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PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211121 - : Learning Centre

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PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.1)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year, also referred to as the
annual financial statement, is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government
for that particular year.
Statement 1 is correct. The system of Budget was introduced for the first time in British India in 1860
under the Viceroy Lord Canning. James Wilson, (the founder of Standard Chartered Bank) had created
India's first Budget in 1860.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Council Act 1892 gave the Central Legislative Council the power of
discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive. But the budget could not be voted
upon. It was the Indian Council Act 1909 that allowed to vote on separate items in the budget though
the budget as a whole could not be voted upon.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Government of India Act 1919 separated, for the first time, provincial budgets
from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 1- Historical Background
Additional reading:
[Link]
ever-budget/articleshow/[Link]?from=mdr\
Spectrum-page 252, 276-278.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct. The Indian Councils Act 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, provided
for the association of Indians with the executive council of the Viceroy and the Governors. Satyendra
Prasanna Sinha was the first Indian to join the Viceroy's Executive Council as a Law Member. It also
provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce,
universities and zamindars.
Option b is incorrect. Government of India Act 1919 introduced the concept of dyarchy in the provincial
governments. It also introduced a bicameral legislature at the center.
Option c is incorrect. Government of India Act 1935 provided for the establishment of an All-India
Federation and introduced provincial autonomy.
Option d is incorrect. Indian Councils Act 1892 expanded the legislative councils. It allowed for the
discussion of the budget but did not provide for voting on it. Unlike the 1909 act, it did not provide for
the association of Indians with the executive council of the Viceroy and Governors.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 1- Historical Background
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[1]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.3)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the Constitutions of various other
countries as well as from the Government of India Act of 1935.
Pair 1 is correct: The following features are borrowed from South African Constitution:
1) Procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
2) Election of members of Rajya Sabha.
Pair 2 is correct: The following features are borrowed from Japanese Constitution:
1) Procedure established by Law
Pair 3 is incorrect: The following features are borrowed from Australian Constitution (not Canadian
Constitution)
1) Concurrent List.
2) Freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course.
3) Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
Pair 4 is incorrect: The following features are borrowed from Canadian Constitution (not British
Constitution):
1) Federation with a strong Centre.
2) Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre.
3) Appointment of state governors by the Centre.
4) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
The following features are borrowed from British Constitution:
1) Parliamentary government., Rule of Law.
2) Legislative procedure, Cabinet system.
3) Single citizenship.
4) Prerogative writs, Parliamentary privileges, and Bicameralism.
Source: Laxmikanth chapter 3- Salient Features of the Constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Charter Act of 1833 was a significant piece of legislation passed by the British Parliament that had
major implications for the administration of British India.
Statement 1 is correct. The Charter Act of 1833 centralized the administration of British India and
transformed the Governor-General of Bengal into the Governor-General of India, granting him
authority over all British territories in India. It thus created for the first time, a Government of India
having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Statement 2 is correct. The first Law Commission was formed in 1834 as a result of the Charter Act,
1833 under the chairmanship of TB Macaulay. The first commission's recommendations resulted in the
codification of the penal code and the Criminal Procedure Code.
Statement 3 is correct. The Charter Act of 1833 did centralize legislative powers, thereby depriving the
Governors of Bombay and Madras of their independent legislative authority. All legislative powers were
centralized under the Governor-General of India and his council.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 1- Historical Background
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[2]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Constituent Assembly appointed several committees to deal with different constitution-making
tasks. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees. The names of
these committees and their chairman are given below:
Major Committees
1. Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru. Pair 1 is incorrect.
2. Union Constitution Committee -Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee -Sardar Patel. Pair 2 is incorrect.
4. Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar
Patel. Pair 3 is correct.
This committee had the following five sub-committees:
a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - J.B. Kripalani
b) Minorities Sub-Committee - H.C. Mukherjee
c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee -
Gopinath Bardoloi
d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee - A.V. Thakkar
e) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee
6. Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 2- Making of the constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Making of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
British India consisted of two types of provinces: those governed by Governors and those governed by
Chief Commissioners. There were eleven governor's provinces along with four chief commissioner's
provinces at the time of the Constituent Assembly's formation in 1946.
Governor's provinces included Madras, Bombay, United Province, Bihar, Central Province, Orissa, Punjab,
NWFP, Sindh, Bengal and Assam.
Chief Commissioner's Provinces include Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 2- Making of the constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Making of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

[3]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.7)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India, adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
It is the longest written constitution globally, establishing India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and
democratic republic. It guarantees justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity to all citizens, and includes
fundamental rights, directive principles, and a framework for the government.
Statement-I is correct: Constitution Day, also known as 'Samvidhan Divas,' is celebrated annually on
26th November in India to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution. On this day in 1949, the
Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution, which officially came into effect on 26th January
1950. On 19th November 2015, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment announced the
Government of India's decision to observe 26th November each year as 'Constitution Day' to promote
constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II is incorrect: The major provisions of the Constitution came into effect on January 26,
1950, the date referred to as the 'date of commencement of the Constitution' and celebrated as
Republic Day. January 26 was chosen for its historical significance, marking the day in 1930 when Purna
Swaraj (Complete Independence) Day was celebrated, following the resolution passed at the Lahore
Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 2- Making of the constitution.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Making of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.8)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
India is a sovereign state, meaning it is fully independent and free from external control or influence
in its domestic and international affairs. The sovereign nature of India ensures that it has supreme
authority within its territory and is not subject to any external authority. This attribute of sovereignty
allows India to make its own laws, govern its people, and engage in relations with other nations on its
terms. The sovereign nature of India is explicitly enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
Statement-I is incorrect: Although in 1949 India declared her continued full membership at the
Commonwealth of Nations and accepted the British Crown as the head of the Commonwealth, this extra-
Constitutional declaration does not in any way affect India's sovereignty.
In India, the President is the highest-ranking official, and thus, during any state visits, the President
retains precedence over any visiting foreign dignitaries, including the British Monarch.
Statement-II is correct: The British Crown, currently represented by the reigning monarch, serves as
the symbolic head of the Commonwealth of Nations.
This role is largely ceremonial and does not confer any political power on the British monarch over the
member nations. The position reflects the historical ties and cooperative relationship among the member
countries of the Commonwealth.
Knowledge Base: The Commonwealth is a voluntary association of 56 independent and equal countries,
most of which were formerly part of the British Empire. It's a diverse group, spanning various continents
and encompassing a third of the world's population. The Commonwealth promotes democracy, human
rights, and sustainable development among its members. It provides a platform for cooperation on
various issues, including trade, education, and healthcare. The organization is headed by the British

[4]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
monarch, who serves as its symbolic head. The Commonwealth Secretariat, based in London, coordinates
its activities.
Source: introduction to the constitution of India by DD Basu- Chapter 3- Constitutional Philosophy
Indian Polity by Laxmikanth-Chapter 4 Preamble of the Constitution
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution-Sovereignty
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending
Act of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement. The next important act was the Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
Option a is incorrect: Regulating Act of 1773 is of great constitutional importance as it was the first step
taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It
recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and it laid the
foundations of central administration in India. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-
General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him.
Option b is correct: The Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political
functions of the Company. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but
created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. The Company’s territories in
India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’. It empowered the Board of Control
to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British
possessions in India. It provided British Government the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its
administration in India.
Option c is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1793 renewed the Company’s commercial privileges for the next
20 years. The royal approval was mandated for the appointment of the governor general, the
governors, and the commander in-chief. Senior officials of the Company were debarred from leaving
India without permission doing so was treated as resignation. The Company was empowered to give
licenses to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in India. The licenses, known as
‘privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China. The revenue administration
was separated from the judiciary functions, and this led to the disappearance of the Maal Adalat.
Option d is incorrect: Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India, but
the company’s monopoly in trade with China and trade in tea with India was kept intact. The
company’s rule was extended to another 20 years. The act granted permission to the persons who
wished to go to India for promoting moral and religious improvements. This act regulated the
company’s territorial revenues and commercial profits. It was asked to keep its territorial and commercial
accounts separate. The company’s dividend was fixed at 10.5% per annum. There was also a provision
that the Company should invest Rs. 1 Lakh every year on the education of Indians. It also empowered
the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons and to punish those who did not pay them.
Source: Laxmikanth, chapter 1: Historical background
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

[5]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The parliamentary form of government is characterized by the fusion of executive and legislative
powers. It was taken from British Parliamentary system. The executive branch, headed by a Prime
Minister, is accountable to the legislature (Parliament). The Prime Minister and their cabinet are drawn
from and responsible to the Parliament. This system ensures a close relationship between the two
branches, promoting responsiveness and accountability in governance.
Statement 1 is correct: In India, the lower house of Parliament, the Lok Sabha, can be dissolved by the
President on the advice of the Prime Minister. This typically occurs before the completion of its five-
year term, leading to general elections where new members of Lok Sabha are elected.
Statement 2 is correct: In India’s parliamentary system, the government is formed by the political party
or coalition that secures a majority of seats in the Lok Sabha elections. The leader of this majority
party/coalition becomes the Prime Minister, who, along with the Council of Ministers, is accountable to
the Lok Sabha, ensuring democratic governance and responsibility.
Statement 3 is correct: Collective responsibility of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha is a key
feature of the parliamentary system, where the executive is responsible to the Lok Sabha and must
maintain its confidence.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Head of State serving as the executive leader (Head of the Government is
a feature of the presidential form of government, not the parliamentary system. According to Article 53
of the Indian Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be
exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this
Constitution. In India, the President is the Head of the state and is nominal executive authority (de jure
executive) and Prime Minister is the head of the government and is the real executive authority (de
facto executive).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 3- Salient features of the Constitution
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.11)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial body in India, established in 1950. It serves as the
guardian of the Constitution, upholding fundamental rights, and resolving disputes between states and
the central government. The Court has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction, playing a pivotal role
in shaping the legal landscape and ensuring justice in the country.
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court is the apex court in India and the final court of appeal in all
matters, including civil, criminal, and Constitutional cases. It hears appeals from High Courts and other
courts and tribunals on substantial questions of law or fact.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court plays a crucial role in safeguarding the fundamental rights
of citizens or people in general as enshrined in Part III of the Constitution. It has the power of judicial
review (Article 13) and can issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo
warranto) to enforce fundamental rights.
Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Constitution and upholding its
principles. It ensures that the government and other institutions function within the constitutional
framework. Its decisions are binding on all courts and authorities in India.

[6]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court is a court of record, meaning its decisions are recorded and
have precedential value for lower courts. It has the power to punish for contempt of itself.
Statement 5 is correct: The Supreme Court is the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution, and its
decisions are binding on all other courts in India.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 3- Salient features of the Constitution
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Even though the Indian parliamentary system is largely based on the British pattern, there are some
fundamental differences between the two.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament,
while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written
Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Britain, the Prime Minister should be a member of the Lower House
(House of Commons) of Parliament. In India, the Prime Minister can be a member of any of the two
Houses of Parliament. Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In
India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum
period of six months.
Statement 3 is correct: In India, there is no legal responsibility of the minister. While Britain has the
system of legal responsibility of the minister. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to
countersign the official acts of the Head of the State.
Statement 4 is incorrect: India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. In other
words, the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in
Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
Source: chapter 3 and 12th of M. Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-
51) of the Indian Constitution, are guidelines for the government to create a just and equitable society.
While not legally enforceable, they serve as a moral compass for legislative and executive actions. Their
primary aim is to achieve social and economic democracy by:
1) Social Justice: Ensuring equal rights and opportunities for all citizens, regardless of their caste, creed,
gender, or economic status (Articles 38, 39).
2) Economic Welfare: Working towards the eradication of poverty, unemployment, and inequality, and
promoting a fair distribution of resources (Articles 39, 41, 43).
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 3- Salient features of the Constitution
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution Subtopic:)

[7]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.14)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Part IVA to the Constitution consists of Article 51A which specified a code of eleven fundamental
duties of the citizens. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the
Constitution of erstwhile USSR.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The original constitution did not provide for the Fundamental Duties of the
citizens. These were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation
of the Swaran Singh Committee and not the JC Shah Commission.
J.C. Shah Commission was a commission of inquiry appointed by Government of India in 1977 to inquire
into all the excesses committed during the Indian Emergency (1975 - 77).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Part IV-A of the Constitution specifies the eleven Fundamental Duties, and
not twelve. The Swaran Singh committee has formulated an eight-point code of fundamental duties.
However, the government of India added 10 fundamental duties by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
1976. Later, 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 amended Article 51A to include one more
fundamental duty to direct the citizens to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward
between the age of six and fourteen years.
Statement 3 is correct: Like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature i.e. the
Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts.
Source: Polity M. Laxmikant_7thEdition- Chapter 4- Salient features of Indian Constitution, Chapter 10-
Fundamental Duties
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Duties
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect: Article 60 in Constitution of India provides that every President and every person
acting as President or discharging the functions of the President shall, before entering upon his office,
make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge
of the Supreme Court available, an oath or affirmation.
Option 2 is incorrect: Article 69 of Constitution of India provides that Every Vice-President shall, before
entering upon his office, make and subscribe before the President, or some person appointed in that
behalf by him, an oath or affirmation.
Option 3 is incorrect: Article 159 mentions that every Governor and every person discharging the
functions of the Governor shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of
the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the
senior most Judge of that Court available, an oath or affirmation.
Option 4,5 and 6 are correct: Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains forms of oaths or
affirmations for:
1. The Union ministers,
2. The candidates for election to Parliament
3. The members of Parliament,
4. The judges of the Supreme Court,
5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
6. The state ministers
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[8]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
7. The candidates for election to the state legislature
8. The members of the state legislature
9. The judges of the High Courts.
Source: [Link]
Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 3- Salient features of the Constitution
[Link]
[Link]
%20the%20Governor.&text=%22I%2C%20A.%20B.%2C%20do%20swear
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
From the adoption of the Indian Constitution until 1976, the concept of socialism was implicit within
certain Directive Principles of State Policy. The term "socialist" was explicitly added to the Constitution
by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian brand of socialism is a 'democratic socialism' and not a
'communistic socialism' (also known as 'state socialism'). State socialism is a political and economic
ideology within the socialist movement that advocates state ownership of the means of production.
Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: Democratic socialism followed in India holds faith in a 'mixed economy'
where both public and private sectors co-exist side-by-side. Also, Indian Socialism does not advocate for
the abolition of private property. The Constitution of India advocates that it is the duty of the State that
the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of
production to the common detriment. On the other hand, communalistic socialism involves the
nationalisation of all means of economic production and distribution and the abolition of private
property.
Statement 4 is correct: The new Economic Policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation
has diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian State as the policy shifted the economy from state
control to a more deregulated and liberalized privatization.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 5- Preamble to the constitution- 7th edition.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble of the Indian Constitution/Indian Socialism
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Democracy is of two types-direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their choice
directly. There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Referendum is a procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the
electorate for settlement by their direct votes. Example: Recently Uzbekistan conducted referendum to
rewrite the country’s Constitution in which 90.21% of voters supported the changes, while 9.35% voted
‘No’. The turnout was 84.54%.

[9]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Pair 2 is correct: Initiative is a method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the
legislature for enactment. Example: In Switzerland, citizens can launch a popular initiative to demand a
change to the constitution.
Pair 3 is correct: Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an
officer before the expiry of his term, when he fails to discharge his duties properly. A recent example of
direct democracy using a recall tool occurred in California, USA, in 2021. The state held a recall election
for Governor Gavin Newsom.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Plebiscite is a method of obtaining the opinion of people on any issue of public
importance. It is generally used to solve the territorial disputes. Example, Uruguay in South America will
be holding a plebiscite on social security.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 4- Preamble to the constitution.
[Link]
to-rewrite-constitution/[Link]
[Link]
impact
[Link]
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Democracy
Subtopic:)

Q.18)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 257 of the Constitution of India provides that the executive power of every state is to be exercised
in a way so that:
1) to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament and any existing law which apply in the
state; and
2) not to impede or prejudice the exercise of executive power of the Centre in the state.
In both above cases, the Union can give directions to the state as are necessary for the said purpose.
In addition to the above two cases, the Centre is empowered to give executive directions to the states in
the following matters:
Statement 1 is correct: The construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of
national or military importance in Union’s direction) by the state.
Statement 2 is correct: The measures to be taken by the states for the protection of the railways within
the state.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 339 (2) of the Constitution of India states that the executive power of
the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the drawing up and execution of
schemes specified in the direction to be essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State (and
not the economically weaker sections of the society in the state.)
Source: Laxmikanth, chapter 14, centre state relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[10]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
Based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Preamble is an introduction to
the Constitution and summarizes its ideals and philosophy. It is a part of the Constitution, as held in the
Kesavananda Bharti case.
Option 1 is correct. The Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition on its
powers. It does not confer any powers on the government or restrictions on the legislature's power.
Option 2 is correct. The Preamble is not justiciable i.e., its provisions are not enforceable in court of law.
Thus, if any part of the Preamble is being violated, an aggrieved citizen cannot approach the courts
against it.
Option 3 is incorrect. The Parliament can amend the Constitution, subject to the basic structure
doctrine. It was also amended once, in 1976, by the 42nd amendment act which added three new words-
socialist, secular and integrity to the Preamble.
Option 4 is correct. The provisions of the Preamble, particularly objectives i.e. justice, liberty, equality to
all citizens and promotion of fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation specified in the
Preamble contain the basic structure of the constitution, as held by the Supreme Court in the
Kesavananda Bharti case. Thus, the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution as
contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368.
Source: Chapter 4: Preamble of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
India has been described as an indestructible union of destructible states. Being a sovereign state, it has
several powers.
Statement 1 is correct. India can acquire foreign territory as per the modes recognized by international
laws-cession (following a treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a
recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 2 of the Constitution empowers the Union to admit or establish new
states. Thus, it can admit states into the Union-states which are already in existence, or establish new
states, i.e., states which were not in existence before. This power related to admission or establishment of
new states that are not part of the Union of India.
Source: Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Union and Its Territory
Subtopic:)

Q.21)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The three key components of the Preamble of Indian Constitution are Fraternity, Liberty, and Equality. In
the context of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, 'Liberty' implies the absence of restraints on the
activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of
individual personalities. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression,
belief, faith, and worship, through democratic processes. However, this liberty is not absolute but
qualified. This means that liberty doesn't give citizens the right to do anything they please, but they must

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PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
respect the liberties and rights of others as well. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on
individual liberty to maintain public order and decency, protect state security, etc. This concept of liberty
is influenced by the ideas of the French Revolution.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th Edition, Chapter-4
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Several committees were set up to decide whether to establish states based on languages or not. In this
regard, the correct chronological order of given committees/commissions is 3-Dhar Commission---> 1-
JVP Committee-------> 2-Fazl Ali Commission.
Option 3-Dhar Commission: In June 1948, the Linguistic Provinces Commission was appointed with its
chairman SK Dhar. It submitted its report in December 1948 and recommended establishing states based
on administrative convenience over linguistic factor.
Option 1-JVP Committee: In December 1948, another Linguistic Provinces Committee was established,
popularly called the JVP committee. It was formed with Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and
Pattabi Sitaramayya as members and in its report of April 1949, it rejected language as the basis for
reorganization of states.
Option 2-Fazl Ali Commission: Government appointed the Fazl Ali Commission in December 1953. It also
consisted of KM Panikkar and HN Kunzru. The Fazl Ali Commission recommended four factors to be
considered while reorganization of states including:
1) Unity and security of India.
2) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
3) Considerations for economic finance and administration.
4) Welfare of nation and people.
Thus, language as the basis of reorganization of states was accepted.
Source: Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Union and Its Territory
Subtopic:)

Q.23)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Some of the fundamental rights are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons
whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
Option 1 is correct. Right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment i.e., Article 16 is
exclusively available to Indian citizens.
Option 2 is correct. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
i.e., Article 15 is exclusively available to Indian citizens.
Option 3 is incorrect. Protection of life and personal liberty i.e., Article 21 is available to all citizens and
non-citizens. According to it, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according
to procedure established by law

[12]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Option 4 is correct. Protection of interest of minorities i.e., Article 29 is exclusively available to Indian
citizens. According to art 29(1), any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part
thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.
Option 5 is incorrect. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour i.e., Article 23 is available
to all citizens and non-citizens. According to it, Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar
forms of forced labour are prohibited, and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence
punishable in accordance with law
Source: Chapter 6: Citizenship, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth.
[Link]
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship/Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship for the whole of India. The Citizenship Act, 1955
deals with matters relating to acquisition, determination and termination of Indian citizenship after the
commencement of the Constitution. The Parliament of India passed this act, which came into effect on
December 30, 1955.
The Citizenship Act of 1955 was amended six times: in 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2015, and 2019. The
Citizenship Amendment Act of 2019 seeks to grant Indian citizenship to migrants of six communities:
Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Christian, Parsi, and Jain from Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. To be
considered for citizenship, applicants must have entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
Option a is incorrect. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986 amendment restricted citizenship by birth
to require that at least one parent had to be an Indian citizen. It also redefined 'Indian origin' by excluding
people whose grandparents, but not parents, were born in India.
Option b is incorrect. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1992 is not related to the removal of
Commonwealth citizenship.
Option c is correct. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003 mandated that the Central Government
establish a National Register of Citizens and issue national identity cards to all registered citizens. The
Central Government may compulsorily register and issue national identity cards to all Indian citizens.
Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) included Commonwealth citizenship. However, this provision was
removed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003.
Option d is incorrect. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2005 broadens the eligibility for Overseas
Citizenship of India to individuals of Indian origin from all countries except Pakistan and Bangladesh. It
also shortens the residency period in India from two to one year for registered Overseas Citizens of India
to obtain Indian citizenship.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 6- Citizenship
[Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship
Subtopic:)

[13]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.25)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Single citizenship means a person holds citizenship of only one country. This is typically in contrast to
dual or multiple citizenship, where an individual is legally recognized as a citizen of more than one
country at the same time.
Option 1 is incorrect. Bangladesh allows dual citizenship. Bangladesh allows people to retain their
Bangladeshi citizenship while also holding passports from other countries that allow dual nationality.
Option 2 is incorrect. Sri Lanka allows dual citizenship. Citizens who have acquired citizenship of
another country can apply to retain their Sri Lankan citizenship as well.
Option 3 is incorrect. Pakistan allows dual citizenship from a specific list of 19 countries, including the
United States, United Kingdom, Italy, France, Belgium, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand. Nationals of
these countries can acquire Pakistani citizenship without renouncing their original passport.
Option 4 is correct. Japan does not recognize dual citizenship. When a Japanese person voluntarily
acquires foreign nationality, he or she loses Japanese nationality. Furthermore, people who were born
with multiple nationalities must choose one by the age of 20. Furthermore, under the current system, if a
Japanese national obtains a foreign nationality, his or her Japanese nationality is automatically
retroactively revoked.
Option 5 is incorrect. The USA allows dual citizenship. An American citizen can hold citizenship of
another country without losing their US citizenship.
Option 6 is correct. India does not allow dual citizenship. Indian citizens who acquire citizenship of
another country automatically lose their Indian citizenship. However, India offers the Overseas
Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, which provides many rights of citizenship except for the right to vote
or hold public office, but it is not the same as dual citizenship.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 6- Citizenship
[Link]
citizenship-check-if-india-is-on-the-
list/photostory/[Link]#:~:text=Bangladesh,citizenship%20in%20the%20Asian%20region.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement-I is incorrect. Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, including the
Fundamental Rights. However, this power is not absolute and is subject to judicial review. For instance, in
Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that while Parliament could amend the
Constitution, it could not alter the basic structure. This meant fundamental rights could be amended but
not abrogated entirely.
Statement-II is correct. The Basic Structure doctrine established by the Supreme Court in the
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) means that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the
Constitution of India, it cannot violate, destroy or alter the basic structure of the Constitution of India. It
simply means that any amendment to the Constitution of India should not violate the Basic Structure of
the Constitution of India. Examples of basic structure elements include:
1) Supremacy of the Constitution
2) Republican and Democratic form of Government

[14]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
3) Secular character of the Constitution
4) Separation of Powers
5) Federal character of the Constitution
Knowledge Base:
Example:
1) In Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court invalidated provisions of the 42nd
CAA, ruling that Parliament cannot abolish the power of 'judicial review' because it is part of the 'Basic
Structure'.
2) In S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court established Federalism, Secularism, and
Democracy as the Constitution's Basic Structure.
3) The 99th Constitutional Amendment and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
Act aimed to change the procedure for appointing judges to the higher [Link] Supreme Court in
the NJAC Case (2015) struck down this amendment, stating that the independence of the judiciary is part
of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 11- Basic Structure
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Basic Structure of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.27)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Indian Constitution provides provisions for three types of emergencies: national emergency, state
emergency (commonly known as President's Rule), and financial emergency. These emergency provisions
are outlined in Articles 352, 356, and 360 of the Indian Constitution, respectively.
Statement-I is correct: President's rule can be imposed on the ground of failure of constitutional
machinery. This is correct. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to
impose President's rule or central rule in a state if there is a failure of constitutional machinery in that
state, such as the inability to carry on the governance according to the provisions laid out in the
Constitution.
Statement-II is correct: It is the duty of the center to protect every state against external aggression and
internal disturbance. This is also correct. Article 355 of the Indian Constitution states that it is the duty of
the central government to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance and to
ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The duty of the center to protect every
state against external aggression and internal disturbance is a broader concept, while the imposition of
President's rule on the ground of failure of constitutional machinery is a specific provision under Article
356. The two statements are related to different aspects of the constitutional framework and are not
directly explanatory to each other.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th Edition, Chapter-14
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Emergency Provisions
Subtopic:)

[15]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.28)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The doctrine of basic structure is a legal principle in Indian constitutional law that states that certain
core features of the Constitution are inviolable and cannot be altered by Parliament.
Statement 1 is correct. The Doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded by the Supreme Court of India
in the landmark judgment of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala on 24th April 1973. This doctrine
asserts that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered or destroyed by
Constitutional amendments.
Statement 2 is correct. In the Waman Rao case (1981), the Supreme Court reaffirmed the doctrine of
Basic Structure and clarified that it applies to constitutional amendments enacted after 24th April
1973, the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 11- Basic Structure
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Basic Structure of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.29)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. Article 1(1) of the Constitution of India states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a
Union of States. Constitution does not declare India as a Federation of States.
Statement II is correct, and it is the correct explanation of Statement-I. The Indian Constitution does
not grant states the power to secede from the Union. The unity and integrity of India are considered
paramount, and the Constitution ensures that no state can unilaterally decide to leave the Union.
The country is called the 'Union of States', but its Constitution is federal. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar prefers the
term 'Union of States' over 'Federation of States' because the Indian Federation is not formed through
an agreement among states, unlike the Federation of United States of America, and states have no
right to secede from the federation. The federation is called a Union because it is indestructible. The
country is divided into states solely for administrative purposes.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 13- Federal System
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Nature of Indian Federalism
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
On February 20, 1947, the British Prime Minister Clement Atlee declared that the British rule in India
would end by June 30,1948; after which the power would be transferred to responsible Indian hands. On
June 3, 1947, Lord Mountbatten, the viceroy of India, put forth the partition plan, known as the
Mountbatten Plan. The plan was accepted by the Congress and the Muslim League. Immediate effect was
given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act.
Statement 1 is correct: The act dropped the title of ‘Emperor of India’ from the royal titles of the king
of England. It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty
relations with tribal areas from August 15,1947.

[16]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Statement 2 is correct: The act ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and
sovereign state.
Statement 3 is correct: The act granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion
of India or Dominion of Pakistan or to remain independent.
Knowledge Base:
Other provisions of Indian Independence Act of 1947:
1) It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan
with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
2) It abolished the office of viceroy and provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be
appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet. His Majesty’s Government in Britain
was to have no responsibility with respect to the Government of India or Pakistan.
3) It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any constitution
for their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament, including the Independence
act itself.
4) It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of both the dominions to legislate for their respective
territories till the new constitutions were drafted and enforced. No Act of the British Parliament passed
after August 15, 1947, was to extend to either of the new dominions unless it was extended thereto by a
law of the legislature of the dominion.
Source: Laxmikanth
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.31)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India contains several features that indicate its unitary nature, despite being a federal
system. These features ensure a strong central authority, highlighting the unitary bias within the Indian
federal framework.
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Integrated Audit Machinery, the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG) audits the accounts of both the Union and the states, ensuring financial accountability and
uniformity across all levels of government.
Statement 2 is correct. In All India Services, officers under Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian
Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFS), are recruited by the Centre but serve both the Centre
and the states, creating a common administrative framework and maintaining uniform standards of
administration throughout the country.
Statement 3 is correct. India has a single integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the
apex, followed by High Courts at the state level and subordinate courts below them. This unified judicial
structure helps maintain consistency in the interpretation and application of laws across the country.
Statement 4 is correct. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting free and fair
elections for both Parliament and state legislatures. This centralized control ensures uniformity and
impartiality in the electoral process across the country.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Federal System
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Nature of Indian Federalism
Subtopic:)

[17]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Sarkaria Commission and Punchhi Commission were established by the Indian government to
address and review issues related to Centre-State relations.
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired Judge of
Supreme Court. This commission was established to review the existing arrangements between the
Centre and the states and to recommend changes to improve Centre-State relations. It made 247
recommendations, out of which 180 were implemented, including the establishment of the Inter-State
Council in 1990.
The Punchhi Commission, officially known as the Second Commission on Centre-State Relations, was
set up in 2007 under the chairmanship of Madan Mohan Punchhi, a former Chief Justice of India. This
commission was established to investigate the issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the
changes in polity and economy that had occurred since the Sarkaria Commission's review. It aimed to
address new challenges in governance, especially regarding legislative, administrative, and financial
relations between the Centre and states.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth- Chapter- Centre state relations
[Link]
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Article 245 of the Indian Constitution states that Subject to the provisions of this
Constitution, Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. This includes
the states, union territories, and any other areas that may be acquired. The extent of laws made by the
Parliament is comprehensive, covering all aspects of governance across the entire nation.
Statement 2 is correct. Parliament has the authority to make laws with extraterritorial operation. As per
Article 245, No law made by Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have
extra-territorial operation. This means that laws enacted by Parliament can apply to Indian citizens and
their property situated outside India. For instance, certain provisions of Indian penal laws and taxation
laws have applicability beyond the national borders, ensuring that Indian citizens and entities are
governed by these laws irrespective of their location.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Centre-State Relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India provides specific circumstances under which the Parliament can legislate on
matters enumerated in the State List under Schedule VII.
Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 250, When a national emergency is proclaimed, the Parliament can
legislate on any matter in the State List for the whole or any part of the territory of India. For instance,

[18]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
the Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to goods and services tax or matters in the
State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation.
Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 252, If the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions
requesting Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, Parliament can make laws on that
matter for the consenting states.
Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 253, Parliament can legislate on any matter in the State List to give
effect to international treaties, agreements, or conventions.
Statement 4 is correct. Under Article 356, When a state is under President's rule, the Parliament can
legislate on matters in the State List for that state.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Centre-State Relations
Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Union Territories
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. According to the Article 258(1) of the Indian Constitution, notwithstanding
anything in this Constitution, the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust
either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation to any
matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
Statement 2 is correct. According to the Article 258A of the Constitution of India, notwithstanding
anything in this Constitution, the Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India,
entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation
to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision under the Constitution of India according to
which the President can, with the consent of the State legislature, entrust the state government with
functions related to any matter to which the legislative power of the Parliament extends.
Statement 4 is incorrect. There is no provision in the Constitution that allows a single state legislature
to entrust its legislative powers to Parliament with or without consent.
It can be done in some cases by two or more states under Article 252 of the Constitution of India or under
Article 249 of the Constitution where the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not
less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national
interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article
246A or] any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for
Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter
while the resolution remains in force.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Centre-State Relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.36)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

[19]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
The Constitution of India provides for a threefold distribution of legislative subjects between the Union
and States - Union list (100 subjects), State list (61 subjects) and Concurrent list (52 subjects) enshrined
in the Seventh schedule of the constitution.
Statement 1 is correct: The laws made by the State legislative assembly may prevail over laws made by
the Parliament if such laws were reserved for the consideration of the President and received the
president's assent. However, it would still be competent for Parliament to override such State law by
subsequent legislation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such exemption given to the state legislative assembly in matters
related to concurrent list. If there is conflict over centre and state laws regarding matters enumerated in
the concurrent list, then centre law shall prevail.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such exceptional condition for the state laws to prevail over
union law in case of inconsistency between them with respect to concurrent list. If there is inconsistency
between union and state laws, then the union law will prevail even if those state laws were made on the
directions of the Supreme court.
Source: DD Basu - State legislature (ordinance making power of Governor)
Laxmikanth - Centre State relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.37)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct. According to Article 268 of the Indian Constitution, stamp duties on bills of exchange,
cheques, promissory notes, policies of insurance, and other similar instruments are levied by the Union
but collected and appropriated by the states. Therefore, the proceeds from these stamp duties do not
form part of the Consolidated Fund of India but rather form part of the Consolidated Fund of the
respective state.
Option 2 is incorrect. Surcharges on taxes are levied by the Centre and are entirely appropriated by the
Centre. According to Article 271 of the Constitution, these proceeds are the part of the Consolidated
Fund of India.
Option 3 is incorrect. A cess is an additional tax levied for a specific purpose, and its proceeds are
earmarked for that specific purpose. The cess collected may not be the part of divisible pool to be
shared with the states. Yet it forms part of the consolidated fund of India.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Centre-State Relations
[Link]
through-cess-parked/[Link]
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.38)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 292, The executive power of the Union extends to borrowing
upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India within such limits, if any, as may from time to time be
fixed by Parliament by law and to the giving of guarantees within such limits, if any, as may be so fixed.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
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9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[20]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

Statement 2 is correct. Article 293(3) states that “A State may not without the consent of the
Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to
the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a
guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government.”
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Centre-State Relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.39)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to
the states from the Central resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid- statutory grants and
discretionary grants.
Statement 1 is correct: Discretionary grants are called so because there is no constitutional obligation
for the centre to give these grants to states and matters lie within the centre’s discretion. These grants
are given to states to help states to fulfil their developmental plans and influence states to implement the
national plan.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 282 empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for
any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative jurisdictions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Centre does not allot these grants to states based on the recommendation of
the Finance commission. In contrast statutory grants (Article 275) are allotted to states by the centre
based on the recommendation of the Finance commission.
Source: Laxmikanth: Centre - State relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Interstate Water Dispute Act, 1956 provides for the resolution of water disputes between states by
setting up Inter State Water Dispute Tribunals. According to Article 262, Parliament may by law provide
for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution, or control of the
waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley.
Source: Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, Chapter - Interstate Relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Interstate Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
According to the Article 263 of Indian Constitution If at any time it appears to the President that the
public interests would be served by the establishment of a Council charged with the duty of—

[21]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

1) inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States; Statement 1 is
correct.
2) investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more
of the States, have a common interest; Statement 2 is correct.
3) making recommendations upon any such subject and, in particular, recommendations for the better
co-ordination of policy and action with respect to that subject, it shall be lawful for the President by
order to establish such a Council, and to define the nature of the duties to be performed by it and its
organisation and procedure.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such duty associated with the Interstate council to enforce the laws
passed by the Parliament in states. It is the work of the Union and State executives to enforce the laws.
The duties of Interstate Council are exclusively associated with interstate relations or center-state
relations.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 15- interstate relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State and Interstate Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.42)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-
organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as below.
1. The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir,
Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
2. The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh;
3. The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
4. The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union
Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;
5. The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Prime Minister is not the part of the Zonal Councils. Union Home Minister is
the chairman of each of the Zonal Councils. Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the
meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of
the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time (not
three years at a time).
Option 3 is incorrect: Governors are not members of the Zonal Councils. Their role is distinct from that
of the council members, and they do not participate in the Zonal Council meetings.
Knowledge base: The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India,
Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-
organization Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganized may be grouped into
four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these
States. This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru at a time when linguistic hostilities and bitterness as a
result of re-organization of the States on linguistic pattern were threatening the very fabric of our nation.
As an antidote to this situation, it was suggested that a high-level advisory forum should be set up to
minimize the impact of these hostilities and to create healthy inter-State and Centre-State environment

[22]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
with a view to solving inter-State problems and fostering balanced socio-economic development of the
respective zones.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 15- inter-state relations
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Centre-State and Interstate Relations
Subtopic:)

Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Losing Indian citizenship can occur in three ways: renunciation, termination, and deprivation.
Renunciation is a voluntary act of giving up citizenship. Termination happens automatically if an Indian
citizen voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship. Deprivation is enforced by the government for reasons
such as obtaining citizenship by fraud, disloyalty to the Constitution, trading with the enemy during a
war, or residing abroad without proper registration for seven years. These measures ensure the integrity
of Indian citizenship.
Option c is correct: The Central Government can deprive a person of their Indian citizenship if certain
conditions are met, including:
a) Obtaining citizenship by fraud.
b) Showing disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
c) Unlawfully trading or communicating with the enemy during a war.
d) Being imprisoned for two years within five years after registration or naturalization.
e) Being ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously without registering annually at
an Indian consulate.
Since Mohan has been living in the USA for the past 7 years, he falls under condition (e) of deprivation if
he has not registered annually at an Indian consulate during this period. Therefore, Mohan is liable to
lose his Indian citizenship by deprivation under the specific conditions outlined in the law.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 6- Citizenship
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Citizenship
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct: Article 3 of the Indian Constitution related to the formation of new States and
alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States authorizes the Parliament of India that the
Parliament may by law:
1) Form a new state by separating territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of
states, or by uniting any territory with a part of any state.
2) Increase the area of any state.
3) Diminish the area of any state.
4) Alter the boundaries of any state.
5) Alter the name of any state.
Conditions under Article 3:
1) A bill contemplating any of the above changes can be introduced in Parliament only with the prior
recommendation of the President.

[23]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
2) Before recommending the bill, the President must refer it to the state legislature concerned to obtain
its views within a specified period.
Source: Laxmikanth, chapter 5
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: During a financial emergency the centre can direct the state to reserve all
money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after being passed by the State
Legislature.
Statement 2 is correct: The President, may issue direction, to reduce the salaries or the allowances of all
or any class of people serving in the state. The President may also issue directions for the reduction of
salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union.
Statement 3 is correct: The President has the power to reduce salaries of judges working not only in the
Supreme Court, but also the judges working in the High Courts.
Source: Polity by Laxmikanth, 5th edition, Ch-16
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Emergency Provisions
Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
A written constitution is a formal and organised document that serves as the fundamental law of a
nation. It outlines the framework of the government, defines the distribution of powers, and establishes
the rights and responsibilities of citizens.
Statement-I is incorrect: The Presence of a written Constitution is not a fundamental requirement of
democracy e.g., a democratic nation such as the United Kingdom does not have a written constitution.
Similarly, all nations that have written constitution cannot be qualified to become a democratic nation. A
nation that has written constitution but absence of free and fair election, Universal Adult Suffrage etc.
cannot be considered democracy.
Statement-II is correct: It is true that a Written constitution provides a set of rules and principles that
guide the functioning of a democratic system, the rights of citizens, and the limits of government
power. By safeguarding the rights and freedoms of individuals, a written constitution fosters an
enlightened citizenry capable of actively participating in a thriving democracy.
Source: Class VII NCERT - Indian Constitution
Class IX NCERT - What is Democracy? Why Democracy?
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.47)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[24]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |

The ‘Objectives Resolution’ was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly in December,
1946. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. Its modified version forms
the Preamble of the present Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Objectives resolution, the Constituent Assembly declared its firm and
solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future
governance a constitution
Statement 2 is correct. It provides that adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward
and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes.
Statement 3 is correct. It guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and
political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief,
faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality.
Source: Indian Polity, M. Laxmikanth, Chapter- 2
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Historical Background of Indian Constitution-The Constituent Assembly
Subtopic:)

Q.48)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Constitution contains the basic principles and laws of a nation that determine the powers and duties
of the government. A constitution serves multiple purposes. It provides a legitimate legal and political
basis for the Government to propose and enact laws, organising public service and settling disputes.
Although the Constitution determines the objectives (DPSP) for the making of necessary laws and aims to
promote social, economic and political democracy, its chief purpose is to limit the power of
government. In fact, the Constitutional government is by definition limited government.
Source) M. Laxmikant Chapter: Salient Features of Constitution
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: While the Indian Constitution can be amended, it is not a defining characteristic
that makes it a "living document." Many constitutions can be amended, but the term "living document"
refers to something beyond mere changeability. The term "living document" implies that it can grow and
change with society.
Option b is correct: The Indian Constitution is often called a "living document" because it has the ability
to adapt and respond to changing societal norms, values, and circumstances over time, apart from its
flexible provisions and judicial interpretations.
Option c is incorrect: The presence of a historical account is not what makes a constitution a "living
document." The focus is on how the constitution adapts to the present and future, not on historical
accounts.
Option d is incorrect: While the Constitution does indeed encompass fundamental values and principles,
its status as a living document primarily relates to its ability to adapt to evolving societal needs and
values.

[25]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211121 |
Source: NCERT Class 11 constitution at work-chapter 1
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution address the organization,
independence, jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Constitution pertain to the organization,
independence, jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of the High Courts.
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Part XIV-A, titled "Tribunals," which includes Article 323A
on administrative tribunals and Article 323B on tribunals for other matters. So, the statement given is
incorrect.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth- Chapter 3- Salient features of the Constitution
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Salient Features of Indian Constitution
Subtopic:)

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