PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.1) Registered recognized national political without the prior sanction of the
parties in India enjoy certain privileges appropriate authority.
compared to registered unrecognized parties. 2. A civil servant cannot be dismissed or
In this context, consider the following removed by an authority subordinate to the
privileges: one that appointed him/her.
1. Its candidates require only one elector of 3. Generally, a civil servant is not removed
the concerned constituency as a proposer without a fair inquiry and the opportunity
for filing the nomination in election. to defend against the charges instituted
2. It is provided financial grant from the upon him/her.
public exchequer Which of the statements given above are
3. It can nominate 40 ‘star campaigners’ correct?
during general elections, whose travel a) 1 and 2 only
expenses are not accounted for in the poll b) 1 and 3 only
expense accounts of a candidate. c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above privileges are granted to d) 1, 2 and 3
registered recognized national political parties
in India? Q.4) Which of the following are the reasons for
a) 1 and 2 only the emergence of “regional parties” in Indian
b) 1 and 3 only Political system?
c) 2 and 3 only 1. Reorganization of states on the basis of
d) 1, 2 and 3 language
2. Self-interest of the dispossessed Zamindars
Q.2) Which of the following is/are the 3. Economic disparities and regional
conditions for recognition of a political party imbalances in the development
as a National Party in India? Select the correct answer using the codes
1. If the party wins two per cent of seats at given below:
the last general election of the Lok Sabha a) 1 and 2 only
and party's candidates have been elected b) 2 and 3 only
from three states. c) 1 and 3 only
2. If the party wins 6 seats in the last general d) 1,2 and 3
election of Lok Sabha from any state or
states. Q.5) Consider the following elections:
3. If the party secures minimum of 4% of the 1. Lok Sabha
vote share at the last general election of 2. State legislative Assemblies
the Lok Sabha in two or more states. 3. Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Vice-president
given below: In how many of the above responsibility of
a) 1 only conducting elections vested in the Election
b) 2 only Commission of India?
c) 1 and 3 only a) Only one
d) 2 and 3 only b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.3) With reference to the safeguards available d) All four
to Civil Servants in India, consider the
following statements:
1. Criminal proceedings cannot be initiated
against civil servants for any act done

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.6) In context of Elections of India, consider 1. It lays down the maximum number of seats
the following statements: for Legislative Assemblies of States but not
Returning Officer in each constituency is- the minimum number.
1. appointed by the Governor in consultation 2. It lays down the maximum and minimum
with the state government. number of seats in the Legislative Council
2. responsible for the preparation of electoral of a State
rolls for a Parliamentary constituency. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. InCharge of declaring the result of correct?
elections of their respective constituency. a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.10) Which among the following are the
d)1,2 and 3 subject matters of The Representation of
People Act, 1950?
Q.7) With reference to the election laws in 1. Delimitation of Parliamentary, Assembly
India, consider the following statements: and Council Constituencies.
1. A person who is in the lawful custody of 2. Disqualification of members of the
police cannot vote in an election whereas a Parliament or a state legislature
person in preventive detention can vote in 3. Electoral rolls for Parliamentary, Assembly
an election. and Council constituencies.
2. An accused person in jail can contest the 4. Manner of filling of seats in the Council of
election whereas a person under States allotted to Union territories
preventive detention cannot contest Select the correct answer using the code given
election. below:
3. Election Commission of India can reduce or a) 1, 2 and 3 only
remove the period of disqualification of a b) 3 and 4 only
person disqualified on the ground of c) 1, 3 and 4 only
corrupt practices under Representation of d) 2, 3 and 4 only
the People Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.11) In which of the following cases, a member
correct? of the Parliament can be disqualified based on
a) 1 and 3 only Schedule X of the Indian Constitution?
b) 1 only 1. A nominated member joins any political
c) 1 and 2 only party after the expiry of six months.
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. At least one third of members of the
legislature party splitting into a separate
Q.8) Who among the following scrutinizes the group.
nomination paper of candidate for election to 3. An individual, elected as Deputy Chairman
State Legislative Assembly/Lok Sabha? of the Rajya Sabha, resigns from his party
a) Chief Electoral Officer and subsequently joins another party.
b) Electoral Registration Officer Select the correct answer using the code given
c) Returning Officer below:
d) Presiding Officer a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Q.9) With reference to the Constitution of c) 2 and 3 only
India, consider the following statements: d) 1, 2 and 3

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.12) With reference to the Constitution of Which of the statements given above is/are
India, which of the following authority correct?
determines the conditions of service of a) 1 and 2 only
members of an All-India Service? b) 2 only
a) State Public Service Commission c) 2 and 3 only
b) Central Government d) 1 and 3 only
c) Parliament of India
d) Union Public Service Commission Q.16) Consider the following groups in India:
1. FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of
Q.13) Consider the following statements Commerce and Industry)
regarding Exit Polls and Opinion Polls: 2. AITUC (All India Trade Union Congress)
1. Opinion Poll is an opinion survey regarding 3. United Kisan Sabha
how electors have voted at an election held 4. Indian Federation of Working Journalists
in the past. 5. Progressive Students Union
2. There is provision of regulation of Exit Polls Which of the options given above are examples
in Representation of People Act, 1951. of pressure groups?
3. Currently, Exit Polls can be telecast only a) 1 and 2 only
after the conclusion of the last phase of the b) 1, 2 and 3 only
election. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.17) Central Services include services that
b) 1 and 3 only work exclusively under the control of the
c) 2 and 3 only Centre. In this context, consider the following
d) 1, 2 and 3 services:
1. Indian Administrative Services
Q.14) Which of the following best defines the 2. Indian Foreign Service
term ‘Social Audit’? 3. Indian Economic service
a) A financial review of an organization's 4. The Directorate General of Mines Safety
social media accounts. (DGMS)
b) An evaluation of an organization's 5. Indian Railway Personnel Service
environmental impact on society. How many of the above services are
c) A systematic assessment of an categorized as Central Services?
organization's social responsibility a) 2
practices. b) 3
d) A performance analysis of an organization's c) 4
social events calendar. d) 5

Q.15) In the context of roles and Q.18) Consider the following Committees:
responsibilities of the Election Commission of 1. Tarkunde Committee
India, consider the following statements: 2. Tankha Committee (Core Committee)
1. It is responsible for registering and de- 3. Malimath Committee
registering political parties. 4. Umesh Sinha Committe
2. It can cancel elections in case of rigging, How many of the above committees are
booth capturing, violence, and other related to electoral reforms in India?
irregularities. a) 1
3. It is empowered to identify the seats to be b) 2
reserved for Scheduled Castes and c) 3
Scheduled Tribes in general assembly d) 4
elections.

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.19) As per the Constitution of India under Q.22) Based on which of the following grounds
which of the following condition(s) can the can the information be denied under Right to
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Information Act 2005?
assist a state in matters related to recruitment 1. Information that would prejudicially affect
for state services? the sovereignty and integrity of India.
1. When requested by the Governor of the 2. Information which would impede the
state with the approval of the President process of investigation or apprehension or
2. When requested by the State Legislature prosecution of offenders.
with the approval of the Governor of the 3. Information related to the personal affairs
State. of an individual with no public interest.
Select the answer using the code given below: 4. Information, the disclosure of which would
a) 1 only endanger the life or physical safety of any
b) 2 only person.
c) Both 1 and 2 5. Information, the disclosure of which would
d) Neither 1 nor 2 involve an infringement of copyright.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.20) Consider the following statements below:
regarding the removal of the chairman or a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
members of the State Public Service b) 3 and 5 only
Commission (SPSC): c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. The President may remove the Chairman or d) 1, 2, and 3 only
any other member of a State Public Service
Commission on the grounds of Q.23) Which of the following parts of the
misbehavior. Constitution of India deals with the “Finance,
2. The Constitution of India has defined the Property, Contracts, and Suits” of the Union
term ’misbehavior’. and the states?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) Part XII
correct? b) Part XIII
a) 1 only c) Part XIV
b) 2 only d) Part XV
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) Consider the following statements about
“None of the Above (NOTA)”
Q.21) With reference to the State Public 1. If NOTA gets maximum votes in a
Service Commissions (SPSC), consider the constituency, re-elections take place in
following: that constituency.
1. The principles to be followed in making 2. It is not available in Rajya Sabha elections.
appointments to services and posts in state 3. NOTA button is the first option on the
government. voting panel of EVM
2. The reservations of appointments or posts Which of the statements given above is/are
for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, or correct?
Other Backward Classes. a) 1 and 3 only
3. Matters related to the method of b) 2 and 3 only
recruitment to the Civil Services of the c) 2 only
State. d) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above matter(s) is/are kept
outside the functional jurisdiction of the State
Public Service Commissions (SPSC)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.25) Consider the following conditions: Q.28) Consider the following institutions of
1. When the government acquires the India:
property of a minority educational 1. National Commission for Women
institution. 2. National Human Rights Commission
2. When the government acquires the land 3. National Green Tribunal
held by a person under his personal 4. Unique Identification Authority of India
cultivation and the land is within the (UIDAI)
statutory ceiling limits. 5. National Disaster Management Authority
3. When the government acquires property How many of the above are statutory bodies in
for construction of railway lines. India?
After the 44th Constitutional Amendment in a) Only two
1978, under which of the above given b) Only three
conditions is the Union government mandated c) Only four
to pay compensation for the compulsory d) All five
acquisition of property?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.29) Which of the following statements is/are
b) 2 and 3 only correct about the National commission for
c) 1 and 3 only Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?
d) 1, 2, and 3 1. The names of the tribes to be included in
the list of Scheduled tribes are announced
Q.26) Consider the following functionaries: by NCST.
1. The Union Finance Minister 2. It can take measures to confer ownership
2. The Chief Ministers of all States rights over minor forest produce to
3. The Union Minister of State, in-charge of Scheduled Tribes living in forest areas
Revenue of finances Select the correct answer using the code given
4. Administrators of the Union Territories below:
Which of the above functionaries are the a) 1 only
members of the Goods and Service Tax b) 2 only
Council? c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only Q.30) The Finance Commission is required to
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 make recommendations to the President of
India on various financial matters. In this
Q.27) Consider the following functionaries in context, the finance commission does not
India: make recommendation on which of the
1. Central Vigilance Commissioner following?
2. Chairperson of Lokpal a) The share of funds allocated to the state
3. Chief Information Commissioner government from the Public Account of
4. Chairperson of the National Human Rights India.
Commission b) The principles to be followed by the Union
5. Chairperson of the National Commission government while giving grants-in-aid to
for Women the state government out of the
In how many of the appointments listed above consolidated Fund of India.
is the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok c) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes
Sabha a member of the selection committee? between the union government and the
a) Only two state government.
b) Only three d) The measures needed to augment the
c) Only four consolidated fund of a state to supplement
d) All five the resources of the panchayats and the
municipalities.

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.31) Which of the following statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog? correct?
1. S/he is appointed by the President. a) 1 and 2 only
2. S/he enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank b) 2 only
minister. c) 1 and 3 only
3. S/he is a member of the Union cabinet. d) 1,2 and 3
4. S/he attends Cabinet meetings as a special
invitee. Q.34) Which one of the following statements is
Select the answer using the code given below: incorrect regarding 'Digi locker', a key
a) 1 and 2 only initiative under Digital India programme?
b) 2 and 4 only a) It provides a secure digital space for
c) 2, 3 and 4 only storing e-documents issued by government
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 agencies.
b) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) can also open
Q.32) With reference to Fiscal Federalism in a Digi Locker account.
India, consider the following statements: c) It is equipped with a single factor
Statement I: The Finance Commission authentication as standard security
facilitates the maintenance of financial balance measure against cyber-attacks.
between the Union and the states in the Indian d) It allows sharing of e-documents with
federal system. authorized entities with user consent.
Statement II: The Finance Commission
creates a devolution formula for the horizontal Q.35) The Sevottam Model is a framework
devolution of funds. designed to improve which one of the
Which one of the following is correct in following aspects of governance in India?
respect of the above statements? a) Environmental conservation
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) Public service delivery
correct and Statement-II explains c) Infrastructural development
Statement-I. d) Healthcare and medical tourism
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II does not explain Q.36) As per Representation of People Act
Statement-I. (RPA) of 1951, a person shall not be qualified to
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative
incorrect. Council of a State to be filled by election
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II unless he/she is:
is correct. a) an elector for any Assembly constituency in
that State.
Q.33) With reference to Anti-Defection Law b) an elector for any Assembly constituency in
mentioned in the Indian Constitution, consider any State of India.
the following statements: c) an elector from the concerned Assembly
1. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of constituency in that State.
1985 introduced the Tenth Schedule to the d) not holding any office of profit under the
Indian Constitution to address political Government of any state.
defections.
2. The provisions under law were enacted
based on the recommendations of Y.B.
Chavan Committee.
3. The law was passed during the tenure of
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.37) With reference to SVAMITVA Scheme, Q.40) Which of the following is the first Indian
consider the following statements: state to operationalize a social audit law?
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. a) Kerala
2. The scheme aims to provide the 'Record of b) Rajasthan
Rights' to all village households who c) Maharashtra
possess agricultural land. d) Meghalaya
3. The scheme is implemented by Ministry of
Panchayat Raj in collaboration with Survey Q.41) With reference to Indian Polity, consider
of India (SoI). the following statements in respect of ‘Star
Which of the statements given above is/are Campaigners’:
correct? 1. Representation of People Act,1950,
a) 3 only empowers Election Commission to
b) 1 and 3 only nominate star campaigners.
c) 2 and 3 only 2. Only the recognised political parties can
d) 2 only use star campaigners for election
campaigning.
Q.38) With reference to Citizen’s Charter, 3. Travel expenses incurred by star
consider the following statements: campaigners are not included in the
1. The concept of the Citizen's Charter election expenditure of the candidates.
originated in the United States of America. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The standardized model for evaluating the correct?
Citizen's Charter for Union Ministries was a) 1 and 2 only
developed by the Department of Consumer b) 2 and 3 only
affair. c) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 3 only
correct?
a) 1 only Q.42) In the context of Bye-Elections in India,
b) 2 only consider the following statements:
c) Both 1 and 2 1. It may not be held if the remainder of the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 term of the member whose vacancy is to be
filled is less than one year.
Q.39) Consider the following statements with 2. The Model Code of Conduct does not apply
reference to the Central Bureau of during bye-elections in a constituency.
Investigation (CBI): Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The CBI is completely exempted from the correct?
Right to Information Act, 2005. a) 1 only
2. The CBI can investigate cross-border b) 2 only
crimes. c) Both 1 and 2
3. The sanction of state governments is d) Neither 1 nor 2
required by CBI under all circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.43) With reference to Anti Defection Law, Select the correct answer using the code given
consider the following statements: below:
Statement I: The Anti-Defection Law was a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
established to enhance political stability by b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
preventing arbitrary shifts of allegiance by c) 1, 3 and 4 only
elected members. d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Statement II: Under the Anti-Defection Law,
legislators are required to adhere to their Q.46) With regard to the Delimitation
party’s official stance on any matter to avoid Commission in India, consider the following
disqualification. statements.
Which one of the following is correct in 1. It readjusts boundaries of different
respect of the above statements? constituencies for state assembly and Lok
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are Sabha elections based on the most recent
correct, and Statement II is the correct census.
explanation for Statement I. 2. It is appointed by the Central Government.
b) Both Statement I and Statement-II are 3. The Chief election commissioner is the ex-
correct and Statement II is not the correct officio chairperson of the commission.
explanation for Statement I. 4. When the orders of the commission are laid
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is before the Lok Sabha, they cannot make
incorrect. any modifications in the orders.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is Which of the statements given above are
correct. correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
Q.44) With reference to the issue of Electoral b) 2, 3 and 4
Funding in India, consider the following c) 1, 3 and 4
statements about Electoral Trusts Scheme: d) 1, 2 and 4
1. Electoral trusts are formed by the political
parties recognized by ECI. Q.47) In context of Centralized Public
2. Electoral trusts cannot receive funds from Grievance Redress and Monitoring System
individuals. (CPGRAMS), consider the following
3. Electoral Trusts must donate all the statements:
contributions received in a financial year to 1. It is a platform for citizens to file
political parties. grievances against government
How many of the above statements are departments.
incorrect? 2. Through CPGRAMS portal complaints can
a) Only one be filed against the state government
b) Only two departments as well.
c) All three 3. It encompasses cases under consideration
d) None by the court or any matter related to court
judgments.
Q.45) The Citizen’s Charter is expected to Which of the statements given above are
incorporate which of the following elements? correct?
1. Vision and Mission Statements. a) 1 and 2 only
2. Details of business transacted by the b) 1 and 3 only
organizations. c) 2 and 3 only
3. Details of services provided to each client d) 1, 2 and 3
group.
4. Details of grievance redressal mechanism
and the way to access it.
5. Expectations from the clients.

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 PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211126 |

Q.48) Free and Fair elections are must for How many of the pairs given above are
vibrant Democracy, in this context, consider correct?
the following statements about Voter a) Only one
Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT): b) Only two
1. This system was used for the first time by c) All three
Election Commission of India in the 2014 d) None
General Assembly elections.
2. VVPAT slips contains the name of the
candidate along with his/her party’s
symbol and name of the voter.
3. Presently, for every EVM machines at least
20% of the valid votes are cross checked
mandatorily with VVPAT slips.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None

Q.49) Consider the following statements about

Good Governance Day:
Statement I: In India it is celebrated on 25th
December every year.
Statement II: It is celebrated as Right to
Information act came into force on 25th
December.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct but Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.

Q.50) Consider the following terms:

Term Meaning
1. Escheat Transfer of property to the
state upon death of person
without will or heir.
2. Bona vacantia Termination of property
rights on failure to follow
appropriate procedures.
3. Lapse Transfer of property to the
state, where the property is
found without any owner.

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