Father of Admission Test (FOAT)

[3rd Edition]

Mail Me: [email protected]

Prepared by: Mustakim Billah Bedar

Facebook Page Link: www.facebook.com/FOAT2023

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Applicant's Eligibility [PMSCS]

Applicants must satisfy any one of the following criteria:

• BSc (Engineering) in any discipline from any recognized University

• 4-year BSc (or 3-year Honors + 1-year MSc) in CS/CSE/IT/EEE/ECE/ETE or equivalent
• 4-year BSc (or 3-year Honors + 1-year MSc) in
Physics/Mathematics/Statistics/Geological/Sciences/Chemistry/Environmental Sciences
• 4-year BSc (or 3-year Honors + 1-year MSc) in any subject with at least 1-year PGD in CSE/IT or
equivalent

N.B. Candidates with third Division Class or CGPA below 2.50 at any level of their academic career are not eligible
to apply.

[Source: Admission Notice of CSE department]

Subjects to crack PMSCS Admission Test

1. Computer fundamental 8. Digital logics and Electronics

2. Programing (C and C++ with OOP) 9. Mathletics/Statistics and Probability
3. Data Structures and Algorithms 10. General Math
4. Microprocessor 11. IQ ICT related
5. Database 12. Basic English [Grammar (Specially
6. Data communication and Networking preposition, right form of verb), Synonym,
7. Operating System Antonym]

80% Questions from CSE Core Subjects (1-8 above)

Mark Distribution

Total 50 marks

MCQ 40*1=40, Written 10*1=10. [Recent Procedure]

MCQ 30*1=30, written 10*2=20. [Older Procedure]

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 Courses offered by PMSCS

Prerequisite Courses

1. Structured Programming 12. Database System

2. Object Oriented Programming 13. Simulation and Modeling
3. Discrete Mathematics 14. Computer Networks
4. Data Structures 15. Human Computer Interaction
5. Computer Architecture 16. Algorithm Analysis and Design
6. Operating Systems 17. System Analysis and Design
7. Data Communication 18. Multimedia Communication
8. Numerical Methods 19. Math Lab Programming
9. Signals and systems 20. Web Design and Programming
10. Computer Graphics 21. Computer Ethics & Cyber Law
11. Software Engineering

Core Courses:

1. Cloud Computing 21. Web Application Security

2. Software Design and Development 22. Neuro Informatics
3. Advanced Database Management System 23. Switching and Routing Technology
4. E-Commerce 24. Network Security
5. Advanced Operating Systems 25. Information Theory and Coding System
6. Artificial Intelligence and Expert System 26. Artificial Neural Networks
7. Parallel and Distributed Computing 27. Embedded System Engineering
8. Mobile and Wireless Communication Systems 28. Telecommunication Network Planning and Optimization
9. Network Management 29. Telemedicine and Telehealth
10. Software Project Management and quality Assurance 30. Adhoc Networks
11. Mobile Application Development 31. Digital Forensic
12. Digital Signal Processing 32. Robotics
13. Digital Image Processing 33. internet Engineering and IP Technology
14. Computer vision 34. internet Technologist and Applications
15. Medical imaging 35. Introduction to Data Science
16. Data Mining 36. Internet of Things and Sensor Networks
17. Industrial Automation Systems 37. Natural Language Processing
18. Health Informatics 38. Network Programming
19. Management information System 39. Machine Learning
20. Software Tasting

All the courses are not available right now. Approximately 35 courses are available in each session.

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

 Jahangirnagar University

Department of Computer Science and Engineering

initial Name Background

HA Dr. Mohammad Hanif Ali B.Sc(JU), MSc.(JU), PhD(UK)Professor
JKD Dr. Jugal Krishna Das B.Sc(Donetsk), MSc.(Donetsk), PhD(Kiev)Professor
MSU Dr. Mohammad Shorif Uddin B.Sc. Engg. (BUET), M.Tech.Ed. (Japan), Ph.D. (Japan)Professor
ZR Dr. Mohammad Zahidur Rahman B.Sc(BUET), MSc.(BUET), PhD(Malaysia) Professor
II Dr. Md. Imdadul Islam B.Sc. Engg. (BUET), MSc. Engg. (BUET), PhD (JU)Professor
LJR Dr. Liton Jude Rozario B.Sc(JU), MS(JU), PhD(JU)Professor
GM Md. Golam Moazzam B.Sc(JU), MS(JU) Professor, PHD (JU) (Coordinator)
IJ Dr. Israt Jahan B.Sc(BUET), MSc.(BUET), PhD (JU)Professor
HK Dr. Md. Humayun Kabir B.Sc(DU), MSc.(DU), PhD(Ireland)Professor
AKA Md. Abul Kalam Azad B.Sc(JU), MSc.(KTH, Sweden)Professor
ASMMR Dr. Abu Sayed Md. Mostafizur Rahaman B.Sc(JU), MSc.(Germany) PhD(JU)Professor
EI Dr. Md. Ezharul Islam B.SC. (JU), M.ENGG.(JAPAN), PHD(JAPAN)Associate Professor
MA Dr. Morium Akter Associate Professor
MMA Dr. Md. Musfique Anwar B.Sc (JU), MSc. (Japan), PhD (Australia) Associate Professor
SB Sarnali Basak BSC(JU), MSC (University of Edinburgh, UK)Assistant Professor
TH Tahsina Hashem B.Sc. (JU), M.Sc. Engg. (BUET)Assistant Professor
RJ Md. Rafsan Jani B.SC. (JU), MS(JU)Lecturer
SS Sabrina Sharmin B.Sc (JU)
MS (JU)
AM Anup Majumder BSc (JU)
MS (JU)
MAI Mohammad Ashraful Islam BSc(JU)
MSc(JU)
BA Bulbul Ahmed BSc(JU)
MSc(JU)

Department of Computer Science and Engineering: Staff members (Register office)

Mukul Vai: 01941336337
Rehana Mam: 01772131872
Sohid vai: 01762109478, 01935026111

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

 Waiver, Credit System and Cost

• CSE students having CGPA 3.00 or above gets waiver and completes 10 Subjects including project/thesis

(2 prerequisite+7 core + project/thesis)

• Other Students complete 13 subjects including project/thesis (5 prerequisite+7 core+ project/thesis)

• Students can take maximum 4 courses in a semester.

• Retake option is there but you have to pay some extra for that and if you extend any semester you will have

to pay more.

• 1 course = 3 credit and per credit 2.5k

• Overall cost 1 Lakh 40k (approx.) for Waived Students and 1 Lakh 65k (approx.)

• During admission you have to pay 53.5k

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

 Class Routine and Mark Distribution

• Classes are held on only Fridays. But sometimes classes are held on Saturday as a make up class and during

semester final Friday and Saturday both.

• There are four time slots. 2 classes Before Jumma Salah and 2 classes after that.

• Class duration 1.5 hours (sometimes more, sometime less than that)

• 100 marks for each course. 40 marks for assignments, quiz, CT etc. and rest 60 is written exam.

• Class routine gets changed frequently.

Reorganized by Mustakim Billah Bedar

 Let’s Begin Our Journey to Crack JU PMSCS Admission Test

We have seen that PMSCS mostly follows MCQ based on CSE major Subjects. Almost 80% mcq comes from
CSE and ICT related subjects. Rest 20% includes mathematics, analytical and English. Some mathematics
from differential calculus which is tough to answer. Some math from JSC, SSC, HSC general math book which
is not that tough. English includes mostly prepositions and right form of verb which is also quite easy. So, you
should focus on CSE based subjects MCQ as much as possible.

There are few subjects which is most popular for this admission test and it has seen that these topics are touched
much more than other subjects. These Subjects/ Topics are:

1. Computer Network
2. Programming
3. Database
4. Statistics and Probability
5. Math from series
6. Basic CSE relevant interview questions

So, you should have a clear and broad knowledge of these subjects/Topics.

It has seen that previous years questions are not repeating nowadays (After 2021). That’s why only reading and
learning previous years question answer is not enough. Everyone should contact my page and join google
classroom to learn the latest updated topics. Because the pattern changes frequently and I, always try to keep
myself updated with current situations.

They usually provide two sets of question paper colored differently and You just need to tick the correct answer.
There is no negative marking (so far). Earlier the questions used to be hard enough and that’s why students
obtaining 50% mark used to get chance. Recently we have seen that the questions are bit easy and that’s why
the percentage may get high. So you should keep a target to obtain more than 30 mark out of 50. There are
some tricks and tips to correct mcq. You should also apply this. To learn these tricks, watch my video.

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Programming
1. Who developed C language? 10. The default parameter passing mechanism is
a) Dennis Ritchie a) Call by values
b) Alan Kay b) Call by reference
c) Robert Lue c) Call by value result
d) James Gasoline d) None of these

2. A pointer is ……….. 11. Address stored in pointer variable is of………. type

a) address of a variable a) Integer
b) a variable for storing address b) Float
c) data type of an address variable c) Char
d) indication of the variable to be accessed next d) Array

3. By the process of linking, the resulting code is called 12. What is the size of c union?
as ____ a) C union is always 128 bytes
a) Executable code b) Size of the union is the total bytes of all elements of
b) Optional Code structure.
c) Link Code c) Size of the union is the size of largest element
d) None d) None of the above

4. In the ____ structure, the logical expression is 13. A pointer is

checked first. a) A keyword used to create variables

b) A variable that stores address of an instruction
a) While-loop c) A variable that stores address of another variable
b) For loo d) All of the above.
c) Do while loop
d) None 14. Which header file should be included to use function

5. How many values can be returned from a function? like malloc() and calloc()?

a) 1 a) memory.h
b) 2 b) stdlib.h
c) 3 c) dos.h
d) 4 d) string.h

6. A relational operator…… 15. FILE is of ……. type

a) assigns operand to another a) int type

b) yields a Boolean result b) char * type
c) logically combines two operands c) struct type
d) compares two operands d) None of the above

7. The keyword used to transfer control from a function 16. A mode which is used to open an existing file for both

back to the calling function is reading and writing is

a) switch a) W
b) goto b) W+
c) go back c) A+
d) return d) R+

8. Global variables are 17. Select a function which is used to write a string to a

a) Internal file
b) External a) pits()
c) Both internal and external b) putc()
d) None of the above c) fputs()
d) fgets(
9. Which of the following is a storage specifier?
a) enum
b) union
c) auto
d) volatile

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18. Select a function which is used to read a single 27. In the call by reference we pass ………….?
character from a file at a time? a) Value of the variable
a) fscanf() b) Address of variable
b) getch() c) Both value and address
c) fgetc() d) None of these
d) fgets()
28. A pointer variable can store …………….
19. Select a function which is used as a formatted output a) Constant value
file function b) Value of anther variable.
c) Address of another variable
a) printf() d) None of these.
b) fprintf()
c) puts() 29. Which of the following is input function?
d) fputs()
a) gets();
b) getch();
20. The data type of file pointer is c) getchar();
d) All of the above
a) int
b) double 30. Which is not the output function?
c) void
d) FILE a) puts();
b) puchar();
21. If there is an error while opening a file, fopen will c) putch();
d) None of the above
return
a) nothing 31. Array index is always starting from?
b) EOF a) 0
c) NULL b) 1
d) Depend on compiler c) 2
d) 3
22. getc() returns End of file when
a) getc() fails to read the character 32. Which is not the c keyword?
b) end of file is reached a) typedef
c) both a and b b) extern
d) none of the above c) register
d) local
23. Specify the two library functions that dynamically
allocates memory. 33. Uninitialized variable may have?
a) malloc() and memalloc() a) Garbage value.
b) mlloc() and memalloc() b) Cannot be zero
c) malloc() and calloc() c) Both
d) memalloc() and faralloc() d) None of these.

24. Which is not the selective control flow statement? 34. C has ………. keywords:
a) while a) 30
b) if b) 31
c) Switch-case c) 32
d) if-else d) 33

25. strcmp() function is used for ……………. 35. What is the only language that a computer
a) Copy two strings understands directly?
b) Compare two strings. a) English
c) Concatenation of two strings b) BASIC
d) None of these c) machine language
d) Assembly Language
26. Which function is related to dynamic memory
allocation?
a) malloc()
b) calloc()
c) realloc()
d) All of above.

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36. Functions used in programs that are defined by 45. Which of the following input function cannot be used
programmers are called? to input multiword string in a single function call?
a) program layout a) getche()
b) program procedure b) gets()
c) built-in functions c) scanf()
d) user-defined function d) None of above

37. An assembler translates 46. C is _______ type of programming language?

a) machine code into assembly code a) Object Oriented
b) assembly code into machine code b) Procedural
c) processing time into manual time c) Bit level language
d) routine into subroutine d) Functional

38. Variable which uses same name in whole program 47. C language was invented in which laboratories?
and in its all routines thus best classified as a) Uniliver Labs
a) middle variable b) IBM Labs
b) default variable c) AT&T Bell Labs
c) local variable d) Verizon Labs
d) global variable
48. C language was invented to develop which Operating
39. If the function returns no value then it is called ____ System?
a) Data type function a) Android
b) Calling function b) Linux
c) Main function c) Ubuntu
d) Void function d) Unix

40. Technique of using fixed words for machine code 49. Operator % in C Language is called?
functions is classified as a) Percentage Operator
a) mnemonics b) Quotient Operator
b) mechanics c) Modulus
c) compiler d) Division
d) translator

41. 'object program' is also called? 50. Which of the following are tokens in C?

a) program code a) Keywords

b) machine code b) Variables
c) assembler c) Constants
d) compiler d) All of the above

42. Data structure in which all elements have similar 51. What is the valid range of numbers for int type of

name is considered as data?

a) string structure a) 0 to 256

b) positive structure b) -32768 to +32767
c) array c) -65536 to +65536
d) data structure d) No specific range

43. Translation of assembly language into machine code 52. Character constants should be enclosed between ___

is a task of a) Single quotes

b) Double quotes
a) assembler c) Both a and b
b) programmer d) None of these
c) analysts
d) financer 53. String constants should be enclosed between ___

44. Which character is used to indicate the end of the a) Single quotes
b) Double quotes
string? c) Both a and b
a) Any alphabet d) None of these
b) A
c) Null
d) None of these

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54. The operator && is an example for ___ operator. d) restarts iterations from the beginning of the loop
a) Assignment
b) Increment 61. Which of the following is a keyword used for a
c) Logical storage class?
d) Rational a) printf
b) external
55. The operator & is used for c) auto
a) Bitwise AND d) scanf
b) Bitwise OR
c) Logical AND 62. The _______ chars have values from -128 to 127.
d) Logical OR a) signed
b) unsigned
56. Which of the following is a ternary operator? c) long
a) ?: d) none
b) *
c) sizeof 63. C supports the ______ statement to branch
d) ^ unconditionally from one point to another in the

57. The printf() function retunes which value when an program.

error occurs? a) continue
b) goto
a) Positive value c) break
b) Zero d) for
c) Negative value
d) None of these 64. A program which interprets each line of high-level
58. Null character is represented by program at time of execution is called
a) \n a) instructor
b) \0 b) interpreter
c) \o c) translator
d) None d) executor

59. Which among the following is an unconditional 65. All syntax errors are known as _____________
control structure? errors.
a) do-while a) Run-time
b) if-else b) Exception
c) goto c) Logical
d) for d) Compile-time

66. “Use of undeclared variables” is the ______________

60. Continue statement is used type of error.
a) to go to the next iteration in a loop a) Logical
b) come out of a loop b) Exception
c) exit and return to the main function c) Run-time
d) Compile-time a) Compile-time
b) Run-time
67. “Divided an integer by zero” is the example of c) Logical
____________ type of error. d) Exception

69. A pointer to a pointer is a form of

68. Which of the following is true about static variable? a) multiple indirections
a) It can be called from another function b) a chain of pointers
b) It exists even after the function ends. c) both a and b
c) It can be modified in another function by sending it as a d) None of these
parameter.
d) All of the above

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70. Which of the following is an example of compounded 78. Choose the correct statement about c structure
assignment statement? elements
a) a=5 a) Structure elements are stored on random free memory
b) a+=5 locations
c) a=b=c b) Structure elements are stored on register memory
d) a=b location
c) Structure elements are stored in contiguous memory
71. An array element is accessed using locations.
a) member name d) None of the above.
b) an index number
c) dot operator 79. What is actually passed if you pass a structure
d) a first in first out approach variable to a function?
a) Copy of structure variable
72. Choose correct statement about Functions in c b) Reference of structure variable
language c) Starting address of structure variable
a) A function is a group of statement which can be reused d) Ending address of structure variable
any number of times.
b) Every function has a return value 80. User defined data type can be derived by
c) Every function may not return a value. a) struct
d) All of the above b) enum
c) typedef
73. Choose correct statement about Functions in c d) All of the above
language
81. What is the main difference between structure and
a) A function name cannot be same as a predefined c
keyword. union?
b) A function name can start with an underscore. a) There is no difference
c) Default return type of any function is an integer. b) Union takes less memory
d) All of the above c) Union is faster
d) Structure is faster
74. Choose the correct statement about c language pass
by value. 82. The reason for using pointers in c program is

a) Pass by value copies the variable value in one more a) Pointers allow different functions to share and modify
memory location their local variable
b) Pass by value does not use pointers b) To pass large structures so that complete copy of the
c) Pass by value protect your source variable from changes structure can be avoided
in outside functions. c) Pointers enable complex linked data structures
d) All of the above d) All of the above

75. Which of the following cannot be static in C? 83. How will you free the allocated space?

a) Variable a) remove(variable-name)
b) Functions b) free(variable-name)
c) Structures c) delete(variable-name)
d) None of the above d) dealloc(variable-name)

76. Choose the correct statement about c structures. 84. What is the need of closing a file in c language?

a) Structure elements can be initialized at the time of a) fclose(fp) close a file to release the memory used in
declaration. opening a file.
b) Structure elements cannot be initialized at the time of b) closing a file clears buffer contents from RAM or
declaration. memory
c) Only integer members of the structure can be initialized c) unclosed files occupy memory and PC hangs when on
at the time of declaration low memory
d) None of the above d) all of the above

77. What is the size of c structure? 85. Which is the incorrect statement?

a) C structure is always 128 bytes a) An array is the collection of variables.

b) Size of the structure is the total bytes of all elements of b) All array variables have same type.
structure. c) Array variables can be used individually.
c) Size of the structure is the size of largest element d) None of these.
d) None of the above

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86. Which statement is wrong? 93. Why do variable names beginning with the
a) A function may have arguments. underscore is not encouraged?
b) A function may return value. a) It is not standardized
c) A function can be invoked many times in a single b) To avoid conflicts since assemblers and loaders use such
program. names
d) Function cannot be reused. c) To avoid conflicts since library routines use such names
d) To avoid conflicts with environment variables of an
87. Which is the incorrect statement? operating system
a) Variable name can contain underscore.
b) Variable name may start from digit. 94. Why is a macro used in place of a function?
c) Variable name may not have white space character. a) It reduces execution time.
d) Keyword can not be a variable name. b) It reduces code size.
c) It increases execution time.
88. Operators have precedence. Precedence determines d) It increases code size.
which operator is…………
a) faster 95. Which one of the following is a loop construct that
b) takes less memory will always be executed once at least?
c) evaluated first a) for
d) takes no arguments b) while
c) switch
89. p++ executes faster than p+1 because d) do while
a) p uses registers
b) p++ is a single instruction 96. The ………….. is an alternative for simple if-else
c) ++ is faster than + statement?
d) None of these
a) Conditional operator
b) Bitwise operator
90. What is the answer of: 7%3 c) Logical operator
d) None
a) 2.5
b) 1 97. A compiler compiles the source
c) 2
d) 3 code________________.
a) complete program in one stroke.
91. Which keyword is used to prevent any changes in the b) one line at a time.
variable within a C program? c) two lines at a time.
d) complete programs in two strokes.
a) immutable
b) mutable 98. ________ decides which operator is to be used first.
c) const
d) volatile a) Hierarchy.
b) Priority.
92. What is #include <stdio.h> c) ladder.
d) Precedence.
a) Preprocessor directive
b) Inclusion directive 99. If the size of the array is less than the number of
c) File inclusion directive
d) None of the mentioned initializers then ……….
a) Extra values are being ignored
b) Generates an error message
c) Size of Array is increased
d) Size is neglected when values are given

100. What is used as a terminator in C?

a) ?
b) ;
c) :
d) _

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Object Oriented Programming

1. Which of the these is the functionality of 9. Which of the following is not an OOPS concept?
‘Encapsulation’? a) Encapsulation
a) Binds together code and data b) Polymorphism
b) Using single interface for general class of actions. c) Exception
c) Reduce Complexity d) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned 10. Which feature of OOPS described the reusability of
code?
2. What is ‘Basis of Encapsulation’? a) Abstraction
a) object b) Encapsulation
b) class c) Polymorphism
c) method d) Inheritance
d) all of the mentioned
11. Which feature of OOPS derives the class from
3. How will a class protect the code inside it? another class?
a) Using Access specifiers a) Inheritance
b) Abstraction b) Data hiding
c) Use of Inheritance c) Encapsulation
d) All of the mentioned d) Polymorphism
4. Which of the following is a mechanism by which 12. Which operator from the following can be used to
object acquires the properties of another object? illustrate the feature of polymorphism?
a) Encapsulation a) Overloading <<
b) Abstraction b) Overloading &&
c) Inheritance c) Overloading | |
d) Polymorphism d) Overloading +=
5. Which of the following supports the concept of 13. Which operator overloads using the friend function?
hierarchical classification? a) *
a) Polymorphism b) ()
b) Encapsulation c) ->
c) Abstraction d) =
d) Inheritance
14. Which of the following definition is incorrect for
6. Which of the following concept is often expressed by polymorphism?
the phrase, ‘One interface, multiple methods’? a) Polymorphism helps in redefining the same functionality
a) Abstraction b) Polymorphism concept is the feature of object-oriented
b) Polymorphism programming (OOP)
c) Inheritance c) It always increases the overhead of function definition
d) Encapsulation d) Ease in the readability of the program

7. Who developed object-oriented programming? 15. Which among the following cannot be used for the
a) Adele Goldberg concept of polymorphism?
b) Dennis Ritchie a) Static member function
c) Alan Kay b) Constructor Overloading
d) Andrea Ferro c) Member function overloading
d) Global member function
8. In C++, a function contained within a class is called
a) a method
b) a class function
c) member function
d) none of these

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16. Which function best describe the concept of 24. Which of the following variable violates the definition
polymorphism in programming languages? of encapsulation?
a) Class member function a) Array variables
b) Virtual function b) Local variables
c) Inline function c) Global variables
d) Undefined function d) Public variables

17. ……. is not a member of the class? 25. The object cannot be________
a) Virtual function a) passed by copy
b) const function b) passed as function
c) Static function c) passed by value
d) Friend function d) passed by reference

18. Which member function is assumed to call first when 26. Which among the following feature does not come
there is a case of using function overloading or under the concept of OOPS?
abstract class? a) Data binding
a) Global function b) Data hiding
b) Local function c) Platform independent
c) Function with lowest priority d) Message passing
d) Function with the highest priority
27. Which of the following feature interacts one object
19. What is the extra feature in classes which was not in with another object?
the structures? a) Message reading
a) Member functions b) Message passing
b) Data members c) Data transfer
c) Public access specifier d) Data binding
d) Static Data allowed
28. Which definition best defines the concept of
abstraction?
20. Which of the following feature is also known as run- a) Hides the important data
time binding or late binding? b) Hides the implementation and showing only the features
a) Dynamic typing c) Hiding the implementation
b) Dynamic loading d) Showing the important data
c) Dynamic binding
d) Data hiding 29. The combination of abstraction of the data and code
is viewed in________.
21. Which of the following OOP concept binds the code a) Inheritance
and data together and keeps them secure from the b) Object
outside world? c) Class
d) Interfaces
a) Polymorphism
b) Inheritance 30. The principle of abstraction___________
c) Abstraction
d) Encapsulation a) is used to achieve OOPS.
b) is used to avoid duplication
22. Which member of the superclass is never accessible c) Use abstraction at its minimum
d) is used to remove longer codes
to the subclass?
a) Public member 31. To convert from a user-defined class to a basic type,
b) Protected member you would most likely use
c) Private member
d) All of the mentioned a) an overloaded = operator
b) a one-argument constructor
23. Which class cannot create its instance? c) a built-in conversion operator
d) a conversion operator that‘s a member of the class
a) Parent class
b) Nested class 32. The main function of scope resolution operator (::) is
c) Anonymous class
d) Abstract class a) To define an object
b) To define a data member
c) To link the definition of an identifier to its declaration
d) All of the given

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33. Which of the following operators always takes no 42. Which one of the following terms must relate to
argument if overloaded? polymorphism?
a) ++ a) Dynamic allocation
b) / b) Static typing
c) — c) Static allocation
d) + d) Dynamic binding

34. The keyword that is used that the variable cannot 43. Which one is not a class association?
change state? a) Composition
a) static b) Inheritance
b) friend c) Simple Association
c) private d) Aggregation
d) const
44. When a variable is defined as static in a class then all
35. In OOP a class is an example of object of this class
a) Data Type a) Have different copies of this variable
b) both a & d b) Have same copy of this variable
c) User Defined Type c) Cannot access this variable
d) Abstract Type d) None of these

36. Which operator cannot be overloaded? 45. When the base class and the derived class have a
a) The relation operator ( >= ) member function with the same name, you must be
b) Conditional operator (? : ) more specific which function you want to call using
c) Script operator ( [] )
d) Assignment operator ( = ) ___________
a) Operator overloading
37. A static member function cannot be declared b) null operator
a) Explicit c) scope resolution operator
b) Implicit d) dot operator
c) Static
d) Virtual 46. The compiler won‘t object if you overload the *
operator to perform division
38. We can get only one unique value which can be used
a) True
by all the objects of that class by the use of b) False
a) instance variables
b) dynamic variables 47. Default constructor is such constructor which either
c) static variables has no________ or if it has some parameters these
d) data members
have________ values
39. Friend functions are _____________ functions of a a) Parameter, default
b) Null, Parameter
class
c) Parameter, temporary
a) object member d) None of these
b) non-member
c) data member 48. Outside world can access only __________ members
d) None of these
of a class using its object
40. _______ remain in memory even when all objects of a) Public
b) Private
a class have been destroyed
c) Protected
a) Primitive variables d) No member is accessible
b) Instance variable
c) Static variables 49. A copy constructor is invoked when
d) None of these
a) an argument is passed by reference
b) an argument is passed by value
41. The return type of a constructor is of
c) a function returns by reference
a) Integer d) a function do not returns by value
b) No type
c) Double
d) Character

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50. __________ Operator will take only one operand 59. The object can’t be __________
a) New a) Passed by reference
b) int b) Passed by value
c) object c) Passed by copy
d) None of these d) Passed as function

51. Class is _________ abstraction. 60. How members of an object are accessed?
a) Object a) Using dot operator/period symbol
b) Logical b) Using scope resolution operator
c) Real c) Using member names directly
d) Hypothetical d) Using pointer only

52. When is a constructor called? 61. Object declared in main() function _____________
a) Each time the constructor identifier is used in a program a) Can be used by any other function
statement b) Can be used by main() function of any other program
b) During the instantiation of a new object c) Can’t be used by any other function
c) During the construction of a new class d) Can be accessed using scope resolution operator
d) At the beginning of any program execution
62. Which of the following option leads to the portability
53. ________ is automatically called when the object is and security of Java?
created a) Bytecode is executed by JVM
a) member function b) The applet makes the Java code secure and portable
b) object c) Use of exception handling
c) constructor d) Dynamic binding between objects
d) None of these
63. Which of the following is not a Java features?
54. Which of the following operators cannot be a) Dynamic
overloaded? b) Architecture Neutral
a) Scope resolution operator ( :: ) c) Use of pointers
b) Insertion operator ( << ) d) Object-oriented
c) Extraction operator ( >> )
d) The relation operator ( > ) 64. _____ is used to find and fix bugs in the Java
programs.
55. Which of the following best defines a class? a) JVM
a) Parent of an object b) JRE
b) Instance of an object c) JDK
c) Blueprint of an object d) JDB
d) Scope of an object
65. Which package contains the Random class?
56. Which header file is required in C++ to use OOP? a) java.util package
a) iostream.h b) java.lang package
b) stdio.h c) java.awt package
c) stdlib.h d) java.io package
d) OOP can be used without using any header file
66. What do you mean by nameless objects?
57. Object is ________ abstraction. a) An object created by using the new keyword.
a) Object b) An object of a superclass created in the subclass.
b) Logical c) An object without having any name but having a
c) Real reference.
d) Hypothetical d) An object that has no reference.

58. Which definition best describes an object? 67. Which option is false about the final keyword?
a) Instance of a class a) A final method cannot be overridden in its subclasses.
b) Instance of itself b) A final class cannot be extended.
c) Child of a class c) A final class cannot extend other classes.
d) Overview of a class d) A final method can be inherited.

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68. Which two features of object-oriented programming 74. Which statement is true about Java?
are the same? a) Java is a sequence-dependent programming language
a. Abstraction and Polymorphism features are the same b) Java is a code dependent programming language
b. Inheritance and Encapsulation features are the same c) Java is a platform-dependent programming language
c. Encapsulation and Polymorphism features are the same d) Java is a platform independent programming language
d. Encapsulation and Abstraction
75. Which component is used to compile, debug and
69. How can the concept of encapsulation be achieved in execute the java programs?
the program? a) JRE
a. By using the Access specifiers b) JIT
b. By using the concept of Abstraction c) JDK
c. By using only private members d) JVM
d. By using the concept of Inheritance
76. Which environment variable is used to set the java
70. Size of a class is _____________ path?
a) Sum of the size of all the variables declared inside the a) MAVEN_HOME
class b) CLASSPATH
b) Sum of the size of all the variables along with inherited c) JAVA
variables in the class d) JAVA_HOME
c) Size of the largest size of variable
d) Classes doesn’t have any size 77. What is the extension of compiled java classes?
a) .txt
71. Which of the following is the functionality of ‘Data b) .js
Abstraction’? c) .class
a) Reduce Complexity d) .java
b) Binds together code and data
c) Parallelism 78. Which exception is thrown when java is out of
d) None of the mentioned memory?
a) MemoryError
72. What do you mean by chained exceptions in Java? b) OutOfMemoryError
a) Exceptions occurred by the VirtualMachineError c) MemoryOutOfBoundsException
b) An exception caused by other exceptions d) MemoryFullException
c) Exceptions occur in chains with discarding the
debugging information 79. Which of these keywords can be used to prevent
d) None of the above Method overriding in Java?
73. Who invented Java Programming? a) final
b) protected
a) Guido van Rossum c) static
b) James Gosling d) constant
c) Dennis Ritchie
d) Bjarne Stroustrup
80. Which provides runtime environment for java byte
code to be executed?
a) A.JDK
b) B.JVM
c) C.JRE
d) D.JAVAC

81. Which Keyword from the following is used to inherit 82. Usually a pure virtual function
properties from one class into another? a) has complete function body.
a) extends b) will never be called.
b) subclasses c) will be called only to delete an object.
c) native d) is defined only in derived class.
d) all of the mentioned

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83. Java is developed by ___________________ 92. What keyword is used in Java to define a constant?
a) Sun Microsystems of USA a) static
b) Microsoft b) final
c) c)Adobe c) abstract
d) None d) private

84. _____________ is one of the java features that can 93. If two methods have same name but different
handle multiple tasks simultaneously. parameter list then it is called___________
a) Object-Oriented a) Method overriding
b) Dynamic & Extensible b) Method overloading
c) c)Platform-Independent c) Operator overloading
d) Multithreaded d) None of these

85. Java compiler translates source code into 94. ________ keyword does not allow a method to be
_____________ override in the subclass.
a) Bytecode (Virtual Machine Code) a) public
b) Bitcode b) abstract
c) Machine Code c) final
d) User code d) static

86. Java interpreter translates _____________ into 95. _____________ is caused when a conversion between
machine code. string and number fails.
a) Bitcode a) NullPointerException
b) Bytecode (Virtual Machine Code) b) NumberFormatException
c) Machine Code c) IOException
d) User code d) SecurityException

87. In java____________ tool helps us to find errors in 96. _____________________ is caused by bad array
our programs. indexes.
a) jhelp a) ArrayStoreException
b) javah b) ArithmeticException
c) javap c) IOException
d) jdb d) ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

88. The ____________ includes hundreds of classes and 97. In multilevel inheritance, which is the most
methods grouped into several function packages. significant feature of OOP used?
a) API
b) JVM a) Code efficiency
c) JAVAC b) Code readability
d) JRE c) Flexibility
d) Code reusability
89. The process of converting one date type to another is
called__________ 98. The copy constructors can be used to ________
a) Translating a) Copy an object so that it can be passed to another
b) Casting primitive type variable
c) Compiling b) Copy an object for type casting
c) Copy an object so that it can be passed to a function
d) Declaring
d) Copy an object so that it can be passed to a class
90. Java does not support ______________.
99. What happens when an object is passed by reference?
a) Operator overloading
a) Destructor is called at end of function
b) Global variable b) Destructor is called when called explicitly
c) Multiple inheritance c) Destructor is not called
d) All of above d) Destructor is called when function is out of scope

91. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Java supports operator overloading 100. Which feature of OOP is exhibited by the function
b) Java supports interfaces overriding?
c) Java supports pointers a) Polymorphism
d) Java supports multiple inheritance b) Encapsulation
c) Abstraction
d) Inheritance

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101. If class C inherits class B. And B has inherited class 106. How to overcome diamond problem?
A. Then while creating the object of class C, what will a) Using virtual keyword with same name function
be the sequence of constructors getting called? b) Using friend function
c) Using Static Keyword
a) Constructor of C then B, finally of A d) None
b) Constructor of A then C, finally of B
c) Constructor of C then A, finally B 107. What happens if non static members are used in
d) Constructor of A then B, finally C
static member function?
102. Which among the following is true for copy a) Compile time error
constructor? b) Run time error
c) Runs successfully
a) The argument object is passed by reference d) None
b) It can be defined with zero arguments
c) Used when an object is passed by value to a function 108. Where is the memory allocated for the objects?
d) Used when a function returns an object
a) RAM
103. Java Virtual Machine b) ROM
c) No Allocation
a) Acts as a full-fledged hypervisor d) None
b) Converts byte codes to Operating System dependent
code 109. Which feature of OOP is exhibited by the function
c) Is known as the Compiler of Java programming language
d) Manages system memory and provides a portable overriding?
execution environment for Java-based applications a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
104. Which of the following is not an object-oriented c) Inheritance
programming language? d) None

a) Pascal 110. Instance of which type of class can’t be created?

b) JAVA
c) C++ a) Abstract class
d) None b) Virtual class
c) New class
105. Which was the first purely object-oriented d) None

programming language developed? 111. Which feature in OOP is used to allocate additional
a) SmallTalk functions to a predefined operator in any language?
b) JAVA
c) C++ a) Operator Overloading
d) None b) Function Overloading
c) Function Overriding
d) None

112. Which among the following is false?

a) Object must be created before using members of a class
b) Memory for an object is allocated only after its
constructor is called
c) Objects can’t be passed by reference
d) Objects size depends on its class data member

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Computer Network MCQ

1. The communication mode that supports data in both 9. Transport layer of OSI model lies between Network
directions at the same time is……… and ___________ layer
a) simplex a) Application
b) half-duplex b) Data link
c) full-duplex c) Session
d) multiplex d) Presentation

2. Why was the OSI model developed? 10. Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?
a) manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite a) Application layer
b) the rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially b) Transport layer
c) standards were needed to allow any two systems to c) Network layer
communicate d) Data link layer
d) none of the above
11. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable?
3. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is a) A packet may be lost
__________ b) Packets may arrive out of order
a) 5 c) Duplicate packets may be generated
b) 7 d) All of the above
c) 6
d) 10 12. The Internet is an example of…….
4. CRC stands for __________ a) Cell switched network
b) circuit switched network
a) Cyclic redundancy check c) Packet switched network
b) Code repeat check d) All of above
c) Code redundancy check
d) Cyclic repeat check 13. What is the use of Ping command?
5. Who invented the modem? a) To test a device on the network is reachable
b) To test a hard disk fault
a) Wang Laboratories Ltd. c) To test a bug in an Application
b) AT & T Information Systems, USA d) To test a Pinter Quality
c) Apple Computers Inc.
d) Digital Equipment Corpn 14. The combination of an IP address and a port
6. Pure ALOHA has a maximum throughput of --------- number is known as___________
a) A.16.4 % a) network number
b) B. 18.4 % b) socket address
c) C. 7.4 % c) subnet mask number
d) D. 1 % d) MAC address

7. Which Project 802 standard provides for a collision- 15. Which of the following is reliable communication?
free protocol? a) TCP
b) IP
a) 802.2 c) UPD
b) 802.3 d) All of them
c) 802.5
d) 802.6 16. What is the size of Host bits in Class B of IP
8. The 802.5 standard implements a way for preventing address?
collisions on the network. How are collisions a) 04
b) 08
prevented when using this standard? c) 16
a) CSMA/CD d) 32
b) Token passing
c) Collision detection
d) Time sharing

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17. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for 25. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?
transferring electronic mail messages from one a) Vulnerability attack
machine to another? b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
a) FTP d) All of the mentioned
b) SNMP
c) SMTP 26. Which transmission media has the highest
d) RPC
transmission speed in a network?
18. Which of the following device is used to connect two a) coaxial cable
systems, especially if the systems use different b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
protocols? d) electrical cable
a) hub
b) bridge 27. The slowest transmission speeds are…….
c) gateway a) Coaxial cable
d) repeater b) Twisted pair wire
c) Fiber-optic cable
19. _______ can detect burst error of length less than or d) Microwave
equal to degree of the polynomial and detects burst
28. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?
errors that affect odd number of bits.
a) Indian Standard Digital Network
a) Hamming Code
b) Integrated Services Digital Network
b) CRC
c) Intelligent Services Digital Network
c) VRC
d) Integrated Services Data Network
d) None of the above
29. A small network making up the Internet and also
20. The PSTN is an example of a …………………
having a small numbers of computers within it is
network.
called…………
a) packet switched
b) circuit switched a) Host
c) message switched b) Address
d) None of these c) Subdomain
d) None of the above
21. A subset of a network that includes all the routers
30. The ____ translates internet domain and host names
but contains no loops is called
to IP address.
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure a) domain name system
c) spider tree b) routing information protocol
d) none of the mentioned c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
22. ICMP is primarily used for…………
31. Which address is the loopback address?
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing a) 0.0.0.1
c) forwarding b) 127.0.0.0
d) none of the mentioned c) 127.0.0.1
d) 255.255.255.255
23. FDDI is a
32. What is the port number for HTTP?
a) ring network
b) star network a) 99
c) mesh network b) 86
d) bus based network c) 80
d) 23
24. When displaying a web page, the application layer
33. With an IP address of 201.142.23.12, what is your
uses the…………
default subnet mask?
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol a) 0.0.0.0
c) SMTP protocol b) 255.0.0.0
d) none of the mentioned c) 255.255.0.0
d) 255.255.255.0

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34. Which Layer is Responsible for Congestion 42. Which OSI layer handles logical address to logical
Control? name resolution?
a) Network Layer a) Transport
b) Data link Layer b) Physical
c) Transport Layer c) Presentation
d) Application layer d) Data Link

35. Which of these is a feature of hubs? 43. A __________ is a device that forwards packets
a) Hubs amplifies the incoming signal. between networks by processing the routing
b) Hubs understand frames, packets or headers information included in the packet.
c) All lines coming into a Hub must operate at a same
speed. a) Bridge
d) all of these b) Firewall
c) Router
36. Which of the following is a MAC address? d) Hub
a) 192.166.200.50 44. Network congestion occurs _________
b) 00056A:01A01A5CCA7FF60
c) 568, Airport Road a) In case of traffic overloading
d) 01:A5: BB: A7: FF: 60 b) When a system terminates
c) When connection between two nodes terminates
37. The main difference between TCP and UDP is d) In case of transfer failure
a) UDP is connection oriented whereas TCP is datagram 45. Which of the following networks extends a private
service
b) TCP is an Internet protocol whereas UDP is an ATM network across public networks?
protocol a) Local area network
c) UDP is a datagram whereas TCP is a connection- b) Virtual private network
oriented service c) Enterprise private network
d) All of the above d) Storage area network

38. What operates in the Data Link and the Network 46. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI
layer? model when compared with TCP IP model?
a) NIC a) Application layer
b) Bridge b) Presentation layer
c) Brouter c) Session layer
d) Router d) Session and Presentation layer

39. In OSI model, which of the following layer provides 47. The functionalities of the presentation layer include
error-free delivery of data? ____________
a) Data link a) Data compression
b) Network b) Data encryption
c) transport c) Data description
d) Session d) All of the mentioned

40. What is the first octet range for a class A IP 48. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is
address? provided by __________
a) 1 - 126 a) Application layer
b) 192 - 255 b) Session layer
c) 192 - 223 c) Transport layer
d) 1 – 127 d) Link layer

41. What is the first octet range for a class B IP 49. Which layer is used to link the network support
address?
layers and user support layers?
a) 128 - 255
b) 1 - 127 a) Session layer
c) 192 - 223 b) Data link layer
d) 128 – 191 c) Transport layer
d) Network layer

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50. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________ 59. TELNET used _________ protocol for data
a) Network layer connection
b) Physical layer a) TCP
c) Data link layer b) UDP
d) Transport layer c) IP
51. Which of the following are transport layer protocols d) DHCP
used in networking?
a) TCP and FTP 60. _______ assigns a unique number to each IP
b) UDP and HTTP network adapter called the MAC address.
c) TCP and UDP a) Media Access Control
d) HTTP and FTP b) Metro Access Control
c) Metropolitan Access Control
52. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called d) Both B and C above
__________
a) Death period 61. A packet whose destination is outside the local
b) Poison period TCP/IP network segment is sent to the ___
c) Silent period a) File server
d) Stop period b) Default gateway
c) DNS server
53. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________ d) DHCP server
a) Seconds
b) Frames 62. Which protocol below operates at the network layer
c) Packets in the OSI model?
d) Bits
a) IP
54. In TDM, the transmission rate of a multiplexed path b) ICMP
c) RARP
is always _______ the sum of the transmission d) All of the above
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than 63. Which of the IP headers decides when the packet
c) Equal to should be discarded?
d) Equal to or greater than
a) Fragment control
55. Propagation delay depends on ___________ b) TTL
c) Checksum
a) Packet length d) Header length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers 64. Which port is reserved for use of the SMTP
d) Speed of the CPU
protocol?
56. Which of the following protocols below work in the a) 21
application layer? b) 23
c) 25
a) POP d) 53
b) SMTP
c) FTP 65. What is the max data capacity of STP?
d) All of the above
a) 10 mbps
57. A network point that provides entrance into another b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
network is called as ___________ d) 10000 mbps
a) Node
b) Gateway 66. In which topology there is a central controller or
c) Switch hub?
d) Router
a) Star
58. Token Ring is a data link technology for? b) Mesh
a) WAN c) Ring
b) MAN d) Bus
c) LAN
d) both a and b above

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67. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as 74. Multiplexing is used in
analog signal by
a) Packet switching
a) digital modulation b) Circuit switching
b) amplitude modulation c) Data switching
c) frequency modulation d) Packet & Circuit switching
d) phase modulation

75. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per

68. How long is an IPv6 address? layer, is called

a) 32 bits a) Protocol architecture

b) 128 bytes b) protocol stack
c) 64 bits c) protocol suite
d) 128 bits d) none of the mentioned

76. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital

69. Communication between a computer and a keyboard
signals?
involves………. transmission

a) FDM
a) Automatic
b) TDM
b) Half-duplex
c) WDM
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex d) FDM & WDM

77. A local telephone network is an example of

70. MAC address is of a……network.

a) 24 bits a) Packet switched

b) 36 bits b) Circuit switched
c) 42 bits c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched
d) 48 bits d) Line switched

71. Ethernet frame consists of 78. Most packet switches use …………. principle

a) MAC address a) Stop and wait

b) IP address b) Store and forward
c) both MAC address and IP address c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward
d) none of the mentioned d) Stop and forward

72. What flavor of Network Address

Translation can be used to have one IP 79. The default connection type used by HTTP is
address allow many users to connect to
the global Internet? a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
a) NAT c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on
b) Static
connection request
c) Dynamic
d) None of the mentioned
d) PAT

80. FTP is built on architecture

73. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE
802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) Client-server
a) CDMA b) P2P
b) CSMA/CA c) Both of the mentioned
c) ALOHA d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

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81. FTP uses parallel TCP 88. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport
connections to transfer a file layer?

a) 1 a) IP
b) 2 b) TCP
c) UDP
c) 3 d) ARP
d) 4

82. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it 89. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
has to be encoded into
a) Session layer
a) Binary
b) Physical layer
b) Signal
c) Data Link layer
c) ASCII d) Application layer
d) None of the mentioned

90. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the

83. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for……..
a) Transport layer
a) secure data communication b) Network layer
b) remote command-line login
c) Application layer
c) remote command execution
d) Session layer
d) all of the mentioned

91. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

84. SSH uses to authenticate the
remote computer. a) Browser security
b) Email security
a) public-key cryptography c) FTP security
b) private-key cryptography d) None of the mentioned
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) both public-key & private-key
92. ATM and frame relay are

85. You have 10 users plugged into a hub a) virtual circuit networks
running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a b) datagram networks
server connected to the switch running
c) virtual private networks
10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much
bandwidth does each host have to the d) none of the mentioned
server?

a) 100 kbps 93. ATM uses the

b) 1 Mbps
c) 2 Mbps a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
d) 10 Mbps b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
86. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
provides …….to the client.

a) IP address 94. An ATM cell has the payload field of

b) MAC address
a) 32 bytes
c) URL b) 48 bytes
d) None of the mentioned c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
87. The DHCP server

a) maintains a database of available IP addresses

b) maintains the information about client configuration
parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned

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95. Frame relay has error detection at the 102. allows you to connect and login to a
remote computer
a) physical layer
b) data link layer a) Telnet
c) network layer b) FTP
d) transport layer c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned

96. In classless addressing, there are no classes but

addresses are still granted in 103. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing,
authentication, and multilink?
a) IPs
b) Blocks a) NCP
b) HDLC
c) Codes c) LCP (Link Control Protocol)
d) Sizes d) X.25

97. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is……. 104. What is a stub network?
a) 10bytes a) A network with more than one exit point.
b) 25bytes b) A network with more than one exit and entry point.
c) 30bytes c) A network with only one entry and no exit point.
d) 40bytes d) A network that has only one entry and exit point.

98. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is 105. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as

a) Huge number of systems on the internet a) Stream of bytes

b) Very low number of system on the internet b) Sequence of characters

c) Providing standard address c) Lines of data

d) None of the mentioned d) Packets

99. Which of the following is the 106. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet
broadcast address for a Class B called
network ID using the default subnet
a) Packet
mask?
b) Buffer
a) 172.16.10.255 c) Segment
b) 255.255.255.255 d) Stack
c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255 107. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?

a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
100. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with
a Class C network ID, which subnet c) Transport layer protocol
mask would you use? d) All of the mentioned

a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255 108. what is the header size of UDP packet?
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248 a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
101. Which protocol is used for Storage management?
d) 124 bytes
a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
d) MIB

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109. The technique in which a congested node 115. The datalink layer takes the packet from---------------
stops receiving data from the immediate -------- and encapsulates them into frame
upstream node or nodes is called as
transmission.
a) Admission policy a) Network layer
b) Backpressure
b) Physical layer
c) Forward signaling
c) Transport layer
d) Backward signaling
d) Application layer

110. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
116. This is an IP address 168.212.226.204 which class
a) To create a layered model larger than the DoD model. this address belongs to?
b) So application developers can change only one layer's
a) Class A
protocols at a time.
c) So different networks could communicate. b) Class B

d) So Cisco could use the model. c) Class C

d) Class D
117. A DNS client is called……….
111. The functions of a DNS server to convert a) DNS updater
……………… name to ……………….. address? b) DNS resolver
a) Web address and DNS c) DNS handler
b) Email address and DNS d) none of the mentioned
c) MAC address and IP
d) DNS and IP 118. If a server has no clue about where to find the
address for a hostname, then
112. Active HUB is under -----layer but passive HUB is a) server asks to the root server
under -----layer OSI model? b) server asks to its adjacent server
a) Data link and network c) request is not processed
b) Physical and data link d) none of the mentioned
c) physical and zero
d) network and transport 119. A switch is most often used to connect……….
a) Individual Computer
113. Which of the following cables is widely used in b) Different LANs
LAN? c) Cable segments of a LAN
a) Twisted pair d) None of the above
b) Co-axial
c) Fiber optic 120. Which one of the following allows client to update
d) None their DNS entry as their IP address change?
a) dynamic DNS
114. Physical transmission medium lies in which layer of b) mail transfer agent
OSI reference model? c) authoritative name server
a) Physical d) none of the mentioned
b) Network
c) session
d) None

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121. In wireless ad-hoc network 128. WiMAX is mostly used for………

a) access point is not required a) local area network
b) access point is must b) metropolitan area network
c) nodes are not required c) personal area network
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

122. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 129. An interconnected collection of piconet is called
802.11 standard for wireless LAN? a) scatternet
a) CDMA b) micronet
b) CSMA/CA c) mininet
c) ALOHA d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
130. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for……….
123. A wireless network interface controller can work in a) local area network
a) infrastructure mode b) personal area network
b) ad-hoc mode c) both (a) and (b)
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
131. Bluetooth uses………….
124. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN. a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
a) time division multiplexing b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing c) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
132. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device
125. Which one of the following events is not possible in a) can not be slave
wireless LAN? b) can be slave in another piconet
a) collision detection c) can be slave in the same piconet
b) Acknowledgement of data frames d) none of the mentioned
c) multi-mode data transmission 133. A scatternet can have maximum
d) none of the mentioned a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
126. WiMAX provides…………. c) 30 piconets
a) simplex communication d) 40 piconets
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication 134. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the
d) none of the mentioned wires of a local telephone network is provided by
a) leased line
127. In TCP/IP network, the port address is b) digital subscriber line
a) 16-bit c) digital signal line
b) 32-bit d) none of the mentioned
c) 64-bit
d) 128-bit

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135. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client 142. SSH uses _______ to authenticate the remote
connected in the internet? computer.
a) DHCP a) public-key cryptography
b) IP b) private-key cryptography
c) RPC c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

136. In cryptography, what is cipher? 143. A session may include

a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) encrypted message b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) both (a) and (b) c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) none of the mentioned d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined

137. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is 144. Fragmentation has following demerits
kept by a) complicates routers
a) sender b) open to DOS attack
b) receiver c) overlapping of fragments.
c) sender and receiver d) All of the mentioned
d) all the connected devices to the network
145. IPv6 does not use ______ type of address
138. What is data encryption standard (DES)? a) Broadcast
a) block cipher b) Multicast
b) stream cipher c) Anycast
c) bit cipher d) None of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
146. Which error detection method uses one's
139. Firewalls are often configured to block complement arithmetic?
a) UDP traffic a) Simply parity check
b) TCP traffic b) Checksum
c) Both of the mentioned c) Two-dimensional parity check
d) None of the mentioned d) CRC

140. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP 147. An applet __________
conflict the client may use a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client
a) internet relay chat b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website
b) broader gateway protocol c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client
c) address resolution protocol d) collects data from visitors to a Website
d) none of the mentioned
141. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for 148. IPV6 increases the size of the IP address from
a) secure data communication a) 64 to 132 bits
b) remote command-line login b) 32 to 128 bits
c) remote command execution c) 64 to 128 bits
d) all of the mentioned d) None

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149. VLANs can __________. 155. What is the maximum data rate in IEEE 802.11n?
a) reduce network traffics a) 300 Mbps
b) provide an extra measure of security b) 600 Mbps
c) None of the above c) 1 Gbps
d) both (a) and (b) d) 832 Mbps

150. In which type of circuit switching, delivery of data is 156. Major function of a transport layer in the OSI
delayed because data must be stored and retrieved model is to perform
from RAM a) Peer to peer message encryption
a) Space-division b) Node to node message delivery
b) Time-division c) Transparent transfer of data between end users
c) Virtual d) None of the above
d) Packet
157. An IPv6 basic header is fixed as
151. What is the maximum data rate of a channel with a a) 32 bytes long
bandwidth of 200 KHz if we use four levels of digital b) 40 bytes long
signaling? c) 64 bits long
a) 400 Kbps d) 128 bit long
b) 800 Kbps
c) 1000 Kbps 158. Which of the following services uses both TCP and
d) 1200 Kbps UDP ports?
a) DNS
152. Which error detection method involves the use of b) TFTP
parity bits? c) SSH
a) Simple parity check d) TELNET
b) Two-dimensional parity check
c) CRC 159. A single switch port is considered as
d) (a) and (b) a) A separate unicast domain
b) A separate broadcast domain
153. A DNS response is classified as ----- if the c) A separate multicast domain
information comes from a cache memory d) A separate collision domain
a) Authoritative
b) Recursive 160. An Access point operates in which layer of OSI
c) Unauthoritative model?
d) Iterative a) Data link Layer
b) Presentation layer
154. ------is a client-server program that provides an IP c) Physical layer
address, subnet mask, IP address of a router, and IP d) Transport layer
address of a name server to a computer
a) NAT 161. Which protocol provides e-mail facility among
b) DHCP different hosts?
c) CIDR a) FTP
d) ISP b) SMTP
c) TELNET
d) SNMP

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162. One of the major drawbacks of symmetric system is 170. An Ethernet LAN using the OSPF protocol with five
_____ attached routers can be called a ------- network.
a) Key Distribution a) Point-to-point
b) Key Diffusion b) Stub
c) Key Confusion
d) Key Construction c) Transient
d) Virtual
163. Repeat cycles are used in _______________
a) AES and RSA
b) AES and DES 171. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find
c) DES and RSA the ……. of a local device.
d) RSA and VAN
a) hardware address
b) IP address
164. Public key system is best used for _____ c) Routing information
a) Key exchange d) None
b) Authentication
c) Key exchange and Authentication
d) Validation 172. BUS, Ring and Star Topologies are mostly used in
a) LAN
165. _____ is a classic example of symmetric key b) MAN
c) WAN
exchange procedure. d) None
a) Certificate
b) Cryptographic hash function 173. Connection of telephone regional office is a practical
c) Diffie-Hellman Scheme example of
d) Digital Signature
a) MESH topology.
b) Star topology
166. SSL utilizes ___________Algorithm in order to
c) BUS topology
provide a message integrity. d) None
a) Hash
174. Cable TV and DSL are example of
b) NULL
c) Encryption a) MAN
d) Decryption b) LAN
c) WAN
167. A wireless network uses .......... waves to transmit d) None

signals. 175. Repeaters are used in

a) Mechanical a) Ring topology.
b) Radio b) MESH topology.
c) Star topology
c) Sound d) BUS topology
d) Magnetic
176. Modulator and Demodulator combinedly known as
a) Modem
168. Firewalls are used to protect against ....... b) Demo
c) Madam
a) Unauthorized Access
d) Mode
b) Virus Attacks
c) Data Driven Attacks
177. The function of LLC sub-layer of data link layer is:
d) Fire Attacks
a) Framing and channel allocation
b) Channel allocation and error control
169. Datagram is related with ……………… service and
c) Error control and security
virtual circuit is related to………………..service.
d) Framing and error control
a) both are connectionless
b) Connectionless and connection oriented.
178. BUS backbone uses
c) connection oriented and connectionless
a) LAN and Bridges.
d) None b) Wan and Switches
c) MAN and Bridges
d) None

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179. Star backbone uses 188. Which of the following is a possible IP address in a
a) Switch network with IP address 172.16.10.5 and subnet
b) HUB mask 255.255.248.0?
c) Bridge a) 172.16.8.0
d) None b) 192.168.8.0
c) 224.168.1.0
d) None
180. The security services that IPSec provide requires
189. Which device support circuit switching?
shared keys to perform___________
a) HUB
a) Privacy
b) Switch
b) Reliability
c) Router
c) Authentication
d) None
d) Security
190. Which layer is used for wireless connection in IoT
181. IEEE 802.3 is slang name for
devices?
a) ETHERNET
b) ARPANET a) Data link layer
c) TELNET b) Network layer
d) None c) Physical layer
d) None
182. Repeater works with……..
a) volts or signals. 191. Select from the following which one in the routing
b) Binary number algorithm can be used for network layer design.
c) Digits
d) None a) shortest path algorithm
b) link-state routing
183. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to c) distance vector routing
d) all of the mentioned
another LAN via the device –
a) Router 192. Choose the function of a router
b) Repeater a) changing the data from one format to another
c) Modem b) error detection in data
c) send the packet to the uplinks
d) Bridge
d) None of the above

193. Select the uses of the switch in a datagram network.

184. Which layer id user supported?
a) destination address
a) Session layer
b) Presentation layer b) routing table
c) Application layer c) sender address
d) None d) header

185. ………………is an authentication service for 194. The Routing processor searches in the routing table
passwords. is known as
a) Kerbaros a) switch fabric
b) ICMP b) table lookup
c) TCP c) buffer
d) MIME d) rolling table

195. Protocol used for storage management is?

186. IEEE 802.11 is a slang name for
a) POP3
a) Wi-Fi b) SNMP
b) Blutooth c) LDAP
c) Ethernet d) None of these
d) None
196. Which private network uses storage protocol rather
187. FDDI stands for.
than networking protocol?
a) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
b) Fiber Data Distributed Interface a) Wide area network
c) Fiber Dual Distributed Interface b) Storage area network
d) Fiber Distributed Data Interface c) Local area network
d) None of these

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206. PSTN represents ___.

197. Which of the following topology is the multipoint a) private switched transmission network
topology? b) public switched telephone network
a) Bus c) private switched telephone network
b) Star d) public switched transmission network
c) Mesh
d) Ring 207. ___ overcame the registered number issue by
assigning each organization one network number
198. __________are the types of firewalls. from the IPv4 address space.
a) Packet Filtering a) Tracking
b) Dual Homed Gateway b) Subnetting
c) Both A and B c) Packeting
d) None of these d) Switching

199. one of the following is a path vector routing? 208. ISDN is an acronym for ___.
a) exterior gateway protocol a) Information Services for Digital Networks
b) inter-domain routing b) Internetwork System for Data Networks
c) network routing protocol c) Integrated Services Digital Networks
d) All of these d) Integrated Signals Digital Network

200. IDEA algorithm generates ______keys. 209. Data rate depends on three factors

a) 56 a) Bandwidth available
b) 28 b) Level of the signals we use
c) 52 c) Quality of the channel
d) All of the above
d) 72
210. The radio communication spectrum is divided into
201. In fiber optics, the signal source is ___ waves.
bands based on ___.
a) light
b) radio a) amplitude
c) infrared b) frequency
d) very low frequency c) cost and hardware
d) transmission medium
202. The ___ layer is responsible for node to node packet
211. The term “e-mail” applies both to the Internet e-
delivery.
mail system based on the ___ and to ___ allowing
a) session
b) network users within one organization to e-mail each other.
c) physical a) FTP, Intranet Systems
d) data link b) SMTP, Intranet Systems
c) FTP, Internet Systems
203. The speed mismatch between the sender and the d) SMTP, Internet Systems
receiver is called ___
212. ___ CSMA is less greedy whereas ___ CSMA is
a) error control
b) b speed error selfish.
c) c flow control a) Non-persistent, 1-persistent
d) d transmission control b) 1-persistent, p-persistent
c) p-persistent, 1-persistent
204. FTP runs exclusively over ___ d) 1-persistent, non-persistent
a) HTTP
b) TCP 213. IP Packet is a ___ and ___ based model.
c) SMTP a) connectionless, network
d) HTML b) connection, network
c) connectionless, datagram
205. Which of the following primarily uses guided d) connection, datagram
media?
a) cellular telephone system
b) local telephone system
c) satellite communications
d) radio broadcasting

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214. ___ are special-interest groups that quickly test, 223. PDU stands for
evaluate, and standardize new technologies. a) Power data unit
a) Forums b) Protocol digital unit
b) Regulatory agencies c) Presentation data unit
c) Standards organizations d) Protocol data unit
d) All of the above
224. Transmission lines suffer from the major problem
215. FDDI stands for a) Attenuation distortion
b) Delay distortion
a) Fixed distributed data interface c) Noise
b) First division data interface d) All of the above
c) Fiber distributed data interface
d) None 225. In ___ type of service, no connection is established

216. The ___ layer is responsible for resolving access to beforehand or afterward.

the shared media or resources. a) acknowledged connectionless service

b) Unacknowledged connectionless service
a) physical c) acknowledged connection-oriented service
b) MAC sub layer d) Unacknowledged connection-oriented service
c) Network
d) Transport 226. Name the protocol used for remote terminal

217. Fiber-optic communication system uses. connection service?

a) Simplex transmission a) RARP

b) half-duplex b) UDP
c) full-duplex c) FTP
d) None of the above d) TELNET

218. The concept of connected computers sharing 227. Name the connection when three or more devices

resources is called ___. share a link together?

a) Internetworking a) Multipoint
b) Intranetworking b) Unipoint
c) Networking c) Point to point
d) None of the above d) TELNET

219. IMP stands for 228. One protocol per layer in a list of protocol used by

a) Internal message passing the system is called?

b) Interface message passing a) protocol suite
c) Internal message parsing b) (B) Protocol system
d) Interface message parsing c) (C) protocol architecture
d) (D) protocol stack
220. Process to process delivery of the entire message is
done by 229. Which methods facilitates a dedicated

a) Physical layer communication channel between two stations?

b) Transport layer a) Circuit switching
c) Session layer b) Switch network
d) Presentation layer c) Packet switching
d) None of these
221. Dialog controller role is played by
a) Session layer 230. When devices are wired together most flexibility is
b) Application layer provided by which network?
c) Transport layer
a) T-switched networks
d) Network layer
b) Star networks
c) Ring networks
222. Syntax and semantics of the information exchanged
d) Bus networks
between two systems is done by
a) Session layer
b) Application layer
c) Transport layer
d) Presentation layer

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231. A diskless machine uses which protocol to obtain its 240. A network that needs human beings to manually
IP address from a server? route signals is called....
a) Fiber Optic Network
a) RARP b) Bus Network
b) RIP c) T-switched network
c) RDP d) Ring network
d) X.25
241. Which of the following applications allows a user to
232. What is the specialty of OSPF protocol
access and change remote files without actual
a) discover a network’s specific topology
b) link-state route discovery protocol transfer?
c) better performance than RIP in large internet-works a) DNS
d) all of these b) FTP
c) NFS
233. Name the functionalities implemented by a d) Telnet
transport protocol over and above the network
242. The data unit in the TCP/IP layer called a .....
protocol?
a) Message
a) End to end connectivity b) Segment
b) Packet delivery in the correct order c) Datagram
c) Detection of duplicate packets d) Frame
d) Recovery from packet losses
243. Which of the following of the TCP/IP protocols is
234. Find which of the below can be considered as an
the used for transferring files from one machine to
example of Bluetooth?
another?
a) Wide area network
b) Virtual private network a) FTP
c) Local area network b) SMTP
d) Personal area network c) SNMP
d) RPC
235. What is FDDI?
244. In which OSI layers does the FDDI protocol
a) Bus based network
b) Mesh network operate?
c) Star network a) Physical
d) Ring network b) Data link
c) Network
236. What is the benefit of the computers connected to a d) A and B
LAN?
245. In FDDI, data normally travel on ..................
a) Share information and/or share peripheral equipment
b) E-mail a) The primary ring
c) Go on line b) The Secondary ring
d) Run faster c) Both rings
d) Neither ring
237. Which of the following are the network services?
246. The ………… layer of OSI model can use the trailer
a) File service
b) Print service of the frame for error detection.
c) Database service a) Physical
d) All of the above b) Data link
c) Transport
238. Which of the following is an application layer d) Presentation
service?
a) Network virtual terminal 247. In a ………. topology, if there are n devices in a
b) File transfer, access and management network, each device has n-1 ports for cables.
c) Mail service
d) All of the above a) Mesh
b) Star
239. Which is the main function of transport layer? c) Bus
d) Ring
a) Node to node delivery
b) End to end delivery
c) Synchronization
d) Updating and maintaining routing tables

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248. Which of the following is the logical topology? 256. The major problem(s) suffered for transmission
a) Bus lines on physical layer is/are .........
b) Tree a) Attenuation distortion
c) Star b) Delay distortion
d) Both A and B c) Noise
d) All of the above
249. Which of the following is/ are the drawbacks of Ring
Topology? 257. …………… is the lost of energy as the signal
a) Failure of one computer, can affect the whole network propagates outward.
b) Adding or removing the computers disturbs the network a) Attenuation distortion
activity. b) Delay distortion
c) If the central hub fails, the whole network fails to c) Noise
operate. d) None of the above
d) Both of A and B
258. Which of the following is not the sources of noise?
250. The performance of data communications network
a) Thermal
depends on .............. b) Magnetic
a) Number of users c) Inter-modulation
b) The hardware and software d) Cross talk
c) The transmission
d) All of the above 259. Data rate in data communication depends on which
of the following factors.
251. Find out the OSI layer, which performs token
a) The bandwidth available
management. b) The level of the signals we use
a) Network Layer c) The quality of the channel
b) Transport Layer d) All of the above
c) Session Layer
d) Presentation Layer 260. ……….. is also known as store and forward
switching since the messages are stored at
252. What is the name of the network topology in which
intermediate nodes in route to their destinations.
there are bi-directional links between each possible
a) Message switching
node? b) Physical switching
a) Ring c) circuit switching
b) Star d) packet switching
c) Tree
d) Mesh 261. ……….. is used to optimize the use of the channel
capacity available in a network, to minimize the
253. What is the commonly used unit for measuring the
transmission latency and to increase robustness of
speed of data transmission?
communication.
a) Bytes per second
b) Baud a) Message switching
c) Bits per second b) Linear switching
d) Both B and C c) circuit switching
d) packet switching

262. ……….. is used in telephone network for bi-

254. The loss in signal power as light travels down the
directional, real time transfer between computers.
fiber is called .............
a) Message switching
a) Attenuation b) Circuit switching
b) Propagation c) Packet switching
c) Scattering d) Circular switching
d) Interruption

255. Which of the following is/are the applications of

twisted pair cables
a) In the local loop
b) In the DSL line
c) In the ISDN Network
d) All of the above

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263. The ……… layer provides a well-defined service 270. The ……. layer is responsible for the source-to-
interface to the network layer, determining how the destination delivery of a packet across multiple
bits of the physical layer are grouped into frames. network links.
a) Data Link a) transport
b) Physical b) network
c) Network c) data link
d) Session d) session

264. The different types of services provided by data link 271. The ………. layer is responsible for the process-to-
layer is/are ... process delivery of the entire message.
a) Unacknowledged connectionless service a) transport
b) Acknowledged connectionless service b) network
c) Acknowledged connection-oriented service c) data link
d) All of the above. d) physical

265. In ………. there is no need for defining the 272. The …... layer establishes, maintains, and
boundaries of the frames; the size itself can be used synchronizes the interactions between
a delimiter. communicating devices.
a) Standard Size Framing a) transport
b) Fixed Size Framing b) network
c) Variable Size Framing c) session
d) Constant Size Framing d) physical

266. ………… is prevalent in LANs, we need a way to 273. The …………. layer ensures interoperability
define the end of the frame and the beginning of the between communicating devices through
next.
a) Standard Size Framing transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon
b) Fixed Size Framing format.
c) Variable Size Framing
a) transport
d) Constant Size Framing
b) network
c) data link
267. Which of the following is/are the methods used for
d) presentation
carrying out framing?
a) Character count 274. The …… layer enables the users to access the
b) Starting and ending characters, with character stuffing. network.
c) Starting and ending flags with bit stuffing.
a) session
d) All of the above
b) application
c) data link
268. The …….. layer links the network support layers
d) physical
and the user support layers.
a) transport 275. Circuit switching takes place at the ……... layer.
b) network a) data link
c) data link b) physical
d) session c) network
d) transport
269. Which of the following is an application layer
service? 276. The ……… layer is responsible for moving frames
a) remote log-in. form one node to the next.
b) file transfer and access. a) physical
c) mail service b) data link
d) all of the above c) transport
d) session

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277. The routing processor of a router performs the 284. In …… routing algorithm, each router knows all
………. layer functions of the router. details about how to route packets to destinations
a) physical and data link within its own region. But does not have any idea
b) network about internal structure of other regions.
c) transport
d) session a) Shortest Path Algorithm
b) Link state Routing
278. The data link layer takes the packet it gets from the c) Distance Vector Routing
d) Hierarchical Routing
network layer and encapsulates them into ......
a) cells 285. ……… is a simple mathematical computation used
b) frames to check for bit-level errors in the IPV4 header.
c) packet
d) trailer a) Identification
b) Protocol
279. In computer networking the term ……. refers to c) Checksum
d) Time-to-Live(TTL)
selecting paths in a computer network along which
to send data. 286. The task of ……….. is to provide reliable, cost
a) routing effective transport of data from source machine to
b) inter-networking destination machine.
c) internal organization
d) congestion control a) Network Layer
b) Transport Layer
280. ……… is also a static algorithm in which every c) Presentation Layer
d) Application Layer
incoming packet is sent out on every outgoing line
except the one it arrives on. 287. A ………. is a special type of file handle, which is
a) Shortest Path Algorithm used by a process to request network services from
b) Flooding the operating system?
c) Distance Vector Routing
d) Hierarchical Routing a) socket
b) handler
281. ……… is basically a vector that keeps track of best- c) requester
d) protocol
known distance to each destination and which line to
use to get there. 288. ……….. is an optional 16-bit one's complement of
a. Shortest Path Algorithm the one's complement sum of a pseudo-IP header,
b. Flooding the UDP header, and the UDP data.
c. Distance Vector Routing
d. Hierarchical Routing a) Congestion
b) Checksum
282. In …….. the routers are divided into regions. Each c) Pseudosum
d) Headersum
router knows all details about how to route packets
to destinations within its own region. 289. The process of obtaining zone information across
a) Shortest Path Algorithm the network is referred to as a .........
b) Link state Routing a) zone obtaining
c) Distance Vector Routing b) zone transfer
d) Hierarchical Routing
c) zone information
d) zone extracting

283. In ………… each node uses as its fundamental data 290. In ………. when a name server receives a DNS
a map of the network in the form of a graph query that it cannot resolve through its own zone
a) Shortest Path Algorithm
files, it sends a recursive query to its forwarder.
b) Link state Routing
c) Distance Vector Routing a) exclusive mode
d) Hierarchical Routing b) non-exclusive mode
c) caching mode
d) zonal mode

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291. ……… are DNS servers that only perform queries, 298. Which one of the following tasks is not done by data
cache the answers, and return the results. link layer?
a) Querying only server a) framing
b) Results only server b) error control
c) Caching only server c) flow control
d) Information only server d) channel coding

292. ……….. is an electronic mail protocol with both 299. The field of the Media Access Control frame that is
client and server functions? used to alternate the 1s and 0s is called
a) SMTP a) SFD
b) MIME b) preamble
c) POP c) source address
d) TCP d) destination address

293. …….. store resource records and information about 300. In a/an ………. of DNS resolver, the queried name
the domain tree structure and attempt to resolve server is requested to respond with the requested
received client queries. data or with an error stating that data of the
a) Domain namespace requested type or the specified domain name does
b) DNS Names not exist.
c) Name servers
d) Resolvers a) Recursive queries
b) Iterative queries
294. ………… are programs that run on DNS clients and c) Reverse queries
d) Inverse queries
DNS servers and that create queries to extract
information from name servers. 301. Which transmission media has the highest
a) Domain namespace transmission speed in a network?
b) Resource records a) coaxial cable
c) Name servers b) twisted pair cable
d) Resolvers c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
295. In MIME header field, …… is a plain text
description of the object within the body, which is 302. What is the max data capacity of STP?
useful when the object is not human-readable. a) 10 mbps
a) content-type b) 100 mbps
b) content-transfer-encoding c) 1000 mbps
c) content-description d) 10000 mbps
d) content-id
303. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as
296. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data analog signal by
link functions that depend upon the type of a) digital modulation
medium? b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
a) logical link control sublayer d) phase modulation
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer 304. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by
d) none of the mentioned
a) analog modulation
297. Header of a frame generally contains b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
a) synchronization bytes d) none of the mentioned
b) addresses
c) frame identifier 305. How long is an IPv6 address?
d) all of the mentioned
a) 32 bits
b) 128 bytes
c) 64 bits
d) 128 bits

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306. Ethernet frame consists of 315. The default connection type used by HTTP is
a) MAC address a) Persistent
b) IP address b) Non-persistent
c) both MAC address and IP address c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on
d) none of the mentioned connection request
d) None of the mentioned
307. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be
used to have one IP address allow many users to 316. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it

connect to the global Internet? has to be encoded into

a) NAT a) Binary
b) Static b) Signal
c) Dynamic c) ASCII
d) PAT d) None of the mentioned

308. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 317. SSH uses ………. to authenticate the remote

802.11 standard for wireless LAN? computer.

a) CDMA a) public-key cryptography

b) CSMA/CA b) private-key cryptography
c) ALOHA c) any of public-key or private-key
d) None of the mentioned d) both public-key & private-key

309. Multiplexing is used in 318. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running
10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to
a) Packet switching the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching much bandwidth does each host have to the server?
d) Packet & Circuit switching a) 100 kbps
b) 1 Mbps
c) 2 Mbps
310. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital
d) 10 Mbps
signals?
a) FDM 319. Which of the following is the valid host range for the
b) TDM subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188
c) WDM
255.255.255.192 resides?
d) FDM & WDM
a) 192.168.168.129-190
311. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called b) 192.168.168.129-191
c) 192.168.168.128-190
a) Death period
d) 192.168.168.128-192
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
320. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network
d) None of the mentioned
layer protocol?
312. Propagation delay depends on a) NCP
a) Packet length b) ISDN
b) Transmission rate c) HDLC
c) Distance between the routers d) LCP
d) None of the mentioned
321. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol)
313. Most packet switches use this principle provides ………. to the client.
a) Stop and wait a) IP address
b) Store and forward b) MAC address
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward c) Url
d) Stop and forward d) None of the mentioned

314. Bluetooth uses ……..

a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned

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322. The DHCP server 330. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of
b) maintains the information about client configuration address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
client 172.16.13.127
d) all of the mentioned b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
172.16.13.127
323. What is DHCP snooping? c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
172.16.13.255
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address
DHCP infrastructure 172.16.255.255
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP 331. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C
d) none of the mentioned
network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
324. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport a) 255.255.255.252
layer? b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
a) IP d) 255.255.255.248
b) TCP
c) UDP 332. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing,
d) ARP
authentication, and multilink?
325. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the a) NCP
a) Transport layer b) HDLC
b) Network layer c) LCP
c) Application layer d) X.25
d) Session layer
333. What is a stub network?
326. Which protocol is used to send a destination a) A network with more than one exit point.
network unknown message back to originating b) A network with more than one exit and entry point.
c) A network with only one entry and no exit point.
hosts? d) A network that has only one entry and exit point.
a) TCP
b) ARP 334. The technique in which a congested node stops
c) ICMP receiving data from the immediate upstream node
d) BootP
or nodes is called as
327. ATM and frame relay are a) Admission policy
a) virtual circuit networks b) Backpressure
b) datagram networks c) Forward signaling
c) virtual private networks d) Backward signaling
d) none of the mentioned
335. Which protocol does Ping use?
328. ATM uses the a) TCP
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing b) ARP
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing c) ICMP
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing d) BootP
d) none of the mentioned
336. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves
329. Frame relay has error detection at the from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
a) physical layer ___________
b) data link layer
a) Added
c) network layer
b) Removed
d) transport layer
c) Rearranged
d) Modified

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337. _________ are set of rules that governs data 345. Wireless transmission of signals can be done via
communication. ___________
a) Protocols a) radio waves
b) Standards b) microwaves
c) RFCs c) infrared
d) Servers d) all of the mentioned

338. When collection of various computers seems a single 346. Which of the following tasks is not done by data link
coherent system to its client, then it is called layer?
_________ a) framing
a) computer network b) error control
b) distributed system c) flow control
c) networking system d) channel coding
d) mail system
347. Header of a frame generally contains
339. Network congestion occurs _________ ______________
a) in case of traffic overloading a) synchronization bytes
b) when a system terminates b) addresses
c) when connection between two nodes terminates c) frame identifier
d) in case of transfer failure d) all of the mentioned

340. Which of the following networks extends a private 348. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data
network across public networks? link functions that depend upon the type of
a) local area network medium?
b) virtual private network a) logical link control sublayer
c) enterprise private network b) media access control sublayer
d) storage area network c) network interface control sublayer
d) error control sublayer
341. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI
model when compared with TCP IP model? 349. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed
a) Application layer during the transmission, the error is called
b) Presentation layer ____________
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer a) random error
342. The functionalities of the presentation layer include b) burst error
c) inverted error
____________ d) double error
a) Data compression
b) Data encryption 350. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for
c) Data description congestion control?
d) All of the mentioned
a) traffic aware routing
343. he physical layer provides __________ b) admission control
c) load shedding
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and d) routing information protocol
cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned

344. The physical layer is responsible for __________

a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned

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Data Structures

1. The logical or mathematical model of a particular 8. In a stack, if a user tries to remove an element from
organization of data is called a ……… empty stack it is called _________
a) Data structure a) Underflow
b) Data arrangement b) Empty collection
c) Data configuration c) Overflow
d) Data formation d) Garbage Collection
9. What is the best case for linear search?
a) O(nlogn)
2. Which one of the below mentioned is linear data b) O(logn)
c) O(n)
structure? d) O(1)
a) Queue
b) Stack
c) Arrays
d) All of these 10. Pushing an element into stack already having five
elements and stack size of 5, then it is …….
a) Overflow
3. On which principle does stack work? b) Crash
c) Underflow
a) LIFO d) User flow
b) FIFO
c) LILO
d) None
11. To perform level-order traversal on a binary tree,
which of the following data structure will be
4. A …………………… does not keep track of address required?
of every element in the list. a) Hash table
a) Stack b) Queue
b) String c) Binary search tree
c) Linear array d) Stack
d) Queue

12. The data structure required to check whether an

5. ........ search starts at the beginning of the list and expression contains balanced parenthesis is?
check every element in the list. a) Stack
a) Binary b) Queue
b) Hash c) Array
c) Linear d) Tree
d) Binary Tree

13. A binary tree in which all its levels except the last,
6. Which of the following best describes an array? have maximum numbers of nodes, and all the nodes
a) A data structure that shows a hierarchical behavior in the last level have only one child it will be its left
b) Container of objects of similar types
child. Name the tree.
c) Arrays are immutable once initialized
d) Array is not a data structure a) Threaded tree
b) Complete binary tree
c) M-way search tree
d) Full binary tree
7. When does the ArrayIndexOutOfBounds Exception
occur?
a) Compile-time
b) Run-time
c) Not an error
d) Not an exception at all

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14. What is the worst case for linear search? 21. The situation when in a linked list START=NULL is
a) O(nlogn) ….
b) O(logn) a) Underflow
c) O(n) b) Overflow
d) O(1) c) Houseful
d) Saturated

15. If two trees have same structure and node content,

then they are called ____ 22. Which of the following is non-liner data structure?
a) Synonyms trees a) Stacks
b) Joint trees b) List
c) Equivalent trees c) Strings
d) Similar trees d) Trees

16. The time complexity of quicksort is …….. 23. Which data structure is used for implementing
a) O(n) recursion?
b) O(logn) a) Queue
c) O(n2) b) Stack
d) O(n logn) c) Array
d) List

17. Which of the following application makes use of a

circular linked list? 24. What is the worst-case complexity of binary search
a) Undo operation in a text editor using recursion?
b) Recursive function calls a) O(nlogn)
c) Allocating CPU to resources b) O(logn)
d) Implement Hash Tables c) O(n)
d) O(n2)

18. Quick sort is also known as ……..

25. Which of the following statements hold true for
a) merge sort
b) tree sort binary trees?
c) shell sort a) The left subtree of a node contains only nodes with
d) partition and exchange sort keys less than the node’s key
b) The right subtree of a node contains only nodes with
keys greater than the node’s key.
c) Both
19. The process of accessing data stored in a serial access
d) None
memory is similar to manipulating data on a…….
a) Heap
b) Binary Tree 26. Binary Search can be categorized into which of the
c) Array
d) Stack following?
a) Brute Force technique
b) Divide and conquer
c) Greedy algorithm
20. What is the advantage of recursive approach than
d) Dynamic programming
an iterative approach?
a) Consumes less memory
b) Less code and easy to implement 27. The data structure required for Breadth First
c) Consumes more memory
d) More code has to be written Traversal on a graph is?
a) Stack
b) Array
c) Queue
d) Tree

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28. A queue follows __________ 35. What is the applications of dequeue?

a) FIFO (First In First Out) principle a) A-Steal job scheduling algorithm
b) LIFO (Last In First Out) principle b) Can be used as both stack and queue
c) Ordered array c) To find the maximum of all sub arrays of size k
d) Linear tree d) To avoid collision in hash tables

29. Circular Queue is also known as ________ 36. Which of the following linked list below have last
a) Ring Buffer node of the list pointing to the first node?
b) Square Buffer a) circular doubly linked list
c) Rectangle Buffer b) circular linked list
d) Curve Buffer c) circular singly linked list
d) doubly linked list

30. A data structure in which elements can be inserted

or deleted at/from both the ends but not in the 37. What is the need for a circular queue?
middle is? a) effective usage of memory
a) Queue b) easier computations
b) Circular queue c) to delete elements based on priority
c) Dequeue d) implement LIFO principle in queues
d) Priority queue

38. Items in a priority queue are entered in a

31. Which of the following ways below is a pre order _____________ order
traversal? a) random
a) Root->left sub tree-> right sub tree b) order of priority
b) Root->right sub tree-> left sub tree c) as and when they come
c) right sub tree-> left sub tree->Root d) none of the above
d) left sub tree-> right sub tree->Root

39. Which data structure allows deleting data elements

32. Queues serve major role in ______________ from front and inserting at rear?
a) Simulation of recursion a) Stacks
b) Simulation of arbitrary linked list b) Queues
c) Simulation of limited resource allocation c) Deques
d) Simulation of heap sort d) Binary search tree

33. Which of the following ways below is a in order 40. To represent hierarchical relationship between
traversal? elements, which data structure is suitable?
a) Root >left sub tree > right sub tree a) Deque
b) Root >right sub tree > left sub tree b) Priority
c) right sub tree > left sub tree >Root c) Tree
d) left sub tree> root >right sub tree d) All of above

34. With what data structure can a priority queue be 41. A binary tree whose every node has either zero or
implemented? two children is called
a) Array a) Complete binary tree
b) List b) Binary search tree
c) Heap c) Extended binary tree
d) Tree d) None of above

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42. The depth of a complete binary tree is given by 49. The dummy header in linked list contains……
a) Dn = n log2n a) First record of the actual data
b) Dn = n log2n+1 b) Last record of the actual data
c) Dn = log2n c) Pointer to the last record of the actual data
d) Dn = log2n+1 d) None of the above

43. When converting binary tree into extended binary 50. Two main measures for the efficiency of an
tree, all the original nodes in binary tree are algorithm are
a) internal nodes on extended tree a) Processor and memory
b) external nodes on extended tree b) Complexity and capacity
c) vanished on extended tree c) Time and space
d) None of above d) Data and space

44. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of

51. The time factor when determining the efficiency of
divide-and-conquer type?
algorithm is measured by
a) Bubble sort
b) Insertion sort a) Counting microseconds
c) Quick sort b) Counting the number of key operations
d) All of above c) Counting the number of statements
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm

45. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is

52. The space factor when determining the efficiency of
known as
algorithm is measured by
a) Sub algorithm
b) Recursion a) Counting the maximum memory needed by the
c) Polish notation algorithm
d) Traversal algorithm b) Counting the minimum memory needed by the
algorithm
c) Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm
d) Counting the maximum disk space needed by the
46. In linked lists there are no NULL links in ……. algorithm
a) Single linked list
b) Lin ear doubly linked list
c) circular linked list 53. Which of the following case does not exist in
d) None of the above
complexity theory
a) Best case
b) Worst case
47. In a Stack the command to access nth element from c) Average case
the top of the stacks will be d) Null case
a) S[Top-n]
b) S [Top+n]
c) S [top-n-1] 54. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm
d) None of the above
when
a) Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
b) Item is not in the array at all
48. The total number of comparisons in a bubble sort is c) Item is the last element in the array
a) O(n log n) d) Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all
b) O(2n)
c) O(n2)
d) None of the above
55. The Average case occur in linear search algorithm
a) When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
b) When Item is not in the array at all
c) When Item is the last element in the array
d) When Item is the last element in the array or is not there
at all

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56. The complexity of linear search algorithm is 63. New nodes are added to the _____ of the queue.
a) O(n) a) front
b) O(log n) b) back
c) O(n2) c) middle
d) O(n log n) d) Both 1 and 2

64. A _______ is a data structure that organizes data

57. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is similar to a line in the supermarket, where the first
a) O(n) one in line is the first one out.
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2) a) queue linked list
d) O(n log n) b) stacks linked list
c) both of them
d) neither of them

58. The operation of processing each element in the list

is known as 65. What happens when you push a new node onto a
a) Sorting stack?
b) Merging
c) Inserting a) the new node is placed at the front of the linked list.
d) Traversal b) the new node is placed at the back of the linked list.
c) the new node is placed at the middle of the linked list.
d) No Changes happens

59. Arrays are best data structures

a) for relatively permanent collections of data 66. The memory address of the first element of an array
b) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure
are constantly changing is called
c) for both of above situation a) floor address
d) for none of above situation b) foundation address
c) first address
d) base address
60. Linked lists are best suited
a) for relatively permanent collections of data
b) for the size of the structure and the data in the structure 67. Which of the following data structures are indexed
are constantly changing structures?
c) for both of above situation
a) linear arrays
d) for none of above situation
b) linked lists
c) both of above
d) none of above
61. The elements of an array are stored successively in
memory cells because
a) by this way computer can keep track only the address of 68. Which of the following data structure can’t store the
the first element and the addresses of other elements non-homogeneous data elements?
can be calculated
a) Arrays
b) the architecture of computer memory does not allow
b) Records
arrays to store other than serially
c) Pointers
c) both of above
d) None
d) none of above

69. Which of the following data structure store the

62. Value of the first linked list index is _______
homogeneous data elements?
a) One
b) Zero a) Arrays
c) -1 b) Records
d) None of these c) Pointers
d) None

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70. In the ....... traversal we process all of a vertex’s 77. In a priority queue, insertion and deletion takes
descendants before we move to an adjacent vertex. place at ………………
a) Depth Limited a) front, rear end
b) With First b) only at rear end
c) Breadth First c) only at front end
d) Depth First d) any position

71. Which of the following data structure is nonlinear 78. In order to get the contents of a Binary search tree
type? in ascending order, one has to traverse it in
a) Strings …………
b) Lists a) pre-order
c) Stacks b) in-order
d) Graph c) post order
d) not possible

72. Which of the following data structure is linear type?

a) Graph 79. Time required to merge two sorted lists of size m
b) Trees and n, is…………
c) Binary tree
d) Stack a) Ο(m | n)
b) Ο(m + n)
c) Ο(m log n)
d) Ο(n log m)
73. What will be the value of top, if there is a size of
stack [STACK_SIZE is 5]
a) 5 80. The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes
b) 6 ………….
c) 4
d) None a) O(1) time
b) O(n2) time
c) O(log n) time
d) O(n log n) time
74. There is an extra element at the head of the list
called a ……….
a) Antennal 81. Quick sort running time depends on the selection of
b) Sentinel ………………
c) List header
d) List head a) size of array
b) pivot element
c) sequence of values
d) none of the above
75. In general, the binary search method needs no more
than ……………. comparisons.
a) [log2n]-1 82. Which of the following sorting methods would be
b) [logn]+1 most suitable for sorting a list which is almost
c) [log2n]
d) [log2n]+1 sorted?
a) Bubble Sort
b) Insertion Sort
c) Selection Sort
76. Any node is the path from the root to the node is
d) Quick Sort
called
a) Successor node
b) Ancestor node
c) Internal node
d) None of the above

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83. Minimum number of moves required to solve a 89. Which of the following types of expressions do not
Tower of Hanoi puzzle is ………….. require precedence rules for evaluation?
a) 2^n2 a) fully parenthesized infix expression
b) n-1 b) postfix expression
c) 2n – 1 c) partially parenthesized infix expression
d) 2n – 2 d) more than one of the above

84. One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image 90. What data structure is used for breadth first
by traversing it in traversal of a graph?
a) in-order a) Queue
b) pre-order b) Stack
c) post-order c) List
d) any order d) None of these

85. Which of the following is an example of dynamic 91. Program with highest run-time complexity is
programming approach? ………………..
a) Fibonacci Series a) Tower of Hanoi
b) Tower of Hanoi b) Fibonacci Series
c) Dijkstra’s Shortest Path c) Prime Number Series
d) All of the above d) None of these

86. The Θ notation in asymptotic evaluation represents 92. Which of the following is an application of stack?
……….. a) finding factorial
a) Base case b) tower of Hanoi
b) Average case c) infix to postfix conversion
c) Worst case d) all of the above
d) NULL case

93. The disadvantage in using a circular linked list

87. A full binary tree with n leaves contains …………. is…………………….
a) n nodes a) It is possible to get into infinite loop.
b) log n2 nodes b) Last node points to first node.
c) 2n –1 nodes c) Time consuming
d) 2n nodes d) Requires more memory space

88. Linked lists are not suitable data structures for 94. When does top value of the stack changes?
which one of the following problems? a) Before deletion
a) Insertion sort b) While checking underflow
b) Binary search c) At the time of deletion
c) Radix sort d) After deletion
d) Polynomial manipulation

95. In a queue, the initial values of front pointer f rare

pointer r should be …….. and ……….. respectively.
a) 0 and 1
b) 0 and -1
c) -1 and 0
d) 1 and 0

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98. Given an input arr = {2,5,7,99,899}; key = 899;

What is the level of recursion?
a) 5
96. Where is linear searching used? b) 2
a) When the list has only a few elements c) 3
b) When performing a single search in an unordered list d) 4
c) Used all the time
d) When the list has only a few elements and When
performing a single search in an unordered list 99. What is the worst case complexity of binary search
using recursion?
a) O(nlogn)
97. Which of the following is a disadvantage of linear b) O(logn)
c) O(n)
search?
d) O(n2)
a) Requires more space
b) Greater time complexities compared to other searching
algorithms
c) Not easy to understand 100. Choose the recursive formula for the Fibonacci
d) Not easy to implement series.(n>=1)
a) F(n) = F(n+1) + F(n+2)
b) F(n) = F(n) + F(n+1)
c) F(n) = F(n-1) + F(n-2)
d) F(n) = F(n-1) – F(n-2)

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Algorithm Analysis

1. Which of the following algorithm implementations is 7. What is the worst-case complexity of selection sort?
similar to that of an insertion sort? a) O(nlogn)
a) Binary heap b) O(logn)
b) Quick sort c) O(n)
c) Merge sort d) O(n2)
d) Radix sort
8. Which of the following is not a stable sorting
2. What is the average case running time of an algorithm?
insertion sort algorithm? a) Quick sort
a) O(N) b) Cocktail sort
b) O(N log N) c) Bubble sort
c) O(log N) d) Merge sort
d) O(N2)
9. Which of the following stable sorting algorithm
3. What will be the number of passes to sort the takes the least time when applied to an almost sorted
elements using insertion sort? array?
14, 12,16, 6, 3, 10 a) Quick sort
a) 6 b) Insertion sort
b) 5 c) Selection sort
c) 7 d) Merge sort
d) 1
10. Which of the following sorting algorithms is the
4. Which of the following real time examples is based fastest?
on insertion sort? a) Merge sort
a) arranging a pack of playing cards b) Quick sort
b) database scenarios and distributes scenarios c) Insertion sort
c) arranging books on a library shelf d) Shell sort
d) real-time systems
11. What is the average running time of a quick sort
5. Which of the following sorting algorithms is the algorithm?
fastest for sorting small arrays? a) O(N2)
a) Quick sort b) O(N)
b) Insertion sort c) O(N log N)
c) Shell sort d) O(log N)
d) Heap sort
12. Which of the following sorting algorithms is used
6. In the following scenarios, when will you use along with quick sort to sort the sub arrays?
selection sort? a) Merge sort
a) The input is already sorted b) Shell sort
b) A large file has to be sorted c) Insertion sort
c) Large values need to be sorted with small keys d) Bubble sort
d) Small values need to be sorted with large keys

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13. Shell sort algorithm is an example of? 20. Depth First Search is equivalent to which of the
a) External sorting traversal in the Binary Trees?
b) Internal sorting a) Pre-order Traversal
c) In-place sorting b) Post-order Traversal
d) Bottom-up sorting c) Level-order Traversal
d) In-order Traversal
14. Which of the following sorting algorithms is closely
related to shell sort? 21. Which of the following is not an application of
a) Selection sort Depth First Search?
b) Merge sort a) For generating topological sort of a graph
c) Insertion sort b) For generating Strongly Connected Components of a
d) Bucket sort directed graph
c) Detecting cycles in the graph
15. Why is Shell sort called as a generalization of d) Peer to Peer Networks
Insertion sort?
a) Shell sort allows an exchange of far items whereas 22. When the Depth First Search of a graph is unique?
insertion sort moves elements by one position a) When the graph is a Binary Tree
b) Improved lower bound analysis b) When the graph is a Linked List
c) Insertion is more efficient than any other algorithms c) When the graph is a n-ary Tree
d) Shell sort performs internal sorting d) When the graph is a ternary Tree
16. On which algorithm is heap sort based on?
a) Fibonacci heap 23. In Depth First Search, how many times a node is
b) Binary tree visited?
c) Priority queue a) Once
d) FIFO b) Twice
c) Equivalent to number of indegree of the node
17. How many comparisons will be made to sort the d) Thrice
array arr={1, 5, 3, 8, 2} using bucket sort? 24. Breadth First Search is equivalent to which of the
a) 5 traversal in the Binary Trees?
b) 7 a) Pre-order Traversal
c) 9 b) Post-order Traversal
d) 0 c) Level-order Traversal
d) In-order Traversal
18. Bucket sort is most efficient in the case when
__________ 25. Time Complexity of Breadth First Search is? (V
a) the input is non-uniformly distributed number of vertices, E number of edges)
b) the input is uniformly distributed a) O(V + E)
c) the input is randomly distributed b) O(V)
d) the input range is large c) O(E)
d) O(V*E)
19. What is the worst case time complexity of bucket
sort (k = number of buckets)? 26. Which of the following is false in the case of a
a) O(n + k) spanning tree of a graph G?
b) O(n.k) a) It is tree that spans G
c) O(n2) b) It is a subgraph of the G
d) O(n log n) c) It includes every vertex of the G
d) It can be either cyclic or acyclic

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27. Kruskal’s algorithm is used to ______ 34. The Bellman Ford algorithm returns _______ value.
a) find minimum spanning tree a) Boolean
b) find single source shortest path b) Integer
c) find all pair shortest path algorithm c) String
d) traverse the graph d) Double

28. Which of the following is true? 35. Bellman ford algorithm provides solution for
a) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a vertex ____________ problems.
b) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a edge a) All pair shortest path
c) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a vertex which has b) Sorting
smallest edge c) Network flow
d) Prim’s algorithm initializes with a forest d) Single source shortest path

29. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____________ 36. How many solution/solutions are available for a
problems. graph having negative weight cycle?
a) All pair shortest path a) One solution
b) Single source shortest path b) Two solutions
c) Network flow c) No solution
d) Sorting d) Infinite solutions

30. Dijkstra’s Algorithm cannot be applied on 37. Bellmann Ford Algorithm can be applied for
______________ _____________
a) Directed and weighted graphs a) Undirected and weighted graphs
b) Graphs having negative weight function b) Undirected and unweighted graphs
c) Unweighted graphs c) Directed and weighted graphs
d) Undirected and unweighted graphs d) All directed graphs

31. Floyd Warshall’s Algorithm is used for solving 38. Recursion is a method in which the solution of a
____________ problem depends on ____________
a) All pair shortest path problems a) Larger instances of different problems
b) Single Source shortest path problems b) Larger instances of the same problem
c) Network flow problems c) Smaller instances of the same problem
d) Sorting problems d) Smaller instances of different problems
32. What approach is being followed in Floyd Warshall
Algorithm? 39. Which of the following problems can’t be solved
a) Greedy technique using recursion?
b) Dynamic Programming a) Factorial of a number
c) Linear Programming b) Nth fibonacci number
d) Backtracking c) Length of a string
d) Problems without base case
33. What procedure is being followed in Floyd Warshall
Algorithm? 40. Which of the following recursive formula can be
a) Top down used to find the factorial of a number?
b) Bottom up a) fact(n) = n * fact(n)
c) Big bang b) fact(n) = n * fact(n+1)
d) Sandwich c) fact(n) = n * fact(n-1)
d) fact(n) = n * fact(1)

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41. Which of the following recurrence relations can be 48. The problem of placing n queens in a chessboard
used to find the nth Fibonacci number? such that no two queens attack each other is called
a) F(n) = F(n) + F(n – 1) as?
b) F(n) = F(n) + F(n + 1) a) n-queen problem
c) F(n) = F(n – 1) b) eight queens puzzle
d) F(n) = F(n – 1) + F(n – 2) c) four queens puzzle
d) 1-queen problem
42. Fractional knapsack problem is also known as
__________ 49. In how many directions do queens attack each other
a) 0/1 knapsack problem in n queens problem?
b) Continuous knapsack problem a) 1
c) Divisible knapsack problem b) 2
d) Non-continuous knapsack problem c) 3
d) 4
43. What is the objective of the knapsack problem?
a) To get maximum total value in the knapsack 50. Where is the n-queens problem implemented?
b) To get minimum total value in the knapsack a) carom
c) To get maximum weight in the knapsack b) chess
d) To get minimum weight in the knapsack c) ludo
d) cards
44. Which of the following algorithms is the best
approach for solving Huffman codes? 51. Which of the following methods can be used to solve
a) exhaustive search n-queen’s problem?
b) greedy algorithm a) greedy algorithm
c) brute force algorithm b) divide and conquer
d) divide and conquer algorithm c) iterative improvement
d) backtracking
45. Which of the problems cannot be solved by
backtracking method? 52. If a problem can be solved by combining optimal
a) n-queen problem solutions to non-overlapping problems, the strategy
b) subset sum problem is called _____________
c) Hamiltonian circuit problem a) Dynamic programming
d) travelling salesman problem b) Greedy
c) Divide and conquer
46. Backtracking algorithm is implemented by d) Recursion
constructing a tree of choices called as?
a) State-space tree 53. A graph in which all vertices have equal degree is
b) State-chart tree known as ____
c) Node tree a) Complete graph
d) Backtracking tree b) Regular graph
c) Multi graph
d) Simple graph
47. Which one of the following is an application of the
54. A vertex of in-degree zero in a directed graph is
backtracking algorithm?
called a/an
a) Finding the shortest path
a) Root vertex
b) Finding the efficient quantity to shop
b) Isolated vertex
c) Ludo c) Sink
d) Crossword d) Articulation point

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55. A graph is a tree if and only if graph is 64. What is the peculiarity of red black trees?
a) Directed graph a) In red-black trees, the root do not contain data.
b) Contains no cycles b) In red-black trees, the leaf nodes are not relevant and do
c) Planar not contain data.
d) Completely connected c) In red-black trees, the leaf nodes are relevant but do not
contain data.
56. ………. sorting is good to use when alphabetizing a d) Both a and c above
large list of names.
65. What is the advantage of selection sort over other
a) Merge
b) Heap sorting techniques?
c) Radix a) It requires no additional storage space
d) Bubble b) It is scalable
c) It works best for inputs which are already sorted
57. What is the advantage of recursive approach than d) It is faster than any other sorting technique
an iterative approach?
a) Consumes less memory
b) Less code and easy to implement 66. Shell sort is also known as _____________
c) Consumes more memory
d) More code has to be written a) diminishing decrement sort
b) diminishing increment sort
58. AVL trees have a faster ________ c) partition exchange sort
d) diminishing insertion sort
a) Insertion
b) Deletion 67. Shell sort is an improvement on ____
c) Updating
d) Retrieval a) insertion sort
b) selection sort
c) binary tree sort
59. What is the worst-case complexity of binary search d) quick sort
using recursion?
68. Which of the following is the distribution sort?
a) O(nlogn)
b) O(logn) a) Heap sort
c) O(n) b) Smooth sort
d) O(n2) c) Quick sort
d) LSD radix sort
60. Binary Search can be categorized into which of the
69. Key value pair is usually seen in
following?
a) Hash tables
a) Brute Force technique
b) Heaps
b) Divide and conquer
c) Both a and b
c) Greedy algorithm
d) Skip list
d) Dynamic programming
70. In a heap, element with the greatest key is always in
61. The data structure required for Breadth First
the _______ node.
Traversal on a graph is?
a) leaf
a) Stack
b) root
b) Array
c) first node of left sub tree
c) Queue
d) first node of right sub tree
d) Tree
71. In _________ tree, the heights of the two child
62. What is an external sorting algorithm?
subtrees of any node differ by at most one
a) Algorithm that uses tape or disk during the sort
b) Algorithm that uses main memory during the sort a) Binary
c) Algorithm that involves swapping b) Red black
d) Algorithm that are considered ‘in place’ c) Splay
d) AVL
63. What is an internal sorting algorithm?
a) Algorithm that uses tape or disk during the sort
b) Algorithm that uses main memory during the sort
c) Algorithm that involves swapping
d) Algorithm that are considered ‘in place’

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72. Which data structure allows deleting data elements 80. The space factor when determining the efficiency of
from front and inserting at rear? algorithm is measured by
a) Stacks a) Counting the maximum memory needed by the
b) Queues algorithm
c) Deques b) Counting the minimum memory needed by the
d) Binary search tree algorithm
c) Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm
73. To represent hierarchical relationship between d) Counting the maximum disk space needed by the
elements, which data structure is suitable? algorithm

a) Deque 81. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is

b) Priority
c) Tree a) O(n)
d) All of above b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
74. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of d) O(n log n)

divide-and-conquer type? 82. In the ....... traversal we process all of a vertex’s

a) Bubble sort descendants before we move to an adjacent vertex.
b) Insertion sort
c) Quick sort a) Depth Limited
d) All of above b) With First
c) Breadth First
75. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is d) Depth First

known as 83. A directed graph is ………………. if there is a path

a) Sub algorithm from each vertex to every other vertex in the digraph.
b) Recursion
c) Polish notation a) Weakly connected
d) Traversal algorithm b) Strongly Connected
c) Tightly Connected
76. In a Heap tree d) Linearly Connected

a) Values in a node is greater than every value in left sub 84. Which of the following is not the internal sort?
tree and smaller than right sub tree
b) Values in a node is greater than every value in children a) Insertion Sort
of it b) Bubble Sort
c) Both of above conditions applies c) Merge Sort
d) None of above conditions applies d) Heap Sort

77. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node 85. A graph is said to be ……………… if the vertices can

v in G, A graph is said to be be split into two sets V1 and V2 such there are no

a) isolated edges between two vertices of V1 or two vertices of

b) complete V2.
c) finite a) Partite
d) strongly connected b) Bipartite
c) Rooted
78. Two main measures for the efficiency of an d) Bisects
algorithm are
a) Processor and memory 86. One can convert a binary tree into its mirror image
b) Complexity and capacity by traversing it in
c) Time and space a) in-order
d) Data and space b) pre-order
c) post-order
79. The time factor when determining the efficiency of d) any order
algorithm is measured by
a) Counting microseconds 87. Which of the following is an example of dynamic
b) Counting the number of key operations programming approach?
c) Counting the number of statements a) Fibonacci Series
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm b) Tower of Hanoi
c) Dijkstra’s Shortest Path
d) All of the above

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88. In a min heap……………… 95. Given an input arr = {2,5,7,99,899}; key = 899;
a) minimum values are stored. What is the level of recursion?
b) child nodes have less value than parent nodes. a) 5
c) parent nodes have less value than child nodes. b) 2
d) maximum value is contained by the root node. c) 3
d) 4
89. A technique for direct search is …………
a) Binary Search 96. Choose the recursive formula for the Fibonacci
b) Linear Search series.(n>=1)
c) Tree Search
d) Hashing a) F(n) = F(n+1) + F(n+2)
b) F(n) = F(n) + F(n+1)
90. A graph ‘G’ with ‘n’ nodes is bipartite if it contains c) F(n) = F(n-1) + F(n-2)
d) F(n) = F(n-1) – F(n-2)
………….
a) n edges 97. Given an array arr = {45,77,89,90,94,99,100} and
b) a cycle of odd length key = 99; what are the mid values(corresponding
c) no cycle of odd length
d) n2 edges array elements) in the first and second levels of
recursion?
91. Which of the following is a difference between
a) 90 and 99
vectors and arrays? b) 90 and 94
a) Access to any element using the [] operator. c) 89 and 99
b) Stored in contiguous blocks of memory. d) 89 and 94
c) The ability to change size dynamically.
d) Efficient direct access to any element. 98. Which of the following sorting algorithm is stable?
a) Heap sort
92. Which of the following uses memorization? b) Selection sort
c) In-place MSD radix sort
a) Greedy approach d) LSD radix sort
b) Divide and conquer approach
c) Dynamic programming approach 99. ……………….. is combining the records in two
d) None of the above
different sorted files in to a single sorted file.
93. Travelling salesman problem is an example of a) Sorting.
………………. b) Searching.
c) Listing.
a) Dynamic Algorithm d) Merging.
b) Greedy Algorithm
c) Recursive Approach 100. What is an AVL tree?
d) Divide & Conquer
a) a tree which is balanced and is a height balanced tree
94. The spanning tree of connected graph with 10
vertices contains………….. b) a tree which is unbalanced and is a height balanced tree

a) 9 edges c) a tree with three children

b) 11 edges
c) 10 edges d) a tree with atmost 3 children
d) 9 vertices

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Operating System MCQ

1. What is an operating system? 9. The initial program that is run when the computer
a) collection of programs that manages hardware is powered up is called __________
resources a) boot program
b) system service provider to the application programs b) bootloader
c) interface between the hardware and application c) initializer
programs d) bootstrap program
d) all of the mentioned
10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by
2. Whenever a process needs I/O to or from a disk it
the kernel?
issues a ______________
a) kernel level thread
a) system call to the CPU b) user level thread
b) system call to the operating system c) process
c) a special procedure d) none of the mentioned
d) all of the mentioned
11. What is Dispatch latency?
3. By operating system, the resource management can
a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the
be done via __________ ready state
a) time division multiplexing b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready
b) space division multiplexing state and keeping the CPU idle
c) time and space division multiplexing c) the time to stop one process and start running another
d) none of the mentioned one
d) none of the mentioned
4. A “glue” between client and server parts of
application is………. 12. A software that lies between the OS and the

a) Middleware applications running on it.

b) Firmware a) Firmware
c) Package b) Middleware
d) System Software c) Utility Software
d) Application Software
5. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process 13. The _______ calls certain procedures on remote
b) communication between two process systems and is used to perform synchronous or
c) communication between two threads of same process asynchronous interactions between systems.
d) none of the mentioned
a) Procedure
6. What is the degree of multiprogramming? b) RPC
c) Message Oriented
a) the number of processes executed per unit time d) DB
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue 14. Which module gives control of the CPU to the
d) the number of processes in memory
process selected by the short-term scheduler?
7. Which one of the following is a synchronization a) dispatcher
tool? b) interrupt
c) scheduler
a) thread d) none of the mentioned
b) pipe
c) semaphore 15. The processes that are residing in main memory and
d) socket
are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list
8. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________ called _____________
a) for communication between two processes remotely a) job queue
different from each other on the same system b) ready queue
b) for communication between two processes on the same c) execution queue
system d) process queue
c) for communication between two processes on separate
systems
d) none of the mentioned

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16. The interval from the time of submission of a 24. What are the two steps of a process execution?
process to the time of completion is termed as a) I/O & OS Burst
____________ b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
a) waiting time d) OS & Memory Burst
b) turnaround time
c) response time 25. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the
d) throughput
________ scheduler, to be executed.
17. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first a) blocked, short term
to the process that requests the CPU first? b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
a) first-come, first-served scheduling d) ready, long term
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling 26. Scheduling is done to ____________
d) none of the mentioned
a) increase CPU utilization
18. In priority scheduling algorithm____________ b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority d) none of the mentioned
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes cannot be scheduled 27. What is Turnaround time?
d) None of the mentioned
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
19. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared d) the total time from the completion till the submission of
with the priority of ____________ a process
a) all process
28. What is Waiting time?
b) currently running process
c) parent process a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
d) in it process b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
20. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum? d) the total time from the completion till the submission of
a process
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
29. What is Response time?
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm a) the total time taken from the submission time till the
completion time
21. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by b) the total time taken from the submission time till the
first response is produced
the kernel?
c) the total time taken from submission time till the
a) kernel level thread response is output
b) user level thread d) none of the mentioned
c) process
d) none of the mentioned 30. Round robin scheduling falls under the category
of____________
22. CPU scheduling is the basis of___________
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
a) multiprocessor systems
b) Preemptive scheduling
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) All of the mentioned
c) larger memory sized systems
d) None of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
31. The strategy of making processes that are logically
23. With multiprogramming ______ is used
runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
productively.
____________
a) time
b) space a) Non preemptive scheduling
c) money b) Preemptive scheduling
d) all of the mentioned c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served

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32. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize 40. What is the ready state of a process?
the process flow time? a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
a) First come First served b) when process is unable to run until some task has been
b) Shortest Job First completed
c) Earliest Deadline First c) when process is using the CPU
d) Longest Job First d) none of the mentioned

33. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm? 41. The address of the next instruction to be executed by

a) FCFS – First come First served the current process is provided by the __________
b) SJF – Shortest Job First a) CPU registers
c) RR – Round Robin b) Program counter
d) None of the mentioned c) Process stack
d) Pipe
34. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling
is ____________ 42. The number of processes completed per unit time is

a) it is too good an algorithm known as __________

b) knowing the length of the next CPU request a) Output
c) it is too complex to understand b) Throughput
d) none of the mentioned c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
35. What is ‘Aging’?
a) keeping track of cache contents 43. The state of a process is defined by__________
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in a) the final activity of the process
memory b) the activity just executed by the process
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is c) the activity to next be executed by the process
referenced d) the current activity of the process
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a
finite time 44. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
36. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of b) Old
low priority processes is____________ c) Waiting
a) Starvation d) Running
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue 45. A single thread of control allows the process to
d) Aging perform __________
a) only one task at a time
37. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives b) multiple tasks at a time
minimum average waiting time? c) only two tasks at a time
a) FCFS d) all of the mentioned
b) SJF
c) Round – robin 46. Which of the following do not belong to queues for
d) Priority processes?
a) Job Queue
38. To access the services of operating system, the b) PCB queue
interface is provided by the ___________ c) Device Queue
a) System calls d) Ready Queue
b) API
c) Library 47. What will happen when a process terminates?
d) Assembly instructions a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
39. If a process fails, most operating system write the c) Its process control block is de-allocated
error information to a ______ d) Its process control block is never deallocated

a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
d) none of the mentioned

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48. What is a long-term scheduler? 55. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting
a) It selects processes which have to be brought into the for some I/O service. When the service is completed,
ready queue it goes to the __________
b) It selects processes which have to be executed next and
allocates CPU a) Running state
c) It selects processes which heave to remove from b) Ready state
memory by swapping c) Suspended state
d) None of the mentioned d) Terminated state

49. What is a medium-term scheduler? 56. When several processes access the same data
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready concurrently and the outcome of the execution
queue depends on the particular order in which the access
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and
takes place, is called?
allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by a) dynamic condition
swapping b) race condition
d) None of the mentioned c) essential condition
d) critical condition
50. What is a short-term scheduler?
57. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready
queue other processes can be executing in their critical
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and section. This condition is called?
allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by a) mutual exclusion
swapping b) critical exclusion
d) None of the mentioned c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
51. The primary distinction between the short term
58. Which one of the following is a synchronization
scheduler and the long term scheduler is__________
tool?
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule a) thread
c) The frequency of their execution b) pipe
d) None of the mentioned c) semaphore
d) socket
52. The only state transition that is initiated by the user
59. A semaphore is a shared integer variable
process itself is __________
__________
a) block
b) wakeup a) that can not drop below zero
c) dispatch b) that can not be more than zero
d) none of the mentioned c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
53. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time
60. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by
slot given to a process is completed, the process goes
medium priority task effectively inverting the
from the running state to the__________
relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state called__________
c) Suspended state a) priority inversion
d) Terminated state b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
54. In a multiprogramming environment__________ d) priority modification
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person 61. Process synchronization can be done on __________
c) more than one process resides in the memory a) hardware level
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same b) software level
time c) both hardware and software level
d) none of the mentioned

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62. Restricting the child process to a subset of the 70. Concurrent access to shared data may result in
parent’s resources prevents any process from ____________
__________ a) data consistency
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary b) data insecurity
storage c) data inconsistency
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization d) none of the mentioned
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-
processes 71. A situation where several processes access and
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources manipulate the same data concurrently and the
outcome of the execution depends on the particular
63. In UNIX, each process is identified by its__________
order in which access takes place is called
a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue ____________
c) Process Identifier a) data consistency
d) None of the mentioned b) race condition
c) aging
64. The child process can __________ d) starvation
a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process 72. The segment of code in which the process may change
c) cannot have another program loaded into it common variables, update tables, write into files is
d) never have another program loaded into it
known as ____________
65. The child process completes execution, but the parent a) program
b) critical section
keeps executing, then the child process is known as
c) non – critical section
__________ d) synchronizing
a) Orphan
b) Zombie 73. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied
c) Body to solve the critical section problem?
d) Dead
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
66. Which of the following two operations are provided
c) Bounded Waiting
by the IPC facility? d) All of the mentioned
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message 74. Mutual exclusion implies that____________
c) send & delete message a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no
d) receive & send message other process must be executing in their critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other
67. Messages sent by a process __________ processes must be executing in their critical sections
a) have to be of a fixed size c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all
b) have to be a variable size the resources of the system must be blocked until it
c) can be fixed or variable sized finishes execution
d) None of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

68. The Zero Capacity queue __________ 75. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical
section problem.
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering a) hardware for a system
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering b) special program for a system
c) is referred to as a link c) integer variable
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
69. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues 76. What are Spinlocks?
are referred to as__________ a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of
a) Programmed buffering programs
b) Automatic buffering b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) User defined buffering c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) No buffering d) All of the mentioned

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77. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks? 85. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosopher’s
a) they are not sufficient for many process problem ____________
b) they require busy waiting a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
c) they are unreliable sometimes b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of
d) they are too complex for programmers starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem
78. The wait operation of the semaphore basically further
works on the basic _______ system call. d) none of the mentioned
a) stop()
b) block() 86. Which of the following condition is required for a
c) hold() deadlock to be possible?
d) wait() a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting
79. The signal operation of the semaphore basically assignment of other resources
works on the basic _______ system call. c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process
a) continue() holding it
b) wakeup() d) all of the mentioned
c) getup()
d) start() 87. A system is in the safe state if____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in
80. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer some order and still avoid a deadlock
values ____________ b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
a) 1 d) none of the mentioned
b) -1
c) 0.8 88. The circular wait condition can be prevented by
d) 0.5
____________
81. Semaphores are mostly used to a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
implement____________ b) using thread
c) using pipes
a) System calls d) all of the mentioned
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection 89. Which one of the following is the deadlock
d) None of the mentioned
avoidance algorithm?
82. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only. a) banker’s algorithm
a) Mutual Exclusion b) round-robin algorithm
b) Bounded Waiting c) elevator algorithm
c) Aging d) karn’s algorithm
d) Progress
90. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
83. The bounded buffer problem is also known as a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource
____________ they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
a) Readers – Writers problem c) resource once available can disappear
b) Dining – Philosophers problem d) all of the mentioned
c) Producer – Consumer problem
d) None of the mentioned 91. A problem encountered in multitasking when a

84. In the bounded buffer problem____________ process is perpetually denied necessary resources is

a) there is only one buffer called ____________

b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite) a) deadlock
c) there are infinite buffers b) starvation
d) the buffer size is bounded c) inversion
d) aging

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92. The number of resources requested by a process 99. What is the solution to starvation?
____________ a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost
a) must always be less than the total number of resources factor
available in the system b) the number of resources must be included in resource
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources preemption
available in the system c) resource preemption be done instead
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available d) all of the mentioned
in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in 100. The major part of swap time is _______time.
the system a) waiting
b) transfer
93. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following c) execution
conditions must hold simultaneously? d) none of the mentioned

a) Mutual exclusion 101. Swap space is allocated ____________

b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait a) as a chunk of disk
d) All of the mentioned b) separate from a file system
c) into a file system
94. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a d) all of the mentioned

____________ 102. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address

a) safe allocation is done by ____________
b) safe resource
c) safe sequence a) Memory management unit
d) all of the mentioned b) CPU
c) PCI
95. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph d) None of the mentioned

____________ 103. Memory management technique in which system

a) then the system will not be in a safe state stores and retrieves data from secondary storage for
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned use in main memory is called?
d) none of the mentioned a) fragmentation
b) paging
96. The Banker’s algorithm is_____________ than the c) mapping
resource allocation graph algorithm. d) none of the mentioned

a) less efficient 104. What is compaction?

b) more efficient
c) equal a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
d) none of the mentioned b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
97. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection d) a technique for overcoming fatal error

algorithm that is applicable when____________ 105. Transient operating system code is code that
a) all resources have a single instance ____________
b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances a) is not easily accessible
d) all of the mentioned b) comes and goes as needed
c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space

98. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process 106. With paging there is no ________fragmentation.
cannot continue with its normal execution and it must a) internal
be ____________ b) external
c) either type of
a) aborted d) none of the mentioned
b) rolled back
c) terminated 107. A process is thrashing if ____________
d) queued
a) it is spending more time paging than executing
b) it is spending less time paging than executing
c) page fault occurs
d) swapping can not take place

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108. Virtual memory allows ____________ 114. An unrecoverable error is known as_________
a) execution of a process that may not be completely in a) hard error
memory b) tough error
b) a program to be smaller than the physical memory c) soft error
c) a program to be larger than the secondary storage d) none of the mentioned
d) execution of a process without being in physical
memory 115. When device A has a cable that plugs into device B,
and device B has a cable that plugs into device C and
109. Virtual memory is normally implemented by
device C plugs into a port on the computer, this
________
arrangement is called a_________
a) demand paging
b) buses a) port
c) virtualization b) daisy chain
d) all of the mentioned c) bus
d) cable
110. Segment replacement algorithms are more complex
116. The ________ keeps state information about the use
than page replacement algorithms because
of I/O components.
____________
a) CPU
a) Segments are better than pages b) OS
b) Pages are better than segments c) kernel
c) Segments have variable sizes d) shell
d) Segments have fixed sizes
117. Which one of the following linux file system does not
111. A page fault occurs when?
support journaling feature?
a) a page gives inconsistent data
b) a page cannot be accessed due to its absence from a) ext2
memory b) ext3
c) a page is invisible c) ext4
d) all of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

112. When a page fault occurs, the state of the 118. The first process launched by the linux kernel is
interrupted process is ____________ ___________

a) disrupted a) init process

b) invalid b) zombie process
c) saved c) batch process
d) none of the mentioned d) boot process

113. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically 119. A process having multiple threads of control implies
improves performance because____________ ___________
a) Virtual memory increases a) it can do more than one task at a time
b) Larger RAMs are faster b) it can do only one task at a time, but much faster
c) Fewer page faults occur c) it has to use only one thread per process
d) None of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

120. When one thread immediately terminates the target

thread, it is called ____________
a) Asynchronous cancellation
b) Systematic cancellation
c) Sudden Termination
d) Deferred cancellation

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Database management System (DBMS)

1. In the relational model, cardinality is termed as: 9. DML is provided for

a) Number of tuples. a) Description of logical structure of database.
b) Number of attributes.
b) Addition of new structures in the database system.
c) Number of tables.
d) Number of constraints. c) Manipulation & processing of database.
d) Definition of physical structure of database system.
2. All kinds of facts, figures and details related people
places, things or an event is known as...............
10. In a relational model, relations are termed as
a) Data
b) Information a) Tuples
c) (a) and (b) both
b) Attributes
d) None of them
c) Tables.
3. ……… is nothing but “The Processed Data”.
d) Rows.
a) Data
b) Information
c) both
11. The database schema is written in
d) none of them
a) HLL
4. Users expect ………. in accessing data irrespective
b) DML
of the places they are at and irrespective of where
c) DDL
the data is stored.
d) DCL
a) touchability
b) flexibility
c) eligibility 12. In the architecture of a database system external
d) none of them
level is the
5. In current scenario with the advent and reach of a) physical level.
digital technologies, almost all data is stored and b) logical level.
managed.................... c) conceptual level
a) electronically d) view level.
b) magnetically
c) diagonally
d) none of them 13. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes
to form a primary key is a
6. Relational calculus is a
a) strong entity set.
a) Procedural language.
b) Non- Procedural language. b) weak entity set.
c) Data definition language.
c) simple entity set.
d) High level language.
d) primary entity set.
7. The view of total database content is
a) Conceptual view.
14. In a Hierarchical model, records are organized as
b) Internal view.
c) External view. a) Graph.
d) Physical View.
b) List.
8. Cartesian product in relational algebra is c) Links.
a) Unary operator. d) Tree.
b) Binary operator.
c) Ternary operator. 15. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
d) not defined. a) rectangle.
b) square.
c) ellipse.
d) triangle.

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16. The language used in application programs to 23. An advantage of the database management
request data from the DBMS is referred to as the approach is
a) DML a) data is dependent on programs.
b) DDL b) data redundancy increases.
c) VDL c) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple
d) SDL programs.
d) none of the above.
17. A logical schema
a) is the entire database. 24. Transaction processing is associated with everything
b) is a standard way of organizing information into below except
accessible parts. a) producing detail, summary, or exception reports.
c) describes how data is actually stored on disk. b) recording a business activity.
d) both (A) and (C) c) confirming an action or triggering a response.
d) maintaining data.
18. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represented by a
a) rectangle. 25. The method of access which uses key transformation
b) ellipse. is known as
c) diamond box. a) direct.
d) circle. b) hash.
c) random.
19. The DBMS language component which can be d) sequential.
embedded in a program is
a) The data definition language (DDL). 26. The statement in SQL which allows to change the
b) The data manipulation language (DML). definition of a table is
c) The database administrator (DBA). a) Alter.
d) A query language. b) Update.
c) Create.
20. A relational database developer refers to a record as d) select.
a) a criterion
b) a relation. 27. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity
c) a tuple. set?
d) an attribute. a) Dotted rectangle.
21. The method in which records are physically stored b) Diamond
in a specified order according to a key field in each c) Doubly outlined rectangle
record is d) None of these
a) hash.
b) direct. 28. Relational Algebra is
c) sequential a) Data Definition Language
d) all of the above. b) Meta Language
c) Procedural query Language
22. A subschema expresses d) None of the above
a) the logical view. 29. Key to represent relationship between tables is
b) the physical view. called
c) the external view. a) Primary key
d) all of the above. b) Secondary Key
c) Foreign Key
d) None of these

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30. The file organization that provides very fast access 37. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
to any arbitrary record of a file is a) Ellipse
a) Ordered file b) Dashed ellipse
b) Unordered file c) Rectangle
c) Hashed file d) Triangle
d) B-tree
38. A data manipulation command that combines the
31. Which of the following are the properties of entities? records from one or more tables is called………
a) Groups a) SELECT
b) Table b) PROJECT
c) Attributes c) JOIN
d) Switchboards d) PRODUCT

32. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are 39. In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by
a) Stringent real-time requirements. a) Ellipse
b) Multiple users wish to access the data. b) Dashed ellipse
c) Complex relationships among data. c) Rectangle
d) All of the above. d) Diamond

33. Which of the following operation is used if we are 40. A primary key if combined with a foreign key
interested in only certain columns of a table? creates……………….
a) PROJECTION a) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that
b) SELECTION connect them.
c) UNION b) Many to many relationships between the tables that
d) JOIN connect them.
c) Network model between the tables that connect them.
34. …………….data type can store unstructured data d) None of the above.
a) RAW
b) CHAR 41. The natural join is equal to…………….
c) NUMERIC a) Cartesian Product
d) VARCHAR b) Combination of Union and Cartesian product
c) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
35. The method of access which uses key transformation d) Combination of projection and Cartesian product
is known as
a) Direct 42. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R
b) Hash has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum
c) Random size of join is:
d) Sequential a) mn
b) m+n
36. …………. is a virtual table that draws its data from c) (m+n)/2
the result of an SQL SELECT statement. d) 2(m+n)
a) View
b) Synonym 43. Cross Product is a:
c) Sequence a) Unary Operator
d) Transaction b) Ternary Operator
c) Binary Operator
d) Not an operator

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44. In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by 52. Which data type stores up to the specified length
a) Ellipse and no padding is done?
b) Dashed ellipse a) Var Char
c) Rectangle b) Char
d) Triangle c) Var Char Ignore case
d) None of them
45. A data dictionary is a special file that contains: 53. ______ code that needs only one byte to store a
a) The name of all fields in all files. character.
b) The width of all fields in all files.
c) The data type of all fields in all files. a) ASCII
d) All of the above. b) ANSI
c) DBMS
46. Which of the following is a comparison operator in d) RDBMS
SQL? 54. A _____ value means unknown or missing value.
a) = a) junk
b) LIKE b) null
c) BETWEEN c) litter
d) All of the above d) refuse

47. The underlying structure of database is known 55. Primary key values cannot contain _______
as................... a) Duplicate values
b) Null values
a) Data model c) (a) and (b)
b) Data arrangement d) None of them
c) Data manipulation
d) Encapsulation 56. A primary key designed by combining more than
one field is known as ______ primary key.
48. Which of the following describes way of storing and
a) Composite
retrieving the data? b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
a) Data model
d) Main
b) Data arrangement
c) Data manipulation 57. Base will automatically assign ............. extension to
d) Encapsulation
the database file.
49. Database Management System can perform a) .obd
a) Retrieval of data as per user requirement b) .odb
b) Securing data and Maintaining backup of database c) .bas
c) Allowing multiple users to access database d) .bdo
simultaneously
58. ER model is used in _______
d) All of them
a) conceptual database
50. .............. are real world objects about which b) schema refinement
information is to be stored in database. c) physical refinement
d) applications and security
a) Entities
b) Objects
c) Data 59. Which of the following statements is not correct?
d) Attributes a) an entity is an object to the real world
b) entity is described using attributes
51. Each entity generally has collection of ................ c) attributes are described using entity
associated to it. d) each attribute must identify a domain

a) attributes 60. An instance is ___________

b) database
c) table a) a set of relationships
d) none of them b) set of attributes
c) set of entities
d) schema

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61. The language used application programs to request 70. This Relational Algebra operation requires two
data from the DBMS is referred to as the tables as input and the two tables must have one
a) DML common
b) DDL
a) RESTRICTION
c) query language
b) JOIN
d) none
c) DIVISION
d) PROJECTION
62. The relational database environment has all of the
following components except
71. Which SQL keyword must be used to remove
a) users
b) separate files duplicate rows from the result relation?
c) database
a) DELETE
d) query languages
b) DISTINCT
c) NOT EXISTS
63. ______________ is a ‘thing’ in the real world with an
d) UNIQUE
independent existence.
72. Which SQL keyword is used to return only different
a) Entity
b) Attribute values?
c) Key
a) COUNT
d) Relationship
b) NOSAME
c) GROUP
64. Which view is normally more stable?
d) DISTINCT
a) internal level
b) external level
c) conceptual level 73. Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result?
d) view level
a) ORDER
b) SORT-ORDER
65. The ability to modify the conceptual schema without
c) SORT
causing any change to the application program d) ORDER BY
a) Physical data independence
74. A table that is in 2NF and contains no transitive
b) Logical Data independence
c) External Data independence dependencies is said to be in
d) none
a) 1NF.
b) 2NF.
66. The information about data in a database is called
c) 3NF.
_____ d) 4NF.
a) Meta data
75. An entity is in second normal form if:
b) Tera data
c) hyper data a) all the values of nonprimary keys are dependent on the
d) none full primary key.
b) any non-key attributes that are dependent on only part
of the primary key should be moved to any entity where
67. The links between rows of a master table and those that partial key is the actual full key.
c) it must already be in first normal form.
of a nested table are maintained using:
d) all of the above.
a) pointers.
b) foreign keys. 76. A functional dependency is a relationship between or
c) determinants
among:
d) clusters.
a) Tables
68. A tuple is also known as a(n) b) Relations
c) Rows
___________________________ .
d) Attributes
a) table
b) relation 77. A table with a _____________ cannot exhibit partial
c) row
dependencies.
d) field
a) two rows
69. An attribute is also known as a(n) b) single-attribute
c) three columns
a) table
d) none of the above
b) relation
c) row
d) field

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78. Denormalization produces a ____________ normal 86. The modern database report writer:
form. a) is a career path that focuses on creating, managing and
supporting the reports generated from databases
a) higher
b) provide limited control over how information is
b) upper
displayed and reported.
c) slower
c) provides the tools for database designer to display
d) lower
information in the desired format
d) D)provides the tools for the database administrator to
monitor and report on database use and activity
79. Higher normal forms are better than lower normal
forms because higher normal forms yield fewer 87. The separation of the data definition from the
_______________ in the database. program is known as…………….
a) update, delete a) data dictionary
b) data storage b) data independence
c) data redundancies c) data integrity
d) none of the above d) referential integrity

80. The 2NF describes the tabular format in which: 88. In the client / server model, the database:
a) there are no repeating groups in the table a) is downloaded to the client upon request
b) all attributes are dependent on the primary key b) is shared by both the client and server
c) A & B with no partial dependency c) resides on the client side
d) there is no partial dependency d) resides on the server side

81. The process of converting complex object data 89. The traditional storage of data that is organized by
structures into well-structured relations is called: customer, stored in separate folders in filing cabinets
a) object-relational modeling. is an example of what type of 'database' system?
b) normalization.
a) Hierarchical
c) referential integrity.
b) Network
d) determinant analysis.
c) Object oriented
d) Relational
82. A relation is considered to be in second normal form
if it is in first normal form and it has no 90. The database design that consists of multiple tables
____________ dependencies. that are linked together through matching data
a) referential stored in each table is called
b) functional
a) Hierarchical database
c) partial key
b) Network database
d) transitive
c) Object oriented database
d) Relational database
83. An attribute in one table that references a unique
record in another table is called a: 91. What is the main limitation of Hierarchical
a) determinant. Databases?
b) foreign key.
a) Limited capacity (unable to hold much data)
c) referential attribute.
b) Limited flexibility in accessing data
d) functional dependency.
c) Overhead associated with maintaining indexes
d) The performance of the database is poor
84. The essential characteristic of____________ normal
form is that every determinant in the table must be a
92. An abstract data type is used to:
candidate key.
a) link data from remote databases.
a) Boyce Codd b) prevent users from getting to database security
b) Domain Key information.
c) Fourth c) provide a conceptual view of the data so it is easier to
d) Fifth understand.
d) store complex data structure to represent the properties
85. Software that defines a database, stores the data, of objects
supports a query language, produces reports and
creates data entry screens is
a) data dictionary
b) database management system (DBMS)
c) decision support system
d) relational database

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93. One of the first phases of a new database project that 100. The property (or set of properties) that uniquely
involves critical areas, expensive hardware or defines each row in a table is called the:
software within the organization is called a) identifier
b) index
___________
c) primary key
a) analysis phase d) symmetric key
b) feasibility study
c) investigation stage 101. Business rules can be represented in the database
d) system design
through:
a) associations (or relationships)
94. Which component of the database management b) attributes
system (DBMS) most affects the ability to handle c) properties
d) secondary keys
large problems (scalability)?
a) Data Storage Subsystem 102. The association role defines…………
b) Database Engine a) how tables are related in the database
c) Query Processor b) the relationship between the class diagram and the tables
d) Security Subsystem in the database
c) the tables that each attribute is contained
95. The primary difference between the Relational d) which attribute is the table's primary key
database (RDB) and Object oriented database
103. The purpose of an N-Ary association is:
(OODB) models is:
a) to capture a parent-child relationship
a) OODB incorporates methods in with the definition of the b) to deal with one to many relationships
data structure, while RDB does not c) to deal with relationships that involve more than two
b) OODB supports multiple objects in the same database tables
while RDB only supports a single table per database d) to represent an inheritance relationship
c) RDB allows the definition of the relationships between
the different tables, while OODB does not allow the 104. A composition association is drawn using which
relationships to be defined between objects
d) RDB supports indexes, while OODB does not support symbol:
indexes a) A line which loops back onto the same table
b) Small closed diamond at the end of a line connecting two
96. Which of the following items is not the advantage of tables
a DBMS? c) Small open diamond at the end of a line connecting two
tables
a) Improved ability to enforce standards d) Small triangle at the end of a line connecting the
b) Improved data consistency aggregated item and multiple component items
c) Local control over the data
d) Minimal data redundancy 105. Assume you are creating a database to handle the
data associated with instruction at a university. What
97. The predominant way of storing data today is using is the most appropriate special association to model
which type of database models? that a class may have multiple pre-requisites?
a) aggregation association
a) Hierarchical b) generalization association
b) Network c) n-ary association
c) Object oriented d) reflexive association
d) Relational
106. Assume you are creating a database to handle the
98. Two different terms are used to describe the
data associated with instruction at a university. What
characteristics of interest for an entity. They are
is the most appropriate special association to model
attributes and:
degree requirements (i.e., required number of courses
a) classes
b) entities in humanity, science, math, etc)?
c) properties a) composition association
d) traits b) generalization association
c) n-ary association
99. When building a database, the data dealing with an d) reflexive association
entity is modeled as a:
a) attribute
b) class
c) object
d) table

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107. Assume you are creating a database to handle the 110. The number of indexes allowed per table in MySQL
data associated with instruction at a university. What are ______.
is the most appropriate special association to model a) 64
b) 50
that a course has an assigned instructor, Teaching
c) 10
Assistants, a classroom, meeting time slot, and class d) 100
roster?
a) aggregation association 111. A reflexive association is one where one class is:
b) generalization association a) broken down into special cases
c) n-ary association b) combined with multiple other classes
d) reflexive association c) combined with one other class
d) linked back to itself
108. What is the most appropriate special association that
indicates that multiple textbooks make up a course 112. Which of the following statements is not correct?
required reading list?
a) aggregation association a) A primary goal of a database system is to share data with
b) generalization association multiple users
c) n-ary association b) It is possible to change a method or property inherited from
d) reflexive association a higher-level class
c) While companies collect data all the time, the structure of
109. What is the special association that indicates that one the data changes very often.
d) In a client / server environment, data independence causes
object can be broken down into multiple special client-side applications to be essentially independent of
cases? the database stored on the server side.

a) composition association
b) generalization association 113. Which of the following statements is not correct?
c) n-ary association
d) reflexive association a) Data Normalization is the process of defining the table
structure
b) The purpose of class diagrams is to model the
interrelationships between the different classes in the
database
c) Individual objects are stored as rows in a table
d) D) Properties of an object are stored as columns in a table.

114. The Bankers algorithm is used to …………………. ?

a) prevent deadlock
b) avoid deadlock
c) ignore deadlock
d) detecting deadlock

115. A page fault occurs when ……………. ?

a) the page is not found in the memory
b) page size if full
c) page is altered
d) none

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Microprocessor and Microcontroller

1. 8085 microprocessors have ………………. 8. In which of these addressing modes, a

a) 30 pin constant is specified in the instruction, after
b) 39 pin the opcode byte?
c) 40 pin a) register instructions
d) 41 pin b) Register specific instructions
c) Direct addressing
2. Which one of the following is not a vectored d) immediate mode
interrupt?
a) TRAP 9. It is a power supply signal, which requires
b) INTR +5V supply for the operation of the circuit.
c) RST 7.5 a) VCA
d) RST 3 b) VDD
c) VCC
3. In 8085 microprocessors, the RST6 d) INTA.
instruction transfer program execution to
following location 10. The _________ handles all the
a) 0030H communication between the processor and
b) 0024H the memory
c) 0048H a) numeric extension unit
d) 0060H b) Packed Unit
c) control unit
4. HLT opcode means d) Binary Unit
a) Load data to accumulator
b) Store result in memory 11. The instruction, ADD A, R7 is an example
c) Load accumulator with contents of register of
d) End of Program a) register instructions
b) Register specific instructions
5. Which of the following is not an addressing c) Indexed addressing
mode of 8051? d) none
a) register instructions
b) register specific instructions 12. What is SIM?
c) indexed addressing a) Select interrupt
d) None b) Sorting interrupt mask
c) Set interrupt mask
6. The coprocessor and the processor is d) None of these
connected via?
a) TEST 13. The only memory which can be accessed
b) QS0 using indexed addressing mode is
c) QS1 a) RAM
d) All of the above b) ROM
c) Main memory
7. In 8085 names of the 16 bit registers are d) Program memory
a) Stack pointer
b) Program counter
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

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14. The number of output pins in 8085 20. How many bytes of bit addressable memory
microprocessors are is present in 8051 based microcontrollers?
a) 27 a) 8 bytes
b) 40 b) 32 bytes
c) 21 c) 16 bytes
d) 19 d) 128 bytes

15. An interrupt breaks the execution of 21. Output of the assembler in machine codes is
instructions and diverts its execution to referred to as
a) Interrupt service routine a) Object program
b) Counter word register b) Source program
c) Execution unit c) Macro instruction
d) control unit d) Symbolic addressing

16. The data address of look-up table is found 22. Unlike microprocessors, microcontrollers
by adding the contents of make use of batteries because they have:
a) accumulator with that of program counter a) high power dissipation
b) accumulator with that of program counter or b) low power consumption
data pointer c) low voltage consumption
c) data register with that of program counter or d) low current consumption
accumulator
d) data register with that of program counter or 23. Why microcontrollers are not called general
data pointer purpose computers?
a) because they have built in RAM and ROM
17. The program counter in a 8085 micro- b) because they design to perform dedicated
processor is a 16-bit register, because task
a) It counts 16 bit at a time c) because they are cheap
b) There are 16 address lines d) because they consume low power
c) It facilitates the user storing 16 bit data
temporarily 24. Which of the following statements for intel
d) It has to fetch two 8 bit data at a time 8085 is correct?
a) Program counter(PC) specifies the address
18. While executing the main program, if two or of the instruction last executed
more interrupts occur, then the sequence of b) PC specifies the address of the instruction
appearance of interrupts is called being executed
a) multi-interrupt c) PC specifies the address of the instruction to
b) nested interrupt be executed
c) interrupt within interrupt d) PC specifies the number of instructions
d) nested interrupt and interrupt within executed so far
interrupt
25. If any interrupt request given to an input pin
19. A microcontroller at-least should consist of: cannot be disabled by any means then the
a) RAM, ROM, I/O ports and timers input pin is called
b) CPU, RAM, I/O ports and timers a) maskable interrupt
c) CPU, RAM, ROM, I/O ports and timers b) nonmaskable interrupt
d) CPU, ROM, I/O ports and timers c) maskable interrupt and nonmaskable
interrupt
d) none of the mentioned

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26. Register that is used to holds the memory 33. Whenever a number of devices interrupt a
address of the next instruction to be CPU at a time, and if the processor is able to
executed is handle them properly, it is said to have
a) Program Memory a) interrupt handling ability
b) Program Counter b) interrupt processing ability
c) Control Unit c) multiple interrupt processing ability
d) Instruction decoder d) multiple interrupt executing ability

27. Which one of the following is not correct? 34. Program counter stores what?
a) Bus is a group of wires a) Address of before instruction
b) Bootstrap is a technique or device for b) Address of the next instruction
loading first instruction c) Data of the before execution to be executed
c) An instruction is a set of bits that defines a d) Data of the execution instruction
computer operation
d) An interrupt signal is required at the start of 35. Which is the microprocessor comprising?
every program a) Register section
b) One or more ALU
28. The cycle required to fetch and execute an c) Control unit
instruction in a 8085 microprocessor is d) All of these
which one of the following?
a) Clock cycle 36. The Programmable interrupt controller is
b) Memory cycle required to
c) Machine cycle a) handle one interrupt request
d) Instruction cycle b) handle one or more interrupt requests at a
time
29. What do you mean by micro in c) handle one or more interrupt requests with a
microcontroller? delay
a) Distance between 2 IC’s d) handle no interrupt request
b) Distance between 2 transistors
c) Size of a controller 37. Which pin provides a reset option in 8051?
d) Distance between 2 pins a) Pin 1
b) Pin 8
30. The INTR interrupt may be c) Pin 11
a) maskable d) Pin 9
b) nonmaskable
c) maskable and nonmaskable 38. Accumulator based microprocessor example
d) none of the mentioned are:
a) Intel 8085
31. What is the bit size of the 8051 b) Motorola 6809
microcontrollers? c) Both
a) 8-bit d) None of these
b) 4-bit
c) 16-bit 39. The INTR interrupt may be masked using
d) 32-bit the flag
a) direction flag
32. Number of I/O ports in the 8051 b) overflow flag
microcontrollers? c) interrupt flag
a) 3 ports d) sign flag
b) 4 ports
c) 5 ports
d) 4 ports with last port having 5 pins

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40. Which is used to store critical pieces of data 47. Which one of the following register of 8085
during subroutines and interrupts: microprocessor is not a part of the
a) Stack programming model?
b) Queue a) Instruction register
c) Accumulator b) Memory address register
d) Data register c) Status register
d) Temporary data register
41. External Access is used to permit
____________ 48. The CPU sends out a ____ signal to indicate
a) Peripherals that valid data is available on the data bus:
b) Power supply a) Read
c) ALE b) Write
d) Memory interfacing c) Both A and B
d) None of these
42. Which is not the control bus signal:
a) READ 49. BIU STAND FOR:
b) WRITE a) Bus interface unit
c) RESET b) Bess interface unit
d) None of these c) A and B
d) None of these
43. In 8085 microprocessors how many
interrupts are maskable? 50. The pin that clears the control word register
a) Two of 8255 when enabled is
b) Three a) CLEAR
c) Four b) SET
d) Five c) RESET
d) CLK
44. Which one of the following addressing
technique is not used in 8085 51. The program counter in 8085
microprocessor? microprocessor is a 16 bit register because
a) Register a) It counts 16 bits at a time
b) Immediate b) There are 16 address times
c) Register indirect c) It facilitates the users storing 16 bit data
d) Relative temporarily
d) It has to fetch two 8 bit data at a time
45. The RAM which is created using bipolar
transistors is called: 52. The four-index register can be used for:
a) Dynamic RAM a) Arithmetic operation
b) Static RAM b) Multipulation operation
c) Permanent RAM c) Subtraction operation
d) DDR RAM d) None

46. The device that receives or transmits data 53. Which signal is used to select the slave in
upon the execution of input or output the serial peripheral interfacing?
instructions by the microprocessor is a) slave select
a) control word register b) master select
b) read/write control logic c) Interrupt
c) 3-state bidirectional buffer d) clock signal
d) none of the mentioned

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54. A direct memory access (DMA) transfer 60. Which commands are used for addressing
replies the off-chip data and associated codes
a) Direct transfer of data between memory and respectively by data pointer?
accumulator a) MOVX & MOVC
b) Direct transfer of data between memory and b) MOVY & MOVB
I/O devices without the use of c) MOVZ & MOVA
microprocessor d) MOVC & MOVY
c) Transfer of data exclusively within
microprocessor registers 61. The instruction RET executes with the
d) A fast transfer of data between following series of machine cycle
microprocessor and I/O devices a) Fetch, read, write
b) Fetch, write, write
55. In 8085 microprocessor system with c) Fetch, read, read
memory mapped I/O, which of the following d) Fetch, read
is true?
a) Devices have 8-bit address line 62. Direction flag is used with
b) Devices are accessed using IN and OUT a) String instructions
instructions b) Stack instructions
c) There can be maximum of 256 input devices c) Arithmetic instructions
and 256 output devices d) Branch instructions
d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be
directly performed with the I/O data 63. Following is a 16 bit register for 8085
microprocessor
56. In intel 8085A microprocessor ALE signal is a) Stack pointer
made high ………….. b) Accumulator
a) Enable the data bus to be used as low order c) Register B
address bus d) Register C
b) To latch data D0-D7 from data bus
c) To disable data bus 64. The register inform which holds the
d) To achieve all the functions listed above information about the nature of results of
arithmetic of logic operations is called as
57. If the pins of the keyboard are used as an a) Accumulator
interrupt, then these pins will cause an b) Condition code register
interrupt of what type? c) Flag register
a) External hardware interrupt d) Process status registers
b) Timer interrupt
c) TI/RI interrupt 65. A machine language instructions format
d) None of the mentioned consists of
a) Operation code field.
58. Handshaking mode of data transfer is b) Operation code field & operand field
a) Synchronous data transfer c) Operand field
b) asynchronous data transfer d) none of the mentioned
c) interrupt driven data transfer
d) None 66. The instruction MOVAX, 123H is an
example of
59. In a microprocessor the address of the new a) register addressing mode
next instruction to be executed is stored in b) immediate addressing mode
a) Stack pointer c) based indexed addressing mode
b) Address latch d) direct addressing mode
c) Program counter
d) General purpose register

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67. Which operations are performed by the bit 72. Which condition approve to prefer the
manipulating instructions of boolean EPROM/ROM versions for mass
processor? production in order toprevent the external
memory connections?
a) Complement bit
b) Set bit a) size of code < size of on-chip program
c) Clear bit memory
d) All of the above b) size of code > size of on-chip program
memory
c) size of code = size of on-chip program
68. Which data memory control and handle the memory
operation of several peripherals by d) None of the above
assigning themin the category of special
function registers?
73. Which characteristic/s of
a) Internal on-chip RAM accumulator is /are of
b) External off-chip RAM greater significance in terms
c) Both a & b of itsfunctionality?
d) None of the above a) Ability to store one of the operands before
the execution of an instruction
69. Why is the speed accessibility of external b) Ability to store the result after the execution
data memory slower than internal on-chip of an instruction
RAM? c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
a) Due to multiplexing of lower order byte of
address-data bus 74. What kind of instructions usually affect the
b) Due to multiplexing of higher order byte of program counter?
address-data bus a) Call & Jump
c) Due to demultiplexing of lower order byte of
b) Call & Return
address-data bus
c) Push & Pop
d) Due to demultiplexing of higher order byte
of address-data bus d) Return & Jump

75. Which flags represent the least

70. Which register usually store the significant bit (LSB) and most
output generated by ALU in several significant bit (MSB) of ProgramStatus
arithmetic and logicaloperations? Word (PSW) respectively?
a) Parity Flag & Carry Flag
a) Accumulator
b) Parity Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
b) Special Function Register
c) Carry Flag & Overflow Flag
c) Timer Register
d) Stack Pointer d) Carry Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag

76. Which locations of 128 bytes on-

71. Why is CHMOS technology preferred chip additional RAM are
over HMOS technology for designing the generally reserved for special
devices of MCS-51 family? functions?

a) Due to higher noise immunity a) 80H to 0FFH

b) Due to lower power consumption b) 70H to 0FFH
c) Due to higher speed c) 90H to 0FFH
d) All of the above d) 60H to 0FFH

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77. Which instruction find its utility in loading 80. Which output control signal is
the data pointer with 16 bits immediate data? activated after every six oscillator
a) MOV periods while fetching theexternal
b) INC program memory and almost remains
c) DEC high during internal program
d) ADDC execution?

78. What is the maximum capability of a) ALE

b) PSEN
addressing the off-chip data memory &
c) EA
off-chip programmemory in a data
d) All of the above
pointer?
a) 8K 81. Which version of MCS-51 requires the
b) 16K necessary connection of external clock
c) 32K source to XTAL2 in addition to the
d) 64K XTAL1 connectivity to ground level?

79. Which among the below mentioned a) HMOS

functions does not belong to the b) CHMOS
category of alternatefunctions usually c) CMOS
performed by Port 3 (Pins 10-17)? d) All of the above
a) External Interrupts
b) Internal Interrupts 82. How does the processor respond to an
c) Serial Ports occurrence of the interrupt?
d) Read / Write Control signals
a) By Interrupt Service Subroutine
b) By Interrupt Status Subroutine
c) By Interrupt Structure Subroutine
d) By Interrupt System Subroutine

83. Which location specify the storage/loading

of vector address during the interrupt
generation?

a) Stack Pointer
b) Program Counter
c) Data Pointer
d) All of the above

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Computer Architecture

1. Control Unit acts as the central nervous system of the 6. Which of the following is correct about 8086
computer. microprocessor?

a) True a) Intel’s first x86 processor

b) False b) Motrola’s first x86 processor

c) STMICROELECTRONICS’s first x86 processor

2. The address generated by the CPU is referred to as d) NanoXplore x86 processor

____________

a) Physical address
7. Which of the following is a type of microprocessor?
b) Logical address
a) CISC
c) Neither physical nor logical
b) RISC
d) None of the mentioned
c) EPIC

d) All of the mentioned

3. The address loaded into the memory address register
of the memory is referred to as____________

a) Physical address 8. The microprocessor of a computer can operate on

any information if it is present in ______________
b) Logical address only.

c) Neither physical nor logical a) Program Counter

d) None of the mentioned b) Flag

c) Main Memory

4. Which of the following holds the last instruction d) Secondary Memory

fetched?

a) PC
9. Which of the following addressing method does the
b) MAR instruction, MOV AX,[BX] represent?

c) MBR a) register indirect addressing mode

d) IR b) direct addressing mode

c) register addressing mode

5. Whenever the data is found in the cache memory it is d) register relative addressing mode
called as _________

a) HIT
10. Which of the following is not true about the address
b) MISS bus?

c) FOUND a) It consists of control PIN 21 to 28

d) ERROR b) It is a bidirectional

c) It is 16 bits in length

d) It is Unidirectional

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11. Which of the following is true about 17. What does a loader do in a microprocessor?
microprocessors?
a) Converts hexadecimal code to binary
a) It has an internal memory
b) Converts decimal to binary
b) It has interfacing circuits
c) Increments the content of the program counter by 1
c) It contains ALU, CU, and registers
d) Decodes an opcode
d) It uses Harvard architecture

18. When the data at a location in cache is different from

12. Which of the following is a special-purpose register of the data located in the main memory, the cache is
microprocessor? called _____________

a) Program counter a) Unique

b) Instruction register b) Inconsistent

c) Accumulator c) Variable

d) Temporary register d) Fault

13. How many address lines are present in 8086 19. In ____________ mapping, the data can be mapped
microprocessor? anywhere in the Cache Memory.

a) 16 a) Associative

b) 20 b) Direct

c) 32 c) Set Associative

d) 40 d) Indirect

14. Which of the following is not a condition flag? 20. The transfer between CPU and Cache
is______________
a) Trap flag
a) Block transfer
b) Auxiliary carry flag
b) Word transfer
c) Parity flag
c) Set transfer
d) Zero flag
d) Associative transfer
15. A memory connected to a microprocessor has 20
address lines and 16 data lines. What will be the
memory capacity?
21. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as
a) 8 KB ________

b) 2 MB a) Clock speed

c) 16 MB b) Clock frequency

d) 64 KB c) Clock rate

16. Which of the following is not true about 8085 d) Clock timing
microprocessor?

a) It is an 8-bit microprocessor

b) It is a 40 pin DIP chip

c) It is manufactured using PMOS technology

d) It has 16 address lines

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22. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of 27. If M denotes the number of memory locations and N
instructions? denotes the word size, then an expression that denotes
the storage capacity is ______________
a) CISC
a) M*N
b) RISC
b) M+N
c) EPIC
c) 2M+N
d) Multi-core
d) 2M-N

23. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce

is ________ 28. The operation that does not involves clock cycles is
____________
a) RISC
a) Installation of a device
b) EPIC
b) Execute
c) CISC
c) Fetch
d) Multi-core
d) Decode

29. Word length of a personal computer___________

24. Which of the following is the fastest means of memory
access for CPU? a) 64bits

a) Registers b) 16 bits

b) Cache c) 8 bits

c) Main memory d) 32 bits

d) Virtual Memory

30. The process in which a file is partitioned into smaller

parts and different parts are stored in different disks
25. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends on the is ____________
size of the address bus.
a) RAID
a) Main
b) Mirroring
b) Virtual
c) Stripping
c) Secondary
d) RAID classification
d) Cache

31. The base register is also known as the____________

26. Which of the following is independent of the address
bus? a) basic register

a) Secondary memory b) regular register

b) Main memory c) relocation register

c) Onboard memory d) deallocation register

d) Cache memory

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32. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according 37. ISP stands for _________
to the value of ____________
a) Instruction Set Processor
a) program counter
b) Information Standard Processing
b) status register
c) Interchange Standard Protocol
c) instruction register
d) Interrupt Service Procedure
d) program status word

38. ______ is used to choose between incrementing the

33. Program always deals with ____________ PC or performing ALU operations.

a) logical address a) Conditional codes

b) absolute address b) Multiplexer

c) physical address c) Control unit

d) relative address d) None of the mentioned

34. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the

intermediate results. 39. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between
them are collectively called as _____
a) Accumulators
a) process route
b) Registers
b) information trail
c) Heap
c) information path
d) Stack
d) data path

35. ______ structure is usually used to connect I/O

devices. 40. ______ are used to overcome the difference in data
transfer speeds of various devices.
a) Single bus
a) Speed enhancing circuitry
b) Multiple bus
b) Bridge circuits
c) Star bus
c) Multiple Buses
d) Rambus
d) Buffer registers

36. ______ is generally used to increase the apparent size

of physical memory. 41. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus we
use ________
a) Secondary memory
a) PCI bus
b) Virtual memory
b) SCSI bus
c) Hard-disk
c) Controllers
d) Disks
d) Multiple bus

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42. The ISA standard Buses are used to connect 47. When Performing a looping operation, the
___________ instruction gets stored in the ______

a) RAM and processor a) Registers

b) GPU and processor b) Cache

c) Harddisk and Processor c) System Heap

d) CD/DVD drives and Processor d) System stack

43. A processor performing fetch or decoding of different 48. The addressing mode/s, which uses the PC instead of
instruction during the execution of another a general purpose register is ______
instruction is called ______
a) Indexed with offset
a) Super-scaling
b) Relative
b) Pipe-lining
c) Direct
c) Parallel Computation
d) Both Indexed with offset and direct
d) None of the mentioned

49. The addressing mode, where you directly specify the

44. For a given FINITE number of instructions to be operand value is_______
executed, which architecture of the processor
provides for a faster execution? a) Immediate

a) ISA b) Direct

b) ANSA c) Definite

c) Super-scalar d) Relative

d) All of the mentioned

50. Which method of representation has two

representations for ‘0’?
45. The clock rate of the processor can be improved by
_________ a) Sign-magnitude

a) Improving the IC technology of the logic circuits b) 1’s complement

b) Reducing the amount of processing done in one step c) 2’s complement

c) By using the overclocking method d) None of the mentioned

d) All of the mentioned

51. The processor keeps track of the results of its
operations using flags called ________
46. The ultimate goal of a compiler is to ________
a) Conditional code flags
a) Reduce the clock cycles for a programming task
b) Test output flags
b) Reduce the size of the object code
c) Type flags
c) Be versatile
d) None of the mentioned
d) Be able to detect even the smallest of errors

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52. The register used to store the flags is called as 57. The type of memory assignment used in Intel
_________ processors is _____

a) Flag register a) Little Endian

b) Status register b) Big Endian

c) Test register c) Medium Endian

d) Log register d) None of the mentioned

53. The Flag ‘V’ is set to 1 indicates that_____________ 58. To get the physical address from the logical address
generated by CPU we use____________
a) The operation is valid
a) MAR
b) The operation is validated
b) MMU
c) The operation has resulted in an overflow
c) Overlays
d) None of the mentioned
d) TLB

54. In the implementation of a Multiplier circuit in the

system we make use of_______ 59. When generating physical addresses from a logical
address the offset is stored in __________
a) Counter
a) Translation look-aside buffer
b) Flip flop
b) Relocation register
c) Shift register
c) Page table
d) Push down stack
d) Shift register

55. A 24 bit address generates an address space of ______

locations. 60. The technique used to store programs larger than the
memory is ____________
a) 1024
a) Overlays
b) 4096
b) Extension registers
c) 248
c) Buffers
d) 16,777,216
d) Both Extension registers and Buffers

56. If a system is 64 bit machine, then the length of each

word will be _______ 61. The transfer of large chunks of data with the
involvement of the processor is done by _______
a) 4 bytes
a) DMA controller
b) 8 bytes
b) Arbitrator
c) 16 bytes
c) User system programs
d) 12 bytes
d) None of the mentioned

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62. In a system, which has 32 registers the register id is 67. The most efficient way of handling parameter passing
__________ long. is by using ______

a) 16 bit a) General purpose registers

b) 8 bits b) Stacks

c) 5 bits c) Memory locations

d) 6 bits d) None of the mentioned

63. The two phases of executing an instruction are 68. The data structure suitable for scheduling processes
__________ is _______

a) Instruction decoding and storage a) List

b) Instruction fetch and instruction execution b) Heap

c) Instruction execution and storage c) Queue

d) Instruction fetch and Instruction processing d) Stack

64. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as

______
69. The process wherein the processor constantly checks
a) OP-Code the status flags is called as ___________

b) Operators a) Polling

c) Commands b) Inspection

d) None of the mentioned c) Reviewing

d) Echoing

65. The utility program used to bring the object code into
memory for execution is ______
70. The interrupt-request line is a part of the
a) Loader ___________

b) Fetcher a) Data line

c) Extractor b) Control line

d) Linker c) Address line

d) None of the mentioned

66. When parameters are being passed on to the

subroutines they are stored in………….
71. An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored is
a) Registers ___________

b) Memory locations a) Vectored interrupt

c) Processor stacks b) Non-maskable interrupt

d) All of the mentioned c) Maskable interrupt

d) High priority interrupt

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72. Which interrupt is unmaskable? 77. If during the execution of an instruction an exception
is raised then__________
a) RST 5.5
a) The instruction is executed and the exception is handled
b) RST 7.5
b) The instruction is halted and the exception is handled
c) TRAP
c) The processor completes the execution and saves the data and
d) Both RST 5.5 and 7.5 then handle the exception

d) None of the mentioned

73. When dealing with multiple devices interrupts, which

mechanism is easy to implement?
78. _____ is/are types of exceptions.
a) Polling method
a) Trap
b) Vectored interrupts
b) Interrupt
c) Interrupt nesting
c) System calls
d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned

74. The processor indicates to the devices that it is ready

to receive interrupts ________ 79. The program used to find out errors is called
__________
a) By enabling the interrupt request line
a) Debugger
b) By enabling the IRQ bits
b) Compiler
c) By activating the interrupt acknowledge line
c) Assembler
d) None of the mentioned
d) Scanner

75. _________ method is used to establish priority by

serially connecting all devices that request an 80. facilities provided by the debugger is __________
interrupt.
a) Trace points
a) Vectored-interrupting
b) Break points
b) Daisy chain
c) Compile
c) Priority
d) Both Trace and Break points
d) Polling

81. The instructions which can be run only supervisor

76. Interrupts initiated by an instruction is called as mode are?
_______
a) Non-privileged instructions
a) Internal
b) System instructions
b) External
c) Privileged instructions
c) Hardware
d) Exception instructions
d) Software

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82. In DMA transfers, the required signals and addresses 88. The multiplier is stored in ______
are given by the__________
a) PC Register
a) Processor
b) Shift register
b) Device drivers
c) Cache
c) DMA controllers
d) None of the mentioned
d) The program itself

89. The pipelining process is also called as ______

83. Can a single DMA controller perform operations on
two different disks simultaneously? a) Superscalar operation

a) True b) Assembly line operation

b) False c) Von Neumann cycle

d) None of the mentioned

84. The primary function of the BUS is__________

a) To connect the various devices to the cpu 90. Each stage in pipelining should be completed within
___________ cycle.
b) To provide a path for communication between the processor and
other devices a) 1

c) To facilitate data transfer between various devices b) 2

d) All of the mentioned c) 3

d) 4

85. The transformation between the Parallel and serial

ports is done with the help of ______
91. The situation wherein the data of operands are not
a) Flip flops available is called______

b) Logic circuits a) Data hazard

c) Shift registers b) Stock

d) None of the mentioned c) Deadlock

d) Structural hazard

86. A narrow SCSI BUS has _____ data lines.

a) 6 92. The computer architecture aimed at reducing the

time of execution of instructions is ________
b) 8
a) CISC
c) 16
b) RISC
d) 4
c) ISA

d) ANNA
87. The maximum number of devices that can be
connected to SCSI BUS is ______

a) 12

b) 10

c) 16

d) 8

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93. In CISC architecture most of the complex 98. In the ARM, PC is implemented using___________
instructions are stored in _____
a) Caches
a) Register
b) Heaps
b) Diodes
c) General purpose register
c) CMOS
d) Stack
d) Transistors

99. The LEA mnemonic is used to__________

94. If the page table is large then it is stored in
__________ a) Load the effective address of an instruction

a) Processor b) Load the values of operands onto an accumulator

b) Main memory c) Declare the values as global constants

c) Disk d) Store the outcome of the operation at a memory location

d) Secondary storage
100. SIMD stands for __________

95. Whenever a request to the page that is not present in a) Single Instruction Multiple Data
the main memory is accessed ______ is triggered.
b) Simple Instruction Multiple Decoding
a) Interrupt
c) Sequential Instruction Multiple Decoding
b) Request
d) System Information Mutable Data
c) Page fault

d) None of the mentioned

101. Any condition that causes a processor to stall is called
as _________

96. When an operand is stored in a register it is _______ a) Hazard

a) Stored in the lower order bits of the register b) Page fault

b) Stored in the higher order bits of the register c) System error

c) Stored in any of the bits at random d) None of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned 102. The time lost due to the branch instruction is often
referred to as ____________

a) Latency
97. The main importance of ARM microprocessors is
providing operation with ______ b) Delay

a) Low cost and low power consumption c) Branch penalty

b) Higher degree of multi-tasking d) None of the mentioned

c) Lower error or glitches

d) Efficient memory management 103. The logical addresses generated by the cpu are
mapped onto physical memory by ____________

a) Relocation register

b) TLB

c) MMU

d) None of the mentioned

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104. A 16 X 8 Organization of memory cells, can store up 109. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus we
to _____ use ______

a) 256 bits a) PCI bus

b) 1024 bits b) SCSI bus

c) 512 bits c) Controllers

d) 128 bits d) Multiple bus

105. To reduce the number of external connections 110. The main purpose of having memory hierarchy is to
required, we make use of______ ________

a) De-multiplexer a) Reduce access time

b) Multiplexer b) Provide large capacity

c) Encoder c) Reduce propagation time

d) Decoder d) Reduce access time & Provide large capacity

106. The time taken to transfer a word of data to or from 111. __________ is used to implement virtual memory
the memory is called as______ organization.

a) Access time a) Page table

b) Cycle time b) Frame table

c) Memory latency c) MMU

d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

107. The fastest data access is provided using _______ 112. ______ translates the logical address into a physical
address.
a) Caches
a) MMU
b) DRAM’s
b) Translator
c) SRAM’s
c) Compiler
d) Registers
d) Linker

108. The correspondence between the main memory

blocks and those in the cache is given by _________ 113. The minimum number of transistors required to
implement a two input AND gate is
a) Hash function
A. 2
b) Mapping function
B. 4
c) Locale function
C. 6
d) Assign function
D. 8

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114. A structure that stores a number of bits taken 119. Which instruction find its utility in loading the data
“together as a unit” is a pointer with 16 bits immediate data?

A. gate a. MOV

B. mux b. INC

C. decoder c. DEC

D. register d. ADDC

115. Which register usually store the output generated by 120. What is the maximum capability of addressing the
ALU in several arithmetic and logical operations? off-chip data memory & off-chip program memory in
a data pointer?
a. Accumulator
a. 8K
b. Special Function Register
b. 16K
c. Timer Register
c. 32K
d. Stack Pointer
d. 64K

116. Which operations are performed by stack pointer

during its incremental phase? 121. How does the processor respond to an occurrence of
the interrupt?
a. Push
a. By Interrupt Service Subroutine
b. Pop
b. By Interrupt Status Subroutine
c. Return
c. By Interrupt Structure Subroutine
d. All of the above
d. By Interrupt System Subroutine

117. What kind of instructions usually affect the program

counter? 122. The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs
are
a. Call & Jump
(A) 00
b. Call & Return
(B) 01
c. Push & Pop
(C) 10
d. Return & Jump
(D) 11

118. Which commands are used for addressing the off-

chip data and associated codes respectively by data 123. The number of control lines for a 8 – to – 1
pointer? multiplexer is

a. MOVX & MOVC (A) 2

b. MOVY & MOVB (B) 3

c. MOVZ & MOVA (C) 4

d. MOVC & MOVY (D) 5

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124. How many Flip-Flops are required for mod–16 129. How many select lines will a 16 to 1 multiplexer will
counter? have

(A) 5 (A) 4

(B) 6 (B) 3

(C) 3 (C) 5

(D) 4 (D) 1

125. EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to 130. The chief reason why digital computers use
complemented subtraction is that it
(A)Ultraviolet rays.
(A)Simplifies the circuitry.
(B) Infrared rays.
(B)Is a very simple process.
(C) Burst of microwaves.
(C)Can handle negative numbers easily.
(D) Intense heat radiations.
(D)Avoids direct subtraction

126. Data can be changed from special code to temporal

code by using 131. Which one of the following offers CPUs as
integrated memory or peripheral interfaces?
(A)Shift registers Microcontroller
(B) counters (A)5 bits.
(C) Combinational circuits (B) 12 bits.

(D) A/D converters. (C) 8 bits.

(D) 10 bits.

127. The device which changes from serial data to parallel

data is

(A)COUNTER

(B)DEMULTIPLEXER

(C)MULTIPLEXER

(D) FLIP-FLOP

128. The access time of ROM using bipolar transistors is

about

(A) 1 sec

(B) 1 msec

(C) 1 µsec

(D) 1 nsec.

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Digital Circuits/Logics and Discrete Mathematics

1. The systematic reduction of logic circuits is 8. When does a negative level triggered flip-flop in
accomplished by………. Digital Electronics changes its state?
a) Symbolic reduction a) When the clock is negative
b) TTL logic b) When the clock is positive
c) Using Boolean algebra c) When the inputs are all zero
d) Using a truth table d) When the inputs are all one

2. What is a Circuit? 9. Which of the following is not a combinational circuit?

a) Open-loop through which electrons can pass a) Adder
b) Closed-loop through which electrons can pass b) Code convertor
c) Closed-loop through which Neutrons can pass c) Multiplexer
d) None of the mentioned d) Counter

3. Perform binary addition: 101101 + 011011 =? 10. What must be used along with synchronous control
a) 011010 inputs to trigger a change in the flip flop?
b) 1010100 a) 0
c) 101110 b) 1
d) 1001000 c) Clock
d) Previous output
4. Whose operations are faster among the following?
a) Combinational circuits 11. Total number of inputs in a half adder is __________
b) Sequential circuits a) 2
c) Latches b) 3
d) Flip-flops c) 4
d) 1
5. Which characteristic of IC in Digital Circuits
represents a function of the switching time of a 12. In which operation carry is obtained?
particular transistor? a) Subtraction
a) Fan – out b) Addition
b) Fan – in c) Multiplication
c) Power dissipation d) Both addition and subtraction
d) Propagation delay
13. What are the basic gates in MOS logic family?
6. When can one logic gate drive many other logic gates a) NAND and NOR
in Digital Electronics? b) AND and OR
c) NAND and OR
a) When its output impedance is low and the input d) AND and NOR
impedance is low
b) When its output impedance is high and the input 14. If A and B are the inputs of a half adder, the sum is
impedance is high
c) When its output impedance is high and the input given by __________
impedance is low a) A AND B
d) When its output impedance is low and the input b) A OR B
impedance is high c) A XOR B
d) A EX-NOR B
7. Transfer of one bit of information at a time is called
_______ 15. If A and B are the inputs of a half adder, the carry is

a) Rotating given by __________

b) Serial transfer a) A AND B
c) Parallel transfer b) A OR B
d) Shifting c) A XOR B
d) A EX-NOR B

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16. What characteristic will a TTL digital circuit possess 24. What will be the frequency of the output from a JK
due to its multi-emitter transistor? flip – flop, when J = 1, K = 1, and a clock with pulse
a) Low capacitance waveform is given?
b) High capacitance a) Half the frequency of clock input
c) Low inductance b) Equal to the frequency of clock input
d) High inductance c) Twice the frequency of clock input
d) Independent of the frequency of clock input
17. Half-adders have a major limitation in that they
cannot __________ 25. The main difference between a register and a counter
a) Accept a carry bit from a present stage is ___________
b) Accept a carry bit from a next stage a) A register has no specific sequence of states
c) Accept a carry bit from a previous stage b) A counter has no specific sequence of states
d) Accept a carry bit from the following stages c) A register has capability to store one bit of information
but counter has n-bit
18. The difference between half adder and full adder is d) A register counts data
__________
a) Half adder has two inputs while full adder has four inputs 26. Which of the following gives the correct number of
b) Half adder has one output while full adder has two multiplexers required to build a 32 x 1 multiplexer?
outputs a) Two 16 x 1 mux
c) Half adder has two inputs while full adder has three b) Three 8 x 1 mux
inputs c) Two 8 x 1 mux
d) All of the Mentioned d) Three 16 x 1 mux
19. What value is to be considered for a “don’t care 27. 3 bits full adder contains ____________
condition”? a) 3 combinational inputs
a) 0 b) 4 combinational inputs
b) 1 c) 6 combinational inputs
c) Either 0 or 1 d) 8 combinational inputs
d) Any number except 0 and 1
28. The simplified expression of full adder carry is
20. If A, B and C are the inputs of a full adder then the ____________
sum is given by __________ a) c = xy+xz+yz
a) A AND B AND C b) c = xy+xz
b) A OR B AND C c) c = xy+yz
c) A XOR B XOR C d) c = x+y+z
d) A OR B OR C
29. Decimal digit in BCD can be represented by
21. How many AND, OR and EXOR gates are required ____________
for the configuration of full adder? a) 1 input line
a) 1, 2, 2 b) 2 input lines
b) 2, 1, 2 c) 3 input lines
c) 3, 1, 2 d) 4 input lines
d) 4, 0, 1
30. Which gate is called the anti – coincidence and
22. The register is a type of ___________ coincidence gate respectively?
a) Sequential circuit a) XNOR and XOR
b) Combinational circuit b) AND and OR
c) CPU c) OR and AND
d) Latches d) XOR and XNOR
23. What will a TTL digital circuit possess due to the 31. How many natural states will there be in a 4-bit ripple
presence of a multi – emitter transistor? counter?
a) Smaller resistance a) 4
b) Larger area b) 8
c) Smaller area c) 16
d) Larger resistance d) 32

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32. What determines the output from the combinational 41. How many AND gates are required for a 1-to-8
logic circuit in Digital Electronics? multiplexer?
a) Input signals from the past condition a) 2
b) Input signals at the present moment b) 6
c) Input signals from both past and present c) 8
d) Input signals expected in future d) 5

33. A ripple counter’s speed is limited by the propagation 42. How many types of flip-flops are there?
delay of _____________ a) 2
a) Each flip-flop b) 3
b) All flip-flops and gates c) 4
c) The flip-flops only with gates d) 5
d) Only circuit gates
43. What is a trigger pulse?
34. A modulus-10 counter must have ________ a) A pulse that starts a cycle of operation
a) 10 flip-flops b) A pulse that reverses the cycle of operation
b) 4 Flip-flops c) A pulse that prevents a cycle of operation
c) 2 flip-flops d) A pulse that enhances a cycle of operation
d) Synchronous clocking
44. In D flip-flop, D stands for _____________
35. A counter circuit is usually constructed of a) Distant
____________ b) Data
c) Desired
a) A number of latches connected in cascade form d) Delay
b) A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form
c) A number of flip-flops connected in cascade 45. A D flip-flop can be constructed from an ______ flip-
d) A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form
flop.
36. How many types of the counter are there? a) S-R
a) 2 b) J-K
b) 3 c) T
c) 4 d) S-K
d) 5
46. Which of the following is the Universal Flip-flop?
37. Ripple counters are also called ____________ a) S-R flip-flop
a) SSI counters b) J-K flip-flop
b) Asynchronous counters c) Master slave flip-flop
c) Synchronous counters d) D Flip-flop
d) VLSI counters
47. The characteristic of J-K flip-flop is similar to
38. BCD counter is also known as ____________ _____________
a) Parallel counter a) S-R flip-flop
b) Decade counter b) D flip-flop
c) Synchronous counter c) T flip-flop
d) VLSI counter d) Gated T flip-flop

39. A variable on its own or in its complemented form is 48. _______ is used to store data in registers.
known as a __________ a) D flip flop
a) Product Term b) JK flip flop
b) Literal c) RS flip flop
c) Sum Term d) None of the mentioned
d) Word
49. Which representation is most efficient to perform
40. Canonical form is a unique way of representing arithmetic operations on the numbers?
____________ a) Sign-magnitude
a) SOP b) 1’s complement
b) Minterm c) 2’S complement
c) Boolean Expressions d) None of the mentioned
d) POS

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50. A _______ gate is used to detect the occurrence of an 59. Any signed negative binary number is recognized by
overflow. its ________
a) NAND a) MSB
b) XOR b) LSB
c) XNOR c) Byte
d) AND d) Nibble

51. The bit used to store whether the page has been 60. What does RTL in digital circuit design stand for?
modified or not is called as _______ a) Register transfer language
a) Dirty bit b) Register transfer logic
b) Modify bit c) Register transfer level
c) Relocation bit d) Resistor-transistor logic
d) None of the mentioned
61. RTL mainly focuses on describing the flow of signals
between ________
52. The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to a) Logic gates
a) 1100 b) Registers
b) 0101 c) Clock
c) 1001 d) Inverter
d) 0110
62. Which flip-flop is usually used in the implementation
53. The 2’s complement of the number 1101101 is of the registers?
a) 0101110 a) D flip-flop
b) 0111110 b) S-R flip-flop
c) 0110010 c) T flip-flop
d) 0010011 d) J-K flip-flop
54. The code where all successive numbers differ from 63. Which of the following tool performs logic
their preceding number by single bit is optimization?
a) Binary code. a) Simulation tool
b) BCD. b) Synthesis tool
c) Excess – 3. c) Routing tool
d) Gray. d) RTL compiler
55. A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is 64. All input of NOR as low produces results as
called __________
a) Encoder a) Low
b) Multiplexer b) Mid
c) Decoder c) High
d) Demultiplexer d) Floating

56. In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means 65. The primary advantage of RTL technology was that
a) Set Q = 1 and Q = 0. __________
b) Set Q = 0 and Q = 1.
c) Change the output to the opposite state. a) It results as low power dissipation
d) No change in output. b) It uses a minimum number of resistors
c) It uses a minimum number of transistors
57. When the set of input data to an even parity d) It operates swiftly
generator is 0111, the output will be 66. The disadvantage of RTL is that __________
a) 1 a) It uses a maximum number of resistors
b) 0 b) It results in high power dissipation
c) Unpredictable c) High noise creation
d) Depends on the previous input d) It uses minimum number of transistors
58. A full adder logic circuit will have
a) Two inputs and one output.
b) Three inputs and three outputs.
c) Two inputs and two outputs.
d) Three inputs and two outputs

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67. Diode–transistor logic (DTL) is the direct ancestor of 75. What is one disadvantage of an S-R flip-flop?
_____________ a) It has no Enable input
a) Register-transistor logic b) It has a RACE condition
b) Transistor–transistor logic c) It has no clock input
c) High threshold logic d) Invalid State
d) Emitter Coupled Logic
76. The basic latch consists of ___________
68. The DTL propagation delay is relatively a) Two inverters
___________ b) Two comparators
c) Two amplifiers
a) Large d) Two adders
b) Small
c) Moderate 77. Why latches are called as memory devices?
d) Negligible
a) It has capability to stare 8 bits of data
69. CMOS behaves as a/an ____________ b) It has internal memory of 4 bit
c) It can store one bit of data
a) Adder d) It can store infinite amount of data
b) Subtractor
c) Inverter 78. On a J-K flip-flop, when is the flip-flop in a hold
d) Comparator
condition?
a) J = 0, K = 0
70. Transistor–transistor logic (TTL) is a class of digital b) J = 1, K = 0
circuits built from ____________ c) J = 0, K = 1
d) J = 1, K = 1
a) JFET only
b) Bipolar junction transistors (BJT)
c) Resistors 79. Which of the following flip-flop is used by the ring
d) Bipolar junction transistors (BJT) and resistors
counter?
71. Which of the examples below expresses the a) D flip-flops
commutative law of multiplication? b) SR flip-flops
c) JK flip-flops
a) A+B=B+A d) T flip-flops
b) A•B=B+A
c) A • (B • C) = (A • B) • C 80. In __________ universal clock is not used.
d) A•B=B•A
a) Synchronous counter
72. The characteristic equation of S-R latch is b) Asynchronous counter
c) Decade counter
____________ d) Ring counter
a) Q(n+1) = (S + Q(n))R’
b) Q(n+1) = SR + Q(n)R 81. State transition happens _______ in every clock cycle.
c) Q(n+1) = S’R + Q(n)R a) Once
d) Q(n+1) = S’R + Q'(n)R b) Twice
c) Thrice
73. The difference between a flip-flop & latch is d) Four times
____________
82. If there are n distinct components in a statement
a) Both are same
b) Flip-flop consist of an extra output then there are ……….. combinations of values in the
c) Latches has one input but flip-flop has two truth table.
d) Latch has two inputs but flip-flop has one
a) 2^n
74. The S-R flip flop consist of ____________ b) n+1
c) n
a) 4 AND gates d) n+2
b) Two additional AND gates
c) An additional clock input 83. A relation R in a set X is symmetric if
d) 3 AND gates
a) xRy, yRz => xRz.
b) xRy
c) xRy=>yRx
d) xRx

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84. If a relation is reflexive, then all the diagonal entries 93. The number of vertices of odd degree in a graph is
in the relation matrix must be always
a) 0 a) odd
b) 1 b) even
c) 2 c) zero
d) -1 d) one

85. If R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive then the 94. P -> Q , Q ->R then
relation is said to be a) P -> R
a) Binary relation b) R -> P
b) Compatibility relation c) Q
c) Equivalence relation d) R
d) Partial order relation
95. If a normal form contains all minterms, then it is
86. A mapping x into itself is called a) a tautology
a) reflexive b) a contradiction
b) symmetric c) a contingency
c) transitive d) both a and b
d) equivalence
96. PCNF is also called
87. The duality law of (P^Q)vT is a) sum of product canonical form.
a) (P^Q)^T b) product of sum canonical form
b) (PvQ)^T c) sum canonical form
c) (PvQ)vF d) product canonical form
d) (PvQ)^F
97. Max-terms of two statements are formed by
88. A sum of the variables and their negations in a introducing the connective
formula is called a) disjunction
a) elementary sum b) conjunction
b) elementary product c) negation
c) cnf d) conditional
d) dnf
98. A relation R is defined on the set of integers as xRy
89. Min-terms of two statements are formed by if and only if (x+y) is even. Which of the following
introducing the connective statement is TRUE?
a) Conjunction a) R is not an equivalence relation.
b) disjunction b) R is an equivalence relation having one equivalence
c) Conditional classes
d) negation c) R is an equivalence relation having two equivalence
classes
90. Any vertex having degree one is called d) R is an equivalence relation having three equivalence
a) Simple vertex classes
b) pendent vertex
c) regular vertex
d) complete vertex 99. The number of relations from A = {a,b,c} to B =
{1,2} are
91. A graph that has neither self-loops nor parallel
edges is called ……… graph. a) 6
a) regular b) 8
b) simple c) 32
c) complete d) 64
d) null
100. The minimum number of edges in a connected
92. A graph in which every vertex has same degree is graph with n vertices is
called ……… graph. a) n
a) regular b) n-1
b) simple c) n+1
c) complete d) n+2
d) null

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101. The number of distinct simple graphs with up to 109. Let R={(1,b),(3,d),(2,b)} and S={(b,4),(2,5),(d,a)} be
three nodes is a relation then R composition S=?
a) 7 a) {(1,b),(3,d),(2,b)}
b) 9 b) {(1,4),(3,a),(2,4)}
c) 15 c) {(4,b),(2,5),(3,a)}
d) 25 d) {(1,d),(3,b),(2,c)}

102. Maximum number of edges in an n-node undirected 110. If R= {(x, 2x)} and S= {(x, 4x)} then R composition
graph without self-loops is S=
a) [n(n-a)]/2 a) {(x, 4x)}
b) n-1 b) {(x, 2x)}
c) n c) {(x, 8x)}
d) [n(n+a)]/2 d) {(x, 10x)

103. Number of distinct nodes in any elementary path of 111. Let R= {(1, 3), (4, 2), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 1),(4,4)} be a
length p is relation on the set A={1, 2, 3, 4}. The relation R is
a) p a) transitive
b) p-1 b) reflexive
c) p+1 c) not symmetric
d) p*1 d) function

104. The total number of edges in a complete graph of n 112. If a relation is reflexive then in the graph of a
vertices is relation there must be a loop at
a) n a) each node
b) n/2 b) only first node
c) [n(n-a)]/3 c) any two nodes
d) [n(n-a)]/2 d) only first and last nodes

105. A directed complete graph of n vertices contains 113. The rank of the incidence matrix of any connected
a) one arrow between each pair of distinct vertices graph G with n vertices is
b) two arrows between each pair of distinct vertices a) n
c) n-1 arrows between each pair of distinct vertices b) n+1
d) path between every two distinct vertices c) n-1
d) n-2
106. A directed graph G = (V, E) is said to be finite if its
a) set V of vertices is finite 114. The number of 1's in each row of an incidence
b) set V of vertices & set E of edges are finite matrix of a graph G is equal to
c) set E of edges are finite
d) no vertices & edges are repeated a) the degree of the corresponding vertices
b) the sum of degrees of all vertices
107. If a compound statement is made up of three simple c) the degree of the initial vertex
d) the degree of the terminal vertex
statements then the number of rows in the truth
table is 115. The number of vertices in a full binary tree is
a) 2 a) odd
b) 4 b) even
c) 6 c) equal
d) 8 d) 0

108. Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9), (12,12), (3,6), (6,3), (3, 116. For a symmetric digraph, the adjacency matrix is
9), (9, 3), (9, 12),(12,9)} be a relation on the set A = a) symmetric
{3, 6, 9, 12}. The relation is b) antisymmetric
c) asymmetric
a) reflexive and transitive d) symmetric and asymmetric
b) reflexive and symmetric
c) symmetric and transitive
d) equivalence relation

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117. The diagonal entries of A A^T where A is the 126. Let R={(1,2),(3,4),(2,6.} and S={(4,3),(2,5),(6,6)} be a
adjacency matrix are the relation then R composite S=
a) outdegrees of the node a) {(1,5),(3,3),(2,6)}
b) indegrees of the nodes b) {(1,5),(3,6),(2,5)}
c) unit degree of the nodes c) {(4,4),(2,5),(3,3)}
d) in & out degrees of the nodes d) {(1,1),(3,3),(2,2)}

118. The total number of degrees of an isolated node is 127. The binary relation R = {(0, 0), (1, a)} on A = {0, 1, 2,
a) 0 3, } is
b) 1 a) reflexive, not symmetric, transitive
c) 2 b) not reflexive, symmetric, transitive
d) 3 c) reflexive, symmetric, not transitive
d) reflexive, not symmetric, not transitive
119. If G is a connected planar graph then it has a vertex
of degree 128. If an edge e is said to join the vertices u and v then
a) 3 or less the vertices u and v are called
b) 4 or less a) initial vertices
c) 5 or less b) terminal vertices
d) 6 or less c) ends of e
d) all the above
120. A formula consisting of disjunctions of min-terms is
called
a) DNF 129. Two vertices which are incident with the common
b) CNF edge are called ………. vertices.
c) PDNF a) distinct
d) PCNF b) directed
c) adjacent
121. Boolean expression except 0 expressed in an d) loops
equivalent form is called
a) canonical 130. An edge with identical ends is called
b) sum a) complete graph
c) product b) bipartite graph
d) standard ANSWER: A c) loops
d) link
122. Every connected graph contains a
a) tree 131. An edge with same ends is called
b) sub tree a) complete graph
c) spanning tree b) bipartite graph
d) spanning subtree c) loops
d) link
123. Hamilton cycle is a cycle that contains every
a) path 132. In a graph if few edges have directions and few do
b) cycle not have directions then the graph is called
c) vertex a) multi graph
d) edge b) directed graph
c) undirected graph
124. A = {1,3,5,7,9} is a d) mixed graph
a) null set
b) finite set 133. Each edge has one end in set X and one end in set Y
c) singleton set then the graph (X, Y) is called …... graph.
d) infinite set
a) bipartite
125. To prove the statement P tautologically implies the b) simple
c) complete
statement Q, it is enough to prove that d) trivial
a) P conditional Q is a contradiction
b) P conditional Q is a tautology
c) P biconditional is a contradiction
d) P biconditional Q is a tautology

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134. If the graph G1 and G2 has no vertex in common 135. The degree of vertex v in G is
then it is said to be a) number of edges of G incident with v
a) disjoint b) number of loops in G
b) edge disjoints c) number of links in G
c) union d) number of sub graph in G
d) intersection
136. Each loop counting has ……. edges.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

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Peripheral and Multimedia MCQ

1. The high-speed memory between the main memory 7. For large data transfers, _________ is used.
and the CPU called?
a) DMA
a) Register Memory
b) programmed I/O
b) Cache Memory
c) controller register
c) Storage Memory
d) none of the mentioned
d) Virtual Memory

8. The smallest entity of memory is called _______

2. Cache Memory is implemented using the DRAM
a) Cell
chips.
b) Block
a) True
c) Instance
b) False
d) Unit

3. The Cache memory is implemented using the SRAM

chips 9. The BOOT sector files of the system are stored in
___________
a) True
a) Hard disk
b) False
b) ROM

c) RAM
4. ………………. memory is implemented using the
semiconductor chips. d) Fast solid state chips in the motherboard
a) Cache

b) Main 10. The assembler stores the object code in ______

c) Secondary a) Main memory
d) Registers b) Cache

c) RAM
5. Winchester disks are a type of _______ d) Magnetic disk
a) optical disks

b) magnetic disks 11. The DMA transfer is initiated by_____

c) compact disks a) Processor
d) magnetic drives b) The process being executed

c) I/O devices
6. The software substituted for hardware and stored in d) OS
ROM is…………..

a) Synchronous Software

b) Package Software

c) Firmware

d) Middleware

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12. The virtual memory bridges the size and speed gap 18. Why did PROM introduced?
between __________ and__________
a) To increase the storage capacity
a) RAM and ROM
b) To increase the address locations
b) RAM and Secondary memory
c) To provide flexibility
c) Processor and RAM
d) To reduce the size
d) None of the mentioned

19. PROMs are available in ___________

13. ‘Burst refresh’ in DRAM is also called
a) Bipolar and MOSFET technologies
A. Concentrated refresh
b) MOSFET and FET technologies
B. Distributed refresh
c) FET and bipolar technologies
C. Hidden refresh
d) MOS and bipolar technologies
D. None of the above

20. How many types of fuse technologies are used in

14. Which memory has read operation, byte erase, byte PROMs?
write and chip erase?
a) 2
A. RAM
b) 3
B. UVEPROM
c) 4
C. EEPROM
d) 5
D. both (b) and (c)

21. The PROM starts out with _____________

15. EPROM uses an array of _______________
a) 1s
a) p-channel enhancement type MOSFET
b) 0s
b) n-channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) Null
c) p-channel depletion type MOSFET
d) Both 1s and 0s
d) n-channel depletion type MOSFET

22. For implementation of PROM, which IC is used?

16. ROMs retain data when ______________
a) IC 74187
a) Power is on
b) IC 74186
b) Power is off
c) IC 74185
c) System is down
d) IC 74184
d) All of the Mentioned

17. What is the difference between static RAM and

dynamic RAM? 23. Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on
A) tracks per inch of surface
a) Static RAM must be refreshed, dynamic RAM does not

b) There is no difference B) bits per inch of tracks

c) Dynamic RAM must be refreshed, static RAM does not C) disk pack in disk surface
d) SRAM is slower than DRAM
D) All of above

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24. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands 29. Mnemonic a memory trick is used in which of the
coming from following language?
A) Primary memory A) Machine language

B) Control section B) Assembly language

C) External memory C) High level language

D) Cache memory D) None of above

25. The output quality of a printer is measured by….. 30. An integrated circuit is………….
A) Dot per sq. inch A) A complicated circuit

B) Dot per inch B) An integrating device

C) Dots printed per unit time C) Much costlier than a single transistor

D) All of the above D) Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip

26. A physical connection between the microprocessor 31. The difference between memory and storage is that
memory and other parts of the microcomputer is memory is _____ and storage is __
known as………… A) Temporary, permanent
A) Path
B) Permanent, temporary
B) Address bus
C) Slow, fast
C) Route
D) All of above
D) All of the above

32. Which printer is very commonly used for desktop

27. Which of the following produces the best quality publishing?
graphics reproduction? A) Laser printer
A) Laser printer
B) Inkjet printer
B) Ink jet printer
C) Daisywheel printer
C) Plotter
D) Dot matrix printer
D) Dot matrix printer

33. In a computer _____ is capable to store single binary

28. A set of flip flops integrated together is called ____ bit.
A) Counter A) Capacitor

B) Adder B) Flip flop

C) Register C) Register

D) None of the above D) Inductor

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34. Which of the following memories allows 39. Which of the following disk is fixed disk?
simultaneous read and write operations? A) Hard Disks
A) ROM
B) Flash Disks
B) RAM
C) Blu-Ray Disks
C) EPROM
D) DVDs
D) None of above

40. Daisy wheel printer is a type of…………

35. Which of the following is a read only memory A) Matrix printer
storage device?
B) Impact printer
A) Floppy Disk
C) Laser printer
B) CD-ROM
D) Manual printer
C) Hard Disk

D) None of these
41. Circular division of disks to store and retrieve data
are known as…………
36. The memory which is programmed at the time it is A) tracks
manufactured
A) ROM B) sectors

B) RAM C) cycles

C) PROM D) rings

D) EPROM
42. Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Cache memory is a small amount of memory which is a part of
37. Which of the following memories needs refreshing? the Random-Access Memory
A) SRAM
b) Cache memory is used to temporarily hold instructions and data
B) DRAM that the CPU is likely to reuse

C) ROM c) Cache Memory is cheaper memory

D) All of above d) All of the above statements are true

38. Which technology is used in Compact disks?

43. A light sensitive device that converts drawing,
A) Mechanical
printed text or other images into digital form is
B) Electrical
A. Keyboard
C) Electro Magnetic
B. Plotter
D) Laser
C. Scanner

D. OMR

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44. Which of the following memory is non-volatile? 49. The process of determining which pixels will provide
a better approximation to the desired line is known
A. SRAM
as____.
B. DRAM
(a) Scan conversion
C. ROM
(b) Randomization
D. All of the above
(c) Rasterization

(d) Recreation
45. ROM is needed for storing an initial program called
_______.
50. Rasterization combined with the process of rendering
A. Computer Startup Loader
the picture scan line order is known as _________
B. OS Version
(a) Scan conversion
C. Kernel
(b) Randomization
D. Bootstrap Loader
(c) Recreation

(d) None of the above

46. The most advanced form of ROM is?

A. PROM
51. Basic methods of projection are _______ and
B. RAM ________ .

C. EEPROM (a) Parallel and perspective

D. Cache Memory (b) Parallel and perceptive

(c) Perceptive and perspective

47. What technology of memory is Cache RAM usually? (d) None of the above

A. DRAM

B. Flash 52. Good graphics programming avoids the use of _____

operations whenever possible.
C. SRAM
(a) Multiplications
D. EEPROM
(b) Division

(c) Floating point

48. What is PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)?
(d) Integer
A. A type of monitor

B. A type of system bus

C. A kind of graphics

D. A modem standard

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53. For a __________graphics device adjacent pixels on 57. _____ is the process of extracting a portion of the
a scan line are likely to have the same characteristics. database, is fundamental to several aspects of
computer graphics.
(a) Random scan
(a) Projection
(b) Raster scan
(b) Clipping
(c) CRT
(c) Rotation
(d) None of the above
(d) Translation

54. What is scan line coherence?

58. Clipping algorithm can be implemented in……..
(a) Adjacent pixels on a scan line are likely to have different
characteristics (a) Software

(b) Non-adjective pixels on a scan line are likely to have different (b) Both a and b
characteristics
(c) Hardware
(c) Adjective pixels on a scan line are likely to have the same
(d) None of the above
characteristics

(d) None of the above

59. The object is held stationary while the coordinate
system is moved relative to the object is called…..
55. The edge flag algorithm is a ________ process
(a) Geometric Transformation
(a) One-step
(b) Coordinate transformation
(b) Three-step
(c) Translation
(c) Two-step
(d) Rotation
(d) Four-step

60. The object is held stationary while the coordinates

56. The First step of edge –flag algorithm is system is moved relation to the object is called.

(a) Fill (a) Geometric transformation

(b) Sean line (b) Coordinate transformation

(c) Contour outline (c) Translation

(d) None of the above (d) Rotation

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61. The object is displaced a given distance and 65. An optical drive uses the ……. To read data.
direction its original position is called
a. Magnetize particle
(a) Translation
b. Electric particle
(b) Rotation
c. Reflected light
(c) Transformation
d. Refracted light
(d) Scaling

62. ________ is the process of expanding or compressing

the dimensions of an object.

(a) Translation

(b) Rotation

(c) Transformation

(d) Scaling

63. In Perspective Projection eye of the artist is placed

at the

(a) Left of projection

(b) Right of projection

(c) Top of projection

(d) Center of projection

64. Flash memory was developed taking the concept

of………..

a. EPROM

b. EEPROM

c. DRAM

d. SRAM

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Miscellaneous

1. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter 9. The objective of ____ is to find problems and fix
the father of her uncle. The boy is girls…. them to improve quality of a project.
a) Brother a) Software bug
b) Uncle b) Software complexity
c) Son c) Software testing
d) Nephew d) Software development

2. What will be the equation of the line that passes 10. Unit testing is to test the ____ of the units.
through the point (1, 2) and is parallel to 2x+3y=4? a) Performance
a) 2x+3y=8 b) System issues
b) 3x+2y=4 c) Functionality
c) 3x+2y=4 d) Hardware failure
d) 2x+3y=0
11. ____ is an umbrella activity that is applied
3. Synonym of PROBITY throughout the software process.
a) Probability a) Software Quality Assurance
b) Honesty b) Software Quality Management
c) Peaceful c) Software Quality Testing
d) Carelessness d) Software Quality Engineering

4. What is the following is the subset of {b c d}? 12. The goal of software assurance is to reduce ____.
a) {} a) Cost
b) {n} b) Risks
c) {1, 2, 3} c) Time
d) {a, b, c} d) Quality

5. The perpendicular of the line 2x+3y=4 is

13. What does CSA stand for?
a) 3x-2y=4
b) 3x+2y=4 a) Computer Speed Addition
c) 2x-3y=4 b) Computer System Addition
d) 2x-3y=0
c) Class Speed Addition
6. Arithmetic and geometric mean of X and Y will be d) Computer Speed Algorithm
the same if
a) X=Y 14. Software is defined as ___________
b) X=√Y a) Set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
c) Y=√X
d) X =Y/2 b) Data about Data
c) Set of rules
7. Unsupervised learning is an example of………..
d) None
a) Classification and prediction
b) Classification and Regression
c) clustering 15. CASE stands for……………
d) Data Mining a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering

8. K-means technique is based on…………. b) Computer-Associated Software Engineering

a) Centroid Object c) Computer-Aided System Engineering

b) Reference object d) None
c) Representative object
d) Partition Object

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16. ________ is defined as the process of generating 22. Which of the following is the process of digitizing a
analysis and designing documents? given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity
a) Reverse Engineering for storage in the frame buffer?
b) Software Engineering a) Scan Conversion
c) System Engineering b) Data Conversion
d) None c) Data Streaming
d) None
17. __________ is not suitable for accommodating any
change? 23. Which of the following algorithm is a faster method
a) Waterfall Model for calculating pixel positions?
b) Spiral Model a) DDA line algorithm
c) Central Model b) RSA Algorithm
d) None c) GIU Algorithm
d) None
18. Software Debugging is known as
_________________ 24. Which part of the Unix operating system interacts
a) finding and correcting errors in the program code with the hardware?
b) Software Management a) Kernel
c) Software Distribution b) System Call
d) None c) Interactor
19. Who is responsible for the creation of the symbol d) None
table?
a) Compiler 25. Which of the following is the first and foremost step
b) OS in Image Processing?
c) File System a) Image acquisition
d) None b) Image Coloring
c) Image Conversion
20. Characters are grouped into tokens in which of the d) None
following phase of the compiler design?
a) Lexical Analyzer 26. Which of the following is used to capture data from
b) Parsing the physical world in IoT devices?
c) Prepressing a) Sensors
d) None b) Repeaters
c) Modem
21. Among the following process, which process is d) None
known as the elimination of parts of a scene outside
a window or a viewport? 27. Which method do we use to find the best fit line for
a) Clipping data in Linear Regression?
b) View a) Least square error
c) Index b) Square error
d) None c) Most square error
d) None

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28. Which of the following method do we use to best fit 31. Supervised learning differs from unsupervised
the data in Logistic Regression? clustering in that supervised learning requires
a) Maximum Likelihood ………………
b) Minimum Likelihood a) Input attributes to be categorical
c) Average Likelihood b) Output attributes to be categorical
d) None c) Input attributes to be scattered
d) None
29. Regression Trees are often used to model ………….
data? 32. High entropy means that the partitions in
a) Non-Linear classification are ………….
b) Linear a) Not Pure
c) Algebraic b) Pure
d) None c) Both
d) None
30. …………….. is a part of machine learning that
works with neural networks? 33. All data is labelled and the algorithm learn to
a) Deep Learning predict the output from the input data is
b) Self Learning ………………
c) Shallow Learning a) Supervised Learning
d) None b) Unsuppressed Learning
c) Semi Supervised Learning
d) None

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 English
Deadly 99 Meaning, Synonym, Antonym

Word Meaning Synonym Antonym

1. Omnipotent Having unlimited almighty powerless

power.
2. Diffuse spread over a wide area spread Limited
or between a large
number of people
3. Contend struggle to surmount Argue Engage
4. Rebel A person who rises in Revolutionary obey
opposition or armed
resistance against an
established government
or leader
5. Fallacy A mistaken belief one Misconception Conception
based on unsound
arguments
6. Amicable Characterized by Cordial Unfriendly /hostile
friendliness
7. Curtail Reduce in extend or cut Increase
quantity
8. Mutter Say something in low or Talk under one’s Speak out
barely voice breath
9. Gasp Cath one’s breath with puff Succeed
open mouth
10. Nebulous In one form of cloud and Hazy Clear /well defined
hazy
11. Hazy Covered by haze Misty /foggy Bright /sunny
/cloudy
12. Porous Of rock or other material Permeable Impermeable
13. Starry Full of or lit by starts Heavenly, shining Clear eyed
14. Cognizance Knowledge of awareness Knowledge Unfamiliarity/ignorance
15. Mirage An optical illusion caused Hallucination Reality
by atmospheric condition
16. Recondite Of subject knowledge Abstract Straight forward
17. Sardonic grimly mocking or mocking Calm/Kind/mild/nice.
cynical.
18. Dearth a scarcity or lack of shortage abundance, plenty,
something. sufficiency
19. Turbulent characterized by conflict, Rough Peaceful
disorder, or confusion;
not stable or calm
20. Placid not easily upset or excited Clam Disturbed/ loud/ noisy
21. Barren (of land) too poor to Unproductive Fertile, productive
produce much or any
vegetation.
22. Outspoken frank in stating one's direct Diplomatic
opinions
23. EFFACE erase (a mark) from a Keep out of sight Make one’s presence felt
surface.
24. MYOPIC short-sighted Purblind Long-sighted
25. DISSIPATE disappear or cause to waste save
disappear
26. TEPID only slightly warm; Cool Hot
lukewarm
27. AMBIGUOUS not clear or decided Arguable Clear
28. Caustic able to burn or corrode Acid kind
organic tissue by
chemical action
29. Timidity lack of courage or cowardliness guts
confidence
30. Enliven make (something) more Cheer up Bore /clam / exhaust
entertaining, interesting,
or appealing.
31. UNGAINLY (Of a person or Awkward Elegant
movement) awkward;
clumsy.
32. Slender of a person or part of the slim fat
body) gracefully thin
33. Restrained characterized by reserve Soft Emotional
or moderation
34. Decisive settling an issue Final Insignificant
35. Coextensive extending over the same coincident Unequal
area, extent, or time.
36. August respected and impressive. Respected silly
37. Hasty done with excessive Rapid Slow
speed or urgency; hurried.
38. Accord give or grant someone give remove
39. Adversity a difficult or unpleasant Bad luck Good times
situation
40. Callous showing or having an
benevolent,
insensitive and cruel
disregard for others unfeeling
41. Captivity the condition of being internments Freedom
imprisoned or confined
42. Consolidate make (something) Combine Decrease
physically stronger or
more solid
43. Contrary the opposite. reverse Same

44. Condemn express complete censure praise

disapproval of; censure
45. Concord agreement or harmony Unity Discord
between people or
groups.
46. Cunning having or showing skill in wily Honest
achieving one's ends by
deceit or evasion
47. Decay the state or process of Rotting building
rotting or decomposition.
48. Demolish pull or knock down Destroy build
49. Deliberate done consciously and Conscious Accidental
intentionally.
50. Fallacy A mistaken belief one Misconception Conception
based on unsound
arguments
51. Fragile (of an object) easily Breakable robust
broken or damaged.
52. Hazard a danger or risk. Threat keep safe
53. Impulsive acting or done without Hasty premeditated
forethought.
54. Immense extremely large or great, Massive Tiny
especially in scale or
degree
55. Immaculate perfectly clean, neat, or Clean Bad
tidy.
56. Impartial treating all rivals or neutral biased
disputants equally
57. Ingenuous (of a person or action) disingenuous
innocent and
unsuspecting. naive

58. Destitute extremely poor and devoid destitute

lacking the means to
provide for oneself.
59. Candor the quality of being open insincerity
and honest; frankness.
frankness

60. Lucid expressed clearly; easy to intelligible Unclear

understand
61. Optimist a person who tends to be dreamer cynic
hopeful and confident
about the future or the
success of something
62. Placid not easily upset or excited Clam Disturbed/ loud/ noisy
63. Pompous affectedly grand, solemn, Modest
or self-important. self-important

64. Reluctant unwilling and hesitant; resistant ready

disinclined
65. Remorse deep regret or guilt for a Guilt happiness.
wrong committed.
66. Reverence deep respect for someone Honor Disrespect
or something
67. Ruthless having or showing no pity Cruel Merciful
or compassion for others.
68. Slander make false and damaging Defame Acclaim
statements about
(someone)
69. Tedious too long, slow, or dull; dull Exciting
tiresome or monotonous.
70. Timid lack of courage or cowardliness guts
confidence
71. Wicked evil or morally wrong. Naughty Lousy
72. Augment make (something) greater Increase Decrease
by adding to it; increase.
73. Eminent (of a person) famous and Illustrious unimportant
respected within a
particular sphere.
74. Prominent important; famous famous Unknown
75. Procession a number of people or march Stand still
vehicles moving forward
in an orderly fashion,
especially as part of a
ceremony.
76. Endurable able to be endured; Bearable Unbearable
bearable.
77. Applaud show approval or praise Clap Hiss
by clapping.
78. Valiant possessing or showing Fearless Scare
courage or determination.
79. Scatter occurring or found at Break up Assemble
intervals or various
locations rather than all
together.
80. Tentative not certain or fixed; Uncertain Definite
provisional.
81. Indigent a needy person. Poor Rich
82. Plethora A large or excessive excess lack
amount of something
83. Commencement the beginning of Strat End
something
84. Preface an introduction to a book, Prefix Envoi
typically stating its
subject, scope, or aims.
85. Homogeneous of the same kind; alike. Alike Different
86. Colossal extremely large or great Large Small
87. Accumulate gather together or acquire Gather dissipate
an increasing number or
quantity of.
88. Adversary one's opponent in a Foe Friend
contest, conflict, or
dispute.
89. Clumsy (Of a person or Awkward Elegant
movement) awkward;
clumsy.
90. Fidelity faithfulness to a person, loyalty alienation
cause, or belief,
demonstrated by
continuing loyalty and
support.
91. Fragile (of an object) easily Breakable robust
broken or damaged.
92. Judicious having, showing, or done wise Foolish
with good judgement or
sense.
93. Ominous giving the worrying Doomy auspicious
impression that
something bad is going to
happen; threateningly
inauspicious.
94. Placid not easily upset or excited Clam Disturbed/ loud/ noisy
95. Profound (of a state, quality, or Keen mild
emotion) very great or
intense.
96. Reluctant unwilling and hesitant; grudging Eager
disinclined
97. Stubborn having or showing willful compliant
dogged determination not
to change one's attitude or
position on something,
especially in spite of good
arguments or reasons to
do so.
98. Tangible perceptible by touch material intangible
99. Vague of uncertain, indefinite, or Rough Clear
unclear character or
meaning.
 Right form of verbs

1. We have been living here since 2001. 35. The committee were divided on the decision.
2. The people of Bangladesh are simple. 36. The police are the friends of the people.
3. The brave are always winners. 37. Neither of the two men is responsible.
4. The rise and fall is inevitable. 38. Money in addition to honor makes men
5. Many a student is present here. unhappy.
6. Two dozen makes 24. 39. He said that ice floating on water was blue.
7. One of the boys is nice. 40. Many years have passed since I visited Taj
8. He has been punished. Mahal.
9. Half of the work is done. 41. No sooner had they reached the station, then
10. Neel with his brother is present. the train left.
11. There is a book on the Shelf. 42. The rain having stopped We started our
12. Without knowing I will not tell her. journey.
13. We can't help laughing. 43. No, sooner had the teacher entered the class
14. The book is worth reading. Then the students stood up.
15. I prefer running to playing. 44. We caught a thief last night.
16. I made her do the work. 45. The headmaster had entered into the class
17. I watched him living away. before the students came.
18. You would rather go there. 46. When does Mr. Kamal take his breakfast?
19. I saw him to go. 47. I have read the book recently.
20. I met him last night. 48. It is many years since I came to your house.
21. I wish I could fly. 49. We started the meeting after the guest has
22. I fancy I turned a trifle pale. been coming.
23. It is many years since I saw you. 50. You must better do the work.
24. I already have forgot his address. 51. The boy ran away having taken the first
25. Have you ever been to Cox's Bazar? prize.
26. He has left the place just now. 52. I went to market last night with a view to
27. Have you seen her lately? buying a shirt.
28. A number of students were present in the 53. It is high time I changed my character.
class. 54. He speaks as though he were a mad.
29. We went there with a view to seeing you. 55. The book has been published.
30. Would you mind taking a cup of tea? 56. If you helped the boy he would help you.
31. One and a half, lemons are enough. 57. He ran fast least he should miss the train.
32. Five miles is not a long distance. 58. While reading a book I saw a picture of an
33. He wanted the picture to be seen. ox.
34. Neither She nor her sisters are present here. 59. Ill news runs quickly.
60. No buses and no rickshaws are on the road. 92. Would you mind closing the door please?
61. None of the girls has qualified. 93. English is spoken across the world.
62. The wall has been printed. 94. I wish you could solve the problem.
63. Rice and curry is my favorite food. 95. It is high time we gave up smoking.
64. Cattle are grazing in the field. 96. Have you finished reading the book?
65. The family is unanimous in the opinion. 97. An intensive search was conducted by the
66. The virtuous are always happy. detective to locate those criminals who had
67. One of the students does his homework. Escaped.
68. Two plus two makes four. 98. We waited until the plane had taken off.
69. You, he and I are friends. 99. He gave up playing football when he got
70. Rahim as well as his friends does well. married.
71. I found the boy crying on the bed. 100. She burnt her hand when she was cooking
72. I was called there yesterday. dinner.
73. Why did you go to market yesterday? 101. In many ways riding a bicycle is Similar To
74. It is no use spoiling time by gossiping. driving a car.
75. He talked as if he had known everything. 102. I have been living in Dhaka Since 1999.
76. You had better do the work. 103. The building has been left unoccupied since
77. I wish I met you ten years earlier. 1999.
78. The students are not prepared to take the 104. How many times have you had your house
examination. broken into?
79. She is shocked because she has seen a 105. He is used to smoking.
terrible accident. 106. The laptop was stolen by a thief.
80. While he was walking in the garden a snake 107. It is many years since he came to Dhaka.
bit him. 108. You, he and I are going to Dhaka.
81. Lack of exercise and high fat diet have long 109. As soon as the teacher entered the
been known to be factors in heart attack. classroom, all the students stood up.
82. Complete shutdown is being observed 110. I met my favorite teacher yesterday.
today against new law. 111. He ran fast lest he should miss the train.
83. He talks as though he were a child. 112. Would that I could buy the car.
84. He advised me to give up smoking. 113. Do not go anywhere until he comes back.
85. Why have you done this? 114. I will carry an umbrella in case it rains.
86. It is high time you tried for a job. 115. She prefers dancing to singing.
87. I look forward to hearing from you. 116. He intends to stay in the country for two
88. Each of the boys is present in the class. months.
89. I wish I were a philosopher. 117. He wanted the movie to be watched.
90. Slow and steady wins the race. 118. Hasan has chosen the right path.
91. It is high time we left the place. 119. Its no use talking to him.
120. Would you mind closing the door? 127. I opened the door as soon as I heard the
121. I don't mind helping with the cooking but I bell.
am not going to wash the dishes. 128. He moved to Chicago just a few months
122. Some days have passed since my father ago.
died. 129. Have you finished the work yet?
123. It is the high time we discussed the matter. 130. Don't make a noise while your father is
124. Where did the accident happen? sleeping.
125. As the sun was shining, I decided to go out. 131. As soon as I have thought about her, she calls
126. We were watching the news when the me.
telephone rang.
 Preposition Practice

1. He felt nothing but hatred for the 16. Suits will never be out of fashion.
person who attacked him. 17. She’s on leave until the end of the
2. There are many advantages of month.
speaking foreign languages. 18. The two countries were at peace
3. I have a lot of respect for the teachers with each other.
I had at school. 19. You have absolutely no reason to
4. I’d like to do a course in computer talk to me like that.
programming. 20. We’d like to have a room with a
5. He was on trial for having murdered view of the sea.
his wife. 21. The fire was now out of control.
6. We went to see an exhibition on 22. She was able to describe the
Egyptian history. accident in detail.
7. I had an argument with my boss 23. The trousers are on sale at the
yesterday. moment.
8. He took away my bag by force. 24. It sounds great in theory, but will
9. Her fear of flying made travelling your plan work?
very difficult for her. 25. I learned to drive at the age of 18.
10. My dad had difficulty in making 26. Those trousers went out of fashion
himself understood. many years ago.
11. I’ve got a meeting with John this 27. We heard about the natural disaster
afternoon. from/on the news.
12. By the time I arrived, the train had 28. I was under the impression that we
already left. didn't want to offend him.
13. If you’re in doubt, please call the 29. Unemployment is on the increase in
ambulance. many European countries.
14. We had access to the internet in all 30. I don't know for certain, but I think
the hotels we stayed at. she's on leave at the moment.
15. We took part in the activities that 31. There was nothing there anymore, so
the school offered. we had to start from scratch.
32. I ran into my old teacher the other 47. I went home at midnight because I
day. It was nice to meet him again. was so tired.
33. The unexpected success of the 48. They didn’t give her any alcohol
company took us by surprise. because she was under age.
34. All trains leaving from platform 4 are 49. I was so distracted that I put salt
on time. into my coffee by accident.
35. In my opinion, she must be the 50. There is no solution to this
greatest athlete of all times. problem.
36. There is a big ceremony being held in 51. John has a reputation for being late
honor of the killed soldiers. all the time.
37. I'm sorry. I must have done it by 52. She hasn’t got any money left. In
mistake. other words, she’s broke.
38. She waved me good-bye until our car 53. Could you call tomorrow? I’m not
was out of sight. in such a good mood today.
39. I am not allowed to give them any 54. She took me by the hand, and we
alcohol. They are all under age. walked along the beach.
40. He told us in brief what he wanted to 55. I washed his car in exchange for
do, but didn't go into much detail. some pocket money.
41. Jack has gone to New York on 56. This is my first visit to Singapore.
business. 57. I had a lot of fun at the summer
42. You must be tired. Why don't you take camp and improved my English at
a break for a change? the same time.
43. We have to be there by ten at the 58. I studied history and geography at
latest. Otherwise, they won't let us in. university.
44. My mother is suffering from cancer 59. The bridge was closed for/at the
and there is not much hope for her. weekend because it was under
45. They had to translate the document repair.
from English into Spanish. 60. I always by eggs by the dozen.
46. When we met at university it was 61. His talent for singing was
love at first sight. impressive.
62. We had to learn all the poems by 76. Many species in the Amazon rain
heart. forest are at risk of becoming
63. The decision that the officials made extinct.
is still under review. 77. A large part of the Netherlands lies
64. I left him in charge of all the below sea level.
network servers. 78. My sister has been suffering from
65. I’m sorry but the book is out of a nervous breakdown over the past
print at the moment. few weeks.
66. We have to tidy up the house. It’s in 79. When the interview was over the
such a mess. journalist asked the politician a few
67. I couldn’t hide my love for her any things off therecord.
longer 80. Strawberries are not in season at
68. I try to buy fruit and vegetables that the moment, so we'll have to use
are in season. other fruits.
69. The question took him by surprise. 81. You'll have to call an ambulance.
70. Smoking in public places is against There are no doctors on duty right
the law in many countries. now.
71. The boss looked down on him 82. There are a few islands just miles
arrogantly. off the coast.
72. Many products sold at the market 83. If global warming continues at the
have been carefully manufactured present rate sea levels will rise very
by hand. quickly.
73. Many of the trains leaving London 84. I'm sorry. I lost the documents by
are currently running behind /on accident. I didn't do it on purpose.
schedule. 85. I have to be at home by midnight at
74. We were terrified with fear when the latest.
we saw what had happened. 86. He left a few days ago and we
75. They can't afford very much haven’t heard from him since then.
because they must live on the 87. The famous poet was born on the
father's small pension. 12th of May in 1867.
88. Turn right at the first traffic lights, 104. The teacher was very pleased with
then turn left. what we had done.
89. William of Normandy conquered 105. Jane had to hurry in order to arrive
Britain in 1066. at the meeting in time.
90. They live at the end of the street. 106. We usually go to school by bus.
91. Judy has lost weight because she 107. We moved to the north side of
always goes to fitness classes after London a few years ago.
work. 108. The village is not on the map. It
92. We’ll meet the day after tomorrow. must be very small.
93. I saw the information on the 109. It was a very long voyage. We
internet. were at sea for over four weeks.
94. Please handle these new porcelain 110. The headmaster is on good terms
plates with care. with his whole teaching staff.
95. The dog was run over by a car. 111. She was completely out of breath
96. The shops are open from 9 to 5 when she crossed the finish line.
today. 112. All of the carpets on display were
97. The town lies halfway between made by hand.
Rome and Naples. 113. After we passed the last bend the
98. They had to send for the doctor city finally came into sight.
because his condition was getting 114. The teacher handed out the test
worse. sheets and the students started to
99. The young boy was raised by his work.
stepfather. 115. The sign says: “Beware of the dog!”
100. I didn’t feel safe when I was 116. Every day millions of people
walking home from the disco. travel by plane.
101. The valuable painting dates back 117. The doctor told me to give up
to the 12th century. smoking, otherwise I would have
102. Maria often travels abroad. It’s serious healthproblems.
part of her job. 118. My sister is suffering from
103. I arranged to meet my friend at the cancer. She’s only got a few more
corner of James and Bond Street. months.
119. The old man died of a heart attack. 132. The doctor pointed out that there
120. The ski resort lies 1600 meters might be complications during
above sea level. such an operation.
121. They couldn’t walk across the 133. She never cared about/for her
bridge because it had been father. Now she doesn’t want to see
completely destroyed. him anymore.
122. She was surprised at/by the girl’s 134. The lawyer accused him of
aggressive behavior. stealing all the money.
123. A really good friend never lets you 135. There has been a serious accident
down. involving four cars on the
124. It’s ridiculous to wear such motorway.
clothes. They’ve been out of fashion 136. A small child was standing
for a long time. between the two adults.
125. I wanted to speak to the person in 137. His knowledge of French was not
charge of security matters. that good.
126. Why are you so mad at me? I 138. I won’t come to work today. It’s
haven’t done anything wrong. may day off.
127. Those paintings on the wall date 139. The sun rises in the east.
back to the 16th century. 140. I’m sorry. I didn’t do it on purpose.
128. When I saw how disappointed he 141. I took her by the hand, and we
was after the game I felt sorry for went to the doctor’s together.
him. 142. I saw him at a football match last
129. The group of men were rescued Friday.
from the flood with the help of 143. I still think about him from time
helicopters. to time.
130. It’s freezing. It must be 20° below 144. The two trains were moving
zero. towards each other at a very high
131. It was called the greatest show on speed.
earth. 145. On average, the British drink
three cups of tea every day.
146. For me it was love at first sight.
147. I couldn’t think of any reason for 164. an answer to the question
his bad behavior. 165. proud of his son
148. The government put a new tax on 166. famous for breath-taking sights
alcoholic beverages. 167. supply the customers with the
149. We got there in time for dinner. right products
150. The ship ran onto a sand bank a 168. succeed in making a lot of money
few miles off the coast of Norway. 169. similar to mine
151. I would like to pay with my credit 170. respected for being an honest
card. politician
152. The boy started school at the age 171. deal with the problem later
of 5. 172. keen on going to the cinema
153. There was a lack of clean water in 173. sorry for having done something
the village. wrong
154. The house is for sale, but we don’t 174. provide her with everything she
have the money to buy it. needs
155. I met him by accident. He was 175. responsible for employing new
looking for a new pair of shoes. workers
156. I had to pay for the books in 176. an expert on/in astronomy
advance. 177. fond of romantic films
157. The doctors said that there was no 178. congratulate him on his success
cure for the disease at that time. 179. interested in pursuing a career
158. In my opinion, you don’t have any 180. capable of getting to the top
options left. 181. to take pride in what you do
159. They didn’t give him anything to 182. to be short of money
drink because he was under age. 183. praise her for doing such a good
160. to be excellent at something. job
161. he is experienced in writing 184. cooperate with the competitor
emails 185. I almost never agree with him, but
162. ashamed of having failed this time we shared the same
163. concentrate on something opinion.
important
186. He subscribed to the weekly 199. After studying at university, she
magazine. developed into a great scientist.
187. She blamed the incident on my 200. He invested all his money in real
carelessness. estate.
188. The convict escaped from a high 201. The dog barked at the delivery
security prison. man when he came through the
189. The young woman smiled at me gate.
and I smiled back. 202. Dad always tries to protect me
190. Students are protesting against from bad influences.
increasing tuition fees at 203. We must sympathize with those
universities. who have lost relatives in the
191. Small children believe in Father conflict.
Christmas or Santa Claus. 204. The drug addict died of an
192. After the accident the ambulance overdose of heroin.
took him to the hospital where he 205. In August 1945 the Japanese
fell into a coma. surrendered to the Americans.
193. Catharine's parents disapproved 206. It took him a long time to recover
of her marriage to the wealthy from the accident he had last year.
banker. 207. My neighbor complained about
194. Rugby is often associated with the noise on the streets.
being a brutal sport. 208. The farmers in the region hoped
195. She cares about her mother a lot for rain because the drought was
and always comes to visit her. destroying all thecrops.
196. After graduating he applied for a 209. She gazed at me in astonishment.
job at a local book shop. 210. As time went on, the boy changed
197. She insisted on taking me out to into a man.
dinner on my birthday. 211. She works at night and sleeps
198. I always shop for my Christmas during the day.
presents during the summer 212. He is very arrogant and always
holidays. looks down at us.
213. We went up/down the stairs to get 226. You must hand in your thesis by
our gym clothes. next week, at the latest.
214. She couldn't talk to me because 227. Do you speak any other languages
she was in a hurry. besides English?
215. He was so tired that he slept the 228. The boy walked across/through
whole night through. the field to the house.
216. You can't drive over that bridge 229. There's a sign that says, "Keep off
because it is under repair at the the grass!"
moment. 230. I liked him at first, but then he
217. We shared the money we received started being bossy and arrogant.
between us. 231. In conclusion, the report told us to
218. She was able to solve the difficult follow the guidelines.
math test with ease. 232. We went to the stadium by bus.
219. She prefers volleyball to 233. The nurse was on duty from 6 in
basketball. the morning until midnight.
220. You can't leave without any 234. On your left you can see one of
money. You'll need some for your the biggest libraries in the world.
ticket. 235. When his wife died, he put up the
221. Teachers have gone on strike in house for sale.
the past, so this situation is not 236. My sister travelled to the Far East
unusual. for the first time in her life.
222. It took over/under an hour for the 237. In theory it was a good method,
technicians to restore electricity to but we did not know if it would
the village. work in practice.
223. From now on you will report to 238. We had to learn all the poems by
me whenever something happens. heart.
224. He will remain in the office until a 239. I filled out the wrong application
successor is found. by mistake.
225. The boy was very clever for his 240. He's on a diet so don't offer him
age. any sweets.
241. In any case, the police have to 255. She learned Russian at the age of
catch the criminal before he causes 45.
any more harm. 256. The book was written by Mark
242. The black Porsche was driving at Twain.
a speed of over 100 m.p.h. 257. I’ll show you the picture of the
243. After the attack they found palace.
themselves at war with the enemy. 258. We can only get to the camp on
244. We must try to avoid deaths and foot.
casualties at all costs. 259. He reminds me of his old history
245. John is at university and comes teacher.
home every two or three months. 260. What are you talking about?
246. Why don't you go with your 261. By the end of next year, we will
mother for a change? have made over £ 100,000.
247. She had to travel to New York on 262. She always gets up early in the
business. morning and goes to bed late at
248. The paintings are on loan to the night.
Guggenheim museum. 263. I went to work on Tuesday but I
249. She can't sleep at night and didn’t go on Friday.
always needs to take some pills. 264. You’ll have to wait. He’ll be with
250. By all means, we must try to bring you in a minute.
all the parties together and work out 265. Philip waited for her at the movie
a solution. theatre.
251. The children get in trouble all the 266. He started learning English in 2005.
time. 267. You have to pay for the tickets on
252. I didn't want to break the vase on the day you order them.
purpose. It just slipped out of my 268. We are very proud of this company.
hand. 269. It’s very kind of you to help us.
253. Do you, by chance, have a phone 270. The old man suffered from a heart
charger with you? attack.
254. Could I have a word with you in 271. Please write in pencil.
private?
272. It’s about time you told him the 288. My friend always borrows money
truth. from me.
273. The manager didn’t take part in the 289. Daria’s books are lying on the
discussion. floor.
274. He’s very good at telling jokes. 290. He arrived at the school building
275. I’ll see you at the conference just in time.
276. We sat down on the grass and ate 291. The audience threw tomatoes at
our lunch. him.
277. My parents got married in the 292. Passengers are not allowed to use
1970s. cell phones on airplanes.
278. There’s a good restaurant at the end 293. He is responsible for what he does.
of the street. 294. I’m sorry about the job you didn’t
279. We usually have turkey for get.
Thanksgiving. 295. I’m very bad at mathematics.
280. I would like to travel to Italy next 296. We had to climb slowly up the hill.
summer. 297. He is always on time.
281. I took a plane from Munich to 298. How many people are on your
Rome. team?
282. I’d like to speak with the manager 299. A university is where you study for
please. a degree.
283. I don’t usually feel tired in the 300. Her next birthday will be on a
morning. Sunday.
284. My mother is abroad so my dad is 301. The new factory is expected to go
taking care of us at the moment. online in May.
285. Sonja gets on the seven o’clock bus 302. Many of us eat with fork and
in the morning. spoon.
286. She always looks at herself in the 303. We have been searching for a web
mirror. designer for a few weeks now.
287. I met Donna at a party on Friday 304. The TV is in the corner of the
night. room.
305. Halloween is celebrated in the 321. John has got a very strange taste of
United States on October 31. clothes.
306. Are you going away for the 322. Mum sat in the back of the car.
weekend? – I don’t know. It depends 323. I’m interested in basketball but I’m
on the weather. not very good at playing it.
307. Don’t kiss the prince. He might turn 324. I’m returning to Spain at the end of
into a frog. the month.
308. He felt bad for no reason at all. 325. My parents met during the war, in
309. I have been living here for ten 1943.
years. 326. Is it true that your mother died of
310. Have you been to the cinema cancer?
recently? Yes, I was there a few days 327. It was embarrassing. I didn’t have
ago. enough money to pay for the meal.
311. I happened to meet an old friend in 328. It was on the radio yesterday
town. morning.
312. Have you read the article? – It was 329. It’s a quick journey from
in yesterday’s newspapers. Manchester to Leeds.
313. He always drives at a tremendous 330. Jane goes to the office early on
speed because he’s always in a Tuesdays.
hurry. 331. I saw him sometime in June.
314. He is very fond of good food. 332. Meet me at the station.
315. He married at the age of 28. 333. The lights are moving towards us.
316. I bought many things during my 334. My country is famous for great
stay in New York. musicians.
317. According to the guide there are 335. Who is that girl over there in the
three hotels in town. red dress?
318. I saw him standing in the queue but 336. I live in Sweden but every summer
I don’t know if he got on the bus. I travel to Spain for my holidays.
319. I want to post this letter to a friend. 337. Turn right at the end of the street
320. I’m going to Glasgow on Monday. and then it will be right in front of
Would you like to come with us? you.
338. My sister has a beautiful apartment. 355. She came and sat beside her
She lives on the third floor. husband.
339. Please sit down. Mr. Brown will be 356. After we saw the television show
with you in a moment. on bears we drove to the zoo.
340. I have to apologize for being late. 357. Throughout the day, the rain came
341. She tried to prevent the children into the window.
from jumping into the water. 358. The phone rang in the middle of the
342. Sometimes I have to walk to work night.
and sometimes I go by bus. 359. Some boys were crawling around
343. Thank you for coming to visit us. under the car.
344. The boys met at the corner of the 360. His notebook fell on the floor.
street. 361. The plane flew above the clouds.
345. The smallest room is located to the 362. Peter doesn’t go to work on
left of the hall. Fridays.
346. We entered the building through 363. Open your book on page 9.
entrance number 3. 364. Can you see a yellow house on the
347. There was a dark spot on the left?
ceiling. 365. There was a picture on the wall
348. We arrived just in time to see the above the bed.
Queen. 366. All the latest computers will be
349. We have to be at the airport by, at shown at the exhibition.
6 p.m. 367. He came to see how I was getting
350. We ran across the doctor on our on.
way to the bookshop. 368. I am very interested in
351. The two friends went to the movies documentaries on TV.
by themselves. 369. I am surprised at how much money
352. During the summer I stayed with they want to pay him.
my grandparents. 370. Nobody in the family has heard
353. I’ll wait for you at the bus stop. about the accident.
354. The milk is in the refrigerator next 371. She comes from a poor family.
to the orange juice. 372. I am quite good at art.
373. Jack came rushing down the stairs. 391. Except for that one, all the
374. Turn right at the next traffic lights. sentences were easy.
375. Her mother is looking forward to 392. Be careful. They will lose faith in
going to Australia. you.
376. The film is based on a novel by 393. The girls worked on their lessons
John Grisham. for half an hour.
377. John is totally obsessed with 394. He depends on his sister for help.
football. He thinks of nothing else. 395. Miss Wilson is very fond of French
378. I prefer coffee to tea. food.
379. Let’s divide this money between 396. There were over a thousand people
us. at the concert.
380. I like travelling by boat in summer. 397. You must be over 18 in order to see
381. When I was younger I was always the film.
afraid of going to the dentist. 398. We are travelling on the road.
382. Mary’s in the kitchen looking for 399. He is suffering from an unknown
her car keys. illness.
383. Are you really happy with your life 400. I listened to the game on the radio.
here? 401. How are you getting on at school?
384. He was quite pleased with the 402. Don’t be impatient with us. We are
results. trying!
385. This is a painting by an unknown 403. Could I speak to Tom please?
artist. 404. We didn’t see the whole
386. I am proud of being a teacher. performance because we left before
387. Don’t worry about it. Everything the last act.
will be fine. 405. There were some beautiful pictures
388. My father tells us fascinating on the walls.
stories about his years in the navy. 406. The march started in the park.
389. Did you call attention to their From there we moved to City Hall.
mistake? 407. Pessimism is bad for your health
390. According to the headmaster, both 408. He asked his mother for money.
of the boys got involved in the fight.
409. I bought many things during my 427. He wants two seats for the concert
stay in New York. on Friday night.
410. My country is famous for historical 428. You ought to be ashamed of
sights. yourself for coming in with dirty
411. I’m not in a hurry. I can wait. boots.
412. Have you ever been to the theatre 429. There’s no point in going by car if
recently? we can’t park near the theatre.
413. We arrived at the airport in time for 430. he started his training in November
the plane. 431. Whom did they vote for?
414. My grandfather died of cancer. 432. The bus stopped at the corner of
415. The resort lies about 1,500 meters High Street and congress Avenue.
above sea level. 433. I love listening to classical music.
416. His hands are in front of his face. 434. He is from Dallas, Texas but he
417. there’s a chair behind my desk was born in California.
418. The thief jumped out of the 435. She goes to church every Sunday.
window. 436. It’s 7 a.m. We need to leave for
419. Both o my neighbors can take care work at once or else we’ll miss the
of the cat while you are gone. bus.
420. I rarely think about the weather. 437. I asked the policeman for some
421. They were always arguing about information.
silly things. 438. The great player hit the ball over
422. At first I found the work very tiring the net.
but after a few weeks I got used to 439. Can you find our holiday beach on
it. the map?
423. My house is at the end of the road. 440. Please turn down the volume of the
424. The article was in yesterday’s radio. I’m getting deaf.
papers. 441. We are very excited about our trip to
425. The classroom is on the fourth Spain next week.
floor. 442. I am very fond of drinking green tea.
426. I applied for a few jobs last week, 443. Almost all politicians were involved
but nobody wrote back. in the scandal.
444. I am looking forward to having a 459. The customers came to the shop to
meeting with you next week. complain about their service.
445. At the moment, she is recovering 460. Our atmosphere consists of oxygen,
from her injuries. nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
446. I’m dreaming about becoming a 461. We decided against buying the new
famous scientist one day. car.
447. My cousin is married to a famous 462. Many children depend on their
American. parents for money.
448. I am responsible for training the new 463. He graduated from Oxford
recruits. university.
449. Many people took advantage of the 464. The advertising campaign resulted
low prices offered by the new shop. in hundreds of new customers for the
450. I was not quite satisfied with the company.
exam results. 465. As a scientist, I specialize in marine
451. The president was thankful for biology.
everyone who helped in the 466. A gentleman should be true to his
campaign. words.
452. Everyone in this town will benefit 467. I beg pardon of you for being late.
from the new hospital. 468. Eventually, I pursued it her to
453. For two full days, the man was comply with my requests.
fighting for his life. 469. The Village was plunged into
454. My dad shouted at me because I Darkness due to a sudden power
didn’t do what he said. failure.
455. She insisted on helping me with the 470. His statement is very much similar
dishes. to mine.
456. Almost all car companies care about 471. Beware of backbiters.
the environment. 472. He has been living in this house
457. Wearing a seat belt can protect you since 1985.
from being killed in a car. 473. The dog ran down the street.
458. Ten people were killed when a bus 474. Turn the lights off before you go to
collided with a car. bed.
475. He will be cured of this disease at 496. He comes of a noble family.
the earliest. 497. Sheila gained an advantage over
476. I have no desire for fame. me.
477. The mother was concerned about 498. He held his breath for several
the safety of a child. minutes.
478. Competitors around the globe, 499. He has some respite from
took part in the game. suffering.
479. He took the man to hospital. 500. I am sick of the whole business.
480. There was a queue of people in the
rain patiently waiting to get onto the
coach.
481. The minister had promised to look
into the matter.
482. The dwell among the wicked is
bad.
483. His house is adjacent to mine.
484. She is suffering from fever.
485. The shopkeeper deals in household
goods.
486. The room has been emptying for
several years.
487. Place a ladder against the wall.
488. A crime is charged against him.
489. He was involved in a crime.
490. After an inquiry, he was relieved of
his post.
491. He cannot cope with the pressure.
492. We do not go for work on Sunday.
493. He is very good at making stories.
494. He has been absent for a fortnight.
495. He is jealous of me.
 Join this group: https://www.facebook.com/groups/858042971559671

Math for Practice

[including Quantitative analysis, Critical reasoning]

1. Binary Addition practice.

2. Number system math practice.

Prepared By Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

 Join this group: https://www.facebook.com/groups/858042971559671

Prepared By Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

 Join this group: https://www.facebook.com/groups/858042971559671

3. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?

4. On the circle there are 9 points selected. How many triangles in these points exits?

Prepared By Mustakim Billah Bedar www.youtube.com/c/NetComEducation

 Join this group: https://www.facebook.com/groups/858042971559671

5. Suppose a=2, b=8. Find the arithmetic mean and geometric mean.

AM = (a+b)/2 = (2+8)/2 = 5
GM = √(ab) = √(2*8) = 4

6. Differentiation of (e^x) is……..

Ans: e^x

7. log(e^x) is……..

8. Find the next two elements of the following series: 0,1,2,3,5………

Ans: 8,13

9. Standard deviation 1….10?

Solution: http://www.gmatfree.com/module-999/gmat-standard-deviation/

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10. Convert binary number 110001 in decimal

110001 is 49 in decimal form

Step 1: Write down the binary number: 110001

Step 2: Multiply each digit of the binary number by the corresponding power of two:
1x25 + 1x24 + 0x23 + 0x22 + 0x21 + 1x20
Step 3: Solve the powers:
1x32 + 1x16 + 0x8 + 0x4 + 0x2 + 1x1 = 32 + 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1
Step 4: Add up the numbers written above:
32 + 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 49.
So, 49 is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 110001.

11. Find subnet mask from the IP address 175.231.232.116/27

Here, n = CIDR = 27

Network bit = 27
So, Host bit = 32 - n
= 32 - 27
=5

So, Subnet Mask = 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 = 255.255.255.224

12. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. What is the
present age of his son?

Ans 22

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13. Present ages of Kiran and Syam are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of
their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is Syam's present age in years?

14. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. Find out the age of the
youngest child.

15. At present, the ratio between the ages of Shekhar and Shobha is 4: 3. After 6 years, Shekhar's age
will be 26 years. Find out the age of Shobha at present?

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16. The present ages of A,B and C are in proportions 4:7:9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was
56. What are their present ages (in years)?

17. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

18. A train having a length of 240 metre passes a post in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a
platform having a length of 650 metre?

19. cube root of 0.000729 is………………

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20. What is the largest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 88?

21. How many prime numbers are there less than 50?
Ans: 15

22. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be………….

23. Find the mode of the following set of scores.

14 11 15 9 11 15 11 7 13 12

Solution:
The mode is 11 because 11 occurred more times than the other numbers.

If the observations are given in the form of a frequency table, the mode is the value that has the highest
frequency.

24. Find the mode of the following set of marks.

Marks 1 2 3 4 5

Frequency 6 7 7 5 3

Solution:
The marks 2 and 3 have the highest frequency. So, the modes are 2 and 3.

Note: The above example shows that a set of observations may have more than one mode.

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25. The following frequency table shows the marks obtained by students in a quiz. Given that 4 is the
mode, what is the least value for x?

Marks 1 2 3 4 5 6

Number of students (Frequency) 7 9 10 x 9 11

Solution:
x is as least 12
(if x is less than 12 then 4 will not be the mode)

26. Find the median of the following set of points in a game:

15, 14, 10, 8, 12, 8, 16

When the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle value.

27. Find the median of the following set of points:

15, 14, 10, 8, 12, 8, 16, 13

When the number of observations is even, the median is the average of the two middle values.

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28. x is the median for 4, 3, 8, x and 7. Find the possible values for x.

Solution:

Arrange the numbers in ascending order with x in the middle 3, 4, x, 7, 8

This tells us that the possible values of x are 4, 5, 6 and 7.

29. The set of scores 12, 5, 7, -8, x, 10 has a mean of 5. Find the value of x.

Solution:

30. 10 students of a class had a mean score of 70. The remaining 15 students of the class had mean score
of 80. What is the mean score of the entire class?

Solution:
Total score of first 10 students = 10 × 70 = 700
Total score of remaining 15 students = 15 × 80 = 1200
Mean score of whole class

31. A coin is thrown 3 times. what is the probability that at least one head is obtained?

Sample space = [HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, HTT, TTT]

Total number of ways = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8. Fav. Cases = 7

P (of getting at least one head) = 1 – P (no head) ⇒ 1 – (1/8) = 7/8

32. What is the probability of getting a sum of 7 when two dice are thrown?

Total number of ways = 6 × 6 = 36 ways.

Favorable cases = (1, 6) (6, 1) (2, 5) (5, 2) (3, 4) (4, 3) --- 6 ways.

P (A) = 6/36 = 1/6

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33. Three dice are rolled together. What is the probability as getting at least one '4'?

Total number of ways = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216.

Probability of getting number ‘4’ at least one time = 1 – (Probability of getting no number 4)

= 1 – (5/6) x (5/6) x (5/6) = 91/216

34. Find the probability of getting two heads when five coins are tossed.

Number of ways of getting two heads = 5C2 = 10.

Total Number of ways = 25 = 32
P (two heads) = 10/32 = 5/16

35. A die is rolled, find the probability that an even number is obtained.

Let us first write the sample space S of the experiment.

S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}
Let E be the event "an even number is obtained" and write it down.
E = {2,4,6}
We now use the formula of the classical probability.
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 3 / 6 = 1 / 2

36. Which of these numbers cannot be a probability?

a) -0.00001
b) 0.5
c) 1.001
d) 0
e) 1
f) 20%

Solution
A probability is always greater than or equal to 0 and less than or equal to 1, hence only a) and c) above cannot
represent probabilities: -0.00010 is less than 0 and 1.001 is greater than 1.

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37. A card is drawn at random from a deck of cards. Find the probability of getting a queen.

Let E be the event "getting a Queen".

An examination of the sample space shows that there are 4 "Queens" so that n(E) = 4 and n(S) = 52.
Hence the probability of event E occurring is given by
P(E) = 4 / 52 = 1 / 13

38. A jar contains 3 red marbles, 7 green marbles and 10 white marbles. If a marble is drawn from the
jar at random, what is the probability that this marble is white?

color frequency
red 3
green 7
white 10
total=3+7+10=20

P(E) = Frequency for white color / Total frequencies in the above table
= 10 / 20 = 1 / 2

39. Studenst in a math class where 40% are males and 60% are females took a test. 50% of the males
and 70% of the females passed the test. What percent of students passed the test?
Let events E1 "be a male" and E2 "be a female", and event A "passed the test".
P(A)=P(A|E1)P(E1)+P(A|E2)P(E2)
=50%×40%+70%×60%=62%

40. 5% of a population have a flu and the remaining 95% do not have this flu. A test is used to detect the
flu and this test is positive in 95% of people with a flu and is also (falsely) positive in 1% of the people
with no flu. If a person from this population is randomly selected and tested, what is the probability
that the test is positive?

Solution

Use the total probability theorem to find the percentage as follows:

5%×95%+95%×1%=5.7%

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41. A card is drawn form a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a queen of club or a king
of heart

First, we will find the number of favorable outcomes and total outcomes. The total number of cards in the pack is 52.
Therefore, the total number of possible outcomes when a card is picked from the pack is 52. Next, we will find the
number of favorable outcomes. There are 4 queens (1 each of clubs, spades, diamonds, hearts) in a pack. Thus, there
is only 1 queen of clubs in a pack of 52 cards. Similarly, there are 4 kings (1 each of clubs, spades, diamonds, hearts)
in a pack. Thus, there is only 1 king of hearts in a pack of 52 cards. We need the probability of getting either a king
of hearts, or a queen of clubs when 1 card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards Therefore, the number of favorable
outcomes is 2. Finally, we will use the formula for probability of an event to calculate the probability of getting a card
of diamond. Let E be the event of getting a queen of clubs or a king of hearts. Substituting 2 for the number of favorable
outcomes, and 52 for the number of total outcomes in the formula, we get

⇒P(E)=2/52 = 1/26

42. Which number should be come next in this series: 10, 17, 26, 37? Ans: 50

43. If xy = 2 and y2 = 8, what is the value of x? Ans: 1/root2

44. If n and k are positive integers and 8n=2k. What is the value of n/k? Ans: 1/4

45. The decimal number -34 is expressed in 2’s complement form as? Ans: 11011110

46. If a sweater sells for $48 after a 25% markdown, what was its original price?

(100-25) = 75% = 75/100 = 0.75

0.75*x = 48

x = $64 Ans:

47. What percent of 50 is 0.15? Ans: 0.3

48. If the side of a square is increased by a 20% then area increased by……

Let side of square =100 cms.

Then Area =100×100=10000 sq.cms.

Now after increase in side by 20 %. Area of Square =120×120=14400 sq.cms.

Increase in Area=14400 - 10000=4400 sq.cms.

Percentage change in area=( 4400/10000)×100= 44%

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49. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sums of the number is?

Ans: 23

50. A certain password must contain 3 distinct digits followed by 2 distinct capital letters. Given ten digits
and 26 capital letters, how many different passwords are possible?

List the number of possible options for each character in the password. There are 10 possibilities for the first digit, 9
left for the second, and 8 left for the third. There are 26 possibilities for the first letter and 25 for the second. There
are:

10 × 9 × 8 × 26 × 25 = 468,000 possible passwords.

51. If the average of 5 numbers is 36 and the average of four of those numbers is 34, then what is the value
of the fifth number?

The average of 5 numbers is 36 --> the sum of 5 numbers is 5*36 = 180;

The average of 4 numbers is 34 --> the sum of 4 numbers is 4*34 = 136.

The difference = the omitted number = 180 - 136 = 44.

52. If two painters can complete two rooms in two hours, how many painters would it take to do 18
rooms in 6 hours?

2 painter takes 2 hours to Paint 2 rooms means, 1 painter takes 2 hours to paint 1 room.

So in 6 hours 1 painter can paint 3 rooms.

So to paint 18 rooms in 6 hours 6 painters are needed.

53. The difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is 37. Find the numbers.... .........

If the difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is x,

then the numbers are (x-1)/2 and (x+1)/2

So it's, (37-1)/2 and (37+1)/2

= 36/2 and 38/2

Answer: 18 and 19

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54. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price
remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?

55. If m and n are whole numbers such that mn = 121, the value of (m - 1)n + 1 is:

We know that 112 = 121.

Putting m = 11 and n = 2, we get:

(m - 1)n + 1 = (11 - 1)(2 + 1) = 103 = 1000.

56. Sachin borrows Rs. 5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends money to
Rahul at 25/4% p.a. for 2 years. Find the gain of one year by Sachin.

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57. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower. The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of
the tower is 30º. The heights of the tower is:

58. A train 100 m long passes a bridge at the rate of 72 km/h in 25 s. The length of the bridge is

59. The perimeter of a rectangle is 26 cm. If its length is 3 cm more than its breadth, find the dimensions
of the rectangle.

Let breadth be x cm.

Length = x+3 cm
Perimeter of rectangle = 26 cm
2(l+b) =26
x+3+x=13
2x=10
x=5
Therefore,
Breadth = 5 cm
Length = 8 cm

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60. Mia has a large bag of sweets.If she shares the sweets equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people there will
always be 1 sweet left over.What is the smallest number of sweets there could be in the bag?

Mia has a large bag of sweets. If she shares the sweets equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people. First find the LCM
that will gives us the least number of sweets distributed equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people.

2=2
3=3
4=2×2
5=5
6=2×3

LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 60.
That means if she has 60 sweets, she can shares them equally among 2,3,4,5 or 6 people.
Now we want to be 1 sweet left over.
So add 1 and 60.
60+1=61.

61. A boy was asked to multiply a certain number by 25 He multiplied it by 52 and got his answer more
by 324 than the correct answer The number to be multiplied was?
Let the number is x
The if be multiply by 25 then correct answer =25x
But boy multiply with 52 then boys answer =52 x
As per question boy answer if more then 324 than correct answer
∴52x=25x+324
⇒52x−25x=324
⇒27x=324
⇒x=12

62. A two-digit number is such that the product of its digits is 8.When 18 is added to the number, the
digits are reversed. The number is:

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63. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she
paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?

64. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that
the ball drawn is white?

65. Find the probability that a number selected from the numbers 1 to 25 is not a prime number when
each of the given numbers is equally likely to be selected.

66. A box contains 3 red, 3 white and 3 green balls. A ball is selected at random. Find the probability
that the ball picked up is neither a white nor a red ball:

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67. A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the English alphabet The probability that it is not a
vowel is?
There are 26 letters of which 21 are consonants Therefore
P(not a vowel)=21/26

68. What is the probability of selecting 'W' from the letters of the word SWORD?

69. If the letters of the word RANDOM be arranged at random, the probability that there are exactly 2
letters in between A and O is

70. If tanθ=cotθ, then the value of secθ is :

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Written Part

10 marks

PMSCS
Red Color Questions are Most important Mustakim Billah Bedar

1. What is Normalization? Why we do that? What are the types of normalization?

Normalization is a database design technique that reduces data redundancy and eliminates undesirable
characteristics like Insertion, Update and Deletion Anomalies. Normalization rules divides larger tables into
smaller tables and links them using relationships. The purpose of Normalization in SQL is to eliminate redundant
(repetitive) data and ensure data is stored logically.

Types: 1NF (First Normal Form), 2NF (Second Normal Form), 3NF (Third Normal Form), BCNF (Boyce-Codd
Normal Form)

1NF (First Normal Form) Rules

• Each table cell should contain a single value.
• Each record needs to be unique.

2NF (Second Normal Form) Rules

• Rule 1- Be in 1NF
• Rule 2- Single Column Primary Key that does not functionally dependent on any subset of candidate
key relation

3NF (Third Normal Form) Rules

• Rule 1- Be in 2NF
• Rule 2- Has no transitive functional dependencies

Boyce Codd normal form (BCNF)

• A table is in BCNF if every functional dependency X → Y, X is the super key of the table.
• For BCNF, the table should be in 3NF, and for every FD, LHS is super key.

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2. What is parity check?

Parity check is a method for detecting errors in data communications or within a computer system by counting
the number of ones or zeros per byte or per word, including a special check bit (parity bit), to see if the value is
even or odd.

3. What are the functions of CDROM?

A CD-ROM drive (Compact Disk – Read Only Memory) is a type of device used by your computer to read CDs.
These CDs are used for a variety of purposes such as installing software and playing music. A CD-ROM drive
operates by using a laser to reflect light off the bottom of the CD or disc. The reflected light pulses are read by a
photo detector. These incoming pulses are decoded by the microprocessor and then sent as usable data to the rest
of the computer where it is processed and used.

CD-ROM drives can open documents on data CDs, such as music files, pictures, word documents and other files.
However, CD-ROM drives cannot write information to a CD (burn) because they are read-only drives; writing
information to a CD is done with a CD-R drive.

4. Discuss Optical Fibre, Twisted Pair and Coaxial Cable.

Optical fibre:
Optical fibre is a transmitting device that’s transmits signals in the form of light. Optical fibre is made up of glass
or plastic. It is very thin above 2 to 125 µm. It belongs to a cylindrical shape containing three sections:
• Core: The innermost section
• Cladding: The middle section
• Jacket: The outer section

Twisted Pair:
Twisted pair is the most widely used and least expensive guided medium. It consists of two conductors (copper)
that is twisted together with its own plastic insulation. One of the wire is used to carry signal to the receiver and
the other one is used for ground reference only. The receiver uses the difference among them. There are two types
of twisted pair cable.
• Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
• Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

Coaxial Cable:
Coaxial Cable has better shielding than twisted pairs, so it can span longer distances at higher speeds. A Coaxial
cable is consist of a stiff copper wire as the core, surrounding by an insulating material. The construction and
shielding of the coaxial cable give it a good combination of high bandwidth and excellent immunity. Coaxial
cable is widely used for cable television and Metropolitan Area Network.

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5. What do you mean by redundancy?

Redundancy means having multiple copies of same data in the database. This problem arises when a database is
not normalized. Problems caused due to redundancy are: Insertion anomaly, Deletion anomaly, and Updation
anomaly.
6. What is distributed processing?

Distributed processing is the organization of processing to be carried out on a distributed system. Each process is
free to process local data and make local decisions. The processes exchange information with each other over a
data communication network to process data or to read decisions that affect multiple processes. In a distributed
processing system the various cooperating processes that jointly make up the total activity may run on separate
processing systems linked only by communications channels. In an open distributed system, the components are
physically separated and are linked by communications channels that use open systems standards for their
interfaces and protocols, and the intercommunication between the processes is again in accordance with a
(different) set of open systems standards. It is clear that there is still a long way to go before open distributed
processing will be a commercial reality.

7. What is point to point connection?

In telecommunications, a point-to-point connection refers to a communications connection between two

communication endpoints or nodes. An example is a telephone call, in which one telephone is connected with one
other, and what is said by one caller can only be heard by the other. This is contrasted with a point-to-multipoint
or broadcast connection, in which many nodes can receive information transmitted by one node. Other examples
of point-to-point communications links are leased lines and microwave radio relay.

8. What do you know about Shannon's Capacity?

Claude Shannon extended Nyquist's work for actual channels that are subject to noise. Noise can be of various
types like thermal noise, impulse noise, cross-talks etc. Among all the noise types, thermal noise is unavoidable.
The random movement of electrons in the channel creates an extraneous signal not present in the original signal,
called the thermal noise. The amount of thermal noise is calculated as the ratio of the signal power to noise power,
SNR.

Shannon's Capacity gives the theoretical maximum data rate or capacity of a noisy channel. It is expressed as:
Capacity = Bandwidth × log2( 1+SNR ) [Here, Capacity is the maximum data rate of the channel in bps,
Bandwidth is the bandwidth of the channel, SNR is the signal – to – noise ratio]

For example, if the bandwidth of a noisy channel is 4 KHz, and the signal to noise ratio is 100, then the maximum
bit rate can be computed as:
Capacity = 4000 × log2( 1+100 ) = 26,633 bps = 26.63 kbps

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9. What is Nyquist bit rate formula?

Nyquist bit rate was developed by Henry Nyquist who proved that the transmission capacity of even a perfect
channel with no noise has a maximum limit.
The theoretical formula for the maximum bit rate is:

maximum bit rate = 2 × Bandwidth × log2V

Here, maximum bit rate is calculated in bps. Bandwidth is the bandwidth of the channel. V is the number of
discrete levels in the signal

For example, if there is a noiseless channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz that is transmitting a signal with 4 discrete
levels, then the maximum bit rate will be computed as, maximum bit rate = 2 × 4000 × log24 = 16,000 bps = 16
kbps

10. What are the types of errors?

There are three types of error: logic, run-time and compile-time error:

Logic errors occur when programs operate incorrectly but do not terminate normally (or crash). Unexpected or
undesired outputs or other behavior may result from a logic error, even if it is not immediately recognized as such.
Logic errors occur when executed code does not produce the expected result. Logic errors are best handled by
meticulous program debugging.

A run-time error is an error that takes place during the execution of a program and usually happens because of
adverse system parameters or invalid input data. The lack of sufficient memory to run an application or a memory
conflict with another program and logical error is an example of this.

Compile-time errors rise at compile-time, before the execution of the program. Syntax error or missing file
reference that prevents the program from successfully compiling is an example of this.

Classification of Compile-time error

Lexical: This includes misspellings of identifiers, keywords or operators

Syntactical: a missing semicolon or unbalanced parenthesis
Semantical: incompatible value assignment or type mismatches between operator and operand
Logical: code not reachable, infinite loop.

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11. Define cyclic redundancy check (CRC).

The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a technique used to detect errors in digital data. As a type of checksum,
the CRC produces a fixed-length data set based on the build of a file or larger data set. In terms of its use, CRC
is a hash function that detects accidental changes to raw computer data commonly used in digital
telecommunications networks and storage devices such as hard disk drives. In the cyclic redundancy check, a
fixed number of check bits, often called a checksum, are appended to the message that needs to be transmitted.
The data receivers receive the data, and inspect the check bits for any errors.

12. What is hamming code?

Hamming code is a set of error-correction codes that can be used to detect and correct the errors that can occur
when the data is moved or stored from the sender to the receiver. Redundant bits are extra binary bits that are
generated and added to the information-carrying bits of data transfer to ensure that no bits were lost during the
data transfer.
The number of redundant bits can be calculated using the following formula:

2r ≥ m + r + 1
where, r = redundant bit, m = data bit

13. What is Firewall?

A firewall is a division between a private network and an outer network, often the internet, that manages traffic
passing between the two networks. It’s implemented through either hardware or software. Firewalls allow, limit,
and block network traffic based on preconfigured rules in the hardware or software, analyzing data packets that
request entry to the network. In addition to limiting access to computers and networks, a firewall is also useful
for allowing remote access to a private network through secure authentication certificates and logins.

14. What is Repeater?

Repeaters are network devices operating at physical layer of the OSI model that amplify or regenerate an incoming
signal before retransmitting it. They are incorporated in networks to expand its coverage area. They are also
known as signal boosters.

When an electrical signal is transmitted via a channel, it gets attenuated depending upon the nature of the channel
or the technology. This poses a limitation upon the length of the LAN or coverage area of cellular networks. This
problem is alleviated by installing repeaters at certain intervals. Repeaters amplifies the attenuated signal and then
retransmits it. Digital repeaters can even reconstruct signals distorted by transmission loss. So, repeaters are
popularly incorporated to connect between two LANs thus forming a large single LAN.

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15. What is domain name system (DNS)?

The domain name system (DNS) is a naming database in which internet domain names are located and translated
into Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. The domain name system maps the name people use to locate a website to
the IP address that a computer uses to locate that website. For example, if someone types "example.com" into a
web browser, a server behind the scenes maps that name to the corresponding IP address. An IP address is similar
in structure to 203.0.113.72. DNS servers convert URLs and domain names into IP addresses that computers can
understand and use. They translate what a user types into a browser into something the machine can use to find a
webpage. This process of translation and lookup is called DNS resolution.

16. What is TELNET

TELNET stands for TErminaL NETwork. It is a type of protocol that enables one computer to connect to local
computer. It is a used as a standard TCP/IP protocol for virtual terminal service which is given by ISO. Computer
which starts connection known as the local computer. Computer which is being connected to i.e. which accepts
the connection known as remote computer. When the connection is established between local and remote
computer. During telnet operation whatever that is being performed on the remote computer will be displayed by
local computer. Telnet operates on client/server principle. Local computer uses telnet client program and the
remote computers uses telnet server program.

17. What is MANNET?

MANNET Stands for "Mobile Ad Hoc Network." A MANET is a type of ad hoc network that can change
locations and configure itself on the fly. Because MANETS are mobile, they use wireless connections to connect
to various networks. This can be a standard Wi-Fi connection, or another medium, such as a cellular or satellite
transmission.

18. Describe the three levels of data abstraction?

There are mainly three levels of data abstraction:
• Internal Level: Actual PHYSICAL storage structure and access paths.
• Conceptual or Logical Level: Structure and constraints for the entire database
• External or View level: Describes various user views

19. What is Functional Dependency?

A functional dependency is a constraint that specifies the relationship between two sets of attributes where one
set can accurately determine the value of other sets. It is denoted as X → Y, where X is a set of attributes that is
capable of determining the value of Y. The attribute set on the left side of the arrow, X is called Determinant,
while on the right side, Y is called the Dependent. Functional dependencies are used to mathematically express
relations among database entities and are very important to understand advanced concepts in Relational Database
System.

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20. What is Program counter?

Program counter holds the address of either the first byte of the next instruction to be fetched for execution
or the address of the next byte of a multi byte instruction, which has not been completely fetched. In both
the cases it gets incremented automatically one by one as the instruction bytes get fetched. Also Program
register keeps the address of the next instruction.

21. What is Stack Pointer?

Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds the address of the top
of the stack.

22. Which interrupt has the highest priority?

TRAP has the highest priority

23. What is SIM and RIM instructions?

SIM is Set Interrupt Mask. Used to mask the hardware interrupts.
RIM is Read Interrupt Mask. Used to check whether the interrupt is Masked or not.

24. What are the flags in 8086?

Carry flag, Parity flag, Auxiliary carry flag, Zero flag, Overflow flag, Trace flag, Interrupt flag, Direction
flag, and Sign flag.

25. Briefly Describe ER Diagram.

ER Diagram stands for Entity Relationship Diagram, also known as ERD is a diagram that displays the
relationship of entity sets stored in a database. In other words, ER diagrams help to explain the logical structure
of databases. ER diagrams are created based on three basic concepts: entities, attributes and relationships.

ER Diagrams contain different symbols that use rectangles to represent entities, ovals to define attributes and
diamond shapes to represent relationships.

At first look, an ER diagram looks very similar to the flowchart. However, ER Diagram includes many specialized
symbols, and its meanings make this model unique. The purpose of ER Diagram is to represent the entity
framework infrastructure.

• The elements should be sorted.

• The middle element should be accessible.

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27. Describe briefly ROM, PROM, EPROM, EEPROM.

ROM
ROM stands for Read-only Memory. It is a type of memory that does not lose its contents when the power is
turned off. For this reason, ROM is also called non-volatile memory.

PROM (programmable ROM)

PROM refers to the kind of ROM that the user can burn information into. In other words, PROM is a user-
programmable memory. Programming ROM also called burning ROM, requires special equipment called a ROM
burner or ROM programmer. EPROM was invented to allow making changes in the contents of PROM after it is
burned. For every bit of the PROM, there exists a fuse. PROM is programmed by blowing the fuses. If the
information burned into PROM is wrong, that PROM must be discarded since its internal fuses are blown
permanently. For this reason, PROM is also referred to as OTP (One Time Programmable).

EPROM (erasable programmable ROM)

In EPROM, one can program the memory chip and erase it thousands of times. This is especially necessary during
the development of the prototype of a microprocessor-based project. A widely used EPROM is called UV-
EPROM, where UV stands for ultraviolet. The only problem with UV-EPROM is that erasing its contents can
take up to 20 minutes. All UV-EPROM chips have a window through which the programmer can shine ultraviolet
(UV) radiation to erase the chip’s contents. For this reason, EPROM is also referred to as UV-erasable EPROM
or simply UV-EPROM.

EEPROM (electrically erasable programmable ROM)

EEPROM has several advantages over EPROM, such as the fact that its method of erasure is electrical and
therefore instant as opposed to the 20-minute erasure time required for UV-EPROM.
In addition, in EEPROM one can select which byte to be erased, in contrast to UV-EPROM, in which the entire
contents of ROM are erased. However, the main advantage of EEPROM is that one can program and erase its
contents while it is still in the system board. It does not require the physical removal of the memory chip from its
socket. In other words, unlike UV-EPROM, EEPROM does not require an external erasure and programming
device.

28. What do you know about BCD?

Binary Coded Decimal, or BCD, is another process for converting decimal numbers into their binary equivalents.
It is a form of binary encoding where each digit in a decimal number is represented in the form of bits. This
encoding can be done in either 4-bit or 8-bit (usually 4-bit is preferred). It is a fast and efficient system that
converts the decimal numbers into binary numbers as compared to the existing binary system. These are generally
used in digital displays where is the manipulation of data is quite a task. Thus BCD plays an important role here
because the manipulation is done treating each digit as a separate single sub-circuit.

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29. What are the various registers in 8085?

Accumulator register, Temporary register, Instruction register, Stack Pointer, Program Counter

30. What is enum?

Enumeration (or enum) is a user defined data type in C. It is mainly used to assign names to integral constants,
the names make a program easy to read and maintain.

31. What do you understand by Encapsulation?

Encapsulation is one of the fundamentals of OOP (object-oriented programming). It refers to the bundling of data
with the methods that operate on that data. Encapsulation is used to hide the values or state of a structured data
object inside a class, preventing unauthorized parties’ direct access to them. Publicly accessible methods are
generally provided in the class (so-called getters and setters) to access the values, and other client classes call
these methods to retrieve and modify the values within the object.

32. What do you know about OOPS concept?

Object Oriented programming (OOP) is a programming paradigm that relies on the concept of classes and objects.
It is used to structure a software program into simple, reusable pieces of code blueprints (usually called classes),
which are used to create individual instances of objects. There are many object-oriented programming languages
including JavaScript, C++, Java, and Python.

33. What is Malware?

Malware, or malicious software, is any program or file that is intentionally harmful to a computer, network or
server.
Types of malwares include computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, ransomware and spyware. These malicious
programs steal, encrypt and delete sensitive data; alter or hijack core computing functions and monitor end users'
computer activity.

34. What is Polymorphism?

Polymorphism is the ability of an object to take on many forms. The most common use of polymorphism in
OOP occurs when a parent class reference is used to refer to a child class object.

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35. What do you know about POST?

Short for power-on self-test, the POST is a test the computer must complete verifying all hardware is working
properly before starting the remainder of the boot process. The POST process checks computer hardware, like
RAM (random access memory), hard drive, CD-ROM drive, keyboard, etc., to make sure all are working
correctly.
If all hardware passes the POST, the computer continues the boot up process and may generate a single beep
sound as well. If POST is unsuccessful, it generates a beep code to indicate the error encountered and the computer
will not boot up. All POST errors are relating to hardware issues with one of the components in the computer.

36. What are the functions of GPU?

The graphics processing unit, or GPU, has become one of the most important types of computing technology,
both for personal and business computing. Designed for parallel processing, the GPU is used in a wide range of
applications, including graphics and video rendering. Although they’re best known for their capabilities in
gaming, GPUs are becoming more popular for use in creative production and artificial intelligence (AI).

GPUs were originally designed to accelerate the rendering of 3D graphics. Over time, they became more flexible
and programmable, enhancing their capabilities. This allowed graphics programmers to create more interesting
visual effects and realistic scenes with advanced lighting and shadowing techniques. Other developers also began
to tap the power of GPUs to dramatically accelerate additional workloads in high performance computing (HPC),
deep learning, and more.

37. What is Recursive function?

A function that calls itself is known as a recursive function. And, this technique is known as recursion.

void recurse()
{
... .. ...
recurse();
... .. ...
}

int main()
{
... .. ...
recurse();
... .. ...
}

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38. What is Deadlock? What are deadlock conditions?

Deadlock is a situation where two or more processes are waiting for each other. For example, let us assume, we
have two processes P1 and P2. Now, process P1 is holding the resource R1 and is waiting for the resource R2. At
the same time, the process P2 is having the resource R2 and is waiting for the resource R1. So, the process P1 is
waiting for process P2 to release its resource and at the same time, the process P2 is waiting for process P1 to
release its resource. And no one is releasing any resource. So, both are waiting for each other to release the
resource. This leads to infinite waiting and no work is done here. This is called Deadlock.

There are four different conditions that result in Deadlock. These four conditions are also known as Coffman
conditions and these conditions are not mutually exclusive. Let's look at them one by one.

Mutual Exclusion: A resource can be held by only one process at a time. In other words, if a process P1 is using
some resource R at a particular instant of time, then some other process P2 can't hold or use the same resource R
at that particular instant of time. The process P2 can make a request for that resource R but it can't use that resource
simultaneously with process P1.

Hold and Wait: A process can hold a number of resources at a time and at the same time, it can request for other
resources that are being held by some other process. For example, a process P1 can hold two resources R1 and
R2 and at the same time, it can request some resource R3 that is currently held by process P2.

No preemption: A resource can't be preempted from the process by another process, forcefully. For example, if
a process P1 is using some resource R, then some other process P2 can't forcefully take that resource. If it is so,
then what's the need for various scheduling algorithm. The process P2 can request for the resource R and can wait
for that resource to be freed by the process P1.

Circular Wait: Circular wait is a condition when the first process is waiting for the resource held by the second
process, the second process is waiting for the resource held by the third process, and so on. At last, the last process
is waiting for the resource held by the first process. So, every process is waiting for each other to release the
resource and no one is releasing their own resource. Everyone is waiting here for getting the resource. This is
called a circular wait.

39. What is the basic structure of SQL and what are its use?

SQL stands for Structured Query Language. It is a widely used programming language designed for working with
Relational DataBase Management System. SQL can be used to insert, search, update, and delete database records.
Basic structure of an SQL expression consists of select, from and where clauses.

select clause lists attributes to be copied - corresponds to relational algebra project.

from clause corresponds to Cartesian product - lists relations to be used.
where clause corresponds to selection predicate in relational algebra.

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40. What do you know about leaner search?

Linear search is a very simple search algorithm. In this type of search, a sequential search is made over all items
one by one. Every item is checked and if a match is found then that particular item is returned, otherwise the
search continues till the end of the data collection.

41. What is Fibonacci series?

The Fibonacci numbers are the numbers in the following integer sequence.
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89, 144, ……..
In mathematical terms, the sequence Fn of Fibonacci numbers is defined by the recurrence relation
Fn = Fn-1 + Fn-2 with seed values F0 = 0 and F1 = 1.

42. What is Big O notation, Omega Notation, Theta Notation?

Big O Notation (O): It represents the upper bound of the runtime of an algorithm. Big O Notation's role is to
calculate the longest time an algorithm can take for its execution, i.e., it is used for calculating the worst-case time
complexity of an algorithm.
Omega Notation (Ω(n)): It represents the lower bound of the runtime of an algorithm. It is used for calculating
the best time an algorithm can take to complete its execution, i.e., it is used for measuring the best case time
complexity of an algorithm.
Theta Notation (Θ(n)): It carries the middle characteristics of both Big O and Omega notations as it represents
the lower and upper bound of an algorithm.

43. What is NoSQL?

NoSQL databases are non-tabular databases and store data differently than relational tables. NoSQL databases
come in a variety of types based on their data model. The main types are document, key-value, wide-column, and
graph. They provide flexible schemas and scale easily with large amounts of data and high user loads.

NoSQL databases are purpose built for specific data models and have flexible schemas for building modern
applications. NoSQL databases are widely recognized for their ease of development, functionality, and
performance at scale. This page includes resources to help you better understand NoSQL databases and to get
started.

NoSQL databases use a variety of data models for accessing and managing data. These types of databases are
optimized specifically for applications that require large data volume, low latency, and flexible data models,
which are achieved by relaxing some of the data consistency restrictions of other databases.

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44. What is Triggers in DBMS?

Triggers are the SQL statements that are automatically executed when there is any change in the database. The
triggers are executed in response to certain events(INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE) in a particular table. These
triggers help in maintaining the integrity of the data by changing the data of the database in a systematic fashion.

45. What are the DBMS ACID properties?

A transaction in a database system must maintain Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability − commonly
known as ACID properties − in order to ensure accuracy, completeness, and data integrity.

Atomicity − This property states that a transaction must be treated as an atomic unit, that is, either all of its
operations are executed or none. There must be no state in a database where a transaction is left partially
completed. States should be defined either before the execution of the transaction or after the
execution/abortion/failure of the transaction.
Consistency − The database must remain in a consistent state after any transaction. No transaction should have
any adverse effect on the data residing in the database. If the database was in a consistent state before the execution
of a transaction, it must remain consistent after the execution of the transaction as well.
Durability − The database should be durable enough to hold all its latest updates even if the system fails or
restarts. If a transaction updates a chunk of data in a database and commits, then the database will hold the
modified data. If a transaction commits but the system fails before the data could be written on to the disk, then
that data will be updated once the system springs back into action.
Isolation − In a database system where more than one transaction are being executed simultaneously and in
parallel, the property of isolation states that all the transactions will be carried out and executed as if it is the only
transaction in the system. No transaction will affect the existence of any other transaction.

46. What is Inheritance and what are the properties of inheritance?

Inheritance is the capability of one class to derive or inherit the properties from another class.
The benefits of inheritance are:
• It represents real-world relationships well.
• It provides reusability of a code. We don’t have to write the same code again and again. Also, it allows us to
add more features to a class without modifying it.
• It is transitive in nature, which means that if class B inherits from another class A, then all the subclasses of
B would automatically inherit from class A.

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47. What is Cache memory?

Cache memory is a small-sized type of volatile computer memory that provides high-speed data access to a
processor and stores frequently used computer programs, applications and data.

A temporary storage of memory, cache makes data retrieving easier and more efficient. It is the fastest memory
in a computer, and is typically integrated onto the motherboard and directly embedded in the processor or main
random access memory (RAM).

48. Why Cache memory is expensive?

The cache memory is usually SRAM (Static RAM) where the principle of storing the bit is latching it between
two inverters. The output of one inverter in the input of another. This set up of two inverters when not accessed
can continue to store the bit till there is power. In addition to this, there are two more transistors to access the
memory cell. This makes 6 transistors in one memory cell which stores only 1 bit (6T SRAM). The latch provides
the advantages of speed and reliable storage but it needs 6 transistors for 1 bit.
On the other hand, the main memory is usually DRAM (Dynamic RAM) where the principle of storing the bit is
storing charge in the capacitor. The capacitor is hooked to one transistor to act as an access transistor. In such
memory cells, every bit is rewritten after every read operation. This makes it a bit slower but it requires a smaller
space (since it needs only 1 transistor and 1 capacitor to store 1 bit).
There are many other types of SRAMs and DRAMs but I guess you get the general idea and difference in the
storing principle between these two. And that is the simple reason why SRAMs (Cache) are usually more
expensive than DRAMs (Main Memory).

49. What is Unicode?

Unicode is a universal character encoding standard that assigns a code to every character and symbol in every
language in the world. Since no other encoding standard supports all languages, Unicode is the only encoding
standard that ensures that you can retrieve or combine data using any combination of languages. Unicode is
required with XML, Java, JavaScript, LDAP, and other web-based technologies.

50. What do you know about Tower of Hanoi?

Tower of Hanoi is a mathematical puzzle where we have three rods and n disks. The objective of the puzzle is to
move the entire stack to another rod, obeying the following simple rules:

• Only one disk can be moved at a time.

• Each move consists of taking the upper disk from one of the stacks and placing it on top of another stack
i.e. a disk can only be moved if it is the uppermost disk on a stack.
• No disk may be placed on top of a smaller disk.

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51. What is the difference between Homogeneous and Heterogenous data?

A data set is homogeneous if it is made up of things that are similar to each other it means data from the exact
same source. In a typical scenario of supervised learning, this will result in the data set to have the exact same
label across the entire set.
The heterogeneous data refer to any data that has a high variability of data formats. They are perhaps indefinite
and pose low qualities due to missing values, high data redundancy, and untruthfulness. It is very complicated to
combine heterogeneous data for meeting the demands of business information.

52. Differentiate between Memory and Storage.

The main difference between computer memory and storage is that memory stores data short-term for immediate
access. A computer's moment-to-moment operations are performed using short-term data access — loading
applications, browsing the Web, or editing a spreadsheet. Memory is volatile storage, which means that when you
turn the computer off, the data disappears.

Storage (either a hard drive or a solid state drive) stores data long-term for permanent access. It's the component
that accesses and stores your files, applications, and operating system. The storage drive is non-volatile, which
means the data is stored even if you turn off the computer. For more information about solid state drives, read
here. Memory and storage work in tandem with your computer's processor (CPU) to access and use data.

53. What is CMOS?

CMOS (complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) is the semiconductor technology used in the transistors that
are manufactured into most of today's computer microchips. Semiconductors are made of silicon and germanium,
materials which "sort of" conduct electricity, but not enthusiastically. Areas of these materials that are "doped"
by adding impurities become full-scale conductors of either extra electrons with a negative charge (N-type
transistors) or of positive charge carriers (P-type transistors). In CMOS technology, both kinds of transistors are
used in a complementary way to form a current gate that forms an effective means of electrical control. CMOS
transistors use almost no power when not needed. As the current direction changes more rapidly, however, the
transistors become hot. This characteristic tends to limit the speed at which microprocessors can operate.

54. Why do we use Debugging?

Software programs undergo heavy testing, updating, troubleshooting, and maintenance during the development
process. Usually, the software contains errors and bugs, which are routinely removed. Debugging is the process
of fixing a bug in the software. It refers to identifying, analyzing and removing errors. This process begins after
the software fails to execute properly and concludes by solving the problem and successfully testing the software.
But, it is considered to be an extremely complex and tedious task because errors need to be resolved at all stages
of debugging.

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55. Differentiate between Constructor and Destructor.

Constructor
• It helps to allocate memory to an object.
• It can take arguments.
• It is called automatically when an object is created.
• It allows an object to initialize a value before it is used.
• They are called in the successive order of their creation.
• There can be multiple constructors in a single class.
• The copy constructor allows the constructor to declare and initialize an object from another object.
• It can be overloaded.

Example:
class_name( arguments if any )
{
};

Destructor
• It deallocates the memory of an object.
• It doesn’t take any argument.
• It is called automatically when the block is exited or when the program terminates.
• They allow objects to execute code when it is being destroyed.
• They are called in the reverse order of their creation.
• There is a single destructor in a class.
• Destructor can’t be overloaded.

Example:
~ class_name( no arguments )
{
};

56. What is prime number?

A prime number is a number that can only be divided by itself and 1 without remainders. A prime number is a
number greater than 1 with only two factors – themselves and 1. A prime number cannot be divided by any other
numbers without leaving a remainder. An example of a prime number is 13. It can only be divided by 1 and 13.

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57. What is Wireless Sensor network?

Wireless Sensor Network (WSN) is an infrastructure-less wireless network that is deployed in a large number of
wireless sensors in an ad-hoc manner that is used to monitor the system, physical or environmental conditions.
Sensor nodes are used in WSN with the onboard processor that manages and monitors the environment in a
particular area. They are connected to the Base Station which acts as a processing unit in the WSN System. Base
Station in a WSN System is connected through the Internet to share data.

Applications of WSN:
• Internet of Things (IOT)
• Surveillance and Monitoring for security, threat detection
• Environmental temperature, humidity, and air pressure
• Noise Level of the surrounding
• Medical applications like patient monitoring
• Agriculture
• Landslide Detection

58. What do you understand by Universal Gate?

A universal gate is a logic gate which can implement any Boolean function without the need to use any other type
of logic gate. The NOR gate and NAND gate are universal gates. This means that you can create any logical
Boolean expression using only NOR gates or only NAND gates.

59. write difference between database schema and instance

Schema
• It is defined as the overall description of the database.
• It remains the same for the entire database.
• It doesn’t change frequently.
• It is used to define the basic structure of the database.
• It tells about how the data would be stored in a database.

Instance
• It refers to the collection of information that is stored in the database at a specific moment.
• Data in these instances can be changed.
• This can be done using addition, deletion, and updating.
• The instance changes frequently.
• It is the set of Information that is stored at a particular time

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60. What is Function Overloading and Overriding?

1.Function Overloading is when multiple function with same name exist in a class. Function Overriding is when
function have same prototype in base class as well as derived class.
2.Function Overloading can occur without inheritance. Function Overriding occurs when one class is inherited
from another class.
3.Overloaded functions must differ in either number of parameters or type of parameters should be different. In
Overridden function parameters must be same.

61. How to Print in PHP?

The echo statement can be used with or without parentheses: echo or echo().
Example
<?php
echo "Hello world!<br>";
?>

62. What is Aggregate function?

In database management an aggregate function is a function where the values of multiple rows are grouped
together as input on certain criteria to form a single value of more significant meaning.
Various Aggregate Functions
1. Count() 4. Min()
2. Sum() 5. Max()
3. Avg()

63. What is GUI?

A GUI (graphical user interface) is a system of interactive visual components for computer software. A GUI
displays objects that convey information, and represent actions that can be taken by the user. The objects change
color, size, or visibility when the user interacts with them.

64. What are the functions of operating system?

An Operating System acts as a communication bridge (interface) between the user and computer hardware. The
purpose of an operating system is to provide a platform on which a user can execute programs in a convenient
and efficient manner. The main task an operating system carries out is the allocation of resources and services,
such as the allocation of memory, devices, processors, and information. The operating system also includes
programs to manage these resources, such as a traffic controller, a scheduler, memory management module, I/O
programs, and a file system.

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65. Differentiate between Syntax and Semantic error.

Syntax errors and "semantic" errors are not the same. The syntax error is an incorrect construction of the source
code, whereas a semantic error is erroneous logic that produces the wrong result when executed.

66. What is difference between mysql and nosql?

• MySQL is a relational database that is based on tabular design whereas NoSQL is non-relational in
nature with its document-based design.
• MySQL has established a database, covering huge IT market whereas NoSQL databases are the latest
arrival, hence still gaining popularity among big IT giants.
• MySQL database with its settled market encompasses a huge community whereas the NoSQL database
with the short span arrival has a comparatively short community.
• MySQL is not so easily scalable with their rigid schema restrictions whereas NoSQL can be easily
scaled with their dynamic schema nature.
• MySQL is one of the types of relational database whereas NoSQL is more of design based database
type with examples like MongoDB, Couch DB, etc.
• MySQL is available with a wide array of reporting tools help application’s validity whereas NoSQL
databases lack reporting tools for analysis and performance testing.
• MySQL being a relational database is less flexible with its design constraint whereas NoSQL being
non-relational in nature, provides a more flexible design as compared to MySQL.
• MySQL is being used with a standard query language called SQL whereas NoSQL like databases
misses a standard query language.
• MySQL like a relational database can provide a performance issue for a huge amount of data, hence
require optimization of queries whereas NoSQL databases like MongoDB are good at performance
even with the dataset is huge in size.

67. Why LIFO is used? Where LIFO is used?

LIFO stands for Last-In-First-Out. In this approach, the new element is inserted above the existing element, So
that the newest element can be at the top and taken out first. The data structure that implements LIFO is Stack.

An arithmetic logic unit (ALU) is a digital circuit used to perform arithmetic and logic operations. It represents
the fundamental building block of the central processing unit (CPU) of a computer. The ALU performs simple
addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and logic operations, such as OR and AND. The memory stores
the program’s instructions and data.

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69. What does Referential Integrity (RI) mean?

Referential integrity refers to the relationship between tables. In order to maintain referential integrity, the
relational data in database tables has to be universally configurable so that changes in one part of the system don't
lead to unanticipated problems elsewhere.
Specifically, keys that reference elements of other tables need to be connected to those other fields, so that if there
is a change, everything gets updated together, and not separately.

70. What are the major components of a web search engine?

A search engine normally consists of four components, that are:

• search interface
• crawler (also known as a spider or bot)
• indexer
• database.

71. What is View and what do you understand by index in DB?

SQL Index
Indexes are special lookup tables. It is used to retrieve data from the database very fast. An Index is used to speed
up select queries and where clauses. But it shows down the data input with insert and update statements. Indexes
can be created or dropped without affecting the data. An index in a database is just like an index in the back of a
book.

For example: When you reference all pages in a book that discusses a certain topic, you first have to refer to the
index, which alphabetically lists all the topics and then referred to one or more specific page numbers.

Views in SQL
Views in SQL are considered as a virtual table. A view also contains rows and columns. To create the view, we
can select the fields from one or more tables present in the database. A view can either have specific rows based
on certain condition or all the rows of a table.

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72. Full form of RAID? Why do we use RAID? What are the Levels of RAID?
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Inexpensive/Independent Disks. RAID is a technique of data virtualization
that uses multiple hard disks or solid-state drives to provide for data redundancy and performance improvement.
Redundancy provides threat resilience to the data in case of unforeseen events, thus proving advantageous over
the conventional storage technique of having a “single large expensive disk” (SLED). So instead of having all the
data on one SLED, RAID instead makes use of multiple small-sized disks allowing faster I/O operations and
providing robustness to the whole system. In case one of the disks in the system crashes the others remain safe
and the whole system doesn’t collapse.

Advantages
• Data access speed: Data access speed in RAID systems is undeniably better that SLED systems. RAID
0, RAID 4 and RAID 5 are specially designed for fast and cheap data access.
• Reundant data: Data redundancy provided by RAID systems provides for a reliable storage system.
RAID 1 uses data mirroring to keep copies of data to ensure reliability.
• Error Correction: RAID 2, RAID 3, RAID 4 and RAID 5 use hamming code parity for error correction
in data.
• Simultaneous I/O requests: RAID 0, RAID 4 and RAID 5 use the striping storage techniques hence
support multiple I/O operations at the same time.
• Bulk data transfer: RAID 3 provides for quick bulk data transfers.
• Data security: Striping and continuous parity checks provide for high data security.

Disadvantages
• Cost: The cost of RAID systems is more than SLED systems.
• Data loss: The RAID systems that do not use mirroring are vulnerable to some data loss.
• Choice of RAID level: Given that there are so many RAID levels with each having some drawbacks and
features of their it is a difficult choice as to what system can be used.
• Improper use: If RAID is not use properly, the overall performance of the system as a whole may
decrease.
• Complex technology: RAID is a difficult to use architecture of data storage and requires skilled and
proficient people to unlock the full potential of RAID.

RAID levels:
RAID 0 – striping
RAID 1 – mirroring
RAID 5 – striping with parity
RAID 6 – striping with double parity
RAID 10 – combining mirroring and striping

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74. What is BIOS? What are the Properties of BIOS? What happens when BIOS fails?

Every computer with a motherboard includes a special chip referred to as the BIOS or ROM BIOS (Read
Only Memory Basic Input/Output System). The BIOS includes instructions on how to load basic computer
hardware. The BIOS also includes a test referred to as a POST (Power On Self Test) which will ensure that
the computer meets requirements to boot up properly. If the computer does not pass the POST you will
receive a combination of beeps indicating what is malfunctioning within the computer.

The BIOS has 4 main functions:

• POST - Test computer hardware insuring hardware is properly functioning before starting process of loading
Operating System.
• Bootstrap Loader - Process of locating the operating system. If capable Operating system located BIOS will
pass the control to it.
• BIOS - Software / Drivers which interfaces between the operating system and your hardware. When running
DOS or Windows you are using complete BIOS support.
• CMOS Setup - Configuration program. Which allows you to configure hardware settings including system
settings such as computer passwords, time, and date.

BIOS is a piece of program. When the system starts, the register EIP is initialized to FFFF0 to execute the JMP
instruction there, which leads to the execution of the system BIOS code.
BIOS will initialize other devices; initialize the interrupt vector; find other BIOS programs and run them.

If your BIOS update procedure fails, your system will be useless until you replace the BIOS code.
You have two options:
Install a replacement BIOS chip (if the BIOS is located in a socketed chip).
Use the BIOS recovery feature (available on many systems with surface-mounted or soldered-in-place BIOS chips).

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75. What are the steps to build a software?

Software Development Life Cycle is the application of standard business practices to building software
applications. It’s typically divided into six to eight steps: Planning, Requirements, Design, Build, Document, Test,
Deploy, Maintain. Some project managers will combine, split, or omit steps, depending on the project’s scope.
These are the core components recommended for all software development projects.

SDLC is a way to measure and improve the development process. It allows a fine-grain analysis of each step of
the process. This, in turn, helps companies maximize efficiency at each stage. As computing power increases, it
places a higher demand on software and developers. Companies must reduce costs, deliver software faster, and
meet or exceed their customers’ needs. SDLC helps achieve these goals by identifying inefficiencies and higher
costs and fixing them to run smoothly.

Phases of SDLC:

1. Planning
2. Define Requirements
3. Design and Prototyping
4. Software Development
5. Testing
6. Deployment
7. Operations and Maintenance

76. What is XOR gate?

“XOR” an abbreviation for “Exclusively-OR.” The simplest XOR gate is a two-input digital circuit that outputs
a logical “1” if the two input values differ, i.e., its output is a logical “1” if either of its inputs are 1, but not at the
same time (exclusively). The symbol and truth table for an XOR is shown in Figure 1. The Boolean expression
for a two-input XOR gate, with inputs A and B and output X:

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77. What is Optical Disk and how does it work?

An optical disk is an electronic data storage medium that can be written to and read from using a low-powered
laser beam. Most of today's optical disks are available in three formats: compact disks (CDs), digital versatile
disks (DVDs) -- also referred to as digital video disks -- and Blu-ray disks, which provide the highest capacities
and data transfer rates of the three.

Optical disks rely on a red or blue laser to record and read data. Most of today's optical disks are flat, circular and
12 centimeters in diameter. An optical disk drive uses a laser beam to read the data from the disk as it is spinning.
It distinguishes between the pits and lands based on how the light reflects off the recording material. The drive
uses the differences in reflectivity to determine the 0 and 1 bits that represent the data.

78. Where the mass of an object is zero?

The weight of an object is zero when the net gravitational force acting on the object is zero. However, the mass
of an object can never be zero since mass is a property of matter.

79. What are the fundamental colors of a TV screen?

A monitor or TV screen generates three colors of light (red, green, and blue) and the different colors we see are
due to different combinations and intensities of these three primary colors.

80. What are the programming languages that are interpreter based?
An Interpreter directly executes instructions written in a programming or scripting language without previously
converting them to an object code or machine code. Examples of interpreted languages are Perl, Python and
Matlab.

81. What do you know about the speed of Supercomputer?

A supercomputer is a computer with a high level of performance compared to a general-purpose computer.
Performance of a supercomputer is measured in floating-point operations per second (FLOPS) instead of
million instructions per second (MIPS). Supercomputers contain tens of thousands of processors and can perform
billions and trillions of calculations or computations per second. Some supercomputers can perform up to a
hundred quadrillion FLOPS. Since information moves quickly between processors in a supercomputer (compared
to distributed computing systems) they are ideal for real-time applications.

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82. What do you know about active hub and passive hub?
Active hub: These hubs regenerate our signals as well as amplifies the signal. Active hubs need electricity to
work.
Passive hub: Talking about passive hubs, it simply distributes the signal coming from the previous ports. Passive
hub neither regenerates any signal nor amplifies, therefore it does not require electricity to work.

83. What is 2 tier and 3 tier architecture?

2-Tier Architecture: A 2 Tier Architecture in DBMS is a Database architecture where the presentation layer
runs on a client (PC, Mobile, Tablet, etc.), and data is stored on a server called the second tier. Two tier
architecture provides added security to the DBMS as it is not exposed to the end-user directly. It also provides
direct and faster communication.

Example: A Contact Management System created using MS- Access.

3-Tier Architecture: A 3 Tier Architecture in DBMS is the most popular client server architecture in DBMS in
which the development and maintenance of functional processes, logic, data access, data storage, and user
interface is done independently as separate modules. Three Tier architecture contains a presentation layer, an
application layer, and a database server.

84. What are the functions of LLC sublayer and MAC sublayer?

Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer provides the logic for the data link. Thus, it controls the synchronization,
flow control, and error checking functions of the data link layer.

Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer provides control for accessing the transmission medium. It is
responsible for moving data packets from one network interface card (NIC) to another, across a shared
transmission medium. Physical addressing is handled at the MAC sublayer.

85. What is system call in OS?

In computing, a system call is the programmatic way in which a computer program requests a service from the
kernel of the operating system it is executed on. A system call is a way for programs to interact with the operating
system. A computer program makes a system call when it makes a request to the operating system’s kernel.
System call provides the services of the operating system to the user programs via Application Program
Interface(API). It provides an interface between a process and operating system to allow user-level processes to
request services of the operating system. System calls are the only entry points into the kernel system. All
programs needing resources must use system calls.

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86. What is VPN?

A virtual private network (VPN) gives you online privacy and anonymity by creating a private network from a
public internet connection. VPNs mask your internet protocol (IP) address so your online actions are virtually
untraceable. Most important, VPN services establish secure and encrypted connections to provide greater privacy
than even a secured Wi-Fi hotspot.

87. What is page fault?

A page fault occurs when a program attempts to access a block of memory that is not stored in the physical
memory, or RAM. The fault notifies the operating system that it must locate the data in virtual memory, then
transfer it from the storage device, such as an HDD or SSD, to the system RAM.

88. SRAM VS DRAM

SRAM DRAM
SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory. DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory.
Transistors are used to store information in SRAM Capacitors are used to store information in DRAM
Refreshing is not required. Refreshing is required.
SRAM offers low packaging density. DRAM offers high packaging density.
SRAM storage capacity is in Mega Bytes. DRAM storage capacity is in Giga Bytes.
SRAM consumes less power. DRAM consumes much power.
SRAM is costlier than DRAM DRAM is cheap compared to SRAM

89. Hub Vs Switch

Hub Switch
Hub transmits the signal to every port except the Switch do not transmit to every port rather it sends
port that received the signal to specific addresses
Hub operates on the physical layer Switch operates on the data link layer
Transmission mode for Hub is Half Duplex Transmission mode for Switch is Full Duplex
Hub is a passive device Switch is an active device
Hub Not an intelligent device Switch is an intelligent device
Speed is up to 10 Mbps Speed is more than Hub, up to 10 Gbps
Hub does not use software Switch has software for administration
Hub can have maximum 4 ports. Switch can have 24 to 28 ports
Hub does not provide packet filtering Switch provides packet filtering

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90. IP address Vs MAC address

MAC Address IP Address

MAC Address stands for Media Access Control IP Address stands for Internet Protocol Address.
Address.
NIC Card’s Manufacturer provides the MAC Internet Service Provider provides IP Address.
Address.
MAC Address is used to ensure the physical address IP Address is the logical address of the computer.
of a computer.
MAC Address operates in the data link layer. IP Address operates in the network layer.
MAC Address helps in simply identifying the IP Address identifies the connection of the device on
device. the network.
MAC Address of computer cannot be changed with IP Address modifies with the time and environment.
time and environment.

91. DDL Vs DML

DDL DML
It stands for Data Definition Language. It stands for Data Manipulation Language.
It is used to create database schema and can be used to It is used to add, retrieve or update the data.
define some constraints as well.
It basically defines the column (Attributes) of the table. It add or update the row of the table. These rows are called
as tuple.
It doesn’t have any further classification. It is further classified into Procedural and Non-Procedural
DML.
Basic command present in DDL are CREATE, DROP, BASIC command present in DML are UPDATE, INSERT,
RENAME, ALTER etc. MERGE etc.
DDL does not use WHERE clause in its statement. While DML uses WHERE clause in its statement.

92. Stack Vs Queue

Stack Queue

The stack is based on LIFO(Last In First Out) principle The queue is based on FIFO(First In First Out) principle.

Push and Pop Operation takes place from one end of the Enqueue and Dequeue Operation takes place from a
stack different end of the queue

The most accessible element is called Top and the least The insertion end is called Rear End and the deletion end
accessible is called the Bottom of the stack is called the Front End.

Only one pointer is used for performing operations Two pointers are used to perform operations

Used to solve the recursive type problems Used to solve the problem having sequential processing

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93. Interpreter Vs Compiler

Interpreter Compiler
Interpreter translates just one statement of the Compiler scans the entire program and translates the
program at a time into machine code. whole of it into machine code at once.
An interpreter takes very less time to analyze the source A compiler takes a lot of time to analyze the source
code. However, the overall time to execute the process code. However, the overall time taken to execute the
is much slower. process is much faster.
An interpreter does not generate an intermediary code. A compiler always generates an intermediary object
Hence, an interpreter is highly efficient in terms of its code. It will need further linking. Hence more memory
memory. is needed.
Keeps translating the program continuously till the first A compiler generates the error message only after it
error is confronted. If any error is spotted, it stops scans the complete program and hence debugging is
working and hence debugging becomes easy. relatively harder while working with a compiler.
Interpreters are used by programming languages like Compliers are used by programming languages like C
Ruby and Python for example. and C++ for example.

94. Primary Vs Foreign Key

PRIMARY KEY FOREIGN KEY

A primary key is used to ensure data in the specific A foreign key is a column or group of columns in a
column is unique. relational database table that provides a link
between data in two tables.

It uniquely identifies a record in the relational It refers to the field in a table which is the primary
database table. key of another table.
Only one primary key is allowed in a table. Whereas more than one foreign key are allowed in a
table.
It is a combination of UNIQUE and Not Null It can contain duplicate values and a table in a
constraints. relational database.
It does not allow NULL values. It can also contain NULL values.
Its value cannot be deleted from the parent table. Its value can be deleted from the child table.

It constraint can be implicitly defined on the It constraint cannot be defined on the local or global
temporary tables. temporary tables.

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95. High Level Vs Low Level Language

High Level Language Low Level Language

It is programmer friendly language. It is a machine friendly language.
High level language is less memory efficient. Low level language is high memory efficient.
It is easy to understand. It is tough to understand.
It is simple to debug. It is complex to debug comparatively.
It is simple to maintain. It is complex to maintain comparatively.
It is portable. It is non-portable.
It can run on any platform. It is machine-dependent.
It needs compiler or interpreter for translation. It needs assembler for translation.
It is used widely for programming. It is not commonly used now-a-days in programming

96. IPv4 Vs IPv6

IPv4 IPv6
IPv4 has a 32-bit address length IPv6 has a 128-bit address length

It can generate 4.29×109 address space Address space of IPv6 is quite large it can produce

3.4×1038 address space

The Security feature is dependent on application IPSEC is an inbuilt security feature in the IPv6 protocol

Address representation of IPv4 is in decimal Address Representation of IPv6 is in hexadecimal

Fragmentation performed by Sender and forwarding In IPv6 fragmentation performed only by the sender

routers

In IPv4 Packet flow identification is not available In IPv6 packet flow identification are Available and uses

the flow label field in the header

In IPv4 checksum field is available In IPv6 checksum field is not available

It has broadcast Message Transmission Scheme In IPv6 multicast and anycast message transmission

scheme is available

In IPv4 Encryption and Authentication facility not In IPv6 Encryption and Authentication are provided

provided

IPv4 has a header of 20-60 bytes. IPv6 has header of 40 bytes fixed

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97. Array Vs Linked List

Array Linked list

An array is a collection of elements of a similar data type. A linked list is a collection of objects known as a
node where node consists of two parts, i.e., data and
address.
Array elements store in a contiguous memory location. Linked list elements can be stored anywhere in the
memory or randomly stored.
Array works with a static memory. The Linked list works with dynamic memory

Accessing any element in an array is faster as the element Accessing an element in a linked list is slower as it
in an array can be directly accessed through the index. starts traversing from the first element of the linked
list.
In the case of an array, memory is allocated at compile- In the case of a linked list, memory is allocated at
time. run time.

98. Call by Value Vs Call by Reference?

No. Call by value Call by reference

1 A copy of the value is passed into the function An address of value is passed into the function
2 Changes made inside the function is limited to the Changes made inside the function validate outside of
function only. The values of the actual parameters do the function also. The values of the actual parameters
not change by changing the formal parameters. do change by changing the formal parameters.

3 Actual and formal arguments are created at the Actual and formal arguments are created at the same
different memory location memory location

99. Strong entity Vs week entity.

Strong entity Week entity

Strong entity has a primary key. Weak entity has a partial key.
Strong entity is independent Weak entity is dependent on a strong entity
Strong entity indicated by a single rectangle. Strong entity indicated by a double rectangle.
Two strong entity’s relationship is indicated by a single One strong and one weak entity is indicated by a double
diamond. diamond.
Strong entity may be or may not be participate Weak entity always participates relationships.
relationships.
In strong entity connecting line is a single line In weak entity connecting line is a double line

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100. http Vs https

Parameter HTTP HTTPS

Protocol It is hypertext transfer protocol. It is hypertext transfer protocol with secure.
Security It is less secure as the data can be It is designed to prevent hackers from accessing
vulnerable to hackers. critical information. It is secure against such
attacks.
Port It uses port 80 by default It uses port 443 by default.
Used for It’s a good fit for websites designed for If the website needs to collect the private
information consumption like blogs. information such as credit card number, then it is
a more secure protocol.
Scrambling HTTP does not scramble the data to be HTTPS scrambles the data before transmission. At
transmitted. That’s why there is a higher the receiver end, it descrambles to recover the
chance that transmitted information is original data. Therefore, the transmitted
available to hackers. information is secure which can’t be hacked.

Domain HTTP website do not need SSL. HTTPS requires SSL certificate.
Name
Validation
Search HTTP does not improve search rankings. HTTPS helps to improve search ranking.
Ranking

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1. Primary Vs Secondary Memory

Primary memory Secondary memory

Primary memory is temporary. Secondary memory is permanent.
Primary memory is directly accessible by Processor/CPU. Secondary memory is not directly accessible by the CPU.
Nature of Parts of Primary memory varies, RAM- volatile in It’s always Non-volatile in nature.
nature. ROM- Non-volatile.
Primary memory devices are more expensive than secondary Secondary memory devices are less expensive when
storage devices. compared to primary memory devices.
The memory devices used for primary memory are The secondary memory devices are magnetic and optical
semiconductor memories. memories.
Primary memory is also known as Main memory or Internal Secondary memory is also known as External memory or
memory. Auxiliary memory.
Examples: RAM, ROM, Cache memory, PROM, EPROM, Examples: Hard Disk, Floppy Disk, Magnetic Tapes, etc.
Registers, etc.

2. RAM Vs ROM

RAM ROM
RAM stands for Random Access Memory ROM stands for Read Only Memory
RAM data is volatile that means it depends on voltage. Data ROM data is Non volatile. Data stores even when power
stores as long as power supply is there. supply is not there.
RAM data can be read, erased or modified. ROM data can only be read.
RAM is used to store data that CPU needs for current ROM is used to store data that is needed to bootstrap the
instruction processing. computer.
RAM is faster ROM is slower than RAM
RAM is costly ROM is cheaper than RAM

3. SRAM VS DRAM

SRAM DRAM
SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory. DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory.
Transistors are used to store information in SRAM Capacitors are used to store information in DRAM
Refreshing is not required. Refreshing is required.
SRAM offers low packaging density. DRAM offers high packaging density.
SRAM storage capacity is in Mega Bytes. DRAM storage capacity is in Giga Bytes.
SRAM consumes less power. DRAM consumes much power.
SRAM is costlier than DRAM DRAM is cheap compared to SRAM

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4. Maskable Vs Non Maskable Interrupt

Maskable Interrupt Non Maskable Interrupt

Maskable interrupt can be easily disable or ignored Non Maskable interrupt can not be ignored or disabled by
any means
Maskable interrupts used to interface with peripheral Non Maskable interrupt used for emergency purpose e.g.
device. power failure, smoke detector etc.
When this type of interrupt occurs the system can handle When this type of interrupt occurs it must halt execution
it after executing current instructions of current instructions
It helps handling tasks that are of lower priority It helps handling tasks that are of higher priority
A Maskable interrupt has comparatively higher response A Non Maskable interrupt has comparatively very low
time. response time.
Example: RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5 of 8085 Example: Trap of 8085

5. Microprocessor Vs Microcontroller

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6. Hub Vs Switch

Hub Switch
Hub transmits the signal to every port except the Switch do not transmit to every port rather it sends
port that received the signal to specific addresses
Hub operates on the physical layer Switch operates on the data link layer
Transmission mode for Hub is Half Duplex Transmission mode for Switch is Full Duplex
Hub is a passive device Switch is an active device
Hub Not an intelligent device Switch is an intelligent device
Speed is up to 10 Mbps Speed is more than Hub, up to 10 Gbps
Hub does not use software Switch has software for administration
Hub can have maximum 4 ports. Switch can have 24 to 28 ports
Hub does not provide packet filtering Switch provides packet filtering

7. UTP Vs STP

UTP STP
UTP stands for Unshielded Twisted Pair STP stands for Shielded Twisted Pair
Made up of wires that are twisted together Cable is enclosed in foil or mesh shield
UTP cables are noisier. STP cables are less noisy
UTP has high crosstalk STP has low crosstalk
UTP does not require a grounding cable STP requires a grounding cable
Price is lower than STP Price is more than UTP
UTP is suitable for small distance STP is suitable for long distance
UTP does not require much maintenance STP requires much maintenance

8. Analog Vs Digital Signal

Analog Signals Digital Signals

Continuous signals Discrete signals
Represented by sine waves Represented by square waves
Human voice, natural sound, analog electronic Computers, optical drives, and other electronic
devices are a few examples devices
Continuous range of values Discontinuous values
Records sound waves as they are Converts into a binary waveform.
Only used in analog devices. Suited for digital electronics like computers,
mobiles and more.

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9. IP address Vs MAC address

MAC Address IP Address

MAC Address stands for Media Access Control IP Address stands for Internet Protocol Address.
Address.
MAC Address is a six byte hexadecimal address. IP Address is either a four-byte (IPv4) or an eight-
byte (IPv6) address.
A device attached with MAC Address can retrieve A device attached with IP Address can retrieve by
by ARP protocol. RARP protocol.
NIC Card’s Manufacturer provides the MAC Internet Service Provider provides IP Address.
Address.
MAC Address is used to ensure the physical address IP Address is the logical address of the computer.
of a computer.
MAC Address operates in the data link layer. IP Address operates in the network layer.
MAC Address helps in simply identifying the IP Address identifies the connection of the device on
device. the network.
MAC Address of computer cannot be changed with IP Address modifies with the time and environment.
time and environment.
MAC Addresses can’t be found easily by a third IP Addresses can be found by a third party.
party.
It is a 48-bit address that contains 6 groups of 2 IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses in dotted notations,
hexadecimal digits, separated by either hyphens (-) whereas IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses in hexadecimal
or colons(.). notations.
Example: Example:
00:FF:FF:AB:BB:AA IPv4 192.168.1.1
or IPv6 FFFF:F200:3204:0B00
00-FF-FF-AB-BB-AA
No classes are used for MAC addressing. IPv4 uses A, B, C, D, and E classes for IP
addressing.
MAC Address sharing is not allowed. In IP address multiple client devices can share the
IP address.

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10. Active Vs Passive Attack

Active Attack Passive Attack

Active attack tries to change the system resources or affect Passive attack tries to read or make use of information
their operations. from the system but does not change system resources.
Active attack is danger for integrity and availability Passive attack is danger for confidentiality
In Active attack attention is on detection. In Passive attack attention is on prevention.
Active attack causes system damage. Passive attack does not cause system damage but it creates
vulnerability.
Active attack depends on passive attack because active Passive attack helps Active attack by giving sensitive
attack requires collection of information taken by passive information
attack.

11. DDL Vs DML

DDL DML
It stands for Data Definition Language. It stands for Data Manipulation Language.
It is used to create database schema and can be used to It is used to add, retrieve or update the data.
define some constraints as well.
It basically defines the column (Attributes) of the table. It add or update the row of the table. These rows are called
as tuple.
It doesn’t have any further classification. It is further classified into Procedural and Non-Procedural
DML.
Basic command present in DDL are CREATE, DROP, BASIC command present in DML are UPDATE, INSERT,
RENAME, ALTER etc. MERGE etc.
DDL does not use WHERE clause in its statement. While DML uses WHERE clause in its statement.

12. While Loop Vs Do While Loop

While Loop Do-While Loop

This is entry-controlled loop. It checks condition This is exit control loop. Checks condition when
before entering into loop coming out from loop
The while loop may run zero or more times Do-While may run more than one times but at least
once.
The variable of test condition must be initialized The variable for loop condition may also be
prior to entering into the loop initialized in the loop also.
while(condition){ do{
//statement //statement
} }while(condition);

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13. Stack Vs Queue

Stack Queue

The stack is based on LIFO(Last In First Out) principle The queue is based on FIFO(First In First Out) principle.

Insertion Operation is called Push Operation Insertion Operation is called Enqueue Operation

Deletion Operation is called Pop Operation Deletion Operation is called Dequeue Operation

Push and Pop Operation takes place from one end of the Enqueue and Dequeue Operation takes place from a
stack different end of the queue

The most accessible element is called Top and the least The insertion end is called Rear End and the deletion end
accessible is called the Bottom of the stack is called the Front End.

Only one pointer is used for performing operations Two pointers are used to perform operations

Empty condition is checked using Empty condition is checked using

Top==-1 Front==-1||Front==Rear+1

Full condition is checked using Full condition is checked using

Top==Max-1 Rear==Max-1

There are no variants available for stack There are three types of variants i.e circular queue, double-
ended queue and priority queue

Used to solve the recursive type problems Used to solve the problem having sequential processing

14. Global Variable Vs Local Variable

Global Variable Local Variable

Global variables are declared outside all the function Local Variables are declared within a function block.
blocks.
The scope remains throughout the program. The scope is limited and remains within the function only in
which they are declared.
Any change in global variable affects the whole program, Any change in the local variable does not affect other
wherever it is being used. functions of the program.
A global variable exists in the program for the entire time A local variable is created when the function is executed,
the program is executed. and once the execution is finished, the variable is destroyed.
It can be accessed throughout the program by all the It can only be accessed by the function statements in which
functions present in the program. it is declared and not by the other functions.
If the global variable is not initialized, it takes zero by If the local variable is not initialized, it takes the garbage
default. value by default.
Global variables are stored in the data segment of memory. Local variables are stored in a stack in memory.
We cannot declare many variables with the same name. We can declare various variables with the same name but in
other functions.

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15. Primary Key Vs Candidate Key

Comparison Basis Primary Key Candidate Key

Definition It is a unique and non-null key to identify It is also a unique key to identify records in
each table's records in a schema uniquely. relation or table uniquely.
Basic A table or relation can contain only one A table or relation can have more than one
primary key. candidate key.
NULL Any column of a primary key cannot be The column of a candidate can contain a
NULL. NULL value.
Objective It is the essential part of a table or relation. It signifies which key can be used as a
primary key.
Use It can be used as a candidate key. It may or may not be used as a primary key.
Specify It is not mandatory to specify a primary key There cannot be a relationship without
for any relation. specifying the candidate key.
Example Consider a table "student" with columns The roll_no, mobile, and email columns can
(roll_no., name, class, DOB, email, mobile). be candidate keys in the given table because
Here roll_no column can be a primary key they can uniquely identify student's records.
for the relationship because it identifies the
student's records uniquely.

16. Interpreter Vs Compiler

Interpreter Compiler
Interpreter translates just one statement of the Compiler scans the entire program and translates the
program at a time into machine code. whole of it into machine code at once.
An interpreter takes very less time to analyze the source A compiler takes a lot of time to analyze the source
code. However, the overall time to execute the process code. However, the overall time taken to execute the
is much slower. process is much faster.
An interpreter does not generate an intermediary code. A compiler always generates an intermediary object
Hence, an interpreter is highly efficient in terms of its code. It will need further linking. Hence more memory
memory. is needed.
Keeps translating the program continuously till the first A compiler generates the error message only after it
error is confronted. If any error is spotted, it stops scans the complete program and hence debugging is
working and hence debugging becomes easy. relatively harder while working with a compiler.
Interpreters are used by programming languages like Compliers are used by programming languages like C
Ruby and Python for example. and C++ for example.

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17. HDD Vs SSD

Basis HDD SSD

Stands for Hard Disk Drive Solid State Drive
Speed HDD has higher latency, longer read/write times, SSD has lower latency, faster read/writes, and
and supports fewer IOPs (input output supports more IOPs (input output operations per
operations per second) compared to SSD. second) compared to HDD.

Heat, Electricity, Hard disk drives use more electricity to rotate the Since no such rotation is needed in solid state drives,
Noise platters, generating heat and noise. they use less power and do not generate heat or
noise.

Defragmentation The performance of HDD drives worsens due to SSD drive performance is not impacted by
fragmentation; therefore, they need to be fragmentation. So defragmentation is not necessary.
periodically defragmented.

Components HDD contains moving parts - a motor-driven SSD has no moving parts; it is essentially a memory
spindle that holds one or more flat circular disks chip. It is interconnected, integrated circuits (ICs)
(called platters) coated with a thin layer of with an interface connector. There are three basic
magnetic material. Read-and-write heads are components - controller, cache and capacitor.
positioned on top of the disks; all this is encased
in a metal cas
Weight HDDs are heavier than SSD drives. SSD drives are lighter than HDD drives because
they do not have the rotating disks, spindle and
motor.

Dealing with The moving parts of HDDs make them SSD drives can withstand vibration up to 2000Hz,
vibration susceptible to crashes and damage due to which is much more than HDD.
vibration.

18. int vs long int

int iong int

The datatype int is of 32-bits. The data type long is of 64-bits.
If counted in bytes, int is 4 bytes. If counted in bytes, long is 8 bytes.
In Java the range of type int is –2,147,483,648 to In Java the range of type long is
2,147,483,647. –9,223,372,036,854,775,808 to
9,223,372,036,854,775,807.
Keyword used to declare a variable of int type is "int". Keyword used to declare a variable of long type is
"long".
Memory required to store an int variable is less as Memory required to store a long variable is larger as
compared to long. compared to int.

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19. Internet Vs intranet Vs Extranet

Point of Internet Intranet Extranet

difference
Accessibility Public Private Private
of network
Availability Global system. Specific to an organization. To share information with
suppliers and vendors it makes the
use of public network.
Coverage All over the world. Restricted area upto an Restricted area upto an
organization. organization and some of its
stakeholders or so.
Accessibility It is accessible to everyone It is accessible only to the Accessible only to the members of
of content connected. members of organization. organization and external
members with logins.
No. of It is largest in number of The minimal number of devices The connected devices are
computers connected devices. are connected. comparable with Intranet.
connected
Owner No one. Single organization. Single/ Multiple organization.
Purpose of the It’s purpose is to share It’s purpose is to share It’s purpose is to share
network information throughout the information throughout the information between members
world. organization. and external, members.
Security It is dependent on the user It is enforced via firewall. It is enforced via firewall that
of the device connected to separates internet and extranet.
network.
Users General public. Employees of the organization. Employees of the organization
which are connected.
Policies There is no hard and fast Policies of the organization are Policies of the organization are
behind setup rule for policies. imposed. imposed.
Maintenance It is maintained by ISP. It is maintained by CIO. HR or It is maintained by CIO. HR or
communication department of communication department of an
an organization. organization.
Economical It is more economical to use. It is less economical. It is also less economical.
Relation It is the network of It is derived from Internet. It is derived from Intranet.
networks.
Example What we are normally using WIPRO using internal network DELL and Intel using network for
is internet. for its business operations. its business operations

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20. DBMS Vs File System

File System DBMS

A file system is a software that manages and organizes the DBMS or Database Management System is a
files in a storage medium. It controls how data is stored and software application. It is used for accessing,
retrieved. creating, and managing databases.
The file system provides the details of data representation DBMS gives an abstract view of data that hides the
and storage of data. details
Storing and retrieving of data can’t be done efficiently in a DBMS is efficient to use as there are a wide variety
file system. of methods to store and retrieve data.
It does not offer data recovery processes. There is a backup recovery for data in DBMS.
The file system doesn’t have a crash recovery mechanism. DBMS provides a crash recovery mechanism
Protecting a file system is very difficult. DBMS offers good protection mechanism.
In a file management system, the redundancy of data is The redundancy of data is low in the DBMS system.
greater.
Data inconsistency is higher in the file system. Data inconsistency is low in a database management
system.
The file system offers lesser security. Database Management System offers high security.
File System allows you to stores the data as isolated data Database Management System stores data as well as
files and entities. defined constraints and interrelation.
Not provide support for complicated transactions. Easy to implement complicated transactions.
The centralization process is hard in File Management Centralization is easy to achieve in the DBMS
System. system.
It doesn’t offer backup and recovery of data if it is lost. DBMS system provides backup and recovery of
data even if it is lost.
There is no efficient query processing in the file system. You can easily query data in a database using the
SQL language.
These system doesn’t offer concurrency. DBMS system provides a concurrency facility.

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21. Array Vs Structure

ARRAY STRUCTURE

Array refers to a collection consisting of elements of Structure refers to a collection consisting of elements
homogeneous data type. of heterogeneous data type.

Array uses subscripts or “[ ]” (square bracket) for Structure uses “.” (Dot operator) for element access
element access

Array is pointer as it points to the first element of the Structure is not a pointer
collection.

Instantiation of Array objects is not possible. Instantiation of Structure objects is possible.

Array size is fixed and is basically the number of Structure size is not fixed as each element of Structure
elements multiplied by the size of an element. can be of different type and size.

Bit filed is not possible in an Array. Bit filed is possible in an Structure.

Array declaration is done simply using [] and not any Structure declaration is done with the help of “struct”
keyword. keyword.

Arrays is a non-primitive datatype Structure is a user-defined datatype.

Array traversal and searching is easy and fast. Structure traversal and searching is complex and slow.

data_type array_name[size]; struct sruct_name{ data_type1 ele1; data_type2 ele2;

};

Array elements are stored in continuous memory Structure elements may or may not be stored in a
locations. continuous memory location.

Array elements are accessed by their index number Structure elements are accessed by their names using
using subscripts. dot operator.

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22. Supervised Vs Unsupervised Learning

Parameters Supervised machine learning technique Unsupervised machine learning technique

Process In a supervised learning model, input In unsupervised learning model, only input data
and output variables will be given. will be given

Input Data Algorithms are trained using labeled Algorithms are used against data which is not
data. labeled

Algorithms Used Support vector machine, Neural Unsupervised algorithms can be divided into
network, Linear and logistics different categories: like Cluster algorithms, K-
regression, random forest, and means, Hierarchical clustering, etc.
Classification trees.

Computational Supervised learning is a simpler Unsupervised learning is computationally

Complexity method. complex

Use of Data Supervised learning model uses Unsupervised learning does not use output data.
training data to learn a link between
the input and the outputs.

Accuracy of Highly accurate and trustworthy Less accurate and trustworthy method.
Results method.

Real Time Learning method takes place offline. Learning method takes place in real time.
Learning

Number of Number of classes is known. Number of classes is not known.

Classes

Main Drawback Classifying big data can be a real You cannot get precise information regarding
challenge in Supervised Learning. data sorting, and the output as data used in
unsupervised learning is labeled and not known.

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23. AI Vs ML

Artificial Intelligence Machine learning

Artificial intelligence is a technology which enables a Machine learning is a subset of AI which allows a
machine to simulate human behavior. machine to automatically learn from past data without
programming explicitly.
The goal of AI is to make a smart computer system like The goal of ML is to allow machines to learn from data
humans to solve complex problems. so that they can give accurate output.
In AI, we make intelligent systems to perform any task In ML, we teach machines with data to perform a
like a human. particular task and give an accurate result.
Machine learning and deep learning are the two main Deep learning is a main subset of machine learning.
subsets of AI.
AI has a very wide range of scope. Machine learning has a limited scope.
AI is working to create an intelligent system which can Machine learning is working to create machines that can
perform various complex tasks. perform only those specific tasks for which they are
trained.
AI system is concerned about maximizing the chances of Machine learning is mainly concerned about accuracy
success. and patterns.
The main applications of AI are Siri, customer support The main applications of machine learning are Online
using catboats, Expert System, Online game playing, recommender system, Google search
intelligent humanoid robot, etc. algorithms, Facebook auto friend tagging suggestions,
etc.
On the basis of capabilities, AI can be divided into three Machine learning can also be divided into mainly three
types, which are, Weak AI, General AI, and Strong AI. types that are Supervised learning, Unsupervised
learning, and Reinforcement learning.
It includes learning, reasoning, and self-correction. It includes learning and self-correction when introduced
with new data.
AI completely deals with Structured, semi-structured, Machine learning deals with Structured and semi-
and unstructured data. structured data.

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24. Primary Vs Foreign Key

PRIMARY KEY FOREIGN KEY

A primary key is used to ensure data in the specific A foreign key is a column or group of columns in a
column is unique. relational database table that provides a link
between data in two tables.

It uniquely identifies a record in the relational It refers to the field in a table which is the primary
database table. key of another table.
Only one primary key is allowed in a table. Whereas more than one foreign key are allowed in a
table.
It is a combination of UNIQUE and Not Null It can contain duplicate values and a table in a
constraints. relational database.
It does not allow NULL values. It can also contain NULL values.
Its value cannot be deleted from the parent table. Its value can be deleted from the child table.

It constraint can be implicitly defined on the It constraint cannot be defined on the local or global
temporary tables. temporary tables.

25. High Level Vs Low Level Language

High Level Language Low Level Language

It is programmer friendly language. It is a machine friendly language.
High level language is less memory efficient. Low level language is high memory efficient.
It is easy to understand. It is tough to understand.
It is simple to debug. It is complex to debug comparatively.
It is simple to maintain. It is complex to maintain comparatively.
It is portable. It is non-portable.
It can run on any platform. It is machine-dependent.
It needs compiler or interpreter for translation. It needs assembler for translation.
It is used widely for programming. It is not commonly used now-a-days in programming

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26. IPv4 Vs IPv6

IPv4 IPv6
IPv4 has a 32-bit address length IPv6 has a 128-bit address length

It Supports Manual and DHCP address configuration It supports Auto and renumbering address configuration

It can generate 4.29×109 address space Address space of IPv6 is quite large it can produce

3.4×1038 address space

The Security feature is dependent on application IPSEC is an inbuilt security feature in the IPv6 protocol

Address representation of IPv4 is in decimal Address Representation of IPv6 is in hexadecimal

In IPv4 Packet flow identification is not available In IPv6 packet flow identification are Available and uses

the flow label field in the header

It has broadcast Message Transmission Scheme In IPv6 multicast and anycast message transmission

scheme is available

In IPv4 Encryption and Authentication facility not In IPv6 Encryption and Authentication are provided

provided

Parameter HTTP HTTPS

Protocol It is hypertext transfer protocol. It is hypertext transfer protocol with secure.
Security It is less secure as the data can be It is designed to prevent hackers from accessing
vulnerable to hackers. critical information. It is secure against such
attacks.
Port It uses port 80 by default It uses port 443 by default.
Used for It’s a good fit for websites designed for If the website needs to collect the private
information consumption like blogs. information such as credit card number, then it is
a more secure protocol.
Scrambling HTTP does not scramble the data to be HTTPS scrambles the data before transmission. At
transmitted. That’s why there is a higher the receiver end, it descrambles to recover the
chance that transmitted information is original data. Therefore, the transmitted
available to hackers. information is secure which can’t be hacked.

Domain HTTP website do not need SSL. HTTPS requires SSL certificate.
Name
Validation
Search HTTP does not improve search rankings. HTTPS helps to improve search ranking.
Ranking

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28. Array Vs Linked List

Array Linked list

An array is a collection of elements of a similar data type. A linked list is a collection of objects known as a
node where node consists of two parts, i.e., data and
address.
Array elements store in a contiguous memory location. Linked list elements can be stored anywhere in the
memory or randomly stored.
Array works with a static memory. Here static memory The Linked list works with dynamic memory. Here,
means that the memory size is fixed and cannot be dynamic memory means that the memory size can
changed at the run time. be changed at the run time according to our
requirements.
Array elements are independent of each other. Linked list elements are dependent on each other. As
each node contains the address of the next node so to
access the next node, we need to access its previous
node.
Array takes more time while performing any operation Linked list takes less time while performing any
like insertion, deletion, etc. operation like insertion, deletion, etc.
Accessing any element in an array is faster as the element Accessing an element in a linked list is slower as it
in an array can be directly accessed through the index. starts traversing from the first element of the linked
list.
In the case of an array, memory is allocated at compile- In the case of a linked list, memory is allocated at
time. run time.
Memory utilization is inefficient in the array. For Memory utilization is efficient in the case of a linked
example, if the size of the array is 6, and array consists of list as the memory can be allocated or deallocated at
3 elements only then the rest of the space will be unused. the run time according to our requirement.

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Static Website Dynamic Website

Content of Web pages cannot be change at runtime. Content of Web pages can be changed.
No interaction with database possible. Interaction with database is possible
It is faster to load as compared to dynamic website. It is slower than static website.
Cheaper Development costs. More Development costs.
No feature of Content Management. Feature of Content Management System.
HTML, CSS, Javascript is used for developing the Server side languages such as PHP, Node.js are
website. used.

Same content is delivered everytime the page is loaded. Content may change everytime the page is loaded.

30. Client side VS Server-side scripting?

Client side scripting Server side scripting

Source code is visible to user. Source code is not visible to user because it’s output
of server side is a HTML page.

It usually depends on browser and it’s version. In this any server side technology can be use and it
does not depend on client.

It runs on user’s computer. It runs on web server.

There are many advantages link with this like faster. The primary advantage is it’s ability to highly
response times, a more interactive application. customize, response
requirements, access rights based on user.

It does not provide security for data. It provides more security for data.

It is a technique use in web development in which scripts It is a technique that uses scripts on web server to
runs on clients browser. produce a response that is customized for each clients
request.

HTML, CSS and javascript are used. PHP, Python, Java, Ruby are used.

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31. get VS post method

Basis Get Post

History Parameters remain in browser history Parameters are not saved in

because they are part of the URL browser history.

Bookmarked Can be bookmarked. Cannot be bookmarked.

BACK button/re- GET requests are re-executed but may not be The browser usually alerts the
submit behaviour re-submitted to server if the HTML is stored user that data will need to be re-
in the browser cache. submitted.

Parameters can send but the parameter data is limited to Can send parameters, including
what we can stuff into the request line (URL). uploading files, to the server.
Safest to use less than 2K of parameters,
some servers handle up to 64K

Hacked Easier to hack for script kiddies More difficult to hack

Restrictions on Yes, only ASCII characters allowed. No restrictions. Binary data is

form data type also allowed.

Security GET is less secure compared to POST POST is a little safer than GET
because data sent is part of the URL. So it's because the parameters are not
saved in browser history and server logs in stored in browser history or
plaintext. in web server logs.

Usability GET method should not be used when POST method used when sending
sending passwords or other sensitive passwords or other sensitive
information. information.

Visibility GET method is visible to everyone (it will be POST method variables are not
displayed in the browser's address bar) and displayed in the URL.
has limits on the amount of information to
send.

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32. programming VS scripting languages?

Programming Language Scripting Language

A programming language is a computer language that is used A scripting language is a type of programming
to communicate with computers using a set of instructions. language designed for a runtime system to automate
the execution of tasks.

It is compiled language or compiler-based language. It is interpreted language or interpreter-based

language

It is used to develop an application or software from scratch. It is used to combine existing components and automate
a specific task.

It runs or executes independently and does not depend on the It runs or executes inside another program.
parent (exterior) program.

It uses a compiler to convert source code into machine code. It uses an interpreter to convert source code into
machine code.

As it uses a compiler, hence the complete program is converted As it uses an interpreter, hence the program is
into machine code in one shot. converted into machine code line by line.

These languages are required to be compiled. There is no need for compilation.

It is comparatively difficult to write code in a programming It is comparatively easy to write code in the scripting
language, and it requires numerous lines of code for each task. language, and it requires few lines of code for each task.

The development time in programming languages is high as The development time in a scripting language as a
more lines are required. smaller number of lines are required.

There is the high maintenance cost. There is less maintenance cost.

All programming languages are not scripting languages All scripting languages are programming languages

It generates a .exe file. It does not create a .exe file.

Usually, programming languages do not support or provide Scripting languages provide great support to user
very little support for user interface designing, data types, interface design, data types, and graphic design.
and graphic designing.

Some popular examples are C, C++, Java, Scala, COBOL, Some popular examples are Perl, Python, JavaScript,
etc. etc.

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33. Call by Value Vs Call by Reference?

No. Call by value Call by reference

1 A copy of the value is passed into the function An address of value is passed into the function
2 Changes made inside the function is limited to the Changes made inside the function validate outside of
function only. The values of the actual parameters do the function also. The values of the actual parameters
not change by changing the formal parameters. do change by changing the formal parameters.

3 Actual and formal arguments are created at the Actual and formal arguments are created at the same
different memory location memory location

34. actual Vs formal parameters?

Actual Parameters Formal Parameters

Actual Parameters used in the function call. Formal Parameters used in the function header.
Data type not required. Data type define must be required.
Parameters can be constant values or variable names. Parameters can be handle as local variables.
Ex:- add(a,b); Ex:- int add(int a,int b)
A and B are Actual parameters {//All function code}
A and B are Formal parameters

35. Malloc() Vs calloc()

malloc() calloc()
Malloc() function will create a single block of memory of Calloc() function can assign multiple blocks of memory
size specified by the user. for a variable.

Malloc function contains garbage value. The memory block allocated by a calloc function is always
initialized to zero.

Number of argument is 1. Number of arguments are 2.

Calloc is slower than malloc. Malloc is faster than calloc.

It is not secure as compare to calloc. It is secure to use compared to malloc.

Time efficiency is higher than calloc(). Time efficiency is lower than malloc().

Malloc() function returns only starting address and does Before allocating the address, Calloc() function returns
not make it zero. the starting address and make it zero.

It does not perform initialization of memory. It performs memory initialization.

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36. Memory Mapped IO Vs Isolated IO

Isolated I/O Memory Mapped I/O

Memory and I/O have separate address space Both have same address space

All address can be used by the memory Due to addition of I/O addressable memory become
less for memory

Separate instruction control read and write operation in Same instructions can control both I/O and Memory
I/O and Memory

In this I/O address are called ports. Normal memory address are for both

More efficient due to separate buses Lesser efficient

Larger in size due to more buses Smaller in size

It is complex due to separate separate logic is used to Simpler logic is used as I/O is also treated as memory
control both. only.

37. Strong entity Vs week entity.

Strong entity Week entity

Strong entity has a primary key. Weak entity has a partial key.
Strong entity is independent Weak entity is dependent on a strong entity
Strong entity indicated by a single rectangle. Strong entity indicated by a double rectangle.
Two strong entity’s relationship is indicated by a single One strong and one weak entity is indicated by a double
diamond. diamond.
Strong entity may be or may not be participate Weak entity always participates relationships.
relationships.
In strong entity connecting line is a single line In weak entity connecting line is a double line

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38. What are the difference between TCP and UDP?

Basis Transmission control protocol (TCP) User datagram protocol (UDP)

Type of Service TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is the Datagram-oriented protocol.

Connection-orientation means that the This is because there is no overhead for
communicating devices should establish opening a connection, maintaining a
a connection before transmitting data connection, and terminating a connection.
and should close the connection after UDP is efficient for broadcast and
transmitting the data. multicast types of network transmission.
Reliability TCP is reliable as it guarantees the The delivery of data to the destination
delivery of data to the destination cannot be guaranteed in UDP.
router.
Error checking TCP provides extensive error-checking UDP has only the basic error checking
mechanism mechanisms. It is because it provides mechanism using checksums.
flow control and acknowledgment of
data.
Acknowledgment An acknowledgment segment is present. No acknowledgment segment.
Sequence Sequencing of data is a feature of There is no sequencing of data in UDP. If
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). the order is required, it has to be managed
this means that packets arrive in order by the application layer.
at the receiver.
Speed TCP is comparatively slower than UDP. UDP is faster, simpler, and more efficient
than TCP.
Retransmission Retransmission of lost packets is There is no retransmission of lost packets
possible in TCP, but not in UDP. in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
Header Length TCP has a (20-60) bytes variable length UDP has an 8 bytes fixed-length header.
header.
Weight TCP is heavy-weight. UDP is lightweight.
Handshaking Uses handshakes such as SYN, ACK, It’s a connectionless protocol i.e. No
Techniques SYN-ACK handshake
Broadcasting TCP doesn’t support Broadcasting. UDP supports Broadcasting.
Protocols TCP is used by HTTP, HTTPs, FTP, UDP is used by DNS, DHCP, TFTP,
SMTP and Telnet. SNMP, RIP, and VoIP.
Stream Type The TCP connection is a byte stream. UDP connection is message stream.
Overhead Low but higher than UDP. Very low.

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39. Differentiate between Starvation and Deadlock

Features Deadlock Starvation

Definition Deadlock happens when every Starvation happens when a low priority program
process holds a resource and waits requests a system resource but cannot run because
for another process to hold another a higher priority program has been employing that
resource. resource for a long time.
Basic A deadlock occurs when no process Starvation occurs when low priority procedures
can proceed and becomes blocked. are blocked while high priority operations proceed.
Other Deadlock is also known as circular Starvation is known as a Lived lock.
names wait.
Resources Other processes block requested High-priority processes continue to use the
resources while a process is requested resources.
deadlocked.
Arising Mutual exclusion's occurrence, Hold Uncontrolled resource management, enforcement
Condition and wait, No preemption, and of priorities.
Circular wait all happen
simultaneously.
Prevention It can be prevented by avoiding the Aging may prevent it.
situations that lead to deadlock.

40. Differentiate between RISC and SISC

RISC CISC
It is a Reduced Instruction Set Computer. It is a Complex Instruction Set Computer.
It emphasizes on software to optimize the instruction set. It emphasizes on hardware to optimize the
instruction set.
It requires multiple register sets to store the instruction. It requires a single register set to store the
instruction.
Uses of the pipeline are simple in RISC. Uses of the pipeline are difficult in CISC.
It uses a limited number of instruction that requires less It uses a large number of instruction that
time to execute the instructions. requires more time to execute the
instructions.
The execution time of RISC is very short. The execution time of CISC is longer.
RISC architecture can be used with high-end applications CISC architecture can be used with low-end
like telecommunication, image processing, video applications like home automation, security
processing, etc. system, etc.
It has fixed format instruction. It has variable format instruction.
The program written for RISC architecture needs to take Program written for CISC architecture tends
more space in memory. to take less space in memory.
Example of RISC: ARM, PA-RISC, Power Architecture, Examples of CISC: VAX, Motorola 68000
Alpha, AVR, ARC and the SPARC. family, System/360, AMD and the Intel x86
CPUs.

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41. What are the differences between compile time error and run time error?

Parameters Compile Time Errors Runtime Errors

Detection Compilers can easily detect compile-time A compiler cannot easily detect a runtime error. Thus,
errors during the development of code. we need to identify it during the execution of code.
Reference A compile-time error generally refers to the A runtime error refers to the error that we encounter
errors that correspond to the semantics or during the code execution during runtime.
syntax.
Fixation We can easily fix a compile-time error A compiler cannot identify a runtime error. But we can
during the development of code. fix it after the execution of code and identification of the
code in prior.

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Full Forms (CSE Related Only)

1. API Application Programming Interface.

2. APK Android Application Package.
3. BIOS Basic Input Output System.
4. CSS Cascading Style Sheet.
5. DHTML Dynamic Hyper Text Markup Language.
6. FTP File Transfer Protocol.
7. GPRS General Packet Radio Service.
8. GPS Global Positioning System.
9. GUI Graphical User Interface.
10. GOOGLE Global Organization Of Oriented Group Language Of Earth.
11. HTTPS Hyper Text Transfer protocol secure
12. IBM International Business Machines.
13. JPG Joint Photographic Experts Group.
14. MVC Model View Controller.
15. PDF Portable Document Format.
16. PNG Portable Network Graphics.
17. PHP Hypertext Preprocessor.
18. UML Unified Modeling Language.
19. URL Uniform Resource Locator.
20. USB Universal Serial Bus.
21. VGA Video Graphics Array.
22. VIRUS Vital Information Resources Under Seize.
23. WIFI Wireless Fidelity.
24. XML EXtensible Markup Language.
25. XAMPP Cross - Platform (X), Apache (A), MariaDB (M), PHP (P) and Perl (P).
26. PROM Programmable Read Only Memory
27. POST Power ON Self Test
28. LCD Liquid Crystal Display
29. SIM Subscriber Identity Module.
30. GIF Graphic Interchangeable Format
31. ARPANET Advanced Research Project Agency Network.
32. FAT FILE ALLOCATION TABLE
33. CMYK CYAN – MAGENTA – YELLOW – KEY (BLACK)
34. ASCII American Standard Code for Information Interchange
35. MAC Media Access Control

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36. MODEM Modulator Demodulator

37. MIDI Musical Instrument Digital Interface
38. MIME Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
39. MPEG Moving Picture Experts Group
40. NAT Network Address Translation
41. NIC Network Interface Card
42. NTFS New Technology File System
43. PCI Peripheral Component Interconnect
44. PPP Point-To-Point Protocol
45. QoS Quality Of Service
46. RAID Redundant Array Of Inexpensive Disks
47. SMTP Simple Mail Transport Protocol
48. SSL Secure Sockets Layer
49. UART Universal Asynchronous Receiver Or Transmitter
50. SMS Short Message Service
51. MMS Multimedia Messaging Service
52. ATM Asynchronous Transfer Mode
53. CIDR Classless Inter Domain Routing
54. CMOS Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
55. DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
56. DMA Direct Memory Access
57. DNS Domain Name Service/Server/System
58. DOS Disk operating system or Denial of Service
59. DTE Data Terminal Equipment
60. GSM Global System for Mobile-communications
61. HTML Hypertext Markup Language
62. HTTP Hypertext Transfer Protocol
63. PAN Personal Area Network
64. PIN Personal Identification Number
65. RISC Reduced Instruction Set Computer
66. RPC Remote Procedure Call
67. SDH Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
68. SONET Synchronous Optical Network
69. SQL Structured Query Language
70. TCP/IP Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
71. UTP Unshielded Twisted Pair
72. VPN Virtual Private Network

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73. ALU Arithmetic Logic Unit

74. BCD Binary Coded Decimal
75. CAD Computer Aided Design
76. OSI Open System Interconnection
77. WiMAX Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
78. RUP Rational Unified Process
79. SDLC: Software Development Life Cycle
80. COBOL Common Business Oriented Language
81. PROLOG Programming in Logic
82. ORACLE Oak Ridge Analytical and Common Logical Engine
83. DSL Digital Subscribers Line
84. MAN Metropolitan Area Network
85. PLA Programmable Logic Array
86. CDMA Code Division Multiple Access.
87. GPU Graphics Processing Unit.
88. MSB Most Significant Bit
89. RDBMS Relational Database Management System
90. CPU Central Processing Unit
91. BTRC Bangladesh Telecommunication Regulatory Commission
92. UMTS Universal Mobile Telecommunication System
93. AMR Adaptive Multi-Rate Codec
94. JAD Java Application Descriptor
95. AAC Advanced Audio Coding
96. GIF Graphic Interchangeable Format
97. WMV Windows Media Video
98. DVD Digital Versatile Disk
99. DAT Digital Audio Tape
100. DOS Disk Operating System
101. UPS Uninterruptable Power Supply
102. EDGE Enhanced Data for Global Evolution. (Also known as Enhanced GPRS)
103. GPRS General Packet Radio Service
104. WAP Wireless Application Protocol
105. HP Hawlett Packard
106. WORM Write Once Read Many
107. MBR Memory Buffer Register / Master Boot Record
108. MIDI Musical Instrument Digital Interface
109. MPEG Moving Pictures Expert Group

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110. NIC Network Interface Card

111. OMR Optical Mark Reader
112. OCR Optical Character Reader/Recognition
113. TCP Transmission Control Protocol
114. UDP User Datagram Protocol
115. TDM Time Division Multiplexing
116. URL Uniform Resource Locator
117. VAN Value Added Network
118. VCR Video Cassette Recorder
119. VGA Video Graphics Array
120. VoIP Voice over Internet Protocol
121. VSAT Very Small Aperture Terminal
122. FAT File Allocation Table
123. FDM Frequency Division Multiplexing
124. JRE Java Runtime Engine
125. URI Uniform Resource Identifier
126. BCD Binary Coded Decimal
127. CAD Computer Aided Design
128. CLI Command Line Interface
129. CRT Cathode Ray Tube
130. DDL Data Definition Language
131. IMAP Internet Message Access Protocol
132. PLA Programmable Logic Array
133. FPGA Field Programmable Gate Array
134. CISC Complex Instruction Set Computer
135. MAR Memory address register
136. MOM Message oriented middleware

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PMSCS Previous Years Questions Solve

MCQ Part

1. Concurrent access to share data may result ……………… Ans: Inconsistency

2. DRAM refers to …………………. Ans: Dynamic Random Access Memory.
3. Datagram is related with ……………. Service and Virtual Circuit is related to ……………… Service?
Ans: Connectionless, Connection Oriented.
4. In C programming if a function does not explicitly specify a return type it is assumed to return an ……….
By default. Ans: Integer
5. Mouse is a/an ……………. Device? Ans: Input.
6. Flash memory was developed taking the concept of ……………………? Ans: EEPROM
7. A constructor is Called Whenever ………………. Ans: Object is declared.
8. A card is shown from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or king of heart is
……………. Ans: 1/26
9. The term MIPS refers to …………………… Ans: Millions of Instructions Per Second.
10. The automatic execution of some SQL statements can be started automatically due to any change to a
database relation can be caused by …………………… Ans: Trigger
11. Number next to the series: 10, 17, 26, 37 ………………… Ans: 50
12. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter the father of her uncle. The boy is girls ……………...
Ans: Brother.
13. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squire is 289. The sum of numbers is …………..
Ans: 23
14. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device ………….. Ans: Bridge
15. What will be the equation of the line that pass through the point (1,2) and is parallel to 2x+3y=4? Ans:
2x+3y=8
16. The main purpose of a primary key in a database table is ………………. Ans: Searching
17. Which of the following is a valid declaration of an object of class box in JAVA? Ans: Box obj=new Box();
18. Creating a new class using one or more new existing classes is known as…………… Ans: Inheritance
19. Communication between a computer and a Keyboard involves ……………… transmission? Ans: Simplex
20. One nibble means ………………… Ans: 4 bits
21. Logical design of database is called ………………. Ans: Database Schema
22. Time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by …………… Ans: Counting the
number of key operations.
23. The SQL where clause ………………. Ans: Limits the raw data

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24. What percent of 50 is 0.15? Ans: 0.075

25. Digital Modulation on bit string (sender) operates in …………….. layer of OSI? Ans: Physical
26. Subset of {b,c,d} is …………….. Ans: {}
27. The amount of time a program takes from when a request was submitted until the first result is processed is
…………………. Ans: Response time
28. Which of the following memory needs refreshing? Ans: DRAM
29. What are the next two numbers of the series: 2,5,6,11,9,17,12,23 Ans: 15,29
30. Synonym of Probity is ………………. Ans: Honesty
31. Memory Sizes: Mega, Giga, Tera, ………………… Ans: Peta
32. The decimal number -34 is expressed in 2’s complement form as ………….. Ans: 11011110
33. ………………. is a special type of store procedure, executed when certain events occur? Ans: Triger
34. Hierarchical database represented using a …………… diagram? Ans: Tree structured
35. If n and k are positive integers and 8n=2k what is the value of n/k? Ans: ¼
36. A switch is most often used to connect ………….. Ans: Individual Computer
37. IP address 168.212.226.204 belongs ………………. Ans: Class B
38. If xy=2 and xy2=8 what is the value of x? Ans: ½
39. A constructor is classed whenever ……………. Ans: an object is declared
40. The data link layer takes the packet from ………….. layer? Ans: Network
41. Which one makes data access from database faster? Ans: Indexing
42. TCP/IP protocol used for transferring email from one machine to another is …………. Ans: SMTP
43. A={2,3,4} what is the cardinality of set A? Ans: 3
44. Best way of protecting data from loss is …………… Ans: Regular Backup
45. Which of the following is an invalid variable name? Ans: double num ber
46. Which of the following is more near meaning to “Outskirt”? Ans: Boundary
47. ………….. can reduce network traffics and provide and extra measure of security? Ans: VLAN
48. The primary purpose of an operating system is ……………….. Ans: To make the most efficient use of the
computer hardware.
49. Who preside the interface between a process and the OS? Ans: System Calls
50. We should keep pace ………… time and technology. Ans: With
51. …………… memory is placed between RAM and CPU? Ans: Cache
52. Benefit of Normalization is ………………. Ans: Number of tables reduced.
53. POST means …………………… Ans: Power on Self-Test
54. Multiple choice questions (MCQ) are evaluated by …………… Ans: OMR
55. An entity is an ………………… Ans: Collection of items in an application.
56. XML makes it easier for ………………… Ans: Machine to read websites
57. ………….. cables widely used in LAN’s? Ans: Co-axial
58. Which technique is preferable for huge data transfer between I/O and Memory? Ans: Memory Mapped I/O

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59. d/dx ex is ……………. Ans: ex

60. An optical drive uses the ………….. light to read data? Ans: Reflected
61. Find the next two element of the series: 0,1,2,3,5 Ans: 8,3
62. 3x.3x .3x =? Ans: 33x
63. Full form of WIMAX = Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
64. Which of following is volatile? Ans: RAM
65. ……………. is known as “IRON LADY” of Britain? Ans: Margaret Thatcher.
66. The fundamental colors used in TV monitor are …………… ? Ans: Red, Green, Blue
67. He is blind ……….. the system faults? Ans: of
68. MPEG is compressed form of …………. File? Ans: Video
69. Synonym of Inhibit is ………… ? Ans: Protect
70. If the side of a square is increased by 20% then the area increased by ………….. Ans: 44%
71. If P and Q are prime numbers, how many divisors does the product p 3q6 have? Ans: 28
72. Which social media website started out as a brand promotion service? Ans: Facebook
73. What type of RAM is often used for system memory? Ans: SRAM
74. IPv4 address is represented in dotted decimal notion using ………….. ? Ans: 32 bits
75. Hub falls in ………. Layer but bridge falls in ……… Layer? Ans: physical, Data link
76. Flops used to measure …………………. Ans: Processor speed or Performance
77. The furthest planet of Solar System is ……………… Ans: Sun
78. Einstein awarded the noble prize for discovering ……………………. Ans: Law of photoelectric effect
(physics)
79. Mugol emperor Shahjahan is the son of …………….. and grandson of …………… Ans: Emperor
Jahangir, Akbar
80. Voice/Video causes ……………….. network traffic? Ans: Real Time
81. Operating system provides interface between ……….. and ………………… Ans: Programs, Computer
Hardware
82. In TCP/IP the port address is …………. Ans: 16 bit
83. The perpendicular of the line 2x+3y=4 is ……………… Ans: 2x-3y=4
84. The intersection operation on two relations/tables returns ………. Ans: only common records
85. The complexity of linear search algorithm is …………. Ans: O(n)
86. The function of LLC sublayer of data link layer are …….. and ……….. Ans: Framing, error control
87. In case of fibre optic cables, which transmission mode is used for transmission data over long distance?
Ans: Single Mode.
88. A perfectionist is someone who feels ………………….. when he makes even the most minuscule of errors.
Ans: Condemnation
89. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device ……………. Ans: Bridge
90. Volatile is most nearly opposite in meaning to ……………… Ans: flighty

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91. Which part of the computer performs logical operations? Ans: ALU
92. Database is ……………………. Ans: Collection of interrelated data
93. 4,10,5,12,6,14, …………, ………… Ans: 7,16
94. What type of network topology is usually used? Ans: Star
95. The function of DNS server is to convert …………. name to ………… address? Ans: DNS, IP
96. Outsourcing involves ……………. Ans: Third party software development
97. Polished data also known as …………….. Ans: prefix notation
98. Light propagates through an optical fibre because of ………………. Ans: Reflection of light through core.
99. …………… devices used to connect different types of networks? Ans: gatway
100. ………………. is a DBMS tool. Ans: ORACLE
101. The train is ………. To start? Ans: about
102. ………………. is platform independent programming language. Ans: JAVA
103. ………….. protocol is widely used for internet? Ans: TCP/IP
104. Arithmetic and Geometric mean of x and y will be the same if, ………… Ans: x=y
105. MR. Karim earns x taka in 3 months and expends the same amount in 4 months. How mush he saves? Ans:
x taka
106. Take …………. What I say. Ans: Off
107. Metadata means ……………… Ans: Data that describes other data
108. Active HUB is under …………. Layer but passive HUB is under ………. Layer. Ans: physical, data link
109. If the arithmetic and geometric mean of two numbers is equal and if one of them are 10 then the other one
is ………… Ans: 10
110. Which of the following programming language use interpreter instead of compiler? Ans: MATLAB and
PYTHON
111. The unit of Bandwidth in data communication is ………………… Ans: bit per second
112. All good comic writers use humor to ……….. not to side stop the problems of human behavior. Ans:
Confront
113. 10 people shake hands each other. How many handshakes will be there in total? Ans: 45
114. If log x324=4 then x=? Ans: 3 √2
115. Who introduced the stored program concept? Ans: John Von Neuman
116. Mac address is of …………. Bits? Ans: 48
117. Which number will replace the question mark of the series: 7, 12, 19, ?, 39 Ans: 28
118. Did you watch the football match……..TV last night? Ans: on
119. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide and conquer type? Ans: Quick Sort
120. Half Duplex data transmission means ………….. Ans: Data flow both directions alternatively
121. The network layer protocol of internet is ………….. Ans: internet protocol
122. 20% of 2 is …………… Ans: 0.4
123. Computers ability to use disk storage as memory is called ……….. Ans: virtual memory

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124. Maximum number of nodes in a binary tree with height k where root is height 0 is ……….. Ans: 2k-1
125. A tuple in database means ………… Ans: Row of a table
126. Which keyword in MYSQL can be used for sorting? Order by
127. Synonym for epitome is ……… Ans: epic
128. ………… language is used for Artificial Intelligence? Ans: PROLOG
129. Which of the following type of class allows only one object of it to be created? Ans: Singleton class
130. Which of the following gate is represented by x+y=z? Ans: OR gate
131. The price of a cycle is reduced by 25% The new price is reduced by a further 20% the two reductions
together are equal to a single reduction of …………… Ans: 45%
132. ………… technique used to find all the points of shortest distance in a graph? Ans: greedy
133. …………. Provides a set of operations that take one or more relations as input and return a relation as
output? Ans: Relational Algorithm
134. The barcode reader is an ………. Device? Ans: input
135. The common fields of an instruction are ……………. And …………….. Ans: Operation, Address
136. A distributed database has which of the following advantage over a centralized database? Ans: Modular
growth
137. Which one is faster on the basis of data access and retrieval time? Ans: Cache memory
138. Semantic error occurs due to …………. Ans: incorrect logic
139. Which of the following is not based on all the observations? Ans: Harmonic mean
140. Which of the number does not belong to the series: 2 3 6 7 8 14 15 30 Ans: 8
141. IPv6 increases the size of the IP address from …….. to ……… bits. Ans: 32, 128
142. Which of the following is not usually part of the responsibilities of a database administrator? Ans:
Designing Data Entry Screens
143. Which of the following is generally a benefit of normalization? Ans: Performance is improved
144. Which one is correct in JAVA? Ans: int x=0;
145. Which of the following is linear data structure? Ans: Array and Linked List
146. A coin is tossed twice. Find the probability of tossing a head and then a head again. Ans: ¼
147. Which of the following is not a relational operator? Ans: =
148. Which of the statement is true in RDBMS? Ans: foreign key can be null
149. Find the variance of 2,2,2,2 Ans: 0
150. What is the dotted decimal notation of the IP address: 11000000 11100100 00010001 00111001?
Ans: 192. 228. 17.57
151. By which technology internet file can be sent secretly? Ans: Encryption
152. The speed of supercomputer is generally measured in ……….. Ans: FLOPS (Floating Point Operations Per
Second)
153. Which of these numbers can not be a probability? Ans: -0.00001
154. If xy=2 and xy2=8 then x=? Ans: ½

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155. …………. is not in connection with SQL? Ans: Concate

156. A binomial expression connects two words using ………….. Ans: and
157. Floor(-9.5) = ? Ans: -10
158. Ceil(-3.4)=? Ans: -3
159. Which development has made programming easier? Ans: both (OOP and Visual Programming)
160. Which of the following is an invalid variable name? Ans: float $sum
161. Router connects ………………. Ans: Two networks
162. Virginia ………. is said to be quite beautiful. Ans: which
163. When a domain is submitted to DNS, it converts to ……… Ans: IP
164. Which layer of OSI is responsible for ASCII code against character? Ans: presentation layer
165. Divide 30 by half and add 10 results? Ans: 70
166. XY=C is the equation of ……………… Ans: Hyperbola
167. Profusion opposite ………………. Ans: Plethora
168. Function of operating system is ………………….. Ans: File Management
169. Find the next three terms in the sequence: 1,1,2,4,7,13,24 Ans: 44,81,149
170. FTP is build on …………………….. Architecture? Ans: Client Server
171. UML stands for …………………… Ans: Unified Modeling Language

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Written Part

• Differentiate between Strong entity and Weak entity.

S.NO Strong Entity Weak Entity

1. Strong entity always has a primary key. While a weak entity has a partial discriminator key.
2. Strong entity is not dependent on any other Weak entity depends on strong entity.
entity.
3. Strong entity is represented by a single Weak entity is represented by a double rectangle.
rectangle.
4. Two strong entity’s relationship is While the relation between one strong and one weak entity
represented by a single diamond. is represented by a double diamond.
5. Strong entities have either total While weak entity always has total participation.
participation or not.

• Briefly describe 2 tier and 3 tier system

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S.NO Two-Tier Database Architecture Three-Tier Database Architecture

1 It is a Client-Server Architecture. It is a Web-based application.
2 In two-tier, the application logic is either In three-tier, the application logic or process
buried inside the user interface on the client or resides in the middle-tier, it is separated
within the database on the server (or both). from the data and the user interface.
3 Two-tier architecture consists of two layers : Three-tier architecture consists of three
Client Tier and Database (Data Tier). layers : Client Layer, Business Layer and
Data Layer.
4 It is easy to build and maintain. It is complex to build and maintain.
5 Two-tier architecture runs slower. Three-tier architecture runs faster.
6 It is less secured as client can communicate It is secured as client is not allowed to
with database directly. communicate with database directly.
7 It results in performance loss whenever the It results in performance loss whenever the
users increase rapidly. system is run on Internet but gives more
performance than two-tier architecture.
8 Example – Contact Management System Example – Designing registration form
created using MS-Access or Railway which contains text box, label, button or a
Reservation System, etc. large website on the Internet, etc.

Solve yourself:

• Write down the SQL DDL definition to create a bank account relation with the primary key declaration
• How many users are possible from the Subnet Mask to 225.225.225.224 of class C IP?
• If the letter in the word “TRIAGLE” are rearranged at random find the probability that the first letter is
an A

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