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PTS 2025 General Studies Test Booklet

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
152 views10 pages

PTS 2025 General Studies Test Booklet

Uploaded by

Rasheed Khan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: ONE HOUR

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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[1]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.1) Consider the following statements: b) such term as the President may decides.
Statement - I: Sikkim has a two-tier system of c) the remainder of the term of the dissolved
Panchayats. Panchayat.
Statement - II: The Governor of Sikkim has d) such term as the Governor of the State may
special responsibility for an equitable decide.
arrangement to ensure the social and
economic advancement of the different Q.4) Consider the following items:
sections of the population of Sikkim. 1. Planning for economic and social
Which one of the following is correct in development.
respect of the above statements? 2. Prevention of cruelty to animals.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. Regulation of slaughterhouses and
correct and Statement-II is the correct tanneries.
explanation for Statement-I 4. Small-scale industries, including food
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are processing industries.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 5. Technical training and vocational
explanation for Statement for Statement-I education.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is How many of the above items are placed
incorrect within the purview of municipalities under the
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
correct a) Only two
b) Only three
Q.2) Consider the following statements: c) Only four
Statement - I: The Parliament passed the d) All five
Jammu and Kashmir Local Bodies Laws
(Amendment) Act, 2024, to provide reservation Q.5) With reference to Panchayati Raj
to the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in the institutions according to the Constitution of
panchayats and municipalities. India, consider the following statements:
Statement - II: Constitution of India specifies 1. All persons who are qualified to be chosen
that one third of the seats in the panchayats to the State Legislative Assembly shall be
and municipalities shall be reserved for Other qualified to be chosen as a member of a
Backward Classes (OBCs). Panchayat.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. A person who has attained the prescribed
respect of the above statements? minimum age of 25 years is eligible to
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are become a member of Panchayat.
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. All the questions of disqualification of a
explanation for Statement-I member of Panchayat are referred to the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are High Court of the concerned state.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Which of the statements given above is/are
explanation for Statement for Statement-I correct?
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is a) 1 only
incorrect b) 1 and 3 only
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is c) 2 and 3 only
correct d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) When a new Panchayat is reconstituted


after premature dissolution of a Panchayat,
that new Panchayat shall continue for-
a) full term of five years.
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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.6) An area with a low population density that Which of these is/are constituted under the
is gradually transitioning from rural to urban provisions of Part IXA of the Indian
features having a mix of agricultural land and Constitution?
emerging infrastructure, including new roads, a) 1 and 2 only
residential developments, and commercial b) 1 and 3 only
establishments. c) 3 only
Which of the following municipal structures d) 1, 2 and 3
would be most suitable for the above given
area? Q.10) Which one of the following States does
a) Municipal Corporation not find a mention in Article 371 of the
b) Cantonment Board Constitution of India?
c) Nagar Panchayat a) Maharashtra
d) Municipality b) Gujarat
c) Assam
Q.7) With reference to the Metropolitan d) Madhya Pradesh
Planning Committee (MPC), consider the
following statements: Q.11) The Acts of Parliament relating to which
1. Two-thirds of the members of the MPC are of the following matters would not apply to
directly elected by the people of the Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly
metropolitan area. by a resolution so decides?
2. The MPC's primary function is to create a 1. Religious or social practices of the Nagas
draft development plan for the entire 2. Naga customary law and procedure
metropolitan area. 3. Administration of civil and criminal justice
Which of the statements given above is/are involving decisions according to Naga
correct? customary law
a) 1 only 4. Ownership and transfer of land and its
b) 2 only resources
c) Both 1 and 2 Select the answer using code given below:
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
Q.8) In the context of Urban Local c) 1, 2, and 3 only
Government, consider the following d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
statements regarding the ‘Special Purpose
Agencies’: Q.12) Consider the following statements
1. These agencies are set up by the States to regarding the special directives mentioned in
perform specific functions belonging to the Constitution related to the Development
Municipal Corporations' domain. of Hindi Language.
2. These are Constitutional bodies set up 1. It is the duty of the Union Government to
under part IX of the Indian Constitution. promote the spread of the Hindi language.
3. They are considered as subordinate 2. It is the duty of the Union Government to
agencies of the Local Municipal Bodies. secure the enrichment of Hindi language by
How many of the above statements are assimilating the forms, style and
correct? expressions used in Hindustani other
a) Only one Indian languages of Eighth Schedule.
b) Only two Which of the above given statements is/are
c) All three correct?
d) None a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.9) Consider the following bodies: c) Both 1 and 2
[Link] Finance Commission d) Neither 1 nor 2
[Link] Election Commission
[Link] Planning Committee

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[3]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.13) Which of the following states has the Which of the statements given above are
special provisions under Part XXI of the correct?
Constitution for the establishment of a) 1 and 2 only
administrative tribunal through the b) 1 and 3 only
Presidential Order? c) 2 and 3 only
a) Assam d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Nagaland
c) Andhra Pradesh Q.16) Consider the following statements with
d) Arunachal Pradesh reference to the special provisions for the
Administration of Union Territory of Delhi:
Q.14) Consider the following statements: 1. The maximum strength of the Council of
Statement I: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar held differing Ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the
views on the Panchayati Raj system in India Legislative Assembly of Delhi’s total
compared to other leaders like Mahatma strength.
Gandhi. 2. The ministers of Delhi government are
Statement II: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar viewed appointed by Lieutenant Governor on the
villages as regressive and oppressive to lower aid and advice of Chief Minister.
castes, while Gandhi saw them as the Which of the above given statements is/are
foundation of India's development. correct?
Which one of the following is correct in a) 1 only
respect of the above statements? b) 2 only
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are c) Both1 and 2
correct, and Statement II is the correct d) Neither 1 nor 2
explanation for Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement-II are Q.17) Consider the following pairs regarding
correct, and Statement II is not the correct the committees related to Panchayati Raj and
explanation for Statement I. their recommendations:
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is Committees Recommendations
incorrect.
1. Balwant Rai Village panchayats with
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
Mehta directly elected
correct.
Committee representatives

Q.15) According to Article 1 of the Indian 2. Ashok Mehta Three-tier Panchayati


Constitution, the territory of India comprises Committee raj institutions
three types of territories. In this context, 3. G.V.K Rao Advocated making
consider the following statements regarding Committee district as the basic unit
‘acquired territory’: of planning
1. The constitutional provisions for the
Which of the pairs given above is/are
administration of Union Territories also
correct?
extend to acquired territories.
a) 1 and 3 only
2. Parliament possesses exclusive legislative
b) 1 and 2 only
authority over matters pertaining to
c) 3 only
acquired territories across all three lists
d) 2 and 3 only
given in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution.
3. After the French transferred Puducherry to
India post-independence, it was initially
governed as an acquired territory until it
was later established as a Union Territory.

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[4]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.18) With reference to Union Territories in Q.21) Which of the following Constitutional
India, consider the following statements: Amendment Acts bifurcated the Combined
1. The concept of "Union territories" was National
introduced in Constitution of India by Commission for Scheduled Castes and
Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies?
1956. a) 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1990
2. The administration and governance of b) 76th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1994
Union Territories are covered under Part I c) 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
of the Constitution. d) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018
3. All Union Territories in India are
administered by a Governor who serves as Q.22) Consider the following statements:
the head of the Union Territory. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India
How many of the statements given above are quashed certain provisions of Part IX-B of the
correct? Constitution of India pertaining to the
a) Only one functioning of the cooperatives in the states.
b) Only two Statement-II: ‘Constitutional amendments in
c) All three India, affecting powers of states, require
d) None ratification by both Parliament and at least half
of the State Legislatures.
Q.19) Consider the following Union Territories Which one of the following is correct in
of India: respect of the above statements?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Lakshadweep correct and Statement-II is the correct
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu explanation of Statement-I.
4. Chandigarh b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Currently, in which of the above given Union correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Territories, the President of India may make explanation of Statement-I.
regulations for the peace, progress and good c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
government as per the Constitution of India? incorrect.
a) 1 and 3 only d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
b) 1, 2 and 3 only correct.
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.23) Consider the following statements
regarding the governance of the Union
Q.20) Consider the following statements Territory of Puducherry:
regarding the Constitution of India: 1. The Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy can promulgate an ordinance when the
provide for the organization of village Puducherry Legislative Assembly is
panchayats to enable them to function as dissolved or suspended.
units of self-government. 2. For Puducherry, the Parliament can make
2. The State List under the Seventh Schedule laws on any subject matter of the three
mentions the constitution and powers of legislative lists mentioned in the Seventh
the local government. Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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[5]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.24) Consider the following statements with c) 1 and 3 only


regard to the current status of special d) 1, 2 and 3
provisions for Anglo-Indians:
1. The Centre and the States provide special Q.27) Which of the following is not an objective
grants to Anglo-Indian educational of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
institutes. Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA Act)?
2. There is no reservation of seats in the a) To extend the provisions of Part IX of the
Parliament or State Legislature for Anglo- Constitution relating to Panchayats to the
Indians. Fifth Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are b) To ensure self-governance through
correct? traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in
a) 1 only the Scheduled Areas.
b) 2 only c) To ensure that Panchayats at the higher
c) Both 1 and 2 level do not assume the powers and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 authority of any Panchayat at the lower
level.
Q.25) Consider the following statements about d) To provide financial assistance to the
the role of a Governor in the administration of Panchayats for development projects in
a Scheduled Areas mentioned in Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas.
of the Constitution of India:
1. The Governor can declare an area as the Q.28) Which of the following is not a reason
Scheduled Area in a state. for the ineffective performance of Panchayati
2. Governor of a state has to submit a report Raj Institutions in India?
to the President of India regarding the a) Few taxation powers have been devolved by
administration of Scheduled Areas in that the states to the Panchayati Raj Institutes.
state. b) Inadequate devolution of powers and
Which of the statements given above is/are functions to Panchayats by State
correct? legislatures.
a) 1 only c) Creation of Special Purpose Vehicles with
b) 2 only overlapping jurisdictions.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) From the 10th Finance Commission (FC), the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 FC stopped advising the Central
government on devolving funds to local
Q.26) The Fifth Schedule of the Indian governments.
Constitution deals with the administration and
control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Q.29) Consider the following states:
Tribes. In this context, consider the following 1. Arunachal Pradesh
statements regarding the Tribes Advisory 2. Manipur
Councils (TAC): 3. Meghalaya
1. Each state with Scheduled Areas must 4. Mizoram
establish a Tribes Advisory Council. 5. Tripura
2. The TAC is to consist of 20 members, Which of the states given above are covered
three-fourths of whom are to be under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in of India?
the State Legislative Assembly. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. If necessary, the Governor may establish b) 2, 4, and 5 only
TACs in states with Scheduled Tribes but c) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
no designated Scheduled Areas. d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only

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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.30) Consider the following statements in bodies can become members of ward
context of the District Councils for committees.
autonomous districts provided in the Sixth 3. The Chairperson of the Ward committee
Schedule of the Indian Constitution: have to vacate his/her office, if he/she
1. The maximum membership of a District ceases to be a member of Ward committee.
Council is 20. How many of the above statements are
2. All members of District Councils are correct?
nominated by the Governor of the state a) Only one
concerned. b) Only two
3. Each member of District Councils has a c) All three
fixed tenure of 3 years. d) None
How many of the above given statements are
correct? Q.33) The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
a) Only one of India allows for the formation of
b) Only two autonomous districts and autonomous
c) All three regions. In this context, consider the
d) None following statements:
1. The President may appoint a commission
Q.31) Consider the following statements to inquire into and report on the
regarding the administration of Tribal Areas administration of autonomous districts and
under the Sixth Schedule of Constitution of autonomous regions.
India: 2. District Councils and Regional Councils in
1. The tribal areas fall outside the executive autonomous districts and autonomous
authority of the state government. regions respectively are empowered to
2. The Governor is empowered to organize assess and collect land revenue.
and re-organize the autonomous districts Which of the statements given above is/are
for administrative convenience. correct?
3. All the rules and regulations made under a) 1 only
this Sixth Schedule by a District Council b) 2 only
have the force of law. c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
a) 1 only Q.34) Consider the following classes of
b) 2 only citizens:
c) 2 and 3 only 1. Scheduled Castes
d) 1, 2, and 3 2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
Q.32) In the context of Urban Local Bodies 4. Anglo-Indians
(ULBs) in India, consider the following Which of the above classes of citizens is/are
statements with respect to “Ward defined by the Constitution of India?
Committees”: a) 1 and 2 only
1. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act b) 4 only
mandates State governments to establish c) 1, 2, and 3 only
Ward committees for all urban local bodies d) None
to ensure grassroot democracy.
2. As per the 74th Constitutional Amendment
Act, only elected members of urban local

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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.35) Which of the following special provisions Which of the statements given above is/are
for Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution of correct?
India are temporary, meaning they operate a) 1 and 2 only
only for a specified period of time if not b) 1 and 3 only
renewed from time to time? c) 2 and 3 only
1. Reservation of seats in State Legislative d) 1, 2 and 3
Assembly
2. Reservation of seats in Panchayats Q.38) Under Article 335 of the Indian
3. Reservation of seats in House of the People Constitution, the Union and states shall:
4. Reservation of seats in admission to a) ensure reservations for socially and
educational institution educationally backward classes in
Select the correct answer using the codes government jobs.
given below: b) promote the educational interests of
a) 1 and 2 only Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
b) 2 and 4 only c) consider the claims of Scheduled Castes
c) 1 and 3 only and Scheduled Tribes regarding
d) 3 and 4 only appointments to posts and services while
maintaining efficiency in administration.
Q.36) Which of the following are the powers of d) Protect the linguistic and cultural rights of
Regional Councils constituted under the Sixth minorities.
Schedule of the Constitution?
1. To make laws on certain matters like Q.39) Part XVI of the Indian Constitution,
forests and village administration. dealing with special provisions relating to
2. To constitute courts for trial of suits and Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes
cases between the tribes. (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs), is
3. To make regulations for control of trading primarily based on which one of the following
by non-tribals within their jurisdiction. doctrines?
4. To impose certain specified taxes. a) Doctrine of Severability
Select the correct answer using the code given b) Doctrine of Preferred Position
below: c) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
a) 1 and 2 only d) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only Q.40) With reference to the Central Council of
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Local Government, consider the following
statements:
Q.37) With reference to the 97th Constitutional 1. The council was constituted under Article
Amendment Act, consider the following 263 of the Constitution of India.
statements: 2. It deals with matters related to Urban and
1. It recognised the right to form co- rural local governments.
operative societies as a fundamental right 3. The President of India is the ex-officio
under the Constitution of India. chairman of the Council.
2. It added a new Directive Principle of State How many of the above given statements are
Policy regarding the autonomous correct?
functioning of co-operative societies. a) Only one
3. It added a new Part IX-B to the b) Only two
Constitution of India. c) All three
d) None

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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.41) The Indian Constitution and various laws a) Only one


provide special provisions for Scheduled b) Only two
Tribes (STs) in recognition of their unique c) All three
socio-economic conditions and to safeguard d) None
their rights. In this context, consider the
following statements: Q.44) With reference to Gram Sabha under the
1. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 gives Part IX of the Constitution of India, consider
Scheduled Tribes the right to ownership the following statements:
and control over minor forest produce. 1. It is a body consisting of persons registered
2. The President of India has the authority to in the electoral rolls relating to a village
direct that any act of Parliament or the comprised within the area of Panchayat at
state legislature does not apply to a the village level.
Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of 2. The powers and functions of Gram Sabha
the Constitution. are fixed by the State legislature by law.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.42) Consider the following statements: Q.45) Which of the following authorities
Statement I: The term ‘Minority’ is not defined recognizes a particular community as a
anywhere in the Constitution of India. minority community at the national level in
Statement II: The term minority is defined India?
under the National Commission for Minorities a) Central Government
(NCM) Act, 1992. b) President of India
Which one of the following is correct in c) Parliament of India
respect of the above statement? d) Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II explains Q.46) Which of the following are benefits that
Statement-I accrue to a language in the Eighth Schedule of
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the Constitution of India?
correct, but Statement-II does not explain 1. The languages included in the Eighth
Statement-I Schedule receive recognition from the
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is Sahitya Akademi.
incorrect 2. The languages listed in the Eighth Schedule
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II have the facility of simultaneous translation
is correct in Parliament during Budget presentation.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.43) Consider the following minority groups below:
in India: a) 1 only
1. Linguistic Minority b) 2 only
2. Ethnic Minority c) Both 1 and 2
3. Religious Minority d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the above minority groups are
recognized as minority for the purpose of
Article 30 of Indian Constitution?
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[9]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211125 |

Q.47) Consider the following Classical 3. Under the act, Hindi translations of
Languages of India: legislation, when authorized by the
1. Sanskrit President, hold the status of authoritative
2. Tamil texts.
3. Odia Which of the statements given above are
4. Malayalam correct?
Which of the following is the correct a) 1 and 2 only
chronological order in which the above given b) 1 and 3 only
languages were conferred with the Classical c) 2 and 3 only
Language status? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 2-1-4-3
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 3-4-1-2
d) 4-3-2-1

Q.48) Which of the following statements is/are


correct about Port Trust?
1. It is created by an Act of Parliament to
provide civic amenities in the port areas.
2. The port trust consists of only nominated
members.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.49) Consider the following languages:


1. Khasi
2. English
3. Bodo
4. Sanskrit
5. Rajasthani
Which of the above given languages are
mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.50) With regard to Official Languages Act,


1963, consider the following statements:
1. The act allows for English to continue as
the language of transaction of business in
Parliament.
2. It mandates English as the medium of
communication between the Union
government and a State which has not
adopted Hindi as its Official Language.

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