)
4) Equitable distribution of health services an important principle of PHC (2013 P2)
5) Networking with voluntary health agencies plays an important role in health care
delivery (2010 P2)

MEDICINE & SOCIAL SCIENCE

LONG QUESTIONS:

1) Enumerate types of family. Describe the stages of family cycle. Discuss the role of family
in health and disease. 2+4+6 ('10) 798-800

SHORT NOTES:

1) Social mobilisation. ('15) 803

2) Social stress (’17) 787

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Internship is a way of socialisation. (2024) 786

2) Customs do not always have negative effect on health. (2024) 786
3) Crowd and mob are different. (2023)
4) Explain why "Family is considered as an epidemiological unit". ('14) 799

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

5) Customs are not always deleterious to health. ('19)

6) Doctor patient relationship plays a vital role in care of disease. ('21) 807

INTERNATIONAL HEALTH
SHORT NOTES:

1) Non-Government organization. ('14) 1031

2) CARE -India. ('10) 1031
3) Indian Red Cross Society. (’17,'20) 721
4) Functions of WHO. (2022) 1027
5) International health regulations (2023)

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Nothing on earth is more international than disease. (2024)

2) International organisations have many roles to play in control of pandemic-justify. (2022)

1027

GENETICS & HEALTH & MENTAL HEALTH

1) Prospective Genetic counselling is more rewarding. (2023 P2) 955
2) Mental Health Services are coming forefront. (2023 P2) 960
3) Importance of genetic counselling in preventing the genetic disorders --- explain why
(’17) 955

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

FORENSIC MEDICINE
AND TOXICOLOGY

MARKS DISTRIBUTION
TYPES OF QUESTIONS No. TO BE ATTEMPTED TOTAL MARKS
LONG ESSAY TYPE 2 15X2=30
SHORT ESSAY TYPE 3 10X3=30
SHORT NOTES INCLUDING AETCOM 2 5X2=10
EXPLANATORY TYPE 5 4X5=20
MCQ 10 1X10=10
TOTAL 100

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

REFERENCES ARE FROM

GAUTAM BISWAS (6TH EDITION)
MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE AND ETHICS
GROUP-A

1) Explain the conditions that must be satisfied to prove a doctor to be negligent.

Mention the defences and precautions to avoid the chance of medical negligence
with a clarification about the applicability and limitations of contributory negligence in
this regard. (3+2+2+3) (2023) 32, 36, 37
2) Define Medical Negligence and classify with examples. Describe defence available
by the doctor in a case of Medical Negligence brought against him. 1+2+3 (2016) 33,
36
3) Define infamous conduct in professional sense. Enumerate the example of
infamous conducts. 1+4 (2012) 29
4) Write in short, the constitution and function of Medical Council of India and
State Medical Council. 2.5+2.5 (2011) 22-23
5) Explain the concept of serious professional misconduct and state examples that
constitute the offence of serious professional misconduct. 5 (2010) 29

GROUP-B

1) Infamous conduct. (2018) 29

2) Vicarious Liability. (2017) 39
3) Contributory negligence. (2016) (2012) 37
4) Informed consent. (2014) 40
5) Euthanasia. (2013) 47
6) Res Ipsa Loquitur. (2011) 36
7) Privileged communication. (2010) 28

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Civil and criminal negligence. (2021, 14, 12) 34

2) Professional negligence and infamous conduct. (2020, 17) 29

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Medical evidence itself does not establish the guilt or innocence of the accused.
(2024)

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

LEGAL PROCEDURE
GROUP-B

1) Recording of dying declaration of a seriously injured patient. (2019) 13

2) Conduct money. (2016) 12
3) Hostile Witness. (2015) 15

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Dying declaration and dying deposition (2021, 11) 14

2) Police vs Magistrate inquest. (2016) 7

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Dying deposition is considered superior to flying declaration. (2012)

2) In court of law, sometime leading question are permitted during examination-in -chief.
(2017) 16

IDENTIFICATION
GROUP-A

1) Enumerate different patterns of fingerprints in humans. What is latent fingerprint?

Give a brief description of methods of developing, lifting and archiving a latent
fingerprint. (2+2+2+2+2) (2024) 107, 108
2) What is mixed dentition? How will you differentiate between permanent and
temporary teeth? Enumerate Gustafson’s criteria. Which criteria can be applied to a
living person? (2+3+4+1) (2023) 98-99

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Classify disorders of sexual differentiation with examples. (2023) 83

2) Temporary dentition. (2021) 91
3) Biological age. (2015) 91
4) Latent fingerprint. (2017) 108
5) Scar mark. (2018, 16) 102
6) Teeth. (2014) 91
7) 8 years of age. (2018) 101
8) Age 21 years. (2019) 101
9) 18 years of age. (2012) 101

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Human hair and animal hair. (2018, 11) 112

2) Temporary and permanent teeth. (2015) 98

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Different methods are used to collect fingerprints from fresh, decomposed and
mummified dead bodies. (2024)
2) Dactylography has more advantages than DNA fingerprinting. (2019) 107
3) Dactylography is still considered a surest datum for identification. (2015)

MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Exhumation. (2013) 143

2) Negative autopsy. (2012) 138

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Antemortem and postmortem thrombus, (2021)

2) Medico-legal autopsy and pathological autopsy. (2017) 121

THANATOLOGY AND SIGNS OF DEATH

GROUP-A

1) Define Rigor Mortis. Describe in brief its mechanism of action of formation. Discuss
the other conditions mimic Rigor Mortis. 1+2+2 (2017) 165-167
2) Define Rigor Mortis. Discuss in short, the physiochemical process of its development.
Write the factors which influence its onset and distribution. 1+2+2 (2012)

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Postmortem staining. (2014) 160

2) Brain death. (2015) 147
3) Adipocere. (2016) 175
4) Suspended animation. (2016) 159
5) Algor mortis. (2011) 163

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Primary and Secondary relaxation. (2020) 170

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

ASPHYXIA
GROUP-A

1) Define drowning. Enumerate different types of drowning. What are the postmortem
findings in a case of death following drowning. What is the surest sign of antemortem
drowning? What is Oedema Aquosum? (2+2+3+1+2) (2023) 201-204, 206
2) Define strangulation. Describe the expected post-mortem findings in a dead body
alleged to have died due to strangulation by ligature. 2+3 (2013) 190-192
3) Discuss the autopsy findings to opine as to the cause and nature of death in a dead
body with ligature mark around neck. 5 (2011) 187
4) Dead body of a middle-aged male subject was found in the state of hanging from the
branch of a tree. There was evidence of a prominent ligature mark around the neck.
cyanosis over fingernail beds and lips. There was presence of multiple small,
lacerated injuries with bleeding over both side of front of neck. How would establish:
i. Cause and nature of death.
ii. Likely internal findings during postmortem examination.
iii. Time since death. 3+5+2 (2019) 187, 188
5) Discuss the autopsy findings that will conclude that death was due to drowning in a
dead body recently removed from water. 5 (2010) 203

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Hyoid bone. (2019, 17) 196

2) Froth from nose & mouth in deceased. (2018) 204
3) Choking. (2015) 198

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Sweet and saline water drowned. (2013, 16) 205

2) Dry drowning and wet drowning. (2012) 202

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Modified Y shaped is suitable in hanging cases (2021) 186

2) Diatom test is net confirmatory of death due to antemortem drowning. (2014) 207

INJURIES
GROUP-A

1) Define bruise. How can you determine age of bruise? How does parallel bruise
occur? 1+2+2 (2017) 217, 218
2) Define Mechanical Injury. Enumerate and briefly describe different types of lacerated
injury. 1+2+2 (2015) 213, 221

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Wound of Entrance & Exit of Perforating and Penetrating wound caused by dagger.
(2019) 227
2) Beveled cut. (2020, 16) 224
3) Tailing of an incised wound. (2021, 19, 14, 12) 224
4) Defense wound. (2013) 231
5) Parallel lines of bruise. (2011) 218
6) Self-inflicting wounds. (2010) 232

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Suicidal cutthroat and Homicidal cutthroat injury. (2019, 15) 225

2) Antemortem and postmortem wounds. (2010) 220

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Depth of stab wound may not always correspond to the length of weapon in case of
full length penetration. (2023) 228
2) Abrasion is medico-legally superior to Bruise. (2015)

FIREARM INJURIES
GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Entry wound in a firearm injury (2021) 251

2) Choking of firearms (2021) 237
3) Abrasion collar. (2010) 243

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Wound of entrance and out caused by bullet. (2014, 10)251

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Examination of skin around wound of entry helps to determine distance of firing.

(2023) 247
2) Mess of the bullet is mode of lead. (2014)
3) One gunshot wound of entrance with multiple exit wounds. (2012) 256

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

REGIONAL INJURIES

GROUP-A

1) What is ‘Thunderclap Headache? Mention the type of intracranial haemorrhage in

which it is found? Write down a simple bedside test for its diagnosis. Write down the
most common non traumatic cause of this type of intracranial haemorrhage occurring
in young subjects with a labelled diagram. Differentiate between coup and
contrecoup injury. 1+1+1+(1+3) +3 (2024) 271, 278-279

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Evidence of bleeding from nose & ear in a head injury case. (2018)
2) Contrecoup injury. (2016) 271

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Traumatic cerebral haemorrhage and spontaneous cerebral haemorrhage. (2020)

280

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Stab wound over auricles are immediately fatal whereas those over the ventricles are
not. (2018) 287
2) In extremes of age, Epidural Haemorrhage is rare but Subdural Haemorrhage is
common. (2017) 273
3) Colour change is not seen in subconjunctival haemorrhage. (2012) 264

THERMAL INJURIES

GROUP-A

1) A 25-year-old female married for last one year was bought to casualty with injuries of
thermal burns. The patient claimed that she had been deliberately tried to be killed by
her husband using fire. The patient was conscious, well-oriented and had superficial
to deep burns all over the body involving front of chest and abdomen, both upper
limbs, anterior and posterior aspects of both the lower limbs and genitalia. After 1
hour of initial management, patient’s condition worsened, and she died on the same
day despite rigorous resuscitation measures.
i) Name the formula commonly used to calculate total surface area
burnt. Calculate the total surface area burnt in this case. (1+2) 299

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

ii) Name the formula commonly used for resuscitation by fluid

management. Describe the management in brief. (1+4) 299
iii) What is the medicolegal role of the doctor attending this case? Who
will hold the inquest and under what section of IPC? (3+1) 305
iv) What are the postmortem findings expected in this case? 3 (2024) 301
2) A dead body of a young married woman is brought to you for P/M examination.
History reveals that the deceased has succumbed to burn injuries. 301
a) Under what section is the inquest by in this case conducted?
b) How do you differentiate between A/M & P/M burns based on soot & COHb?
c) How do you differentiate between EDH & Heat hematoma?
d) What are the causes of death due to burn? 1+1+1+2 303, 300, 306
Enumerate immediate, early & late changes after death. Describe the mechanism of
rigor mortis. 2+3 (2020) 158, 165
3) Classify thermal injuries due to local application of treat. Describe post-mortem
findings in a case of death due to antemortem burn. 2+3 (2014) 293, 301

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Macroscopic and microscopic features of the skin in a case of Joule burn. (2024) 309
2) Rule of Nine. (2012) 299
3) Arborescent marking. (2011) 311
4) Boxing attitude. (2010)

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) EDH due to burn and EDH due head injury by blunt force. (2018) 303
2) Burn and scald. (2011)
3) Antemortem and postmortem burns. (2010) 306

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Carbonaceous soot particles are not always present in the lumen of trachea in
antemortem burns. (2021) 306
2) Wilson’s 1st degree burns are more painful than 3rd degree burns. (2018) 299
3) Wilson’s second-degree burn is most painful. (2017) 299
4) Alkali burns are more extensive and damaging than acid burn. (2013)

TRANSPORTATION INJURIES
1) A beheaded dead body of a male subject was recovered by side of a railway track
with multiple stabs over chest, and abdomen. The line of traumatic severance was 1''
above suprasternal notch without evidence of vital reaction. The stabs were showing
insignificant zone of vital reaction. The head was found 50 feet away from the body.
Autopsy findings revealed multiple petechial haemorrhagic spots over sub pleural

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

surface and interlobar fissures of lung. Nail beds and lips were showing bluish
discoloration. How will you establish-
a) The head was separated antemortem or postmortem in nature? Write down
the pathophysiology behind the formation of petechial haemorrhage and
bluish discolouration. 2+3
b) Whether the head belonged to the same individual. Define stab wound. Why
the length of blade of a weapon may not correspond always with depth of
stab wound over chest and abdomen? 1+2+2 (2018)

INFANTICIDE AND CHILD ABUSE

GROUP-A

1) Define still birth. Briefly describe the signs in a dead born foetus, with reasoning for
such signs.1+4 (2014) 368, 364

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Age of viability of foetus. (2020) 364

2) Battered baby syndrome. (2013, 11) 373
3) Spalding’s sign. (2010) 368

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Still born and dead born child. (2013) 369

2) Respired lungs and unrespired lungs of newborn. (2019, 14) 366
3) Live birth and still birth. (2015) 366

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Caffey syndrome has a peculiar pattern of finding both clinically and radiologically.
(2023) 379
2) Precipitate labour is almost always accidental in nature. (2013) 371
3) Hydrostatic test is not conclusive of live birth. (2011, 10) 367

CRIMINAL ABORTION:

GROUP-A

1) A 22-year-old married woman has been bought to emergency with dyspnoea and
delirium. Clinical findings are cold, clammy skin with overall paleness and feeble

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

pulse (110/min). Her wearing apparels over the lower part of the body is found wet
with blood. On enquiry, she had her abortion 4 hours back.
a) What are medicolegal duties to be followed by the attending doctor during
treatment and in case of death?
b) What are expected autopsy findings in this case.
c) What are the probable methods of criminal abortion used in this case. (4+3+3)
(2024) 381, 385

ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION AND STERILITY

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Surrogate mother. (2020, 14) 399

2) Impotence. (2013) 389-392
3) Sterilisation. (2018) 395
4) Artificial insemination. (2011) 397

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Impotence but not sterility is the ground for divorce. (2021) 394
2) Marriage contract with an insane person is not valid. (2019)

VIRGINITY, PREGNANCY AND DELIVERY

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Lochia. (2015,10) 411

2) Pregnancy. (2013) 404
3) Umbilical cord. (2019, 17)
4) Hymen. (2015) 402

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) True and false virgin. (2012) 404

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Hymen has little value to test virginity. (2016, 13) 402

2) Test for H.C.G. hormone is not confirmatory of pregnancy of a woman. (2014) 407
3) Immunological test for pregnancy is not regarded as sure sign of pregnancy. (2011)
407

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SEXUAL OFFENCES

GROUP-A

1) A 13-year-old girl is bought to you by police with alleged history of penetrative sexual
assault 2 days back. She is being accompanied by both her parents. She tells you
that the accused was a neighbour and she tried to resist him and fight back.
Whom will you take the consent from? Which law will this case be registered under?
How will you tell the age of nail scratch abrasions you find on her thorax region?
What do you know about SAFE kit? Describe the procedure of medical examination
of the survivor. What are the samples you will collect and for what purpose?
(1+1+3+3+5+2) (2023) 420-423, 429
2) a) An adolescent girl with history of alleged sexual assault has been brought to you
for medical examination. 427, 429, 423
i. What is the minimum age for giving consent for such examinations?
ii. Why presence of any female attendant is necessary during such
examination?
iii. How would you examine the hymen in such cases?
iv. What are the materials to be preserved in such cases?
b) Define & Classify injury. Mention different types of abrasion and mention their
medico-legal importance. (2021) 213, 214, 216
3) Define rape as per recent amendment of 2013 as a Medical Officer. How will you
examine an unmarried girl, age around 16 years, who is alleged to have severe
assaults 24 hrs. back 1+4 (2016, 13) 417, 420

GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Vaginal swab & smear examination in sex offence cases. (2020) 429
2) Section 377 IPC. (2019)
3) Diagnostic criteria of paraphilia. (2018) 446

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) Rape is not a medical opinion. (2024)

2) Medical evidence of sexual intercourse is not legal evidence of rape. (2020, 11) 431
3) Whether a subject can perform sexual intercourse"- the question given by police in
requisition for medical examination of accused has no value after Criminal Law
Amendment Act 2013. (2018) 417
4) Non-detection of spermatozoa and semen in the vaginal swabs from a true victim of
rape. (2015, 10) 433

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FORENSIC PSYCHIATRY
GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Feigned Insanity (2021) 467

2) Civil responsibility of a mentally ill person. (2020) 481
3) Testamentary capacity. (2017) 481
4) Delusion (definition, types and medico legal importance). (2015) 461
5) Hallucination. (2014) 462
6) Impulse. (2016, 12) 465

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) True & Feigning mentally ill subjects. (2019, 16, 13) 468
2) Psychosis and Neurosis. (2018) 466

EXPLAIN WHY:

1) McNaughton rule and sec. 84 IPC are not same. (2023) 482
2) Delusion is regarded as one of the surest evidence of insanity. (2020, 16)

BLOODSTAIN ANALYSIS, SEMINAL STAIN AND OTHER

BIOLOGICAL SAMPLES
GROUP-B (Short Notes and Medico-legal importance):

1) Saliva stain. (2017) 501

GROUP- C (Differentiate)

1) Secretor and non-secretor. (2017) 490

GENERAL TOXICOLOGY
GROUP-A

1) a) Define chelating agents. Mention the dosage, route of administration & indication
of using BAL & EDTA. 1+2+2 541 -542 b) Write the specific antidotes of Methanol &
Hydrocyanic acid. 633, 668 2 c) Mention the active principles of Dhatura, Kuchila &
Ganja. 3 (2020) 642

GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Mechanism of activated charcoal. (2021) 540

2) Whole bowel irrigation. (2019) 569
3) Legal responsibilities of a medical practitioner attending a case of suspected
poisoning. (2017) 535
4) Define chelating agents. Mention the dosage, route of administration and indication
of using BAL & EDTA. 1+2+2 (2011)

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EXPLAIN WHY:

1) BAL is not injected by intravenous route. (2019)

2) Non-detection of poisonous substances on chemical analysis of viscera in a case of
death due to poisoning. (2015, 10) 545
3) Stomach tube is not used in cases of poisoning by Corrosive acids, Strychnine &
Kerosene. (2020)

CORROSIVE POISONS
GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Vitriolage. (2010) 551

2) Antidote: Oxalic acid poisoning. (2014) 553
3) Alkali burns are more extensive and damaging than acid burns. (2013)

INORGANIC & NONMETAL IRRITANTS

GROUP-A

1) A 30-year-old granary worker was bought to emergency of a tertiary care hospital

with a history of consuming five greyish-white tablets that are used to preserve grains
about 1 hour before. During initial clinical assessment, a disagreeable garlicky odour
is noted coming from his mouth.
Identify the most probable poison consumed by the granary worker. What bedside
chemical tests would you prefer to confirm the clinical diagnosis? Describe the
clinical features due to the ingestion of this poison. Briefly outline the management of
the patient. What autopsy findings would you expect in a fatal case with the poison in
question. (2+3+4+4+2) (2024) Phosphorus, 587-589
2) Briefly mention the symptoms, signs both external & internal & management of a
case of Chronic Arsenical Salt Poisoning due to consumption of water of well/tube
well contaminated with Arsenic salts present in the earth. 2+2+2 (2019)
3) What is Plumbism? Describe in short, the sign, symptom, and management of a case
of Plumbism. 1+4 (2015) 570-572
4) Write in short, the signs, symptoms, and treatment of chronic lead poisoning. 5
(2013)
5) Name the tonic salts of arsenic. Write in short, the clinical features of chronic arsenic
poisoning. 1+5 (2012) 561

GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Metal fume fever. (2019) 585

2) Anaemic & basophilic stippling occurs in chronic lead poisoning. (2017) 570
3) Fatal dose of white arsenic. (2014) 559
4) Plumbism. (2010) 570

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ORGANIC IRRITANTS
GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Mention Active principals of:

a. Abrus precatorius. ii) Dhatura. iii) Aconnite root iv) Yellow oleander Nuts v)
Cerbera thevetia (2013) 594, 642, 658
2) Give the fatal dose of Ricin, Aconitine, Kerosene oil, Nicotine. (2014) 593, 660
3) Explain: Some vegetable irritants can cause profound shock due to presence of
super antigen. (2024)

ORGANIC IRRITANTS: ANIMAL

GROUP-A

1) A case of alleged snake bite is bought in a 25-year-old female has been bought to
you in the emergency with a tight ligature above the bite on upper limb.
How will you release the ligature? How will you differentiate between neurotoxic and
hematotoxic snake bite based on symptoms? How will you manage a case of
neurotoxic snake bite? What is the composition of polyvalent antisnake venom in
India? (3+4+5+3) (2023) 602
2) A male patient is brought to emergency with history of snake bite examination
revealed two pinpoint puncture wounds over dorsum of right foot with oozing of blood
and oedema. How will you confirm your diagnosis that it was vasculotoxic snake
bite? Write in short management of vasculotoxic and neurotoxic snake bite. 2+3
(2018) 602, 605
3) A person alleged to have been bitten by a snake, the local people killed the snake
and brought the patient and dead snake to the casualty department. Now by
examination both how you will decide: i) Whether the snake was poisonous or non-
poisonous. ii) How the bite mark help to consider whether it was poisonous or not? iii)
What are the snakes against which the antivenom available in India is effective? iv)
Name a vegetable poison which produces sign and symptom similar to snake bite.
2+1+2+1 (2016) 600, 606, Abrus precatorius

GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Postmortem diagnosis of snake bite. (2019) 608

2) Polyvalent anti-snake venom. (2017) 606
3) Cobra bite. (2015) 603

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NARCOTIC POISON, ALCOHOL, DELIRIANTS

GROUP-A

1) Define drunkenness. Write the treatment of methyl alcohol poisoning. 1+4 (2014)
625, 632
2) Which poison is commonly known as ‘roadside poison’? Describe clinical features of
that poison. 2+3 (2018) 642

GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Methyl alcohol poisoning. (2015)

2) Mention Active principals of: Cannabis indica, Semecarpus anacardium, Croton
seeds, Strychnas nuxvomica. (2012) 594, 595, 646, 654
3) Write down the specific antidote for: Morphine poisoning, Oxalic acid poisoning.
(2014) 553,

CARDIAC POISONS, MEDICAL POISON

GROUP-B (Short Notes):

1) Aconite. (2010) 568

2) Mention criminal uses in following poisons: Aconite, Dhatura seeds, Calotropis.
(2010) 597
3) Flunitrazepam is commonly used in drug facilitated sexual assaults. (2024)

AGRICULTURAL POISONS
GROUP-A

1) a) A thirty-year female patient came to the emergency department of the hospital with
history of suicidal poisoning with organophosphorus compound. 680
i. How will you manage such case?
ii. What are the medicolegal duties of the doctor in relation to such case?
b) Write the active principles of
i. Cannabis 646
ii. Yellow oleander
c) Write the mechanism of action of
i. Activated charcoal.
ii. Cyanide
2) Write clinical features & management in case of accidental ingestion of parathion.
What are the precaution to be taken to minimize occupational exposure? (2017) 678,
680
3) Write the Specific antidotes: Morphine poisoning; Organophosphorus poisoning;
Chronic lead poisoning. (2011)
4) Enumerate: (i) Poisons causing convulsion; (ii) Poisons causing hurried respiration;
(iii) Poisons diagnosed by odour; (iv) Poisons causing constriction of pupil. (2011)

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5) Explain: Oximes are useful in OPC poisoning if patient is admitted early but totally
ineffective in carbamate poisoning. (2023)

DRUG DEPENDENCE AND DATE RAPE DRUG

GROUP-A

1) Explain the meaning of the term 'Drug abuse' and enumerate the differences
between drug habituation and drug addicting. 1+2+2 (2010) 703

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OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY
MARKS DISTRIBUTION
TYPES OF QUESTIONS No. TO BE ATTEMPTED TOTAL MARKS
LONG ESSAY TYPE 2 15X2=30
SHORT ESSAY TYPE 3 10X3=30
SHORT NOTES INCLUDING AETCOM 2 5X2=10
EXPLANATORY TYPE 5 4X5=20
MCQ 10 1X10=10
TOTAL 100

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RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

REFERENCES ARE FROM

DHINGRA (8TH EDITION)

EAR:
ANATOMY OF EAR, PERIPHERAL RECEPTORS AND
PHYSIOLOGY OF AUDITORY AND VESTIBULAR SYSTEMS

LONG QUESTIONS

1) Describe the anatomy of medial and posterior wall of middle ear. Describe the
relation with facial nerve in medial & posterior wall. ('11) 6-7
2) Describe auditory pathway up to cerebral cortex. Draw a labelled diagram of Organ
of Corti. [2020] 17, 16
3) What is middle ear cleft? Describe the anatomy of medial wall of middle ear with
relevant diagram. Mention applied importance of facial recess. [2021] 7

SHORT NOTES

1) Sensory supply of external ear [2020] 5

2) McEwen’s triangle (suprameatal). (‘15) 7

ASSESSMENT OF HEARING
SHORT NOTES

1) Absolute bone conduction (ABC) test. (2015) 26

2) Pure tone audiometry (2023) 27
3) Tympanostomy. (2022) 471

HEARING LOSS
LONG QUESTIONS

1) A 20-year-old female patient is presented with progressive bilateral hearing loss.

Rinne test was negative in both ears. Tympanic membranes were normal.
1) What is the probable diagnosis? 2
2) What is Schwartze sign? 4 (otosclerosis)
3) What audiological tests are to be done to confirm the diagnosis? 4
4) Describe the surgical treatment. 5 (2024) Otosclerosis 104

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2) A middle-aged male reported with bilateral conductive deafness with intact tympanic
membrane. How will you diagnose & manage the case? 5+5 (16) Otosclerosis, 104

SHORT NOTES

1) Ototoxic drugs {2018} 39

2) Myringoplasty. (10) 471

ASSESSMENT OF VESTIBULAR FUNCTIONS &

DISORDERS
1) Enumerate the ENT causes of giddiness. Describe Dix-Hallpike test. Describe the
treatment of Benign Paroxysmal Position Vertigo (BPPV). (3+3+4) (2024) 48
2) Fistula test. (’14) 47
3) Caloric test. (2012) 49

DISEASES OF EXTERNAL EAR

1) Tympanotomy. (2022)
2) Malignant otitis externa. ('11,13) 61
3) Circumscribed otitis externa. ('10) 61
4) Foreign body of ear. ('12) 63
5) Otomycosis. (2022) 61

DISORDERS OF MIDDLE EAR, CHOLESTEATOMA & OTITIS

MEDIA & ITS COMPLICATIONS

LONG QUESTIONS

1) A 20-year-old male attends the OPD with complaint of profuse sticky discharge from
both the ears after an episode of common cold 7 days back. He suffers from
recurrent episodes of discharge from the ears for the last 5 years. 2+2+5+2+4
i) What is the most probable diagnosis?
ii) What other symptoms may be present in this disease?
iii) How can you relate the disease process for development of these
symptoms?
iv) What are the otoscopic findings and how can you stage the disease
depending on the otoscopic findings?
v) How will you treat the patient? (2023) ASOM, 73-75
2) How will you investigate and manage the case of persistent unilateral aural discharge
with hearing loss since last three years in a 45 year old patient? (2022) AOM, COM,
OME

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3) How will you investigate a case of persisting unilateral aural discharge with hearing
loss for last three years in a 35-year-old male patient. [2019]
4) Describe the etiology, clinical feature, and management of Acute Suppurative otitis
media. [2018] 73-75
5) Define Cholesteatoma. Describe the pathogenesis & management of CSOM with
cholesteatoma. 2+3+5 (’17) 78, 85-87
6) A middle-aged patient presents in the ENT OPD with intermittent mucopurulent
discharge from one ear. How will you investigate and treat the case? 5+5 ('15)
7) Describe the aetiology, clinical features, and management of otitis media with -
effusion. 3+3+4 ('14) 75-77
8) Define CSOM. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features & management of
the Mucosal type of CSOM. 10 ('12) 81-85
9) What is Cholesteatoma? How it forms? Describe the clinical features of
Cholesteatoma. 79

SHORT NOTES

1) Cholesteatoma. (2024, 15) 79

2) Sigmoid Sinus Thrombosis. (2022) 100
3) Myringotomy. (11,2021) 470
4) Acute Mastoiditis (2021) 91
5) Lateral sinus thrombosis {2018} 100
6) Explain: Ears should always clinically be assessed in a child suffering from enlarged
adenoids. (2024)

OSTEOSCLEROSIS
LONG QUESTIONS

1) Describe pathogenesis, the clinical features and management of otosclerosis.

3+3+4(2023) 104

SHORT NOTES

1) Carhart’s notch (2016) 105

FACIAL NERVE & ITS DISORDERS

LONG QUESTIONS

1) Outline the intratemporal course of the facial nerve with diagram. Write down the
clinical features and management of Bell's palsy. (2022) 108, 112-113
2) Describe the intratemporal course of the facial nerve. Enumerate the intratemporal
branches of the facial nerve and their site of origin. What is Bell’s Palsy? [2018}
3) Facial nerve palsy of sudden onset (’10) 112

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TUMOURS
1) Basal cell carcinoma {2020} 126

OTALGIA
1) 65 years old male patient presents with pain in Right ear. How will you investigate
case? 10 ('14) 149
2) Explain: Otoscopic examination may be normal in a patient complaining earache.
(2024)

NOSE
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF NOSE:
LONG QUESTIONS:

1) Describe the anatomy of lateral wall of nose. How will you manage a case of
recurrent Antrochoanal polyp? 7+3 (2023) 156-157, 200
2) Describe the lateral wall of nose with picture. 10 (2010) Mention its surgical
importance. 7+3

SHORT NOTES

1) Dangerous area of nose (2019) 170

2) Osteomeatal complex. (17,13,11)
3) Inferior turbinate (2017) 156
4) Anatomy of nasal septum. (2012) 170

NASAL SEPTUM & ITS DISEASES

Long Questions

1) Illustrate with diagram the constituents of nasal septum & its vascular supply.
Describe the surgical importance of Little's area. 5+3+2 (2016) 170, 204
2) Describe anatomy of nasal septum. Draw and labelled diagram of it. 7+3 (2019)

Short Notes

1) Explain: Unilateral nasal septal deviation may cause bilateral nasal obstruction.
(2024) 172
2) Write a note on deviated nasal septum & its effect on the ear. (2010) 171
3) Complications of S.M.R. operation. (2014) 488
4) Difference between Septoplasty and SMR operation. (2011) 490

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ACUTE AND CHRONIC RHINITIS

Short Notes

1) Atrophic Rhinitis (2018) 178

Explain Why:

1) Empty nose syndrome in over resection of nasal turbinates. (2023)

GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE OF NOSE

1. Rhinosporidiosis. (2021) 185

MISCELLANEOUS DISORDERS OF NASAL CAVITY

Long Question:

1) How to investigate a case of unilateral foul-smelling discharge in a 5 years old child

from nose for 3 weeks. Write differential diagnosis & management 5+5 (21) Can be
any disease of the whole chapter, Provisional diagnosis: Foreign Body, 189

Short note:

1) Rhinolith (2022,16) 189

2) CSF Rhinorrhoea (2021,14) 191
3) Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhoea (2019)
4) Foreign body impaction in nose (2022) 188

NASAL POLYP
Long Questions

1) Enumerate the indications of Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS). Describe

the steps of FESS. Enumerate the complications of FESS. (2024) 494-496
2) A young adult presented with left sided nasal polyp. Give differential diagnosis.
Outline the management of Antro-choanal polyp 2+8 (2012) 200.

Short Notes

1) Aetiology & management of ethmoidal polyps (2020) 201

2) FESS (2018)

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EPISTAXIS
Long Questions

1) How will you manage a 60 yrs male known hypertensive at emergency room with
spontaneous epistaxis? What are the causes of bilateral nasal blockage? 7+3(2022)
201, 208
2) How will you investigate a case of 14-year-old with recurrent moderate to severe
epistasis? Write differential diagnosis and management 3+4+3(2020) 205-209
3) A 17-year-old male patient presented with a history of recurrent profuse epistaxis for
last one year. What are the probable causes? Give an outline of relevant on
investigations and management of the patient.2+4+4(2011)
4) A 65-year-old male presents with Epistaxis. How will you manage this case?
10(2010)

Short Notes

1. Dangerous area of nose. (2015) 205

PARANASAL SINUSES
LONG QUESTIONS:

1) Describe the anatomy of maxillary antrum and function of nose. 7+3 (2014) 209

Short Notes

1) Fungal Sinusitis (2020) 229

2) Write down the etiologic, clinical features & management of acute maxillary sinusitis.
(2019) 223-224
3) Indications of Caldwell-Luc operation. (2013) 485
4) Antral puncture. (2012) 482
5) Maxillary Sinus. (2012) 209

THROAT
ANATOMY OF PHARYNX
Short Notes

1) Waldeyer’s Ring. (2016) 281

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TUMOURS OF NASOPHARYNX
LONG QUESTIONS

1) A 15-year-old boy attended the emergency with profuse spontaneous epistaxis. He

gives the history of repeated similar episodes in the last one year. (1+2+3+4+5)
Juvenile Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, 292-293
a) What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) What is the differential diagnosis of this case?
c) What are the other symptoms with which the patient may present with?
d) What maybe the clinical and radiological findings of the case?
e) How will you treat the patient? (2024)
2) A male patient of 15 yrs. age presented with history of recurrent severe epistaxis &
nasal obstruction. What is your provisional diagnosis? How will you manage the
case? 3+7 (2017)
3) Clinical features and management of juvenile nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma.
5+5(2010)

Explain Why:

1) Painless unprovoked epistaxis in Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.

ACUTE & CHRONIC TONSILITIS

Long Questions

1) Outline the clinical features and management of patches over tonsil 5+5 (2018) 305-
306.
2) Acute tonsillitis – clinical features, Treatment & complications. 4+3+3 (2016) 305-306
3) Similar- Acute follicular tonsillitis (2013)
4) A 10-year child presented with patch in tonsil and fever. How you will examine and
treat the child. 5+5 (2015)

Short Notes:

1) Indications of Tonsillectomy. (2012) 503

Explain Why:

1) Post tonsillectomy patient has a bleeding episode 7 days after operation. (2023) 506

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HEAD NECK SPACE INFECTION

Long Question:

1) Discuss etiology, clinical features, and management of acute retropharyngeal

abscess. 3+3+4 (2023, 2017) 313
2) Similar: Acute peritonsilar abscess (+complication) (2012)
3) A young man comes to you Quinsy, Clinical features, complications, diagnosis and
treatment. (2+2+3+3) (2012) 311

Short Notes:

1) Retropharyngeal abscess. (2022, 18)

2) Acute Retropharyngeal abcess (15, 13)
3) Quinsy (16, 14, 10) 311

Explain Why:

1) Tooth infection may cause Ludwig's angina. (2023) 310

SNORING AND SLEEP APNOEA

1) Obstructive Sleep Apnoea (21, 13) 326

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY OF LARYNX

Long Questions

1) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of larynx as seen on indirect laryngoscopy. Briefly

describe the levels and group of lymph node in the neck. 2+3 (2010) 332, 347
2) Describe the pre-epiglottic space and its significance. 3+2 (2010) 334

Short Notes

1. Safety muscles of larynx (2021,19,16) 332

2. Nerve supply of Larynx (2018) 334

ACUTE & CHRONIC INFLAMMATION OF LARYNX

Short Notes

1) Acute epiglottis. (2014) 338

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CONGENITAL LESIONS OF LARYNX & STRIDOR

Long Questions

1) How will you investigate a case of 55-year-old male smoker, suffering from gradually
increasing hoarseness of voice for 4 months followed by stridor for last week? Write
differential diagnosis & management.3+4+3 (2020) 345.

Short Notes

1) Principle of Laryngeal Crepitus test (2020)

2) Laryngomalacia (2010) 344

BENIGN TUMOUR OF LARYNX

1) A teacher consults you for his hoarse voice. The voice becomes worse towards the end of
the day after the classes. 1+2+2+2+5+3 (2023)

i) Name one clinical condition that may explain the complaints of the patient.

ii) Name two other diseases/conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

iii) How will you examine the patient clinically to arrive at a diagnosis?

iv) Enumerate the investigations you will suggest to supplement your clinical findings in
establishing a definite diagnosis?

v) What will be the findings of these investigations in each of the diseases you have
mentioned?

vi) What should be the treatment protocol for managing such a condition?

Short Notes

1) Vocal cord polyp. (2019) 352

2) Bronchial cyst (2017) 461
3) Vocal nodule. (2014,09)/ singer's node 352

VOICE, SPEECH & TRACHEOSTOMY

Long Questions

1) A 65 old male presented with hoarseness of voice for last three months, how will you
investigate the case to arrive at a diagnosis? 10 (2013) 366
2) A 60 year old male presented with hoarseness of voice for one month, How will you
investigate the case? 10 (2011)

Short Notes

1) Complications of tracheostomy (2019,17,13,11) 369

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2) Functions of tracheostomy. (2015) 372

3) Explain: Cancer involving left side of the lung may present to otolaryngologist with
complaint of hoarseness. (2024)

THYROID GLAND AND ITS DISORDERS

1) Management of solitary thyroid nodule (2019) 389

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF OESOPHAGUS

Short Notes

1. Oesophageal Strictures. (2012) 397

DISORDERS OF OESOPHAGUS
Long Questions

1. Which investigations will you suggest for a 50-year-old woman complaining of

progressive dysphagia initially to solids but now having difficulty in swallowing liquids
as well? Name the investigations along with the diagnostic finding for each
investigation to diagnose the underlying disease? (5+5) (2024) 405
2. A 60 year old male has presented with progressively increasing dysphagia. How will
you investigate? 10 (2021) 405

Short Notes

1. Plummer- Vinson syndrome /Patterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome (2020,11) 401

2. Coin in oesophagus (2017) 407

3. Explain: Foreign body in airway presents either as an emergency or later without

symptoms of airway obstruction. (2024)

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OPHTALMOLOGY
MARKS DISTRIBUTION
TYPES OF QUESTIONS No. TO BE ATTEMPTED TOTAL MARKS
LONG ESSAY TYPE 2 15X2=30
SHORT ESSAY TYPE 3 10X3=30
SHORT NOTES INCLUDING AETCOM 2 5X2=10
EXPLANATORY TYPE 5 4X5=20
MCQ 10 1X10=10
TOTAL 100

48
RAIGANJ GMCH TMCP UNIT

REFERENCES ARE FROM

AK KHURANA (9TH EDITION)
ANATOMY OF EYE
Long Questions

1. Name the structures forming the angle of the anterior chamber. Draw a neat, labelled
diagram of the angle of the anterior chamber. Name two pathological features at the
angle and two abnormal contents of anterior chamber. How do you examine the
structures of the angle of anterior chamber? 3+3+2+2 (2023) 207
2. Name the extra & Intra ocular muscles with their nerve supply. Draw a labelled
diagram of eyeball 3+3+4 (2021) 4
3. Draw structure of angle of Anterior Chamber Formation & drainage of aqueous
humour 5+5 (2021) 207, 209
4. Name the extra ocular muscles of eyeball, Describe the attachments with a
schematic diagram. Write the functions of each muscle. 3+4+3 (2019) 318
5. Describe the anatomy & physiology of lens. What is mechanism of accommodation?
4+3+3 (2016,13) 44, 169
6. Discuss the theories of aqueous humour formation, circulation, and drainage. 4+3+3
(2015) 209

OPTICS AND REFRACTION

Long Questions

1. What is myopia? Classify myopia. Write down the signs and symptoms of
pathological myopia. 2+3+5 (2023) 37-38
2. Briefly discuss the various methods of determination of visual acuity. (2010)

Short Notes

1) Explain why: Uncorrected high degrees of ametropia in preschool age can lead to
permanent subnormal vision throughout one’s life. (2024)
2) Myopia. (2022,15) 37
3) Astigmatism. (2019) 40
4) Hypermetropia. (2021,12) 34
5) Surgical management myopia. (2020) 51
6) Treatment of myopia. (2019) 40
7) Presbyopia. (2017) 46
8) Pathological myopia. (2014) 38

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CONJUNCTIVA
Long Questions

1) Describe the anatomy of conjunctiva. (2011) 58

Short Notes

1) Recurrent pterygium. (2024) 83

2) Spring Catarrah/ Vernal conjunctivitis (2021) (2011) 75.
3) Phlyctenular Conjunctivitis (2020) 78
4) Management of recurrent Pterygium (2017)
5) Pterygium. (2015) 82
6) Clinical features of vernal kerato conjunctivitis. (‘13)
7) Explain Why - Pterygium can recur after simple excision. (2023) 83

CORNEA
Long Questions

1) Describe the layers of Cornea (diagram & clinical significance inc.). What are the
factors maintaining Corneal transparency? 4+6 (2020) 91, 92
2) What is keratoplasty? What are types? How will you collect the donor cornea & how
will you preserve it? 2+2+4+2 (2017) 129, 130
3) Describe in brief the management of a case of a bacterial corneal ulcer. How would
you treat a non-healing ulcer? Enumerate the complications of corneal ulcers. 5+3+2
(2015) 98, 99

Short Notes

1) Donor corneal tissue preservation (‘22) 130

2) Hypopyon corneal ulcer (2016) 97
3) Paracentesis (2016)
4) Bacterial corneal ulcer. (2012) 94
5) Eye banking and keratoplasty. (‘15) 129, 470
4) Explain Why - Corneal edema can develop following endothelial damage. (2023)
5) Explain why: Keratic precipitates are seen in lower 1/3rd of cornea. (2024) 146
6) Explain why: Sterile hypopyon is seen in bacterial corneal ulcers. (2024)

SCLERA
Short Notes

1) Staphyloma (2016,12) 137

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UVEA
Long Questions

1) Describe the indications, contraindications, and complications of evisceration of

eyeball. (4+4+2) (2024) 164
2) Classify Uveitis in different ways. Write down the symptoms and signs of anterior
uveitis. Discuss the management of non-granulomatous iridocyclitis. 2+5+3 143,
146
3) Describe clinical features & management of Acute iridocyclitis. 5+5 (2020) 146
4) What are the causes of red eye? Write in brief about their differential diagnosis
with management. 2+4+4 (2012) 150

Short Notes

1. Posterior Synechiae (2021) 148

2. Panophthalmitis(2019, 14) 163
3. Keraticprecipitate(2018) 146
4. Endophthalmitis (2018) 161
5. Evisceration. (2012, 14) 164
6. Red Eye. (2010)

LENS
Long Questions

1) Write about the Preoperative work-up of a patient planned for cataract surgery. How do
you assess the Visual prognosis in such a case? 7+3 (2019, 16) 185
2) Enumerate the post-operative complication of cataract surgery. Briefly outline the
treatment of any one of them. 6+4 (2017) 201

Short Notes

1) Capsulotomy. (2021) 193

2) Morgagnian Cataract (2020, 11) 179
3) Biometry (2018) 198
4) Posterior capsular opacification/ After cataract (2017) 202
5) SICS (2013) 190
6) Explain Why- Dilated fundoscopy is done for evaluation of cataract. (2023)
7) Explain why: Viscoelastic substances are essential in cataract surgery. (2024) 437

GLAUCOMA
Long Questions

1) A 45-year-old female patient presents to the eye OPD with severe pain right eye
along with gross dimness of vision, nausea and vomiting, shortly after watching a

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movie in a theatre. What may be the possible clinical diagnosis? How will you
manage this case? Mention the differential diagnosis of a red eye. 3+6+6 (2023)
Open angle closure glaucoma, 150, 221
2) Describe the clinical features & management of acute stage of primary angle closure
glaucoma 5+5 (2022, 18) 216, 221
3) How would you diagnose a case of open angle glaucoma and follow up such patient?
10 (2010) 221

Short Notes

1) Anti-glaucoma drug (2021,16) 221

2) Bupthalmos (2017) 212
3) Phacolytic glaucoma (2016) 231
4) Field changes in Primary open angle glaucoma (2015) 217
5) Trabeculectomy. (2014) 236

DISEASES OF VITREOUS
Short Notes:

1. Vitreous haemorrhage (2020, 10) 243

RETINA
Long Questions

1) A 60-year-old gentleman with end stage kidney disease undergoing regular

haemodialysis is presented with sudden onset painless loss of vision in right eye. He
also noticed numerous floaters just at the onset of the sudden dimness of the vision
in right eye. He has history of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus for past 20 years.
On fundus evaluation, there is no fungal red glow in the right eye, but left eye shows
characteristic retinal changes. CRAO in right eye, diabetic retinopathy in left eye,
252, 260, 262
What are your provisional diagnoses in the right and left eye respectively? 1
Describe the classification of characteristic retinal findings seen in the left eye. 1
How will you treat and visually rehabilitate both the eyes of the patient? 5+5
Enumerate the different ways diabetes mellitus can affect human eyes except
posterior segment. 3 (2024)
2) Describe the symptoms, signs, and management of Retinoblastoma. 2+3+5 (2019)
284

Short Notes

1. Retinoblastoma (2021,16) 284

2. Enucleation. (2011) 289
3. Enucleation (2018)
4. Diabetic retinopathy. (2011) 260

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5. Explain Why - Genetic counselling is important in retinoblastoma (2023)

NEURO OPHTHALMOLOGY
1. What is pupillary light reflex? Briefly describe the pathway of pupillary light reflex with
a schematic and labelled diagram. What are the drugs affecting pupillary light reflex?
3+7+5 (2023, 17, 12) 296
2. Discuss pupillary reactions, with special reference to their basis and clinical
significance. (2010)

OCULAR MOTILITY
Long Questions

1. Briefly discuss the management of esotropia in a 2-year-old. 10 (2010) 329

Short Notes

1. Difference between paralytic and non-paralytic squints. (2023) 338

2. Binocular vision. (2013) 323

EYELID
LONG QUESTIONS

1) Describe the structures of upper eyelid with a labelled diagram. (5+5) (2024) 344
2) Describe the structures of upper eyelid with a labeled diagram. Mention functions of
lid. Describe the glands of lid, 4+3+3(2022, 14) 344

Short Notes

1) Internal Hordeolum (2019) 351

2) Symblepharon. (2014) 358
3) Entropion. (2013) 353

LACRIMAL APPARATUS
Long Questions

1) Discuss the anatomy of Lacrimal apparatus with diagram. How is tear is drained?
4+4+2 (2020). Enumerate the causes of watering of the eye.2(2018) 368, 371, 374.
2) What is chronic dacryocystitis? Steps of dacryocystorhinostomy 5+5 (2016) 377, 379
3) Discuss the symptoms, signs and management of chronic dacryocystitis 3+3+4
(2010) 377-378.

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Short Notes

1) Tear film (2022) 370

2) Dacryocystorhinostomy (22) 379
3) Syringing (2020) 374
4) Epiphora. (2015) 374
5) Acute dacryocystitis. (2013) 378
6) Syringing of the Lacrimal passage. (2012) 374

OCULAR INJURIES
Long Questions

1) A 40-year-old farmer complains of redness, watering and dimness of vision in his

right eye for last 3 days. He had a history of history in his right eye with the branch of
a tree 4 days ago. What is your provisional diagnosis? What will be the investigations
and management in this case? (2+6+7) Closed globe injury, 408
2) A seven year old boy was hit by a cricket ball in one eye. Enumerate the possible
damage in each of the ocular structures expected in such a case. Describe the
options for treatment in each injury. 7+3 (2014) 408
3) Describe the effect of blunt trauma in the eye 10 (2012) 408

Short Notes

1. Alkali burn of eye (2022,18) 417

2. Hyphema-causes and management (2019) 409
3. Removal of Corneal foreign body. (2013) 414

COMMUNITY & SYSTEMIC OPHTHALMOLOGY

Long Questions

1. Write about VISION 2020: RIGHT TO SIGHT INDIA: strategic plan 2021-26, its
objectives and its implications at various levels. (2+4+4) (2024) 466
2. What is night blindness? Enumerate the causes of night blindness, Write down the
clinical features, management of Vit. A deficiency. 2+4+4 (2021,13) 449-452
3. Write down the different stages of Vit. deficiency and management 5+5 (12) 450-452

Short Notes

1) Night blindness (2019)

2) Vision 2020. (2015)
3) Nutritional blindness (2017)

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MISCELLANEOUS
Long Questions

1. A 40 yr. old lady presented to ophthalmology emergency room with acute painful
dimness of vision associated with redness and lacrimation. What are the differential
diagnosis? Write down the management of any one causes 3+7 (2022, 14) Causes
can be corneal ulcer, acute angle closure glaucoma, ocular injury, acute anterior
uveitis, orbit apex syndrome, retrobulbar optic neuritis.
2. A 65 year old patient presented with gradual painless dimness of vision in both eye
during last 2 years. Describe the differential diagnosis and management. 5+5 (2018)
Can be any of the following: presbyopia, progressive pterygium, corneal
degenerations, senile cataract, diabetic retinopathy, age related macular
degenerations, chorioretinal degenerations, optic atrophy.
3. What are the causes of seeing rainbow Halo around light? Describe the managenent
of one such case having severe pain in the eye. 3+7 (2015) Can be due to acute
angle closure glaucoma, immature cataract, mucopurulent conjunctivitis, corneal
oedema
4. A patient comes with Rainbow Haloes. How will you diagnose the case? 10 (2013)

Short Notes

1. Uses of Atropine in Ophthalmology (2020)

2. Side effects of topical corticosteroids. (2010) 434
3. Use of laser in eye. (2014) 444
4. Explain Why - In small children atropine should be applied in ointment form (2023)
5. Explain why: Cyclopegics are required for paediatric refraction. (2024) 433

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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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