University Of Calabar, Calabar

UNICAL Past Post-UTME Screening Questions and Answers and Current

Affairs for All Science Related Courses.

2005-2022
Compiled By OJ Joseph (07042357789) in Collaboration With
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Choose the expression or word which BEST COMPLETES each sentence
1. I am intent __________ continuing my course
A. on B. with C. as D. to E. at
2. _________ equations use letters to stand for numbers
A. Silmultenous B. Simultanous
C.Simultanous D. Simultaneous
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the underlined word(s).

3. Elemi’s sagacity contrasted sharply with his friend’s_____________

A. Timidity B. Wisdom C. Fluency D. Foolishness
4. Some people keep ferocious animals as pets.
A. Gentle B. Wild C. Fierce D. Domestic
From the options listed A – D select the word that best CAPTURES THE MEANING of the
italicized part of the sentences
5. Every visitor to Calabar must visit where photographs and artifacts of early European
colonial presence in Nigeria are kept
A. Archives B. Ranch C. Market D. museum
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is NEAREST IN MEANING to
the underlined word
6. Ebire’s generosity turned out to be her Achilles’ heel
A. Strong point B. Favourite habit C. Weak point D. Less popular virtue
Choose the expression or word which BEST COMPLETES each sentence

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7. The giant hydro-electric project is among the ________ of colonial rule in Southern
Africa
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A. Inheritance B. Remnants C. Legacies D. Evidence
8. Ukpabio is proficient _______ tailoring
A. With B. In C. Of D. At
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the underlined
9. The demonstration was organized by hoodlums
A. Criminals B. Activists C. Thugs D. Soldiers
10. The plaintiff convinced the court that the murder was inadvertent
A. Brutal B. Wicked C. Careless D. Premeditated
11. The bush burning festival will further renew our forest resource
A. IncreaseB. Reduce C. Deplete D. Remove
Choose from the options lettered A – E the one that has the correct stress with the
word given. In each word only the stressed part is in CAPITAL
12. Planetarium
A. PLAN-e-tar-i-umB. plan-E-tar-i-um C. plan-e-TAR-i-um D .plan-e-tar-I-um
Choose from the options the word which has THE SAME SOUND as the underlined

13. COURTESY A. our B. Court C. Shirt D. Tour

From the options listed A – D select the word that best CAPTURES THE MEANING of the
italicized part of the sentences.

14. Lecturers assisted Prof. Atahiru Jega when Nigerians chose their political leaders
A. election B. nomination C. appointment D. selection
15. Mother always pays attention to details
A. frivolous B. interesting C. rigid D. meticulous
Choose the option that BEST EXPLAINS the information conveyed in the sentences
below

16. The rampage in England shows that youths react the same way under provocation
A.youths in England are very good B.youths in England are miscreants
C.youths act the same way when provoked D.youths provoke people in England
From the options choose the appropriate STRESS pattern. The stressed syllables are
written in
CAPITAL letters.

17. Intimacy
A. INtimacy B. inTImacy C. intiMAcy D. INTImacy
18. consideration
A. CONsideration B. consideration C. consiDERation D. considerAtion
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From the words lettered A – D choose the word that rhymes with the given word
19. purity
A. plentiful B. security C. purify D. nonentity
From the words lettered A – D choose the word that rhymes with the given word
20. beautiful
A. beautify B. beautification C. dutiful D. dignify
Choose from the options lettered A – E the one that has the correct stress with the
word given. In
each word only the stressed part is in CAPITAL

21. constitutional
A.con-sti-tu-tion-AL B.con-sti-TU-tion-al C.CON-sti-tu-tion-al D.con-STI-tu-tion-al

22. abnormality
A.AB-nor-ma-li-ty B.ab-nor-ma-li-TY C.ab-nor-ma-LI-ty D.ab-nor-MA-li-ty From
the options A to D, choose the expression that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the
underlined word

23. The use of Latin expressions in English is now dated A. well-established B. historical
C. old- fashioned D. popular

24. His uncle showed affected interest in his welfare.

A. pretended B. loving C. genuine D. deep
From the options choose the expression that BEST COMPLETES each sentence
25. I am qualified for the job; ----?
A. haven’t I B. Isn’t it C. aren’t I D. ain’t I
26. My sister along with her colleagues-----the museum today.
A. are visiting B. have visited C. were visiting D. is visiting
Choose the word that has the SAME SOUND as the one represented by the underlined
letter

27. mansion
A.cheap B.leisure C.peace D.action

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28. time
A.print B.might C.flip D.illegal
From the options choose the expression that BEST COMPLETES each sentence.

29. Every student _______before the principal entered the hall

A. has arrived B. have arrived C. had arrived D. arrived
30. The workers presented __________ to the National Assembly
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A. five pages document B. five-paged document
C. a five - paged document D. a five - page document
From the options A to D, choose the expression that is NEAREST IN MEANING to
the underlined word(s).
31. A dogged student is likely to succeed
A. Studious B. Clever C. Curious D.Determined
Choose the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence below
32. When I visited Okon I only gave him a congratulatory card
A.the only person I visited was Okon and nobody else
B. it was only Okon that I gave a congratulatory card
C.Okon only wanted a congratulatory card
D.All that I gave Okon when I visited him was a congratulatory card
From the options choose the expression that BEST COMPLETES each sentence

33. The police ------------up a list of suspects in the recent bombings.

A.Has drawned B. Has drawn C. have drawned D. Have drawn
Choose the word that has the same sound as the one represented by the underlined

letter

34. book
A.lamb B.flock C.slump D.club

35. key
Akite B.quay C.kindred D.quarter
Choose the expression or word which best completes each sentence

36. Since Atim hasn’t come till now I am in doubt ________ what to do
A. to B. with C. about D. of
37. The method ________ does not give the expected results
A. you recommended B. you visited C. you told me D. you sent me
From the options listed A – E select the word that best captures the meaning of the
italicized part of the sentences
38. Wolves are meat eaters
A. herbivores B. carnivores C. animals D. omnivores
39. Miss Suzuki has published the life stories of three movies stars
A. historian B. autobiographer C. writer D. biographer
40. Most of the birds my grandfather described are no longer available in our village
forest
A. travelled B. migrated C. hibernated D. extinct
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Select the word that best captures the meaning of the italicised part of the sentence.
41. The principles of American government are the direct opposite of communist
doctrine A. apex B. antithesis C. anathema D. ambivalence

42. Superstition has it that certain foods and drinks are able to increase sexual desire
or potency

A. Apocryphal B. Amorous C. Amorphous D. Aphrodisiac

43. Collins had little understanding of the game, and most of his moves were random,
based on caprice rather than reasoning
A. Assiduous B. Astute C. Arbitrary D. Acute
44. Eddy vowed to live a long and happy life, shun temptation and avoid extremes
A. Deny B. Devolve C. Eschew D. Emulate
Choose the expression or word which best completes each sentence.
45. By the end of this year _______ in this town for eleven years
A. I’m living B. I’d be living C. I have lived D. I’ll have lived
Fill in the blank in the following sentences making use of the best of the five options.
46. He was reported_____ the policeman
A. to be assaulting B. to assault
C. assaulting D. to have assaulted
47. He devoted himself_____ homeless children
A. to helping B. to help C. with helping D. helping
48. My younger brother looked ill last night and evidently______ this morning.
A. Worse B. Worst C. More ill D. leaner

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After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretation of all or part of
the sentence is given.

Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence:
49. For us to succeed in this task all hands must be on deck. This means that
everybody
A. should push with his hands B. will have to place his hands on the deck
C. must cooperate D. should take a test to qualify
50. Kate was at home with all the questions asked by the examiner. This means that
Kate was:
A. Familiar with the questions B. Went home with the questions
C. Prepared to go home with the questions D. Conceited about the questions
51. Mike flies off the handle each time there is an argument. This means:
A. Mike holds the door handle when he argues B. Mike allows the handle to fly C.
Mike easily loses his temper D. Mike can cope with any argument
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Complete the following sentences with the right option from the words supplied after
each sentence.
52. When the fire broke out in the hostel, students in _________ rushed out in all
directions.
A. Crisis B. Panic C. Haste D. Hurry
53. Astronomers keep a close watch of the night sky in order not to miss the
_________ appearance of some stars
A. Parallel B. Periodic C. Regular D. Constant
Choose the word or phrase from options A-D which has the nearest meaning to the
underlined word or words in each sentence.
54. My mother has refused to come to live in Lagos because she prefers the tranquil life
in the village to the hurly burly of the city.
A. Sweet B. Prosperous C. Peaceful D. Decent
55. A lorry larger than an elephant was struck on the bridge A.
As large as an elephant B. Carrying an elephant.
C. That looked like an elephant D. Of enormous proportions.
Choose the option that best completes the sentence.
56. The dentist found that his patient’s teeth___
A. Have long decayed B. Have long been decayed
C. Have long being decayed D. Had long decayed
57. In order to catty out the necessary examination, the dead body was_____
A. Extracted B. Exhumed C. Extradited D. Expelled
58. He went abroad with a view_____ a business partner
A. To fund B. To funding C. To be funding D. To have funded
In question 59, which of the options express the same idea as the one in quote?
59. ‘To put something aside’ is to
A. Put it one’s side. B. Put it in a side pocket for future use.
C. Keep something for some special purpose. D. Keep in safety.
Select the option that best explains the sentence:
60. The painting was beautifully faked
A. The painting was a good deceptive replica B. The painting was well framed and
displayed
C. The painting was deceptively decorated D. The painting was carefully hung From
the alternatives provided select the one which best completes the sentence 61.

If only I ________ insured? But I wasn’t. But I have to pay a lot of money A.
am B. have been C. had been D. was to be

62. Since the petition writer did not include his name, the vice chancellor refused
to act on such_________ letter
A. a spontaneous B. an anonymous C. a scandalous D. a cowardly
63. The first graduation ceremony of the university was attended by men from all
_______ of life
A. works B. areas C. walks D. walk
Choose the word or phrase from options A – D which has the nearest meaning to the
underlined word or words in each sentence
64. He should be able to do it alone
A. he would be able to do it alone B. he ought to be able to do it alone
C. he has to be able to do it alone D. he will do it alone
65. The old man was said to have died intestate
A. without an estate B. in his estate

C. without a will D. in good state

From the alternatives provided select the one which best completes the sentence

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66. If only I ________ insured? But I wasn’t. But I have to pay a lot of money
A. am B. have been C. had been D. was to be
67. Since the petition writer did not include his name, the vice chancellor refused to act
on
such_________ letter
A. a spontaneous B. an anonymous C. a scandalous D. a cowardly
68. The first graduation ceremony of the university was attended by men from all
_______ of life
A. works B. areas C. walks D. walk
Choose the word or phrase from options A – D which has the nearest meaning to the
underlined word or words in each sentence
69. He should be able to do it alone
A. he would be able to do it alone B. he ought to be able to do it alone
C. he has to be able to do it alone D. he will do it alone
70. The old man was said to have died intestate
A. without an estate B. in his estate C. without a will D. in good state
In each of the following questions, the word in capital letter has the emphatic stress.
Choose the option that best fits the expression in the sentence.
71. The man BOUGHT the newspaper
A. Is this the newspaper which the man bought? B. Did the man read the newspaper?
C. Who bought the newspaper? D. What did the man buy?
72. The chief RAN to the place
A. Where did the chief run to? B. Did the chief walk to the place?
C. Did the princess run to the place D. Who ran to the place?
From the options lettered A – D choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined
words in the following sentences

73. Ebere’s _________ contrasts with his brother’s indolence

A. indulgence B. laziness C. labour D. diligence
74. The discussion ended on an amicable note even though there was grave _________
at the beginning
A. hostility B. incompatibility C. irresponsibility D. camaraderie
Select the word that best captures the meaning of the italicized part of the sentence
75. Some politicians in the area were said to be engaged in double dealing A.
eschewing B. effeteness C. duplicity D. dubiousness
MATHEMATICS
1. Find the average of the first four prime numbers greater than 10
A. 20 B. C.17 D.15
2. Given that P
⁄and p = 3 when r =16, find the value of r when p =
⁄
A. B. C.72 D.324
3. 4 x 10-5
=
A. - 40,000 B. - 200 C. 0.0004 D. 0.00004
4. Which of the following equations corresponds the data in the
table? x y -20 -1/8
-10 -1/3
0 1/2
5 2/9
20 1/12
A. y = 1 / ( x + 2) B. y = 2 / ( x + 4)
C. y = (x - 1) / ( x + 2) D. y = 2 / ( x - 2)
5. The quadratic equation whose roots are at x = 3 and x = 5 is given by
A. (x - 3)(x - 5) = 1 B. (x + 3)(x + 5) - 9 = (x + 3)(x + 5) – 25
C. (x + 3)(x + 5) = 0 D. x
2
- 8x = -15
6. There are 15 balls in a box: 8 balls are green, 4 are blue and 3 are white. Then 1
green and 1 blue balls are taken from the box and put away. What is the probability
that a blue ball is selected at random from the box?
A. 3/13 B. 4/15 C. 3/15 D. 4/13
7. If -3/(a - 3) = 3/(a + 2), then a = ?
A. -3 B. -2 C. 1/2 D. 2
8. What is the average of 7/8 and 3/4?|
A. 13/8 B. 5/6 C. 5/3 D. 13/16
9. If the hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10 inches long and one of its legs is 5
inches long, how long is the other leg? A. 5 B. 5√3 C. 5√5 D. 75
10. If 8y = 3x - 11, then x =
A. (88/3) y B. (8/3) y + 11 C. (8/3) y - 11 D. (8y + 11)/3
11. Which of the statements describes the solution set for -2(x + 8) = -2x + 20?
A. x = - 2 only B. x = 0 only C. x = 20 only D. There are no solutions for this
equation.
12. When graphed in the (x,y) coordinate plane, at what point do the lines 2x
+ 3y = 5 and x = -2
intersect?
A. (-2,0) B. (-2,5) C. (0,5/3) D. (-2,3)

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13. Which of the following is equal to √45
A. 15 B. 5√3 C. 9√5 D. 3√5
14. If a = 3, then 2 / (1/7 + 1/a) = ?
A. 5 B. 21/10 C. 20 D. 21/5
15. If the expression x3
+ 2hx - 2 is equal to 6 when x = -2, what is the value of h?
A. 0 B. -2 C. -4 D. 4
16. Which of the graphs below is the solution set of -3x ≤ 12
7. If the domain of function f given by f(x) = -x
2
+ 6x is given by the interval [0 , 6], then the range of f is given by
the interval
A. [0 , 9] B. [0 , 6] C. [0 , 3] D. [3 , 6]

18. The x intercepts of the graph of y = -x

2
+ 3x + 18 are given by
A. (6 , -3) B. (-3 , 6) C. (-3 , 0) and (6 , 0) D. (3 , 0) and (-6 , 0)
19. The sum of the first n terms of a linear sequence Sn = n2 + 2n. Determine the
general term of the
sequence
A.n+1 B.2n+1 C.3n+1
D.4n+1
20. The length of a rectangle is 3 times its width. If the width of the rectangle is 5
inches, what is the rectangle's area, in square inches? A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 75 21.
What is the slope of the line
4x = -3y + 8
A. 4 B. -3/4 C. -4/3 D. 8
22. The length of a rectangle is 3 times its width. If the width of the rectangle is 5
inches, what is the rectangle's area, in square inches?
A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 75
23. If 1.56x
= 2, then x =
A.ln 1.56 / ln 2 B.ln 2 / ln 1.56 C. 2 / ln 1.56 D.ln 2 / 1.56
24. A machine valued at N20, 000 depreciates by 10% every year. What will be the
value of the machine at the end of two years?
A.N16, 200 B.N14, 000 C.N12, 000 D.N16, 000
25. x
3
-2x2
+4x -8 = 0 if x =
A. 4 B. 8 C. 2 D. -8 E. -4
26. The sum of integers from 4 to 8 plus the sum from 12 to 16 is
A. 80 B. 120 C. 100 D. 110 E. 90
27. If the diagonals of a quadruplet are equal then the quadruplet is a A.
square B. parallelogram C. rhomboid

D. trapezoid E. rectangle
28. The sum of four powers of q starting from power 0 is 85. Then q =
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6
Amount (in Naira) 3 6 9 12 15 18
Number of Students 3 9 6 15 3 12
29. What is the mode
A. N3 B. N6 C. N9 D. N12 E. N15
30. Find the median of the distribution
A. N3.00 B. N9.00 C. N12.00 D. N15.00 E. N18.00
31. Factorize: 3a2
–11a + 6
A. (3a–2) (a–3) B.(2a–2) (a–3) C. (3a–2) (a+3) D. (3a+2) (a–3) E.
(2a–3) (a+2)
33. In a soccer competition in one season, a club had scored the following goals: 2, 0,
3, 3, 2, 1, 4, 0, 0,
5, 1, 0, 2, 2, 1, 3, 1, 4, 1 and 1. The mean, median and mode are respectively
A. 1, 1.8 and 1.5 B. 1.8, 1.5 and 1 C. 1.8, 1 and 1.5
D. 1.5, 1 and 1.8
37. If opposite sides of a quadruple are equal then it is a
A. square B. trapezoid C. parallelogram D. rhomboid E. no such quadruple
38. The sum of even numbers from 12 to 18 is
A. 80 B. 40 C. 70 D. 60 E. 90
39. The sum of powers of 3 starting from power 2 is 117. Then the number of added
powers is
A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 E. 1
40. What is the relationship between 2ab and a+b where a, b are numbers?
A. 2ab a+b B. 2ab ≥ a+b C. 2ab ≠ a+b
D. 2ab = a+b E. 2ab > a+b
41. There are four visitors in a party. There are two tables with two seats each. In how
many different ways can these guests sit down? A. 16 B. 24 C. 20 D. 12 E. 18
42. What is the modal goal scored
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5
45. tan x+ cot x = A. sin 2x B. 2/sin 2x C. 1/cos 2x D. cos 2x
48. Express 0.00562 in standard form
A. 5.62 x 10-3 B. 5.62 x 10-2 C. 5.62 x 102 D. 5.62 x 103
49. If 32x = 27
A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 4.5 D. 18
50. The population of a village is 5846. Express this number to three significant figures
A. 5850 B. 5846 C. 584 D. 585
54. What is the mean goal scored? A. 0.75 B. 1.75 C. 1.9 D. 2
56. N1, 000,000.00 is put for 4% yearly interest for three years with the interest added
at the end of each year to the base. At the end of the three years the money will be

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A. N1, 122,416.00 B. N1, 124,864.00
C. N1, 241,232.00 D. N1, 422,232.00 E. N1, 441,122.00
57. Joe gets N40.00 to buy erasers for N5.00 each, pencils for N7.00 each and rulers
for N8.00 each so that minimum number of items are bought and all the money is
spent, then the number of pencils bought is
A. 6 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 E. 4
A. 4 B. 8 C. 2 D. 3 E. -4
61. Given that y= px + q and y= 5 when x= 3, while y= 4 when x= 2 find the values of
p and q
A. p= 1, q= 3 B. p = 1, q = 2 C. p = -2, q = 3 D. p = 3, q = -2
62. If 2 y3 <32 y1 , which of the following is true? A. y>7 B. y<-7 C. y>-7 D. y<7 63.
A boy estimated his transport fare for a journey as N190 instead of N200. Find the
percentage error in his estimate. A. 95% B. 47.5% C. 5.26% D. 5%
64. The value of 5721023 A. 5 B. 1/5 C. 1 D. 7
65. There are three boys and three girls in a party. In how many different ways can
they dance?
66. If a sweet costs N2.00, a chocolate costs N3.00 and a cake costs N5,00 then buy
from each item at
least one and as many items as possible from N20.00. The number of sweets you by
then is
A. 10 B. 6 C. 8 D. 6
67. 2 1 6 1 2 3 = A. 9 B. 3
1/2 C. 3 D. 27
68. log xlog x = 1 where log x =log10 x. Then x =
A. 10 or 1/10 B. 0 C. 2 D. 3
69. If the elements of a series are 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13 … then the next element is
A. 22 B. 19 C. 16 D. 21
70. log 27 x = A. 2log9 x B. 3log3 x C. 2log6 x D. 2log3 x

BIOLOGY
1. The wavelike motion of the muscles of the oesophagus to push each bolus of food
downwards is known as
A. Anti-peristalsis B. Digestion C. Peristalsis D. Oesophageal motion
2. Which of these diseases cannot be controlled by killing the vectors?
A. River blindness B. Malaria C. Polio D. Cholera
3. If a tall man (TT) marries a dwarf woman (tt) and they have four children, what will
be the ratio of tall to dwarf children?
A. 0 tall:4 dwarf B. 3 tall:1 dwarf C. 2 dwarf:2 tall D. 4 tall:0 dwarf
4. The chromosome is found in which organelle
A. The Nucleus B. The Mitochondria C. The Vesicle D. The Cytosol
5. Photosynthetic organisms are classified as__________
A. Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Herbivorous D. Omnivorous
6. Which of the organisms listed below is not a micro-organism?
A. Virus B. Tapeworm C. Coccus D. Vibro cholera
7. The nervous system is made up of
A. Kidney, bladder and liver B. Testes and ovaries C. Brain
and spinal cord D. Muscles and skeleton 8. The synthesis
of protein takes place in___________
A. Golgi body B. Ribosome C. Mitochondria D. Nucleus
9. Mutations involving alterations in the genes are called
A. Gene mutations B. Gene changes
C. Chromosomal mutations D. Chromosomal changes
10. Which vertebra has a projection on the centrum called odontoid process?
A. Atlas B. Axis C. Thoracic D. Lumber
11. Deamination occurs in
A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver
12. The ability of an organisms to live successfully in an environment is known as
A. Succession B. Resistance C. Adaptation D. Competition
13. The following are connected with the movement of a reflex action
(1) Central nervous system, (2) Muscle, (3) Skin, (4) Sensory nerve, (5) Motor nerve
Which of the following sequences indicates a correct path?
A. 1-2-3-4-5 B. 2-1-4-5-3 C. 3-4-1-2-5 D. 3-4-1-5-2
14. Which of the following statements is NOT true of symbiosis?
A. Symbionts must be living B. It is an association of ‘give and take’
C. The association may involve two plants D. Association between two similar species
15. The deficiency of Vitamin D leads to:
A. Scurvy B. Pellagra C. Rickets D. Beriberi
16. Hepatic portal vein is unique because it
A. Carries deoxygenated blood B. Begins and ends with capillaries
C. Is the largest vein in mammals D. Carried digested food
17. The thoracic vertebrae of a mammal is characterized by the
A. Vertebraterial canal B. Prominent neural arch
C. Prominent neural process D. Prominent neural spine
18. A grasshopper respires by means of its
A. Lung-books B. Gills C. Lungs D. Tracheal tubes

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19. The inactive state exhibited by an animal during hot dry seasons is termed
A. Aestivation B. Dormancy
C. Resting D. Hibernation
20. Auxins are produced in the
A. petiole of leaves B. parenchyma of roots and shoots
C. epidermis of roots and shoots D. apical regions of roots and shoots
21. Which of the following methods of reproduction is common in Paramecium and
Amoeba?
A. Conjugation B. Sexual reproduction
C. Binary Fission D. Budding
22. An example of cryptic coloration is the:
A. Mottled colours on moths that rest on lichens B. Bright colour of an insect pollinated

flower

C. Green colour of a plant

D. Bright marks on a poisonous tropical frog on variegated leaves 23. Which

of the following organs is responsible for controlling the body temperature
regulation and water balance in mammals?

A. Kidney B. Hypothalamus C. Parathyroid D. Adrenal

24. A man and his wife are both heterozygous for the sickle cell trait. The likely
percentage of their
offspring that will either be carriers or ‘sicklers’ is
A. 75% B. 50%
C. 25% D. 100%
25. The brain and the spinal cord make up the
A. Peripheral nervous system. B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Central nervous system. D. Somatic nervous
26. The hormone which regulates the amount of sugar in the blood is
A. Thyroxine B. Auxin

C. Insulin D. Adrenalin
27. Which of the following is the effect of using artificial pollination in plant breeding?
A. production of healthy crops B. improvement of the variety of crops
C. lengthening the maturity time D. making crops susceptible to diseases 28. Which
of the following processes will not introduce carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere?
A. breathing B. photosynthesis
C. Respiration D. Putrefaction
29. Which of the following does not contribute to the biomass in an ecosystem?
A. producer’s B. food chain
C. consumer’s D. micro-organisms
30. Which of these diseases cannot be prevented by immunization A.
Onhcocerciasis B. Poliomyelitis
C. Cholera D. Tuberculosissis
31. Which of the following specialized structures are stimulated by touch, pressure,
pain, heat and cold?
A. receptors B. synapse C. cell bodies D. myelin
32. The process by which plants and animals are modified in structure, physiology and
behavior in order to survive is known as
A. evolution B. adaptation C. succession D. hibernation
33. Thunderstorm can be beneficial to plants because it
A. kills pests that attack crops B. adds lime to the soil
C. adds nitrates to the soil D. makes rain water available to plants
34. When large numbers of organisms share limited space and resources, the result is
A. immigration B. symbiosis C. extinction D. competition
35. Even though some flowering plants contain accessory pigments which give them
colors, they still contain the pigment
A. melanin B. chlorophyll C. carotene D. xanthophill
36. Which structure in the maize grain stores food?
A. radicle. B. embryo C. cytoplasm D. endosperm
37. Which of the following statements is not associated with the theory of natural
selection?
A. There is a struggle for existence B. There is competition among the offspring
C. The weaker offspring’s are eliminated D. Food and other needs are abundant
38. Nitrogen fixing micro-organisms in leguminous plants live symbiotically in the
A. branch roots B. tap roots C. root nodules D. root hairs
39. The epidermis of the mammalian skin is an example of a tissue because the cells

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A. prevent light from passing through them B. Have a similar structure and function
C. prevent excessive loss of water D. are impregnated with keratin
40. The phenomenon whereby some organisms with certain features get established in
an environment is known as
A. Partial selection B. Artificial selection C. Natural selection D. Mutation

41. Who formulated the theory of natural selection in evolution? A Gregor Mendel. B
Jean Lamarck C. Mathias Scheiden D. Charles Darwin

42. Which of the following statements is not correct of respiration?

A. Gaseous exchange occurs by diffusion

B. Oxygen combines with hemoglobin in the respiratory surface

C. Carbon dioxide produced in the tissues is removed by the process of osmosis

D. there are no special organs of respiration in plants

43. Which of the following constitutes the main internal tissues of a leaf?
A. Cuticle B. Mesophyll C. Vascular tissue D. Lower epidermis
44. Which of the following is an autotrophic mode of nutrition?
A. Chemosynthesis B. Saprophytism
C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis
45. Which of the following structures differentiates an animal cell from a plant cell?
A. Ribosomes B. Cell membrane
C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondrion
46. The change in colour of the chameleon serves as a means of
A. attraction to the opposite sex B. repulsion of the enemy
C. a camouflage from a predator D. regulation of body temperature
47. At which of the following stages of mitosis do the two daughter chromosomes
separate completely?
A. early prophase B. telophase
C. Anaphase D. late prophase
48. The role of dead organic matter in the soil is to

A. Make the soil black. B. Increase the mineral salt content.

C. Provide food for all living organisms D. Increase the acidity of the soil.
49. If the petals of a flowering plant are removed, which of the following processes is
likely to be
affected?
A. Transpiration B. Pollination C. Germination D. Photosynthesis
50. Which of these substances is likely to be deficient in the diet of a person having
goiter?
A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Iodine D. Sodium
51. Banana, plantain and pineapple can be grouped together because they
A. produce small seeds B. are multiple fruits
C. produce suckers D. have runners
52. The structure in the cell that controls the movement of substances in and out of the
cell is the

A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Nuclear membrane

C. Cytoplasm D. Protoplasm
53. Which of the following statements is not true of osmotic process?

A. There must be a selectively permeable membrane

B. The two solutions must be of different concentrations initially

C. It involves only the movement of water molecules

D. The two solutions are of equal concentration at the beginning of the experiment.
54. The pulmonary artery carries

A. de-oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs

B. oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs

C. oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the right auricle

D. de-oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the right auricle

55. Which of the following parts of the mammalian brain is involved in taking the
decision to run rather than walk?
A. Cerebellum B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cranial nerves D. Cerebrum
56. Water rises most rapidly in A. Sandy soil. B. Clayey soil
C. Sandy-loam soil D. Loamy soil

57. Euglena moves by:

A. Whipping of its flagellum B. Beating of its cilia
C. Rotating action of the flagella D. pushing out a jet of water from an organelle
58. The following life processes are common to both plants and animal except

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A. respiration B. growth
C. reproduction D. photosynthesis
59. Which of the following statements is correct of hormones? Hormones are
A. secreted into the blood through ducts B. secreted directly into the blood stream C.
inactive chemical substances in the blood stream D. non-specific in their mode of
action
60. Which of the following statements is not associated with the theory of natural
selection?
A. there is a struggle for existence B. there is a competition among offspring
C. the weaker offspring are eliminated D. Food and other needs are abundant
61. Water is necessary for a germinating seed because it
A. promotes aerobic respiration B. activates the enzymes
C. wets the soil for proper germination D. protects the seed from desiccation.
62. The farming practice by which an exhausted land is left for a number of years
before cultivation is known as
A. crop rotation B. continuous cropping
C. mono cropping D. bush fallowing
63. Which of the following instruments is used for determining the turbidity of the
water? A. thermometer B. Secchi Disc.
C. Rain Gauge. D. Hygrometer
64. The surest way to combine the best qualities of both parents in the offspring is by
A. cross-breeding B. in breeding
C. selective breeding D. all of the above
65. Which of the following is not true about gene mutation?
A. it introduces new traits into a population B. causes changes in the DNA
C. is a source of new genes D. always affects the chromosome number
66. In unicellular organisms, essential nutrients can be transported directly to all parts
of the body by the process of diffusion only because unicellular organisms have:
A. A large surface area to volume ratio B. A large volume to surface area ration C.
Permeable cell membrane D. Their body is always immersed in the nutrient material
67. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell?
A. Chromosommes B. Nucleolus
C. Mitochondrion D. Genes
68. The structure in the cell that controls the movement of substance in and out of the
cell is the
A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Nuclear membrane
C. Cytoplasm D. Protoplasm
69. Which of these is not an excretory product of plant?
A. Tannin B. Gum
C. Alkaloid D. Sweat
70. Which of the following processes will not introduce carbon dioxide into the

atmosphere?

A. Breathing B. Photosynthesis C. Respiration

D. Putrefaction
CHEMISTRY
1. ________________ are allotropes of carbon
A. graphite and sulphur B. amorphous charcoal and coke
C. diamond and graphite D. carbon monoxide and coke
2. A substance is said to be hygroscopic if it _____________
A. does not absorb moisture B. is suspended in water
C. dissolves when it absorbs moistures D. hydrolysis in water
3. CH3CO2H + CH3CH2OH ? The functional group under and in the equation is a/an
__________ group
A. Alkanol B. Carbonyl C. Keto D. Carboxylic acid
4. The gas equation
⁄=
⁄is made up of Charles’ Law and _________________ law
A. Le Chateliers’ B. Gay-Lussac’s C. Boyle’s D. Newton’s
5. The acid in butter is called __________ acid
A. Butanonoic B. Butyric C. Benzoic D. Butandioic
6. The oxidation state of calcium is CaCl2 is ________________________
A. +1 B.+2 C.+3 D.+4
7. The mass number of an atom of an element is the sum of its
A. Electrons, neutrons and protons B. Electrons and protons
C. Protons and neutrons D. Valence electrons

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8. The existence of two or more forms of the same element in the same physical state
is known as.
A. Allotropy B. Resonance C. HybridizationD. Isotopy
9. In which of the following are radioactive isotopes used?
A. Scientific research B. Dating techniques
C. Treatment of cancer D. All of the above
10. The phenomenon observed when dust particles collide randomly in a beam of
sunlight is known as
A. Tyndal effect B. Diffusion C. Osmosis D. Brownian movement
11. The main characteristic features of transition metals are that they
A. Have the same atomic size B. Are reducing agents
C. Forms ions easily D. Have variable oxidation states
12. In 1898, which scientist proposed that the atom is a sphere of positively charged
matter in which
negatively charged electrons are embedded
A. Earnest Rutherford B. Max Planck C. J.J Thomson D. Robert Millikan
13. Oxygen gas is collected in the laboratory by ___________________
A. upward displacement of air B. upward displacement of water
C.downward displacement of water D. using a gas layer
14. CuO + H2 Cu + H2O In the reaction above CuO is __________________
A. oxidized to copper B. reduced to copper
C. chemically converted to copper D. reversed to copper
15. Isotopes are atoms if the same element with ___________
A. different protons B.mass above 50
C.inter convertible masses D. different masses
16. A reaction is in equilibrium when ______________________

A. the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
B. the reaction rates of the forward and backward reaction are zero

C. its rate is reversible

D. it does not produce ant product again

17. The boiling point of a liquid such as methanol is the temperature at which its

A. vapour pressure is equal to 1 atmosphere

B. vapour pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure

C. reactants and products are at standard states

D. vapour pressure doubles atmospheric pressure

18. Alkenes and ____________ are compounds that contain a multiple bond each
A. Alkanes B. Benzene C. Alkynes D.Benzaldehyde
19. A palm fruit dropped to the ground from the top of a tree 45m tall, how long does it
take to reach the ground? (take g=10ms-2
)
A. 1s B. 2s C. 3s D. 5s
20. ___________ is due to the formation of hydrogen gas bubbles around the copper
plate of a simple

cell
A. polarization B. depolarization C. local action D. amalgamation
21. Which of the following can be explained by the kinetic theory?
I. The physical state of matter II. Diffusion of gases
III. Melting of solid IV. Evaporation of liquids
A. IV B. I & II C. III & IV D. I, II & III E. I, II, III & IV
22. The properties of electrovalent compounds include the following except

A. High melting point and boiling point

B. Conduction of electricity in the molten state

C. High volatility at room temperature

D. Ionization in aqueous solution

23. Which of the following statements is not corrected about electrolysis?

A. Reduction occurs at the anode

B. Anions migrate to the anode

C. Positive ions migrate to the cathode

D. Concentration affects the discharge of ions

24. Separation of mixtures of solids by physical methods can be based on differences in

the following

except

A. Melting point

B. Solubility

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C. Particle size

D. Molar mass
25. The following are major gaseous pollutants except.
A. CO B. CO2 C. SO2 D. CFC
26. Brass is an alloy containing copper and
A. zinc B. tin C. silver D. lead
27. Which of the following reduces the activation energy of a chemical reaction?
A. freezing mixture B. reducing agent
C. water D. catalyst
28. In the electrolysis of brime, the anode is
A. carbon B. platinum C. zinc D. copper
29. What current in ampere will deposit 0.27g of aluminium in 2 hours? [Al=27,
F=96500C].
A. 3.2 B. 8 C. 0.4 D. 16
30. What is the likely formula of a compound formed between element M in group 2
and between element X in group 7?
A. M7X2 B. MX2 C. M2X7 D. M2X
31. Which of the following can be explained by the kinetic theory?
I. The physical state of matter II. Diffusion of gases III. Melting of solid IV. Evaporation
of liquids
A. IV B. I & II C. III & IV D. I, II & III E. I, II, III & IV
32. The properties of electrovalent compounds include the following except
A. High melting point and boiling point B. Conduction of electricity in the molten state
C. High volatility at room temperature D. Ionization in aqueous solution
E. Decomposition of their solutions by electric current
33. Which of the following statements is not correct about electrolysis?
A. Reduction occurs at the anode B. Anions migrate to the anode
C. Positive ions migrate to the cathode D. Concentration affects the discharge of ions

E. Electrolysis conduct electric current

34. Separation of mixtures of solids by physical methods can be based on differences in
the following except
A. Melting point B. Solubility C. Particle size D. Molar mass
35. The following are major gaseous pollutants except.
A. CO B. CO2 C. SO2 D. CFC
36. The ration of reactants to products is 1: 3: 2 in the reaction represented by the
equation below: N2(g) +
3H2(g) 2NH3(g) which of the following laws is demonstrated by this?
A. Boyle’s law B. Law of multiple proportion
C. Gay Lussac’s law D. Law of constant composition
37. PH of a 0.0001M acid is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
38.
How many isomers of the compound above can be obtained?
A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
39. Alkanoates are produced from alkanols by
A. Esterification B. Fermentation
C. Saponification D. Oxidation
40. Esters are employed in the following except
A. Making perfumes B. Nail vanisher
C. Making solvent for cellulose trioxonitrate(V) D. Making cement
41. What mass of anhydrous sodium trioxocarbonate(IV) is present in 500cm3
of 0.1mol dm-3 of the solution [Na=23, C=12, O=16]
A. 10.6g B. 106g
C. 5.3g D. 53g
42. The oxidation state of oxygen in tetraoxosulphate(IV) acid is
A. -4 B. +4
C. -2 D. +2
43. Metals of the first transition series have special properties which are different from
those of groups I
and II elements because they have partially filled
A. S orbital B. P orbital C. D orbital D. F orbital
44. Separation of different carotenes from carrot root uses a method A. centrifugation
B. Distillation C. chromatography D. carotinization

45. From the table, which of the solutions W, C, Y and Z will liberate carbon (IV) oxide
from a trioxocarbonate (IV) salt? A. Z B. Y C. W D. X

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46. 50cm3 of a saturated solution of KNO3 at 40C contained 5.05g of the salt. What is
the solubility of KNO3 at 40C [K=39, N=14, O=16] A. 1.0moldm-3 B. 1.5moldm-3
C. 2.0moldm-3 D. 5.0moldm

47. A brand of ink containing cobalt (III), copper (II) and iron(II) ions can best be
separated into its various components by A. fractional crystallization B. fractional
distillation C. sublimation D.
chromatography

48. If the rate law obtained for a given reaction is given as rate = K[X]n
[Y]m
, what is the overall order of
the reaction. A. nm B.
m n
C. n+m D. n-m
49. A molecular formula shows__________ in a molecule
A. the elements present B. the number of atoms of each element
C. cations and anions D. chemical symbols and number of atoms 50.
Give the total mass of copper in 1gm of copper (II) sulphate [Cu =
40; S = 32; O = 16] A.
0.25g B. 0.50g C. 10g D. 2.5g
51.
4
2
114
55Cs E
A
Z

Find the value of A and Z in the equation above

A. 119, 53 B. 110, 57 C. 110. 53 D. 110, 58
52. How many moles of H2 molecules are needed to convert 5 mol of O2 molecules to
water?
A. 5 mol H2 B. 10 mol H2 C. 15 mol H2 D. 20 mol H2
53.
Ra 226
88
Rn x
86
+. What is the value of X in the nuclear reaction above? A.
220 B. 222 C. 226 D. 227.
54. When naphthalene on heating changes from solid state directly to the gaseous
state, it undergoes
A. sublimation B. evaporation C. combustion D. decomposition
55. Which of the following is an electrolyte?
A. alcohol B. sodium ethanoate C. solid potassium hydroxide D.
mercury
57. Which of the following is a general method of preparing acids?
A. Direct combination of constituent elements B. Double decomposition involving a salt
solution
C. Reaction between an anhydride and water D. Reaction between a base and
an
amphoteric
oxide
E. Dissolution of hydroxides followed by neutralization
58. Monosaccharides are
A. hydrolysable B. non-hydrolysable C. not soluble in water D. sweet but sometimes
non
sugary
59. The major air pollutants that can result from smoky vehicles include
A. Acid fumes B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Carbon (II) oxide D. Carbon particles
61. Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structures are said
to be
A. Allotropic B. Isotopic
C. Polymeric D. Isomeric
62. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Carbon exhibits allotropy B. Sulphur exhibits allotropy
C. Chlorine exhibits allotropy D. Hydrogen is a gas
63. 300cm3

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of a gas has a pressure 400mmHg. If the pressure is reduced to 150mmHg. Find its
volume.
A. 700cm3 B. 800cm3
C. 350cm3 D. 112.5cm3
65. Ethyne, Ethene, Cyclohexane and Propene can be classified as _________
A. alkenes B. aromatic compounds
C. saturated compounds D. multiple bond hydrocarbons
66. If the PH of a compound is 3.2 that compound is_____
A. Amphoteric B. A Salt C. An Acid D. A Base
67. Which is the most ionic in the group below
A. Cl2 B. NaClC. AlCl3 D. CaCl2
68. Hydrogenation of palm oil results in a solid compound
called A. candle B. solid palm oilC. palm oil D. ester 69. An
Amphoteric compound _____________
A. Reacts with alcohols B. Reacts both as an acid and as a base
C. It is solid at room temperature D. has a PH of 7
70. In structural isomerism same atoms are linked to __________
A. carbon atoms B. similar atoms
C. different neighbouring atoms D. different functional groups
PHYSICS
1. The weakest form of bonding in materials is
A. Ionic B. Metallic C. Covalent D. Van der Waals
2. The period of a simple pendulum oscillating in a vacuum depends on
A. The mass of the pendulum B. The length of the pendulum
C. The acceleration due to gravity D. The volume of the pendulum
3. Which one of the following phenomenon cannot be explained by the wave theory of

light?

A. Refraction B. Interference C. Diffraction D. Photoelectric effect

4. Which of these best describes the power of a lens
A. P =
⁄B. P =
⁄C. P = f D. P = f
5. Which of the following attributes of a machine does not depend on friction?
(1) Mechanical advantage (2) Velocity ratio (3)
Efficiency A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 2 only
6. A cell is a device which converts
A. Kinetic energy to potential energy B. Sound energy to electrical energy
C. Chemical energy to heat energy D. Chemical energy to electrical energy
7. In which of the following media would sound waves travel fastest
A. kerosene B. alcohol C. water D. iron
8. Which of the following is not a use of plain mirrors
A. as wing mirrors on cars B. as a looking glass
C. in a periscope D. in a kaleidoscope
9. If V is the velocity of a wave, is its wavelength and T its period. The V, and T
are related by the
expression
A. =V/T 2 B. V = T C. = VT D.
10. Three 3.0 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent
resistance?
A. 9.0 ohm B. 1.0 ohm C. 6.0 ohm D. 3.0 ohm
11. The distance between two successive crest or trough is
A. amplitude B. wavelength C. frequency D. wave distance
12. An object is placed 15cm in front of a convex mirror and an image is produced 5cm
behind the mirror,
calculate the focal length of the mirror
A. -7.5cm B. 10cm C. 7.5cm D. 20cm
13. A ball is projected horizontally at 15m/s from a point 20m above a horizontal
surface
(g=10m/s2
). The
magnitude of its velocity in m/s when it hits the surface is
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25
14. A malaria patient has a body temperature of 39.5oC. Convert this temperature to o
F.
A. 83.2oF B. 103.1oF C. 77.4oF D. 147. 15.
Positive charges usually move from

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A. Higher to lower potential areas B. Lower to higher potential areas
C. North to south D. Higher resistance to lower resistance areas
16. A truck traveling with a velocity of 40m/s applies the brakes and comes to a halt
after 20 seconds.
What is distance traveled by the truck before coming to a halt
A. 40m B. 800m
C. 400m D. 10m
17. In a harmonic oscillation of a simple pendulum, one of the following statements is
correct

A. The potential energy and the kinetic energy of the bob are equal at all times B. The
potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy at the central position of the
oscillation

C. The potential and the kinetic energies of the bob are maximum at the maximum
height of the
oscillation

D. None of the above

18. If the linear expansivity of a metal rod is 4 x 10-5 per oC, what
will be the new length of the rod if it is heated from
15oC to 95oC from its original length of 20cm
A. 0.064 cm B. 0.64 cm
C. 20.64 cm D. 20.064 cm
19. The heat required to melt ice at 0°C to water at the same temperature is called
A. Apparent heat of fusion B. Apparent heat of vaporization

C. Latent heat of vaporization D. Latent heat of fusion

20. Which of the following is used in a nuclear reactor to slow down fast moving
electrons?

A. Carbon dioxide gas

B. Liquid sodium metal

C. Concrete shield

D. Graphite rods.
21. Calculate the power-rating of a heating element which melted in 20g of ice at 0oC
and raised the
temperature of the resulting water to 60oC in 2 minutes
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 340 J/g
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/oC
A. 5.92kw B. 98.6w C. 107w D. 42w
22. If a man cannot see objects very close to him the following can be used to correct
the problem.

A. Convex lens B. Convex mirror C. Concave lens D. Concave mirror

23. when the bob of a simple pendulum is at it’s highest displacement, one of the
following happens:
A. kinetic energy is maximum B. potential energy is maximum
C. total energy is zero D. momentum is maximum
24. When the atmospheric pressure is very low in a given location, boiling point of
water:
A. increases B. decreases C. remains D. cannot boil
25. Which of these statements is correct about cathode rays. They are fast moving
A. atoms B. neutrons C. electrons D. ions
26. Which of the following has the highest surface tension.
A. soapy water B. cold water
C. warm water D. Salt water
27. A truck traveling with a velocity of 40m/s applies the brakes and comes to a halt
after 20 seconds.
What is the distance traveled by the truck before coming to a halt
A. 40m B. 800m C. 400m D. 10m

28. If the linear expansivity of a metal rod is 4 x 10-5 per oC, what
will be the new length of the rod if it is heated from
15oC to 95oC from its original length of 20cm
A. 0.064 cm B. 0.64 cm C. 20.64 cm D. 20.064 cm
29. 44KJ of heat was used in raising the temperature of 2kg of paraffin oil from 360K to
370K. Calculate the specific heat capacity of paraffin oil
A. 2.2 J/kg/K B. 2.2 x 103
J/kg/K C. 2.2 x 105
J/kg/K D. 220
J/kg/K

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30. A simple machine overcomes a load of 4000N when a force of 200N is applied. If
the velocity ration of the machine is 25, calculate the efficiency of the machine?
A. 1.25% B. 80% C. 125% D. 0.8%
31. A long sighted person is to read a book held at a distance of 20cm from the eyes.
Which of the following will the person require to read the book with ease?
A. Nothing B. Concave lens C. Convex lens D. Concave mirror

32. An object at the bottom of a pool of liquid 10m depth is seen by an observer as if it
is at 8m depth.
What is the refractive index of the liquid A.
0.25 B. 0.20 C. 1.25 D. 0.8

33. Which of the following has the highest surface tension?

A. soapy water B. cold water C. warm water D. Salt water
34. The emf developed in a circuit is directly proportional to the rate of change of
magnetic flux. The above was a finding from
A. Maxwell B. Faraday C. Ampere D. Lenz
35. Which of the following is stored by a dry leclanche cell?
A. Chemical energy B. Solar energy C. Electrical energy D. Heat energy
36. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity of 20m/s. if it
reaches the ground 4
seconds later. What is the height of the hill? (g=10m/s2
).
A. 200m B. 20m C. 160m D. 40m

37. The expansion of solids can be considered a disadvantage in

A. fire-alarm system B. thermostat
C. riverting of steel plates D. balance wheel of a watch
38. An object is placed between 2 mirrors inclined at an angle of 120 and facing each
other. Determine
the number of images observed in the 2 mirrors
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
39. Which of these instruments is suitable for making the most accurate measurement
of the internal diameter of a test tube?
A. metre rule B. venire callipers
C. micrometer screw gauge D. spectrometer
40. Which of the following instruments would be best suited in studying the stars?
A. periscope B. microscopes
C. telescopes D. spectroscope
41. A gas which obeys Charles law exactly has a volume of 283cm3 at
10C. what is the volume at 30C?

A. 142cm3 B. 293cm3 C. 303cm3 D. 566cm3

42. Electrical resistance is a property of an electric conductor that causes electrical
energy to be converted to
A. mechanical energy B. solar energy C. heat energy D. chemical energy
43. Which of the following has the greatest penetrating power?
A. beta particles B. Alpha particles C. gamma rays D. Neutrons
44. The change in direction of a wave front as a result of a change in the velocity of the
wave in another medium is called
A. interference B. diffraction C. refraction D. reflection
45. Which of the following is a reason why concrete floor feels colder to the bare feet
than a mat on the same floor during the rainy season?

A. mat is a better conductor of heat than the feet

B. mat loses heat to the bare feet at a faster rate than concrete floor.

C. mat loses heat to the bare feet while the concrete floor extracts heat from them.

D. concrete floor is a better conductor of heat than the mat.

46. A short-sighted person needs one of the following types of lens to correct the vision
A. convex lens B. concave lens C. plano-convex lens D. plano-concave lens
47. The motion of a body is simple harmonic if the
A. acceleration is always directed towards a fixed point B. path of motion is a straight
line

C. acceleration is directed towards a fixed point and proportional to its distance from

the

point

D. acceleration is proportional to the square of the distance from a fixed point.

E. acceleration is constant and directed towards a fixed point.

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

48. An object is placed 25cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 10cm. The
image of the object will
be
A. real inverted and magnified B. real upright and magnified
C. real upright and diminished D. real inverted and diminished
49. Any successful lift-off of space-craft uses the application of
A. Newton’s First Law B. Newton’s Second Law C. Newton’s Third Law D. All of the
above
50. When a carpenter screws a nail into an object, the distance travelled into the object
at a full circle of
the head of the screw is called
A. pitch B. thimble C. wavelength D. moment
51. One of the following is true of Boyle’s law when the pressure of a given volume of
gas increases:
A. volume increases B. the temperature increases
C. the volume decreases D. the temperature decreases
52. If two resistors of 10Ω and 20 Ω are connected in series and then placed in parallel
with another 20 Ω
resistor, calculate the effective resistance of the combination
A. 50 Ω B. 12 Ω C. 10 Ω D. 0.02 Ω
53. Converging lenses with focal lengths 4cm, 40cm and 4m are available for use.
Which of them will you use as a magnifying glass

A. 4cm B. 40cm C. 4m D. None of the above

We
54. A piece of aluminium of mass 0.5kg at a temperature of 100°C is placed in water of
mass 0.4kg at a
temperature of 10°C. If the final temperature of the mixture is 40°C. Find the specific
heat capacity of
aluminium if that of water is 4200J/Kg/°C
A. 960J/Kg/°C B. 908J/Kg/°C C. 1860J/Kg/°C D.1680J/Kg/°C
55. Hardness of X-rays is a measure of its
A. Intensity B. Density C. Penetration power D. Picture it produces
56. The half life of a radioactive substance is 2 seconds. Calculate the decay constant
A. 0.035s B. 0.347s C. 0.151s D. 0.576s
57. A body moves with a constant speed but has an acceleration. This is possible if it
A. moves in a straight line B. moves in a circle C. is oscillating D. is in equilibrium 58. A
500kg truck moving with a velocity of 6m/s collides with a stationary 100kg car.
The truck and the car move together after collision. What is their common velocity?
A. 5m/s B. 10m/s C. 30m/s D. 1m/s
59. The process by which a metal heated to a high temperature gives off electrons from
its surface is known as:
A. radioactive emission B. field emission
C. photoelectric emission D. thermionic emission
60. A total internal reflection occurs in the glass-air boundary when the angle of
incidence
is
A. greater than the right angle B. greater than critical angle
C. greater than angle of prism D. greater than angle of deviation
61. At what temperature will the Celsius scale coincide with the Fahrenheit scale?
A. 4 B. -273 C.100 D.-40
62. Which of these statements is correct about cathode rays. They are fast moving
A. atoms B. neutrons C. electrons D. ions
63. The upthrust experienced by an object immersed in a fluid makes the object feel
A. Heavier B. Lighter C. sink lower D. none of the above
64. Which of the following has the highest surface tension.
A. soapy water B. cold water
C. warm water D. Salt water
65. Which of these is NOT a consequence of hydrogen bubbles covering the upper plate
of a primary www.unicalreporters.com
cell?
A. Polarization B. Local action
C. Generation of less current by the cell D. Increase in the resistance of the cell.
66. What is the current in a circuit if the charge of 240 coulombs pass each point in 2
minutes
A. 120 A B. 480 A C. 4 A D. 2 A
67. An electric in Nigeria has a number of 60w coloured bulb. How many can be
connected to a 240V supply through a 5A fuse

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. 20 B. 48 C. 5 D. 4
68. A radio station broadcasts on a frequency of 100MHz. If the sped of the radio
wave is 3 x 108m/s, what is the wavelength of the radio wave from this station
A. 3x106m B. 3x103m C. 300m
D. 3m
69. If you need to clearly see an object that is at a very far distance, then you need to
use
A. periscope B. microscope
C. telescope D. prismscope
70. Michael Faraday found that the EMF developed across a conductor is directly
proportional to the
A. current applied B. voltage applied
C. rate of change of magnetic flux D. rate of change of electric flux
COMPUTER
1. The following are output devices except:
A. Mouse B. Plotter C. Printer D. Speakers E. Monitor
2. What type of device is a computer monitor?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing

3. What type of device is a computer keyboard A. Input B. Output C. Software

D. Storage E. Processing

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4. What type of devices are computer speakers or headphones?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
5. What type of device is a computer printer?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
6. What type of device is a 3 1/2 inch floppy drive?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
7. What type of device is a computer mouse?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
8. What type of devices are CDs or DVDs?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
9. What type of device is a digital camera?
A. Input B. Output C. Software D. Storage E. Processing
10. A program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or
knowledge of the owner is called what?
A. Floppy B. Virus C. Java D. Monitor E. Flash
11. Which of these is a correct format of IP address?
A. 192.168.1.1B.192.168.111.1111C.192.168.900.1D.192.900.168.1
E. 192.16.168.111
12. Which was the first web browser?
A. WorldWideWebB. Netscape Navigator C. Internet Explorer D. Safari
E.Chrome
13. It is a small piece of text stored on a user's computer by a web browser for
maintaining the state.
What we are talking about?
A. Application B. Session C. Cookie D. QueryStringE. Applets
14. Which of these is a correct format of Email address?
A. contact.website.infoB. contactwebsite.infoC. [email protected]
D. contact@website@infoE. Contact.website@info
15. What does HTTP stands for?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol B. Hypertext Transfer Plotter C. Head Tail Transfer Plot
D. Head Tail Transfer Protocol E. Hypertext Transmission Process
16. In computers,what is the smallest and basic unit of information storage?
A. BitB. Byte C. Newton D. Mega byte E. Kilo byte 17.
What is Windows XP?
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A. Operating System B. Storage Device C. Processor D. Output Device E. Input Device
18. Which of the following is responsible for the management and coordination of
activities and the sharing of the resources of the computer?
A. Application Software B. Motherboard C. Operating System D. RAM
E. System Software
19. MP3 file format is associated with what type of files?
A. Video B. Audio C. Image D. Word Document E. Flash file
20. MS-Word is an example of
A. Application Software B.System Software C. Operating System D. Scanner E. ALU 21.
Which software application is used for accessing sites or information on a network (as
the World Wide Web)?

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. Operating System B. Web Browser C. Microsoft Word D. Microsoft Excel E. FileZilla
22. What are the two broad categories of software?
A. MS Word and Spreadsheet B. Transaction and Application C. Microsoft and Mac OS
D.
System
and Application E. Transaction and System
23. One kilobyte contains how many bytes?
A. 1000B. 1001C. 100D. 1024E. 10
24. Who Owns the Internet?
A. Internet Engineering Task Force B. ICANN C. Internet Architecture Board
D. No one owns it E. InterNIC
25. What is the shortcut key of printing a document for computer having windows?
A. Ctrl + P B. Shift + P C. Alt + P D. Shift + PP E.Fn + P
26. In computers, '.TMP' extension refers usually to what kind of file?
A. Temporary file B. Image file C. Video file D. Text file E. Database file

27. The way of manipulating data into information is called A. Storing B. Processing C.
Deletion D. Organizing E. Transmission

28. What Does BIOS Stand For?

A. Better Integrated Operating System B. Basic Input Output System

C. Battery Integrated Operating Setup D. Backup Input Output System
E. Battery Input Operating System
29. Memory management is a feature of
A. Processor B. Operating System C. MS Word D. Animation E. UPS
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30. Which of the following is not a storage device?
A. DVD B. Hard Disk C. Floppy Disk D. Mouse E. Flash Drive

ANSWERS
ENGLISH

1. A

2. D

3. D

4. A
5. D

6. C

7. C

8. D

9. B
10. D

11. C

12. C

13. C

14. A

15. D

16. C

17. A

18. D

19. B

20. C

21. B

22. D

23. C

24. A

25. C

26. D

27. D
28 ..............................................................................................................................
4
29 ............................................................................................................................
22
www.unicalreporters.com 30................................................................................ 35
31 ............................................................................................................................ 40
32 ............................................................................................................................ 40

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

33 ............................................................................................................................ 40
34 ............................................................................................................................ 40

35. B

36. C

37. A

38. B

39. D

40. D

41. B

42. D

43. C

44. C

45. D

46. D

47. A

48. A

49. C

50. A

51. C

52. B

53. B

54. C

55. D

56. D

57. B

58. B

59. C

60. A
61. C
62. B

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63. C

64. A

65. D

66. C

67. B

68. C

69. A

70. D

71. B

72. B

73. D

74. B 75. C
MATHEMATICS

1. D

2. B

3. D

4. B

5. D

6. A

7. C

8. D

9. B

10. D

11. D

12. D

13. D

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

14. D

15. C

16. C

17. A

18. C

www.unicalreporters.com
19. B

20. D

21. D

22. D
23. B

24. A

25. C

26. C

27. E

28. C

29. D

30. C

31. A
32. B

33. B

34. D

35. B

36. A

37. C

38. D

39. C

40. A

41. B
42. C

43. D

44. C

45. B

46. D

47. C

48. A

49. B
50. D
www.unicalreporters.co
m
51. A

52. B

53. C

54. B

55. C

56. B

57. C

58. D

59. D

60. B

61. B

62. C

63. D

64. C

65. B

66. C

67. C

68. A

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

69. D
70.
BIOLOGY

1. C

2. D

3. D

4. A

5. A

6. B

7. C

8. B

9. A

10. B 11. D www.unicalreporters.com

12. C

13. D

14. D

15. C

16. D

17. D

18. D

19. A

20. D

21. C

22. D

23. B

24. A

25. C

26. C

27. B
28. B

29. B

30. A

31. A

32. B

33. C

34. D

35. B

36. D

37. D

38. C

39. B

40. C

41. D

42. C

43. B

44. A www.unicalreporters.com
45. C

46. C

47. C

48. B

49. B

50. C

51. C

52. A

53. D

54. A

55. D
56. A

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

57. A
58. D
59. B
60. D
61. B
62. D
63. B
64. A
65. D
66. A
67. C
68. A
69. D
70. B
CHEMISTRY

1. C

2. C

3. D

4. C

5. B www.unicalreporters.com
6. B

7. C

8. A

9. D

10. A

11. D 12. C

13. C

14. B

15. D
16. A

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. A

21. E

22. C

23. A

24. D

25. B

26. A

27. D

28. A

29. C

30. B

31. E

32. C

33. A

34. D

35. B

36. C

37. D
38. B

www.unicalreporters.com 39 .................................................................................. 34
40 ............................................................................................................................... 37

41 ............................................................................................................................... 38

42 ............................................................................................................................... 38

43 ............................................................................................................................... 38

44 ............................................................................................................................... 38

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

45. B

46. A

47. D

48. C

49. D

50. A

51. C

52. B

53. C

54. A

55. B

56. C

57. A

58. B

59. C

60. D

61. D

62. C

63. B

64. D

65. D

66. C

67. B 68. C 69. B 70. C www.unicalreporters.com

PHYSICS
1. D

2. C

3. D

4. A
5. B

6. D

7. D

8. A

9. C

10. B

11. B

12. A

13. D

14. B

15. A

16. A

17. D

18. D

19. D

20. C

21. B

22. A

23. B

24. B

25. C

26. B

27. A

28. D

29. B

30. B 31. C www.unicalreporters.com

32. C

33. B

34. B

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

35. A

36. C

37. D
38 ...........................................................................................................................
23 39
........................................................................................................................... 39 40
...........................................................................................................................
39 41
........................................................................................................................... 39 42
...........................................................................................................................
39 43
........................................................................................................................... 39 44
...........................................................................................................................
39 45
........................................................................................................................... 39

46. B

47. C

48. D

49. D

50. A

51. C

52. B

53. A

54. D

55. C

56. B

57. B

58. A

59. D

60. B
61. D

62. C

63. B

64. B www.unicalreporters.com
65. B

66. D

67. A

68. D

69. C

70. C
COMPUTER

1. A

2. B

3. A

4. B

5. B

6. D

7. A

8. D

9. A

10. B

11. A

12. A

13. C

14. C

15. A

16. A

17. A

18. C

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

19. B

20. A

21. B

22. D

23. D

24. D
www.unicalreporters.com
25. A

26. A

27. B

28. B

29. B

30. D

UNICAL POST UTME 2005 - 2006 TIME ALLOWED: 1 HOUR BIOLOGY

1. All living organisms A. photosynthesize B. respire C. move D. feed

2. In which of these associations is much harm done to one of the partners? A.

symbiosis
B. epiphytism C. commensalism D. parasitism

3. A cotton bulb stores its food in the A. stem B. leaves C. roots D. cotyledon

4. The character producing factors in living organisms are A. chromosomes B. alleles C.

chromatids D. genes

5. Exo – skeleton is not found in the A. maggot B. mosquito larva C. earthworm D.

caterpillar

6. Blood clothing is initiated by A. leucocytes B. platelets C. haemolymph D.

haemoglobin

7. How many nuclei are found in a pollen tube during fertilization? A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 8.

Denitrifying bacteria in the nature liberate gaseous nitrogen directly from
www.unicalreporters.com
A. ammonium salt

B. soil nitrate
C. thunderstorms

D. plant and animal proteins

9. Leaching is

A. washing away of humus from the soil surface

B. reduction of soil aeration by pressure

C. soil erosion by means other than rainfall D. washing out of chalk and limestone from
upper layers of soil by heavy rains
10. The lumber vertebra when compared with
thoracic vertebra has a ____

A. longer neutral spine

B. wider neutral spine

C. thinker centrum

D. shorter transverse process

11. Hydra removes unwanted food by

A. passing it through the anus

B. passing it through the amount

C. meant of a contractile vacuole

D. egesting it through the body surface 12. Which of the following characteristics is
common to amoeba and paramecium

A. oral groove

B. trichocyte

C. contractile vacuole

D. cilia
13. The most recently evolved structure in animal is
the A. feather

B. cilium

C. scale

D. Hair
14. The legs and beak of an egret resemble those of
the heron because they

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. occupy similar niche

B. are both birds

C. both feed on fishes

D. occupy the trophic level

15. Which of the following is an adaptation of
forest species A. few stomata thick bark

C. reduced leaves

D. buttress roots
16. A certain savanna grasshopper changes
colour from green during raining season to black
during the dry season and black after the dry
season bush fires. The reason for these colour
changes is that the A. grasshopper is getting
older

B. grasshopper is avoiding predation

C. environmental temperature is changing

D. grasshopper is frequently moulting 17. A tall plant crossed with a dwarf one
produces offspring of which half are tall and half are dwarf, what are the genotype
of the parents?

A. TT, TT

B. Tt, tt

C. TT, tt

D. Tt, Tt
18. The hydrometer is used for measuring A.
relative humidity

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B. specific gravity

C. rainfall

D. salinity
19. The function of the fluid–filled pericardium
is to
A. supply the heart with oxygen and
nutrients

B. reduce intensity of the pumping action

of the heart

C. reduce the friction caused by the

pumping movement of the heart D.

prevent disease organisms from

attacking the heart

20. When a peacock display its colourful features, it
is

A. courting a female

B. ready to fight

C. protecting itself from predators D. protecting its mate from predators.

www.unicalreporters.com USE OF ENGLISH:
INSTRUCTION: Shade the correct answer
in the box provided on the answer sheet
SECTON A:
INSTRUCTION: Choose the option that best
explains the information conveyed in the sentence.
1. The government warns that drink-driving is punishable under
the law

A. a drunkard driving can be punished

B. driving while drunk is an offence

C. driving while drinking is an offence

D. drinking and driving is an offence.

2. The investigators stated clearly that they had
reached a dead end in their scrutiny of suspects
in the murder case

A. the investigators did not know what to do

with the suspects’ murder

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. the investigators had evidence to
sentience the suspects to death in the end C.
there was no further progress in the

investigation of the murder suspects D. the end had

come for the suspects in the murder case.
3. Adamu’s father is a key figure in that ministry A.
the ministry trusts adamu’s father as a
central figure

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B. adamu’s father is a figurehead in the ministry

C. adamu’s father’s position is essential in the ministry

D. adamu’s father keeps the key to the

ministry
4. The conference is biennial
A. the conference is held twice two years B.
the conference is held once every other year

C. the conference is held once four years

D. the conference lasts for two years.

5. Bassey is as hard as nails
A. Bassey is very strong B.
Bassey is very brave

C. Bassey is determined

D. Bassey is unsympathetic
6. Ene Henshaw’s death is monumental lose to
the literary word
A. Ene Henshaw is a monument B. Ene
Henshaw’s death will have grave
consequences to creative writing C. Ene
Henshaw’s death is a loss to the world D.
Ene Henshaw’s death is a literary fact.
SECTION B:
INSTRUCTION: Choose the option opposite
in meeting the word(S) phrase

in italics
7. Only those who are gullible fall victim to his trickery A. saucy
B. devastated www.unicalreporters.com

C. courteous

D. Astute
8. He is well known inordinate ambition

A. excessive

B. passionate

C. moderate

D. sound
9. Students could be timid

A. friendly

B. bold

C. covetous

D. pugnacious
10. The witness decided to conceal the evidence

A. divulge

B. hide

C. destroy

D. pugnacious
11. The members of the congregation were inspired
by the sermon A. bewitched

B. enthralled

C. disenchanted

D. disoriented
12. Agbenu was ecstatic about her result

A. disappointed

B. sad

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. pessimistic

D. mad

13. The labour leader’s recalcitrant stance was applauded

A. stubborn B. flexible

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C. uncompromising

D. well-informed
14. A cool bath in a hot weather can be truly invigorating

A. devastating

B. unpalatable

C. debilitating

D. disgusting
15. I am loath to do assignment

A. willing

B. unwilling

C. waiting

D. dying
SECTION C:
INSTRUCTIONS: Fill each gap with the
appropriate option from the list provided 16.
____told of his impending arrival, I worked hard
to make his short stay very comfortable

A. have being

B. having been

C. having being

D. have been
17. The weather is probably____ appealing for people
who live in Jos____ for foreigners

A. no less/than

B. more/as
C. as much/as

D. at least as/but
18. To tried to ____all memory of his dead father

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A. recall

B. obliterate

C. eulogize

D. obstruct
19. Is imposing edifice_____ a fortune to build

A. had costed

B. costed

C. cost

D. have cost
20. One quarters of the hostels ____have been
painted and three quarters of the students
moved in A. has/has

B. have/has

C. have/have

D. has/have.
PHYSICS
1. Which of the following represents the correct
precision if the length of a piece of wire is measured
with a meter rule

A. 34.0mm

B. 35.0mm

C. 35.00mm

D. 35.01mm
2. If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, what is
the critical angle at the air-glass interface?

A. sin-1 √2

B. sin-2/3

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C. sin-3/4

3. An a.c circuit of e.m.f 12v has a resistor of resistance 8

ohms connected in series to www.unicalreporters.com an
inductor of inductive resistance 16Ω and a capacitor of
inductive 10Ω. The current flow in the circuit is

A. 1.4A

B. 1.2A

C. 12.0A

D. 14.0A
4. An object of mass 400g and density 600kgm-3
is suspended with a string so that half of its
immersed in paraffin of density
900kgm-3
, the tension in the string is

A. 1.0N

B. 3N

C. 4.0N

D. 0.N
5. The thermometric property of the thermocouple
is that, it’s

A. e.m.f changes with temperature

B. resistance changes with temperature

C. volume changes with temperature

D. pressure changes with resistance 6. Which of the following is the exclusive property
of a transverse wave?

A. diffraction

B. refraction

C. compression

D. polarization
7. If the maximum voltage across a 100- ohms
resistance is 20V, then the maximum power can
dissipate is

A. 5.00W www.unicalreporters.com
B. 4.00W

C. 2.00W

D. 0.25W
8. A body of mass 2kg moving vertically upwards
has its velocity increased uniformly from 10m/s
in 4s. neglecting air resistance, calculate the
upward vertically force acting on the body A.
15N

B. 20N

C. 35N

D. 45N
(g = 10ms-2
)
9. One of the features of the fission process is that

A. its products are not radioactive

B. it leads to chain reaction

C. neutrons are not released

D. the sum of the masses of the reactants equals the sum of the masses of the
products
10. Total internal reflection occurs when light moves
from A. air to water

B. water to glass

C. a dense medium to a less dense medium

D. a less dense medium to a dense medium 11. The main reason for making cover of a
vacuum flask airtight is to prevent heat lose by A. conduction
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B. evaporation

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. radiation

D. convection
12. Which of the following quantities are scalar

I. Electrical potential

II. Torque

III. Momentum

IV. Kinetic energy A. II and III only.

B. I and II only

C. III and IV only

D. I and IV only
13. Which of the following media allow the transmission
of sound wave through the

I. air

II. Liquid

III. Solids

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

14. The colour seen in soup bubbles are due to
____

A. interference

B. dispersion

C. diffraction

D. refraction
15. A transistor is used in the amplification of signals because
it
A. allows doping

B. contains electron and hole carrier C. consumes a lot of powers

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D. controls the follow of current

16. The property that is propagated in a

travelling wave is A. amplitude B.
energy

C. wavelength

D. frequency
17. An empty 60ltr petrol tank has a mass 0f
10kg. its mass when full of fuel of relative density
0.72kgm A. 7.2kg

B. 33.2kg

C. 43.2kg

D. 53.2kg
18. A patient with a sight defect has a least
distance of distinct vision of 150cm for him to
be able to read material placed at a distance of
25cm, what is the focal length of the glasses he
should wear? A. 15.0cm

B. 17.6cm

C. 21.4cm

D. 30.0cm
19. Energy losses through eddy currents are reduced
by using

A. insulted soft iron and wire

B. low resistance wires

C. few turns of wire

20. The particle when 10K
39 decays to 10K
40

A. beta

B. alpha

C. gamma

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D. electron.

ANSWERS TO 2005/2006
QUESTIONS BIOLOGY:
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. B
10. C 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. C
17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A
USE OF ENGLISH SECTION
A:
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. B SECTION
B:
7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C

15. A
SECTION C:

16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. C

PHYSICS
1. D 2. B 3. – 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. – 9. D
10. C 11. A 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. B
16. D 17. – 18. C 19. A 20. C

UNICAL POST UTME PAST QUESTION 2006 - 2007 PHYSICS

1. A particle in circular motion performs 30
oscillations in 6 seconds, its angular velocity is
____ A. 10n radS-1

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B. 5n radS-1

C. 6 radS-1

D. 5 radS-1
2. If the total force acting on a particle is zero,
the linear momentum will

A. increase then decrease

B. be constant

C. increase
D. decrease

3. Water is a poor thermometric liquid because it using

a cylindrical lens?

A. astigmatism

B. presbyopia

C. chromatic aberration

D. myopia
4. Thermal equilibrium between two objects exists when

A. the heat capacities of both objects are the same

B. one object losses heat continuously to the other

C. the temperature of both objects are equal

D. the quantity of heat in both objects is the same 5. An electric

iron is rated 1000W, 230V. what is the resistance of its element?

A. 57.6Q

B. 55.9Q

C. 52.9Q

D. 51.9Q
6. The particle that is responsible for nuclear fission in a nuclear
reactor is A. electron www.unicalreporters.com

B. photon

C. neutron

D. proton
7. The ray which causes gas molecules to
glow is known as A. molecular ray

B. gamma ray

C. anode ray

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D.
cathode ray
8. The resistance of a piece of wire length
20m and cross-sectional area 8 X 10-6 is

A. 1.0 ohms

B. 10.0 ohms

C. 0.50 ohms

D. 5.0 ohms
9. Satellite communication network makes use
of

A. infra-red ray

B. sound wave

C. visible light

D. radio wave
10. If two inductors of inductances 3H and
6H are arranged in series, the total
inductance is A. 18.0H

B. 9.0H

C. 2.0H

D. 0.5H
11. Which of the following is a set of vectors
A. force, mass and moment B.
acceleration, velocity and moment

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C. mass, weight and density

D. mass, volume and density

12. Two points on a velocity time graph have
a co-ordinate (5s, 10m/s) and (20s, 20m/s),
calculate the mean acceleration between the
two points

A. 0.67ms-2
D.
B. 083ms-2

C. 1.50ms-2
2.00ms-2
13. Which of the following devices are used
to measure pressure I. aneroid

II. Barometer

III. Hydrometer

IV. Manometer

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. III and IV only

D. I and V only
14. When light is incident on an object which is
magenta in colour, which of the following
colours would be absorbed?

A. red and blue

B. green only

C. red and green

D. red only
15. Which of the following is a vector

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric potential difference

D. electric capacitance
16. In which of the following is surface tension
important?

A. the floating of ship in water

B. the floating of a dry needle in water

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D.
C. the floating of a balloon in air D. the diffusion of sugar solution across a
membrane

17. Which of the following is the most suitable

for use as an alt/meter A. mercury barometer

B. a fortin barometer

C. a mercury manometer an aneroid barometer

18. In which of the following is surface tension
important?

A. the floating of ship in water

B. the floating of a dry needle in water

C. the floating of a balloon in air D. the diffusion of sugar solution across a

membrane
19. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s law?

A. glass

B. diode

C. all electrolytes

D. all metals
20. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s law?

A. glass

B. diode

C. all electrolytes

D. all metals

C. red and green

D. red only
15. Which of the following is a vector

A. electric charge

B. electric field

C. electric potential difference

D. electric capacitance
D.
16. In which of the following is surface tension
important?

A. the floating of ship in water

B. the floating of a dry needle in water

C. the floating of a balloon in air

D. the diffusion of sugar solution across a membrane 17. Which of the

following is the most suitable for use as an alt/meter

A. mercury barometer

B. a fortin barometer

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. a mercury manometer

D. an aneroid barometer
18. In which of the following is surface tension important?

A. the floating of ship in water

B. the floating of a dry needle in water

C. the floating of a balloon in air

D. the diffusion of sugar solution across a membrane

19. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s law?

A. glass

B. diode

C. all electrolytes

D. all metals
20. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s law?

A. glass

B. diode

C. all electrolytes

D. all metals
2008/2009 BIOLOGY POST UTME QUESTIONS
1. Amoeba moves by means of ____

A. cilia

B. flagella

C. pseudopodia

D. swimmerets

E. setae
2. Which of these tissues serves the function of support
and water conduction A. parenchyma

B. collenchyma

C. sclerenchyma

D. xylem
E. phloem

3. Which of these is the terminal portion of the alimentary canal

of a mammal?

A. oesophagus

B. stomach

C. rectum

D. colon

E. appendix
4. An organism which lives on the remains of a dead
plant is A.an endoparasite

B. a saprophyte

C. a commensal

D. a symbiont

E. an ectoparasite
5. Which of the substances listed below is a trace element for
plants?

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A. potassium

B. sodium

C. copper

D. phosphate

E. nitrate
6. The movement of molecules from a region
of higher concentration to the one of lower
concentration is? A. diffusion

B. transpiration

C. osmosis

D. translocation

E. plasmolysis
7. The blood vessel which carries digested food
from the small intestine to the liver is the

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

____

A. renal vein

B. renal artery

C. hepatic artery

D. hepatic portal vein

E. celiac artery
8. The maize grain is regard as a fruit and not a
seed because
A. it is covered by a sheath of leaves B. the
Testa and fruit wall fuss after fertilization

C. it has both endosperm and cotyledon

D. it has coleorhiza and coleoptile

E. the pericarp and seed coat are separate 9. Grasses – grasshoppers – lizards –
snakes – hawks. In the food chain, the organisms which are the least in
number are www.unicalreporters.com

A. grasses

B. grasshoppers

C. lizards

D. snakes

E. hawks
10. Magnesium is utilized in the formation of

A. ATP

B. glucose

C. amino acids

D. chlorophyll

E. facts
11. Which of these is not true? Grasses in the above
food chain

A. trap all the sun energy

B. trap a small percent of the sun energy

C. are primary producers

D. contain chlorophyll

12. Insects show considerable powers of water

conservation. This is due to the act that

A. the chitin is impregnated with tanned proteins

B. nitrogenous waste is eliminated as urea

C. chitin is impermeable to water

D. the Malpighian tubules are impermeable to water

E. the cuticle is covered with wax

13. Root hairs have their origin from

A. endodermis

B. pericycle

C. cortex D. epidemies E. xylem

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14. The element nitrogen is utilized in ___

A. formation of ATP

B. formation of glucose

C. formation of amino acids

D. photosynthesis

E. none of the above

15. In most true terms, sporangia are grouped into

A. indusum

B. fronts

C. prothalli

D. sori
16. In the reproduction of mosses, water is essential because

A. they live in moist habitats

B. they cannot reproduce without water C. the male garments must swim to
fertilize the ovum
D. they produce spores

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

17. In tapeworm, the two structures that run throughout the
length of the body are the
____

A. nerve cord and the excretory duct

B. sperm duct and the nerve cord

C. genital pore and the excretory duct

D. sperm cord and the genital pore 18. Which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of snail? A. bilateral symmetry

B. chitinous exoskeleton

C. muscular root

D. soft unsegmented body in mantle www.unicalreporters.com 19. In the life

history of a butterfly, destruction of crops is caused by the

A. maggot

B. nymph

C. caterpillar

D. pupa
20. The correct sequence of tissues in the anatomy of
a young dicotyledonous stem from the inside to the
outside is A. pith, phloem, cambium, xylem,
collenchyma and epidermis
B. xylem, phloem, cambium, cortex,
endodermis, collenchyma and epidermis C.
pith, xylem, cambium, phloem, collenchyma,
parenchyma and epidermis D. phloem,
xylem, cambium, cortex, endodermis,
collenchyma and epidermis

2008/9 ANSWERS ON BIOLOGY

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. E 9. B
10. B 11. E 12. B 13. A 14. C

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2008/2009 CHEMISTRY POST UTME QUESTIONS UNIVERSITY OF
CALABAR, CALABAR 2008/2009 POST UTME SCREENING CHEMISTRY
1. If 100cm3 of hydrogen diffused through a
porous pot in 1.0 second, how long will it take
the same volume of oxygen to diffuse through
the same pot under the same condition? (H =
1.0, O = 16.0)

A. 2.5s

B. 4.0s

C. 16.0s

D. 25.0s
2. Which of the following acids is dibasic?

A. hydrochloric acids

B. trioxosulphate (IV) acid C. dioxo nitrate (III) acid

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D. ethanoic acid
3. Bees inject acidic substance when they sting.
Which of the following chemical could be used
to treat bee stings

A. CH3COOH

B. NaHCO3

C. CH5OH

D. H2O2
4. Which of the following salts can be prepared by
reacting the metal with dilute
H2SO4

A. CuSO4

B. MgSO

C. BaSO4

D. PbSO4
5. Which of the following solutions will give a dilute
tertraoxosuphate (IV) acid? I. Lead

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

(II) trioxonitrates (VI)

II. Barium chloride solution

III. Sodium chloride solution

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

6. Substance Q reacts with cold water to form a
solution which turns red litmus blu
E. Substance Q could be

A. zinc

B. phosphorus

C. lead

D. sodium
7. What term is used to describe an oxide

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whose aqueous solution turns blue litmus red?

A. a strong electrolyte

B. acid anhydride

C. amphoteric oxide

D. basic oxide
8. Which of the following substances could be responsible
for the banana taste of a food flavour

A. methylbenzene

B. butanol

C. ethanol

D. penthlethanoate
9. The reaction of vegetable oil with a
solution of wood ash is A. saponification

B. neutralization
C. hydrogenation
D. Esterification

10. What process does the following equation represent

(C6H10O)n + nH2O ---
NC6H12O6

A. polymerization of glucose

B. hydrolysis of starch

C. fermentation of sugar

D. dehydration of carbohydrate 11. Which of the following equimolar solutions will

have the highest pH?

A. CH3COOONa

B. NaOH

C. HCL

D. NH4OH

12. Which of the following ions requires the www.unicalreporters.com

largest quantity of electricity for discharge at an

electrode?

A. 4.0moles of C

B. 3.0moles of Na+

C. 2.5moles of Cu3+

D. 2.0moles of Al3+
13. Phenolphthalein in acidic solution is

A. red

B. orange

C. colourless

D. yellow
14. When iron is exposed to moisture and it rusts, the
value of dG for the reaction is

A. neutral

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. zero

C. positive

D. negative

15. When sulphur (IV) oxide is passed into a solution

of sodium hydroxide for a long time, it eventually
produces a solution of

A. NaHSO4

B. Na2SO3

C. NaHSO3

D. Na2SO4
16. The decolourization of the purple colour of tetraoxomaganate
(VII) ions is a test for?

A. alkenes

B. alkanols

C. alkanals

D. alkanes
17. Which of the following are structural isomers? A.
propanoic acid and propan 1,2 dio

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B. propanal and propanone

C. ethanoic acid and propanoic acid

D. Ethan 1,2 diol and ethanoic acid 18. In the purification of impure samples of
ethyl ethanoate synthesized by esterification, concentrated sodium
trioxocarbonate (iv) solution is used to remove?

A. water

B. basic impurities

C. acid impurities

D. ethoxyethane
19. The dissolution of common salt in water is a physical
change because
A. the salt can be obtained by crystallization B.
the salt can be recovered by the evaporation of
the water
C. heat is not generated during mixing

D. the solution will not boil at 1000c 20. Which of the following substance is a
mixture?

A. sulphur powder

B. bronze

C. distilled water

D. ethanol.

ANSWERS ON CHEMISTRY 2008/2009

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. A
10. B 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. C 16. A
17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B

www.unicalreporters.com 2009/2010
USE OF ENGLISH POST UTME QUESTIONs INSTRUCTION:
Attempt all questions.
Time: 1 HOUR
After each of the following sentences, a list
of possible interpretation of all part of the
sentence is given. Choose the interpretation
that you consider most appropriate for each
sentence
1. For us to succeed in this task all hands must
be on deck. This means that everybody A. should
push with his hands

B. will have to place his hands on the deck

C. must cooperate

D. should take a test to qualify

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

2. Kate was at home with all the questions asked by
the examiner. This means that
Kate was____

A. familiar with the questions

B. went home with the questions

C. prepared to go home with the question

D. conceited about the question

3. Mike flies off the handle each time there is an
argument. This means A. mike holds the door handle
www.unicalreporters.com when he argues
B. mike allows the handle to fly

C. mike easily loses his anger

D. mike can cope with any argument Complete the following sentences with the
right option from the words supplied after each sentence.
4. When the fire broke out in the hostel, students in____ rushed
out in all direction

A. crisis

B. panic

C. haste

D. hurry
5. Astronomers keep a close watch of the night sky in
order not to miss the
_____appearances of some star

A. parallel

B. periodic

C. regular

D. constant
Choose the word or phrase from option AD
which has the nearest meaning to the underlined
word or words in each sentence.
6. My mother has refused to come to live in Lagos
because she prefers the tranquil life in the village
to the hotly burly of the city
A. sweet

B. prosperous

C. peaceful

D. decent
7. A lorry larger than an elephant was struck

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on the bridge

A. as large as an elephant

B. carrying an elephant

C. that looked like an elephant

D. of enormous proportions Choose the option that best completes the sentence
8. The dentist found that his patient’s tooth-
____

A. have long decayed

B. have long been decayed

C. have long being decayed

D. had long decayed

9. In order to catty out the necessary examination,
the dead body was A. extracted

B. exhumed

C. extradited
E. expelled
10. He went abroad with a view____ a business
partner A. to fund B. to funding

C. to be funding

D. to have funded
ANSWERS ON ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2009/2010
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

10. B
2009/2010 MATHEMATICS POST UTME QUESTIONS
1. Evaluate log327 + 2log39 – log354
3. Divide 1000012 by 112

A. 11012 www.unicalreporters.com
B. 10112

C. 1112

D. 10012
4. A man borrows ₦750 and agrees to pay simple
interest at 4% per annum. After 4months he pays
back ₦400. Calculate the amount he still owing
A. ₦300

B. ₦370

C. ₦380

D. ₦400
5. For what values of y is the expression z + Y/y2
+ 5y – 24 undefined?

A. -3 and 1

B. 2 and 1

C. -1 and -3

D. 3 and -8
6. Evaluate x 2
/x3 + 1 when x –
1/x = 5

A. 27

B. 26

C. 25

D. 24
7. If x varies inversely as xz and x = 4 when y = 2,
y = 9 and z = 4, then x is equal to?

A. 1/9
B. 3/8

C. 9
D. 2/9

8. If 3x + 2y = 6 and 5x + 2y = 12, find x-y A. 6 www.unicalreporters.com

B. -3

C. 3

D. -6
9. X-5 and x+3 are factors of x 2 – kx
– 15.
What is the value of k?

A. -8

B. -5

C. 3

D. -6
10. If y = xsinx find d
2y/dx

A. 2cosx – xsinx

B. sinx + xcosx

C. 3sinx – xcosx

D. xsinx – 2sin2sinx
11. The limit of (x) = x 3
– 1 + x/x2 + 1 as lx = 0,
then l is?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1
12. Find the value of x for which the function f(x)
= x 3 – 2x2 – 4x has a maximum value

A. 1

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. -1

C. 2/3

D. -2/3
13. Given ab = ab – b and a = (a + b);

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b = (a – b). evaluate (a + b)(a – b)

A. b(a + b)

B. 2b(a – b)

C. 2(a – b)

D. 2(a + b)
14. Given that cos2x + sin2x = 1, evaluate
(sinx + cosx)/(cosecx)(secx)

A. 2

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1
15. The bearing of a point from another point
A is 0600 while the bearing of C from B is
1300
. If C is directly east of A and the distance AB
is 10m while the distance BC is 15m. what is
the distance AC? A. 13.72m

B. 12.62m

C. 11.32m

D. 12.20m
17. Two parallel sides of a trapezium are 4cm and
8cm and are separated by a distance of
5cm. find the area of the trapezium A. 30cm2

B. 45cm2

C. 52.1cm2

D. 32cm2
19. What is the coordinate of the midpoint of a line
AB given that A = (2, 4) and B =
(1, -4)
A. ½, ½

B. -½, -4

C. -½, -½

D. ½, 4
20. The line PQ ; P = (2, 4), Q = (2, 1) is divide internally in
the ratio 2:1 by a point
M = (2, q). find the value of q

A. -5

B. 12

C. 3

D. 2
22. Which of the following is among a

measure of dispersion

A. mean

B. scores

C. variance

D. mode
24. A coin is based so that p(head) = ¼ and
p(tail) = ¾, if the coin is tossed 5 times, find
the probability of obtaining no tails A.
1
222 B.
15
2224 C.
27
254 D.
11
254

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

25. If the probability of winning an electron www.unicalreporters.com by

a candidate is p/q, what is the probability of not winning the election?

A.
2
3

B. 0
C.
3−2
1
D.
4−5
5
ANSWERS ON MATHEMATICS 2009/2010
1. –2. – 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. C
10. A 11. D 12. A 13. - 14. D 15. B 17. A
19. B 24. C

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2010/2011 CHEMISTRY POST UTME QUESTIONS
INSTRUCTION: Shade the correct answer in the box
provided on the answer sheet
1. “Equal volumes of all gasses at the same temperature
and pressure contain the same number of molecules” is
an expression of

A. Boyle’s law

B. Graham’s law

C. Charles law

D. Avogadro’s law

E. Gay Lussac’s law

2. Which of the following is the anhydride of HNOs?

A. NO2
B. NO

C. N2O2

D. N2O5
3. Duralumin consists of aluminium, copper____,
and ____ A. zinc and gold

B. lead and manganese

C. Nickel and silver

D. manganese and magnesium

E. nickel and manganese

UNICAL 100% 1st CLASS INFORMATION
4. 2MnO4
+ + 10Cl- + 16H+ ⟶ 2Mn2
+ + 5Cl2
+ 8H2O. Which of the substances serves as
an oxidizing agent A. 10Cl- B. Mn2 - C.
5Cl

D. MnO4

E. H2O
5. In which of the following reactions is the
position of equilibrium affected by an increase in
pressure?

A. 2NO2(g) ⇋ N2O4(g)

B. 3H(g) + N2(g) ⇋ 2NH3(g)

C. 2H1(g) ⇋ N2(g) + H2(g)

D. 2SO2(g) ⇋ 2SO3(g)

E. none of the above

6. The mass silver deposited when a current of
5A is passed through a solution of silver salt for
1939sec is? A. 10g

B. 1.08g

C. 27g

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D. 13.5g

E. 10.8g
[Ag = 108, F = 96500Cmol-1
]
7. The pH of 0.01M of NaOH solution is?

A. 10

B. -3

C. 3

D. 2

E. -2
8. When dH is positive, a reaction is said to be
____.

A. reversible

B. Ionic

C. endothermic

D. exothermic

E. covalent
9. The reactants in a blast furnace during
the extraction of iron are A. sand, silica, and
coke

B. stone, coke and iron ore

C. coke, iron ore and limewater

D. silica, coke and iron ore E. iron ore, coke and limestone
10. What is Y in the equation?
50𝐵𝑎 134 ⟶ 54𝑋 + 𝑌
134

A. 0

B. n

C. a

D. 2𝐻𝑒 4
E. 3
11. ____discovered the electron?

A. Milikan

B. Rutherford
C. J.J Thompson

D. Faraday

E. none of the above

12. Which of the following salts dissolve in water to
give a pH of 7?

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A. Na2SO4

B. CH2COOH

C. Na2S

D. Na2CO3

E. NaCl
13. Greenhouse effect can be reduced by controlling?
A. water evaporation the use of artificial fertilizers C.
the use of aerosols

D. burning of wood and fossil fuel

E. all of the above

15. 30cm3 of hydrogen was exposed with 10cm3 of
oxygen at 1000C. what is the total volume of the gaseous
mixture?

A. 40cm3

B. 30cm3

C. 10cm3

D. 20cm3

E. 50cm3
17. Alkanes generally undergo ____ reaction?

A. substitution

B. addition

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. haemolysis

D. isomerism

E. homologous
18. The catalyst used in the Haber process for the
manufacture of ammonia is____

A. MaO2

B. finely divided copper

C. finely divided nickel D. platinum (II)

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E. finely divided iron
19. What volume of hydrogen is produced at stp when
3.25g of zinc reacts with excess
HCl according to the equation; Zn(s) +
2HCl(aq) ⟶ ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
[Zn = 65, GMV =22.4dm3 at s.t.p]

A. 22.4dm3

B. 22.4cm3

C. 2.24dm3

D. 2.24cm3

E. 1.12dm3
20. An element Y forms a volatile hydride CYH3 with
a vapour density of 17.0. the relative atomic mass
of Y is?

A. 17

B. 34

C. 31

D. 14

E. 20
ANSWERS TO CHEMISRY
2010/2011 QUESTIONS
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. E 7. D 8. C 9. E
10. D 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. A 16. C
17. A 18. E 19. E 20. D

2011/2012 USE OF ENGLISH POST UTME QUESTIONS

Choose the expression or word which
BEST COMPLETES each sentence

1. I am intent_____ continuing my course

A. on

B. with

C. as

D. to

E. at
2. ____equations use letters to stand for numbers

A. Silmultenous

B. Simultanous

C. Simultanous

D. Simultaneous
From the options A to D, choose the
expression that is opposite in meaning to the
underlined word(s).
3. Elemi’s sagacity contrasted sharply with his friend’s
A. Timidity

B. Wisdom

C. Fluency

D. Foolishness
4. Some people keep ferocious animals as pets.

A. Gentle

B. Wild

C. Fierce

D. Domestic

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

From the options listed A – D select the word that
best CAPTURES THE
MEANING of the italicized part of the sentences 5.
Every visitor to Calabar must visit where
photographs and artefacts of early European colonial
presence in Nigeria are kept.

A. Archives

B. Ranch

C. Market

D. museum
From the options A to D, choose the expression that
is NEAREST IN
MEANING to the underlined word
6. Ebire’s generosity turned out to be her Achilles’ heel

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A. Strong point

B. Favourite habit

C. Weak point

D. Less popular virtue

Choose the expression or word which
BEST COMPLETES each sentence
7. The giant hydro-electric project is among the
________ of colonial rule in Southern
Africa

A. Inheritance

B. Remnants

C. Legacies

D. Evidence
8. Ukpabio is proficient _______ tailoring

A. With

B. In
C. Of D. At
Choose the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the underlined
9. The demonstration was organized by hoodlums

A. Criminals

B. Activists C. Thugs
D. Soldiers

10. The plaintiff convinced the court that the murder

was inadvertent A. Brutal

B. Wicked

C. Careless D. Premeditated

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11. The bush burning festival will further renew our forest
resource

A. Increase

B. Reduce

C. Deplete

D. Remove
Choose from the options lettered A – E the
one that has the correct stress with the
word given. In each word only the stressed
part is in CAPITAL 12. Planetarium

A. PLAN-e-tar-i-um

B. plan-E-tar-i-um

C. plan-e-TAR-i-um

D. plan-e-tar-I-um
Choose from the options the word which has
THE SAME SOUND as the underlined
13. COURTESY

A. our

B. Court

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. Shirt D. Tour
From the options listed A – D select the word that
best CAPTURES THE
MEANING of the italicized part of the sentences.
14. Lecturers assisted Prof. Atahiru Jega when Nigerians
chose their political leaders

A. election

B. nomination

C. appointment D. selection

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15. Mother always pays attention to details

A. frivolous

B. interesting

C. rigid

D. meticulous
Choose the option that BEST EXPLAINS the
information conveyed in the sentences
below
16. The rampage in England shows that
youths react the same way under provocation
A. youths in England are very good

B. youths in England are miscreants

C. youths act the same way when provoked

D. youths provoke people in England From the options choose the appropriate
STRESS pattern. The stressed syllables are written in CAPITAL letters.
17. Intimacy

A. INtimacy

B. inTImacy

C. intiMAcy

D. INTImacy 18. consideration A.

CONsideration B. consideration
C. consiDERation

D. considerAtion
From the words lettered A – D choose the word
that rhymes with the given word

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19. purity

A. plentiful

B. security

C. purify

D. nonentity
From the words lettered A – D choose the word
that rhymes with the given word
20. beautiful

A. beautify

B. beautification

C. dutiful

D. dignify
Choose from the options lettered A – E the
one that has the correct stress with the
word given. In each word only the stressed
part is in CAPITAL 21. constitutional

A. con-sti-tu-tion-AL

B. con-sti-TU-tion-al

C. CON-sti-tu-tion-al

D. con-STI-tu-tion-al
22. abnormality

A. AB-nor-ma-li-ty

B. ab-nor-ma-li-TY

C. ab-nor-ma-LI-ty

D. ab-nor-MA-li-ty

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

From the options A to D, choose the expression that
is NEAREST IN
MEANING to the underlined word
23. The use of Latin expressions in English is now
dated A. well-established

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B. historical

C. old-fashioned

D. popular
24. His uncle showed affected interest in his welfare
A. pretended B. loving genuine
D. deep
From the options choose the expression that
BEST COMPLETES each sentence
25. I am qualified for the job; ____?

A. haven’t I

B. Isn’t it

C. aren’t I

D. ain’t I
26. My sister along with her colleagues ____the museum
today.

A. are visiting

B. have visited

C. were visiting

D. is visiting
Choose the word that has the SAME SOUND as
the one represented by the underlined letter
27. mansion

A. cheap

B. leisure

C. peace
D. action 28. time A. print B.

might www.unicalreporters.com
C. flip

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

 illegal
From the options choose the expression that
BEST COMPLETES each sentence 29.

Every student _______before the principal

entered the hall A. has arrived

B. have arrived

C. had arrived

D. arrived
30. The workers presented _______ to the
National Assembly

A. five pages document

B. five-paged document

C. a five-paged document

D. a five-page document From the options A to D, choose the expression that is

NEAREST IN
MEANING to the underlined word(s).
31. A dogged student is likely to succeed

A. Studious

B. Clever

C. Curious

D. Determined
Choose the option that best explains the information
conveyed in the sentence below
32. When I visited Okon I only gave him a congratulatory card

A. the only person I visited was Okon and nobody else B.

it was only Okon that I gave a

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congratulatory card
D.
C. Okon only wanted a congratulatory card D. All that I
gave Okon when I visited him was a congratulatory
card From the options choose the expression that
BEST COMPLETES each sentence 33. The police
_____up a list of suspects in the recent bombings. A.
Has drawned

B. Has drawn

C. have drawned

D. Have drawn
Choose the word that has the same sound as
the one represented by the underlined letter
34. book

A. lamb

B. flock

C. slump

D. club
35. key

A. kite

B. quay

C. kindred

D. quarter
Choose the expression or word which best completes each
sentence
36. Since Atim hasn’t come till now I am in doubt
________ what to do

A. to

B. with C. about D. of www.unicalreporters.com

37. The method ________ does not give the expected results

A. you recommended

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. you visited

C. you told me

you sent me
From the options listed A – E select the word
that best captures the meaning of the
italicized part of the sentences
38. Wolves are meat eaters

A. herbivores

B. carnivores C. animals

D. omnivores
39. Miss Suzuki has published the life stories of
three movies stars A. historian

B. auto biographer

C. writer

D. biographer
40. Most of the birds my grandfather described
are no longer available in our village forest A.
travelled B. migrated

C. hibernated

D. extinct
Select the word that best captures the
meaning of the italicised part of the sentence
41. The principles of American government
are the direct opposite of communist doctrine

A. apex B. antithesis

C. anathema

D. ambivalence
42. Superstition has it that certain foods and drinks are
able to increase sexual desire or potency

A. Apocryphal

B. Amorous
D.
C. Amorphous

D. Aphrodisiac

43. Collins had little understanding of the game, and

most of his moves were random, based on caprice rather
than reasoning

A. Assiduous

B. Astute

C. Arbitrary

D. Acute
44. Eddy vowed to live a long and happy life, shun
temptation and avoid extremes

A. Deny

B. Devolve

C. Eschew

D. Emulate
Choose the expression or word which best completes each
sentence
45. By the end of this year _______ in this town
for eleven years A. I’m living

B. I’d be living

C. I have lived D. I’ll have lived

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Fill in the blank in the following sentences making
use of the best of the five options.
46. He was reported_____ the policeman

A. to be assaulting

B. to assault

C. assaulting

D. to have assaulted
47. He devoted himself_____ homeless children

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. to helping

B. to help

C. with helping

helping
48. My younger brother looked ill last night and evidently______
this morning. A. Worse

B. Worst

C. More ill

D. leaner
After each of the following sentences, a list
of possible interpretation of all or part of
the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence:
49. For us to succeed in this task all hands must
be on deck. This means that everybody A. should
push with his hands

B. will have to place his hands on the deck

C. must cooperate

D. should take a test to qualify 50. Kate was at home with all the questions
www.unicalreporters.com asked by the examiner. This means that Kate
was:

A. Familiar with the questions

B. Went home with the questions

C. Prepared to go home with the questions

D. Conceited about the questions

51. Mike flies off the handle each time there is an argument.
This means:

A. Mike holds the door handle when he argues

B. Mike allows the handle to fly

D.
C. Mike easily loses his temper

D. Mike can cope with any argument Complete the following sentences with the
right option from the words supplied after each sentence 52. When the fire
broke out in the hostel, students in _________ rushed out in all directions. A.
Crisis

B. Panic

C. Haste

D. Hurry
53. Astronomers keep a close watch of the night sky
in order not to miss the
______appearance of some stars

A. Parallel

B. Periodic

C. Regular

D. Constant
Choose the word or phrase from options A-D
which has the nearest meaning to the underlined
word or words in each

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sentence
54. My mother has refused to come to live in
Lagos because she prefers the tranquil life in the
village to the hurly burly of the city.

A. Sweet

B. Prosperous

C. Peaceful

D. Decent
55. A lorry larger than an elephant was struck
on the bridge A. As large as an elephant
B. Carrying an elephant.

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. That looked like an elephant

D. Of enormous proportions. Choose the option that best completes the

sentence
56. The dentist found that his patient’s teeth___

A. Have long decayed

B. Have long been decayed

C. Have long being decayed

D. Had long decayed

57. In order to catty out the necessary examination, the
dead body was_____

A. Extracted

B. Exhumed

C. Extradited

D. Expelled
58. He went abroad with a view_____ a
business partner A. To fund B. To funding

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C. To be funding

D. To have funded
In question 59, which of the options express
the same idea as the one in quote?
59. ‘To put something aside’ is to

A. Put it one’s side

B. Put it in a side pocket for future use C. Keep something for some
special purpose

D. Keep in safety.
Select the option that best explains the sentence:
60. The painting was beautifully faked
A. The painting was a good deceptive replica B.
The painting was well framed and displayed

C. The painting was deceptively decorated

D. The painting was carefully hung From the alternatives provided select the
one which best completes the sentence
61. If only I ________ insured? But I wasn’t. But
I have to pay a lot of money

A. am

B. have been

C. had been

D. was to be
2. Since the petition writer did not include his
name, the vice chancellor refused to act on
such_________ letter A. a spontaneous B. an
anonymous C. a scandalous
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D. a cowardly
63. The first graduation ceremony of the university was
attended by men from all
_______ of life

A. works

B. areas

C. walks

D. walk
Choose the word or phrase from options A
– D which has the nearest meaning to the
underlined word or words in each sentence
64. He should be able to do it alone

A. he would be able to do it alone

B. he ought to be able to do it alone

C. he has to be able to do it alone

D. he will do it alone
65. The old man was said to have died intestate

A. without an estate

B. in his estate
C. without a will

D. in good state
From the alternatives provided select the one
which best completes the sentence
66. If only I ________ insured? But I wasn’t. But
I have to pay a lot of money

A. am

B. have been

C. had been

D. was to be

67. Since the petition writer did not include www.unicalreporters.com his

name, the vice chancellor refused to act on such_________ letter A. a

spontaneous

B. an anonymous

C. a scandalous

D. a cowardly
68. The first graduation ceremony of the university
was attended by men from all
_______ of life

A. works

B. areas

C. walks

D. walk
Choose the word or phrase from options A
– D which has the nearest meaning to the
underlined word or words in each sentence
69. He should be able to do it alone

A. he would be able to do it alone

B. he ought to be able to do it alone

C. he has to be able to do it alone

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D. he will do it alone
70. The old man was said to have died intestate

A. without an estate

B. in his estate

C. without a will

D. in good state
In each of the following questions, the word
in capital letter has the emphatic stress.
Choose the option that best fits the
expression in the sentence

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71. The man BOUGHT the newspaper A. Is
this the newspaper which the man

bought?

B. Did the man read the newspaper?

C. Who bought the newspaper?

D. What did the man buy?

72. The chief RAN to the place A.
Where did the chief run to?

B. Did the chief walk to the place?

C. Did the princess run to the place

D. Who ran to the place?

From the options lettered A – D choose the
word opposite in meaning to the underlined
words in the following sentences
73. Ebere’s _________ contrasts with his brother’s indolence

A. indulgence

B. laziness

C. labour

D. diligence
74. The discussion ended on an amicable note even
though there was grave
_________ at the beginning

A. hostility

B. incompatibility

C. irresponsibility

D. camaraderie
Select the word that best captures the meaning
of the italicized part of the sentence 75. Some
politicians in the area were said to be engaged
in double dealing A. eschewing

B. effeteness

C. duplicity

D. dubiousness

ANSWERS TO ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2011/2012 QUESTIONS

1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B
10. D 11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. C
24. A 25. C 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. D
31. D 32. D 33. D 34. D 35. B 36. C 37. A
38. B 39. D 40. D 41. B 42. D 43. C 44. C
45. D 46. D 47. A 48. A 49. C 50. A 51. C
52. B 53. B 54. C 55. D 56. D 57. B 58. B
59. C 60. A 61. C 62. B 63. C 64. A 65. D
66. C 67. B 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. B 72. B
73. D 74. B 75. C

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2012-2013 PHYSICS POST UTME QUESTIONS
1. The weakest form of bonding in materials is
___

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. Ionic

B. Metallic

C. Covalent

D. Van der Waals

2. The period of a simple pendulum
oscillating in a vacuum depends on A. The
mass of the pendulum

B. The length of the pendulum

C. The acceleration due to gravity

D. The volume of the pendulum

3. Which one of the following phenomena cannot
be explained by the wave theory of light?

A. Refraction

B. Interference

C. Diffraction

D. Photoelectric effect
4. Which of these bests describes the power
of a lens A. P = ⁄f B. P = ⁄f 2

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C. P = f
2

D. P = f
5. Which of the following attributes of a machine does
not depend on friction?

(1) Mechanical advantage

(2) Velocity ratio

(3) Efficiency

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
6. A cell is a device which converts

A. Kinetic energy to potential energy

B. Sound energy to electrical energy

C. Chemical energy to heat energy

D. Chemical energy to electrical energy 7. In which of the following media would

sound waves travel fastest

A. kerosene

B. alcohol

C. water

D. iron
8. Which of the following is not a use of plain mirrors

A. as wing mirrors on cars

B. as a looking glass

C. in a periscope

D. in a kaleidoscope
9. If V is the velocity of a wave, is its wavelength
and T its period. The V, and T are related by the
expression

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A. =V/T2

B. V = T

C. = VT
10. Three 3.0 ohms resistors are connected in
parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?
A. 9.0 ohms B.
1.0 ohm

C. 6.0 ohms

D. 3.0 ohms

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

11. The distance between two successive crest
or trough is A. amplitude

B. wavelength

C. frequency

D. wave distance
12. An object is placed 15cm in front of a convex
mirror and an image is produced 5cm behind the
mirror, calculate the focal length of the mirror

A. -7.5cm

B. 10cm

C. 7.5cm

D. 20cm
13. A ball is projected horizontally at 15m/s
from a point 20m above a horizontal surface.
The magnitude of its velocity in m/s when it hits
the surface is

(g=10m/s2
).

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25
14. A malaria patient has a body temperature
of 39.5oC. Convert this temperature to of____

A. 83.2oF

B. 103.1oF

C. 77.4oF

D. 147 ˚F
15. Positive charges usually move from

A. Higher to lower potential areas

B. Lower to higher potential areas

C. North to south

D. Higher resistance to lower resistance areas 16. A truck traveling with a

velocity of 40m/s applies the brakes and comes to a halt after 20 seconds.
What is distance travelled by the truck before coming to a halt

A. 40m

B. 800m

C. 400m

D. 10m
17. In a harmonic oscillation of a simple pendulum,
one of the following statements is correct?

A. The potential energy and the kinetic energy of

the bob are equal at all times

B. The potential energy is equal to the kinetic

energy at the central position of the oscillation

C. The potential and the kinetic energies of the

bob are maximum at the maximum height of
the oscillation

D. None of the above

18. If the linear expansivity of a metal rod is 4 x
10-5 per oC, what will be the new length of the
rod if it is heated from 15oC to 95oC from its
original length of 20cm

A. 0.064 cm

B. 0.64 cm

C. 20.64 cm

D. 20.064 cm
19. The heat required to melt ice at 0°C to water
at the same temperature is called A. Apparent
heat of fusion

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. Apparent heat of vaporization

C. Latent heat of vaporization

D. Latent heat of fusion

20. Which of the following is used in a nuclear reactor
to slow down fast-moving electrons?

A. Carbon dioxide gas

B. Liquid sodium metal

C. Concrete shield

D. Graphite rods.
21. Calculate the power-rating of a heating
element which melted in 20g of ice at 0 oC and
raised the temperature of the resulting water to
60oC in 2 minutes Specific latent heat of fusion
of ice = 340 J/g [Specific heat capacity of water
= 4.2 J/g/oC]

A. 5.92kw

B. 98.6w www.unicalreporters.com
C. 107w

D. 42w
22. If a man cannot see objects very close to him
the following can be used to correct the problem.

A. Convex lens

B. Convex mirror

C. Concave lens

D. Concave mirror
23. when the bob of a simple pendulum is at its
highest displacement, one of the following
happens:

A. kinetic energy is maximum

B. potential energy is maximum

C. total energy is zero

D. momentum is maximum
24. When the atmospheric pressure is very low
in a given location, boiling point of water:

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains

D. cannot boil

25. Which of these statements is correct about cathode

rays. They are fast moving

A. atoms

B. neutrons

C. electrons

D. ions
26. Which of the following has the highest
surface tension. A. soapy water B. cold water

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C. warm water

D. Salt water
27. A truck traveling with a velocity of 40m/s
applies the brakes and comes to a halt after
20 seconds. What is the distance travelled by
the truck before coming to a halt

A. 40m

B. 800m

C. 400m

D. 10m
28. If the linear expansivity of a metal rod is 4
x 10-5 per oC, what will be the new length of
the rod if it is heated from 15 oC to 95oC rom
its original length of 20cm

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. 0.064 cm

B. 0.64 cm

C. 20.64 cm

D. 20.064 cm
29. 44KJ of heat was used in raising the
temperature of 2kg of paraffin oil from 360K
to 370K. Calculate the specific heat capacity of
paraffin oil A. 2.2 J/kg/K

B. 2.2 x 103
J/kg/K

C. 2.2 x 105
J/kg/K

D. 220 J/kg/K
30. A simple machine overcomes a load of 4000N when a
force of 200N is applied. If the velocity ration of the
machine is 25, www.unicalreporters.com calculate the

efficiency of the machine?

A. 1.25%

B. 80%

C. 125%

D. 0.8%
31. A long sighted person is to read a book held
at a distance of 20cm from the eyes. Which of
the following will the person require to read the
book with ease? A. Nothing

B. Concave lens

C. Convex lens

D. Concave mirror
32. An object at the bottom of a pool of liquid
10m depth is seen by an observer as if it is at
8m depth. What is the refractive index of the
liquid A. 0.25 B. 0.20

C. 1.25

D. 0.8
33. Which of the following has the highest surface
tension? A. soapy water

B. cold water

C. warm water

D. Salt water
34. The emf developed in a circuit is directly
proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
The above was a finding from

A. Maxwell

B. Faraday www.unicalreporters.com
C. Ampere

D. Lenz
35. Which of the following is stored by a dry LeClanche cell?

A. Chemical energy

B. Solar energy

C. Electrical energy

D. Heat energy
36. A ball is projected horizontally from the top
of a hill with a velocity of 20m/s. if it reaches the
ground 4 seconds later. What is the height of
the hill? (g=10m/s2
).

A. 200m

B. 20m

C. 160m

D. 40m

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

37. The expansion of solids can be considered a
disadvantage in

A. fire-alarm system

B. thermostat

C. reverting of steel plates

D. balance wheel of a watch

16. A truck traveling with a velocity of 40m/s
applies the brakes and comes to a halt after 20
seconds. What is distance travelled by the truck
before coming to a halt

A. 40m

B. 800m

C. 400m

D. 10m
17. In a harmonic oscillation of a simple

www.unicalreporters.com
pendulum, one of the following statements is
correct
A. The potential energy and the kinetic energy
of the bob are equal at all times B. The
potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy
at the central position of the oscillation

C. The potential and the kinetic energies of the bob are maximum at the
maximum height of the oscillation

D. None of the above

18. If the linear expansivity of a metal rod is 4 x
10-5 per oC, what will be the new length of the
rod if it is heated from 15oC to 95oC from its
original length of 20cm

A. 0.064cm

B. 0.64cm
C. 20.64cm

D. 20.064cm
19. The heat required to melt ice at 0°C to water
at the same temperature is called A. Apparent
heat of fusion

B. Apparent heat of vaporization

C. Latent heat of vaporization

D. Latent heat of fusion

20. Which of the following is used in a nuclear reactor

to slow down fast-moving electrons?
A. Carbon dioxide gas

B. Liquid sodium metal

C. Concrete shield

D. Graphite rods.

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21. Calculate the power-rating of a heating
element which melted in 20g of ice at 0 oC and
raised the temperature of the resulting water to
60oC in 2 minutes Specific latent heat of fusion
of ice = 340 J/g [Specific heat capacity of water
= 4.2 J/g/oC ]

A. 5.92kw

B. 98.6w

C. 107w

D. 42w
22. If a man cannot see objects very close to him
the following can be used to correct the problem.

A. Convex lens

B. Convex mirror

C. Concave lens

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D. Concave mirror
23. when the bob of a simple pendulum is at its
highest displacement, one of the following
happens:

A. kinetic energy is maximum

B. potential energy is maximum

C. total energy is zero

D. momentum is maximum
24. When the atmospheric pressure is very low
in a given location, boiling point of water:

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains

D. cannot boil
25. Which of these statements is correct

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about cathode rays. They are fast moving

A. atoms

B. neutrons

C. electrons

D. ions
26. Which of the following has the highest surface
tension. A. soapy water

B. cold water

C. warm water

D. Salt water
27. A truck traveling with a velocity of 40m/s
applies the brakes and comes to a halt after
20 seconds. What is the distance travelled by
the truck before coming to a halt
A. 40m

B. 800m

C. 400m

D. 10m
28. If the linear expansivity of a metal rod is 4 x
10-5 per oC, what will be the new length of the
rod if it is heated from 15oC to 95oC from its
original length of 20cm

A. 0.064 cm

B. 0.64 cm

C. 20.64 cm

D. 20.064 cm
29. 44KJ of heat was used in raising the temperature of
2kg of paraffin oil from 360K to 370K. Calculate the
specific heat capacity of paraffin oil
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A. 2.2 J/kg/K

B. 2.2 x 103 J/kg/K

C. 2.2 x 105
J/kg/K

D. 220 J/kg/K
30. A simple machine overcomes a load of
4000N when a force of 200N is applied. If the
velocity ration of the machine is 25, calculate the
efficiency of the machine?

A. 1.25%

B. 80%

C. 125%

D. 0.8%

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

31. A long sighted person is to read a book held
at a distance of 20cm from the eyes. Which of
the following will the person require to read the
book with ease? A. Nothing

B. Concave lens

C. Convex lens

D. Concave mirror
32. An object at the bottom of a pool of liquid
10m depth is seen by an observer as if it is at 8m
depth. What is the refractive index of the liquid
A. 0.25 B.
0.20
. 1.25

D. 0.8
33. Which of the following has the highest surface tension?

A. soapy water

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B. cold water

C. warm water

D. Salt water
34. The emf developed in a circuit is directly
proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
The above was a finding from

A. Maxwell

B. Faraday

C. Ampere

D. Lenz
35. Which of the following is stored by a dry Leclanche cell?

A. Chemical energy

B. Solar energy
C. Electrical energy

D. Heat energy
36. A ball is projected horizontally from the top
of a hill with a velocity of 20m/s. if it reaches the
ground 4 seconds later. What is the height of
the hill? (g=10m/s2
).

A. 200m

B. 20m

C. 160m

D. 40m
37. The expansion of solids can be considered a
disadvantage in

A. fire-alarm system

B. thermostat

C. reverting of steel plates

D. balance wheel of a watch

60. A total internal reflection occurs in the

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glass-air boundary when the angle of incidence is

A. greater than the right angle

B. greater than critical angle

C. greater than angle of prism

D. greater than angle of deviation 61. At what temperature will the Celsius scale
coincide with the Fahrenheit scale?

A. 40˚

B. -70˚

C. 70˚

D. -40˚

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

62. Which of these statements is correct about cathode
rays. They are fast moving

A. atoms

B. neutrons

C. electrons

D. ions
63. The upthrust experienced by an object immersed in
a fluid makes the object feel

A. Heavier

B. Lighter

C. sink lower

D. none of the above

64. Which of the following has the highest surface
tension. A. soapy water

B. cold water

C. warm water

D. Salt water
65. Which of these is NOT a consequence of
hydrogen bubbles covering the upper plate of a
primary cell?

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A. Polarization

B. Local action

C. Generation of less current by the cell

D. Increase in the resistance of the cell.

66. What is the current in a circuit if the charge of
240 coulombs pass each point in 2 minutes

A. 120 A

B. 480 A

C. 4 A
D. 2 A
67. An electric in Nigeria has a number of 60w
coloured bulb. How many can be connected to
a 240V supply through a 5A fuse

A. 20

B. 48

C. 5

D. 4
68. A radio station broadcasts on a frequency
of 100MHz. If the sped of the radio wave is 3
x 108m/s, what is the wavelength of the radio
wave from this station

A. 3 x 106m

B. 3 x 103m

C. 300m

D. 3m

69. If you need to clearly see an object that is

at a very far distance, then you need to use A.
periscope B.

microscope www.unicalreporters.com
C. telescope

D. prism scope
70. Michael Faraday found that the EMF
developed across a conductor is directly
proportional to the A. current applied B.
voltage applied

C. rate of change of magnetic flux

D. rate of change of electric flux

ANSWERS TO PHYSICS 2011/2012 QUESTIONS

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

10. B 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. A
17. D 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. B
24. B 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. B
31. C 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D
38. A 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. C 44. C
45. D 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. C
52. B 53. A 54. D 55. C 56. B 57. B 58. A
59. D 60. B 61. D 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. B 66.
D 67. A 68. D 69. C 70. C

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2011/2012 CHEMISTRY POST UTME QUESTIONS
1. ________________ are allotropes of carbon

A. graphite and sulphur

B. amorphous charcoal and coke

C. diamond and graphite

D. carbon monoxide and coke

2. A substance is said to be hygroscopic if it _____________

A. does not absorb moisture

B. is suspended in water

C. dissolves when it absorbs moistures

D. hydrolysis in water
3. CH3CO2H + CH3CH2OH ? The functional group under
and in the equation is a/an

____ group A.
Alkanol

B. Carbonyl

C. Keto

D. Carboxylic acid
4. The gas equation PV= nRT is made up of
Charles’ Law and _____ law

A. Le Chateliers’
B. Gay-Lussac’s

C. Boyle’s

D. Newton’s
5. The acid in butter is called ____ acid

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A. Butanonoic

B. Butyric

C. Benzoic

D. Butandioic
6. The oxidation state of calcium is CaCl2 is
_____
A. +1
B.+2
C.+3
D.+4

7. The mass number of an atom of an element is

the sum of its

A. Electrons, neutrons and protons

B. Electrons and protons

C. Protons and neutrons

D. Valence electrons
8. The existence of two or more forms of the same
element in the same physical state is known as___
A. Allotropy

B. Resonance

C. Hybridization

D. Isotopy
9. In which of the following are radioactive isotopes used?

A. Scientific research

B. Dating techniques

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C. Treatment of cancer

D. All of the above

10. The phenomenon observed when dust
particles collide randomly in a beam of sunlight is
known as

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A. Tyndale effect

B. Diffusion

C. Osmosis

D. Brownian movement
11. The main characteristic features of transition metals
are that they

A. Have the same atomic size

B. Are reducing agents

C. Forms ions easily

D. Have variable oxidation states

12. In 1898, which scientist proposed that the

atom is a sphere of positively charged matter in
which negatively charged electrons are
embedded

A. Earnest Rutherford

B. Max Planck

C. J.J Thomson

D. Robert Millikan
13. Oxygen gas is collected in the laboratory by
______

A. upward displacement of air

B. upward displacement of water

C. downward displacement of water

D. using a gas layer

14. CuO + H2 Cu + H2O.
In the reaction above CuO is _____

A. oxidized to copper

B. reduced to copper

C. chemically converted to copper

D. reversed to copper
15. Isotopes are atoms if the same element with
_____ A. different protons

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B. mass above 50

C. inter convertible masses

D. different masses
16. A reaction is in equilibrium when
_______
A. the rate of the forward reaction is equal
to the rate of the reverse reaction B. the
reaction rates of the forward and backward
reaction are zero

C. its rate is reversible

D. it does not produce ant product again 17. The boiling point of a liquid such
as methanol is the temperature at which its A. vapour pressure is equal to
1 atmosphere B. vapour pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure

C. reactants and products are at standard states

D. vapour pressure doubles atmospheric
pressure

18. Alkenes and _____ are compounds that contain a

multiple bond each

A. Alkanes

B. Benzene

C. Alkynes

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D. Benzaldehyde
19. A palm fruit dropped to the ground from the
top of a tree 45m tall, how long does it take to
reach the ground? (take g=10ms-2
)

A. 1s

B. 2s

C. 3s

D. 5s
20. _____ is due to the formation of hydrogen
gas bubbles around the copper plate of a simple
cell A. polarization B. depolarization

C. local action

D. amalgamation
21. Which of the following can be explained by the
kinetic theory?

I. The physical state of matter

II. Diffusion of gases

III. Melting of solid

IV. Evaporation of liquids

A. IV

B. I & II

C. III & IV

D. I, II & III

E. I, II, III & IV

22. The properties of electrovalent compounds
include the following except

A. High melting point and boiling point B.

Conduction of electricity in the molten state

C. High volatility at room temperature

D. Ionization in aqueous solution
23. Which of the following statements is not corrected about
electrolysis?

A. Reduction occurs at the anode

B. Anions migrate to the anode

C. Positive ions migrate to the cathode D. Concentration affects the discharge of

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ions
24. Separation of mixtures of solids by physical
methods can be based on differences in the following
except

A. Melting point

B. Solubility

C. Particle size

D. Molar mass
25. The following are major gaseous pollutants
except. A. CO

B. CO2

C. SO2

D. CFC
26. Brass is an alloy containing copper and

A. zinc

B. tin

C. silver

D. lead
27. Which of the following reduces the activation energy
of a chemical reaction?

A. freezing mixture

B. reducing agent

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C. water

D. catalyst
28. In the electrolysis of brime, the anode is

A. carbon

B. platinum

C. zinc

D. copper
29. What current in ampere will deposit
0.27g of aluminium in 2 hours?
[Al=27, F=96500C].

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A. 3.2

B. 8

C. 0.4

D. 16
30. What is the likely formula of a compound
formed between element M in group 2 and between
element X in group 7?

A. M7X2

B. MX2

C. M2X7

D. M2X
31. Which of the following can be explained by the
kinetic theory?

I. The physical state of matter

II. Diffusion of gases

III. Melting of solid

IV. Evaporation of liquids

A. IV

B. I & II
C. III & IV

D. I, II & III

E. I, II, III & IV

32. The properties of electrovalent compounds
include the following except
A. High melting point and boiling point B.
Conduction of electricity in the molten state

C. High volatility at room temperature

D. Ionization in aqueous solution E. Decomposition of their solutions by electric

current
33. Which of the following statements is not

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correct about electrolysis?

A. Reduction occurs at the anode

B. Anions migrate to the anode

C. Positive ions migrate to the cathode D. Concentration affects the discharge of

ions
E. Electrolysis conduct electric current 34.
Separation of mixtures of solids by physical
methods can be based on differences in
the following except ___

A. Melting point

B. Solubility

C. Particle size

D. Molar mass
35. The following are major gaseous pollutants except___

A. CO

B. CO2

C. SO2 D. CFC

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

36. The ration of reactants to products is 1: 3: 2
in the reaction represented by the equation
below:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3(g)

A. Boyle’s law

B. Law of multiple proportion

C. Gay-Lussac’s law

D. Law of constant composition

37. PH of a 0.0001M acid is

A. 1

B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

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39. Alkanoates are produced from alkanols by

A. Esterification

B. Fermentation

C. Saponification

D. Oxidation
40. Esters are employed in the following except

A. Making perfumes

B. Nail vanisher

C. Making solvent for cellulose trioxonitrate(V)

D. Making cement

41. What mass of anhydrous sodium trioxocarbonate(IV)

is present in 500cm3 of 0.1mol dm-3 of the solution
[Na=23, C=12,
O=16]

A. 10.6g

B. 106g

C. 5.3g

D. 53g
42. The oxidation state of oxygen in tetraoxosulphate(IV)
acid is ____ A. -4

B. +4

C. -2

D. +2
43. Metals of the first transition series have special
properties which are different from those of groups I and II
elements because they have partially filled A. S orbital
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B. P orbital

C. D orbital

D. F orbital
44. Separation of different carotenes from carrot
root uses a method A. centrifugation

B. Distillation

C. chromatography

D. keratinization
45.
Solution W X Y Z
PH 8 12 4 2
From the table, which of the solutions W, C, Y
and Z will liberate carbon (IV) oxide from a
trioxocarbonate (IV) salt?

A. Z

B. Y

C. W

D. X
46. 50cm3 of saturated solution of KNO3 at 40˚C
contained 5.05g of salt. What is the solubility of KNO3
at 40˚C?
[K = 39, N = 14, O = 16]

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. 1.0moldm-3

B. 1.5moldm-3

C. 2.0moldm-3
D. 5.0moldm-3
47. A brand of ink containing cobalt (III), copper
(II) and iron(II) ions can best be separated into its
various components by

A. fractional crystallization

B. fractional distillation C. sublimation www.unicalreporters.com

D. chromatography
48. If the rate law obtained for a given reaction
is given as rate = K[X]n [Y]m, what is the
overall order of the reaction.

A. nm

B. n/m

C. n + m

D. n-m
49. A molecular formula shows_____ in a molecule

A. the elements present

B. the number of atoms of each element

C. cations and anions

D. chemical symbols and number of atoms 50. Give the total mass of copper in
1gm of copper (II) sulphate
[Cu = 40; S = 32; O = 16]

A. 0.25g

B. 0.50g

C. 10g

D. 2.5g
51. 55𝐶𝑠 114 ⟶ 𝑍𝐸
𝐴⟶2𝑎
4
.
Find the value of A and Z in the equation above

A. 119, 53

B. 110, 57

C. 110, 53

D. 110, 58
52. How many moles of H2 molecules are needed
to convert 5 mol of O2 molecules to

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water?

A. 5 mol of H2

B. 10 mol of H2

C. 15 mol of H2

D. 20 mol of H2
53. 88𝑅𝑎 22 ⟶ 86𝑅𝑛 𝑥 + a. What is
the value of X in the nuclear
reaction above? A. 220

B. 222 C. 226
D. 227.
54. When naphthalene on heating changes
from solid state directly to the gaseous state,
it undergoes A. sublimation

B. evaporation

C. combustion

D. decomposition
55. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

A. alcohol

B. sodium ethanoate

C. solid potassium hydroxide

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D. mercury
56. The equation 7𝑁
14 + 2𝐻𝑒 4 ⟶ 8𝑂 17
+ 1𝑃 1 represents?

A. nuclear fusion

B. nuclear fission C. artificial radioactivity

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D. nuclear fission using positron 57. Which of the following is a general method
of preparing acids?

A. Direct combination of constituent elements

B. Double decomposition involving a salt
solution

C. Reaction between an anhydride and water

D. Reaction between a base and an amphoteric
oxide
E. Dissolution of hydroxides followed by neutralization
58. Monosaccharides are

A. hydrolysable

B. non-hydrolysable

C. not soluble in water

D. sweet but sometimes non sugary 59. The major air pollutants that can result
from smoky vehicles include A. Acid fumes

B. Hydrogen sulphide

C. Carbon (II) oxide

D. Carbon particles

60. If an element has the electronic configuration

1s22s22p63s23p4
, it is ___

A. metal

B. An alkaline earth metal

C. An S-block element

D. A P-block element
61. Compounds that have the same
molecular formula but different structures are
said to be ___

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A. Allotropic

B. Isotopic

C. Polymeric

D. Isomeric
62. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Carbon exhibits allotropy

B. Sulphur exhibits allotropy

C. Chlorine exhibits allotropy

D. Hydrogen is a gas
63. 300cm3 of a gas has a pressure 400mmHg.
If the pressure is reduced to 150mmHg. Find its
volume.

A. 700 cm3

B. 800 cm3

C. 350 cm3

D. 112.5 cm3
65. Ethyne, Ethene, Cyclohexane and
Propene can be classified as ______

A. alkenes

B. aromatic compounds

C. saturated compounds

D. multiple bond hydrocarbons

66. If the PH of a compound is 3.2 that compound is_____

A. Amphoteric

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B. A Salt

C. An Acid

D. A Base
67. Which is the most ionic in the group below

A. Cl2

B. NaCl

C. AlCl3

D. CaCl2
68. Hydrogenation of palm oil results in a solid
compound called A. candle

B. solid palm oil

C. palm oil

D. ester
69. An Amphoteric compound _____

A. Reacts with alcohols

B. Reacts both as an acid and as a base

C. It is solid at room temperature

D. has a PH of 7
70. In structural isomerism same atoms are
linked to ______ A. carbon atoms B. similar
atoms

C. different neighbouring atoms

D. different functional groups

ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY 2011/2012 QUESTIONS
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D
10. A 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. A
17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. E 22. C 23. A

24. D 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. B

31. E 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. C 37. D 38.
39. A 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. C 44. C
45. B 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. A 51. C
52. B 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. C 57. A 58. B
59. C 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. B 64. D 65. D 66.
C 67. B 68. C 69. B 70. C

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2011/2012 BIOLOGY POST UTME QUESTIONS
1. The wavelike motion of the muscles of the
oesophagus to push each bolus of food downwards is
known as

A. Anti-peristalsis
B. Digestion

C. Peristalsis

D. Oesophageal motion
2. Which of these diseases cannot be controlled by
killing the vectors?

A. River blindness

B. Malaria

C. Polio

D. Cholera
3. If a tall man (TT) marries a dwarf woman (tt)
and they have four children, what will be the ratio
of tall to dwarf children?

A. 0 tall:4 dwarf

B. 3 tall:1 dwarf

C. 2 dwarf:2 tall

D. 4 tall:0 dwarf
4. The chromosome is found in which organelle
A. The Nucleus

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B. The Mitochondria

C. The Vesicle

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D. The Cytosol
5. Photosynthetic organisms are classified as_____

A. Autotrophs

B. Heterotrophs

C. Herbivorous

D. Omnivorous
6. Which of the organisms listed below is not a micro-
organism? A. Virus

B. Tapeworm

C. Coccus

D. Vibrio cholera
7. The nervous system is made up of
A. Kidney, bladder and liver

B. Testes and ovaries

C. Brain and spinal cord

D. Muscles and skeleton

8. The synthesis of protein takes place in______

A. Golgi body

B. Ribosome

C. Mitochondria

D. Nucleus
9. Mutations involving alterations in the genes are
called

A. Gene mutations

B. Gene changes

C. Chromosomal mutations

D. Chromosomal changes
10. Which vertebra has a projection on the

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centrum called odontoid process?
A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. Thoracic

D. Lumber
11. Deamination occurs in____

A. Kidney

B. Pancreas

C. Spleen

D. Liver
12. The ability of an organisms to live successfully in
an environment is known as

A. Succession

B. Resistance

C. Adaptation

D. Competition
13. The following are connected with the
movement of a reflex action Which of the following
sequences indicates a correct path?

(1) Central nervous system

(2) Muscle

(3) Skin

(4) Sensory nerve

(5) Motor nerve

A. 1-2-3-4-5

B. 2-1-4-5-3

C. 3-4-1-2-5

D. 3-4-1-5-2
14. Which of the following statements is
NOT true of symbiosis? A. Symbionts must
be living

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 www.unicalreporters.com
B. It is an association of ‘give and take’

C. The association may involve two plants

D. Association between two similar species

15. The deficiency of Vitamin D leads to:

A. Scurvy

B. Pellagra

C. Rickets

D. Beriberi
16. Hepatic portal vein is unique because it

A. Carries deoxygenated blood

B. Begins and ends with capillaries

C. Is the largest vein in mammals

D. Carried digested food

17. The thoracic vertebrae of a mammal is characterized by
the

A. Vertebroarterial canal

B. Prominent neural arch

C. Prominent neural process

D. Prominent neural spine

18. A grasshopper respires by means of its

A. Lung-books

B. Gills

C. Lungs

D. Tracheal tubes
19. The inactive state exhibited by an animal during
hot dry seasons is termed

A. Aestivation

B. Dormancy

C. Resting
D. Hibernation

20. Auxins are produced in the

A. petiole of leaves

B. parenchyma of roots and shoots

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C. epidermis of roots and shoots

D. apical regions of roots and shoots 21. Which of the following methods of
reproduction is common in Paramecium and Amoeba?

A. Conjugation

B. Sexual reproduction

C. Binary Fission

D. Budding
22. An example of cryptic coloration is the: A. Mottled
colours on moths that rest on lichens

B. Bright colour of an insect pollinated flower

C. Green colour of a plant

D. Bright marks on a poisonous tropical frog on variegated leaves

23. Which of the following organs is responsible for

controlling the body temperature regulation and
water balance in mammals?

A. Kidney

B. Hypothalamus

C. Parathyroid

D. Adrenal
24. A man and his wife are both heterozygous
for the sickle cell trait. The likely percentage of
their offspring that will either be carriers or
‘Sickler’ is

A. 75%

B. 50% C. 25% D. 100%

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 www.unicalreporters.com
25. The brain and the spinal cord make up the A.
Peripheral nervous system.

B. Autonomic nervous system

C. Central nervous system.

D. Somatic nervous
26. The hormone which regulates the amount of
sugar in the blood is

A. Thyroxine

B. Auxin

C. Insulin

D. Adrenalin
27. Which of the following is the effect of using
artificial pollination in plant breeding? A.
production of healthy crops

B. improvement of the variety of crops

C. lengthening the maturity time

D. making crops susceptible to diseases 28. Which of the following processes will
not introduce carbon dioxide into the atmosphere? A. breathing

B. photosynthesis

C. Respiration

D. Putrefaction
29. Which of the following does not contribute to
the biomass in an ecosystem?

A. producer’s

B. food chain

C. consumer’s

D. micro-organisms
30. Which of these diseases cannot be

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prevented by immunization

A. Onchocerciasis

B. Poliomyelitis

C. Cholera

D. Tuberculosis
31. Which of the following specialized structures
are stimulated by touch, pressure, pain, heat
and cold?

A. receptors

B. synapse

C. cell bodies

D. myelin
32. The process by which plants and animals are
modified in structure, physiology and behaviour in
order to survive is known as

A. evolution

B. adaptation

C. succession

D. hibernation
33. Thunderstorm can be beneficial to plants because it

A. kills pests that attack crops

B. adds lime to the soil

C. adds nitrates to the soil

D. makes rain water available to plants 34. When large numbers of organisms
share limited space and resources, the result is

A. immigration

B. symbiosis

C. extinction

D. competition

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35. Even though some flowering plants contain
accessory pigments which give them colours, they
still contain the pigment

A. melanin

B. chlorophyll

C. carotene

D. xanthophyll
36. Which structure in the maize grain stores
food? A. radicle. B. embryo

C. cytoplasm

D. endosperm
37. Which of the following statements is not associated
with the theory of natural selection?

A. There is a struggle for existence

B. There is competition among the offspring

C. The weaker offsprings are eliminated

D. Food and other needs are abundant 38. Nitrogen fixing micro-organisms in
leguminous plants live symbiotically in the

A. branch roots

B. tap roots

C. root nodules

D. root hairs
39. The epidermis of the mammalian skin is an example
of a tissue because the cells

A. prevent light from passing through them

B. Have a similar structure and function

C. prevent excessive loss of water

D. are impregnated with keratin 40. The phenomenon whereby some organisms
with certain features get established in an environment is known as
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A. Partial selection

B. Artificial selection

C. Natural selection

D. Mutation
41. Who formulated the theory of natural selection
in evolution? A. Gregor Mendel.

B. Jean Lamarck

C. Mathias Scheiden

D. Charles Darwin
42. Which of the following statements is not correct of
respiration?
A. Gaseous exchange occurs by diffusion B. Oxygen
combines with haemoglobin in the respiratory
surface

C. Carbon dioxide produced in the tissues is

removed by the process of osmosis

D. there are no special organs of respiration in

plants
43. Which of the following constitutes the main internal
tissues of a leaf? A. Cuticle

B. Mesophyll

C. Vascular tissue

D. Lower epidermis
44. Which of the following is an autotrophic mode of
nutrition?

A. Chemosynthesis

B. Saprophytism

C. Parasitism

D. Symbiosis

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

45. Which of the following structures

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differentiates an animal cell from a plant cell?

A. Ribosomes

B. Cell membrane

C. Chloroplast

D. Mitochondrion
46. The change in colour of the chameleon serves as
a means of

A. attraction to the opposite sex

B. repulsion of the enemy

C. a camouflage from a predator

D. regulation of body temperature 47. At which of the following stages of mitosis

do the two daughter chromosomes separate completely?

A. early prophase

B. telophase

C. Anaphase

D. late prophase
48. The role of dead organic matter in the
soil is to

A. Make the soil black.

B. Increase the mineral salt content.

C. Provide food for all living organisms

D. Increase the acidity of the soil.

49. If the petals of a flowering plant are removed,
which of the following processes is likely to be affected?

A. Transpiration

B. Pollination

C. Germination
D. Photosynthesis
50. Which of these substances is likely to be

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deficient in the diet of a person having goitre?

A. Potassium

B. Calcium

C. Iodine

D. Sodium
51. Banana, plantain and pineapple can be grouped
together because they ___ A. produce small seeds

B. are multiple fruits

C. produce suckers

D. have runners
52. The structure in the cell that controls the
movement of substances in and out of the cell is
the ____

A. Cytoplasmic membrane

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Cytoplasm

D. Protoplasm
53. Which of the following statements is not true of
osmotic process?

A. There must be a selectively permeable membrane

B. The two solutions must be of different
concentrations initially

C. It involves only the movement of water molecules

D. The two solutions are of equal concentration at the beginning

of the experiment.

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

54. The pulmonary artery carries A.
deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to
the lungs

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B. oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to
the lungs

C. oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the

right auricle

D. de-oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to

the right auricle

55. Which of the following parts of the mammalian

brain is involved in taking the decision to run rather
than walk? A. Cerebellum

B. Medulla oblongata

C. Cranial nerves

D. Cerebrum
56. Water rises most rapidly in A.
Sandy soil.

B. Clayey soil

C. Sandy-loam soil

D. Loamy soil
57. Euglena moves by:

A. Whipping of its flagellum

B. Beating of its cilia

C. Rotating action of the flagella D. pushing out a jet of water from an

organelle 58. The following life processes are common to both plants and animal
except ____

A. respiration

B. growth

C. reproduction
D. photosynthesis
59. Which of the following statements is correct of
hormones? Hormones are

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A. secreted into the blood through ducts

B. secreted directly into the blood stream C. inactive chemical substances in the
blood stream
D. non-specific in their mode of action 60.
Which of the following statements is not
associated with the theory of natural selection?

A. there is a struggle for existence

B. there is a competition among offspring

C. the weaker offspring are eliminated

D. Food and other needs are abundant 61. Water is necessary for a germinating
seed because it

A. promotes aerobic respiration

B. activates the enzymes C. wets the soil for proper germination

D. protects the seed from desiccation. 62.
The farming practice by which an exhausted
land is left for a number of years before
cultivation is known as A. crop rotation

B. continuous cropping

C. mono cropping

D. bush fallowing
63. Which of the following instruments is used for
determining the turbidity of the water?

A. thermometer

B. Secchi Disc.

C. Rain Gauge.
D. Hygrometer

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

64. The surest way to combine the best qualities of
both parents in the offspring is by

A. cross-breeding

B. in breeding

C. selective breeding

D. all of the above

65. Which of the following is not true about gene mutation?

A. it introduces new traits into a population

B. causes changes in the DNA

C. is a source of new genes

D. always affects the chromosome number 66. In unicellular organisms, essential

nutrients can be transported directly to all parts of the body by the process of
diffusion only because unicellular organisms have: A. A large surface area to
volume ratio

B. A large volume to surface area ration

C. Permeable cell membrane

D. Their body is always immersed in the nutrient material 67. Which of the
following is not present in the nucleus of a cell?
A. Chromosomes B. Nucleolus

C. Mitochondrion

D. Genes
68. The structure in the cell that controls the
movement of substance in and out of the cell is
the

A. Cytoplasmic membrane

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Cytoplasm

D. Protoplasm
69. Which of these is not an excretory product of plant?

A. Tannin
B. Gum

C. Alkaloid

D. Sweat
70. Which of the following processes will not
introduce carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?
A. Breathing

B. Photosynthesis

C. Respiration

D. Putrefaction
ANSWERS TO BIOLOGY 2011/2012 QUESTIONS
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A
10. B 11. D 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. D 18. D 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. B
24. A 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. A

31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. D

38. C 39. B 40. C 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. A
45. C 46. C 47. C 48. B 49. B 50. C 51. C
52. A 53. D 54. A 55. D 56. A 57. A 58. D
59. B 60. D 61. B 62. D 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. A
67. C 68. A 69. D 70. B

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1. Find the average of the first four prime numbers greater
than 10 A. 20

B. 11

C. 17

D. 15
2. Given that P⁄r and p = 3 when r =16, find the value
of r when p = ⁄r

A. 94

B. 45
C. 72

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

D. 324
3. 4 x 10-5 = ?

A. - 40,000

B. - 200

C. 0.0004

D. 0.00004
5. The quadratic equation whose roots are
at x = 3 and x = 5 is given by A. (x - 3)(x -
5) = 1

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B. (x + 3)(x +
5) - 9 = (x + 3)(x + 5) – 25

C. (x + 3)(x + 5) = 0

D. x

2
- 8x = -15
6. There are 15 balls in a box: 8 balls are
green, 4 are blue and 3 are white. Then 1
green and 1 blue balls are taken from the box
and put away. What is the probability that a
blue ball is selected at random from the box?
A. 3/13

B. 4/15

C. 3/15

D. 4/13
7. If -3/(a - 3) = 3/(a + 2), then a = ?

A. -3

B. -2

C. 1/2

D. 2
8. What is the average of 7/8 and 3/4?
A. 13/8

B. 5/6

C. 5/3

D. 13/16
9. If the hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10

inches long and one of its legs is 5 inches long,

how long is the other leg?

A. 5

B. 5√3

C. 5√5 www.unicalreporters.com
D. 75
10. If 8y = 3x - 11, then x = ?

A. (88/3) y

B. (8/3) y + 11

C. (8/3) y - 11

D. (8y + 11)/3
11. Which of the statements describes the solution set
for -2(x + 8) = -2x + 20?

A. x = - 2 only

B. x = 0 only

C. x = 20 only

D. There are no solutions for this equation. 12. When graphed in the (x,y)
coordinate plane, at what point do the lines 2x + 3y = 5 and x = -2 intersect?

A. (-2,0)

B. (-2,5)

C. (0,5/3)

D. (-2,3)
13. Which of the following is equal to √45

A. 15

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. 5√3

C. 9√5

D. 3√5
14. If a = 3, then 2 / (1/7 + 1/a) = ?
A. 5

B. 21/10

C. 20

D. 21/5
15. If the expression x 3
+ 2hx - 2 is equal to

6 when x = -2, what is the value of h? A. 0 www.unicalreporters.com

B. -2

C. -4

D. 4
17. If the domain of function f given by f(x)
= -x

2 + 6x is given by the interval [0 , 6], then the

range of f is given by the interval

A. [0 , 9]

B. [0 , 6]

C. [0 , 3]

D. [3 , 6]
18. The x intercepts of the graph of y
= -x
2 + 3x + 18 are given by

A. (6 , -3)

B. (-3 , 6)

C. (-3 , 0) and (6 , 0)

D. (3 , 0) and (-6 , 0)
19. The sum of the first n terms of a linear sequence Sn
= n2 + 2n. Determine the general term of the
sequence

A. n+1

B. 2n+1

C. 3n+1

D. 4n+1
20. The length of a rectangle is 3 times its
width. If the width of the rectangle is 5 inches,
what is the rectangle's area, in square inches?
A. 15

B. 20

C. 30 www.unicalreporters.com
D. 75
21. What is the slope of the line 4x = -3y +
8

A. 4

B. -3/4

C. -4/3

D. 8
22. The length of a rectangle is 3 times its
width. If the width of the rectangle is 5 inches,
what is the rectangle's area, in square inches?
A. 15

B. 20

C. 30

D. 75
23. If 1.56x = 2, then x = ?

A. ln 1.56 / ln 2

B. ln 2 / ln 1.56

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. 2 / ln 1.56

D. ln 2 / 1.56
24. A machine valued at ₦20, 000 depreciates by
10% every year. What will be the value of the
machine at the end of two years?

A. ₦16, 200

B. ₦14, 000
C. ₦12, 000

D. ₦16, 000
25. x
3
-2x2 +4x -8 = 0 if x = ?

A. 4

B. 8

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C. 2

D. -8

E. -4

26. The sum of integers from 4 to 8 plus the sum from

12 to 16 is

A. 80

B. 120

C. 100

D. 110

E. 90
27. If the diagonals of a quadruplet are equal
then the quadruplet is a A. square

B. parallelogram

C. rhomboid

D. trapezoid
E. rectangle
28. The sum of four powers of q starting from power
0 is 85. Then q = ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. 6
Amount
(₦)
3 6 9 12 15 18
No. of students
3 9 6 15 3 12

29. What is the mode in the above table A. ₦3 www.unicalreporters.com

B. ₦6

C. ₦9

D. ₦12

E. ₦15
30. Find the median of the distribution

A. ₦3.00

B. ₦9.00

C. ₦12.00

D. ₦15.00

E. ₦18.00
31. Factorize: 3a2 – 11a + 6

A. (3a–2) (a–3)

B. (2a–2) (a–3)

C. (3a–2) (a+3)

D. (3a+2) (a–3)

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

E. (2a–3) (a+2)
32. The number of telephone call N between two
cities A and B varies directly as the population PA,
PB in A and B respectively and inversely as the
square of the distance D between A and B. which
of the following equations represents this

relation?

A. N = kpa/d2 + cpn/d2

B. N = KPAPn / D2

C. N = kDPAPB

D. N = kDPA + CDPB
E. N = kD2PABB
33. In a soccer competition in one season, a club had scored
the following goals: 2, 0, 3, 3, 2, 1, 4, 0, 0, 5, 1, 0, 2, 2, 1,
3, 1, 4, 1 and 1. The mean, median and mode are
respectively ____ A. 1, 1.8 and 1.5
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B. 1.8, 1.5 and 1

C. 1.8, 1 and 1.5

D. 1.5, 1 and 1.8

35. x

5
-3x4 +4x -12 = 0 if x = ?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. -8
37. If opposite sides of a quadruple are equal
then it is a A. square B. trapezoid

C. parallelogram
D. rhomboid

E. no such quadruple
38. The sum of even numbers from 12 to 18 is

A. 80

B. 40

C. 70

D. 60

E. 90
39. The sum of powers of 3 starting from power
2 is 117. Then the number of added powers is
A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

E. 1
40. What is the relationship between 2ab

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and a+b where a, b are numbers?

A. 2ab ≥ a+b

B. 2ab < a+b

C. 2ab ≠ a+b

D. 2ab = a+b E. 2ab > a+b 41. There are four visitors in a party. There are
two tables with two seats each. In how many different ways can these guests
sit down? A. 16 B. 24 C. 20 D. 12 E. 18

42. What is the modal goal scored

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 5
44. The value of 3

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/2 x
10/21 x
4
/22 x
77/5 =?

A. 5

B. 1/5

C. 2
D. 7
45. tan x+ cot x = ? A.
sin 2x

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B. 2/sin 2x

C. 1/cos 2x

D. cos 2x
47. (6√(3)12)½ = ?
A.

B. 3½

C. 3

D. 27
48. Express 0.00562 in standard form

A. 5.62 x 10-3

B. 5.62 x 10-2

C. 5.62 x 102

D. 5.62 x 103
49. If 32x = 27, Find x

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 4.5

D. 18
50. The population of a village is 5,846.
Express this number to three significant figures

A. 5850

B. 5846

C. 584

D. 585
53. Simplify log410 + log2510

A. 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4
No. of goals 0 1 2 3 4 5

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B.

No of matches 3 5 7 4 1 0 54. What is the

mean goal scored in the

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table above? A.
0.75

1.75

C. 1.9

D. 2
55.
(1/4 – 1/5)/(1/3 – ¼) x (1/2 – 1/3) (1
– 1/5) x S =?

A. 2

B. 1/6

C. 1

D. 4

E. 3
56. ₦1, 000,000.00 is put for 4% yearly interest
for three years with the interest added at the end
of each year to the base. At the end of the three
years the money will be A. ₦1,
122,416.00

B. ₦1, 124,864.00

C. ₦1, 241,232.00

D. ₦1, 422,232.00

E. ₦1, 441,122.00
57. Joe gets ₦40.00 to buy erasers for ₦5.00
each, pencils for ₦7.00 each and rulers for
₦8.00 each so that minimum number of
C.

items are bought and all the money is spent,

then the number of pencils bought is A. 6

B. 3

C. 2 www.unicalreporters.com
D. 1

E. 4
58. log ax2 – c log ax = 0 then c

A. 4

B. 3

D. 2

E. -3 59. x
3
- 3x2 + 4x - 12 = 0 if x = ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 2

D. 3

E. -4
61. Given that y = px + q and y = 5 when X

= 3, while y = 4 when x= 2 find the values

of p and q A. p= 1, q=3

B. p = 1, q = 2

C. p = -2, q = 3

D. p = 3, q = -2
62. If y – 3
/2 < 2y –

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D.

1
/3, which of the following is
true?

A. y > 7

B. y < -7

C. y > -7 www.unicalreporters.com
D. y < 7
63. A boy estimated his transport fare for a journey
as ₦190 instead of ₦200. Find the percentage error
in his estimate.

A. 95%

B. 47.5%
C. 5.26%

D. 5%
64. The value of 3
/2 x
10/21 x
7
/5 = ?

A. 5

B. 1
/5

C. 1

D. 7
65. There are three boys and three girls in a party.
In how many different ways can they dance? A. 12

B. 6

C. 9

D. 8
66. If a sweet costs ₦2.00, a chocolate costs
₦3.00 and a cake costs ₦5,00 then buy from each
item at least one and as many items as possible
from N20.00. The number of sweets you by then

is A. 10

B. 6

C. 8

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D. 6
68. log xlog x = 1 where log x = log10 x.
Then x = ?

A. 10 or 1
/10

B. 0
C. 2

D. 3
9. If the elements of a series are 1, 2, 3, 5,
8, 13 … then the next element is

A. 22

B. 19

C. 16

D. 21
70. log 27 x = ?

A. 2log9 x

B. 3log3 x

C. 2log6 x

D. 2log3 x
ANSWERS TO MATHEMATICS 2011/2012 QUESTIONS
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B
10. D 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. C
17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. D 23. B
24. A 25. C 26. C 27. E 28. C 29. D 30. C
31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. B 36. A 37. C
38. D 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. C
45. B 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. D 51. A 52. B
53. C 54. B 55. C 56. B 57. C 58. D
59. D 60. B 61. B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B 66. C

67. C 68. A 69. D 70. B

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2014/2015 UNICAL POST UTME QUESTIONS ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Choose the correct preposition to fill the blank spaces

1. She wore a hat_____ blue shirt

A. on
B. with

C. in

D. within

2. The accident_____ the bridge was not serious A. on www.unicalreporters.com

B. in

C. up

D. at
3. The child seemed afraid_____ the noise

A. by

B. at

C. of

D. with
Choose that is correctly spelled from the following
4. A. enbarass

B. embarras

C. embarrass

D. enbarras
5. A. mispeled

B. mispeled

C. mispelled

D. misspelled
6. A. ressind

B. rescend

C. reccind

D. rescind
7. A. yeild

B. yield

C. yeld
D. yild
Choose the correct plural form of the following underlined words

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8. Mouse:

A. mouses B.
muses C. mice

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D. mices
9. Passer-by:

A. passer-bys

B. passers-bys

C. passers-by

D. passer-by
10. Corps:

A. corpes

B. corps

C. corpses

D. corpsses
11. Hero:

A. heros

B. heroses

C. heroin

D. heroes
Choose the correct degree of comparison that best
fills the blank space
12. Amaka is the_____ girl in the house

A. clumsiest

B. clumsier

C. clumsy

D. clumser
13. We arrived at the airport_____

A. earlier

B. earliest
C. early

D. earlest

14. My potato chips are_____ than yours

A. crisp

B. crisper C. crispest www.unicalreporters.com

D. crispiest
Choose the option opposite in meaning to
the underlined word
15. His bad choices in life made failure inevitable

A. preventable

B. sure

C. effective

D. possible
16. The principal is a quintessential example of a
responsible leader

A. enviable

B. sole

C. best

D. worst
17. Politician should not say things that are inimical to
the stability of the nation

A. helpful

B. hopeful

C. harmful

D. disagreeable
Choose the word that best completes
each of the following sentence 18. This is
not an_____ time to travel because
lectures are going on

A. audacious

B. intended

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. auspicious

D. authentic

19. Roger was afraid to stay in his small prison

cell because of his_____ A. homophobia

B. claustrophobia
UNICAL 100% 1st CLASS INFORMATION

C. gynophobia

D. pedophobia
20. The site of crash littered with dead bodies presented
a______ sight A. deadly

B. hasty

C. pleasant D. grisly
MATHEMATICS
1. Which of the following statement Is not true?

A. A∩U = A

B. A∩U = A

C. A∩O = O

D. A∩A = A
2. The following are the scores of 10
students in a test of 20 marks; 15, 16, 17,
13, 16, 8, 5, 16, 19, 17. What is the modal
score? A. 19 B. 15

C. 16

D. 13
3. If cos θ = a
2–b
2
/2ab, find cosec θ
A. a
2–b
2
/ab

B. (a2 + b

2
)
2
/2ab

C. a
2 + b/ab
D. 2ab/a2 + b
2
PHYSICS
1. Which of the following is not a measurable parameter of
sound?

A. intensity

B. pressure

C. reflection

D. loudness
2. A target of 100m from a gun and the nozzle
speed is 400m/s. what angle of projection will
ensure a hit? A. 5˚

B. 1˚

C. 7˚

D. 6˚
3. In walking across a carpet, you’ll acquire a net negative
charge of 100u
C. How many excess electrons does y have?

A. 5.2 x 1014

B. 6.2 x 1014

C. 6.2 x 1020

D. 5.2 x 1020
4. An ammeter has an internal resistance of

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

10hms and a full scale of deflection of 100mA.
What value of resistance will be required to make
the ammeter measure 800mA?

A. 1.43ohms

B. 1.0ohms

C. 0.43ohms

D. 2.43ohms
CHEMISTRY
1. Allotropes of an element differ in their

A. chemical properties

B. mass number

C. electronic configuration

D. physical properties
2. The atom of an element X has two electrons
in its outermost shell. What is the formula of
the compound formed when X combines with
aluminium? A. AlX2

B. Al2X

C. Al2X2

D. Al2X3
3. Which of the following compound is readily soluble
in water? A. CuO

B. AgCl

C. Na2SO4

D. CaCO3
4. Calculate the mass of ZnSO4 produced when excess
ZnCO3 is added to 500cm3 of
4.00M of H2SO4 [ZnSO4 = 161gmol-1
]

A. 0.200g
B. 32.2g

C. 1.29g

D. 39.0g

BIOLOGY
1. The following are examples of poikilothermic animals except_____?

A. lizards

B. Birds

C. snakes

D. frogs
2. The biological function of CO2, H2O and NH3
from dead plant and animal tissues by the activities
of micro–organisms is called_____?

A. petrification

B. nitrification

C. denitrification

D. nitrogen fixation
3. The centre in the mammalian brain that is responsible for
temperature regulation is_____?

A. cerebrum

B. cerebellum

C. diencephalon

D. hypothalamus
4. When the body fluid of an organism has the
same concentration as that of the external medium.
Such medium is said to be_____?

A. hypotonic

B. hypertonic C. isotonic D. osmotic

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INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY – ICT
1. The computer system is made up of
_____ units

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

A. 4

B. 7

C. 3

D. 2
2. What is the value of 6410 in binary?

A. 10000002

B. 1100002 C. 100002

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D. 110000012
3. What are the components of a computer system?

A. hardware and software

B. CPU and monitor

C. RAM and ROM

D. disk and RAM

4. Choose which of these is a computer system
type A. google

B. hybrid

C. RAM

D. main frame computer

ANSWERS 2014/2015 ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C
10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. D
17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D
MATHEMATICS
1. B 2. C 3. C
PHYSICS
1. B 2. D 3. D 4.
CHEMISTRY
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A
BIOLOGY
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. D
INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY − ICT
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. D

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2015/2016 UNICAL POST UTME QUESTIONS ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Choose the correctly spelt word from the following
1. A. achivement

B. achevement

C. achievement

D. acheivement
2. A. hight

B. hait

C. height

D. haght
3. A. risind

B. rescind

C. recind

D. riscend
4. A. wholly

B. wholy

C. wohly

D. hwolly
Choose the word that is closest in meaning to
the underlined word
5. His statement are admissible as evidence in court

A. faulty

B. inconclusive

C. false

D. acceptable
6. To say the last, Janet’s behaviour is infantile

A. crazy

B. bullish

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. childish
D. mature

7. The senator is still relishing his victory at the polls

A. enjoying

B. pondering

C. dissatisfied

D. surprised
Choose the preposition that correctly fills the
blanks
8. Under the caste system, it is not befitting to marry_____ one’s
social class

A. behind

B. in

C. from

D. beneath
9. The drumming drove the dancers_____ a frenzy

A. toward

B. into

C. with

D. inside
10. Mr. Ugbong live_____ the street

A. by

B. In

C. at

D. up
Choose the comparative that correctly fills the blanks

11. Adie is one of the_____ students in his class

A. smart

B. smartest

C. smarter
D. smartier
12. Mr. Emeka is slightly_____ than Mr.

Okoro

A. crazy

B. craziest

C. crazier

D. crazily
13. In terms of importance, he was the______

A. least

B. less

C. lesser

D. little
Choose the correct plural form of the following words
14. Valley A. vallies
B.

valleyses www.unicalreporters.com
C. valles

D. valleys
15. Synopsis

A. synopsises

B. synopsis

C. synopses

D. synopes
16. Studio

A. studia

B. studios

C. studioes

D. studum
Choose the option that is opposite in
meaning to the underlined word 17. The

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

candidate’s claims about his campaign
manager were spurious
A. false

B. true

C. honest

D. dishonest
18. The business tycoon was surprised that I spurned his
love advances A. accepted

B. rejected

C. enjoyed

D. despised
Select the correct phonetic transcription for the
listed words 19. Flay

A. /flai/

B. /flei/

C. /floi/ D. /floa/ www.unicalreporters.com

20. Hiss

A. /his/

B. /hi:s/

C. /hiss/

D. /hes/
MATHEMATICS
21. Find the quotient if x
4–y
4 is divided
by x
2+y
2

A. x + y

B. (x – y)(x + y)

C. x
2 – y D. y
2–x
2

22. A class of 15 students, the students offers

either physics or chemistry or both. If 11
students offer physics and 9 offers chemistry,
what is the probability that a student chosen at
random offers both physics and chemistry

A. ¼

B. 3/5

C. ¾

D. 1/3

23. If y = 2(√x 2 + M)/3N, make X the

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subject of the formula

24. PQR is an equilateral triangle with sides

2√3cm. calculate its height

A. 1.7cm

B. 3.2cm

C. 3.9cm

D. 3.0cm
BIOLOGY
25. The following are examples of animals in the phylum-Mollusca
except_____? A. snail

B. earthworm

C. periwinkle

D. blam
26. In a plant, the tissues responsible for
conducting water and mineral salts from the
soil to different parts of the plants are_____?
A. xylem B. cambium

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. parenchyma
D. sclerenchyma

27. Meiosis is a type of

A. cell division

B. respiration

C. movement in cells

D. living thing
28. The two basic types of ecosystem are_____ and_____?

A. forest and desert

B. grasslands and farmlands

C. freshwater and marine ecosystem D. terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem

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CHEMISTRY
29. An endothermic reaction is one during which heat
is_____? A. absorbed

B. adsorbed

C. liberated

D. complexed
30. The solubility in mol/dm3 of 40g of CuSO4 dissolved in
100cm3 of water at 180˚ is? [Cu
= 64, S = 32, O = 16]

A. 0.25

B. 1.25

C. 2.00

D. 2.5
31. A researcher added a measured amount of
HCL gas to pure water at 25˚C and obtained a
solution (H) = 3.0 x 10-4 . What was the pH
of the solution? A. 3.5

B. 3.0

C. 4.0
D. 1.0

32. Which of the following cannot be obtained by

fractional distillation of petroleum? A.
ethane

B. methane

C. hydrogen

D. butane
2015/2016 POST UTME sCREENING ANSWERS ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B
10. B 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B
17. B 18. A 19. B 20. A
MATHEMATICS

21. D

22. D

23. X = √9N2Y
2 + 4M/2

24. D

25. D

26. A

27. A

28. D

29. A
POST UTME QUESTIONS Answer all questions2017/2018 UNICAL
1. The principal was not aware _____ the visitors
on their arrival. A. to have met

B. that he should have met

C. that he met

D. to meet the visitors on their arrival

2. John was glad _____

A. were the exams over

B. the exams were over

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. the exams to be over

D. at the exams which over 3. Patrick was afraid ____

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A. whether he had failed

B. to have failed

C. he has failed

D. he had failed
4. Patrick was wrong _____

A. he contradicted the teacher

B. to contradict the teacher

C. contradicted the teacher

D. to be contradicted the teacher 5. Doing snippets of work' each day is not

_____ anyone.

A. very satisfactory

B. really satisfactory to very

C. really very satisfactory to

D. very really satisfactory to

6. At last the aircraft was able to take off. It _____
for two hours by a fault in the electrical system.

A. bas been delayed

B. delayed

C. had been delayed

D. is delayed
7. Mr Momoh _____ hard for many years
before he got promotion. A. had been
worked B. had been working C. has worked
D. has been working
8. I am sorry ____ to the meeting last night.

A. not come
B. I didn't come
C. to come D. I hadn't come

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9. John felt sorry _____ the poor people who hadn't enough
to eat. A. for

B. because

C. of

D. that
10. Mary was unable _____ the work in time.

A. she completed

B. she couldn't complete

C. complete

D. not to complete
11. Mr. Olayinka was delighted _____

A. you to come

B. that you came

C. you not to come

D. did you come

12. Food prices _____ a lot since last year.

A. have gone up

B. had gone up

C. went up

D. go up
13. The Romans once _____ most of Europe and North
Africa for many years.

A. have ruled

B. had been ruling

C. rule

D. ruled

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

14. Eze has not heard anything of his sister Ada
since she _____ to the United Kingdom. A. has
gone B.
 www.unicalreporters.com
had gone

C. had been going

D. went
15. Everyone looked _____ to peter to give a
lead. A. to B. out

C. up

D. at
16. Everyone looked _____ Peter as their leader
A. at

B. on

C. for

D. up
17. Mary would never have finished her homework if
Patrick hadn't helped her____

A. in

B. with

C. out

D. off
18. John spent hours looking _____ his dictionary, he
couldn't find it.

A. at

B. in

C. for

D. to
19. Everyone looked _____ to Peter as a great
leader A. up B. down

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

 www.unicalreporters.com
C. on

D. for

20. At the beginning of the period, the

geography master fired _____ a series of question about

South East Asia

A. up

B. on

C. away

D. off
21. A 12V battery supplying a current of 20A was used
to melt 1.5kg of ice at 0°c.
calculate the time required if the latent heat of fusion
of ice is 336 x 101

J/kg

A. 35.0 min

B. 3.5 min

C. 76 min

D. 21.0 min
22. The light from the sun reaches the earth mainly
by ___ A. convection

B. conduction

C. radiation

D. reflection
23. One valid assumption of the kinetic theory of
gases is that:
 www.unicalreporters.com
A. the molecules are in random motion and the
number of collision is constant B. the number
of molecules increases with the pressure

C. the molecules of the gas are all identical and are

very small in size

D. the number of molecules increases with temperature

24. An astronomical telescope is said to be

in normal adjustment when the

A. eye is accommodated

B. focal length of the objective lens is longer than that of the

eye pie

C. final image is at the near point of the eye

D. final image is at infinity

25. Which of the following parts of a cell is living?

A. cell wall

B. calcium oxalate

C. food vacuole

D. mitochondria
26. Cells without an organized nucleus are called
____

A. heterokaryote

B. eukaryote

C. prokaryote

D. synkaryote
27. The sites for energy transfer within a cell are
known as _____ A. Golgi apparatus

B. parenchyma

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

 www.unicalreporters.com
C. mitochondria

D. nucleolus
28. Food and dissolved oxygen pass from the
water directly into the amoeba by a process
called___ A. transport

B. diffusion

C. fission

D. transpiration
29. Which one of these functions is not performed by
the nervous system?
 www.unicalreporters.com
A. receive sensory input from internal and external environment

B. digestion

C. integration

D. response to stimuli
30. In man, gas exchange occurs in the____

A. heart

B. white blood cells

C. lungs

D. kidney
31. Find the identity element of the set S under
the binary Operation * defined by a*b
= 2ab A. -½

B. 1

C. 0

D. ½

E. -1
32. Differentiate y = 7x4cos x – 5 with respect to
x.

A. 28x4 + sin x

B. 28x4 - cos x

C. 28x3
- sin x

D. 28x - sin x

E. 28x5
- sin x
33. Find the value of n if 30 x ( nC5) =

nP4.

A. 5

B. 2 www.unicalreporters.com
C. 3

D. 6

E. 8
34. What value of x satisfies the equation:
3 2x+3 – 3 x+2 – 3 x+1 + 1 = 0

A. (-2, -1)

B. (2, 1)

C. (-2, 1)

D. ( 1 /9,
1
/3)

E. (0, 1)
35. What is the quotient and remainder when x
+ 2 divides 2x2 - 3x + 2?

A. (x + 2, 16)

B. (x + 2, 2x – 7)

C. (2x – 7, 16)

D. (2x + 7, 16)

E. (2x + 7, 16)
36. 25cm3 of a gas x contains z molecules at 15°C and 75mmHg.
How many molecules will 25cm of another gas y contain at the
same temperature and pressure? A. 2y B. 2z C. z D. y

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37. What mass of water is produced when
8.0g of hydrogen reacts with excess oxygen?

A. 36.0g

B. 8.0g

C. 72.0g

D. 16.0g
(H = 1, O = 16)
38. A particle that contains 9 proton, 10 neutrons and
10 electrons is a ____

A. negative atom ion

B. positive ion

C. neutral atom of a non-metal

D. neutral atom of metal

39. Cancerous growths are cured by exposure to
____

A. γ-rays

B. β-rays

C. α-rays

D. x-rays
40. An oxide XO2 has a vapour density of
32. What is the atomic mass of x?

A. 32

B. 20

C. 14

D. 12
2017/2018 POST UTME SCREENING ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A
10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. B
17. C 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. D 23. D
24. B 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. C
31. D 32. C 33. E 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. A
39. D 40. A

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2018/2019 UNICAL POST UTME QUESTIONS Identify
the word closest in meaning to the ones underlined.

1. I woke up feeling rather queer.

A. fine

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. strange

C. strong

D. tired
2. If he declines the offer, it will be better for him.

A. ignores

B. denies

C. Snubs

D. rejects
3. Our club encourages benevolence.

A. affluence

B. sincerity

C. Charity

D. association
4. Such utterances are inimical to the peaceful co-existence
of the two communities. A.
unhelpful

B. unimportant

C. harmful

D. useless
Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning
to the underlined word(s) 5. Our
government is making determine efforts
to eradicate illiteracy A.
compulsory B. ineffective
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C. innocent

D. unreliable
6. Nnamdi Azikiwe University has a large intake of student
each year

A. rejection
B. product

C. furiously

D. turn-out
7. Rita flogged the girl reluctantly

A. eagerly

B. calmly

C. furiously

D. laboriously
8. The judge blamed the plaintiff for misleading the court

A. defendant

B. complaint

C. accused

D. prosecution
9. The demonstrators have refused to call off their action

A. consolidates

B. start

C. resume

D. end
10. The policemen was asked to investigate the matter

A. ask about

B. forget about

C. examine

D. inquire about
Choose the words or phrases which best fill(s) the
gap(s)

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11. There's _____ ventilation in this room; that's why you
don't breathe well

A. few

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

B. little

C. a few

D. a little
12. Whenever he puts the light on, someone _____ to disturb
him.

A. came

B. has come

C. comes

D. would come
13. It _____ be taken for repair after all; it's working
again A. couldn't B. shouldn't

C. mightn't

D. needn't
14. The visit of the patron of the club _____ the words
of the players. A. elated

B. induced

C. boasted

D. boosted
15. The man advised his children not to give _____ to the
temptations of the city.

A. off

B. up

C. in

D. out
16. ____ were sent to the library by the English teacher.
A. I and Udoh

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B. Udoh and me

C. Udoh and I

D. myself and Udoh

17. You're not too tired to continue _____?

A. are you

B. isn't it

C. can't you

D. is it
18. Hardly had the journey started _____ the engine developed
a fault.

A. that

B. when

C. than

D. soon
19. The principal was not aware _____ the visitors on
their arrival A. to have met

B. that he should have met

C. that he met

D. to meet the visitors on their arrival

20. John was glad _____

A. were the exams over

B. the exams were over

C. the exams to be over

D. at the exams which over

21. The process by which complex organic molecules
is broken down to simpler forms to release energy
stored in them is known as____

A. anabolism

B. commensalism C. photosynthesis

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D. catabolism

E. symbiosis

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

22. The number of moles present in 1kg of solvent is
called its: A. molality

B. molarity

C. normality

D. formality

E. none of the above

23. The most electronegative element in the following
is: A. Bromine B. Oxygen

C. Sodium

D. Fluorine

E. Potassium
24. Which of the following chemicals is most commonly used as
a bleaching agent?

A. sodium hypochlorite

B. alcohol

C. chloroform

D. benzene

E. potassium hydroxide
25. The process of converting starch to ethanol is known
as:

A. distillation

B. cracking

C. fermentation

D. oxidation

E. hydrolysis
26. What is the percentage of sulphur in
sulphur (IV) oxide. (mass of S = 32, O = 16)

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A. 66%

B. 50%
C. 25%

D. 40%

E. None of the above

27. A 10g mass placed on the pan of a spring
balance causes an extension of 5 cm. if a 15g mass
is placed on the pan of the same spring balance
the extension is_____

A. 3.3 cm

B. 6.5 cm

C. 7.5 cm

D. 10.8 cm

E. 15.0 cm
28. The force with which an object is attracted to the
earth is it's ____

A. acceleration

B. mass

C. gravity

D. weight

E. momentum
29. A train has an initial velocity of 44m/s and an acceleration
of -4m/s2
, its velocity after
10s is____

A. 2m/s

B. 4m/s

C. 8m/s

D. 12m/s

E. 16m/s

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

30. A man of mass 50kg ascends a flight of stairs 5m high in
5 seconds. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s2
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, the power expended is
____

A. 500W

B. 400W

C. 250W

D. 200W

E. 100W
31. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit ____

A. refraction

B. reflection

C. diffraction

D. polarization

E. disaggregation
32. The unit of quantity of electricity is called
_____ A. amperes

B. the volt

C. the coulomb

D. the ammeter
33. The stream of water (H2O) up the plant is known as
_____

A. transpiration stream

B. translocation stream

C. xylem stream

D. osmosis stream
34. Transport of sugars and amino acids in plants is called
its____

A. Transportation
B. transpiration

C. trans motion

D. translocation
35. The more the hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

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in urine, the____

A. lighter the colour of the strip B. the

acidic the urine be

C. darker the colour of the strip

D. more healthier a person be

36. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) _____

A. helps line up cell proteins

B. is poisonous to tissues

C. is often needed as a catalyst

D. aids in oxidation of glucose

37. The nature of rennin is slightly_____

A. Acidic

B. alkaline

C. water based

D. mineral based
38. If sin(x + 30)° = cos 40°, find x.

A. 10°

B. 20°

C. 59°

D. 65°

E. 80°
39. Find the 9th term of the arithmetic, progression,
18, 12, 6, 0, 6 …………

A. -54

B. -30

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

C. 30

D. 42

E. 54
40. Solve the equation: 4
/a + 1
/5a = 3

A. 2½ B. 12/5 www.unicalreporters.com
C. 11/3

D. 14/15

E. 24/5
2018/2019 POST UTME SCREENING ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. C
10. B 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. C
17. A 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. D
24. A 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. A
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. A
38. B 39. B 40. B
2019/2020 MOST ASKED UNICAL POST UTME CURRENT AFFAIR QUESTIONS

1. The parliament of Nigeria is called ________

(A)House of Representative (B) Senate (C)State house of Assembly (D) National
Assembly
Answer: D NPOWER Test 2019

2. Democracy day is celebrated in Nigeria on---------

(A) Oct 1 (B) Jan 12 (C)May 29 (D)June 12
Answer: D (It was recently changed)
3. How many members make up the house of representative in Nigeria?
(A)280 (B)774 (C)360 (D)359
Answer: C

4. How many members makeup senate in the upper arm of the national assembly?
(A)100 (B)108 (C)109 (D)110

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5. Nigeria is divided into how many geopolitical zones?
(A)5 (B)6 (C)7 (D)8
Answer: B

Related posts:
Schools Offering Pharmacy in Nigeria

6. Nigeria flag was created by-------------------

(A)Mr Aina Onabolu (B)Prof Wole Soyinka (C)Taiwo Akinkumi (D)Ben Odiase
Answer: C

7. How many local governments do we have in Nigeria?

(A)744 (B)774 (C) 747 (D)784
Answer: B

8. Who was the first military head of state?

(A)Gen. Muritala Muhammed (B)Gen. Ibrahim Babangida (C)Gen. Aguiyi Ironsi (D)Gen.
Idiagbon
Answer: C

9. Who stopped the killing of twins in calabar?

(A)Henry Townsend (B)Herbert Marculey (C)Mongo Park (D)Mary Slessor
Answer: D

10. Nigeria became a republic in what year?

(A)May 29, 1999 (B)Jan 15, 1966 (C) Oct 1, 1960 (D)Oct 1, 1963
Answer: D

11. Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was established in

what year?
(A)May 1975 (B)May 1963 (C)May 1966 (D)May 2000
Answer: A

12. Which state is referred to as "The Sunshine State"

(A)Ekiti state (B)Ondo State (C)Jigawa state (D)Oyo state Answer: B

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13. The Nigeria flag was designed by Taiwo Akinkunmi in what year?
(A)1957 (B)1959 (C)1960 (D)19

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

CURRENT AFFAIRS 2019/2020 QUESTIONS.
1. First military President- Gen babangida

2. ____ Question requires no answer

= Rhetorical answer

3. First political party in Nigeria

= NNDP

4. The nearest in meaning to the word Skeptical

= Doubtful

5. When there is equality of employment= this simply means, when all adults are
ready to work.

6. Synonym of Mar
= Destroy

7. First female vice Chancellor

= Mrs Grace allele Williams

8. Those that control foreign exchange in Nigeria = Central bank of Nigeria (CBN).

9. The main organ of UNO (_United Nations Organization)

= General Assembly

10. Who is the deputy Senate president

= Sent Ovie Omo agege

11. Amina is *Wearing* a bead on her waist.

= Decorated

12. List of African continents

A. Angola

B. Cameroon

C. Central African country D. None of the above = D

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13. Maths questions came from ratio, length of a cord, probability
Na only answers I get I no see question Ratio:
5.4 Probability:
17 Cord:
7.

14. The first higher institution-Yaba college of technology

15. Identify the word underlined in Capital letter sEAt

= Key

16. One of the functions of PHCN

= Distribution of energy

17. Pick the odd one out

A. Nelson Mandela

B. Nkuruma

C. Bill Clinton
Answer: C, his not African and wasn't a freedom fighter. 1.
Traditional rulers were restricted to ceremonia l rules by the
local government reforms of

a. 1966 b. 1976 c. 1984 d.1987

2. A parliamentary system, who ensures that member s are in
the house to vote on major issues

a. Party leaders

b. Speaker of the House

c. Clerk of the House

d. Whip
3. A system in which no single person serves as the chief executive
is known as a. Republican b.
Revolutionary
c. Collegial d. Parliamentary
4. A social system in which power is derived from c
UNICAL 100% 1st CLASS INFORMATION
control over land is called
a. Oligarchy b. Feudalism
c. Socialism d. Welfarism
5. A rule of law refers to situation in which

a. Lawyers are the rulers

OJ JOSEPH 07042357789 schoolsavant.com

b. Laws are supreme

c. The judiciary is independent

d. Parliament makes laws

6. An important principle of the civil service is
a. Authoritarianism b. Anonymity
c. Nepotism d. Partisanship

7. Which of these constitutions recognized local government as the third tier of

government

a. The 1946 Constitution

b. The 1960 constitution

c. The 1963 constitution

d. the 1979 constitution

8. A condition for judicial independence is the app ointment of judges
by the

a. Civil service commission

b. Judicial service Commission

c. Low Review Commission

d. The 1979 constitution

9. The minorities Commission appointed in Nigeria i n
1957 recommend that

a. More states should be created in the federation

b. No more states should create before independence www.unicalreporters.com

e

c. Nigeria should revert to a unitary structure

d. the legislature should Legislate for the minorit y areas e the minorities should
constitute one state 10. T he second
military coup deta’t in Nigeria took place on a January
15, 1966 b. October 1, 1966
c. July 29, 1966 d. July 29, 1975
e. February 13, 1976
55
11. One of these was in existence before the outbreak of the second world war
a. The OAU b. The League of Nations

c. The UNO

d. The Commonwealth of Nations

e. ECOWAS
12. An important advantage of creating more constitution in a federal state is to

a. Enhance the People’s participation

b. Enable ambitious Politicians gain political powerful

c. Make the states gain more power from the federal government

d. Curb the excess of the federal government

13. Under the Presidential system

a. The party with the majority of seat forms the Executive

b. There is the principle of collective responsibility

c. The president may come from any of the parties

d. The states take instruction from the federal government

14. Public opinion is important because it

a. Tells government what action it must take

b. Lets government know what the people want

c. Allows Police to manage crisis

d. Mothers the minorities in resource lean areas

e. Guarantees people’s freedom and rights

15. Bicameral legislature exists

a. Where two cameras are used to monitor court proc eedings

b. To prevent the concentration of power on legisla tive house

c. To provide jobs for more politicians

d. To ensure that just laws are passed

16. Africans were first elected to the legislative council in British
West Africa in a. Ghana b. Sierra Leone
c. The Gambia d. Nigeria

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17. One of the functions of the Ministry of externa l affairs is
the

a. Deportation of illegal aliens

b. Issuance of Passports

c. Defence of the Country’s Borders

d. Promotion of national interests

18. The leader of the Northern People’s cong

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ress was

a. Yakubu Maitama Sule

b. AbubakarTafawa Balewa

c. Aminu Kano

d. Ahmadu Bello
19. The idea of democracy started with the
a. Romans b. Pensions d. Egyptians
20. In the Marxist theory, those who live by sellin g their
labour are called
a. Bourgeoisie b. Proletariats c. Feudal lords d. S laves 21.
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable mea ns of
achieving democracy?
a. Referendum b. Recall
c. Initiative d. Riots
22 The branch of government responsible for impleme nting laws is
the
a. Executives b. Legislature d. Police
23. In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in a. The community
b. Public officials
c. Judges d. The head of State e. The Legislature
56
24. Universal Adult Suffrage means all

a. Adult citizens can vote

b. Citizens vote

c. Qualified citizens can vote

d. Literate citizens can vote

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e. Adult males can vote
25. A bill that applies to the whole population and is
intended to promote the general welfare is called

a. A private bill

b. A decree

c. An Appropriation bill

d. A public deal

e. An edict
ANSWER KEY

1. B 6.B 11.B 16.A 21D

2. D 7.D 12.A 17. D 22.A

3. D 8.B 13.C 18. D 23.A

4. B 9.A 14.B 19. C 24.C

5. B 10. C 15.B 20. B 25C

QUESTION TWO
(1) A human community that is usually cohesive and homogeneous is
(A) nation (B) kinship (C) clan (D) nation
(2) Which of the following made the earliest contact with the Nigerian society ?
(A) British (B) Portuguese (C) French (D) German (3) Under
the 1963 republican constitution, the pres ident exercised ?
(A) judicial power (B) executive power (C) nominal power
(D) concurrent powers

(4) The principal of federal character was first

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enunciated in the (A) 1989 constitution (B)1963 constitution (C) 1999 constitution (D)
1979 constitution

(5) Between 1960 and 1966 Nigeria was governed un

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der the (A) presidential system (B) western system (C) confederal system (D) unitary
system

(6) One major factor that differentiate the presidential from the parliament system
is:
(A) separation of power (B) judicial independence (
C) passage of bills (D) party system
(7) A major feature of the policy of deregulation i n Nigeria is
the:
(A) enthronement of market forces mechanism (B) increasing dominance of the
economy by the state (C

) proliferation of public cooperation (D) phenomenal increase in direct foreign

investment

(8) Bicameral legislature exists: (A) where camera

men are allowed to cover the proceedings of legislature (B) to prevent the
concentration of power in
one literature house (C) to provide jobs for m ore politicians
(D) to ensure that just laws are p assed

(9) A majorissues that distinguishes pressure groups from political parties is (A)

membership (B) the objective (C) the voting pat tern (D) the ideology. (10)
Equality before the law is component of

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(A) separation of powers (B) checks and balanced (C
) the rule of law (D)constitutional law

(11) A law passed by the legislature and assented

to by the executive is (A) an act (b) a presidential proclamation (C). A decree (D) a
legislative or der

(12) The principles of checks and balances empower the judiciary to (A) invalidate
the actions of other arms (B) administer the criminal justice system (C)
abrogate the law (D) apply the law

(13) In a parliamentary, the term shadow cabinet is

often used to refer to (A) back benchers in the house (B). Deputy prime minister and
assistant ministers (C) rebellious members of the ruling party ( D) portfolio designates.
Of the party in opposition.

(14) The fundamental assumption on which the idea o f the rule of law is based is
(A). Supremacy at the constitution (B)rationality of human being (C) quality of
human being (D) love for social justice.

(15) Association whose main interest is to influence

public policies without attempting to capture state power are (A) communal group (b)
trade union
(c) political parties (D) pressure group

(16) Multilaterism in Nigeria foreign policy entails

ls (A) Africa being the center piece of Nigeria for reign policy (B) Non-aligned posture in
international affairs (C) quest for a permanent membership (
www.unicalreporters.com D) membership of international organization.

(17) The set of policies on the basis of which countries interact with one another is
called (A) di
diplomacy (B) foreign policy (C) National policy (D) international relations

(18) After the defeat of Germany in world war 1, her former colonies were
administered under the league. Of nation as (A) occupy territory (B) trust
territories. (C)crown colonies (D) protectorates (19) The Nigeria – Cameroon
crisis over Bakassi pe ninsula occurred owning to the interpretation of th e
treaty of 1913 and the
(A) resolution of OAU (B) Maroua accord (C) decisi on of
the ecowas (D) decision of the international court justice
(20) The first Nigeria leader to become chairman o
rganization of african unity was: (A) Tafawa balew a (B)
murtala muhammed (c) yakuba gowon. (D) aguiy i ironsi
ANSWER KEY
1D 2B 3C 4D 5B 6A 7A 8D 9B 10C 11A 12A 13D 14C 15D
16D 17B 18B 19B 20C
QUESTION THREE

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1. The military coup of July 25, 1975 which topped general Yakubu Gowon from power
took place when he was attending which important event?

a. OAU Summit in Kampala

b. UN General Assembly in New York

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c. Assembly of Heads of States of ECOWAS in Monrovia

d. The Olympic Games

2. Which of the following political parties did not participate in the 1979 General
Elections in Nigeria?

a. Unity Party of Nigeria

b. National Party of Nigeria

c. Social Democratic Party

3. Alhaji Shehu Shagari was sworn in as President of the Federal republic of Nigeria in
1979 by:

a. Justice Fatai Williams

b. Justice Adetokunbo Ademola

c. Justice Salihu Modibbo Alfa Belgore

d. Justice Isa Mohammed

4. The British took over Nigeria through
43
a. Negotiation (b) Bargaining
c. War (d) The Sea
5. Which of the following courts served as the highest judicial organ for Nigeria up till
1963?

a. Supreme court

b. Federal Court of Appeal

c. Appellate court

d. The privy council

6. What was the primary purpose of the Sir Henry Willinks Commission of Inquiry?

a. To approve the independence of Nigeria

b. To allay the fears of minorities in Nigeria

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c. To amalgamate Northern and Southern Nigeria.

d. To make Lagos a British colony

7. Into how many local government areas is Nigeria officially delineated?
a. 654 (b) 650 (c) 820 (d) 774
8. Laws made by State government are known as
a. Edicts (b) Bye law (c) Acts
(d) Decrease
9. The centenary anniversary of the amalgamation of Northern and southern
Nigeria will be celebrated in

a. 2060 (b) 2063 (c) 2014 (d) 2007

10. Which of these men introduced indirect rule in Nigeria?

a. Mungo Park

b. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe

c. Lord Lugard

d. Sir James Robertson 11. Politics is an act for

a. Man to govern himself

b. Man to create government

c. States to control its destiny

d. Man to determine others

12. A major issue that distinguishes pressure groups from political parties is
a. Membership (b) objective (c) voting patterns (d) ideology 13. A nation
consists of people with

a. Common history

b. Common ancestry

c. A shared set of values

d. A,B, and C above

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14. A totalitarian state is based on

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a. Multi-party system

b. Total protection of civic rights

c. The totality of the state processes

d. Coercion as the instrument of government

15. A political concept that defines the beliefs, attitudes and values of a society is called
a. Political socialization
b. Political culture c. Political transformation
d. Referendum

16. The agent of political socialization generally regarded as the most important is
Family (b) Peer group (c) school d. Churches and Mosques

17. A political ideology that defines a system of societal organization in which the state
control the commanding heights of the economy is called (a)totalitarianism
(b)communalism (c) socialism (d) communism

18. In which of the following countries is governmental powers most fused? a. Nigeria

b. United states of America

c. France

d. Canada

19. The benefits of separation of powers include the following except

20. Which of the following best describes French colonial policy in Africa? (a) policy of
association (b) policy of casus belli (c) policy of hostility (d) policy assimilation 21.
The electorate is generally understood to refer to: (a) elected members of the
national assembly (b) elected members of the state houses of assembly (c)
candidates who can contest elections (d) those citizens qualified to vote at
elections

22. In a parliamentary system of government, the function of the head of state and
the www.unicalreporters.com head of government are vested in (a) the inner
cabinet (b) an individual (c) two
different individual s (d) the ministerial council

23. In a modern democracy, the ultimate source of sovereignty is the (a) legislature
and executive (b) judiciary (c) ruling political party (d) people
ANSWER KEY
1A 2C 3B 4D 5D 6B 7D 8A 9C 10C 11A 12B 13D 14D 15C 16B 17A 18C 19B 20A 21D
22D
23C 24D
C
QUESTION FOUR
1. Democracy was first practiced in

a. Ghana

b. United state of America

c. Greece (d) Britain

2. Which of these countries has the highest population in West Africa?
a. Mauritius (b) Ghana (c) The Gambia (d) Nigeria
3. This African ruler resisted colonial rule and was later exiled by the colonial officials
a. Alaafin of Oyo (b) Oba of Benin

(c) King Jaja of Opopo (d) Onisanbo of Ogbooro 4. The following

countries are settler colonies except

a. Nigeria

b. South Africa

c. Angola

d. Mozambique
5. Nigeria gained independence from colonial rule on

a. October 1, 1960

b. November, 1963

c. May 29, 1999

d. November 1, 1960

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6. All but one of the following is not a symbol of political culture

a. A national flag

b. The government

c. An anthem

d. The constitution

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7. All but one of these is not an agency of political socialization

a. The constitution

b. The family

c. Peer group

d. Schools
8. All but one of these is not a tactic adopted by pressure groups in the pursuit of their
objectives
a. Propaganda

b. Lobbying

c. Assault

d. Boycott
9. The following are Angophone west African countries except

a. Ghana

b. Nigeria

c. Kenya

d. The Gambia
10. A Nigerian who has been the secretary of the commonwealth of nations
organization is

a. Dr. Ibrahim Gambari

b. Professor Adebayo Adedeji

c. Chief Jaja Nwachukwu

d. Chief Emeka Anyaoku

www.unicalreporters.com 11. How

many countries are in Africa

a. Fifteen

b. Fifty three

c. Fifty

d. Fifty five
12. Economic community of west African states (ECOWAS) was based on the initiative
of the heads of states of these two countries
a. Nigeria and Ghana

b. Nigeria and Togo

47

c. Senegal and Cote d’lcoire

d. B and C above
13. ECOWAS treaty was signed on

a. May 28, 1975

b. October 1, 1960

c. June 12, 1975

d. None of the above

14. In which city was the ECOWAS treaty signed
a. Lagos

b. Banjul

c. Accra

d. Abuja

15. A capitalist state is based on

a. Religion

b. Creating job opportunities

c. Dictatorship

d. Free trade

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16. In politics, power is all of the following except

a. Capacity to affect the actions of others

b. Ability to make people do things they otherwise will not do

c. An object

d. It is part of a relationship
17. Every political system performs the following basic function except

a. Rule making

b. Rule transformation

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c. Rule enforcement

d. Rule adjudication
18. These are common forms of governments except

a. Federal

b. Unitary

c. Plural

d. Confederal
19. In a federal system

a. The centre is weak

b. Plurality is abnormal

c. There is nothing like autonomous units

d. There is unity in diversity

20. The legislature performs the following functions except

a. Determines the general direction of public policies

b. Investigating and monitoring the activities of the officials of government

c. Exercises power of appointment of government officials

d. Enforcing the law

21. The independence constitution of 1960

a. Introduced bicameral legislature

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b. Catered for the three regions of Nigeria

c. Provided for emergency powers

d. Provided for fundamental human rights

48
22. Nigeria became a republic in
a. 1960 (b) 1961 (c) 1963 (d) 1914
23. The amalgamation of the northern and southern protectorates and the colony
of
Lagos was in
a. 1960 (b) 1966 (c) 1914 (d) 1957 24.
Globalization is all but one of these

a. A renewed concept in international studies

b. Limited to the west

c. A process of making the world smaller

d. An increasing integration of the world

ANSWER KEY
1. C 6. B 11. D 16 C 21 C

2. A 7. A 12. B 17 B 22 C 3. C 8. C 13. A 18 C 23 C
5. A 10. D 15 D 20 D.
4. A 9. C 14 A 19 D 24 B

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