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PTS 2025 General Studies Test Booklet

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
72 views10 pages

PTS 2025 General Studies Test Booklet

Uploaded by

Rasheed Khan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: ONE HOUR

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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[1]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.1) With reference to methods of measuring b) with a very high growth rate with a low
inflation in India, consider the following level of inflation.
statements: c) with steady growth rate and moderate level
1. While Consumer Price India (CPI) captures of inflation.
the changes in prices of both goods and d) of stagnation with low growth rate and
services, Wholesale prices Index (WPI) deflationary situation.
captures the changes in prices of goods
only. Q.5) With reference to Inflation in an
2. The base year for the calculation of both economy, consider the following pairs:
CPI and WPI is the financial year 2007-08. Type of Description
Which of the statements given above is/are Inflation
correct? 1. Hyper Extreme and rapid increase
a) 1 only inflation in the price levels of goods
b) 2 only and services in economy in
c) Both 1 and 2 short period.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Core Measures the inflation in
inflation the prices of food articles
Q.2) Consider the following indices: and fuels.
1. Wholesale Price Index 3. Stagflation Combination of stagnant
2. Consumer Price Index - Combined economic growth, high
3. Consumer Price Index- Agricultural unemployment, and high
Laborers inflation.
4. Consumer Price Index- Industrial Workers How many of the pairs given above are
5. Consumer Food Price Index- Combined correct?
Which of the above given indices in India are a) Only one
compiled and published by National Statistical b) Only two
Office? c) All three
a) 1 and 2 only d) None
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2 and 5 only Q.6) With reference to differences between
d) 1, 2 and 5 only Disinflation and Deflation, consider the
following statements:
Q.3) With reference to “Inflation targeting” 1. Deflation means a fall in prices of
framework in India, consider the following commodities, while disinflation means a
statements: slowdown in the rate of inflation.
1. The inflation targeting is done based on the 2. Deflation will always lead to a decrease in
Consumer Pricer Index (CPI) in India. the value of money whereas disinflation will
2. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India always lead to an increase in the value of
(RBI) is responsible for setting the inflation money.
targets every five years. 3. Compared to disinflation, deflation is
Which of the statements given above is/are considered good for the health of financial
correct? markets.
a) 1 only How many of the above given statements are
b) 2 only correct?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Only one
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Only two
c) All three
Q.4) Which of the following best defines a d) None
"Goldilocks scenario" in an economy?
It is an economic scenario-
a) where growth rates are low with increasing
inflation.

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[2]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.7) Consider the following statements: 3. The committee suggested changes in the
Statement-I: Despite a decline in global food price adjustment procedure to address
prices, India faced consistently high food spatial and temporal variations in prices,
inflation in last 1 year and more. making poverty estimates more accurate.
Statement-II: India is not heavily dependent Which of the statements given above are
on global markets as it is largely self-sufficient correct?
in most food commodities with few exceptions a) 1 and 2 only
like edible oils and pulses. b) 2 and 3 only
Statement-III: The primary drivers of food c) 1 and 3 only
inflation in India are domestic production d) 1, 2 and 3
factors like reduced planting areas of pulses
and heat stress or unseasonal rains. Q.10) Consider the following measures:
Which of the following is correct with respect 1. Procuring paddy using the Price
to the above statements? Stabilization Fund.
a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are 2. Importing paddy from other global
correct and both of them explain markets.
Statement-I. Which of the above measures can the
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are Government of India employ to control the
correct, but only one of them explains rising price of Paddy in India?
Statement-I. a) 1 only
c) Only one of the Statements II and III are b) 2 only
correct and that explains Statement-I. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct.
Q.11) The 'Phillips Curve' aids policymakers in
Q.8) Consider the following situations: making informed decisions by giving the
1. Significant increase in wages relationship between which of the following
2. Disruptions in supply chain due to national economic factors?
disasters a) Inflation and Exchange rate of national
3. Increase in taxes on raw materials by Union currency
Government b) Interest rates and investment in an
4. Decrease in interest rates by Reserve Bank economy
of India c) Inflation and unemployment in an economy
Which of the above given factors can lead to d) Economic growth and environmental
cost push inflation in India? sustainability in a country
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only Q.12) Consider the following statements
c) 2, 3 and 4 only regarding the National Career Service Project:
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. The program helps job seekers find
employment, regardless of their skill level.
Q.9) With reference to the Suresh D. 2. It provides free of cost training to job
Tendulkar Committee on poverty estimation in seekers in advanced computing areas.
India, consider the following statements: 3. It focuses on providing job opportunities
1. It recommended moving away from the only in the domestic market.
traditional calorie consumption-based How many of the statements given above are
poverty estimation to a more correct?
comprehensive approach that includes a) Only one
expenditure on health and education. b) Only two
2. It proposed a uniform poverty line basket c) All three
across rural and urban areas, ensuring d) None
consistency in poverty measurement.

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[3]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.13) In context of employment and Q.16) In India, which one of the following
unemployment indicators, which one of the Compiles information on industrial disputes,
following statements is incorrect? closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in
a) A Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is the factories employing workers?
percentage of employed persons in the a) National Statistics Office
population. b) Department for Promotion of Industry and
b) Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is Internal Trade
the percentage of persons in labour force c) Labour Bureau
in the population d) National Technical Manpower Information
c) Unemployment Rate (UR) is the percentage System
of persons unemployed among the
country's total population. Q.17) The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
d) Current weekly status (CWS) is defined as is published by which of the following
the activity status of a person based on the organizations/ministries in India?
previous seven days. a) Ministry of Labour and Employment
b) Ministry of Finance
Q.14) In Country X, the recession has led to a c) Ministry of Statistics and Program
significant drop in consumer spending, Implementation
causing many businesses to see a decline in d) NITI Aayog
sales and to begin laying off their workers.
Additionally, reduced global demand has Q.18) Higher economic growth in a country
resulted in lower exports for that country. As a would necessarily lead to which of the
result, the unemployment rate has surged. following?
The sharp rise in unemployment in Country X, 1. Reduction in inequality
as described in the scenario above, is an 2. Reduction in poverty
example of: 3. Reduction in unemployment
a) Frictional unemployment Select the correct answer using the code given
b) Structural unemployment below:
c) Cyclical unemployment a) 1 and 2 only
d) Seasonal unemployment b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
Q.15) With reference to underemployment, d) None
consider the following statements:
1. Hidden underemployment occurs when an Q.19) Consider the following statements about
individual is employed full-time, but the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in India
services he/she renders may be much less based on the Periodic Labour Force Survey
than full-time. (PLFS) Annual Report 2022-2023:
2. Disguised underemployment occurs when 1. The LFPR has increased for rural areas and
an individual works in a job that requires has decreased for urban areas in the last
fewer skills than he/she possesses. five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. While there was a rise in LFPR for females
correct? from 2017-18 to 2022-23, the LFPR for
a) 1 only males decreased during the same period.
b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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[4]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.20) Which of the following conditions is not Q.23) With reference to progress India made in
conducive for the occurrence of the Sustainable Devlopment Goal (SDG) 1 i.e. No
demographic dividend in a country? Poverty according to SDG India Index 2023-24,
a) When a country has a bell-shaped consider the following statements:
population pyramid. 1. More than 99% of the persons demanding
b) When mortality and fertility rate is on a employment under MGNREGA were
declining trend. offered employment in 2023–2024.
c) When the share of non-working age 2. More than 95% of households in India live
population is larger than working age in pucca/semi-pucca houses.
population. 3. More than 90% of households in India have
d) When conducive policies for skill at least one member covered under the
development are put in place. health insurance scheme.
Which of the statements given above are
Q.21) Consider the following statements about correct?
the Multidimensional Poverty Measure (MPM): a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is published by the United Nations b) 2 and 3 only
Development Programme (UNDP) and the c) 1 and 3 only
Oxford Poverty and Human Development d) 1, 2, and 3
Initiative (OPHI).
2. It seeks to understand poverty beyond Q.24) Consider the following statements with
monetary deprivations by including access reference to Employment elasticity:
to education and basic infrastructure. 1. It is a measure of the percentage change in
3. According to the Multidimensional Poverty employment with a change in the inflation
Measure (MPM), in 2024, South Asia is the rate in an economy.
second most multidimensionally poor 2. The higher level of employment elasticity in
region in the world, following Sub-Saharan an economy is an indicator of more labor-
Africa. intensive growth.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the above given statements is/are
correct? correct?
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
d) 1, 2, and 3 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) Which of the following best defines the Q.25) Consider the following indicators:
term "culture of poverty"? 1. Child mortality
a) A set of values and behaviors among the 2. Sanitation
poor that perpetuate poverty across 3. Housing
generations. 4. Bank account
b) The adaptation of cultural practices in 5. School attendance
response to the challenges of poverty. How many of the above given indicators are
c) The systemic barriers and inequalities that used for calculating the Global
contribute to poverty. Multidimensional Poverty Index to assess
d) The lack of cultural resources available to poverty?
the poor. a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

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[5]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.26) Consider the following statements: Q.29) Which one of the following statements is
Statement I: India recently became the first not correct regarding the ‘e-SHRAM Portal’?
Asian Nation to end extreme poverty, a) It has been launched to create a National
according to a World Bank report. Database of Unorganized Workers.
Statement II: The World Bank Group has set b) One of the main objectives of e-Shram
for itself the goal to end extreme poverty from portal is to facilitate delivery of social
the world by 2030. welfare schemes to the unorganised
Which one of the following is correct in workers.
respect of the above statements? c) Unorganized workers in the age group
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are between 18-40 years are only eligible to
correct and Statement-II is the correct register on the portal.
explanation for Statement-I. d) The eShram has an integration with
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are National Career Service (NCS) to provide
correct and Statement-II is not the correct suitable better job opportunities for
explanation for Statement-I. unorganised workers.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect. Q.30) In the context of measuring the Relative
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is poverty, the term Quintile Income Ratio refers
correct to:
a) The ratio of the average income of the
Q.27) With reference to the Mandate of richest 20% to the average income of the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment poorest 20% of the population.
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), which one of the b) The proportion of the population living
following statements is incorrect? below the poverty line.
a) It provides a legal guarantee for at least 100 c) The percentage of total income earned by
days of wage employment per financial the bottom 50% of the population.
year to every rural household whose adult d) The difference in life expectancy between
members volunteer to do unskilled manual the richest and poorest segments of the
work. population.
b) At least one-third of the beneficiaries
under MGNREGA must be women. Q.31) With reference to the measure of poverty
c) If the government fails to provide in India, consider the following statements:
employment within 15 days of application, 1. Absolute Poverty refers to a condition
the applicant is entitled to an where household income is below the
unemployment allowance. required level to maintain basic necessities
d) The Ministry of Labour and Employment is of life.
the Nodal ministry responsible for 2. Head Count Ratio refers to the proportion
implementing MGNREGA. of the population below the poverty line.
3. Poverty Gap measures the intensity of
Q.28) Arrange the following committees poverty by indicating the extent to which
constituted in India for the purpose of poverty individuals on average fall below the
estimation in chronological order of their poverty line.
constitution: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Alagh Committee correct?
2. Lakdawala Committee a) 1 only
3. Rangarajan Committee b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) 1 and 3 only
below: d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1-2-3
b) 2-1-3
c) 1-3-2
d) 2-3-1

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[6]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.32) Human Development Index (HDI) is 2. The Primary deficit, as a percent of GDP,
published by United Nations Development has consistently increased during the last
Programme (UNDP). In that context consider ten years.
the following indicators: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Average years of schooling correct?
2. Per capita income a) 1 only
3. Total consumption expenditure b) 2 only
4. Life expectancy at birth c) Both 1 and 2
5. Gross enrolment ratio in primary schools d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above indicators are used as
parameters in the HDI assessment by the Q.36) Which among the following options
UNDP? correctly describes the term ‘Inflationary
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Gap’?
b) 1, 2, and 4 only a) The difference between the current real
c) 2, 3, and 4 only GDP and the GDP of an economy operating
d) 1. 4 and 5 only at full employment.
b) An economic cycle characterized by slow
Q.33) It is an economic theory that describes growth and a high unemployment rate
the relationship between inflation and both accompanied by inflation.
real and nominal interest rates. As per this c) Measure of the changes in prices for all the
concept, the nominal interest rate on a loan is goods and services produced in an
the sum of the real interest rate and the rate economy.
of inflation expected over the duration of the d) The overall change in consumer prices over
loan. time, based upon a representative basket of
Which of the following economic concept is goods and services.
being described in the given passage?
a) Fisher effect Q.37) ‘Viksit Bharat 2047' is the government's
b) Domino effect roadmap which envisions economic growth,
c) Goodhart’s Law and sustainable development. With reference
d) Pigou effect to the Viksit Bharat 2047, consider the
following:
Q.34) Which among the following is the nodal 1. To make India a developed nation by the
body responsible for the preparation of the year 2047.
Union Budget in India? 2. To make India the world's third-largest
a) The Department of Revenue under the economy by the year 2047
Union Ministry of Finance. 3. To turn India into a $30-trillion economy
b) The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) by the year 2047.
c) The Chief Economic Adviser to the How many of the above are the objectives of
Government of India the Viksit Bharat 2047 roadmap?
d) The Department of Economic Affairs under a) Only one
the Union Ministry of Finance. b) Only two
c) All three
Q.35) With reference to the Union Budget d) None
2024-25, consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal deficit, as a percent of GDP, has
consistently decreased during the last ten
years.

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[7]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.38) Consider the following statements b) 1 and 3 only


regarding shrimp production in India: c) 2 and 3 only
1. India’s shrimp exports are certified by the d) 1, 2 and 3
Agricultural Products Export Development
Authority (APEDA). Q.41) India’s Union Budget 2024-25 speech has
2. India is the world’s largest shrimp producer discussed that the ‘saturation approach’ will be
in terms of volume. used for inclusive human resource
3. Andhra Pradesh is the largest shrimp development and social justice in India. In this
producing state in India. context, which one of the following best
Which of the statements given above are describe the term ‘saturation approach’:
incorrect? a) Strategy where the government aims to
a) 1 and 2 only cover all eligible people through various
b) 1 and 3 only programmes including those for education
c) 2 and 3 only and health to empower them by improving
d) 1, 2 and 3 their capabilities.
b) Strategy where the government aims to
Q.39) Consider the following entities: hand hold in the economic decision-
1. Unified Payment Interface (UPI) making processes of individuals and
2. Network to assess credit histories like institutions.
Open credit Enablement Network (OCEN) c) Strategy that addresses the multiplicity of
3. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) schemes that exist for social development
4. Automated Permanent Academic Account and aims to curb such duplication to
Registry (APAAR) ID ensure better public service delivery.
Which of the entities given above are d) Strategy that stops the implementation of a
considered Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)? social development scheme as soon as the
a) 1, 2 and 3 only minimum targeted vulnerable population
b) 1, 2 and 4 only completely benefits from it.
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.42) Polavaram Irrigation Project is
constructed on which of the following river:
Q.40) Consider the following statements about a) Cauvery
the Employment Linked Incentives and b) Krishna
Schemes under Prime Minister’s Package for c) Godavari
Employment and Skilling as announced in the d) Periyar
Union Budget 2024-25:
1. It will provide a one-month wage up to Rs. Q.43) Consider the following statements
15000 to all people newly entering the regarding the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat
workforce in all formal sectors, as Gram Abhiyan:
registered in the EPFO, with salary less 1. It aims to promote integrated development
than Rs. 1 lakh per month. in tribal areas through various initiatives
2. The government will reimburse EPFO aimed at improving infrastructure,
contributions of employers up to Rs. 3,000 education, healthcare and livelihood
per month for the first two years for all opportunities.
new hires, with wage/salary less than Rs. 1 2. It applies exclusively to villages with at
lakh per month. least 50 percent population of Particularly
3. Industrial Training Institutes will be Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
upgraded in hub and spoke arrangements Which of the statements given above is/are
with outcome orientation. correct?
Which of the above initiatives are part of the a) 1 only
Prime Minister’s Package Initiatives for b) 2 only
Employment and Skilling? c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2

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[8]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.44) Consider the following statements Q.47) Consider the following statements about
regarding the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: the Revised Estimates for Union Budget of
1. It is a Central sector Scheme that aims to Financial Year 2023-2024:
provide free electricity to one crore 1. Revenue receipts of Government of India
households in India who opt to install roof are higher than Capital receipts.
top solar electricity unit. 2. Interest payments are higher than grants in
2. The households can earn additional income aid provided by the Centre to States for the
through the sale of surplus power to creation of capital assets.
electricity distribution companies Which of the statements given above is/are
(DISCOMs). correct?
3. Only individuals who own a house with a a) 1 only
roof that is suitable for installing solar b) 2 only
panels can avail themselves of the benefits c) Both 1 and 2
of this scheme. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q.48) Which of the following examples best
a) 1 and 2 only defines the essence of Human capital
b) 2 and 3 only formation?
c) 1 and 3 only a) Advanced medical equipment in hospitals
d) 1, 2, and 3 for diagnosing and treating patients.
b) Factories with advanced machinery for
Q.45) Which of the following goods are manufacturing consumer goods efficiently.
exempted from Goods and Services Tax (GST)? c) Transportation infrastructure like bridges
1. Sugar and highways for efficient mobility.
[Link] tickets of Indian Railways d) Educated teachers fostering students'
[Link] oil intellectual growth by imparting
[Link] grains hulled knowledge.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 3 only Q.49) With reference to the Indian economy,
b) 1,3 and 4 only consider the following statements:
c) 2 and 4only Assertion: The share of formal jobs has
d) 1,2,3 and 4 remained greater than informal jobs in India in
post-liberalization period.
Q.46) Arrange the following taxes in increasing Reason: The share of the services sector in
order of their contribution to the revenue India’s Gross Domestic Product has remained
receipts of Government of India based on the higher than agriculture sector, in the post-
Budget Estimates for 2024-25: liberalization period.
1. Custom Duty Which of the following options is correct?
2. Corporation Tax a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
3. Taxes on Income Reason is the correct explanation of the
4. Goods and Services Tax (GST) Assertion.
Select the answer using the code given below: b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
a) 1- 2-3- 4 Reason is not the correct explanation of the
b) 1- 2- 4- 3 Assertion.
c) 1- 4- 2- 3 c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
d) 1- 4- 3- 2 d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

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Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211129 |

Q.50) Consider the following statements:


Statement-I: In developed countries,
unemployment is not as severe an economic
issue as it is in less developed and developing
nations.
Statement-II: In many developed countries,
unemployment insurance and various social
security measures are widespread and widely
accessible as compared to less developed and
developing nations.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct but Statement-II does not explain
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
is correct

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[10]

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