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A
Test Code: 01012508 Test Booklet Series

PTS (GS): CSE 2025

M1T1 : (Polity, Governance & Current Affairs)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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(1 – A)
PTS (GS): CSE 2025

1. A legislator in India voted in the recent (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
election of Vice President of India but was is incorrect
ineligible to vote in the last Presidential (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-
election. Which of the following can be the II is correct
most likely reason for this? 4. A citizen believes that a government
(a) He is a member of a State Legislative official has assumed an office without the
Council. proper legal authority. Which writ allows
(b) He is a member of the lower House of the Supreme Court of India to inquire into
the Parliament. the legality of this official’s claim to the
position?
(c) He is a nominated member of a State
(a) Mandamus
Legislative Assembly. (b) Quo Warranto
(d) He is a nominated member of the upper (c) Certiorari
House of the Parliament. (d) Habeas Corpus
2. With reference to the Indian Parliamentary 5. Consider the following statements about
System, consider the following: Attorney General of India:
1. Imposition of President’s rule in a state 1. He holds office for a period of six years
2. Appointment of the Prime Minister or upto the age of 65 years
when there is no clear majority in Lok 2. He shall resign when the Union Council
Sabha of Ministers dissolves
3. He can take part in the proceedings
3. Asking the Union Council of Ministers
of any Parliamentary committee, but
to reconsider their decision at the first can not become a member of any such
instance committee.
4. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the
How many of the statements given above
Union Council of Ministers has lost
are correct?
majority in the Lok Sabha
(a) Only one
How many of the above are the discretionary (b) Only two
powers of the President of India? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two 6. Which of the following is mentioned under
(c) Only three the Part IV of the Constitution of India?
(d) All four (a) Separation of Judiciary from
Legislature.
3. Consider the following statements about (b) Separation of Judiciary from Executive.
The President of India: (c) Separation of Legislature from
Statement-I : President can be impeached for Executive.
non-conformity with the oath taken. (d) Separation of Judiciary, Legislature
and Executive.
Statement-II : President can be impeached
7. Consider the following statements :
for violation of the Constitution.
Statement-I:
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? If a minister does not agree with any decision
of the cabinet, he or she must either accept
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
the decision or resign.
are correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I Statement-II:
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Collective responsibility of the Council of
are correct, but Statement-II does not Minister is based on the principle of the
explain Statement-I solidarity of the cabinet.

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Which one of the following is correct in (a) Promotion of international peace and
respect of the above statements? security.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (b) Encouragement of settlement of
correct and Statement-II is the correct international disputes by arbitration.
explanation for Statement-I (c) Fostering respect for international law
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II and treaty obligations in the dealings
are correct and Statement-II is not the of organised peoples with one another.
correct explanation for Statement-I (d) Valuing and preserving the rich
(c) Statement-I is Correct but Statement-II heritage of our composite culture.
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- 12. With reference to the Cabinet Committees,
II is correct consider the following statements:
1. These are constitutional bodies
8. Which of the following organizations established by the President of India.
publishes the ‘World Employment and 2. Non-cabinet Ministers can not become
Social Outlook Report’? members of such committees.
(a) United Nations Development 3. Parliamentary Affairs Committees is
Programme headed by the Prime Minister of India.
(b) International Labour Organisation
(c) World Bank How many of the above statements are
(d) United Nations Economic and Social correct?
Council (a) Only one
(b) Only two
9. With reference to the Prime Minister of
(c) All three
India, consider the following statements:
(d) None
1. A peson can be appointed as Prime
Minister before proving his majority in 13. The Centre recently signed a deal to acquire
the Lok Sabha. five lithium brine blocks for exploration and
2. His tenure is fixed by the Constitution. development in Argentina, which is located
3. The resignation of the Prime Minister in the Lithium Triangle. Which other
amounts to automatic dissolution of countries form the ‘Lithium Triangle’?
the Council of Ministers. (a) Peru and Chile
Which of the statements given above are (b) Venezuela and Paraguay
correct? (c) Chile and Bolivia
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Paraguay and Bolivia
(b) 2 and 3 only 14. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Cabinet Secretariat functions directly
(d) 1, 2 and 3 under the President.
10. The Idate Commission, sometimes seen in 2. One of the primary functions of the
news, is related to: Cabinet Secretariat is to provide
(a) Nomadic, Semi Nomadic, and De- assistance to the Council of Ministers.
Notified Tribes 3. Cabinet secretary is head of the Civil
(b) Digital e-Rupee transactions Services.
(c) Environment Impact Assessment Which of the statements given above are
(d) Pensions of martyr armed personnel
correct?
family
(a) 1 and 2 only
11. Which of the following is not a directive (b) 2 and 3 only
enshrined in Directive Principles of State (c) 1 and 3 only
Policy of the Constitution? (d) 1, 2 and 3

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15. With reference to the Constitution of India, (c) All three

consider the following statements: (d) None
1. President shall not be answerable to 18. In the context of the Preamble to the
any court for the exercise of the powers Constitution of India, which of the
and duties of his office. following best reflects the meaning of the
2. During his tenure, President is immune term “Socialist”?
from any criminal proceedings for his (a) State ownership of means of production
personal acts. to prevent private monopolies
3. During his tenure, civil proceedings (b) Prioritizing the welfare of the
can be instituted against the President working class through state-controlled
in certain cases. economic planning
How many of the statements given above are (c) State’s role in promoting collective
correct? ownership of resources
(a) Only one (d) State’s commitment to minimizing
(b) Only two social and economic inequalities
(c) All three 19. Consider the following statements:
(d) None 1. The President of India may return
16. Consider the following statements regarding the Bill, other than Money Bill, for
India’s National Multidimensional Poverty reconsideration of the Parliament.
Index (MPI) 2023: 2. The President of India shall not
1. It is released by NITI Aayog. withhold assent to a bill if it is passed
2. India’s MPI has three equally weighted again by both Houses of Parliament
dimensions – health, education, and after being returned for reconsideration
standard of living. by the President.
3. National MPI covers more indicators Which of the statements given above is/are
than Global MPI. correct?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only 20. With reference to power of the President of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India to promulgate ordinances, consider
17. Consider the following statements: the following statements:
1. Vice-President is not a member of 1. Ordinance has the same force and
either House of Parliament. effect as an Act of Parliament.
2. If there is a vacancy in the office of Vice- 2. Ordinance must be laid before both
President by reason his resignation, the Houses of Parliament within six weeks
election to fill the vacancy shall be of its promulgation.
held within 6 months. 3. Ordinance can not be issued by the
3. Constitution of India is silent on President when Lok Sabha has been
who performs the duties of the Vice- prorogued.
President when Vice-President acts as Which of the statements given above are
the President of India. not correct?
How many of the above statements are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two (d) 1, 2 and 3

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21. Under which of the following Article(s) of (c) All three

the Constitution of India, has the Supreme (d) None
Court of India recognised the Right against 24. Which of the following bodies in India
the adverse effects of climate change? is headed by an individual who is not a
(a) Article 48A
member of that body?
(b) Article 21
(a) Lok Sabha
(c) Article 14
(b) Rajya Sabha
(d) Articles 14 and 21
(c) Vidhan Sabha
22. Which of the following is/are correctly (d) Council of Ministers
matched in terms of Oath and Resignation of
25. With reference to National Transit Pass
the Union Executive under the Constitution
System, consider the following statements:
of India?
1. It is a web portal launched by the
Union Oath Resignation Ministry of Road Transport and
Executive administered addressed Highways.
by to 2. It aggregates various travel services
1. President Chief Vice including permits in prohibited and
Justice of President restricted areas of India.
India Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Vice Justice of President correct?
President Supreme of India (a) 1 only
Court (b) 2 only
3. Prime President of Speaker of (c) Both 1 and 2
Minister India Lok Sabha (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code 26. With reference to the Resolution of removal
given below: of Vice President of India, consider the
(a) 1 only following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. It can be introduced only in the Rajya
(c) 1 and 2 only Sabha.
(d) 2 and 3 only 2. It must be passed by a majority of all
the then members of both Houses of
23. With reference to the Constitution of India,
the Parliament.
consider the following statements :
3. It shall not be moved unless at least
1. All doubts and disputes regarding the
fourteen days’ notice has been given of
election of the Vice-President are to be
the intention to move the resolution.
decided by the Election Commission
of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Parliament does not have any authority correct?
to regulate matter related to the election (a) 1 and 2 only
of the Vice-President. (b) 2 only
3. Election of the Vice-President cannot (c) 1 and 3
called in question on the ground of any (d) 3 only
vacancy among the members of the 27. It refers to the replacement of a harsher
Electoral College. form of punishment with a less severe
How many of the statements given above one. For example, a death sentence may be
are correct? changed to rigorous imprisonment, which
(a) Only one could subsequently be reduced to simple
(b) Only two imprisonment.

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Which of the following pardoning powers of 3. There is no minimum requirement for

the President has been defined in the above CoM at the Union level, but the states
paragraph? should have at least 12 Ministers.
(a) Pardon How many of the statements given above
(b) Commutation are correct?
(c) Remission (a) Only one
(d) Reprieve (b) Only two
28. Consider the following pairs: (c) All three
(d) None
India’s joint military Associated
exercise: country 31. With reference to the Advocate-General for
the State, consider the following statements:
1. Desert Cyclone Kazakhstan
1. He must be qualified to be appointed as
2. Khanjar Indonesia a High Court Judge.
3. Sada Tanseeq Egypt 2. He is appointed by the President
How many of the above pairs are correctly of India on the recommendation of
matched? Governor of the concerned state.
(a) Only one 3. He shall serve during the pleasure of
(b) Only two the President.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above are
(d) None correct?
(a) 1 only
29. Which of the following are the functions of
(b) 2 only
the Cabinet Secretariat in India?
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Convening of the meetings of the
(d) 2 and 3 only
Cabinet on the orders of the Prime
Minister. 32. With reference to the Office of Chief
2. Allocation of financial resources to the Minister in India, consider the following
Ministries. statements:
3. Monitoring implementation of 1. The Chief Minister has the power
to dissolve the State Legislative
decisions taken by the Cabinet.
Assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The Chief Minister has the power
given below. to summon the State Legislative
(a) 1 and 3 only Assembly.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. In the order of precedence, the Chief
(c) 1 and 2 only Minister ranks higher than the Supreme
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Court judges.
30. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements above is/are
respect to Council of Ministers (CoM) at correct?
Centre and State level: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Total number of ministers in the Union (b) 3 only
CoM, including the Prime Minister, is (c) 2 and 3 only
limited to 15% of the Lok Sabha. (d) 1 and 3 only
2. Total number of ministers in the CoM, 33. If a country has a Democratic, Unitary and
including Chief Minister, in a State Parliamentary form of government, which
is limited to 10% of State Legislative of the following set of features are most
Assembly’s strength likely to be present in its political setup?

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(a) Single tier of government, Elected 36. With reference to Uniform Civil Code,
head of the State, and Collective consider the following statements:
responsibility of executive to 1. Constitution of India explicitly
legislature mentions that the State shall endeavour
(b) Single citizenship, Nominal head of to secure for the citizens a uniform
the State, and Separation of power civil code throughout the territory of
between executive & legislature India.
(c) Single citizenship, Nominal head of 2. Both Parliament and State Legislature
the state, and Elected government can make laws on Uniform Civil Code.
(d) Collective responsibility of executive 3. Personal law subjects like marriage
to legislature, Bicameral legislature, and divorce are part of the Concurrent
and Single citizenship list under the seventh schedule to the
Constitution of India.
34. In the context of the first ever survey of snow
leopards in India, consider the following Which of the statements above is/are
statements: correct?
1. Snow leopards are endemic to India. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Western Ghat region has the maximum (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Snow leopards in India.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Snow leopards are designated as
critically endangered in the IUCN Red 37. With reference to the Constitution of India,
list of Threatened Species. consider the following statements:
1. Creation of the All-India Judicial
How many of the statements given above
Service does not require amendment of
are correct?
Constitution under Article 368.
(a) Only one
2. Motions for the introduction of the
(b) Only two Constitutional Amendment Bills are
(c) All three decided by a majority of not less than
(d) None two-thirds of the members of the House
35. With reference to the Right to Information “present and voting”.
Act, consider the following statements: 3. President must give his assent to the
1. All persons seeking information from Constitution Amendment Bill seeking
a Central Government Public Authority the extent of the executive power of the
are required to pay a minimum nominal Union.
fees. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. There is no prescribed format of correct?
application for seeking information. (a) 1 only
3. Every information to an applicant shall (b) 2 and 3
be supplied within 30 days from the (c) 3 only
receipt of application. (d) 1 and 3
4. No appeal can be made after the receipt
38. With reference to the Office of the Governor,
of the information.
consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are 1. Governor has the authority to decide
correct? what matters are within his discretion.
(a) Only one 2. If a bill jeopardises the High Court’s
(b) Only two constitutionally guaranteed power and
(c) Only three authority, Governor must reserve the
(d) All four bill for the President.

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3. Governor can not reserve a money bill (c) All three

for the consideration of the President. (d) None
4. Constitution of India does not mention 41. Consider the following statements:
the grounds on which a Governor may
withhold his assent to a bill. Statement I:

Which of the statements given above are Article 31C provides protection to laws made
correct? to implement certain Directive Principles of
State Policy from being challenged under
(a) 1 and 2 only
Article 14.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Statement II:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Article 14 guarantees the fundamental right
39. Consider the following pairs with respect to to equality before law and equal protection
the recent Constitutional amendments and of laws.
their provisions: Which one of the following is correct in
Constitutional respect of the above statements?
Provisions (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Amendments:
correct and Statement- II is the correct
1. 104th Constitutional
explanation for Statement-I
Constitutional status to National
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement- II
Amendment Commission for
are correct and Statement-II is not the
Act: Backward Classes
correct explanation for Statement-I
(NCBC)
(c) Statement- I is correct but Statement-II
2. 105th Reservation for is incorrect
Constitutional the Economically (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
Amendment Weaker Sections
II is correct
Act: (EWS)
3. 106th Reservation of seats 42. Consider the following countries:
Constitutional in the Lok Sabha 1. United Arab Emirates
Amendment and state legislatures 2. Egypt
Act: for women 3. Iran
4. Argentina
How many of the above pairs are correctly 5. Ethiopia
matched?
(a) Only one How many of the following countries are
part of BRICS?
(b) Only two
(a) Only two
(c) All three
(b) Only three
(d) None
(c) Only four
40. With reference to the Constitution of India, (d) All five
consider the following:
43. Consider the following statements about
1. Manner of election of the President
the Union Territories of India:
2. Extent of the executive power of States 1. Number of Union Territories has
3. Lists mentioned in the 7th Schedule remained constant since the enactment
How many of the above provisions need of the Constitution of India.
ratification by the State Legislatures for their 2. Creation of new Union Territories
amendment? or the alteration of their boundaries
(a) Only one requires a constitutional amendment
(b) Only two under Article 368.

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3. Parliament has the power to make law fundamental in the governance of the
on any subject matter of any Union country.
Territory. Statement III:
How many of the above statements is/are Higher Judiciary can declare certain laws to
correct? be invalid on the ground that it contravenes a
(a) Only one Directive Principle of State Policy.
(b) Only two
(c) All three Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements ?
(d) None
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
44. The Whistleblower Protection Act, 2014, are correct and both of them explain
primarily aims to: Statement-I
(a) Create a robust mechanism for (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-
investigating corruption allegations. III are correct, but only one of them
(b) Encourage anonymous reporting of explains Statement-I
corruption. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
(c) Establish a monetary reward system correct and that explains Statement-I
for successful whistleblowing. (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III
(d) Safeguard the interests of individuals is correct
who expose corruption. 47. With reference to the Article 15 of the
45. With reference to the President of India, Constitution of India, consider the following
consider the following statements: statements:
1. He/She can grant pardon to persons 1. State can make special provisions
convicted of any offence against a for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Union Law. Tribes for their admission in private
2. He/She can pardon a person sentenced aided educational institutions.
to death by a state High Court. 2. State can make special provisions for
3. His/Her power to pardon extends to Socially and Educationally Backward
cases tried by a Court Martial. Classes for their admission in private
unaided educational institutions.
4. His/Her pardoning power is to be
3. State can provide reservations for
exercised on the advice of the Council
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
of Minister.
in minority educational institutions.
How many of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are
are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) None
46. Consider the following statements : 48. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Statement-I:
It shall be the duty of the State to apply Article 1 of the Constitution of India
the Directive Principles of State Policy in describes India, that is Bharat, as a Union of
making. Laws. States.
Statement-II: Statement-II:
According to the Constitution of India, The term “Union of India” is a wider
Directive Principles of State Policy are expression than “Territory of India”.

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Which one of the following is correct in 51. Consider the following statements about the
respect of the above statements? Preamble to the Indian Constitution:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. It is based on the ‘Objectives
correct and Statement-II is the correct Resolution’, drafted and moved by J.L.
explanation for Statement-I Nehru.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 2. It describes India as a Union of States.
are correct and Statement-II is not the 3. It originally contained the phrase ‘unity
correct explanation for Statement-I of the nation,’ which was later replaced
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II by ‘unity and integrity of the nation.’
is incorrect 4. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- Supreme Court held the Preamble to be
II is correct an integral part of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are
49. With reference to the Constitution of India,
correct?
consider the following rights: (a) Only one
1. Right to education (b) Only two
2. Right to practice any profession, or to (c) Only three
carry on any occupation (d) All four
3. Right to property
52. With reference to the preventive detention,
4. Protection of language, script and consider the following statements:
culture of minorities 1. Any person who is arrested or detained
5. Right to move freely throughout the under a preventive detention law
territory of India shall be produced before the nearest
How many of the above rights are available magistrate within a period of 24 hours
of such arrest.
to a citizen of Britain living in India?
2. No law providing for preventive
(a) Only one detention shall authorise the detention
(b) Only two of a person for a period more than three
(c) Only three months under any circumstance.
(d) Only four 3. Only Parliament can make a law
50. With respect to the Overseas Citizen of India providing for preventive detention.
(OCI) Cardholders, consider the following Which of the above statements are not
statements: correct?
1. OCI cardholder is a citizen of India (a) 1 and 2 only
who is ordinarily residing outside (b) 2 and 3 only
India. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. They are entitled to hold public offices
in India. 53. Which of the following ‘minorities’
3. They are provided with multiple entry, are recognised under Article 30 of the
lifelong visas for visiting India. Constitution of India?
1. Religious minorities
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Linguistic minorities
correct? 3. Racial minorities
(a) 1 only Select the answer using the code given
(b) 3 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

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(c) 1 and 2 only 3. NTCA is chaired by the Minister of

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
54. With reference to the Constitution of India, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. It is the fundamental right of a citizen (a) 1 and 2 only
to move to the Supreme court or High (b) 2 and 3 only
court if their fundamental rights are (c) 1 and 3 only
violated. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Parliament by law can empower any 58. Recently, the X-ray Polarimeter Satellite
court in the country to issue writs for
(XPoSat) has been in the news. Which of the
enforcement of fundamental rights.
following statements are correct regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are XPoSat?
correct? 1. XPoSat is India’s first dedicated
(a) 1 only polarimetry mission to study the
(b) 2 only polarization of X-rays emitted by
(c) Both 1 and 2 astronomical sources.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The mission will primarily focus on
55. If there is a vacancy in the offices of the studying the Earth’s magnetic field and
President, Vice-President, and the Chief its interactions with solar winds.
Justice of India, who discharges the 3. The satellite is being developed by the
functions of the President? Indian Space Research Organisation
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (ISRO) in collaboration with NASA.
(b) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Senior most Judge of Supreme Court
given below:
available
(a) 1 only
(d) Senior-most Governor of State
(b) 1 and 2 only
56. With reference to India, consider the (c) 1 and 3 only
following: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Customary Law
2. Subordinate legislation 59. Which of the following provisions in the
3. Statutes Constitution of India can be amended by a
4. Bye-laws simple majority of the two Houses of the
Parliament?
How many of the above are source of laws in India? 1. Abolition or creation of Legislative
(a) Only one
Councils in States
(b) Only two
2. Admission or establishment of new
(c) Only three
states
(d) All four
3. Increasing the number of judges in
57. In the context of 50 years of Project Tiger, Supreme Court of India
consider the following statements: 4. Repeal of any of the provisions of the
1. India currently hosts more than 70% of Fifth schedule.
the world’s wild tiger population, as a
result of the conservation efforts under Select the correct answer using the code
Project Tiger. given below:
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority (a) 2 and 3 only
(NTCA) is a statutory body established (b) 1 and 2 only
under the provisions of Wildlife (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(Protection) Act, 1972. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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60. Which of the following is an implication of In which of the situations stated above, an
the Council of Ministers being collectively Indian citizen can lose his/her citizenship?
responsible to Lok Sabha in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Council of Ministers which loses the (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
confidence of Lok Sabha is obliged to (c) 2 and 4 only
resign. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. If the Council of Ministers loses 63. Which one of the following categories
majority in the Lok Sabha, the House of Fundamental Rights incorporates the
needs to be dissolved. protection in respect of conviction for
Which of the statements given above is/are offences?
correct? (a) Right to freedom
(a) 1 only (b) Right against exploitation
(b) 2 only (c) Right to Equality
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 64. With reference to the Sovereign Gold Bond
61. Arrange the following events in (SGB), consider the following statements:
chronological order, starting from the 1. They are considered safe as there is no
earliest: risk of capital loss.
1. Adoption of the Objective Resolution 2. The Bond does not have a minimum
by the Constituent Assembly of India investment requirement.
2. Adoption of the National Flag by the 3. They can be traded in the stock market.
Constituent Assembly of India 4. Interest rate on the bonds is linked to
3. The Constitution of India coming into the market price of gold.
force How many of the above statements are
4. Last meeting of the Constituent correct?
Assembly of India (a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Only two
given below: (c) Only three
(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (d) All four
(b) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 65. Which of the following best describes the
(c) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 term “Default Bail”, sometimes seen in the
(d) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 news?
62. With reference to the loss of citizenship in (a) A bail granted for a short period until
India, consider the following: the regular bail application is heard
1. If a person, other than a student resides and decided.
in another country for 5 consecutive (b) A bail granted to a person who
years without registering at an Indian anticipates arrest for a non-bailable
consulate his internation to retain offense.
Indian citizenship. (c) A bail granted when the investigating
2. If a person has shown disloyalty authorities fail to complete the
towards the Constitution investigation within the specified time,
3. If an Indian citizen of full age and (d) A bail granted when an accused is
capacity voluntarily relinquishes unable to secure legal representation
citizenship through his will. within the stipulated time.
4. If a person illegally traded or 66. With reference to the Constitution of
communicated with the enemy during war India, which of the following is the best

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implication of the term “Equal Protection 69. Consider the following statements about
of Laws”? the Constituent Assembly of India:
(a) All persons within territory of India 1. Representatives of the princely states
shall be treated equal in judicial matters in the Constituent Assembly were to be
(b) Absence of any privilege in favor of nominated by the heads of the princely
any individual states
(c) States can treat unequals differently to 2. Members of each community in the
create a level playing field in the social Provincial Legislative Assembly
and political sphere. elected their own representatives by the
(d) Allowing Class Legislation for method of proportional representation
different classes
with single transferable vote. .
67. With reference to the Constitution of India, 3. The Seats in each British Indian
consider the following statements: Province were distributed among
1. Prime Minister shall hold office during General, Muslims and Sikhs as per
the pleasure of the President their respective populations.
2. Union Council of Ministers shall hold
How many of the statements given above
office during the pleasure of the Prime
are correct?
Minister.
(a) Only one
3. Resignation of the Council of Ministers
(b) Only two
in state necessarily leads to President’s
(c) All three
Rule.
(d) None
How many of the statements given above
70. The “Right to be Forgotten” has been a
are correct?
subject of debate in India and globally.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Consider the following statements in this
(c) All three context:
(d) None 1. The Right to be Forgotten allows
individuals to request the removal
68. With reference to the procedure of changing of personal information from search
name of a State in India, consider the engines and online databases.
following statements: 2. Digital Personal Data Protection Act
1. Introduction of a Bill for changing 2023 makes Right to be Forgotten as a
the name of a State requires the
statutory right.
recommendation of the President.
2. President shall refer such a Bill to Which of the statements given above is/are
the concerned State legislature for its correct?
views. (a) 1 only
3. Such a Bill must be passed by a (b) 2 only
simple majority in both Houses of the (c) Both 1 and 2
Parliament. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the above statements are 71. In the context of recently launched National
correct? Coal Gasification mission by the Government
(a) Only one of India, consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. Syngas produced after coal gasification
(c) All three is primarily a mixture of carbon dioxide
(d) None and methane.

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2. Syngas can serve as a substitute for (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
natural gas in the production of urea. is incorrect
3. National Coal Gasification Mission (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
aims to achieve 100 million tons of II is correct
coal gasification by 2030. 74. With reference to Prime Minister’s Office
How many of the above statements are (PMO), consider the following statements:
correct? 1. It is an extra-constitutional body.
2. It is administratively headed by the
(a) Only one
Cabinet Secretary.
(b) Only two
3. PMO has the reponsibility to ensure
(c) All three Inter-Ministerial coordination though
(d) None meeting of the Committees of
72. With reference to Fundamental Duties Secretaries.
under the Constitution of India, consider 4. National Authority Chemical Weapons
the following statements: Convention has been established under
1. Constituent Assembly of India had the PMO.
unanimously adopted the Fundamental
How many of the above statements are
Duties.
correct?
2. Fundamental Duties are applicable
(a) Only one
only for the citizens, and not foreigners.
(b) Only two
3. Fundamental Duties in the Indian
Constitution are inspired by the (c) Only three
Constitution of erstwhile USSR. (d) All four

Which of the statements given above is/are 75. Article 12 has defined the term ‘State’
correct? for the purposes of Part III of the Indian
(a) 3 only Constitution. According to this definition,
(b) 1 and 3 only the term ‘State’ includes which of the
(c) 1 and 2 only following?
(d) 2 and 3 only 1. Both Houses of Parliament
2. State Council of Ministers
73. Consider the following statements :
3. State Legislative Council
Statement-I: 4. Panchayati Raj Institutions
The President of India is indirectly elected. Select the correct answer using the codes
Statement-II: given below:
(a) 2 only
President is elected by the members of
an electoral college consisting of elected (b) 1 and 2 only
members of both Houses of Parliament and (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Legislative Assemblies of the States (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Which one of the following is correct in 76. Consider the following:

respect of the above statements? 1. Federalism
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Balance between Fundamental Rights
correct and Statement-II is the correct and Directive Principles
explanation for Statement-I 3. Separation of Power between the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II legislature, the executive and the
are correct and Statement-II is not the judiciary
correct explanation for Statement-I 4. Supremacy of Parliament

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How many of the above are part of the Basic Select the correct answer using the code
structure of the Constitution of India? given below:
(a) Only one (a) 3 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only three (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
80. With the National Quantum Mission (NQM)
77. With reference to Government of India Act
aiming to revolutionize technology across
1935, consider the following statements:
various sectors, consider the following
1. It provided for a bicameral federal impacts:
legislature in which Princely states 1. Advancement in computing power for
were given disproportionate weightage. complex problem-solving
2. At provincial administration level, the 2. Satellite-based secure quantum
Governor could veto legislative action. communications between ground
3. Governor - General and Governors stations
were to be appointed by the British 3. Design and synthesis of quantum
government and were responsible to materials
the central and provincial legislature How many of the above reflect the potential
respectively. impacts of NQM?
(a) Only one
Which of the above statements is/are
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only 81. Consider the following statements :
(d) 1 and 3 only Statement-I:
78. The Third Schedule of the Constitution Urea Gold can reduce the consumption of
of India contains Forms of Oaths or fertilizer, and enhance crop quality.
Affirmations for? Statement-II:
1. A candidate for election to the
Urea Gold is coated with Sulphur and will
Legislature of a State.
address the sulphur deficiencies in the soil
2. A member of the Legislature of a State.
3. A candidate for election to Parliament. Statement III:
4. A member of Parliament. Urea Gold can improve nitrogen use
5. The President of India efficiency by ensuring a gradual release of
6. Judges of the Supreme Court Nitrogen.
Select the answer using the code given below : Which one of the following is correct in
(a) 2, 4 and 6 only respect of the above statements ?
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only are correct and both of them explain
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-
79. Which of the following is/are considered III are correct, but only one of them
as federal features of the Constitution of explains Statement-I
India? (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
1. Independent and integrated judiciary correct and that explains Statement-I
2. Written and rigid constitution (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III
3. Bicameralism is correct

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82. Which of the following provisions in the following statements are correct regarding
Constitution of India explicitly mentions the India-Myanmar relations?
the preservation and enhancement of the 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport
environment? Project will connect Mizoram in India
(a) Preamble to Sittwe Port in Myanmar.
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Both India and Myanmar are members
(c) Fundamental Duties of Mekong Ganga Cooperation.
(d) Both (b) and (c) 3. Harimau Shakti is the joint military
83. Which of the following constitutional exercise between two countries.
functionaries are appointed by the President
Select the correct answer using the code
of India?
given below:
1. Judges of High Courts
2. Chairman of State Public Commision (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Chairman of Union Finance (b) 2 and 3 only
Commission (c) 1 and 3 only
4. State Election Commissioner (d) 1, 2 and 3

Select the correct answer using the code 87. The PRITHVI (PRITHvi VIgyan) scheme
given below: was recently launched by which of the
(a) 1 and 2 only following ministries?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only Climate Change
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
84. “To promote harmony and the spirit of
common brotherhood amongst all the (d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’
people of India” is a provision made in the: Welfare
(a) Fundamental Rights 88. With reference to the Citizenship
(b) Fundamental Duties Amendment Act (CAA) 2019, consider the
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy following statements:
(d) Preamble to the Constitution of India 1. Total residency period required to get
85. With reference to 44th Amendment Act Indian citizenship by naturalization has
1978, consider the following statements: been reduced from 12 years to 5 years
1. It provided that the state should strive in certain cases.
to minimize the inequalities in income. 2. Person seeking citizenship under
2. It provided for the participation of CAA 2019 must have a valid passport
workers in the management of industry. from either Pakistan, Bangladesh, or
3. It required the state to provide free Afghanistan.
legal aid to the poor. 3. Eligible applicants under the CAA
How many of the above statements are 2019 will be granted citizenship
correct? retrospectively from the date of their
(a) Only one entry into India.
(b) Only two How many of the statements given above
(c) All three are correct?
(d) None (a) Only one
86. Recently, India and Myanmar have (b) Only two
undertaken various initiatives to strengthen (c) All three
their bilateral relations. Which of the (d) None

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89. World Economic Forum’s Centre for Fourth (c) Both 1 and 2
Industrial Revolution (C4IR), which was in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
news recently, has been set up in: 93. With reference to the major committees
(a) New Delhi appointed by Constituent assembly of India,
(b) Hyderabad consider the following:
(c) Bangalore
Committees Chairman
(d) Ladakh
1. Union constitution Dr. B.R.
90. Kai chutney (Red ant chutney), that recently committee Ambedkar
earned Geographical Indication tag, belongs 2. Provincial constitution Sardar patel
to: committee
(a) Jharkhand 3. Advisory Committee J.L. Nehru
(b) Maharashtra on Fundamental Minorities
(c) Odisha Rights, and Tribal and
(d) Chhattisgarh Excluded Areas
91. Consider the following statements: How many of the above pairs are correctly
Statement I: matched ?
(a) Only one
25th January is observed as the National
(b) Only two
Voters’ Day every year in India.
(c) All three
Statement II: (d) None
It was on this day in 1950 that the Election 94. The landmark case of D.C. Wadhwa vs.
Commission of India was established. State of Bihar (1986) in the Supreme Court
Which one of the following is correct in is related to which of the following?
respect of the above statements? (a) The misuse of the President’s Rule
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are under Article 356 of the Constitution
correct, and Statement II is the correct (b) The repeated promulgation of
explanation for Statement I ordinances by the executive, bypassing
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are the legislature
correct, and Statement II is not the
(c) The constitutional validity of
correct explanation for Statement I
reservations in promotions for
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
is incorrect government employees
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement (d) Misuse of Governor’s discretionary
II is correct powers
92. With reference to the Constitution of India, 95. With reference to the Minority educational
consider the following statements: institutions in India, consider the following
1. A Union minister who is a member of statements:
the Lok sabha has the right to speak 1. All religious as well as linguistic
and take part in the proceedings of the minorities have the fundamental right
Rajya Sabha. to establish and administer educational
2. A Union minister who is a member of institutions of their choice.
the Rajya Sabha can not take part in the 2. As per the Supreme Court’s judgement,
proceedings of the Lok Sabha Sabha. minority educational institutions can
Which of the statements given above is/are reserve up to 50% of seats for students
correct? from their community.
(a) 1 only 3. Religious instructions can not be
(b) 2 only provided in a minority educational

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institution which is wholly maintained (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
out of State funds. correct and Statement- II is the correct
How many of the statements given above is/ explanation for Statement-I
are correct? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement- II
(a) Only one are correct and Statement-II is not the
(b) Only two correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) All three (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement-II
(d) None is incorrect
96. Consider the following statements regarding (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
resolution for impeachment of President of II is correct
India: 98. With reference to the Constitution of India,
1. Impeachment charges against the consider the following statements:
President shall be signed by at least 1. To be eligible for election as the
100 members in the case of Lok Sabha President of India, a person must be
or 50 members in the case of Rajya qualified for election as a member of
Sabha. the Lok Sabha.
2. Impeachment resolution shall be 2. To be eligible for election as the Vice-
passed by both Houses by a majority President of India, a person must be
of two-thirds of the total membership. qualified for election as a member of
3. Constitution of India mandates that the Rajya Sabha.
a presidential election must be held 3. To be eligible for appointment as the
within six months of the vacancy in the Governor of a State, a person must be
office due to impeachment. qualified for election as a member of
How many of the above statements are the State Legislative Assembly.
correct? 4. The minimum age required for
(a) Only one eligibility for election as President,
(b) Only two Vice-President, or Governor is the
(c) Only three same.
(d) All four How many of the statements given above
97. Consider the following statements are correct?
Statement I: (a) Only one
(b) Only two
The Election Commission of India is
(c) Only three
empowered to address and decide upon all
(d) All four
doubts and disputes concerning the election
of the President. 99. In Country X, a new law mandates two
years of community service before citizens
Statement II:
can contest elections for any public office.
Under Article 324 of the Constitution of The government argues this ensures
India, The Election Commission of India candidates have first-hand experience with
is entrusted with the responsibility of societal challenges, necessary for effective
conducting the Presidential Election. governance. However, some critics argue
Which one of the following is correct in it discourages those without the time or
respect of the above statements? resources for such service from seeking office.

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How does the new requirement for political 100. Recently, the “Statue of Social Justice”
candidates in Country X primarily affect in Vijayawada has been unveiled to
their liberty? honor an individual renowned for his
(a) It limits positive liberty by enforcing pivotal role in the Indian social reform
a uniform criterion for eligibility movement, specifically his efforts against
irrespective of the candidate’s social untouchability and authoritarianism.
conditions. Which of the following personalities has
(b) It enhances negative liberty by been described in the above paragraph?
providing a structured path to (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
candidacy. (b) Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
(c) It reduces negative liberty by adding a (c) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
precondition to candidacy. (d) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(d) It increases positive liberty by
encouraging a well-rounded leadership
perspective. nnnn

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Space for Rough Work

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