production of the pigment melanin, which

determines the color of the skin, hair and

BIO-001 Obj solution eyes.
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6.B 7. D 8. (b) The vertical boxes on the left represent
D 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. your wife’s mother’s father and the
A 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. A 20.C 21. B 22. horizontal top boxes represents your wife’s
D 23. A 24.A 25.A 26. C 27. C 28. C mother’s mother. As you can see they each
29. C 30. B 31. D 32. C 33. B 34.B 35. B have one R and one r. They do not have
36. B 37.B 38. D 39 .D 40. D 41. C 42. A albinism but they can pass it on. The other
43. B 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. B 48. B 49. C boxes represent the different combinations of
50. B 51.B 52. D 53. B 54. D 55.D 56. R and r that can happen in their children.
D 57.A 58. B 59. C 60. D

Bio-001 essay answers

Section B
1. (a) is the study of living organisms,
divided i Biology nto many specialized
fields that cover their morphology,
physiology, anatomy, behaviour, origin, and
distribution.
As you can see there are 3 possible
(b) (i) mutation is a change in a DNA combinations: RR (non carriers), Rr
sequence. Mutations can result from DNA (carriers), and rr (affected). The chance that
copying mistakes made during cell division, each child will have two broken copies of the
exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to gene (rr) and have albinism is 1 in 4. This is
chemicals called mutagens, or infection by what happened in your wife’s aunts and
viruses. uncle.

(ii) Histology is the study of microscopic The chance that each child will have at least
anatomy of tissues. one working copy of the gene (RR or Rr)
and not have albinism is 3 in 4. This is what
(iii) Cytology is the study of cells as happened to your wife’s mother. So we
fundamental units of living things. know she is either RR or Rr and NOT rr
(iv) Entomology is branch of zoology since she does not have albinism. Since she
did not have albinism we can gray out the rr
dealing with the scientific study of insects.
box.
2(a) Albinism is a group of inherited
disorders that results in little or no
 A group of Organisms that form
individual organism a filamentous
with a close growth
dependent
relationship with
other organisms
Form a spherical Form an array of
mass of cells cells with an end to
end arrangement
Appear as a sphere Appear as a thread
A result of multiple A result of multiple
cell divisions by binary fission
mitosis
Cells lack an Cell have an
intercellular cell intercellular wall
wall
Bacteria algae, Bacteria, fungi and
marine invertebrates algae
& lower chordates
Generally sessile Either sessile or
floating
3. (a) Organic evolution is the theory that
more recent types of plants and animals have
their origins in other pre-existing forms and 4(b) (i) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), is a
that the distinguishable differences between continuous membrane system that forms a
ancestors and descendants are due to series of flattened sacs within the cytoplasm
modifications in successive generations. of eukaryotic cells and serves multiple
functions, being important particularly in the
(b) The various theories of organic evolution synthesis, folding, modification, and
are Lamarckism theory, Darwinism theory, transport of proteins
Mutation theory, Neo-Darwinism theory.
Useful, useless or harmful. Nature selects (ii) Golgi body, also known as a Golgi
only useful variations. apparatus, is a cell organelle that helps
process and package proteins and lipid
molecules, especially proteins destined to be
Section C exported from the cell.
4(a) note: choose any three (iii) The main function of centriole is to help
with cell division in animal cells. The
Colonial organisms Filamentous
centrioles also help in the formation of the
organisms
spindle fibers that separate the chromosomes  Alter the intricate ecological balances
during cell division (mitosis). that let plants and animals grow and
thrive.
(iv) Vacuoles are membrane-bound
organelles used to store substances within (b) An ecosystem is a geographic area
the cell. where plants, animals, and other
organisms, as well as weather and
landscape, work together to form a bubble
5(a) (i) autecology is the ecological study of of life. Ecosystems contain biotic or living,
a particular species. parts, as well as abiotic factors, or nonliving
parts. Biotic factors include plants, animals,
(ii) Synecology is the study of the and other organisms.
interactions between species in communities
on many spatial and temporal scales, (c)
including the distribution, structure,
abundance, demography, and interactions Interspecies Intraspecies
between coexisting populations. interaction interaction
i. a form of i. competition for
(iii) Amensalism is a type of biological competition resources within
interaction where one species causes harm to between different members of the
another organism without any cost or species same species
benefits to itself. ii. a form of ii. a form of
competition competition
(iv) Biological systematics is the study of
between different between the same
the diversification of living forms, both past species inhabiting species inhabiting
and present, and the relationships among the same ecological the same ecological
living things through time. area area
(V) Succession is a series of progressive iii. effects is not iii. effects is much
changes in the composition of an ecological much severe severe
community over time. iv. Example is when iv. Example is when
group of livestock Songbirds like
b. The cell theory states that all biological like fowl struggle to Eastern Towhees
organisms are composed of cells feed on a small defending territories
portion of food from which they
exclude their
6. What are the effects of climate change? neighbors in an
effort to secure
 Rising minimum temperatures. resources.
 Rising sea levels.
 FEDERAL UNIVERSITY OF phospholipid bilayer (d) Phospholipid
TECHNOLOGY OWERRI monolayer
JOINT UNIVERSITY PRELIMINARY 54. The following are example of storage
EXAMINATION BOARD (JUPEB) bodies in bacteria except (a) Bacteriophages
(b) gas vesicles (c) Magnetosomes (d)
2020/2021 HARMATTAN SEMESTER
Polyphosphates
EXAMINATION
55. Plasmodium falciparum is
BIO-002 TIME: 2hours
a___________ (a) motile protozoan (b)
INSTRUCTION: answer all questions in Non-motile protozoan (c) Primary
SECTION A [Multiple Choice Questions endosymbiont (d) Secondary endosymbiont
MCQ] by shading the correct options
56. The first person to discovery
from A-D, and TWO questions in
microorganism was (a) Anton van
SECTION B [Essay Questions], ONE
Leeuwenhoek (b) Francesco Redi (c) John
from each course
Needham (d) Louis Pasteur
SECTION A: Multiple choice Questions
57. __________disproved the theory of
(MCQ)
spontaneous generation, finally (a)
Francesco Redi b) John Needham (e) Louise
49. The glycan chain primarily com bacterial Pasteur id) Theodore Schwann
cell wall comprised of _________ (a) 58. The team of scientists that described the
Glycogen and amino acids (b) lipid bilayer structure of DNA included a) Watson, Crick
and Glucose (c) N-acetylglucosamine and N- and Franklin b) Sangers, Watson and Woese
acetylmutamic acid (d) protein and glucose (c) Mullis, Crick and Koch (d) Sangers,
50. Extrachromosomal DNA ca are called (a) Mullis and woe
Plasmids (b) Genome (c) Phage d) RNA 59. The theory which states that many
51. In viruses, protect the infectious nucleic diseases are caused by microorganisms’
acid (a) Nuclear membrane (b) Nucleus (C) __________ (a) pathogenic Theory (b)
Capsid (d) Capsule Theory of spontaneous generation (c)
Evolutions theory (d) Biogenic theory
52. A proteinaceous infectious particle which
consists of only proteins with no Nucleic 60. Prokaryotes were grouped into 3
acid is called domains based on their (a) 16S rRNA gene
(b) Gram-reaction (c) Peptidoglycan layer
a) virion b) pixion C) Proton (d) Viriod (d) Size of microbes
53. The cell membrane of a bacterial cell
comprised of_________(a)Peptidoglycan
bilayer b) Peptidoglycan monolayer c)
SECTION B: Amphitrichous arrangement (iv) Peritrichous
arrangement
1 Describe in detail the structure of
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) 5. With the aid of a well labelled diagram,
describe the four (4) phases of bacterial
2(a) ln a tubular form, list four enzymes
growth
involved in DNA replication and give
functions of each 6. Define the following (i)
Polyextremophiles (ii) Mycelium (iii)
(b) Define the term mutation
Mycology (iv) Secondary endosymbionts (v)
(C) Explain with example the term Nucleocapsid
'frameshift mutation
3 (a) Give and explain any four features of
Solution
the genetic code
1.
(b) Using a sketch only, describe the central
dogma of molecular biology
(c) List the conditions that must be met for a
relationship to be convincingly described as
parasitic

SECTION C:
4 (a) Define Chemotaxis
(b) Using the appropriate diagrams, describe
the following flagella arrangements (i)
monotrichous arrangement (ii)
Lophotrichous arrangement (iii)

2 (a)
2b. mutation is a change that occurs in our The genetic code is unambiguous. Each
DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when codon codes for just one amino acid (or start
the DNA is copied or as the result of or stop). ...
environmental factors such as UV light and
The genetic code is redundant. Most amino
cigarette smoke.
acids are encoded by more than one codon.
2c. Frameshift mutations are insertions or
3. b
deletions in the genome that are not in
multiples of three nucleotides. They are a
subset of insertion-deletion (indel) mutations
that are specifically found in the coding
sequence of polypeptides. In substitution
mutations, the polypeptide only changes by a
single amino acid.
3a
The genetic code is universal. All known
living organisms use the same genetic code.
3c. 6 (iii). Mycology is the branch of biology
concerned with the study of fungi, including
- A parasite and its host evolve together
their genetic and biochemical properties,
- One benefits and the other don’t
their taxonomy and their use to humans as a
4 (a) Chemotaxis is the movement of an source for tinder, traditional medicine, food,
organism in response to a chemical stimulus. and entheogens, as well as their dangers,
Somatic cells, bacteria, and other single-cell such as toxicity or infection.
or multicellular organisms direct their
6 (iv). Secondary endosymbiosis is when a
movements according to certain chemicals in
living cell engulfs another eukaryote cell that
their environment.
has already undergone primary
4(b) endosymbiosis.
6 (v). The capsid of a virus with the enclosed
nucleic acid.

BIO-002 Obj solution

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. 6. A 7. A 8.A
9.B 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. B
16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20.C 21. B 22. D
23. A 24.A 25.A 26. C 27. 28. A 29. C
30. A 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. 35. D 36. C
37.D 38. A 39. 40. D 41. D 42. 43.
B 44. B 45. C 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. A
5. 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. C 55.A 56. A 57.C
58. A 59. A 60. D

6 (ii). Mycelium is the vegetative part of a

fungus or fungus-like bacterial colony,
consisting of a mass of branching, thread-
like hyphae
FEDERAL UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY that A and B are not null vectors? (a) 00 (b) 450 (c)
OWERRI 600 (d) 900 (e)1200
JOINT UNIVERSITY PRELIMINARY
8. Given two vector 𝐴⃗ = 4𝑖 − 3𝑗 + 0𝑘 and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ =
EXAMINATION BOARD (JUPEB)
2𝑖 + 16𝑗 + 4𝑘. Find 𝐶⃗ such that (𝐵
⃗⃗ × 𝐴⃗) + 𝐶⃗ = 0
2020/2021 HARMATTAN SEMESTER (a) 12𝑖 + 16𝑗 + 30𝑘 (b) 16𝑖 − 18𝑘
EXAMINATION (c) −12𝑖 − 16𝑗 + 30𝑘 (d) 12𝑖 − 30𝑘
PHY-001 TIME: 2hours (e) None of the above

INSTRUCTION: answer all questions in 9. A fighter jet moves along x-axis from the origin.
SECTION A [Multiple Choice Questions MCQ] Its velocity at a time, t seconds is given by 𝑉(𝑡) =
by shading the correct options from A-D, and 8.0 − 17.5𝑡 + 1.5𝑡 2 . calculate the average
TWO questions in SECTION B [Essay acceleration in the tie interval 2s to 5s. ? (A)
Questions], ONE from each course 87.5m/s (B) 69.5m/s (C) 5.5m/s (D) 40.5m/s (E)
21.7m/s
SECTION A: Multiple choice Questions (MCQ)
10. What is obi’s average speed if he walks 240m at
1. Which of these is a vector quantity? (a) speed (b) a speed of 4ms-1 and then runs 240m at a speed of
Density (c) Current (d) power (e) Displacement 10ms-1 along a straight line? (A) 5.71m/s (B) 7.0
m/s (C) 8.29m/s (D) 9.58m/s (E) 10.57 m/s
2. What is the dimension of density? (a) 𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2
(b) 𝑀𝐿−1 𝑇 −2 (c) 𝑀𝐿−2 𝑇 −2 (d) 𝑀𝐿−3 (e) 𝑀𝐿𝑇 −3 11. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform
acceleration of 6ms-2. What distance does it covers
3. __________ is the simplest type of motion and is
in 3s?
along a straight line path. (a) plane motion (b)
rectilinear motion (c) curvilinear motion (d) (A) 9m (B) 18m (C) 27m (D) 36m (E) 6m
oscillatory (e) straight motion
12. The velocity at which a particle at rest is
2 travelling is plotted against the time taken from its
4. for the equation 𝑠 = 𝑘𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 to dimensionally
correct, where s and t are in metres and seconds commencement of motion. The resulting graph is
respectively, constant k will have the dimension of linear. The slope of this graph is a measure of ____
(a) length (b) velocity (c) acceleration (d) impulse ? (A) displacement (B) Acceleration (C) Area
(D) Volume (E) Speed
(e) time
13. A body is dropped from the top of a building and
5. which one of the following units is a fundamental
it falls freely from the rest. Find its position after
unit? (a) Watt (b) Joule/sec (c) Ampere (d) Newton
2.0seconds. (A) -19.6m (B) 9.8m (C) -9.8m (D)
(e) pascal 19.6m (E) 39.2m

6. What is the dimension of the constant a in the 14. A football player kicks a ball with an initial
𝑎𝑛2 velocity of 25m/s at an angle of 530 with the
van der waal’s equation (𝑃 + ) (𝑉 − 𝑛𝑏) =
𝑣2 horizontal. The vertical component of the initial
−1 −2
𝑛𝑅𝑇? (a) 𝑀𝐿 𝑇 (b) 𝐿 (c) 𝑀𝐿 𝑇 (d) 𝑀𝐿−1 𝑇 2
3 5 2
velocity of the ball is ? (A) 25m/s (B) 20m/s
(e) 𝐿𝑇 −2
(C) 15m/s (D) 10m/s
7. What is the angle between two vectors A and B if 15. A gulf ball hits with the club leaves with a speed
their cross or vector product equals zero, provided of 40m/s at an angle of 600 with the horizontal. If
the ball strike the ground 7.1s later, how far from the
golfer does the ball land? [Assume level ground and 24. determine the kinetic energy of a girl of mass
neglect air resistance]. (A) 280m (B) 35m (C) 140m 40kg running with a velocity of 3m/s. (A) 150J (B)
(D) 71m (E) 240m 180J (C) 100J (D) 120J (E) 360J
16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about 25. A body of mass 2kg moves a circular path with
acceleration due to gravity, g for a freely falling radius 10m with a constant speed of 4.0m/s. What is
body (A) g does not depend on the mass of the the centripetal force? (A) 3.2N (B) 3.8N (C) 4.5N
falling body (B) g depends on the radius R of the (D) 2.0N (E) 0.8N
earth at the point in question (C) g is greater at the
26. when a mass attached to a spring is set into
poles than at the equator (D) the higher the altitude,
vertical oscillations, its acceleration will have a
the larger is the acceleration due to gravity g (E) g is
(A) varying magnitude but a constant direction
a non-contact force
(B) constant direction only (C) constant magnitude
17. A worker applies a constant horizontal force but a varying direction (D) varying magnitude and a
with magnitude 20N to a box with mass 40kg varying direction (E) constant magnitude and a
resting on a level frictionless surface. What is the constant direction
acceleration of the box? (A) 0.5ms-2 (B) 5.0ms-2
27. Which of the following correctly gives the
(C) 10.0ms-2 (D) 0.1ms-2 (E) 2.0ms-2
relationship between linear speed V and angular
18. A force of 12N is exerted on a box at an angle of speed ω of a body moving uniformly in a circle of
200. How much work is done by the force as the box radius r? (A) V= ωr (B) 𝑉 = ω2 𝑟 2 (C) 𝑉 =
move along through a distance of 3m? (A) 33.8J (B) ω𝑟 2 (D) 𝑉 2 = ω𝑟 (E) 𝑉 = ω2 𝑟
12.31J (C) 13.1J (D) 38.3J (E) 105.3J
28. the motion of a body is simple harmonic if the
19. how much work is done on a 10kg mass to (A) acceleration is always directed towards a fixed
change its velocity from 2.0m/s to 8.0m/s (A) 600J point (B) path of motion is a straight line
(B) 300J (C) 150J (D) 160J (E) 60J (C) acceleration is directed towards a fixed point
and proportional to its distance from the point
20. Power is defined as the (A) energy expended per
(D) acceleration is zero (E) acceleration is constant
unit time (B) product of force and time (C) capacity
and directed towards a fixed point.
to exert a force (D) product of force and distance (E)
product of mass and acceleration 29. The vibration resulting from the action of an
external periodic force on the motion of a body is
21. What is the weight of a 60kg astronaut on the
called? (A) forced vibration (B) damped vibration
moon, if the acceleration due to gravity on the moon
(C) natural (D) compound vibration (E) external
is 1.5m/s2. (A) 7.5N (B) 90N (C) 10N (C) 3.0N (D)
vibration
45N
30. Which is the angular speed of a body vibrating
22. The point through which the whole weight of an
at 50 cycles per second. (A) 200πrads-1 (B)
object appears to act for any given orientation is
100πrads-1 (C) 50 πrads-1 (D) 400 πrads-1 (E)
called (A) stable equilibrium point (B) centre of
500πrads-1
mass (C) neutral equilibrium (D) centre of gravity
(E) stability point 31. The action of blotting paper on link is due (A)
diffusion (B) osmosis (C) capillarity (D) Surface
23. calculate the power of a pump which lifts 200kg
tension (E) floatation
of water through a vertical distance of 5m in
4seconds (A) 1000W (B) 250 W (C) 2450 W (D)
8000 W (E) 4000 W
32. The meniscus of water in a capillary tube is 40. Two 5.0kg spherical balls are placed so that their
(A) convex (B) concave (C) straight (D) depend on centres are 50.0cm apart. What is the magnitude of
the bore of the tube (E) level the gravitational force between the two balls? (𝐺 =
6.67 × 10−11 𝑁𝑚2 𝑘𝑔−2) (a)
33. In which of following is surface tension −9 −9
8.67 × 10 𝑁 (b) 6.67 × 10 𝑁 (c) 9.67 ×
important? (A) The floating of a ship in water (B) −9 −9
10 𝑁 (d) 7.67 × 10 𝑁 (e)
the floating of a dry needle in water (C) the floating
of a bottom in air (D) the diffusion of sugar solution 4.67 × 10−9 𝑁
across a membrane (E) filtering of dirt from water 41. A mass of gas occupies 20cm3 at 50C and
760mmHg pressure. What is its volume at 300C and
34. The rise or fall of a liquid in a narrow tube is
800mmHg pressure (A) 41.4cm3 (B) 20.7cm3 (C)
due to (a) the friction between the walls of the tube
50cm3 (D) 0.4cm3 (E) 5.0cm3
and the liquid (b) the viscosity of the liquid (c) the
osmotic pressure of the liquid (d) the surface tension 42. A rocket of mass 40,000kg propelled by a force
of the liquid (e) density of the liquid 106 𝑁 acquires a speed of 3000m/s determine the
35. Which of the following factors may be used to power expended (a) 2 × 109 𝑊 (b) 1 × 109 𝑊 (c)
explain why a steel pin may float in water? (a) The 4 × 109 𝑊 (d) 3 × 109 𝑊 (e) 9 × 109 𝑊
force of cohesion between the pen and water (b) the 43. Which of the following is correct? (a) Tensile is
force of adhesion between the pin and the water (c) area/ force (b) elastic limit is the same for all
the opening in the steel pin (d) the law of floatation materials (c) force is inversely proportional to
(e) the surface tension of water. extension (d) elastic limit cannot be exceeded in
36. which of the following statement is correct copper wire (e) unit of force constant in Newton
(a) the adhesion between water and glass is greater metre.
than the cohesion between water molecules (b) the 44. The extension on a spring when 5g was hung
cohesion between water molecules is greater than from it was 0.56cm. if Hooke’s law is obeyed, what
the adhesion between glass and water (c) the is the extension caused by a load of 20g. (a)
molecules of water near the glass are moving faster 30.12cm (b) 3.23cm (c) 2.24cm (d) 1.22cm (e)
than the molecules in the other parts (d) the 25.32cm
molecules of water at the water-air boundary are
often attracted to the centre of the tube (e) glass 45. A mass of 1kg is moving in a circular path
dissolves in water. radius 2m with a uniform speed of 50ms-1. Find the
centripetal acceleration. (a) 1250ms-1 (b) 1275ms-1
37. What volume of alcohol with a density of (c) 2150ms-1 (d) 1365ms-1
8.4 × 102 𝑘𝑔𝑚−3 will have the same mass as 4.2𝑚3
of petrol whose density is 7.2 × 102 𝑘𝑔𝑚−3? (a) 46. Emmanuel jumped out of the window, what has
1.4𝑚3 (b) 3.6𝑚3 (c) 4.9𝑚3 (d) 5.0𝑚3 (e) 2.5𝑚3 he done? (a) Work (b) exercise (c) pick nick (d)
playing (e) escape
38. A body weighs 0.5kg in air, 0.3kg in water and
0.2kg in liquid. What is the relative density of the 47. An object of mass 100kg is released from rest
liquid? (a) 1.5 (b) 2 (c) 2.5 (d) 3 (e) 4.5 and falls through a distance of 100m. What is the
work done by gravity? (g=10m/s2) (a) 102J (b) 103J
39. Calculate the escape velocity of a satellite from (c) 104J (d) 10-2J (e) 10-4J
the earth’s gravitational field. (a) 11kms-1 (b)
110kms-1 (c) 100kms-1 (d) 25kms-1 (e) 250kms-1 48. determine the kinetic energy of girl of mass
40kg running with a velocity of 3m/s. (a) 150J (b)
180J (c) 100J (d) 120J (e) 15J
49. which of these is an example of non-renewable (c) A bullet is fired at an angle of 300 to the
energy (a) solar (b) wind (c) coal (d) Hydro (e) horizontal with a velocity of 150m/s. find the time
Geothermal taken for the bullet to reach its maximum height.
50. Gravitational and electric fields are sometimes
referred to as conservative force fields because work
SECTION B- Answer one (1) question in this
done in these fields depends on (a) path (b)
section
position (c) energy (d) strength (e) shape
(3) (a) (i) define surface tension (ii) list four (4)
ways of making mosquito larva sink in stagnant
water (iii) explain why water wet glass and mercury
do not.
(b) (i) state Archimedes principle (ii) a piece of cork
density 0.25x103 kgm-3 floats in a liquid of density
PART II-ESSAY (Answer Two(2) questions, 1.25x105kgm-3, what fraction of the volume of the
ONE(1) from each section) TIME ALLOWED: cork will be immersed?
30mins
(c) A metal block of density 9000kgm-3 weighs 60N
SECTION A- Answer one(1) question in this in air. Find its weight when it is immersed in
section paraffin wax of density 800kgm-3.

(1) (a) (i) Explain the term derived quantities and 4(a) (i) state Newton’s law of gravitation (ii) find
fundamental quantities. Give two (2) examples of the gravitational potential at a point on the earth’s
each (ii) obtain from first principle the dimensions surface. Take mass of earth as
of acceleration, power and pressure.

(b) Given the two displacements 𝐴⃗ = (6𝑖 + 3𝑗 −

𝑘)𝑚 and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ = (4𝑖 − 5𝑗 + 8𝑘)𝑚, find the magnitude
Obj phy001
of the displacement 2𝐴⃗ − 𝐵
⃗⃗. Calculate the angle
between 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵⃗⃗.
1. E
(c) A ball is thrown vertically upward, has speed
6ms-1 at ¼ of its maximum height. Find the 2. [D]
maximum height. (take g = 9.81ms-2).
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑘𝑔
𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = = 3 = 𝑘𝑔𝑚−3
2 (a) define the following terms (i) displacement (ii) 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑚
average velocity (iii) average acceleration (iv) a
speed train is uniformly retarded from 216km/h to ∴ 𝑑𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑀𝐿−3
108km/h in 15s. what is retardation and what is the
distance covered by this train in the time interval. 3. B

(b) A ball thrown vertically upward from the roof of 4. [C] Hint:
a tall building at 15.0m/s fall back freely missing the
top (roof) of the building. (i) find the position and For the equation 𝑠 = 𝑘𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 2
the velocity of the ball 1.0s and 4.0s after it was
thrown. (ii) the maximum height reached and the To get the dimension for k, equate S with kt only
time at which it reached
 𝑠 𝐿 16 4 2 4 2 16
𝑆 = 𝑘𝑡; 𝑘 = = = 𝐿𝑇 −1 = 𝑖| |−𝑗| |+𝑘| |
𝑡 𝑇 −3 0 4 0 4 −3

Thus, which is similar to velocity. = 𝑖(0 − −12) − 𝑗(0 − 16) + 𝑘(−6 − 64)

5.C 𝐵 × 𝐴 = 12𝑖 + 16𝑗 − 70𝑘

6. [C] Hint: But, (𝐵 × 𝐴) + 𝐶 = 0

𝑎𝑛2 12𝑖 + 16𝑗 − 70𝑘 + 𝐶

(𝑃 + ) (𝑉 − 𝑛𝑏) = 𝑛𝑅𝑇
𝑣2
𝐶 = −12𝑖 − 16𝑗 + 70𝑘
We can add and structure only like quantities.
𝒂𝒏𝟐
9.
⇒ Dimensions of P = Dimensions of 𝒗𝟐 ...... (i) Substitute the value of the time t1 and t2 into the
and dimension of V = Dimensions of b ........... (ii) equation of the velocity.
From (i),
Dimensions of a = Dimensions of P× Dimensions of 𝑉(𝑡) = 8.0 − 17.5𝑡 + 1.5𝑡 2
𝒗𝟐
𝑉(𝑡1 ) = 8 − 17.5 (2) + 1.5(2) 2
[a] = [𝑀1 𝐿−1 𝑇 −2 ] × [𝐿3 ]2 = 8 − 35 + 6 = −33𝑚𝑠 −1

= [𝑴𝟏 𝑳𝟓 𝑻−𝟐 ] Answer 𝑉(𝑡2 ) = 8 − 17.5 (5) + 1.5(5) 2

= 8 − 87.5 + 37.5 = −42𝑚𝑠 −1
2
Also note that, Unit of a= 𝑈𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑝 × 𝑈𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑉
𝑉2 – 𝑉1
Average acceleration = 𝑡2 –𝑡1
= 𝑁𝑚−2 × 𝑚6 = 𝑁𝑚4
−42−33
= 5−2
And, From (ii), [𝑏] = [𝑉] = [𝑀0 𝐿3 𝑇 0 ]
−75
So unit of b = Unit of V = 𝑚3 = = −25𝑚𝑠 −2
3

7. [A] 10. A
If the cross product of two vectors is the zero 𝑢+𝑣 4+10
Average velocity = = = 7𝑚/𝑠
vector (i.e. a × b = 0), then either one or both of the 2 2
inputs is the zero vector, (a = 0 or b = 0) or else they
are parallel or antiparallel (a ∥ b) so that the sine of 11. C 12. B
the angle between them is zero (θ = 0° or θ = 180°
13. [D] Hint
and sinθ = 0).
Let’s first list the data we have:
8.[E] Hint:
 t = 4s (given)
 u = 0 m/s (as it is a free fall)
𝑖 𝑗 𝑘
 a = g = 9.8 m/s² (as it is a free fall)
𝐵 × 𝐴 = |2 16 4|
4 −3 0
The height of the building is also the distance W= Fs cos  formula:
traveled by the object (from top to ground)

So, now, we’ll consider the 2nd equation of motion

S = ut + ½ (at²)

Substituting the known data,

𝑠 = 3𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐹 = 12𝑁  =20o
𝑺 = (0𝑚𝑠 −1 )(2𝑠) + ½(9.8𝑚𝑠 −2 )(2𝑠)2
𝑊 = (12)(3)𝑐𝑜𝑠(20) = 33.8𝑁
= (4.9)(4)𝑚 = 𝟏𝟗. 𝟔 𝒎
19. [B] Hint:
Therefore, the height of the building is 19.6 m
The work-energy theorem states that the work
14. [B] Hint: done by all forces acting on a particle equals the
change in the particle's kinetic energy.
1
The vertical component of the initial velocity is = Hence, 𝑤. 𝑑 = ∆𝑘. 𝑒 = 𝑚(𝑣 2 − 𝑢2 )
2
𝑢 sin 𝜃 = 25 × sin 53 = 19.9 ≈ 20𝑚/𝑠
1
𝑤. 𝑑 = ∆𝑘. 𝑒 = 2 × 10(82 − 22 ) = 300𝐽
15. [C] Hint:

How far from the golfer does the ball land = range 20.A
of the ball
21. [B] Hint:
= 𝑢 cos 𝜃 × 𝑇 = 40 cos 60 × 7.1 = 142𝑚
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 = 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 × 𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑑𝑢𝑒 𝑡𝑜 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦
16. D
If a body weighs 60kg, then
17. [A] Hint:
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑜𝑛 = 60 × 1.5 = 90𝑁
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
= 𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 22. D
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
20𝑁 23. [A] Hint:
𝑎= = 0.5 𝑚𝑠 −2
40𝑘𝑔
To solve for the power of the pump is to insert the
18. [A] Hint: given data to this formula 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑊𝑜𝑟𝑘/
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑟 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ/𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
When the force is applied horizontally,
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ/𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
W= Fs, but when force is applied at an angle,
200 𝑘𝑔 × 10𝑚𝑠 −2 × 5 𝑚
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 =
10 𝑠

10000 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 =
10 𝑠

𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 1000 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑

 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 1000 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠 38. [A] Hint:

24. [B] Hint: Let the weights of the body in the air, water and
liquid be 𝑚𝑎 = 0.5𝑘𝑔, 𝑚𝑤 = 0.3𝑘𝑔, 𝑚𝑙 = 0.2𝑘𝑔kg
1 respectively.
𝐾𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦, 𝐾 = 𝐾 = 𝑚𝑣 2
2
𝑚𝑎 − 𝑚𝑙 0.5 − 0.2
1 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = =
= × 40 × 32 = 190𝐽 𝑚𝑎 − 𝑚𝑤 0.5 − 0.3
2
0.3
25. [A] Hint: 𝑅. 𝐷 = = 1.5
0.2
Given: , 𝑠𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑 𝑖𝑠 1.5 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑒𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟.

Speed = 4.0 m/s 39. [A] Hint:

Radius = 10 m radius of orbit = r = 7000 km = 7 x 106 m, g = 9.8 ms/s2,

escape velocity = ve = 11.2 km/s = 11.2 x 103 m/s,
Mass = 40kg
40. [B] Hint:
𝐺𝑚1 𝑚2 6.67 × 10−11 × 5 × 5
𝑚𝑣 2 𝐹= =
𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 = 10𝑁 = 𝑟2 (5 × 10−2 )2
𝑟
𝐹 = 6.67 × 10−9 𝑁
2 × 42 32
⇒𝐹= = 41. None of the above
10 10

𝐹 = 3.2 𝑁 According to the general gas equation, the volume

VVV, temperature TTT and pressure PPP of the
26. E 27.A 28.C 29. A ideal gas are connected in the following way:

30. [B] Hint: 𝑃𝑉

= 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡
𝑇
1 cycle = 3600 = 2π rad
Thus, denoting with the index 1 parameters for the
∴ 50 cycle = 2 π rad × 50 = 100 πrad initial state and with the index 2 parameters for the
f𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑒, 𝑜𝑏𝑡𝑎𝑖𝑛:
∴ = angular speed = 50 cycles per seconds = 100 π
rads−1 𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃2 𝑉2
=
𝑇1 𝑇2
31. C 32. B 33.B 34. D 35.E 36. B
Expressing the final volume from this equation, get:
37.B
𝑃1𝑉1 𝑇2
Mass = Density x Volume 𝑉2 =
𝑃2 𝑇1
𝜌1 𝑉1 = 𝜌2 𝑉2 Substituting the numerical value (and converting the
4.2 x 7.2 x 10 = v x 8.4 x 102
2 temperature to kelvin), get:
V = 3.6m3
 760 ⋅ 20 ⋅ (273 + 5) 1a. The Fundamental Quantity is independent
𝑉2 = ≈ 17.4𝑐𝑚3
800 ⋅ (273 + 30) Physical Quantity that is not possible to express in
other Physical Quantity. It is used as pillars for other
𝑨𝒏𝒔𝒘𝒆𝒓. 17.4 𝑐𝑚3 . quantities.

42. [D] Hint:

Derived quantities are those that may be expressed
6
𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 × 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 10 × 3000 in terms of base or derived quantities by means of
= 3 × 109 𝑊 the mathematical symbols of multiplication and
division
43. E
Pressure- M1 L-1 T-2
44. [C] Hint:
Acceleration- L T−2.
From hooke’s law 𝑭 = 𝒌𝒆
Power-M1 L2 T-3.
Extension ∝ Load

𝐹1 𝐹2
= 1(b)
𝑒1 𝑒2
i. The magnitude of vector A is /A/
5𝑔 20𝑔
= /A/ = √(𝐴)2
0.56𝑐𝑚 𝑒2
/A/= √(6i − 3j − k)2
X = 2.24cm = √(6𝑖)2 + (−3𝑗)2 + (−𝑘)2
45. [A] Hint: = √36𝑖 2 + 9𝑗 2 + 𝑘 2
Recall
𝑣2
Centripetal acceleration, 𝑎𝑐 = i.i = 12 = 1, j.j = j2 = 1 k.k = k2 = 1
𝑟
Thus,
502 /D/ = √36(1) + 9(1) + 1(1)
at 𝑟 = 2𝑚, 𝑣 = 50𝑚/𝑠 𝑎𝑐 = = 1250𝑚/𝑠 2
2
/D/ = √46 = 6.78
46.A 47. A Similarly,
/E/ = √(B)2
48. [B] Hint: /E/ = √(4i + 5j + 8k)2
1 = √16 + 25 + 64 = √105
𝐾𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦, 𝐾 = 𝐾 = 𝑚𝑣 2 /E/ = 10.25
2
ii. D.E= AxBx+ AyBy + AzBz
1 But
= 2 × 40 × 32 = 190𝐽
𝐴 = 6𝑖 + 3𝑗 − 𝑘
𝐵 = 4𝑖 + 5𝑗 + 8𝑘
49. C 50. B
𝑆𝑜,
𝐷. 𝐸 = (6)(4) + (3)(5) + (−1)(9)
= 28 – 15 – 6 = 7
𝐷. 𝐸 = 7
Phy001 essay solution iii. The angle between A and B
 Recall, 𝛥𝑣⃗
𝐴. 𝐵 = /𝐴//𝐵/ 𝐶𝑜𝑠 Ɵ 𝑎⃗ =
𝛥𝑡
𝐴. 𝐵
Cos Ɵ =
/𝐴//𝐵/ iv. 1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s
𝐴.𝐵 5
Ɵ = Cos-1[/𝐴//𝐵/] 𝑣 = 108𝑘mℎ𝑟 −1 = 108 × m𝑠 −1 = 30
18
by substituting, 5 m
31 𝑢 = 216𝑘mℎ𝑟 −1 = 216 × = 60
Ɵ = Cos -1[(6.78)(10.25)] 18 s
30−60
Ɵ = 63.340 the acceleration is clearly = = −2 m𝑠 −2
15

1(c) 𝑔 = −10𝑚/𝑠 2 , 𝑣 = 0𝑚/𝑠 𝑢 = 6𝑚/𝑠 5

so, 𝑎 = −7.2 × 18 𝑚𝑠 −2 = 2𝑚/𝑠
1 𝑦
𝑠= 𝑜𝑓 𝑦 =
4 4 now to find the distance,
1 2
Now using, third equation of motion, 𝑠 = 𝑢𝑡 − 𝑎𝑡
2
𝑣 2 = 𝑢2 + 2𝑔𝑠 plug in t =15 secs
1
2 2
𝑦 𝑠 = 60 × 15 − (−2)(15)2
0 = 6 + 2(10) ( ) 2
4 𝑠 = 900 + 225 = 1125𝑚
20𝑦 (b) the position and the velocity of the ball 1.0s and
0 = 36 − 4.0s after leaving your hand.
4
Position of the ball at 1.0s and 4.0s
20𝑦 1
−36 = − ℎ = 𝑢𝑡 − 𝑔𝑡 2
4 2
1
−144 ℎ(1.0) = 15(1) − (9.8)(1)2 = 10.1𝑚
𝑦= = 7.2𝑚 2
−20 ℎ(1.0) = 10.1𝑚 𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔
2(a) i. Displacement is the shortest distance
between the initial and final positions of a moving 1
ℎ(4.0) = 15(4) − (9.8)(4)2 = −19.2𝑚
object in a particular direction. 2
ℎ(4.0) = −19.2𝑚 𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔
ii. The average speed of a particle for a given
'Interval of time' is defined as the ratio of total velocity of the ball at 1.0s and 4.0s
distance travelled to the time taken.
𝑣(1.0) = 𝑢0 − 𝑔𝑡
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑 𝑣(1.0) = 15 − (9.8)(1) = 5.2𝑚/𝑠
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = ;
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 𝑣(1.0) = 5.2𝑚/𝑠 𝑢𝑝
𝛥𝑠 𝑣(4.0) = 𝑢0 − 𝑔𝑡
𝑣𝑎𝑣 =
𝛥𝑡 𝑣(4.0) = 15 − (9.8)(4) = −24.2𝑚/𝑠
iii. Average acceleration the rate of change in 𝑣(4.0) = −24.2𝑚/𝑠 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛
velocity; the change in velocity over time
instantaneous acceleration acceleration at a specific (ii) The maximum height reached and the time at
point in time which it is reached.
1
𝐸 = 𝑚𝑣 2 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ
2
 𝑚𝑣 2 𝑣 2 adhesion/attraction between glass and water
ℎ= =
2𝑚𝑔 2𝑔 molecules is greater than (force of)
Maximum height would be: cohesion/attraction of water molecules.
𝑣2 152
ℎ𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = = 11.480 𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔
2𝑔 2(9.8)
3b.(i) Archimedes' principle states that an object
time at which it is reached. immersed in a fluid experiences a buoyant force that
is equal in magnitude to the force of gravity on the
𝑣 = 𝑔𝑡 displaced fluid.
𝑣 15
𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑠𝑒 = = = 1.531𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝑔 9.8 (ii) Relative density = 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑 𝑖𝑚𝑚𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑒𝑑

0.25 × 103
(c) We know that time taken for a projectile to reach 𝑅𝐷 = = 0.2
1.25 × 103
its maximum height is:
3(c) density of paraffin wax (d) = 800kg/m3
𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑡= . Density of body (d1) = 9000kg/m3
𝑔
1−𝑑
Weight of paraffin wax = 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑎𝑖𝑟 × [ 𝑑 ]
Hence, putting these value in above equation we 1

will find: 1 − 800

= 600 × [ ] = 60 × −5.32 = 54.67𝑁
9000
150 × 𝑠𝑖𝑛30
𝑡= = 7.6 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 Weight of paraffin wax = 54.67𝑁
9.81

3.(a) (i) Surface tension is the tendency of liquid 4ai. Newton's law of universal gravitation is usually
surfaces to shrink into the minimum surface area stated as that every particle attracts every other
possible. Surface tension is what allows heavier than particle in the universe with a force that is directly
water i.e., denser than water objects such as razor proportional to the product of their masses and
blades, insects, to float and slide on a water surface inversely proportional to the square of the distance
without becoming even partly submerged. between their centers.

(ii) Mosquito larvae can be made to sink by the (ii)

addition of any of; 𝐺𝑚
Gravitational potential = 𝑟
 Detergent / Soap
6.67 × 10−11 × 5.98 × 1024
 Alcohol =
 Heat 6.38 × 106
 Camphor. = 6.2 × 1024 𝐽/𝑚

3(a) (iii) Mercury does not wet glass because (force 4b. (i)
of) cohesion/attraction of mercury molecules is Simple harmonic motion, in physics, repetitive
greater than (force of) adhesion/attraction between
movement back and forth through an equilibrium, or
glass and mercury molecules.
central, position, so that the maximum displacement
Water wets glass because (force of)
on one side of this position is equal to the maximum
displacement on the other side.
4b. (ii)
Swing
Pendulum
Hearing
4cii
4.(c) i.
Renewable energy

✓Solar energy. Using Hooke’s law, 𝐹 = 𝐾𝑒

✓Wind energy. 𝐹1 𝐹2
=
𝑒1 𝑒2
✓Hydro energy.
But, 𝑒1 = 𝑙1 − 𝑙0
✓Tidal energy.
𝐹1 𝐹2
✓Geothermal energy. =
𝑙1 − 𝑙0 𝑒2
✓Biomass energy
4 6
Nonrenewable energy = ⟹ 16 = 6(14 − 𝑙0 )
14 − 𝑙0 4
✓oil, 14 = 84 − 6𝑙0 ⟹ 16 − 84 = −6𝑙0
✓natural gas, −68
𝑙0 = = 11.33𝑐𝑚
✓coal, −6
✓ Nuclear energy
 FEDERAL UNIVERSITY OF molar mass of oxygen atom = 16g/mol, 1
TECHNOLOGY OWERRI atmosphere = 1.01×10-3Nm-2 (A) 83.1 Jmol-
1 -2
m (B) 8.31 Jmol-1m-2 (C) 0.33 Jmol-1m-2
JOINT UNIVERSITY PRELIMINARY
(D) 3.3Jmol-1m-2
EXAMINATION BOARD (JUPEB)
4. If two bodies are each in thermal
2020/2021 HARMATTAN SEMESTER
equilibrium with a third body, then the two
EXAMINATION
bodies are in thermal equilibrium is a
PHY-002 TIME: 2hours statement of (A) law of heat conservation
INSTRUCTION: answer all questions in (B) first law of thermodynamics (C) law of
SECTION A [Multiple Choice Questions thermodynamics (D) zeroth law
MCQ] by shading the correct options 5. The coefficient of area or superficial
from A-D, and TWO questions in expansion, β is….. times the coefficient of
SECTION B [Essay Questions], ONE linear expansion, is (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3
from each course (D) 4
SECTION A: Multiple choice Questions 6. One of these is NOT a good thermometric
(MCQ) substance (A) Hydrogen (B) Helium (C)
Nitrogen (D) Water

1. 7. The mercury thread has 12cm and 25cm at

the ice and steam points. What is its
temperature when the mercury
thermometer?. (A) 46.20 (B) 4.620
(C) 216.670C (D) 21.670C
8. The thermometer with wide range and
used in industry for rapidly changing
temperature is ______ (A) constant-volume
gas (B) thermocouple (C) optical pyrometer
(A) Charle’s law (B) pressure law (C) (D) platinum resistance
Boyle’s law (D) Dalton’s law
9. The resistance of a platinum resistance
2. A mole of an ideal gas at s.t.p has a thermometer at triple point of water is
volume 22.4×10-3Nm-2 at 273K. Calculate 25.84Ω. when kept in boiling glycerol
the pressure (A) 1.01×10-3Nm-2 (B) becomes 53.98 Ω. Find the boiling of
121.88×10-3Nm-2 (C) 8.21×10-6Nm-2 (D) glycerol on this scale. (A) 57.06K (B) 570K
0.61Nm-2 (C) 129.80K (D) 12.98K
3. Determine the universal gas constant, R if
density of oxygen at s.t.p is 1.43kgm-3 and
10. The area or superficial Expansivity, β work done is 1.68×102 J, calculate the
𝐴𝜃 −𝐴0 increase in energy when heat of
can be expressed as_______ (A) 𝛽 =
𝐴0 𝜃
𝐴𝜃 −𝜃 𝐴0 −𝜃 𝐴0 −𝐴𝜃
vapourization is 2250Jg-1 (A) 2.42×106 J
(B) 𝛽 = (C) 𝛽 = (D) 𝛽 = (B) 2.25×106 J (C) 0.17×106 J (D)
𝐴0 𝐴0 𝐴𝜃 𝜃
2.08×106 J
11. The ends of a steel rod of cross section
area 4cm2 are held rigidly between two fixed 18. calculate the best added to a system if an
points at a temperature of 300C. Determine atmospheric pressure, water of volume
the force which opposes the expansion when 1.00cm3 changes to steam of 1971cm3 (A)
the temperature increases to 1200C. (Linear 196.5J (B) 256J (C) 450.6 J (D) 1508 J
Expansivity of steel is 1.2×10-3K-1, young 19. First law of thermodynamics stated that
modulus for steel is 2×1011 Nm-2 (A) (A) 𝑑𝑄 = 𝑑𝑈 + 𝑑𝑊 (B) 𝑑𝑄 = 𝑑𝑈 − 𝑑𝑊
86400N (B) 8.6×106 N (C) 8640N (D) (C) 𝑑𝑈 = 𝑑𝑄 + 𝑑𝑊 (D) 𝑑𝑊 = 𝑑𝑄 + 𝑑𝑈
8.6×108 N
20. A furnace is at a temperature of 3000K.
12. The value of the temperature of a triple At what wavelength would you expect the
point is ____ (A) 273.16K (B) 373K (C) - greatest intensity of radiation? (Wiens
273K (D) 2730C constant = 2.89×10−3 m⋅K) (A) 1.03×10-6
13. Tensile stress is expressed as (A) F/A (B) 1.03×106 (C) 9.66×10-7 (D) 0.966×10-4
(B) e/1 (C) A/F (D) F/e 21. A spherical tungsten has a diameter of
14. How much heat must be added to 50kg 4.0cm and an emissivity of 0.35. Find the
of lead at 300C to cause it to melt? Specific energy lost by radiation in one second when
heat capacity of lead is 130JKg-1C-1. It melts the temperature of the hall is 29270C.
at 3300C and its heat of fusion is 24600JKg- (A) 10.5kW (B) 4.8kW (C) 11.05kW
1 (D) 12.0 kW
. (A) 1950000J (B) 123000J (C) 827000J
(D) 3180000J 22. A typical filament has a surface area of
15. 4kg of water at 500C is poured on large about 1cm2 and emissivity of 0.34 at
block of ice at 00C. How much ice melts? temperature of 3000K. Calculate the
SHC of water is 4.2×10-3JKg-1C-1 and LHF radiation power (Stephan boltzmann’s
of ice is 3.33 JKg-1C-1 (A) 8.4×102 kg (B) constant = 5.67×10-8 W/m2K4
2.52kg (C) 5.07×102 kg (D) 3.3×102 kg (A) 1020 W (B) 2000 W (C) 2000 kW (D)
0 156 W
16. How much steam at 144 C is required to
melt 0.5kg of ice 00C?. Latent heat of 23. The skin temperature is about 330C,
vaporization of steam is 2.2×102 Jkg-1 and standing next to a cold wall of 100C, what is
SHC of steam is 2020Jkg-1C-1 the net heat loss per unit area from radiation
17. A kilogramme of water is boiled until it (A) 138 Wm-2 (B) 13.8 Wm-2 (C) 330 Wm-
2
is completely converted into steam. If the (D) 43 Wm-2
24. Calculate the root mean square speed of wavelength (A) 12.4m (B) 15.7m (C) 17.5m
the molecules of hydrogen at 273K. density (D) 18.6m
and pressure of hydrogen at s.t.p are 9.0x10-
2 31. Longitudinal waves do not exhibits
kgm-3 and 1.01x105Nm-2 respectively.
(A) refraction (B) reflection (C) Diffraction
(A) 1.86x10-4ms-1 (B) 493 ms-1 (C) 1.86x103 (D) polarization
ms-1 (D) 5000ms-1
32. Which of the following properties is/are
25. Which of the following types of radiation common to all waves? I. Diffraction II.
has the highest frequency (A) radio wave Refraction III. Interference. (A) I only (B) III
(B) gamma ray (C) microwave (D) only (C) II and III only (D) I, II and III
ultraviolet
33. The characteristics of a vibration that
26. A wave a frequency of 2Hz and a determine its intensity is the (A) frequency
wavelength of 30cm. the velocity of the (B) overtone (C) wavelength (D) amplitude
wave. (A) 60.0ms-1 (B) 6.0ms-1 (C)
34. A transverse wave and longitudinal wave
1.5ms-1 (D) 0.6 ms-1
travelling in the same direction in a medium
27. A boat anchor is rocked by waves whose differ essentially in their (A) amplitude (B)
crest are 100m apart and whose velocity is direction of vibration of the particles of the
25ms-1. at what interval does the wave reach medium (C) period (D) frequency
the boat? (A) 500.0s (B) 75.0s
35. The echo of a sound under the bottom of
(C) 4s (D) 0.25s
an ocean is heard 2.5seconds later. If the
28. A vibrator of frequency 60Hz is used in speed of the sound in water is 1400ms-2. The
generating transverse stationary waves in a depth of ocean is, (A) 1,750m (B) 3,500m
long thin wire. If the average distance (C) 1,400m (D) 2,800
between successive nodes on the wire is
36. The quality (timbre) of sound depends on
45cm, find the speed of the transverse waves
(A) amplitude (B)frequency (C) harmonics
in the wire. (A) 27ms-1 (B) 54ms-1 (C) 90ms-
1 (D) velocity
(D) 108ms-1
37. The pitch of an acoustic device can be
29. The equation of a transverse wave
increased by (A) increasing the frequency
travelling along a string is given by 𝑦 =
(B) increasing the frequency amplitude (C)
0.3𝑆𝑖𝑛(0.5𝑥 − 50𝑡) where y and x are in cm
decrease in the loudness (D) decreasing the
and t is in second. find the maximum
intensity.
displacement of the particles from the
equilibrium position. (A) 50.0cm (B) 38. Musical instruments playing the same
2.5cm (C) 0.5cm (D) 0.3cm note can be distinguished from one another
owing to the difference in their (A) quality
30. Given the progressive wave equation
(B) pitch (C) intensity (D) loudness
𝑦 = 5𝑆𝑖𝑛(2000𝜋 − 0.4𝑥). calculate the
39. In a closed organ pipe producing a 46. A boy on looking into a mirror observed
musical note, an antinode will always be that his face appeared to have grown bigger.
produced at (A) the closed end (B) the open The boy must have been looking at a (A)
end (C) middle (D) all the parts of the pipe convex mirror with his face at the focus (B)
concave with his face between his face and
40. A string is fastened tightly between two
the focus (C) concave mirror with his face at
walls 24cm apart. The wavelength of the
the focus (D) convex with his face between
second overtone is (A) 24cm (B)
his face and the focus
16cm (C) 12cm (D) 8cm
47. the most suitable type of mirror used for
41. When vibration occurs in an air column,
the construction of a searchlight is the (A)
the distance between a node and antinode is
concave mirror (B) convex mirror (C)
equal (A) one-quarter of the wavelength (B)
spherical mirror (D) parabolic mirror
one-half of the wavelength (C) the
wavelength (D) twice the wavelength 48. A concave mirror of radius of curvature
40cm forms a real image twice as large as
42. find the frequencies of the first three
the object. The object distance is (A) 60cm
harmonic of a piano string of length 1.5m, if
(B) 40cm (C) 30cm (D) 10cm
the velocity of the waves on the string is
120ms-1 (A) 40Hz, 80Hz, 120Hz (B) 80Hz, 49. A swimming pool is filled with water of
160Hz, 240Hz (C) 180Hz, 360Hz, 540Hz refractive index 1.33. Calculate the depth of
(D) 360Hz, 180Hz, 90Hz the pool. If the difference between the
apparent and real depth is 1.5m (A) 3.0m (B)
43. If an object is placed in front of two
4.5m (C) 6.0m (D) 7.5cm
mirrors inclined at 900, how many images
will be formed? (A) five (B) four (C) three 50. A student is far sighted with a near point
(D) two of 100cm. what power of the lens the
44. To produce a parallel beam of light from students will use to read a newspaper at a
a concave mirror, the distance at which the normal near point. (A) 33.3D (B) 0.33D (C)
lamp should be placed from the mirror is -3.0D (D) 3.0D
equal to (A) the focal length (B) two times
the focal length (C) the distance of the image
(D) two times the radius of curvature SECTION B
45. An object is placed 10cm in front of a 1 (a) define the following (i) pressure law of
concave mirror of length 15cm. what is the gas (ii) latent heat (iii) volume or cube
position and nature of the image formed? (A) expansivity (iv) thermal conductivity (iv)
30cm and virtual (B) 6cm and real (C) 6cm stefan’s law of radiation
and virtual (D) 30cm and real (b) List three (3) major advantages of the
constant volume gas thermometer
(c) A constant volume gas thermometer is at (b) Using ray diagrams, state the
a pressure of 8.20 × 104 𝑁𝑚−2 at the characteristics of images formed by a convex
temperature of melting ice, 1.0 × 105 𝑁𝑚−2 lens when the object is a
at temperature of steam and 8.5 × 105 𝑁𝑚−2 (c) Show how the lens can be used as a
at temperature of boiling point of calcium. magnifying glass.
Calculate the temperature of the calcium.
2 (a) Explain the followings: (i) black body
radiation (ii) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(iii) Isothermal changes (iv) Adiabatic Obj phy002 solution
changes (v) Entropy
(b) Show the relationship between the molar 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5.A 6. D 7. A 8.B
9.C 10. A
heat capacity of gas at constant pressure Cp
and the molar heat capacity of gas at 11. [B]
constant volume Cv for an ideal gas.
𝐹 = 𝐸𝐴𝛼𝜃 = 2 × 1011 × 4 × 10−4 × 1.2
(c) Calculate the two principle molar heat
× 10−3 × (120 − 30)
capacities (𝐶𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑣 ) of oxygen if their
ratio is 1.50. density of oxygen at S.t.p = 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 = 8640000𝑁 = 8.6 × 106 𝑁
1.43kgm-3 and molar mass of oxygen =
32 × 10−3 𝑘𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 . 12. [C] 13. A

14. A 15. C 16. 17.B

SECTION C 18. [A] Hint:
(3) (a) explain two conditions that can arise
if the muscles in the eye are unable to focus Δ𝑉 = 1971 − 1 = 1970𝑐𝑚3 = 1970 ×
the image on the retina. Suggest how much 10−6 𝑚3
each condition can be corrected.
PΔ𝑉 = 101325 × 1970 × 10−6 = 199.6𝐽
(b) if a convex lens of focal length is 12cm is
used to produce a real image four times the 19. A
size of the object. How far from the lens
20. [C] Hint:
must the object be placed?.
(c) A horizontal cord 5.0m long has a mass 𝑇 = 3000𝐾
1.45g. if the wavelength of a 120Hz wave on
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 =?
it is 60.0cm. what is the tension in the cord?
4.(a) explain the concept of total internal 𝑐 = 2.89 × 10−3 𝑚𝐾
reflection.
Using wien’s displacement law
3𝑃 3 × 1.01 × 105
̅
𝐶=√ =√
𝑐 𝜌 9 × 10−2
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 =
𝑇 = 1834.85𝑚/𝑠
2.89 × 10−3
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = 9.63 × 10−7 𝑚 𝐶̅ = 1.8 × 103 𝑚/𝑠
3000
25. B
21. [C] Hint:
4𝜋𝑑 2
26. [D] Hint:
𝑑 = 4𝑐𝑚, 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 = 4𝜋𝑟 2 =
4
𝑉 = 𝑓𝝀
−2 )2 = 2 × 0.3 = 0.6ms-1
4 × 3.14 × (4 × 10
𝐴=
4
= 5.024 × 10−3 27.[C] Hint:

𝑇 = 2927 + 273 = 3200𝐾 The distance between the two consecutive

crests in transverse wave motion is called
𝑒 = 0.35, 𝜎 = 5.6 × 10−8 wavelength.
The boat bounces up, ie, it travels from crest
𝑃 = 𝑒𝜎𝐴𝑇 4 to the consecutive crest along wave motion.
Wavelength =distance between two
𝑃 = 0.35 × 5.6 × 10−8 × 5.024 × 10−3 consecutive crests
× (3200)4 ie,
Velocity of wave =2m/s
= 10325.4 ≈ 11.05𝐾𝑊 Hence, time in one bounce of boat
𝝀 𝟏𝟎𝟎
22. [D] Hint: 𝒕= = = 𝟒𝒔
𝒗 𝟐𝟓
28. [B] Hint:
4
𝑃 = 𝑒𝜎𝐴𝑇
𝑣
−8
𝑃 = 0.34 × 5.6 × 10 × 1 × 10 −4 𝑓=
2𝑙
× (3200)4
45
𝑙= = 0.45
= 10325.4 ≈ 11.05𝐾𝑊 100

23. Hence,

24. [C] Hint: 𝑣

60 =
2 × 0.45
1
Recal, 𝑃 = 𝜌𝐶̅ 2
3 𝑣 = 60 × 2 × 0.45 = 54𝑚/𝑠
29. [D] Hint: 𝜆
string is given 𝑙 = , => λ0 = 2l, where λ0 =
2
𝑌 = 0.3 𝑠𝑖𝑛(0.5𝑥 − 50𝑡) compare with, wave length fundamental note. for the first
over tone, λ1 = l.
21
𝑦 = 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑘𝑥 − 𝑤𝑡) For the second over tone, λ2 = =
3
2 × 24
= 16𝑐𝑚.
𝐴 = 0.3𝑚 3

30. [B] Hint: i.e. λ2 = 16cm.

Comparing y = 5sin (200 πt - 0.4X) with the 41. [A]

wave equation 𝑦 = 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝑤𝑡 −
2𝜋 42. [A] Hint:
𝐾𝑋) 𝐾 = = 0.4
𝜆
2𝜋 in vibrations in string, the fundamental
∴ 𝜆 = = 15.7𝑚 frequency happens to be the first harmonic,
0.4
and is given as
31.D 32.D 33.D 34. B 𝑉
f0 = .
2𝑙
35. [A] Hint: Where V = Velocity of the sound wave, I =
Length of the string.
𝑣𝑡 The second harmonic is the first overtone
𝑥= given by
2
𝑉
f1 = = 2f0 ;
𝑙
1400 × 2.5
𝑥= and the third harmonic happens to be the
2 second overtone, given by
3𝑉
3500 f2 = = 2f0.
2𝑙
𝑥= Thus if V = 120m/s and l = 1.5m
2
Thus f1 = 2f0 = 2 x 40 = 80Hz
𝑥 = 1750𝑚. Thus f2 = 3f0 = 3 x 40 = 120Hz
Thus we have in order, 40Hz, 80Hz, 120Hz
36. C 37.A 38. A 39. B
43. [C] Hint:
40. [B] Hint:
When 𝜽 = 900 ,
For a string fixed at both ends and plucked
at the middle, the fundamental frequency is 360
𝑛= −1=3
given 90
by f0 = v/λ, where v = velocity of sound, λ =
44. C 45. B
wave length.
At its fundamental, note, the length of the Given, 𝑢 = −10𝑐𝑚, 𝑅 = 15𝑐𝑚,
 𝑅 15 1.33𝑥 − 𝑥 = 1.5
∴𝑓= = − 𝑐𝑚
2 2 0. 33𝑥 = 1.5
1 1 1 1 1
From mirror formulae, + = ⇒ =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓 𝑣 𝑓 𝑥 = 4.545
1
−
𝑢
1 1 2 Therefore Apparent depth= 4.545
⇒ = − ⇒ 𝑣 = −30𝑐𝑚
𝑣 10 15
Nature of image is real and inverted. The real depth of the pool is therefore
4.545 + 1.5 = 6.045𝑚
46.B 47. D
50. [D] Hint:
48. C
Power of the lens = 1/ focal length
𝑟 40
if r = 40 cm , then 𝑓 = = = 20 𝑐𝑚
2 2 We now need to calculate the focal length
then for a real image by a concave mirror, using the near point which is 100cm.
𝑓 20
magnification 𝑀 = => 2 =
𝑢−𝑓 𝑈−20 𝑢𝑣
therefore 2(u-20) = 20 𝑓=
𝑢+𝑣
2𝑢 – 40 = 20
2𝑢 = 40 + 20 u= object size v= image size and since the
2𝑢 = 60/2 = 30 𝑐𝑚 image is virtual it is usually prefixed with a
(-ve) sign. The near point of a normal eye(u)
49. [C] Hint: is 25 cm.

𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ − 𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ = 1.5 Hence, 𝑢 = 25𝑐𝑚 𝑣 = −100

𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 Using this,

𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ
= 25 × −100
𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ 𝑓= = 33.3 𝑐𝑚
25 + (−100)
𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ 1
𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ = 𝑃=
𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑓

Assume that apparent depth= x therefore, and 1 is in meter, and 1m = 100cm

𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ = 𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ(𝑥) + 1.5 100𝑐𝑚
𝑃= = 3.00 𝐷
33.3𝑐𝑚
substituting this in the above equation

𝑥 + 1.5
𝑥=
1.33
Phy 002 essay solution using different gases give same
reading.
1. a(i) Pressure Law of Gas states that, at
constant temperature, the pressure P of a gas 2 a(i) Black-body radiation is the thermal
varies inversely with its volume V, or PV = electromagnetic radiation within or
k, where k is a constant. surrounding a body in thermodynamic
equilibrium with its environment, emitted by
1 a(ii) Latent heat is energy absorbed or
a black body (an idealized opaque, non-
released by a substance during a change in
reflective body).
its physical state (phase) that occurs without
changing its temperature. 2a(ii) The zeroth law of thermodynamics
states that if two thermodynamic systems are
1 a(iii) Volume expansivity is the fractional
each in thermal equilibrium with a third
increase in volume of a solid, liquid, or gas
system, then they are in thermal equilibrium
per unit rise in temperature,
with each other. Accordingly, thermal
i.e.𝑉2 = 𝑉1 (1 + 𝛾𝜃), where γ is the cubic equilibrium between systems is a transitive
expansivity and γ = 3α. relation.
1 a(iv) The thermal conductivity of a 2a(iii) In thermodynamics, an isothermal
material is a measure of its ability to conduct process is a type of thermodynamic process
heat. It is commonly denoted by k, in which the temperature of the system
1 a(v) Stefan's law of radiation states that remains constant: ΔT = 0
the total radiant heat power emitted from a 2 a (iv) An adiabatic process is a type of
surface is proportional to the fourth power of thermodynamic process which occurs
its absolute temperature. without transferring heat or mass between
the system and its surroundings. Unlike an
isothermal process, an adiabatic process
1(b) transfers energy to the surroundings only as
Advantages of constant volume Gas work
thermometer:-) 2 a(v) An Entropy thermodynamic quantity
 As the expansion of gas is large, so the representing the unavailability of a system's
Gas thermometer are very sensitive. thermal energy for conversion into
mechanical work, often interpreted as the
 The gas expand uniformly and
degree of disorder or randomness in the
regularly over a wide range of
system.
temperature.
 The expansion coefficient of all gases 2(b) 𝐶𝑝 − 𝐶𝑣 = 𝑅 and 𝛾 =
𝐶𝑝
𝐶𝑣
is nearly the same, so thermometer
Where, R = gas constant and 𝛾 = ratio of 4a. Total internal reflection, in physics,
molar capacities or adiabatic index or the complete reflection of a ray of light within a
ratio of specific heats or Laplace's medium such as water or glass from the
coefficient. surrounding surfaces back into the medium.
The phenomenon occurs if the angle of
3(a)
incidence is greater than a certain limiting
- Refractive errors (the most common angle, called the critical angle. In general,
cause) Age-related macular total internal reflection takes place at the
degeneration. boundary between two transparent media
- Cataracts. when a ray of light in a medium of higher
- Diabetic retinopathy. index of refraction approaches the other
medium at an angle of incidence greater than
3(b) 𝑓 = 12𝑐𝑚, 𝑣 = 4𝑢 the critical angle. For a water-air surface the
From mirror formula, critical angle is 48.5°. Because indices of
refraction depend on wavelength, the critical
1 1 1
= + angle (and hence the angle of total so
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢 internal reflection) will vary slightly with
1 1 1 wavelength and, therefore, with colour. At
= + all angles less than the critical angle, both
12 4𝑢 𝑢
refraction and reflection occur in varying
1 5
= proportions.
12 4𝑢
4𝑢 = 60
60
𝑢= = 15𝑐𝑚
4
3(c) we know that,
𝑣 = 𝑓𝜆
𝑣 = 0.6𝑚 × 120𝑠 −1 = 72𝑚𝑠 −1
𝑇
Since, 𝑣 = √ where, m = mass per length
𝑚

Making T subject of formula, we have.

1.45×10−3
𝑇 = 𝑚𝑣 2 = × (72)2 = 1.5𝑁
5

Thus, the tension in the cord balances the

weight of the mass hung at it’s end = 1.5N
CHM-001 SOLUTION 𝑥 𝑦
210 ( ) + 212 ( ) = 210.2
100 100
1.C 2.C 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.D 7.C
8.B 9.D 10.A 11.D 12.D 13.A 14.D 2.1𝑥 + 2.12𝑦 = 210.2 … . . (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
15.C 16.D 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.A Put (i) in (ii)
21. [C] Hint: 2.1(100 − 𝑦) + 2.12𝑦 = 210.2
Recal, Celsius to kelvin conversion 210 − 2.1𝑦 + 2.12𝑦 = 210.2
T(K) = T(C) +273 0.02𝑦 = 0.2
T(C) = T(K) -273 ….(i) 𝑦 = 10
Also, Fahrenheit to Celsius conversion Thus, 𝑥 = 90 by substituting y in eqn (iii)
5
T(C) = (𝐹 − 32)…(ii) 38. [C] Hint:
9

By equating both equations 5𝐶

% 𝑜𝑓 𝐶 =
𝐶5 𝐻8 𝑁𝑂4
5
T(K) − 273 = (𝐹 − 32) 5 × 12
9 =
Thus, (5 × 12) + (1 × 8) + 14 + (16 × 4)
5 60
234 − 273 = (𝐹 − 32) = × 100%
9 60 + 8 + 14 + 64
−39 × 9 60
= 𝐹 − 32 = × 100%
5 148
39. [B] Hint:
𝐹 = −70.2 + 32 = −38.20
22. C 23. B 24.C 25.D 26.C 27.B 𝑤(𝐶) = 88.89%;
28. C 29.A 30.B 31.C 32.D 33. B 𝑤(𝐻) = 11.11%; %;
34. [A] Hint:
𝑀(𝐶𝑥𝐻𝑦) = 54𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙;
2 2
Number of orbitals = 𝑛 = 3 = 9
𝑤(𝐶) 𝑤(𝐻) 88.89 11.11
35.A 36.D 𝑥: 𝑦 = : = :
𝐴𝑟(𝐶) 𝐴𝑟(𝐻) 12 1
37. [B] Hint:
= 7.4075: 11.11
210
Let 𝑋 = 𝑥% and
212
Divide by the smallest ratio which is 7.4075
𝑌 = 𝑦%
𝑥% + 𝑦% = 100% = 1: 1.5
Approximately, 𝐶𝐻2 ; ; 1b (i) absolute error = actual value -
observed value
40.D 41.B 42.A
= 1.63 − 1.58 = 0.1
43. no correct option
(ii) Relative error =
Number of degeneracy = 2𝑙 + 1 = 2(2) +𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒−𝑜𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑒𝑑 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 1.63−1.58
=
1=5 𝑜𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑒𝑑 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 1.58

44. B 0.1
= = 0.063
1.58
45. [C] Hint:
16.3521−1.448
Sum of ratio of isotopes = 9+1=10 1c) calculate to the correct
7.085
9 6 1 8
significant value
Relative atomic mass = × + ×
10 1 10 1
Step i: first of all determine the number
𝑅𝐴𝑀 = 5.4 + 0.8 = 6.2 with the least number of significant figures
46.D 47.D in the given numbers. i.e, 1.448 → (4 𝑠. 𝑓).

48. [D] Hint: 𝑎𝑙𝑠𝑜, 7.085 = (4 𝑠. 𝑓)

𝐶𝑟(𝑂𝐻)3 = 0 Step ii: evaluate the expression and report
your result (answer) to 3s.f
𝐶𝑟(−2 + 1)3 = 0
𝐶𝑟 + (−1)3 = 0 16.3521 − 1.448 14.9041
=
7.085 7.085
𝐶𝑟 − 3 = 0 = 2.103613267
𝐶𝑟 = +3
But your answer must be in 4 s.f regarding to
49. No correct option the least significant figure among the
numbers given to divide earlier.
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 27.5
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 = = = 1.719𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 16 Hence, 2.104 ≈ (4𝑠. 𝑓)
50. B
2.(a) Ionization energy is the quantity of
energy that an isolated, gaseous atom in the
ground electronic state must absorb to
CHM 001 ESSAY SOLUTIONS
discharge an electron, resulting in a cation
1a. Accuracy refers to how closely the
measured value of a quantity corresponds to Factor affecting the ionization energy
its “true” value. Precision expresses the i. Size of the positive nuclear charge.
degree of reproducibility or agreement As the nuclear charge increases, its
between repeated measurements. attraction for the outermost electron
 increases and more energy is −160
13𝐹 = −160 ⇒ 𝐹 = = −12.3
13
required to remove an electron. ...
ii. Size of atom (distance of outermost 𝐶 = 2𝐹 = 2 × −12.3 𝐶 = −24.6𝑜
electron from the nucleus) ...
iii. Screening (shielding) effect of inner 4 a) (i) Atomic number, the number of a
shell electrons. chemical element in the periodic system,
whereby the elements are arranged in order
2b) of increasing number of protons in the
i. They are both clear and nucleus. Accordingly, the number of
homogeneous protons, which is always equal to the number
ii. They are both soluble in water of electrons in the neutral atom, is also the
iii. They are both stable atomic number

1.56×10−4 𝑐𝑚3 4a ii. Mass Number also called atomic mass

2c) 1.56 × 10−4 𝑚3 = = number or nucleon number, is the total
10−6
3
156𝑐𝑚 number of protons and neutrons (together
3a. Properties of covalent compounds known as nucleons) in an atomic nucleus. ...
include: The mass number is different for each
different isotope of a chemical element.
 Low boiling points and melting points. 4.b)
 Various colors.
 Poor conductors of heat and Relative molecular mass of CO2 = 12+16x2
electricity.
= 12+32 = 44
 Brittle solids.
Relative molecular mass of H2O = 1x2 + 16
3b). In a covalent bond, the atoms bond by
sharing electrons. Covalent bonds usually = 2+16 = 18
occur between nonmetals. For example, in Therefore, 44g of CO2 gave 12g of C
water (H2O) each hydrogen (H) and oxygen
12
(O) share a pair of electrons to make a 1𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑂2 = 𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐶
molecule of two hydrogen atoms single 44
bonded to a single oxygen atom. 12 1.10
1.10𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑂2 = 𝑔 × 𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐶
44 1
3c) F =1⁄2 𝐶 ; 𝐶 = 2𝐹
= 0.3𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐶
5
From the equation 𝐶 = (F-32); then, Similarly, 18g of H2O gave 2g of H
9
5
2𝐹 = (F-32) 2
9 1𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐻2 𝑂 = 𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐻
18
18𝐹 = 5𝐹 − 160
 2 0.45 2.It cannot predict the relative intensities of
0.45𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐻2 𝑂 = 𝑔 × 𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐻
18 1 spectral lines.
= 0.05𝑔 𝑜𝑓 𝐻 3. It does not explain the Zeeman Effect,
when the spectral line is split into several
∴ 0.43g of hydrocarbon contain 0.05g of
components in the presence of a magnetic
hydrogen and 0.3g of carbon
field.
5 (b)
Carbon Hydrogen
C = 12 H =1  Neutralization rxn
 Combination rxn
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 0.3 0.05  Precipitate rxn
𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑐 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 12 1  Precipitate rxn
0.025 0.05
𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑏𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑏𝑦 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑡  Redox reaction
0.025 0.025
1 ∶ 2 6.(a) i. nitrogen ii sulfur iii. Vanadium
Empirical formula = CH2
b. Balanced equation of reaction:
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 =
(𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑖𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠)𝑛 C2H5OH + CH3COOH → CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O
85 = (14)𝑛 1 mole of C2H5OH produces 1 mole of
85 CH3COOCH2CH3
𝑛= =6
14
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 46g of C2H5OH produces 87g of
= (𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑖𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎)𝑛 CH3COOCH2CH3
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 = (𝐶𝐻2 )𝑛 1g of C2H5OH produces
46𝑔
of
∴ 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 = (𝐶𝐻2 )6 87
CH3COOCH2CH3
= 𝐶6 𝐻12
46𝑔
5a (i) Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom is 5g of C2H5OH produces × 5𝑔 of
87
based on three postulates: (1) an electron CH3COOCH2CH3
moves around the nucleus in a circular orbit,
= 2.64g of
(2) an electron's angular momentum in the
CH3COOCH2CH3
orbit is quantized, and (3) the change in an
electron's energy as it makes a quantum Theoretical yield = 2.64g of
jump from one orbit to another is always CH3COOCH2CH3
accompanied by the Actual yield = 5.8g of CH3COOCH2CH3
5 a (ii) 1. Poor spectral predictions are
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑦𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑
obtained when larger atoms are in question. 𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑦𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 100%
= ×
𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑦𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 1
 5.8 100% 0.693
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑦𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 = × ∴ 𝑡1 =
2.64 1 2 𝜆
= 219.7%
𝑏𝑢𝑡, 𝜆 = 15 × 60 = 900
Chm-002 Obj solution 0.693
𝑡1 = = 7.7 × 10−2 𝑠
2 900
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. 6. B 7. A 8.B
9. 10. 11. A 12. A 13. 14. D 15.C 16. 2(a) From the law of mass action, we learnt
A 17. C 18. C 19. A 20.D 21.A 22. C 23. that for a reaction.
C 24. A 25.D 26. A 27.D 28.D 29. A 30.
A 31. 32. A 33. D 34. 35. D 36. A 𝑎𝐴 + 𝑏𝐵 ⇌ 𝑐𝐶 + 𝑑𝐷
37.D 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. D 42. B The forward reaction rate = 𝐾𝑓 [𝐴]𝑎 [𝐵]𝑏
43. [D] Hint: And backward rate = 𝐾𝑏 [𝐶]𝑐 [𝐷]𝑑

According to Graham's law of diffusion, At equilibrium, the rate of forward reactions

is equal to rate of backward reactions
1
𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛 ∝ Hence, 𝐾𝑓 [𝐴]𝑎 [𝐵]𝑏 = 𝐾𝑏 [𝐶]𝑐 [𝐷]𝑑
√𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
𝐾𝑓 [𝐶]𝑐 [𝐷]𝑑
Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than X. Therefore, 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = =
𝐾𝑏 [𝐴]𝑎 [𝐵]𝑏

3 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑋
2(b) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3
So, = √
1 2
𝐾𝑐 = 0.5, 𝑅 = 0.0821, 𝑇 = 400 + 273
= 673𝐾
⟹ 9 × 2 = 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑋
𝑲𝑷 = 𝑲𝒄 (𝑹𝑻)∆𝒏
Molar mass of X= 18
∆𝑛 = 2 − (3 + 1) = 2 − 2 = −2
44. C 45.D 46.A 47.A 48. D 49. 50. B
𝐾𝑃 = (0.5)(0.0821 × 673)−2
= 1.64 × 10−4
CHM 002 ESSAY SOLUTIONS The SI unit = atm-2; therefore 𝐾𝑃 =
0.693 1.8𝑥10−5 𝑎𝑡𝑚−2
1(a) using, 𝑡1 =
2 𝜆
1
0.693 3) From (i), multiply the equation by
2
=
0.450 𝑠 −1 1
𝑡1 = 1.54 𝑠 Therefore, NOCl ⇌ NO(g) + Cl(g) and new
2
2
𝐾1 = [4.4 × 10−4 ]1/2 = 2.1 × 10−2
1(b) the ratio constant of a substance in a
first order reaction in 15minutes.
 1
From (ii) NO(g) + O2(g)⇌ NO2(g), 𝐾2 = 32
2 𝑀𝑥 = = 61.4𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
83.3 0.521
5) Applying the real gas equation(van der
Adding both equations, we have
waal’s equation),
1 1
NOCl(g) + O2(g)⇌ NO2(g) + Cl(g) and
2 2 Now, using the constants of ammonia given
K3=83.3x2.1x10-2 = 1.7
𝑎𝑛2
4) Using grahams’s law of diffusion, Real gas eqn: (𝑃 + 𝑣2
) (𝑉 −
𝑛𝑏) = 𝑛𝑅𝑇
𝑃𝑥 = 400𝑚𝐻𝑔 = 0.53𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑛𝑅𝑇 𝑎𝑛2
𝑛𝑅𝑇 1 × 0.082 × 273 𝑃= − 2
𝑉 − 𝑛𝑏 𝑣
𝑉𝑥 = = = 42.24𝑑𝑚3
𝑃𝑥 0.53 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
If, 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 =
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
Also,
6.8
𝑃𝑂2 = 400𝑚𝐻𝑔 = 0.53𝑎𝑡𝑚 𝑛= = 0.4𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠
17
𝑛𝑅𝑇 𝑎𝑛2
𝑉𝑂2 = 42.24𝑑𝑚3 𝑝= −
𝑉 − 𝑛𝑏 𝑣 2
Hence, Where 𝑝 is the pressure
𝑉𝑥 42.24 𝑅 is the gas constant
Rate of diffusion of gas X = = = 𝑇 is the temperature
𝑡 36
1.17 𝑉 is the volume
𝑉𝑥 42.24 𝑎 = Correction factor for pressure =
Rate of diffusion of gas X = = =
𝑡 26 4.18
1.62 𝑏 =Correction factor for volume =
Thus, 0.0371
𝑇 = 33 + 273 = 306𝑘
𝑅𝑥 𝑀0
=√ 0.4 × 0.0821 × 306 × 0.42
𝑅0 𝑀𝑥 =
7 − (0.4 × 0.0371)
4.18 × 0.42
1.17 32 −
=√ 72
1.62 𝑀𝑥
19.6661 0.6688
− = 2.81𝑎𝑡𝑚
6.9852 49
32
0.72 = √
𝑀𝑥
6a. Gay-Lussac's Law states that the
32 pressure of a given mass of gas varies
(0.72)2 =
𝑀𝑥
directly with the absolute temperature of the
gas, when the volume is kept constant.
6(b) If temperature is constant then its
Boyle’s law application: 𝑃1 𝑉1 = 𝑃2 𝑉2
𝑉1 = 24.8c𝑚3 𝑃1 = 1.12𝑎𝑡𝑚
𝑉2 = ? 𝑃2 = 2.04𝑎𝑡𝑚
𝑃1 𝑉1 112 24.8
Thus, 𝑉2 = = = 10.52𝑐𝑚3 =
𝑃2 2.04
10.52𝑑𝑚3
1000

𝑉2 = 0.001𝑑𝑚3 𝑜𝑟 0.001𝐿𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠
6(c) molar mass of oxygen gas = 16x2
𝑀 = 32𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝐴𝑡 𝑠𝑡𝑝, 𝑇 = 273𝐾, 𝑃 = 1𝑎𝑡𝑚
𝑃𝑀 1 × 32
𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = =
𝑅𝑇 0.0821 × 272
= 1.427𝑔/𝑑𝑚3
 FEDERAL UNIVERSITY OF 4. Given that (𝑋 2 − 3𝑋 − 1)𝑌 2 + 16𝑌 + 11
TECHNOLOGY OWERRI and 3𝑌 2 + (𝑀 − 1)2 𝑌 = 12 are identical
polynomials. Find the value of X?
JOINT UNIVERSITY PRELIMINARY
EXAMINATION BOARD (JUPEB) A. −1 𝑜𝑟 4 B. −3 𝑜𝑟 5 C.-1 or -4 D.-
2020/2021 HARMATTAN SEMESTER 3 or -4 E. -1 or -2
EXAMINATION 5. Out of 400 students in a school, 200
MTH-001 TIME: 2hours registered mathematics and 9 students
registered both mathematics and agricultural
INSTRUCTION: answer all questions in science. If 100 students registered neither
SECTION A [Multiple Choice Questions mathematics nor agricultural science, how
MCQ] by shading the correct options many students registered only agricultural
from A-D, and TWO questions in science?
SECTION B [Essay Questions], ONE
from each course A. 8 B. 89 C.109 D.98 E. 100

SECTION A: Multiple choice Questions 6. it is known that the sum to infinity of a

(MCQ) geometric series is nine times its first term.
Determine the common ratio of the
1. The sum of the first three terms of a geometric series?
19
geometric progression is and its common 1 1 1 8 1
9 A. B. C. D. E.
2 9 27 3 9 81
ratio is . Find the third term of the
3
geometric progression? 7. Given that 𝑔1 (𝑥) = (𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 +
1) and 𝑔2 (𝑥) = 4𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 1, find an
4 2 4
A. B. 1 C. D. E. 0 expression for 𝑔1 (𝑥) − 𝑔2 (𝑥).
27 3 9

2. Solve completely for a in 9 log 𝑎 5 = A.𝑥 3 + 7𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 4 B. 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 −

log 5 𝑎. 7 C. 7𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 1 D. 4𝑥 3 +
1 1
7𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 1 E. 4
A. 25 B. 125 C. D. E. 625
125 25
8. if 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 7, find 𝑓(2).
3. Let 𝑄, 𝑁, 𝑍, 𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑄𝑐 denote the set of
A. 6 B. 4 C.5 D.17 E. 11
Rational, Natural, integer, Complex and
Irrational numbers respectively. Which of 9. Find the value of x at which the function
the following set contains the centre set of 𝑦 = 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 3 is minimum
real numbers?
A. −4 B. −3 C. 5 D.2 E. 6
𝑐
A. 𝑁⋃𝑍 B. 𝑍⋃𝐶 C. 𝑄⋃𝑄 ⋃{0} D. 𝑄⋃𝐶 1 1 −2 1
E. { } 10. if ( ) ( ) = 𝐾 ( ), find the value
1 3 4 5
of k.
A. 5 B. 2 C.1 D.3 E. 4 9 −6 153 2 4 69
C. ( ) C. ( )
3 11 9 −1 0 21
11. Find the value of x for which 6𝑥 − 8 −
𝑥 2 is a minimum. A. 3 B. −2 C. -3 D.2 20. Find the sum and product of the roots of
E. 1 the quadractic equation 3𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 6 = 0,

12. if 𝐻 = {𝑐, 𝑒, 𝑓} and 𝐺 = {𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐}, then A. 5/3, 2 B. -5/3, -2 C. -5/3 D. 5/3, -2 E.
H∩G equals A. {𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, 𝑑, 𝑒, 𝑓} B. {𝑎, 𝑓} C. 2/3, 2
{𝑏, 𝑐} D. ∅ E. {𝑐} 21. Solve
6
<6+
5
𝑥2 𝑥
13. if 𝑋 = {1,2,3,4}, what is the cardinality 3 3
of the power set of X. A. 8 B. 2 C. 16 D. A. {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 < } ⋃ {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 > }
2 2
32 E. 4 3 3
B. {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 < − } ⋃ {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 > − }
2 2
14. Given that 𝐺 = {ℎ, 𝑒, 𝑎, 𝑝} and 𝐻 =
{𝑙, 𝑎, 𝑘, 𝑒}, find H⋃G. A. {ℎ, 𝑒, 𝑎, 𝑝} B. 3 3
C. {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 < − } ⋃ {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 > − }
2 3
{𝑝, 𝑙, 𝑘} C. {𝑎, 𝑒} D. {𝑝, 𝑒, 𝑘} E. ∅
1 3
2
15. Factorize the function, 10𝑥 + 17𝑥 + 3. D. {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 < } ⋃ {𝑥𝜖: 𝑥 > }
2 2
A. (2𝑥 + 3)(5𝑥 + 1) B. (5𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 17) 22. Find all real numbers x which satisfy the
C. (2𝑥 + 3)(10𝑥 + 3) D. (10𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 1 1
inequality (𝑥 + 1) − 1 > (𝑥 + 4).
17) E. (2𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 17). 3 5

16. What is the value of the discriminant of A. 22 B. 11 C. 10 D. 20 E. 21

the equation, 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 2 = 0 23. Find the range of values of x for which
A. 6 B. 9 C.4 D.17 E. 18 |𝑥 + 5| < 2. A. 3 < 𝑥 < −7 B. −3 <
17. What is the remainder when 𝑥 2 + 8 is 𝑥 < −7 C. 3 < 𝑥 < 7 D. −3 < 𝑥 < −7
divided by 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 4 24. If the first term of a G.P is twice the
A. 𝑥 + 2 B. 2𝑥 + 3 C. 𝑥 + 4 D. 𝑥 + 3 E.0 common ratio, what is the first term if the
sum to infinity is 2.
18. The mapping in which every element of A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 E. 6
the codomain is an image of only one
element of the codomain is an image of only 25. The sum to infinity of a G.P is four times
2
one element of the domain is called its first term, find its common ratio. A. B.
3
__________ mapping (a) onto (b) composite 1 3 −3 −2
C. D. E.
(c) one to one (d) conjective 3 4 4 3

1 −2 3 26. Find the remainder when 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 −

19. Given A= ( ), find 3A, 2 is divided by x+3. A. 23 B. -23 C. 13 D.
3 2 51
-13 E. 12
3 −6 9 3 −9 6
A. ( ) B. ( )
9 6 153 6 6 153
 3 1 𝑥 36. Find the constant term in the expansion
27. if the matrix 𝐴 = (𝑥 1 0 ) is 1 6
2 1 2𝑥 of (𝑥 2 + ) A. 172 B. 32 C. 84 D. 20
𝑥2
singular, find the values of x. A. 0 or 4 B. 0 E. 10
or 1 C. 2 or 0 D. 0 or 3 E. 1 or 0 1 𝜋
37. Evaluate 𝑒 −2+2 𝑖 . A. 1/√𝑒 B. 1/𝑒 2
28. Find the point which divides the line 1
with points (-1, -4) and (-5, 6) in the ratio 3:4 C. 𝑒 2 D. 𝑒 −1 E. 𝑒 −5
19 2 −19 2 −19 −2 38. Find the value of θ which satisfies the
A. ( , ) B. ( , ) C. ( , ) D.
7 7 7 7 7 7 equation, 4𝐶𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 − 3 = 0.
−19 −2 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
( 7
,
7
) E. (2,7) A. B. 𝜋 C. D. E. – 𝜋
2 4 6
29. Calculate the distance between the points 𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝜃
39. Simplify A. 𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝜃 B. 1 −
(4,1) and (2,-2) A. 16 B. 3.16 C. 2.16 D. 1+𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃
1.16 E. 5.16 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 C. 1 − 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃 D. 𝑆𝑖𝑛 2𝜃 E. 1 + 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃
3 1 1
− 2 40. given that 𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = , what is the value
30. Evaluate (625) 4 × (1024) , A. 10 √2
5
−2 1 −1 of 23 𝑆𝑖𝑛 2𝜃. A. 1 B. -1/2 C. 2 D. ¼ E. 0
B. C. 2 D. E.
5 5 5
41. All except one are equal A.
31. What is the modulus of the complex 𝑡𝑎𝑛45 0
B. 𝑡𝑎𝑛225 0
C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛1350
number 𝑍 = 3 − 4𝑖. A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. -7 D. 𝑡𝑎𝑛4050 E. None of the above
E. 0
42. Find the quotient of the complex
32. Find the tenth term of (1 + 𝑥)13 numbers, 𝑍1 = 12(cos 840 + 𝑖 sin 840 )
A. 356𝑥 5 𝑦 8 B. 715𝑥 4 𝑦 9 and 𝑍2 = 3(cos 350 + 𝑖 sin 350 )
C.735𝑥 6 𝑦 7 𝐷. 315𝑥 4 𝑦 9 D. 315𝑥 2 𝑦 9
A. 4(cos 490 + 𝑖 sin 490 )
33. The first three terms in the binomial
2 B. 36(cos 1190 + 𝑖 sin 1190 )
expansion of (1 + 𝑎𝑥)𝑛 are 1 + 2𝑥 + 𝑥 2 .
5 C. 36(cos 490 + 𝑖 sin 490 )
Find the value of a and n respectively. A.
1/3, 6 B. 2,3 C. 1/3, 2 D. 2,6 E. 2,5
34. Find the third term in the expansion in
the binomial expansion of (𝑥 + 𝑦)7 A.
84𝑥 3 𝑦 4 B. 56𝑥𝑦 6 C. 64𝑥 4 𝑦 3 D. 21𝑥 3 𝑦 2
35. Find the fifth term of (1 − 𝑥)10 A.
−252𝑥 5 B. 45𝑥 2 C.−10𝑥 𝐷. 210𝑥 4 D.
10𝑥
SECTION B 4 −2 5
first 2𝐴 = 2 [−1 −7 10 ]
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ANY 0 1 −3
THREE (3) QUESTIONS
8 −4 10
1(b) given the matrix below, compute 2𝐴 = [−2 −14 20 ]
4 −2 5 0 2 −6
determinant of 2A, 𝐴 = [−1 −7 10 ]
= 8(84 − 40) − −4(12 − 0)
0 1 −3
+ 10(−4 − 0)
2(a) use crammer’s rule to determine the
solution to the following system of linear = 352 + 60 − 40 = 372
equations, ∴ 2𝐴 = 372
𝑥1 − 2𝑥2 + 3𝑥3 = −2
−2𝑥1 + 𝑥2 − 2𝑥3 = 3 2 (a) use crammer’s rule to determine the
2𝑥1 − 𝑥2 + 3𝑥3 = 1 solution to the following system of linear
equations,
4(a) obtain the values of 𝜃 between 00 and
3600 which satisfy 6𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 + 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 1 = 0 𝑥1 − 2𝑥2 + 3𝑥3 = −2

4(b) find the square root of −8𝑖 + 6𝑗 −2𝑥1 + 𝑥2 − 2𝑥3 = 3

5(a) find all the solutions of 𝑍 3 = 1 2𝑥1 − 𝑥2 + 3𝑥3 = 1

5(b) find the middle term in the expansion of In matrix form:

14 1 −2 3 −2
𝑥2
(1 − 2
) [−2 1 −2] = [ 3 ]
6(a) solve the inequality 2 −1 3 1
5𝑥 − 1 1 − 2𝑥 Using crammers rule,
− ≤8+𝑥
3 5
consider a 3 × 3 system of equations.
6(b) solve the simultaneous equations
2𝑥 . 4−𝑦 = 2
3−𝑥 . 92𝑦 = 3

Solution 𝐷𝑥 𝐷𝑦 𝐷𝑧
𝑥= ,𝑦 = ,𝑧 = ,𝐷 ≠ 0
𝐷 𝐷 𝐷
1(b) determinant of 2A where
 𝐷𝑥 𝐷𝑦 𝐷𝑧
𝑥= ,𝑦 = ,𝑧 = ,𝐷 ≠ 0
𝐷 𝐷 𝐷

8 8 −28 28 −13
If we are writing the determinant Dx, we 𝑥= = − ,𝑦 = = ,𝑧 =
−3 3 −3 3 −3
replace the x column with the constant 13
column. If we are writing the determinant =
3
Dy, we replace they column with the
constant column. If we are writing the 4(a) 6𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 + 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 1 = 0
determinant Dz, we replace the z-column
with the constant column. Always check the Let, 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 𝑥 … . . (𝑖)
answer. Then, 6𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 1 = 0 solve for x
1 −2 3 quadractically
𝐷 = [−2 1 −2] By using factorization method
2 −1 3
6𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0
= 1(3 − 2) − −2(−6 − −4) + 3(2 − 2)
6𝑥(𝑥 + 1) + −1(𝑥 + 1) = 0
= 1 − 4 + 0 = −3
Hence,
−2 −2 3
𝐷𝑥 = [ 3 1 −2] 𝑥 + 1 = 0 𝑜𝑟 6𝑥 − 1 = 0
1 −1 3 1
𝑥 = −1 𝑜𝑟 𝑥=
= −2(3 − 2) − −2(9 − −2) + 3(−3 − 1) 6
1
= −2 + 22 − 12 = 8 The real value of 𝑥 = by substituting for x
6
1 −2 3 in eqn(ii)
𝐷𝑦 = [−2 3 −2] 1
2 1 3 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃 =
6
= 1(3 − 3) − −2(−6 − −4) + 3(−2 − 6) 1
𝜃 = sin−1 ( ) = 9.60
= 0 − 4 − 24 = −28 6
1 −2 2
𝐷𝑧 = [−2 1 3] 14
𝑥2
2 −1 1 5(b) (1 − 2
)
= 1(1 − −3) − −2(−2 − 6) + 2(2 − 2) Here, n is even, therefore middle term is
14+2
= 3 − 16 + 0 = −13 ( ) 𝑡ℎ term:
2
It means 𝑇8 is middle term, 4. The equation of the tangent to the circle 2𝑥 2 +
2𝑦 2 = 30 at the point (-3, 6) is ______
7
𝑥2 429 14
𝑇8 = 14𝐶7 (− ) = − 𝑥 A. 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 15 = 0 B. 𝑥 − 𝑦 − 15 = 0
2 16
C. 𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 5 = 0 D. 𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 15 = 0
5𝑥−1 1−2𝑥
6(a) − ≤8+𝑥 2(−3+ℎ)2 −18
3 5 5. Evaluate lim { }
𝑥→0 ℎ
5(5𝑥 − 1) − 3(1 − 2𝑥) ≤ 120 + 15𝑥 A. 6 B. 13 C. -12 D. 21
25𝑥 − 5 − 3 + 6𝑥 ≤ 120 + 5𝑥 6. The position of an object in motion at any time (t)
is given by 𝑠 = 3𝑡 3 − 5𝑡 − 2. Obtain the velocity
Collect like terms;
of the object after 2seconds.
31𝑥 − 8 ≤ 120 + 15𝑥 A. 31m/s B. 36m/s C. 18m/s D. 20m/s
31𝑥 − 15𝑥 ≤ 120 + 8 𝑦
7. Find 𝑦 ′ for 𝑥𝑦 = 1 A. 2 B. 𝑦 C.− 𝑥 D. − 𝑥 2
𝑥 1 1

16𝑥 ≤ 128
8. 𝑣 = 50𝑠𝑖𝑛30𝑡 volts represents an alternating
𝑥≤8 voltage, v where t is the time in seconds. At a time
of 2seconds, find the rate of change of voltage.
A. 25 volts B. 250 volts C. 50 volts D. 750 volts
9. Differentiate (𝑥 + 𝑦)2 = 5 A. -4 B. 4 C. 0 D. 2
FEDERAL UNIVERSITY OF 𝑥 2 +4𝑥−12
10. Evaluate lim { }
TECHNOLOGY OWERRI 𝑥→−3 𝑥 2 −2𝑥

JOINT UNIVERSITY PRELIMINARY A. -4 B. 4 C. 0 D. 2

EXAMINATION BOARD (JUPEB) 11. The distance s in meter(m) moved by a particle
in time t in seconds (s) is given by 𝑠 = 1.5𝑡 2 − 𝑡.
2020/2021 HARMATTAN SEMESTER What is the speed after t seconds ? A. 3𝑡 𝑚/𝑠 B.
EXAMINATION (3t-1) m/s C. (3t+1) m/s D. (1 − 3𝑡)𝑚/𝑠
MTH-002 TIME: 2hours 𝑑𝑦
12. if 𝑦 = 2 sin 5𝜃, find 𝑑𝑥 A. 2𝐶𝑜𝑠5𝜃 B.
1. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑥 − 2, 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 𝑓 −1 (𝑥) 5𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝜃 C. 10𝐶𝑜𝑠5𝜃 D. −2𝑆𝑖𝑛5𝜃
𝑥 2𝑥 3 2𝑥 2 3 𝑑𝑦
A. 𝑦 = 2 + 1 B. 𝑦 = +2 C. 𝑦 = +3 13. if 𝑦 = 𝑥 , 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑒 𝑑𝑥
3 3
3 1 1
𝑥
D. 𝑦 = 3 + 3
2 A.− 𝑥 2 B.𝑥 −2 C.3𝑥 2 D.𝑥 2

2𝑥 3 +𝑥 2 −5 14.find the gradient of the curve 𝑦 = 6𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 2

2. Evaluate lim { 𝑥 2 +2𝑥+1 } A. 4 B. 0 C. 2 D. ∞ 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑛 = 1
𝑥→−3

sin 2𝑥 A. 12 B. 9 C. 3 D.6
3. Evaluate lim { }
𝑥→0 𝑥
15.If 𝑓(𝑥) = √𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 6, 𝑒𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑔(𝑓(𝑥))
A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. does not exist
A.11 B.√31 C.6 D.5
 16. If 𝑓(𝑥)𝑖𝑠 = 1 − 4𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑔(𝑥) = [𝑥] + 2, 28. Differentiate ln(2𝑥 2 + 5)

𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)) 𝑖𝑠 5 4 2𝑥 4𝑥
A. B. C. D.
2𝑥 2 +5 2𝑥 2 +5 2𝑥 2 +5 2𝑥 2 +5
A. −7 − 4[𝑥] B.9 − 4[𝑥] C. [1 − 4𝑥] + 2
29. if y = 𝑒 −𝑎𝑥 ,find (𝑦” + 2𝑎𝑦’) in terms of y
D. (1 − 4𝑥)([𝑥] + 2)
A. 𝑦 2 B. (𝑎𝑦)2 C. 𝑎2 𝑦 D. −𝑎2 𝑦
17. 𝑓: [(𝑥, 𝑦): −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1, 𝑦 = √1 − 𝑥 2 ]. what is the
range of f? 30. if 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 −𝑎𝑥 , find 𝑓(𝑥 + 3) − 𝑓(𝑥) in terms of
𝑓(𝑥)
A. [0,1] B. (0,1) C. (-1,1) D. (-∞, ∞)
15 13
A. 𝑓(𝑥) B. 𝑓(𝑥) C. 26 𝑓(𝑥) D. 27 𝑓(𝑥)
𝑑2 𝑦⁄ 2 2
18.If y=3𝑥 3 − 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥.Find
𝑑𝑥 2 0 2+1
31. Evaluate ∫−1 𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
A. 9𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 5 B. 9𝑥 2 + 5 C.18𝑥 − 2 D. 9𝑥 2 −
𝑒−1 1−𝑒 𝑒 1
5 A. B. C. 3 D.
3 3 3
19.If 𝑦 = 𝑥(𝑥 6 − 1), find the range for which 𝑦 = 0 𝜋 𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝜃−1
32.Find the value of ∫0 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃
𝑑𝜃
A. (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞) B.(−1, −∞) ∪ (0, ∞)
𝜃 𝜃
C. [−1,00 ∪ [0,1] D. (−∞, ∞) A. 𝜃 B. C. − D. −𝜃
2 2

20.Find the derivative of 𝑦 = (3 + 2𝑥)(1 − 𝑥). 33. Evaluate ∫ tan 𝑥 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥

A. −1 − 4𝑥 B.𝑥 − 1 C. −4𝑥 + 1 D. −4𝑥 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝑥 𝑠𝑒𝑐 4 𝑥 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥
A. 2
+𝑐 B. 4
+ 𝑐 C.𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 + 𝑐 D. 2
+𝑐
3
21. Evaluate ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
34. Find 𝑓^1(𝑥) if 𝑓(𝑥) = √𝑥 (𝑥 + 1)
𝑐𝑜𝑠3 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠4 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠3 𝑥
A. 3 -cos 𝑥 + 𝑐 B. 3 + c C. 3 - sin 𝑥 + 𝑐
A. -1 B.0 C.2 D.1
𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥
D. 3 - cos 𝑥 + 𝑐 E. 4 + 𝑐
35.Given 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 − 11, 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 𝑓(3 − 𝑡).
22. Evaluate the following integral ∫ 𝑖𝑛 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 A. 𝑡 2 + 2 B. 𝑡 2 − 2 C. −𝑡 2 − 2 D. −𝑡 2 + 2
A. 𝑥 ln 𝑥 + 𝑐 B. 𝑥 ln 𝑥 − 𝑥 + 𝑐 C.𝑥 ln 𝑥 + 𝑒 𝑥 36.Given the functions 𝑓(𝑥) and 𝑔(𝑥),suppose we
ln 𝑥 2
D. 𝑥 ln 𝑥 − 𝑥 4 + 𝑐 E. 2
+𝑐 have 𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑥−𝑐 𝑓(𝑥) = ∞ and 𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑥−𝑐 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝐿, for
𝑔(𝑥)
some real numbers, c and L, then 𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑥→𝑐 (𝑓(𝑥)) =
23. find the area of the region bounded by the a axis
……. A. ∞ B. −∞ C. 0 D.1

37. Find the domain of the function 𝑓(𝑧)= [𝑧 − 6] − 3

8𝑥−25
25. Evaluate the following int-1egrals ∫ 4𝑥2 −25𝑥=+75 𝑑𝑥 A. R B.𝑅 + C. 𝑅 − D.(−3, ∞)
𝑥 sin 2𝑥
A.ln(4𝑥 2 − 25𝑥 + 75) B. ln(10𝑥 2 -25𝑥 75) 38. Find the derivative of the function 𝑦 = 2 - 4
2
C. ln(8 − 25) D. ln 4𝑥 -𝑥 + 75
A. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 B. 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝑥 D. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥
𝑑𝑦
26. Find 𝑑𝑥 if = 2 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑡 and 𝑦 = 5+ sec 𝑡
39. if 𝑓(𝑥) = ln 𝑥, evaluate 𝑓(𝑒 𝑥+2 ) 𝑓(𝑥 𝑛 ) for the
A. tan 𝑡
1
B. − 2 𝑠𝑒𝑐 3t
1
C. 2 𝑠𝑒𝑐 3 t D. 𝑠𝑒𝑐 3 t value of 𝑛.

A.0 B.1 C. n D.-𝑛

27. Evaluate ∫ 𝑘𝑑𝑥, where k is constant
40. Given the function 𝑓 (𝑥) = 2 + 𝑒 𝑥 , find 𝑓 −1 (𝑥).
A. 𝑘𝑥 + 𝐶 B. 𝐾 + 𝐶 C. 𝑥 + 𝐶 D. K𝑥 2 + 𝐶
 A. ln(𝑥 − 𝑒 𝑥 ) B. ln(𝑥 + 2) C. ln(𝑥 − 2) D. ln(𝑒 𝑥 -2) A. 𝑦1 = 𝑦 tan 𝑥 B. 𝑦1 = 𝑦 cos 𝑥 C. 𝑦 1 = 𝑦 sin 𝑥 D. 𝑦1 = 𝑦 cot 𝑥

41. The present value 𝑃 of a continuous cash flow of 49. Carbon decomposes at a rate proportional to the
#2,000 per year earning 6% compounded continuously amount Q present. Express the above physical
10 statement on differential equation form.
over 10 years is given as P= ∫0 2000𝑒 −0.06𝑡 𝑑𝑡 Find 𝑃
𝑑𝐾 𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑄
2000 2000 A. = 𝑟𝑄 B. 𝑑𝑡 = 𝐾𝑄 C. 𝑑𝑡 = −𝐾𝑄 D. 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑄 2
A. − 0.06 (𝑒 −0.06 − 1) B. − 0.06 (𝑒 −0.06 + 1) 𝑑𝑡
2000 −0.06 2000 0.06
C. 0.06
(𝑒 − 1) D. 0.06
(𝑒 − 1) 50.Compute the Wronskian of the pair of functions
{sin 𝑥 , cos 𝑥} A. 1 B.-1 C.0 D.∞
42. A lake is stocked with 500 fish and their
population increase accordingly to the logistic curve
10000
𝑃 (𝑡) = −1⁄ where 𝑡 is measure in months.
1+19𝑒 3
What is the limiting size of the population.
Essay
A. 19 B. 1 C. 1,000 D. 10,000
1.(a) obtain the differential equation
43. A bacterial culture is growing according to the
1.25 associated with the general solution 𝑦 =
logistic growth function 𝑦 = 1+0.25𝑒 0.41 𝑡 ≥ 0;
where 𝑦 is the weight of the culture in grams and 𝑡 is
𝐴𝑒 3𝑥 + 𝐵𝑒 4𝑥 , where A and B are arbitrary
the time in hours. Find the weight of the culture after constant.
0 hours A. 1g B. 1.07g C. 1.25g D. 1.24g
(b) Show that the first order differential
44. If the annual rate of inflating averages 5% over the equation given below is homogenous and
next 10 years, the approximate cost of goods or services hence solve
during any year in that decade is 𝐶(𝑡) = 𝑃(1.05)𝑡 ;
where 𝑡 is the time in years and 𝑃 is the present cost. It 𝑑𝑦 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2
the price of an oil change for your car is presently =
𝑑𝑥 𝑥𝑦
#24.95, estimate the price 10 years from now.

A. #24.95(1.05)10 B. #24.95(1.05)0.5 C.- 2(a) solve the following IVP using

#24.95(1.05)10 D. #24.95(1.05)0.10 separation of variables
𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 + 1)𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
45. After t years the value of a car purchased for { 𝜋
3
#20,000 is 𝑉 (𝑡) = 20,000, (4)1 Determine the value 𝑦(1) =
2
of the car 2 years after it was purchased.
(b) find the general solution of the
A. #1,250 B. #10,250 C. 5,000 D. 1,250 homogenous differential equation
46. If = 𝑏(cos 𝑡 + 𝑡 sin 𝑡 ) and 𝑦 = 𝑏 (sin 𝑡 − 𝑡 cos 𝑡); 𝑦 ′′ + 5𝑦 ′ + 6𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑦
find 𝑑𝑥 in terms of 𝑡. A. sin 𝑡 B.cos 𝑡 C.cot 𝑡
3(a) find the equation of the tangent and
D.tan 𝑡
normal to the curve 𝑦 = 4𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 +
47.Whats are the points of the curve 𝑦 = 4𝑥 3 − 1 at the point 𝑥 = 1
15𝑥 2 − 18𝑥 + 79 where the gradient is zero?
1 1 1
(b) Air is being pumped into a spherical
A. 1, 3 B. ,3 C.− , −3 D.− , 3 balloon at a rate of 4cubic inches per minute.
2 2 2

48. Obtain the differential equation from the primitive Find the rate of change of the radius when
𝑦 = 𝐴 sin 𝑥 the radius is 1 inch
4.(a) find the equation of the tangent line to 𝑑𝑦 1+𝑣
∴𝑣+𝑥 =
𝑑𝑥 𝑣2
the curve 𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 = 9 at the point (2,3) 1 𝑣2
; 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑑𝑣
𝑥 1+𝑣
(b) Given that 4𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 + 𝐶𝑜𝑠4𝑡 and 𝑦 =
𝑑𝑦 1 𝑣2
4𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑡 − 𝑆𝑖𝑛4𝑡, find in terms of t and 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑑𝑥 𝑥 1+𝑣
𝜋
compute its value for 𝑡 = 𝑑𝑣
2

5. (a) find the area of the region bounded by ln 𝑥 = 2 ln[1 + 𝑣] + 𝑐 ; recall that 𝑦 =
𝑦
the curve 𝑦 = −𝑥 2 and the line 𝑦 = 𝑥 𝑣𝑥 ∴ 𝑣 =
𝑥
9−𝑥; 𝑥 = 3 𝑦
(b) Find lim 𝑓(𝑥) if 𝑓(𝑥) = { 𝑥 2−9 ∴ ln 𝑥 = 2 ln [1 + ] +𝑐
𝑥
𝑥→3
𝑥−3
; 𝑥≠3
𝑦
1 1
ln 𝑥 = 2 ln 1 + ln = 𝑐
𝑥
6. Evaluate the integral ∫0 𝑑𝑥, taking
1+𝑥
eight sub-intervals by the simpson’s rule. ∴ ln 𝑐 2 − ln 𝑦 = 𝑐.
2(a). 𝑥 sin 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 + 1) cos 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 = 0
SECTION B SOLUTION (𝑥 2 + 1) cos 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 = −𝑥 sin 𝑦 𝑑𝑥
cos 𝑦 −𝑥
1a. 𝑦 = 𝐴𝑒 3𝑥 + 𝐵𝑒 4𝑥 𝑑𝑦 = 2 𝑑𝑥
sin 𝑦 𝑥 +1
𝑑𝑦 cos 𝑦 𝑥
= 𝐴𝑥 𝑑⁄𝑑𝑥(𝑒 3𝑥 ) + 𝑏 × 𝑑⁄𝑑𝑥(𝑒 4𝑥 ) ∫ sin 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 = ∫ 𝑥 2+1 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑥

𝑑𝑦 𝑑 ∫ sec 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 =
−1 2𝑥
∫ 𝑥 2+1 𝑑𝑥
⇒ = 𝐴 × 𝑒 3𝑥 × (3x) + B × 𝑒 4𝑥 2
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑 ln|sec 𝑦 + tan 𝑦| =
−1
ln(𝑥 2 + 1) + 𝐶
× (4𝑥) 2
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦 1
= 3𝐴𝑒 3𝑥 + 4𝐵𝑒 4𝑥 . ln|sec 𝑦 + tan 𝑦| + ln|𝑥 2 + 1| = 𝐶
𝑑𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦 𝑥2+ 𝑦2 𝜋
1b. = For, 𝑦 (1) =
𝑑𝑥 𝑥𝑦 2
𝜋 𝜋 1
For the equation to be ln |sec 2 + tan 2 | + ln|12 + 1| = 𝐶
2
homogenous, when we input 1
∴ 𝐶 = ln 2
2
𝑦 = 𝑣𝑥 it ought to cancel out
∴
𝑑𝑦
=𝑣+𝑥
𝑑𝑦 ∴The general solution is;
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
1 1
ln|sec 𝑦 + tan 𝑦| + 2 ln|𝑥 2 + 1| − 2 ln 2 = 0
𝑑𝑦 𝑥 2 +(𝑣𝑥)2 𝑥 2 (1+𝑣)
∴ = =
𝑑𝑥 2(𝑣2) 𝑥2 1 𝑥 2 +1
= ln|sec 𝑦 + tan 𝑦| + ln( )=0
2 2
The equation is homogenous
2(b). 𝑦 ′′ + 5𝑦 ′ +6𝑦 = 0 𝑌 = 12 – 3.
Let y = 𝑚𝑒 𝑥 y = 𝑒 𝑚𝑥 ∴ the equation of the tangent is
𝑦 = 12 − 3 − 8𝑥 + 8
∴ 𝑦 ′′ = 𝑚𝑒 𝑥 y =𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑥
The normal of the line
𝑦 ′′ = 𝑚𝑒 𝑥 𝑦 = 𝑚2 𝑒 𝑚𝑥
−1 −1 −1
∴𝑚 𝑒2 𝑚𝑥
+5𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑥
+ 6𝑒 𝑚𝑥 = 𝑑𝑦 = at 𝑥 = 1 ∴=
12𝑥 2 12
𝑑𝑥

𝑚2 + 5𝑚 + 6 = 0 4 𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑟
3(b). V = × = 4𝜋𝑟 2
3𝜋𝑟 3 𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝑡
Solving gradually, we have 𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑟
= 4𝜋𝑟 2 ×
𝑚2 + 5𝑚 + 3𝑚 + 6 = 0 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑟
𝑚(𝑚 + 2) + 3(𝑚 + 2) = 0 4 = 4𝜋𝑟 2 ×
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑟 4
(𝑚 + 3) (𝑚 + 2) = ∴ 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝜋 = 3.142
𝑑𝑡 4𝜋𝑟 2
therefore 𝑚 = 3, 𝑚 = −2 𝑑𝑟
= 0.314 𝑓𝑡/𝑚𝑖𝑛
∴ 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑦11 + 5𝑦1 + 6𝑦 = 0 𝑑𝑡
𝑌 = 𝑒 −3𝑥 + 𝑒 −2𝑥 4(a)

3(a). y= 4𝑥 3 -4𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 + 1 ∴𝑥=1

𝑑𝑦
= 12𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 8 𝑎𝑡 𝑥 = 1
𝑑𝑥 5(a) given
𝑑𝑦 Curve 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 … … . . (𝑖)
∴ (1) = 12(1)2 = 8(1) + 8
𝑑𝑥
Line 𝑦 = 𝑥 … … . . (𝑖𝑖)
𝑑𝑦
= 12. Put (ii) in (i)
𝑑𝑥
𝐹(𝑥) = 4(1)3 – 4(11)2 + 8(1) ⟹ 𝑥 = −𝑥 2
+ 1 = 4−4+8+1 ⟹ 𝑥 = 0, 𝑥 = −1
𝐹(𝑥) = 9 − 𝑦 The area is given as
∴ 𝑦 = 9 , 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦1 = 12 1

𝑌 – 𝑦; = 𝑚 (𝑥-𝑥 1 ) ∫(𝑥 + 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥

0
𝑌 – 9 = 12(𝑥 − 1) 1
𝑥2 𝑥2
𝑌 = 12𝑥 – 12 + 9 ⟹[ + ]
2 3 0
 1 1 5 6 𝑦5 0.14
⟹ + =
2 3 6 7 𝑦6 0.13
𝑥 3 −9 8 𝑦7 0.11
5(b) lim =9−𝑥 9 𝑦8 0.1
𝑥→3 𝑥−3
Total 0.6 0.78 0.55
Now, Which can be shortened
(𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 − 3)
lim =9−𝑥 𝑏
ℎ
𝑥→3 𝑥−3 ∫ 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 ≈ [4𝐸 + 2𝑂]
𝑎 3

lim(𝑥 − 3) = 9 − 𝑥 Where h = width

𝑥→3

Thus, (3 + 3) = 9 − 3 ⟹ 6 F, L are first and last ordinates

Hence, it is continuous at 𝑥 = 3
E = even ordinates
6) The integration interval (b-a) = 1 − 0 =
O = odd ordinates
1𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
1
1 1/8
𝑏−𝑎 1−0 1 ∫ 𝑑𝑥, ≈ [(𝑦0 + 𝑦8 ) + 4(𝑦1 +. . . +𝑦7 )
So, ℎ = = = 0 1+𝑥 3
𝑛 8 8
+ 2(𝑦2 +. . . +𝑦6 )]
The values of 𝑥 at which 𝑦 is calculated are:
1
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 = [0.6 + 4(0.78) + 2(0.55)]
24

By Simpson’s rule the working can be 1

= [0.6 + 3.12 + 1.1]
arranged as follows to aid calculation: 24
1
By inputting the various values of x to the = × 4.82 = 0.2
24
1 1
ordinates of 𝑦𝑛 , ∫0 𝑑𝑥 .
1+𝑥 Note: it can be shown by exact methods that
X Y First Odd Even the integral is 0.2………..
and last ordinates ordinates
Ordinate i.e to say that the most preferable and
1 𝑦0 0.5 approximated method is the Simpson’s one
2 𝑦1 0.33
3 𝑦2 0.25 third but it is only limited to even numbers of
4 𝑦3 0.2 strips.
5 𝑦4 0.17