PRACTICE TEST 53

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write
your answers in the space provided. (20 points)
1. When I finish my writing this composition, I’m going to _________ and go to bed.
A. make time B. hit the hay C. hit the big time D. call it a day
2. Marry usually buys her clothes _________ . It’s cheaper than going to a dressmaker.
A. in public B. on the shelf C. off the peg D. on the house
3. You are at _________ to do what you like.
A. freedom B. odds C. disposal D. liberty
4. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to ________ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
5. I have three brothers, _________ of whom were there.
A. none B. neither C. no one D. either
6. He _______ a new action plan for the project.
A. devised B. advertised C. sold D. processed
7. _________ he was lazy, he failed the exam.
A. Now that B. so C. consequently D. Thus
8. My job is so _________ that I don’t think I’ll be able to take a summer break.
A. persisting B. hard C. demanding D. tough
9. My car is almost ten years old, but it cost me a _______ at the time I bought it.
A. luck B. fortune C. treasure D. deposit
10. It is _________ knowledge that newspapers report news.
A. plain B. common C. easy D. simple
11. _________ ,the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having lelf uncovered
C. lelf uncovered D. Been lelf uncovered
12. The police are keeping _______ of the escaped prisoner.
A. signal B. view C. track D. sight
13. The strike was _________ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
14. I’m amazed that this game ever__________ – it’s so silly!
A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
15. The match will be screened on ITV with __________ commentary by Sandy Curley.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
16. It was _________ that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. such surprising victory B. so surprising a victory
C. too surprising D. surprising
17. _________, he cannot make ends meet.
A. Hard though he works B. As long as he works hard
C. He works hardly D. Hard as he work
18. Everyone hoped that he would ________ after the operation.
A. pull through B. pull over C. get over D. pull out
19. ________, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
20. That book is by a famous anthropologist. It’s about the people in Samoa_________
for two years.
A. that she lived B. that she lived among them
C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them
Part 2. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write
your answers in the space provided. (15 points)
While___(1)___everyone accepts the goal of developing___(2)___in the three “R’s”-
reading, writing, and arithmetic- it often seems impossible to___(3)___agreement on any
goal beyond that. In the broadest___(4)___, the conflict over educational goals can
be___(5)___as a conflict between conservatives and liberals, or, ___(6)___they are
sometimes called, essentialists and progressives.
The conservatives, or essentialists, tend to identify a desirable education with the
transmission of the cultural heritage, a no-nonsense___(7)___featuring the threeR’s at the
elementary-school level and academic studies or strong vocational or business courses in
the secondary school. They put emphasis on the training of the mind and cultivation of the
intellect.
The liberals, or progressives, tend to be interested in the development of the all-round
child, not merely in training the child’s mind or in preparing the child for adult life in a
remote future. They emphasize rich, meaningful school living in the present, and they
view subject matter as a resource___(8)___total human development___(9)___as a goal
in itself. They do not downgrade content but believe it should be___(10)___not for their
own sake but as a means of fostering thought and inquiry.

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (15 points)
The Digital Divide
Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We
use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline
reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate
instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are
commonplace in homes and the workplace.
Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of
the world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6
percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although
more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal
computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us
would consider a basic communications necessity – the telephone – does not occur just in
developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the
residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for
telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.
 Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an
income over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in
low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet
access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school education. Forty
percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent
households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and
13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-
growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have
access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race,
education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor,
rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female
households are connected.
Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans,
Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women
hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the
computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed
ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation.
Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest
salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.
Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the
country are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with
Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of
students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see
that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired
classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-income students.
Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between
groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop
knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the
Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to
populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every
three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be
interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for
learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather
than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from
its power.
1. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?
A. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all
B. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet
C. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage
D. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet
2. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement
“Although the number ............. or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2?
A. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of
computers has been increasing every year.
B. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year,
but most people in the world still do not have connections.
 C. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people
in the world is not increasing fast enough.
D. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't
have their own computer terminals.
3. The word “eliminate” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. accept B. dispute C. define D. remove
4. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term
"digital divide?"
A. The number of Internet users in developing nations
B. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet
C. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users
D. Segments of the population with Internet access
5. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph
3?
A. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups
B. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society
C. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place
D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now
6. According to paragraph 3, which of the following households would be least likely to
have access to the Internet?
A. A household with one parent B. A black household
C. A Hispanic household D. A household with both parents
7. The word “those” in the passage refers to
A. classrooms B. students C. schools D.
concentrations
8. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field
of computer technology?
A. They are not admitted to the degree programs.
B. They do not possess the educational qualifications.
C. They do not have an interest in technology.
D. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.
9. The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. protections B. numbers C. confidence D.
support
10. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?
A. Better computers need to be designed.
B. Schools should provide newer computers for students.
C. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.
D. Technology will be more helpful in three years.
PRACTICE TEST 54
Part 1. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences.
26. I woke up late for my interview because I ____ about it all night and didn’t get much
sleep.
A. worried B. have been worrying C. had been worrying D. had worried
27. ____ September 1st, ticket prices for the museum will increase to $6.
A. As for B. As of C. As shown
D. As well
28. ______ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.
A. On B. In C. With D.
By
29. The old lady came near to _______ of pneumonia but to everyone's amazement she
pulled through.
A. death B. dying C. being dead D. die
30. I take great exception _______ the implication that I was not telling the truth.
A. against B. from C. to D. with
31. There is no ___________that will help you lose weight without effort, the only way is
to
exercise and follow a diet.
A. smoking gun B. silver bullet C. straight arrow D.
golden brick
32. When Frances has an exam to take, she either studies day and night or does nothing at
all. She
can never find the ______.
A. a double bind B. a leading light C. the common touch D. the happy medium
33. I don’t know why Greta doesn’t break up with Dan. She’s always ______.
A. turfing him out B. slagging him off C. holding him down D. mauling him
around
34. All the employees were asked to ______ 20 dollars to pay for the meal thay had last
night
A. fork out B. even out C. hype up D. chip
in
35. The kids ______ in their rooms with computer games and you never get to talk to
them.
A. piddle about B. drag off C. hole up D. bash
away
36. Large cities like New York are usually ________when it comes to adopting new
technology.
A. before the wind B. beyond depth C. above bend D. ahead
of the curve
37. They _______ and hawed for weeks before deciding to buy the house.
A. blared B. dined C. thudded D. hummed
38. Living in the commuter _______ is fine, but I’m planning to move into the city centre.
A. belt B. pane C. line
D. skirt
[Link] food tour was great, except for the insects, they looked and tasted so horrible that I
_______ with disgust.
A. gloated B. grimaced C. grinned D.
chuckled
40._______ your heart and mind of sinful thoughts before you enter the pagoda.
A. Clean B. Purify C. Liberate D. Cleanse
41. Unfortunately, the victim didn’t make it to the hospital, he was pronounced
___________.
A. dead from the neck up B. dead on sight C. dead in the water
D. dead on arrival
42. I cannot understand what does Jenny _______ against Tom that makes her treat such a
nice guy so badly.
A. hold B. have C. keep
D. make
43. It turned out I was wrong to think that I could reach the finish line as I started to
_______ in the heat just thirty minutes after the race started.
A. shrivel B. weed C. wither D. wilt
44. Born in the Soviet Union during the 1930s, my father was so deeply influenced by the
contemporary sociopolitical context that socialism has become a(n)_______ of faith with
him.
A. realm B. article C. element D. clause
45. How sad it is to see with your own eyes the squalor and poverty that lay behind the
glittering _________of Dubai.
A. facade B. antenna C. masquerade D. camouflage
PRACTICE 55
Part 1: Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes the
sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20
points)
[Link] police investigated many clues, but they were all _______.
A. red tape B. red herrings C. white lies D. blue
jokes
2. He is the right man for the job. He is experienced and knows the _______ of the
business
A. odds and ends B. length and breadth C. prim and proper D. ins
and outs
3. If it hadn't been for the hint that the professor _______, nobody would have found out
the correct answer.
A. dropped B. cast C. threw D. flung
4. To his own great _______ , professor Howard has discovered a new method of bulimia
treatment.
A. reputation B. name C. fame D. credit
5. That woman sees nothing _______ in letting her children run around as they wish.
A. awry B. amiss C. afraid D. alike
6. The recent publication of CCTV footage was a gross ______of privacy.
A. invasion B. intrusion C. infringement D. interference
7. My decision to drop out of university after a year is one I now _______ regret.
A. painfully B. harshly C. heavily D. keenly
8. Many in the team doubt my new approach, but I'll try to _______ ahead with it
anyway.
A. drive B. pull C. strike D. press
9. I _______ an important deal yesterday and our company lost a fortune!
A. tore off B. mucked up C. shot down D. swallowed
up
10. I’ve been doing my best to reduce the backlog but I must admit that I’ve hardly put
_______ in the problem so far.
A. a dent B. a foot C. a brave face D. damper
11. Mr Newhart, _______honor the reception will be held next Saturday, has worked for
this company for exactly thirty years.
A. for whom B. in whose C. about whom D. whose
12. It's often said that nowadays people must be proud of medical advances, ______ life is
getting considerably longer.
A. so that B. providing that C. for that D. in that
13. I was so frightened that my heart was beating like crazy as if ______ to leave my
body.
A. to try B. trying C. like trying D. of trying
14. The doctor told her that she once had ______ that she was now suffering from anxiety
disorder.
A. so shocked B. so strong a shock C. been so shocking D. so
strong shock
15. Ann, _______for the safety of her child, ran to stop him playing near the electric
socket.
A. concerned B. concerning C. to concern D. to be
concerned
16. ______, the immigrant workers are torn between their dreams and their real
possibilities.
A. Overworking and badly paid B. Overworking and being badly paid
C. Having overworked and badly paid D. Being overworked and badly paid
17. I feel that I have a huge responsibility trying to choose only one option, but _______
the last option may be the best one.
A. I dare to say that B. I dare say that
C. I dare not say that D. I dare not to say that
18. Although she is ______ older than I am, one could think there were quite a few years
between us.
A. not as much B. no much C. not that much D. much
19. _______ is that I’ve promised to make friend with the dishonest girl.
A. The only thing what I regret B. What I regret most
C. All what I really regret most D. What that I regret most
20. _______, all the matter is formed of molecules.
A. It doesn’t matter if the complex B. It’s not a complex matter
C. No matter how complex it is D. How complex is not a matter
Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
A LACK OF COMMUNICATION
Recent research has (1) ____ that a third of people in Britain have not met their next-door
neighbors, and those who know each other (2)____ speak. ‘Neighbors gossiping over
garden fences and in the street was a common (3) ____ in the 1950s’, says Dr Carl Chinn,
an expert on local communities. Now, however, longer hours spent working at the office,
together with the Internet and satellite television, are eroding neighborhood (4) ____.
‘Poor neighborhoods once had strong kinship, but now prosperity buys privacy’, said
Chinn.
Professor John Luke, a social scientist at Cambridge University, has analyzed a large
number of surveys. He found that in America and Britain the amount of time spent in
social activity is decreasing. A third of people said they never spoke to their neighbor at
(5)____. Andrew Mayer, 25, a strategy consultant, rents a large apartment in west
London, with two flat mates, who work in e-commerce. ‘We have a family of teachers
upstairs and lawyers below, but our only contact comes via letters (6) ____to the
communal facilities or complaints that we’ve not put out our bin bags properly’, said
Mayer.
The (7) ____of communities can have serious effects. Concerned at the rise in burglaries
and (8) ____of vandalism, the police have relaunched crime prevention (9) ____such as
Neighborhood Watch, (10) ____on people who live in the same area to keep an eye on
each other’s houses and report anything they see which is unusual.
1. A. exhibited B. conducted C. displayed D.
revealed
2. A. barely B. roughly C. nearly D. virtually
3. A. outlook B. view C. vision D. sight
4. A. ties B. joints C. strings D. laces
5. A. least B. once C. all D. most
6. A. concerning B. regarding C. applying D.
relating
7. A. breakout B. breakthrough C. breakdown D. breakaway
8. A. acts B. shows C. counts D. works
9. A. assaults B. ideas C. schemes D. raids
10. A. asking B. calling C. inviting D. trying
11. Part 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the
questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
(15 points)
12. HISTORY OF THE CHICKENPOX VACCINE
13. Chickenpox is a highly contagious infectious disease caused by the Varicella
zoster virus; sufferers develop a fleeting itchy rash that can spread throughout the
body. The disease can last for up to 14 days and can occur in both children and
adults, though the young are particularly vulnerable. Individuals infected with
chickenpox can expect to experience a high but tolerable level of discomfort and a
fever as the disease works its way through the system. The ailment was once
considered to be a “rite of passage” by parents in the U.S. and thought to
provide children with greater and improved immunity to other forms of
sickness later in life. This view, however, was altered after additional research by
scientists demonstrated unexpected dangers associated with the virus. Over time,
the fruits of this research have transformed attitudes toward the disease and the
utility of seeking preemptive measures against it.
14. A vaccine against chickenpox was originally invented by Michiaki
Takahashi, a Japanese doctor and research scientist, in the mid-1960s. Dr.
Takahashi began his work to isolate and grow the virus in 1965 and in 1972 began
clinical trials with a live but weakened form of the virus that caused the human
body to create antibodies. Japan and several other countries began widespread
chickenpox vaccination programs in 1974. However, it took over 20 years for the
chickenpox vaccine to be approved by the U.S. Food & Drug Administration
(FDA), finally earning the U.S. government’s seal of approval for widespread use
in 1995. Yet even though the chickenpox vaccine was available and recommended
by the FDA, parents did not immediately choose to vaccinate their children against
 this disease. Mothers and fathers typically cited the notion that chickenpox did not
constitute a serious enough disease against which a person needed to be vaccinated.
15. Strong belief in that view eroded when scientists discovered the link between
Varicella zoster, the virus that causes chickenpox, and shingles, a far more serious,
harmful, and longer-lasting disease in older adults that impacts the nervous system.
They reached the conclusion that Varicella zoster remains dormant inside the body,
making it significantly more likely for someone to develop shingles. As a result, the
medical community in the U.S. encouraged the development, adoption, and use of a
vaccine against chickenpox to the public. Although the appearance of chickenpox
and shingles within one person can be many years apart - generally many decades -
the increased risk in developing shingles as a younger adult (30-40 years old rather
than 60-70 years old) proved to be enough to convince the medical community that
immunization should be preferred to the traditional alternative.
16. Another reason that the chickenpox vaccine was not immediately accepted
and used by parents in the U.S. centered on observations made by scientists that the
vaccine simply did not last long enough and did not confer a lifetime of immunity.
In other words, scientists considered the benefits of the vaccine to be temporary
when given to young children. They also feared that it increased the odds that a
person could become infected with chickenpox later as a young adult, when the
rash is more painful and prevalent and can last up to three or four weeks. Hence,
allowing young children to develop chickenpox rather than take a vaccine against it
was believed to be the “lesser of two evils.” This idea changed over time as booster
shots of the vaccine elongated immunity and countered the perceived limits on the
strength of the vaccine itself.
17. Today, use of the chickenpox vaccine is common throughout the world.
Pediatricians suggest an initial vaccination shot after a child turns one year old,
with booster shots recommended after the child turns eight. The vaccine is
estimated to be up to 90% effective and has reduced worldwide cases of chickenpox
infection to 400,000 cases per year from over 4,000,000 cases before vaccination
became widespread. ■ (A) In light of such statistics, most doctors insist that the
potential risks of developing shingles outweigh the benefits of avoiding rare
complications associated with inoculations. ■ (B) Of course, many parents continue
to think of the disease as an innocuous ailment, refusing to take preemptive steps
against it. ■ (C) As increasing numbers of students are vaccinated and the virus
becomes increasingly rarer, however, even this trend among parents has failed to
halt the decline of chickenpox among the most vulnerable populations. ■ (D).
18. 1. The word “tolerable” in the passage 1 is closest in meaning to
19. A. sudden B. bearable C. infrequent D.
unexpected
20. 2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the
chickenpox virus?
21. A. It leads to a potentially deadly disease in adults.
22. B. It is associated with a possibly permanent rash.
23. C. It is easily transmittable by an infected individual.
24. D. It has been virtually eradicated in the modern world.
25. 3. Which of the following best expresses the essential
information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
26. A. U.S. parents believed that having chickenpox benefited their
children.
27. B. U.S. parents believed that chickenpox led to immunity against
most sickness.
28. C. U.S. parents wanted to make sure that their children developed
chickenpox.
29. D. U.S. parents did not think that other vaccinations were needed
after chickenpox.
30. 4. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about
the clinical trials for the chickenpox vaccine?
31. A. They took longer than expected. B. They cost a lot of
money to complete.
32. C. They took a long time to finish. D. They were ultimately
successful.
33. 5. The word “notion” in the passage 2 is closest in meaning to
34. A. history B. findings C. fact D. belief
35. 6. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true of
Varicella Zoster?
36. A. It typically attacks adults who are over 60 years old.
37. B. It is linked to a serious disease that occurs more commonly in
adults.
38. C. It likely is not a serious enough threat to human health to
require a vaccine.
39. D. It is completely eradicated from the body after chickenpox
occurs.
40. 7. According to paragraph 3, all of the following is true about the
chickenpox virus EXCEPT:
41. A. It causes two distinct yet related ailments.
42. B. People did not view it as a serious public health threat.
43. C. It tended to quickly become dormant and remain inoperative
over time.
44. D. Vaccination against it would help prevent the onset of
shingles.
45. 8. The author uses booster shots as an example of
46. A. a way to increase the effectiveness of the chickenpox vaccine
47. B. a preferred method of chickenpox rash and fever treatment
48. C. a scientifically approved medicine to eliminate chickenpox
49. D. a strategy for parents to avoid vaccinating their child
altogether
50. 9. According to paragraph 4, many parents did not choose the
chickenpox vaccine because
51. A. they believed that the virus was weak and not especially
harmful
52. B. they thought that scientists did not have enough data to reach a
conclusion
53. C. they were unsure about the utility of the vaccine given its
expected duration
54. D. they were convinced it was potentially very toxic, particularly
for older children
55. 10. Look at the four squares [▪] that indicate where the following
sentence could be added to the passage. “Meanwhile, some continue to remain
unconvinced, citing a supposed potential of the vaccine to do harm.” Where
would the sentence fit best?
56. A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D)
57. Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
58. TOURISM
59. A Tourism, holidaymaking and travel are these days more significant social
phenomena than most commentators have considered. On the face of it there could
not be a more trivial subject for a book. And indeed since social scientists have had
considerable difficulty explaining weightier topics, such as work or politics, it
might be thought that they would have great difficulties in accounting for more
trivial phenomena such as holidaymaking. However, there are interesting parallels
with the study of deviance. This involves the investigation of bizarre and
idiosyncratic social practices which happen to be defined as deviant in some
societies but not necessarily in others. The assumption is that the investigation of
deviance can reveal interesting and significant aspects of normal societies. It could
be said that a similar analysis can be applied to tourism.
60. B Tourism is a leisure activity which presupposes its opposite, namely
regulated and organised work. It is one manifestation of how work and leisure are
organised as separate and regulated spheres of social practice in modern societies.
Indeed acting as a tourist is one of the defining characteristics of being ‘modern’
and the popular concept of tourism is that it is organised within particular places
and occurs for regularised periods of time. Tourist relationships arise from a
movement of people to, and their stay in, various destinations. This necessarily
involves some movement, that is the journey, and a period of stay in a new place or
places. ‘The journey and the stay’ are by definition outside the normal places of
residence and work and are of a short term and temporary nature and there is a clear
intention to return ‘home’ within a relatively short period of time.
61. C A substantial proportion of the population of modern societies engages in
such tourist practices new socialised forms of provision have developed in order to
cope with the mass character of the gazes of tourists as opposed to the individual
character of travel. Places are chosen to be visited and be gazed upon because there
is an anticipation especially through daydreaming and fantasy of intense pleasures,
either on a different scale or involving different senses from those customarily
encountered. Such anticipation is constructed and sustained through a variety of
non-tourist practices such as films, TV literature, magazines records and videos
which construct and reinforce this daydreaming.
62. D Tourists tend to visit features of landscape and townscape which separate
them off from everyday experience. Such aspects are viewed because they are taken
 to be in some sense out of the ordinary. The viewing of these tourist sights often
involves different forms of social patterning with a much greater sensitivity to
visual elements of landscape or townscape than is normally found in everyday life.
People linger over these sights in a way that they would not normally do in their
home environment and the vision is objectified or captured through photographs
postcards films and so on which enable the memory to be endlessly reproduced and
recaptured.
63. E One of the earliest dissertations on the subject of tourism is Boorstins
analysis of the pseudo event (1964) where he argues that contemporary. Americans
cannot experience reality directly but thrive on pseudo events. Isolated from the
host environment and the local people the mass tourist travels in guided groups and
finds pleasure in inauthentic contrived attractions gullibly enjoying the pseudo
events and disregarding the real world outside. Over time the images generated of
different tourist sights come to constitute a closed self-perpetuating system of
illusions which provide the tourist with the basis for selecting and evaluating
potential places to visit. Such visits are made says Boorstin, within the
environmental bubble of the familiar American style hotel which insulates the
tourist from the strangeness of the host environment.
64. F To service the burgeoning tourist industry, an array of professionals has
developed who attempt to reproduce ever-new objects for the tourist to look at.
These objects or places are located in a complex and changing hierarchy. This
depends upon the interplay between, on the one hand, competition between interests
involved in the provision of such objects and, on the other hand changing class,
gender, and generational distinctions of taste within the potential population of
visitors. It has been said that to be a tourist is one of the characteristics of the
modern experience. Not to go away is like not possessing a car or a nice house.
Travel is a marker of status in modern societies and is also thought to be necessary
for good health. The role of the professional, therefore, is to cater for the needs and
tastes of the tourists in accordance with their class and overall expectations.
65. Questions 1-5
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings
below Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
Paragraph D has been done for you as an example.
66. NB. There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them
You may use any heading more than once.
List of Headings
i The politics of tourism
ii The cost of tourism
iii Justifying the study of tourism
iv Tourism contrasted with travel
v The essence of modern tourism
vi Tourism versus leisure
vii The artificiality of modern tourism
viii The role of modern tour guides
ix Creating an alternative to the everyday experience
 67. 1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
Example Answer
Paragraph D ix
68. 4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
PRACTICE TEST 56
Part 1. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences. (20
points)
1. She ___________ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no
interest in the game at all.
A. apologetically B. grudgingly C. shamefacedly D. discreetly
2. Police have not so far been able to ___________ a confession from the people accused
of the bombing.
A. excoriate B. exculpate C. extort D. expropriate
3. The campaign was launched by David with a long ___________ against the lack of
action of the people in authority.
A. diatribe B. oath C. affidavit D. avowal
4. Reducing plastic waste in school is a(n) ___________ aim, but enforcing them at
gunpoint will likely turn the plan into a failure.
A. exemplary B. glistening C. blazing D. laudable
5. Although Mike is quite good at singing, he is barely a(n) ___________ by comparison
with professional singers.
A. dilettante B. greenhorn C. apprentice D.
probationer
6. Although he appeared to enjoy a jet-setting life, he ___________ publicity and avoided
nightclubs..
A. rejigged B. derided C. eschewed D. abated
7. Paradoxically, it is usually even harder for people to give up gambling after losing
because they want to ___________ their losses in the next game.
A. recoup B. rehab C. rectify D. repent
8. Living to 100 will not be a pleasure anymore if you have to ___________ around
getting increasingly frail.
A. lumber B. dodder C. waddle D. dawdle
9. The meditation course has really helped his ___________ to abate, making him calmer
and more considerate.
A. irascibility B. fanaticism C. fervor D. mendacity
10. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the ___________ on life among the
royals.
A. show-down B. know-how C. low-down D. look-out
11. He did everything to ___________ favour with his superiors in the hope of getting
promoted.
A. hoard B. curry C. drag D. butter
12. Children are more likely to be spoiled when their parents ___________ them.
A. dote on B. cosset at C. pamper round D. cosy up to
13. China was ___________ among the powers of the Eight-Nation Alliance by the end
of the 19th century.
A. thrashed out B. parceled out C. dished out D. slipped out
14. Mary finally decided to ___________ and broke up with Jack after having been
together for 4 years.
A. get off her base B. take the plunge C. play possum D. jump the gun
15. Their company is so debt-ridden that I think it’s safe to say they’re ___________ at
this stage.
A. down for the count B. down in the dumps
C. down at the heel D. down to the last penny
16. ______, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside
world.
A. Being visually impaired people B. Such were their visual impairments
C. Having been visually impaired D. For those with visual impairments
17. It's very important that we ____________ as soon as there’s any change in the
patient’s condition.
A. be notified B. being notified C. are notified · D. were notified
18. ____________ motivate learning is well documented.
A. That is computers B. Computers that
C. That computers D. It is those computers
19. Rose is still on holiday, so you ________ her working at her office.
A. wouldn’t have seen B. needn’t have seen
C. can’t have seen D. shouldn’t have seen
20. There________to have been thousands of new companies founded last year.
A. are reported B. have reported C. is reported D. has reported
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)
according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding
numbered boxes (10pts).
If you think that we are the only creatures on Earth with a moral sense, then you're in
good company. Most experts in behavior believe that morality is a uniquely human trait,
without which our complex social life would never have emerged - yet I'm convinced that
many animals can distinguish right from wrong. Decades spent watching wild and captive
animals have persuaded me that species living in groups often have a sense of fair play
built on moral codes of conduct that help cement their social relationships. The notion of
Nature being naturally ruthlessly and selfishly competitive doesn't hold true for those of
us who have observed and analyzed animal relationships.
That's not all. I suspect that herein lies the origin of our own virtue. Biologists have
had real problems trying to explain why people are frequently inexplicably nice to each
other. It just doesn't make sense in evolutionary terms, unless there are ulterior motives
behind our seemingly altruistic actions. Perhaps we expect a payback somewhere down
the line, or maybe our good deeds are directed only towards kin, with whom we share a
biological heritage. Nobody has really considered the possibility that being considerate to
your neighbors might sometimes be the best way to survive. But I'm starting to find
evidence that a well-developed sense of fair play helps non-human animals live longer,
more successful lives.
I'm particularly interested in social play amongst youngsters because it has its own
special rules of engagement, allowing participants to reinterpret acts that might otherwise
seem aggressive. My studies of infant dogs, wolves and coyotes reveal that they use a
special signal to prevent misinterpretation of playful actions. They perform a 'bow' -
which entails crouching on the forelimbs while keeping the rear upright - when initiating
play, or in association with aggressive actions such as biting, to modify their meaning.
And role reversal is common, so that during play a dominant animal will often allow a
subordinate to have the upper hand. Such behaviors reduce inequalities in size, strength
and dominance between playmates, fostering the co-operation and reciprocity that are
essential for play to occur. Indeed, on the rare occasions when an animal says 'Let's play'
and then beats up an unsuspecting animal, the culprit usually finds itself ostracized by its
former playmates.
My belief is that a sense of fairness is common to many animals, because there could
be no social play without it, and without social play individual animals and entire groups
would be at a disadvantage. If I'm right, morality evolved because it is adaptive. It helps
many animals, including humans, to survive and flourish in their particular social
environment. This may sound like a radical idea, particularly if you view morality as
uniquely human and a sort of mystical quality that sets us apart from other animals. But if
you accept my argument that play and fairness are inextricably linked, you're halfway
there.
[A] As with any behavioral trait, the underlying genetics is bound to be complex, and
environmental influences may be large. [B] No matter. Provided there is variation in
levels of morality among individuals, and provided virtue is rewarded by a greater
number of offspring, then any genes associated with good behavior are bound to
accumulate in subsequent generations. [C] And the observation that play is rarely unfair
or uncooperative is surely an indication that natural selection acts to weed out those who
don't play by the rules. [D]
What does this tell us about human morality? First, we didn't invent virtue - its origins
are much more ancient than our own. Secondly, we should stop seeing ourselves as
morally superior to other animals. True, our big brains endow us with a highly
sophisticated sense of what's right and wrong, but they also give us much greater scope
for manipulating others - to deceive and try to benefit from immoral behavior. In that
sense, animal morality might be 'purer' than our own. We should accept our moral
responsibility towards other animals, and that means developing and enforcing more
restrictive regulations governing animal use. While animal minds may vary from one
species to another, they are not so different from our own, and only when we accept this
can we truly be moral in our relations with nature as a whole.
1. In the first paragraph, what does the writer state about morality?
A. Humans are the only creatures that demonstrate true emotional behavior.
B. A well-developed moral code does not lead to civilization.
C. Humans and animals share the same selfish instincts for survival.
D. There is a common misconception that animals are not moral.
2. What point does the writer make in the second paragraph?
A. People who are generous to others are not always sure why they behave that way.
B. People who do not possess good social skills achieve less in life.
C. People who behave considerately to others have selfish reasons for doing so.
D. People who treat acquaintances better than relatives are unusual.
3. Neighbors are mentioned as an example to ………….
A. illustrate the fact that another aspect of the driving force may have been overlooked
 B. reiterate the notion that being nice to others is not hereditary
C. strengthen his belief that longevity does come into play concerning how kind we
are
D. report that many folks are becoming increasingly disillusioned with their proclivity
to helping others
4. The word altruistic in paragraph two most likely means…………..
A. strange B. democratic C. selfless D. immaterial
5. What has the writer deduced about social play from his observation of animals?
A. It provides an opportunity for physically weaker animals to develop survival skills.
B. It allows animals to prove who is dominant in the group without using real
aggression.
C. It requires animals to abide by the rules or they will be excluded from the group.
D. It demonstrates that certain animals possess a large range of emotions.
6. Which of the following best summarizes the writers argument in the fourth paragraph?
A. There are different degrees of morality between various cultures.
B. Humans adopted moral behavior as a means of survival,
C. Groups benefit from social play more than individuals do.
D. Spirituality and morality are inseparable.
7. What does the writer state about the evolution of morality?
A. There may be a particular gene responsible for morality.
B. Moral development depends on physical hardships.
C. There is little point in seeking the origin of moral behavior.
D. Animals that behave fairly are more likely to breed.
8. In the final paragraph, according to the writer, people………….
A. must treat animals on equal terms with humans.
B. should be less arrogant in their view of themselves.
C. are more advanced as they use immorality to their advantage.
D. should discriminate between which animals display morality and those that do not.
9. The writer concludes that in our relations with nature as a whole, …………..
A. an open mind is of paramount importance
B. any exploitation should be dispensed with
C. bilateral responsibility is not always conducive to a long-standing relationship
D. virtue should be perceived with a new level of intricacy
10. “I am not putting the case forward for a specific gene for fair or moral
behavior” .
The sentence is extracted from somewhere in paragraph five. Where should this
sentence be located?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions. (13pts)
The sense of flavour
{A} Scientists now believe that human beings acquired the sense of taste as a way to
avoid being poisoned. Edible plants generally taste sweet; deadly ones, bitter. Taste is
supposed to help us differentiate food that’s good for us from food that’s not. The taste
buds on our tongues can detect the presence of half a dozen or so basic tastes, including
sweet, sour, bitter, salty, and umami (a taste discovered by Japanese researchers, a rich
and full sense of deliciousness triggered by amino acids in foods such as shellfish,
mushrooms, potatoes, and seaweed). Tastebuds offers a limited means of detection,
however, compared with the human olfactory system, which can perceive thousands of
different chemical aromas. Indeed, ‘flavor’ is primarily the smell of gases being released
by the chemicals you’ve just put in your mouth. The aroma of food can be responsible for
as much as 90% of its flavor.
{B} The act of drinking, sucking or chewing a substance releases its volatile gases. They
flow out of the mouth and up the nostrils, or up the passageway at the back of the mouth,
to a thin layer of nerve cells called the olfactory epithelium, located at the base of the
nose, right between the eyes. The brain combines the complex smell signals from the
epithelium with the simple taste signals from the tongue, assigns a flavor to what’s in your
mouth, and decides if it’s something you want to eat.
{C} Babies like sweet tastes and reject bitter ones; we know this because scientists have
rubbed various flavors inside the mouths of infants and then recorded their facial
reactions. A person’s food preferences, like his or her personality, are formed during the
first few years of life, through a process of socialization. Toddlers can learn to enjoy hot
and spicy food, bland health food, or fast food, depending upon what the people around
them eat. The human sense of smell is still not fully understood. It is greatly affected by
psychological factors and expectations. The mind filters out the overwhelming majority of
chemical aromas that surround us, focusing intently on some, ignoring others. People can
grow accustomed to bad smells or good smells; they stop noticing what once seemed
overpowering.
{D} Aroma and memory are somehow inextricably linked. A smell can suddenly evoke a
long-forgotten moment. The flavours of childhood foods seem to leave an indelible mark,
and adults often return to them, without always knowing why. These ‘comfort foods’
become a source of pleasure and reassurance a fact that fast-food chains work hard to
promote Childhood memories of Happy Meals can translate into frequent adult visits to
McDonald’s’, like those of the chain’s ‘heavy users’, the customers who eat there four or
five times a week.
{E} The human craving for flavour has been a large unacknowledged and unexamined
force in history. Royal empires have been built, unexplored lands have been traversed,
great religions and philosophies have been forever changed by the spice trade. In 1492,
Christopher Columbus set sail in order to try to find new seasonings and thus to make his
fortune with this most desired commodity of that time. Today, the influence of flavour in
the world marketplace is no less decisive. The rise and fall of corporate empires – soft-
drink companies, snack-food companies, and fast-food chains – is frequently determined
by how their products taste.
{F} The flavor industry emerged in the mid-1800s, as processed foods began to be
manufactured on a large scale. Recognizing the need for flavor additives, the early food
processors turned to perfume companies that had years of experience working with
essential oils and volatile aromas. The great perfume houses of England, France, and the
Netherlands produced many of the first flavor compounds. In the early part of the 20th
century, Germany’s powerful chemical industry assumed the lead in flavour production.
Legend has it that a German scientist discovered methyl anthranilate, one of the first
artificial flavours, by accident while mixing chemicals in his laboratory. Suddenly, the lab
was filled with the sweet smell of grapes. Methyl anthranilate later became the chief
flavoring compound of manufactured grape juice.
{G} The quality that people seek most of all in a food, its flavour, is usually present in a
quantity too infinitesimal to be measured by any traditional culinary terms such as ounces
or teaspoons. Today’s sophisticated spectrometers, gas chromatograph, and headspace
vapor analyzers provide a detailed map of a food’s flavour components, detecting
chemical aromas in amounts as low as one part per billion. The human nose, however, is
still more sensitive than any machine yet invented. A nose can detect aromas present in
quantities of a few parts per trillion. Complex aromas, such as those of coffee or roasted
meat, may be composed of gases from nearly a thousand different chemicals. The
chemical that provides the dominant flavour of bell pepper can be tasted in amounts as
low as 0.02 parts per billion; one drop is sufficient to add flavour to the amount of water
needed to fill five average-sized swimming pools
Questions 6-11: Complete the sentence below. Choose ONE word from the passage
for each answer.
It is thought that the sense of taste was 6 ………….. in order to 7 …………. the foods
which are harmless to us from those that are not 8 …………. .The sense of smell, which
gives us the flavour we detect in our food, helps us to take pleasure in our food. Indeed
this 9 ………….. for flavour was, in the past, the reason why so many explorers
ventured to distant lands to bring back new 10 …………… which were greatly sought
after in Europe. Here they were used in cooking to enhance the usual 11 …………. and
unappetizing dishes eaten by rich and poor alike.
Question 12-13: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage
for each answer.
12. We associate certain smells with the past as they are 12 ……………….
13. Modern technology is able to help determine the minute quantities of 13 …………..
found in food.
PRACTICE TEST 57
Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the
following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided on the answer sheet. (20 points)
26. People were amazed that the burglary took place in ______ daylight.
A. wide B. broad C. large D. open
27. I don’t like Anthony, he seems to take too much ______ in criticizing everyone.
A. joy B. fascination C. pleasure D. entertainment
28. My business was a ______ success in the 1980s and '90s, but the advent of the
Internet rendered my services obsolete.
A. roaring B. thunderous C. boisterous D. deafening
29. Add the essence ______ until the teaspoonful is beaten into the mixture.
A. drop by drop B. inch by inch C. leaf and leaf D. spot by spot
30. He looks very aggressive and threatening, and so his soft, gentle voice is rather
______.
A. disembodied D. discordant C. dismissive D. disconcerting
31. While she ______ through her maths exams, he struggled.
A. floated B. drifted C. sailed D. flew
32. Six novels a year, you say? - He’s certainly a ______ writer.
A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile D. prolific
33. 7. The Johnsons' house is old and damaged. Instead of fixing it, they've decided to
______ and build a new one on the same land.
A. rip it off B. tear it down C. split it up D. turn it down
 34. Mr. and Mrs. DeClerk are ______. They are too rich and proud to care about other
people.
A. indifferent B. vibrant C. swift D. arrogant
35. They rob someone on the street and they get ______ – thirty days in jail.
A. a pain in the neck B. a shot in the arm C. a leap in the dark D. a slap on the
wrist
36. ______ what most people say about him, he has a very good sense of humour.
A. Opposite to B. Against C. Contrary to D. Opposing
37. ______ a fire, hotel guests are asked to remain calm.
A. As a result of B. In the event of C. By reason of D. In the time
38. The lawyer claimed that the tests had been carried out by experienced scientists but
this is not necessarily ______.
A. so B. the way C. thus D. the method
39. There is no point in phoning him. He’s certain ______ by now.
A. to leave B. to have left C. left D. having left
40. It’s hard to believe that anyone would purposely harm a child, ______ of all its own
mother.
A. first B. least C. worst D. best
41. ______, I discovered that my stereo had been stolen.
A. On that looking into my car B. Looking into my car when I
C. When I look into my car D. On looking into my car
42. “What’s your proposal?” “I propose that the meeting ______. ”
A. is postponing B. to be postponed C. be postponed D. postponed
43. Your ideas, ______ seem unusual to me.
A. as hers B. like hers C. similar as hers D. different than
hers
44. Rarely ______ more than 50 miles from the coast.
A. redwood trees grow B. do redwood trees grow
C. redwood trees do grow D. grow redwood trees
45. The man ______ of the murder hasn’t been brought to trial yet.
A. suspect B. suspecting C. having suspected D. suspected
Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the following passage and decide which option (A, B,
C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes on the
answer sheet. (15 points)
MOUNTAIN RESCUE
Last year over 200 climbers were rescued from the mountains of Scotland alone by
local rescue teams, who go out in all weathers to do whatever they can to help when
disaster (66) ______. These people are volunteers, giving their time and energy freely
and, on occasion, putting themselves in danger. They will risk life and (67) ______ in an
emergency when they are called on to rescue foolhardy or unlucky climbers.
A whole (68) ______ of things can go wrong up in the mountains. A storm can (69)
______ up without warning, reducing visibility to virtually zero. Then only the most
experienced mountaineer could find their way back down to safety. And it is easy to come
to (70) ______, breaking a leg - or worse. Many climbers owe a huge (71) ______ of
gratitude to the rescue teams!
While rescue teams work for no pay, there are considerable costs (72) ______ in
maintaining an efficient service. Equipment such as ropes and stretchers is of (73) ______
importance, as are vehicles and radio communications devices. Though some of the costs
are (74) ______ by the government, the rescue teams couldn't operate without donations
from the public. Fortunately, fundraising for a good cause like this is not difficult; anyone
who has ever been up in the mountains will gladly (75) ______ a contribution.
66. A. hits B. rises C. strikes D. arrive
67. A. limb B. blood C. bone D. flesh
68. A. scope B. extent C. range D. scale
69. A. brew B. arise C. whip D. lash
70. A. agony B. trouble C. problem D. grief
71. A. recognition B. liability C. debt D. obligation
72. A. implied B. involved C. featured D. connected
73. A. lively B. vibrant C. essential D. vital
74. A. borne B. held C. carried D. fulfilled
75. A. make B. take C. do D. hand
Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and circle the best answer to
each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes
provided on the answer sheet. (15 points)
Early Autos
America's passion for the automobile developed rather quickly in the beginning of
twentieth century. At the turn of that century, there were few automobiles, or horseless
carriages, as they were called at the time, and those that existed were considered frivolous
playthings of the rich. They were rather fragile machines that sputtered and smoked and
broke down often; they were expensive toys that could not be counted on to get one where
one needed to go; they could only be afforded by the wealthy class, who could of both the
expensive upkeep and the inherent delays that resulted from the use of a machine that
tended to break down time and again. These early automobiles required repairs so
frequently both because their engineering was at an immature stage and because roads
were unpaved and often in poor condition. Then, when breakdowns occurred, there we no
services such as roadside gas stations or tow trucks to assist drivers needing help in their
predicament. Drivers of horse-drawn carriages considered the horseless mode of
transportation foolhardy, preferring instead to rely on their four-legged engines which
they considered a tremendously more dependable and cost-effective means of getting
around.
Automobiles in the beginning of the twentieth century were quite unlike today's
models. Many of them were electric cars, even though the electric models had quite a
limited range and needed to be recharged frequently at electric charging stations; many
others were powered by steam, though it was often required that drivers of steam cars be
certified steam engineers due to the dangers inherent in operating a steam-powered
machine. The early automobiles also lacked much emphasis on body design; in fact, they
were often little more than benches on wheels, though by the end of the first decade of
the century they had progressed to leather-upholstered chairs or sofas on thin wheels that
absorbed little of the incessant pounding associated with the movement of these
machines.
In spite of the rather rough and undeveloped nature of these early horseless carriages,
something about them grabbed people's imagination, and their use increased rapidly,
though not always smoothly. In the first decade of the last century, roads were shared by
the horse-drawn and homeless variety of carriages, a situation that was rife with problems
and required strict measures to control the incidents and accidents that resulted when two
such different modes of transportation were used in close proximity. New York City, for
example, banned horseless vehicles from Central Park early in the century because they
had been involved in so many accidents, often causing injury or death; then, in 1904, New
York state felt that it was necessary to control automobile traffic by placing speed limits
of 20 miles per hour in open areas, 15 miles per hour in villages, and 10 miles per hour in
cities or areas of congestion. However, the measures taken were less a means of limiting
use of the automobile and more a way of controlling the effects of an invention whose use
increased dramatically in a relatively short period of time. Under 5,000 automobiles were
sold in the United States for a total cost of approximately $5 million in 1900, while
considerably more cars, 181,000 were sold for $215 million in 1910, and by the middle of
the 1920s, automobile manufacturing had become the top industry in the United States
and accounted for 6 percent of the manufacturing in the country.

86. Based on the information in paragraph 1, who would have been most likely to own a
car in 1900?
A. a skilled laborer
B. a successful investor
C. a scholarship student
D. a rural farmer
87. The word “frivolous” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. trivial B. delicate C. essential D. natural
88. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that it was necessary to repair early autos because of
_______.
A. the elaborate engines B. the lack of roads
C. the immature drivers D. the rough roads
89. The author refers to “four-legged engines” in paragraph 1 in order to indicate that
_______.
A. early autos had little more than an engine and wheels
B. it was foolish to travel on a four-legged animal
C. horses were an effective mode of transportation
D. automobile engines were evaluated in terms of their horsepower
90. The phrase "many others" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. automobiles in the beginning of the twentieth century
B. today's models
C. electric models
D. electric charging stations
91. It is stated in paragraph 2 that the owners of steam-powered cars _______.
A. sometimes had to demonstrate knowledge of steam engineering
B. had to hire drivers to operate their cars
C. often had to take their automobiles to charging stations
D. were often in danger because of the limited range of their automobiles
92. Why does the author mention "benches on wheels" in paragraph 2?
A. To show how remarkably automobile design had progressed
B. To show that car designs of the time were neither complex nor comfortable
C. To indicate that early automobiles had upholstered chairs or sofas
D. To emphasize how the early automobiles were designed to absorb the pounding of
the machine on the road
93. The word "incessant" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. heavy B. bothersome C. jolting D. continual
94. The phrase “rife with" in paragraph 3 could be replaced by _______.
A. full of B. surrounded by
C. dangerous due to D. occurring as a result of
95. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that the government of New York state believed
that _______.
A. all horseless vehicles should be banned from all public parks
B. strict speed limits should be placed on horse-drawn carriages
C. horseless and horse-drawn vehicles should not travel on the same roads
D. it was safer for cars to travel faster where there was less traffic and there were fewer
people

Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the passage and do the following tasks. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
The History of Agriculture and Iron
A. There is evidence of agriculture in Africa prior to 3000 b.c. It may have developed
independently, but many scholars believe that the spread of agriculture and iron
throughout Africa linked it to the major centers of the Near East and Mediterranean
world. The drying up of what is now the Sahara desert had pushed many peoples to the
south into sub-Saharan Africa. These settled at first in scattered hunting and-gathering
bands, although in some places near lakes and rivers, people who fished, with a more
secure food supply, lived in larger population concentrations. Agriculture seems to have
reached these people from the Near East, since the first domesticated crops were millets
and sorghums whose origins are not African but West Asian. Once the idea of
planting diffused, Africans began to develop their own crops, such as certain varieties of
rice, and they demonstrated a continued receptiveness to new imports. The proposed areas
of the domestication of African crops lie in a band that extends from Ethiopia across
southern Sudan to West Africa. Subsequently, other crops, such as bananas, were
introduced from Southeast Asia.
B. Livestock also came from outside Africa. Cattle were introduced from Asia, as
probably were domestic sheep and goats. Horses were apparently introduced by the
Hyksos invaders of Egypt (1780-1560 b.c.) and then spread across the Sudan to West
Africa. Rock paintings in the Sahara indicate that horses and chariots were used to
traverse the desert and that by 300–200 b.c., there were trade routes across the Sahara.
Horses were adopted by peoples of the West African savannah, and later their powerful
cavalry forces allowed them to carve out large empires. Finally, the camel was introduced
around the first century a.d. This was an important innovation, because the camel’s ability
to thrive in harsh desert conditions and to carry large loads cheaply made it an effective
and efficient means of transportation. The camel transformed the desert from
a barrier into a still difficult, but more accessible, route of trade and communication.
C. Iron came from West Asia, although its routes of diffusion were
somewhat different than those of agriculture. Most of Africa presents a curious case in
which societies moved directly from a technology of stone to iron without passing
through the intermediate stage of copper or bronze metallurgy, although some early
copperworking sites have been found in West Africa. Knowledge of iron making
penetrated into the forests and savannahs of West Africa at roughly the same time that
iron making was reaching Europe. Evidence of iron making has been found in Nigeria,
Ghana, and Mali.
D. This technological shift caused profound changes in the complexity of African
societies. Iron represented power. In West Africa the blacksmith who made tools and
weapons had an important place in society, often with special religious powers and
functions. Iron hoes, which made the land more productive, and iron weapons, which
made the warrior more powerful, had symbolic meaning in a number of West African
societies. Those who knew the secrets of making iron gained ritual and sometimes
political power.
E. Unlike in the Americas, where metallurgy was a very late and limited development,
Africans had iron from a relatively early date, developing ingenious furnaces to produce
the high heat needed for production and to control the amount of air that reached the
carbon and iron ore necessary for making iron. Much of Africa moved right into the Iron
Age, taking the basic technology and adapting it to local conditions and resources.
F. The diffusion of agriculture and later of iron was accompanied by a great movement of
people who may have carried these innovations. These people probably originated in
eastern Nigeria. Their migration may have been set in motion by an increase in population
caused by a movement of peoples fleeing the desiccation, or drying up, of the Sahara.
They spoke a language, proto-Bantu (“bantu” means “the people”), which is the parent
tongue of a large number of Bantu languages still spoken throughout sub-Saharan Africa.
Why and how these people spread out into central and southern Africa remains a mystery,
but archaeologists believe that their iron weapons allowed them to conquer their hunting-
gathering opponents, who still used stone implements. Still, the process is uncertain, and
peaceful migration—or simply rapid demographic growth—may have also caused the
Bantu explosion.
Questions 96 - 101
The reading passage has six sections, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for sections A-F from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 96 - 101 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. The profound impact of the use of tools on society
ii. Trade in metal ore between continents begins
iii. The use of domestic animals for farming and travel
iv. How alloys like copper were created
v. One of the first continents to use metal
vi. The story of the development of metal tools
vii. How the first crops were introduced to Africa
viii. A nation using metal weapons to subdue their neighbours
ix. The drying of north Africa leading to the movement of people and the further spread
of metal technology across the continent
x. Metal working replacing the use of stone tools

96. Section …………………

A
97. Section B …………………
98. Section C …………………
99. Section …………………
D
100. Section …………………
E
101. Section …………………
F

PRACTICE TEST 58
Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the
following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on
the answer sheet.
26. Only a few companies were found to be in __________ with the new law.
A. submission B. obedience C. compliance D. fulfillment
27. It was a ____________ heart that she said goodbye to all her colleagues.
A. solemn B. grim C. heavy D. dismal
28. A meeting was held so that staff could ____________their views freely.
A. divulge B. vent C. utter D. air

29. Not even losing all the time could _____________ his enthusiasm for tennis.
A. recede B. dampen C. erode D. belittle
30. The brother and sister were ________ over who would get to inherit the beach house.
A. at large B. at odds
C. at a standstill D. at a loose end
31. ________ that Kim was getting married, we were sorry she’d be leaving home.
A. Delighted though we were B. As we were delighted
C. However delighted were we D. As we were so delighted
32. Peter’s so ________! I think he’d think things through a little more carefully.
A. impulsive B. repulsive C. compulsive D.
expulsive
33. I’ve yet ________ a person as Theo.
A. to meet as infuriating B. to have met such infuriating
C. been meeting as infuriating D. been meeting such infuriating
34. Sniffer dogs are able to locate survivors beneath the rubble with ________.
A. precision B. correctness C. meticulousness D.
exactitude
35. The locks to the doors of the building are controlled ________.
A. mainly B. centrally C. solidly D.
completely
36. I didn’t want to make a decision ____________, so I said I’d like to think about it.
A. in one go B. there and then C. at a stroke D.
on and off
37. She talked so fast, it is difficult getting a word in ____________!
A. edgeways B. halfway C. sideways D.
any way
38. They haven’t selected the candidates for an interview yet because there’s a ________
of applications.
 A. build-up B. back-up C. backlog D.
backing
39. Having never worked on a major newspaper before, he was all at ________ when he
first started.
A. loss B. water C. coast D. sea
40. A: “I’ve had a ________ pain in my side all day.”
B: “It’s probably indigestion.”
A. whimpering B. nagging C. pestering D.
muttering
41. It was predicted that business would be destroyed and the town’s economy would be
in _______.
A. tatters B. scraps C. segment D. fragments
42. Not only is little Jonny’s grammar incoherent and his spelling atrocious but also his
pronunciation __________.
A. hazard B. sluggish C. haphazard D.
slothful
43. The Prime Minister will decide whether to release the prisoner or not; that’s his
_________.
A. prerogative B. derogatory C. abdication D. humanity
44. The difference between your estimate and mine is just too small to mention. It makes
no sense to _________ about it.
A. chew the fat B. split hairs
C. talk shop D. brave the element
45. Toxic _____ disfigure black neighborhoods, degrade property values, and discourage
investment.
A. gatecrashers B. eyesores C. keystones D.
watersheds
Part 2. For questions 66-75, read the passage below and choose the answer A, B, C or
D that fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided on the answer sheet.
MACHIAVELLI and the ORIGINS of POLITICAL SCIENCE
Political science, the rational analysis of systems of government, their organization,
functions, and policies, first originated in the Western world with Niccolo Machiavelli, a
citizen of the Italian city state of Florence in the late 15th century.
At the time the only school of political thought was that of the Church, which was highly
idealistic and more concerned with theological musings and preserving the tenets of the
faith than in the practical operation of government. Machiavelli rejected this approach
arguing that stability and order were more important than moral considerations. It was,
therefore, justifiable for a ruler to use any means necessary to gain and maintain the
power necessary to establish order. According to Machiavelli, rulers should not be
constrained by traditional notions of morality and virtue. This gave rise to the famous
quote “The ends justify the means.” It is doubtful that Machiavelli ever actually uttered
these words, but they sum up his views accurately.
In his greatest work, the Prince, Machiavelli outlines the methods which a ruler should
employ to gain and maintain power by identifying the qualities an effective ruler must
possess. First a ruler must be willing to learn from and imitate the great rulers of the past.
When Machiavelli spoke of the great rulers of the past, he mostly meant the great Roman
emperors, whom he admired for their cunning and often ruthless application of power.
Second a ruler must be able to justify his rule to the public. Machiavelli claimed that no
ruler could achieve power and maintain stability unless the public saw that they were
better off with him than without him. A ruler also has to be a devoted student of the art of
war. Machiavelli saw warfare as an essential element of statecraft, and believed that the
ruler who had no skill in war was doomed. Machiavelli also claimed that a ruler must be
willing to cast away thoughts of morality and do whatever necessary to hold on to power,
including resorting to murder, corruption, and torture. Finally, Machiavelli claimed that a
ruler must never be hated. This seem hard to square with his advice regarding murder and
torture, but what Machiavelli meant was that even though a ruler must sometimes engage
in ruthless behavior, he must also maintain an outward façade of virtue.
Machiavelli’s views have always been controversial. The Church immediately
repudiated him and placed The Prince on its list of banned books. Despite this,
knowledge of his works spread throughout Europe and sparked a heated debate that
spawned the study we now know as political science. Jean Bodin a French political
theorist and around 50 years after Machiavelli supported his views. Bodin’s idea heavily
influenced by Machiavelli led to the theory of the divine right if kings and is
subsequent use to justify the rule of absolute monarchs in the 17 th century, and were
taken up by later political thinkers as well. In various forms, this theory has been used
to justify various forms of authoritarianism, from the dictatorship of Napoleon to the
fascist governments of Italy and Germany during World War II.
Giovanni Botero, however, strongly opposed Machiavelli’s ideas. He argued that the
system of government Machiavelli proposed simply did not work. In its place he
suggested that a ruler should behave more as if he had a contract with his subjects.
According to Botero, the power of a ruler rested on the consent of the people and he
should therefore rule justly. Botero’s refutation of Machiavelli’s ideas greatly influenced
later liberal political theorists such as John Locke and Adam Smith. Their ideas in turn
gave rise to the idea of the “power of the people”, which has inspired any number
revolutions, from the American Revolution to the communist revolutions of the 20 th
century. Thus, Machiavelli’s ideas helped to spark a debate that has colored nearly every
political theory since his time, the debate over whether power truly rests with the ruler or
the people.
66. According to paragraph 2, what did Machiavelli believe was the most important
functions of government?
A. The protection of the Christian Faith
B. The preservation of order and stability
C. The accumulation of greater power
D. The casting aside of traditional morality
67. The word “constrained” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. limited B. judged C. educated D. chosen
68. According to paragraph 3, all of the following are aspects of Machiavelli’s ideal
leader EXCEPT _________.
A. the willingness to commit immoral acts to hold on to power
B. knowledge of combat strategy and tactics
C. the ability to appear good even when committing cruel acts
D. the ability to rule even in the face of popular opposition
69. According to paragraph 3, Machiavelli admired the Roman emperors because
________.
A. they had conquered huge territories through war
B. they held on to power for long periods
C. they exemplified his idea of amoral rule
D. they had been willing to imitate great leaders before them
70. The word “repudiated” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. denounced B. convicted C. acknowledged D. punished
71. Why does the author discuss Jean Bodin and Giovanni Botero in paragraph 4 and 5?
A. To illustrate that Machiavelli’s ideas were discussed despite the Church’s ban on his
book.
B. To exemplify the divisions that Machiavelli’s ideas created in Italian society.
C. To introduce the effects that Machiavelli’s ideas had on later political thought.
D. To explain both the positive and negative effects of Machiavelli’s ideas.
72. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Bodin's ideas, borrowed from Machiavelli, were responsible for the claim that absolute
monarchs were divinities, an idea taken up by later political thinkers.
B. Bodin’s ideas, stemming from those of Machiavelli, led to the theories used to justify
tyrannical kings, and influenced later political thinkers.
C. Bodinj’s ideas were the same as those of Machiavelli concerning the divine right of
kings, and he influenced later political thinkers.
D. Machiavelli’s influence on Bodin and later political thinkers is seen in the Justification
of the absolute monarchs of the 17the century.
73. Based on the information in paragraphs 4 and 5, what can be inferred about
Machiavellian political theory?
A. It is not widely ascribed to in Catholic nations
B. It most often gains favor in autocratic governments
C. It was last used in fascist politics
D. Its study is banned in both democratic and communist nations
74. According to paragraph 5, what did Botero base his refutation of Machiavelli’s ideas
on?
A. The immorality of Machiavellian politics
B. The supremacy of human laws over natural law
C. The impracticality of Machiavellian politics
D. His preference for the theories of John Locke
75. The word “consent” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. consideration B. welfare C. agreement D. generosity
Part 3. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Why we need to protect polar bears
Polar bears are being increasingly threatened by the effects of climate change, but their
disappearance could have far-reaching consequences. They are uniquely adapted to the
extreme conditions of the Arctic Circle, where temperatures can reach -40°C. One reason
for this is that they have up to 11 centimeters of fat underneath their skin. Humans with
comparative levels of adipose tissue would be considered obese and would be likely to
suffer from diabetes and heart disease. Yet the polar bear experiences no such
consequences.
A 2014 study by Shi Ping Liu and colleagues sheds light on this mystery. They compared
the genetic structure of polar bears with that of their closest relatives from a warmer
climate, the brown bears. This allowed them to determine the genes that have allowed
polar bears to survive in one of the toughest environments on Earth. Liu and his
colleagues found the polar bears had a gene known as APoB, which reduces levels of
low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) – a form of ‘bad’ cholesterol. In humans, mutations of
this gene are associated with increased risk of heart disease. Polar bears may therefore be
an important study model to understand heart disease in humans.
The genome of the polar bear may also provide the solution for another condition, one
that particularly affects our older generation: osteoporosis. This is a disease where bones
show reduced density, usually caused by insufficient exercise, reduced calcium intake or
food starvation. Bone tissue is constantly being remodelled, meaning that bone is added
or removed, depending on nutrient availability and the stress that the bone is under.
Female polar bears, however, undergo extreme conditions during every pregnancy. Once
autumn comes around, these females will dig maternity dens in the snow and will remain
there throughout the winter, both before and after the birth of their cubs. This process
results in about six months of fasting, where the female bears have to keep themselves
and their cubs alive, depleting their own calcium and calorie reserves. Despite this, their
bones remain strong and dense.
Physiologists Alanda Lennox and Allen Goodship found an explanation for this paradox
in 2008. They discovered that pregnant bears were able to increase the density of their
bones before they started to build their dens. In addition, six months later, when they
finally emerged from the den with their cubs, there was no evidence of significant loss of
bone density. Hibernating brown bears do not have this capacity and must therefore resort
to major bone reformation in the following spring. If the mechanism of bone remodelling
in polar bears can be understood, many bedridden humans, and even astronauts, could
potentially benefit.
The medical benefits of the polar bear for humanity certainly have their importance in our
conservation efforts, but these should not be the only factors taken into consideration. We
tend to want to protect animals we think are intelligent and possess emotions, such as
elephants and primates. Bears, on the other hand, seem to be perceived as stupid and in
many cases violent. And yet anecdotal evidence from the field challenges those
assumptions, suggesting for example that polar bears have good problem-solving abilities.
A male bear called GoGo in Tennoji Zoo, Osaka, has even been observed making use of a
tool to manipulate his environment. The bear used a tree branch on multiple occasions to
dislodge a piece of meat hung out of his reach. Problem-solving ability has also been
witnessed in wild polar bears, although not as obviously as with GoGo. A calculated
move by a male bear involved running and jumping onto barrels in an attempt to get to a
photographer standing on a platform four metres high.
In other studies, such as one by Alison Ames in 2008, polar bears showed deliberate and
focused manipulation. For example, Ames observed bears putting objects in piles and
then knocking them over in what appeared to be a game. The study demonstrates that
bears are capable of agile and thought-out behaviours. These examples suggest bears have
greater creativity and problem-solving abilities than previously thought.
As for emotions, while the evidence is once again anecdotal, many bears have been seen
to hit out at ice and snow – seemingly out of frustration – when they have just missed out
on a kill. Moreover, polar bears can form unusual relationships with other species,
including playing with the dogs used to pull sleds in the Arctic. Remarkably, one hand-
raised polar bear called Agee has formed a close relationship with her owner Mark Dumas
to the point where they even swim together. This is even more astonishing since polar
bears are known to actively hunt humans in the wild.
If climate change were to lead to their extinction, this would mean not only the loss of
potential breakthroughs in human medicine, but more importantly, the disappearance of
an intelligent, majestic animal.

Questions 83-88. Complete the summary below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the
passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 83-88 on your answer sheet.
Reasons why polar bears should be protected
People think of bears as unintelligent and 83._________
However, this may not be correct. For example:
- In Tennoji Zoo, a bear has been seen using a branch as a 84._________. This allowed
him to knock down some 85._________ .
- A wild polar bear worked out a method of reaching a platform where a 86._________
was located.
- Polar bears have displayed behaviour such as conscious manipulation of objects and
activity similar to a 87._________.
Bears may also display emotions. For example:
- They may make movements suggesting 88._________ if disappointed when hunting.
- They may form relationships with other species.

PRACTICE TEST 59
Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the
following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided on the answer sheet. (20 points)
26. Unfortunately, Jamie’s plans to tour around Australia didn’t _______ due to a lack of
finances.
A. pan out B. pull off C. knuckle down D. waltz through
27. If you are given a ________ anaesthetic during an operation, you are still aware of
what is going on around you.
A. local B. tropical C. varied D. released
28. Insurance companies had to ________ ￡10 million in storm damage claims.
A. dip in B. rip off C. bail out D. cough up
29. The well-known ________ clash between the President and the rebel leader is not
making things easier.
A. character B. mood C. enemy D. personality
30. Their ________ religious beliefs were of great comfort in troubled times.
A. age-long B. long-gone C. strongly-held D. time-honored
31. They are a real ________ organization; they are only interested in making a profit.
A. devil-may-care B. fly-by-night C. open-handed D. down-to-earth
32. Although he came to work the day before his retirement, everyone knew he was just
________.
 A. going with the flow B. going through the motions
C. going against the grain D. going along with them
33. She was ________ away from the company with promises of better terms and
conditions from a rival firm.
A. enhanced B. enticed C. manipulated D. raided
34. Lawrence suggested ________ ourselves at the beginning of the long project in order
to avoid exhaustion.
A. pacing B. rushing C. plodding D. racing
35. All three siblings agreed to ________ their resources in order to start their new
business venture.
A. fuse B. blend C. mingle D. pool
36. Although citizen-centered schemes involve residents in debates, full political
________ is kept by local councilors and MPs.
A. autonomy B. autarchy C. autocracy D. authority
37. Our guests are from a _______ of society and so should reflect most point of views.
A. cross-section B. cross-fire C. cross-purpose D. cross-reference
38. Mr Jones is _______, unfortunately, so you’ll have to call again tomorrow.
A. indifferent B. inimitable C. indisposed D.
incongruous
39. The only room available was, to say the least, _______. There was no carpet, no
curtains, and the only furniture was a bed and a small beside table.
A. snug B. dreary C. stark D. cushy
40. My daughter has a very sunny ________, unlike my son who is often moody and
uncommunicative.
A. behavior B. condition C. disposition D. nurture
41. I’m in a real ________ and I just don’t know what to do.
A. dilemma B. paradox C. query D. hunch
42. The Minister was accused of ________ the truth.
A. distorting B. revising C. reforming D. shifting
43. Lionel Messi was ________ over his team’s victory against Brazil.
A. delighted B. ecstatic C. jubilant D. blissful
44. Something’s ________ up, so I’m afraid I won’t be able to make it this afternoon.
A. shown B. pulled C. cropped D. cut
45. We don’t want him to suspect we’re giving him a surprise party. Make sure you don’t
____________.
A. break the ice B. kick the bucket C. spill the beans D. sweep the board
Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the following passage and decide which option (A, B,
C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes on
the answer sheet. (15 points)
Despite the continued 66.________ of those early town perks, it wasn't until the
Depression that modern Hershey started to take shape. Perhaps the only town in the
country actually to 67_________ during the 1930s, it thrived because Hershey vowed his
Utopia would never see a breadline. lnstead he 68_________ a massive building boom
that gave rise to the most visited buildings in today's Hershey and delivered wages to
more than 600 workers. He admitted that his 69____________ were partly selfish: "lf I
don't provide work for them, I'll have to feed them. And since building materials are now
at their lowest cost levels, I'm going to build and give them jobs."
He seems to have 70__________ no expense; most of the new buildings were strikingly
471________. The first to be finished was the three-million-dollar limestone Community
Center, home to the 1,904-seat Venetian-style Hershey Community Theater, which has
played 72______ since 1933 to touring Broadway shows and to music, dance, and opera
performances. lt offers just as much to look at when the lights are on and the curtains
closed. The floors in the 73_________ named Grand Lobby are polished ltalian lava rock,
surrounded by marble walls and capped with a bas-relief ceiling showing sheaves of
wheat, beehives, swans, and scenes from Roman mythology. With the 74________ inner
foyer, Hershey thumbed his nose even harder at the ravages of the Depression: The
arched ceiling is tiled in gold, the fire curtain bears a painting of Venice, and the ceiling is
75_______with 88 tiny lightbulbs to re-create a star-lit night.
46. A. flexibility B. rigidity C. elasticity D. resilience
47. A. prosper B. decline C. get on D. flower
48. A. trusted B. funded C. accounted D. stocked
49. A. pretensions B. objections C. preoccupation D. intentions
50. A. spared B. spent C. allowed D. justified
51. A. impoverished B. unattractive C. poor D. opulent
52. A. hosting B. housing C. host D.
homogeneously
53. A. aptly B. inappropriately C. seemingly D. frightfully
54. A. dizzying B. gaudy C. dazzling D. bland
55. A. holed B. studded C. supported D. magnified
Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and circle the best answer to
each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes
provided on the answer sheet. (15 points)
The Human Immune System
The human immune system is composed of both an innate and an adaptive immune
system. First, humans have an innate immune system that is intrinsic in all organisms, and
it functions particularly through establishing biological barriers and creating biochemical
reactions that immediately respond with a maximal effort in order to destroy infectious
microbes. [A] Second, humans have an adaptive immune system, which can only be found
in vertebrates with jaws. [B] The adaptive immune system gains an immunological memory
from previously encountered germs, so it is able to prevent these specific microbes from
causing further infection. [C] With these dual capacities of fighting infection and acquiring
resistance to germs, humans can maximize their immunity. [D]
A person’s innate immune system has many complex barriers and biochemical
reactions designed to ward off infections. The most visible one is the skin, which keeps
most bacteria, fungi, and viruses from ever entering the body, but humans also have mucus,
which traps germs that reside in the body’s tissue. In addition to such biological material,
there are other internal barriers like gastric acids, tears, saliva, urine, and various chemicals
that either destroy or flush out germs. Even involuntary functions like sneezing and
coughing are barriers that serve to expel germs. Beyond these, there are biochemical
reactions that come from leukocytes, which are found in the blood. Leukocytes are white
blood cells that effectively clear out cellular debris, create inflammation near an infection,
summon immune cells to the inflammation, activate several other chemical reactions, and
even destroy tumors. However, perhaps the most important action these cells perform is
activating a human’s adaptive immune system, which is essential in not only curing current
diseases but also preventing future infections.
With an adaptive immune system, cells learn how to best combat pathogens and
develop a higher resistance to them. Like the innate immune system, this involves chemical
reactions and cellular cooperation. Unlike the innate immune system, this system doesn’t
respond very quickly or with its full strength all at once. Instead, it uses its time and energy
to provide cells with an immunological memory to the pathogens they encounter, making
them more resistant to recurring infections (similarly to how a vaccination works). Certain
white blood cells called T-cells are the principal actors in this system; these identify “self”
cells with the same DNA and distinguish them from any foreign cells with different DNA.
After this, they seek and destroy these foreign cells, whether they are invading microbes or
infected host cells. T-cells also mediate the responses from the innate and adaptive immune
systems so that the body can effectively exterminate the infection.
After destroying infectious cells, the body uses B-cells to develop antibodies, or
specialized proteins that prevent future infections. A B-cell is designed to connect with an
individual type of antigen created by an infectious cell. The B-cell uses this antigen to
produce antibodies that seek out and neutralize infectious bacteria, fungi, and viruses.
However, the most important process comes after the infection disappears: these B-cells
will duplicate, and their progeny will manufacture the same antibodies. Thus, the body will
constantly produce antibodies that successfully fight off a specific infection, and the body
can successfully fight off any subsequent infections from this pathogen. In addition to this,
B-cells also mark antigens for leukocytes to attack, thus making them and microbes easier
targets for the biochemical reaction.
An interesting feature of the human immune system is how it affects infants both
before and after birth. When babies are first born, they do not have very many previously
formed antibodies, so they have a greater risk of infection than adults do. However, they
ward off many infections by temporarily obtaining the mother’s antibodies from breast milk
and nutrients passed through the placenta. Also interesting is the very inception of the fetus
among such an aggressive immune system: somehow, the fetus, which doesn’t have its
mother’s exact DNA, is ignored by the mother’s T-cells and B-cells. Scientists currently
have a few theories about this phenomenon. For instance, the uterus may not be monitored
by white blood cells, or it may produce special proteins that suppress any local immune
responses. Nonetheless, the fact that the immune system restrains its programming for
reproductive development continues to puzzle many scientists.
86. The word intrinsic in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. fundamental B. auxiliary C. detrimental D. extraordinary
87. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C], or [D] best indicates where in
the paragraph the sentence ‘However, this particular action never changes to counter
specific threats of infection’ can be inserted?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
88. According to passage 2, which bodily fluid initiates biochemical reactions in a
human’s innate immune system?
A. urine B. blood C. saliva D. tears
89. The word mediate in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. interrupt B. magnify C. contemplate D. coordinate
90. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can be inferred about the adaptive
immune system?
 A. Because it takes so long to act, it is less effective in purging infectious cells than the
innate immune system.
B. Even though it takes longer to act, it is more effective in long term immunity than
the innate immune system.
C. Because humans already have an innate immune system, this system is unnecessary
and only used as a substitute.
D. It works differently from the innate immune system, so the two are completely
independent of one another.
91. The word progeny in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. willingness B. mechanism C. offspring D. mutation
92. According to paragraph 4, what do B-cells produce?
A. antigens B. antibodies C. leukocytes D.
pathogens
93. The word inception in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. conception B. invulnerability C. contamination D. consumption
94. According to paragraph 5, where do newborn babies get most of their antibodies?
A. from their own white blood cells B. from immune cells in the uterus
C. from mucus and other barriers D. from breast milk and the placenta
95. Based on the information in paragraph 5, what can be inferred about how the
mother’s immune system should scientifically be affecting the fetus?
A. It should protect the fetus from infection.
B. It should help develop cells in the fetus.
C. It should be attacking foreign fetal cells.
D. It should be exposing the fetus to microbes.

Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the passage and do the following tasks. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
THE SWIFFER
For a fascinating tale about creativity, look at a cleaning product called the Swiffer
and how it came about, urges writer Jonah Lehrer. In the story of the Swiffer, he argues,
we have the key elements in producing breakthrough ideas: frustration, moments of
insight and sheer hard work. The story starts with a multinational company which had
invented products for keeping homes spotless, and couldn't come up with better ways to
clean floors, so it hired designers to watch how people cleaned. Frustrated after hundreds
of hours of observation, they one day noticed a woman do with a paper towel what people
do all the time: wipe something up and throw it away. An idea popped into lead designer
Harry West's head: the solution to their problem was a floor mop with a disposable
cleaning surface. Mountains of prototypes and years of teamwork later, they unveiled the
Swiffer, which quickly became a commercial success.
Lehrer, the author of Imagine, a new book that seeks to explain how creativity
works, says this study of the imagination started from a desire to understand what
happens in the brain at the moment of sudden insight. 'But the book definitely spiralled
out of control,' Lehrer says. 'When you talk to creative people, they'll tell you about the
'eureka' moment, but when you press them they also talk about the hard work that comes
afterwards, so I realised I needed to write about that, too. And then I realised I couldn't
just look at creativity from the perspective of the brain, because it's also about the culture
and context, about the group and the team and the way we collaborate.'
 When it comes to the mysterious process by which inspiration comes into your head
as if from nowhere, Lehrer says modern neuroscience has produced a 'first draft'
explanation of what is happening in the brain. He writes of how burnt-out American
singer Bob Dylan decided to walk away from his musical career in 1965 and escape to a
cabin in the woods, only to be overcome by a desire to write. Apparently 'Like a Rolling
Stone' suddenly flowed from his pen. 'It's like a ghost is writing a song,' Dylan has
reportedly said. 'It gives you the song and it goes away.' But it's no ghost, according to
Lehrer.
Instead, the right hemisphere of the brain is assembling connections between past
influences and making something entirely new. Neuroscientists have roughly charted this
process by mapping the brains of people doing word puzzles solved by making sense of
remotely connecting information. For instance, subjects are given three words - such as 'age',
'mile' and 'sand' - and asked to come up with a single word that can precede or follow each of
them to form a compound word. (It happens to be 'stone'.) Using brain-imaging equipment,
researchers discovered that when people get the answer in an apparent flash of insight, a
small fold of tissue called the anterior superior temporal gyrus suddenly lights up just
beforehand. This stays silent when the word puzzle is solved through careful analysis. Lehrer
says that this area of the brain lights up only after we've hit the wall on a problem. Then the
brain starts hunting through the 'filing cabinets of the right hemisphere' to make the
connections that produce the right answer.
Studies have demonstrated it's possible to predict a moment of insight up to eight
seconds before it arrives. The predictive signal is a steady rhythm of alpha waves emanating
from the brain's right hemisphere, which are closely associated with relaxing activities. 'When
our minds are at ease-when those alpha waves are rippling through the brain - we're more
likely to direct the spotlight of attention towards that stream of remote associations emanating
from the right hemisphere,' Lehrer writes. 'In contrast, when we are diligently focused, our
attention tends to be towards the details of the problems we are trying to solve.' In other words,
then we are less likely to make those vital associations. So, heading out for a walk or lying
down are important phases of the creative process, and smart companies know this. Some now
have a policy of encouraging staff to take time out during the day and spend time on things
that at first glance are unproductive (like playing a PC game), but day-dreaming has been
shown to be positively correlated with problem-solving. However, to be more imaginative,
says Lehrer, it's also crucial to collaborate with people from a wide range of backgrounds
because if colleagues are too socially intimate, creativity is stifled.
Creativity, it seems, thrives on serendipity. American entrepreneur Steve Jobs believed
so. Lehrer describes how at Pixar Animation, Jobs designed the entire workplace to maximise
the chance of strangers bumping into each other, striking up conversations and learning from
one another. He also points to a study of 766 business graduates who had gone on to own their
own companies. Those with the greatest diversity of acquaintances enjoyed far more success.
Lehrer says he has taken all this on board, and despite his inherent shyness, when he's sitting
next to strangers on a plane or at a conference, forces himself to initiate conversations. As for
predictions that the rise of the Internet would make the need for shared working space
obsolete, Lehrer says research shows the opposite has occurred; when people meet face-to-
face, the level of creativity increases. This is why the kind of place we live in is so important to
innovation. According to theoretical physicist Geoffrey West, when corporate institutions get
bigger, they often become less receptive to change. Cities, however, allow our ingenuity to
grow by pulling huge numbers of different people together, who then exchange ideas.
Working from the comfort of our homes may be convenient, therefore, but it seems we need
the company of others to achieve our finest 'eureka' moments.
For questions 101-105, complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the
passage for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box
provided.
HOW OTHER PEOPLE INFLUENCE OUR CREATIVITY
 Steve Jobs: made changes to the (101)__________ to encourage interaction at
Pixar.
 Lehrer: company owners must have a wide range of (102)__________ to do well.
it’s important to start (103)__________ with new people
the (104)__________ has not replaced the need for physical contact.
 Geoffrey West: living in (105)__________ encourages creativity.

PRACTICE TEST 60
Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the
following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (20 points)
26. Google is the first major company to ______ refuse China’s demands for control.
A. blissfully [Link] C. steadfastly D. woefully
27. Although it takes quite a bit of time at the begginning, once you have acquired the
basic knowledge, a quick learner like you will surely ______.
A. forge ahead B. plunge ahead C. plough ahead D. press ahead
28. Do you think it’s better to ______ your anger than to supress it?
A. assert B. repress C. arouse D. vent
29. Breaking his leg dealt a ______ to his chances of becoming a professional footballer.
A. thump B. strike C. blow D. hit
30. I don’t know ______ the new manager.
A. what to get B. what to make of C. how to get of D. how
to make of
31. Jenny decided to draw a line ______ her recent breakup and move on.
A. at B. under C. over D. with
32. It’s hard to believe that so many completely untrue stories are spread on social media.
We are living in an era where ______ information is more credible than fact.
A. full- scale B. low-key C. post-true D. short-lived
33. I only asked to move her car but she made such a(n) ______ about it.
[Link] and dance B. short and [Link] and dried D. open and shut
34. 25 people have replied to the invitation, but I’ve ______ and put out 30 chairs.
A. teetered on the brink B. erred on the side of caution
C. been on a zaror’s edge D. been in the teeth
35. She’s a bit down in the ________ at the moment – her husband has just lost his job.
A. world B. bottom C. heart D. dumps
36. The company cannot accept_________for injuries resulting from improper use of
rental equipment
A. validity B. liability C. compensation D. privilege
37. You’ll just have to _________ yourself to the fact that you can’t always have what
you want.
A. acknowledge B. concede C. allow D. reconcile
38. A whole _______ of measures was tried in an attempt to get them to give up
cigarettes.
A. battery B. wood C. generation D. stream
39. Only the most basic and essential facts are required, stop adding more information,
you are making _______ of the presentation, Emily!
A. a song B. a dish C. a meal D. a scale
40. _______ tests assume that individuals have instrinc talents and limitations as well as a
natural predisposition toward success or failure in various areas based on their innate
qualities.
A. Achievement B. Perception C. Acumen D. Aptitude
41. If you dare to go against everyone’s expectations, you will be _______.
A. off for it B. for one C. for it D. off and on
42. Jason has _______ a fantastic job with one of our top newpapers.
A. earned B. launched C. won D. landed
43. Despite dismal failures in the past, James still _______ his ambitions of playing
professional soccer.
A. nurses B. cradles C. breeds D. rears
44. As a man with an eye for neatness around the place, Tom always ensured that things
were _______.
A. hale and hearty B. spick and span C. bright and breezy D. short and sweet
45. The books are a good cover to cover read for the recommended age group, with
enough detail to ________ the imagination of inquiring young minds.
A. incense B. foment C. kindle D. pique
Part 2. For questions 66-75, read the passage below and choose the answer A, B, C or
D that fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corrresponding
numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
LEARNING TO RUN
An article published recently in the prestigious scientific journal Nature is shedding
new light on an important, but hitherto little appreciated, aspect of human evolution. In
this article, Professors Dennis Bramble and Daniel Lieberman suggest that the ability to
run was a crucial factor in the development of our species. According to the two
scientists, humans possess a number of anatomical features that make them surprisingly
good runners. ‘We are very confident that strong selection for running (A) ____was
instrumental in the origin of the modern human body form,’ says Bramble, a biology
professor at the University of Utah. Traditional thinking up to now has been that the
distinctive, upright body form of modern humans has come about as a result of the ability
to walk, and that running is simply a by-product of walking.
Furthermore, humans have usually been regarded as poor runners compared to such
animals as dogs, horses or antelopes. However, this is only true if we consider fast
running, or sprinting, over short distances. Even an Olympic athlete can hardly run as fast
as a horse can gallop, and can only keep up a top speed for fifteen seconds or so. Horses,
antelopes and greyhounds, on the other hand, can run at top speed for several minutes,
clearly outperforming us in this respect. But when it comes to long-distance running,
humans do astonishingly well (B)_____ They can maintain a steady pace for miles, and
their overall speed compares favourably with that of horses or dogs.
Bramble and Lieberman examined twenty-six anatomical features found in humans.
One of the most interesting of these is the nuchal ligament, a band of tissue that extends
from a ridge on the base of the skull to the spine. When we run, it is this ligament that
prevents our head from pitching back and forth or from side to side. Therefore, we are
able to run with steady heads, held high. The nuchal ligament (C)_____is not found in
any other surviving primates, although the fossil record shows that Homo erectus, an
early human species that walked upright, much as we do, also had one. Then there are our
Achilles tendons at the backs of our legs, which connect our calf muscles to our heel
bones - and which have nothing to do with walking. When we run, these behave like
springs, helping to propel us forward. Furthermore, we have low, wide shoulders,
virtually disconnected from our skulls, an anatomical adaptation which allows us to run
more efficiently. Add to this our light forearms, which swing out of phase with the
movement of our legs to assist balance, and one begins to appreciate the point that
Bramble and Lieberman are trying to make.
But what evolutionary advantage is gained from being good long-distance runners?
One hypothesis is that this ability may have permitted early humans to obtain food more
effectively. ‘What these features and fossil facts appear to be telling us is that running
evolved in order for our direct ancestors to compete with other carnivores for access to
the protein needed to grow the big brains that we enjoy today,’ says Lieberman. Some
scientists speculate that early humans may have pursued animals for miles in order to
exhaust them before killing them. Running would also have conferred an advantage
before weapons were invented: early humans might have been scavengers, eating the
meat and marrow left over from a kill by lions or other large predators. They may have
been alerted to the existence of a freshly-killed carcass by vultures (D)____, and the faster
they got to the scene of the kill, the better.
‘Research on the history of human locomotion has traditionally been contentious,’
says Lieberman. ’At the very least, I hope this theory will make many people have second
thoughts about how humans learned to run and walk and why we are built the way we
are.’
66. According to the text, the human ability to run ________
A. was only recently described in a scientific journal.
B. is now regarded as more important than the ability to climb trees.
C. played an important part in human evolution.
D. is surprising when we consider evolutionary trends.
67. According to the text, scientists used to believe ________
A. that the human body owes its form to the ability to walk.
B. the human ability to walk adversely affected the ability to run.
C. that only modern humans could walk upright.
D. that humans can run because they stand upright.
68. According to the text, humans________
A. are better runners than most other animals. B. are not good at running short
distances.
C. cannot run at top speed for long distances. D. compare unfavourably with horses
and dogs.
69. It appears that the nuchal ligament________
A. is found only in modern primates. B. is associated with the ability to run.
C. prevents the head from moving D. is a unique anatomical feature.
70. The text implies that________
A. we do not need calf muscles in order to walk.
 B. without shoulders we could not run very fast.
C. the movement of our forearms is out of phase.
D. our Achilles tendons are an adaptation for running.
71. The pronoun “these” in the third paragraph refers to________
A. legs B. tendons C. muscles D. bones
72. According to the text, early humans________
A. killed animals by exhausting them. B. may have evolved big brains for
running.
C. competed with other animals for food. D. could probably run before they
could walk.
73. Professor Lieberman hopes to________
A. dispel any remaining doubts about the nature of the human body.
B. prove conclusively that humans did not always walk in an upright position.
C. make people reconsider previously-held ideas about human anatomy.
D. inform people of the real reason why humans are able to run and walk.
74. Which of the following spaces can the relative clause “- which came at the expense
of the historical ability to live in trees -” fit?
A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D)
75. The word “conferred” in the fourth paragraph can be best replaced by________.
A. give out B. bring about C. refer to D. make out
Part 3. For questions 76-88, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
(13 points)
A
Since 1901, the Nobel Prize has been honoring men and women from all corners of the
globe for outstanding achievements in physics, chemistry, medicine, literature, and for
work in peace. The foundations for the prize were laid in 1895 when Alfred Nobel wrote
his last will, leaving much of his wealth to the establishment of the Nobel Prize.
B
Alfred Nobel was born in Stockholm on October 21, 1833. His father Immanuel Nobel
was an engineer and inventor who built bridges and buildings in Stockholm. In
connection with his construction work, Immanuel Nobel also experimented with different
techniques for blasting rocks. Successful in his industrial and business ventures,
Immanuel Nobel was able, in 1842, to bring his family to St. Petersburg. There, his sons
were given a first-class education by private teachers. The training included natural
sciences, languages and literature. By the age of 17, Alfred Nobel was fluent in Swedish,
Russian, French, English and German. His primary interests were in English literature and
poetry as well as in chemistry and physics. Alfred’s father, who wanted his sons to join
his enterprise as engineers, disliked Alfred’s interest in poetry and found his son rather
introverted.
C
In order to widen Alfred’s horizons, his father sent him abroad for further training in
chemical engineering. During a two year period, Alfred Nobel visited Sweden, Germany,
France and the United States. In Paris, the city he came to like best, he worked in the
private laboratory of Professor T. J. Pclouze, a famous chemist. There he met the young
Italian chemist Ascanio Sobrero who, three years earlier, had invented nitroglycerine, a
highly explosive liquid. But it was considered too dangerous to be of any practical use.
Although its explosive power greatly exceeded that of gunpowder, the liquid would
explode in a very unpredictable manner if subjected to heat and pressure. Alfred Nobel
became very interested in nitroglycerine and how it could be put to practical use in
construction work. He also realized that the safety problems had to be solved and a
method had to be developed for the controlled detonation of nitroglycerine.
D
After his return to Sweden in 1863, Alfred Nobel concentrated on developing
nitroglycerine as an explosive. Several explosions, including one (1864) in which his
brother Emil and several other persons were killed, convinced the authorities that
nitroglycerine production was exceedingly dangerous. They forbade further
experimentation with nitroglycerine within the Stockholm city limits and Alfred Nobel
had to move his experimentation to a barge anchored on Lake Malaren. Alfred was not
discouraged and in 1864 he was able to start mass production of nitroglycerine. To make
the handling of nitroglycerine safer Alfred Nobel experimented with different additives.
He soon found that mixing nitroglycerine with kieselguhr would turn the liquid into a
paste which could be shaped into rods of a size and form suitable for insertion into
drilling holes. In 1867 he patented this material under the name of dynamite. To be able to
detonate the dynamite rods he also invented a detonator (blasting cap) which could be
ignited by lighting a fuse. These inventions were made at the same time as the pneumatic
drill came into general use. Together these inventions drastically reduced the cost of
blasting rock, drilling tunnels, building canals and many other forms of construction
work.
E
The market for dynamite and detonating caps grew very rapidly and Alfred Nobel also
proved himself to be a very skillful entrepreneur and businessman. Over the years he
founded factories and laboratories in some 90 different places in more than 20 countries.
Although he lived in Paris much of his life he was constantly traveling. When he was not
traveling or engaging in business activities Nobel himself worked intensively in his
various laboratories, first in Stockholm and later in other places. He focused on the
development of explosives technology as well as other chemical inventions including
such materials as synthetic rubber and leather, artificial silk, etc. By the time of his death
in 18%, he had 355 patents.
F
Intensive work and travel did not leave much time for private life. At the age of 43, he
was feeling like an old man. At this time he advertised in a newspaper “Wealthy, highly-
educated elderly gentleman seeks the lady of mature age, versed in languages, as
secretary and supervisor of household.” The most qualified applicant turned out to be an
Austrian woman, Countess Bertha Kinsky. After working a very short time for Nobel she
decided to return to Austria to marry Count Arthur von Suttner. In spite of this Alfred
Nobel and Bertha von Suttner remained friends and kept writing letters to each other for
decades. Over the years Bertha von Suttner became increasingly critical of the arms race.
She wrote a famous book, Lay Down Your Arms and became a prominent figure in the
peace movement. No doubt this influenced Alfred Nobel when he wrote his final will
which was to include a Prize for persons or organizations who promoted peace. Several
years after the death of Alfred Nobel, the Norwegian Storting (Parliament) decided to
award the 1905 Nobel Peace Prize to Bertha von Suttner.
G
Alfred Nobel died in San Remo, Italy, on December 10, 1896. When his will was opened
it came as a surprise that his fortune was to be used for Prizes in Physics, Chemistry,
Physiology or Medicine, Literature and Peace. The executors of his will were two young
engineers, Ragnar Sohlman and Rudolf Lilljequist. They set about forming the Nobel
Foundation as an organization to take care of the financial assets left by Nobel for this
purpose and to coordinate the work of the Prize-Awarding Institutions. This was not
without its difficulties since the will was contested by relatives and questioned by
authorities in various countries.
H
Alfred Nobel’s greatness lay in his ability to combine the penetrating mind of the scientist
and inventor with the forward-looking dynamism of the industrialist. Nobel was very
interested in social and peace-related issues and held what were considered radical views
in his era. He had a great interest in literature and wrote his own poetry and dramatic
works. The Nobel Prizes became an extension and a fulfillment of his lifetime interests.
For questions 76-82, decide whether the following statements are True (T), False (F) or
Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
In boxes 76-81 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
76. The first Nobel Prize was awarded in 1895.
77. Nobel’s father wanted his son to have a better education than what he had had.
78. Nobel was an unsuccessful businessman.
79. Bertha von Suttner was selected by Nobel himself for the first peace prize.
80. The Nobel Foundation was established after the death of Nobel
81. Nobel’s social involvement was uncommon in the 1800s.
For questions 82-88, complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS from the passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided
Education:
Having accumulated a great fortune in his business, Nobel’s father determined to give his
son the best education and sent him abroad to be trained in 82______ during Nobel’s
study in Paris, he worked in a private laboratory, where he came in contact with a young
engineer 83______ and his invention nitroglycerine, a more powerful explosiven than
84______
Benefits in construction works:
Nobel became really interested in this new explosive and experimented on it. But
nitroglycerine was too dangerous and was banned for experiments within the city
of 85______. So Nobel had to move his experiments to a lake. To make nitroglycerine
easily usable, Nobel invented dynamite along with 86______ while in the
meantime 87______ became popular, all of which dramatically lowered the 88______ of
construction works.
PRACTICE TEST 61
Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which
best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
26. Companies are joining forces with governments in Africa to ________ regional
campaigns against malaria.
A. fabricate B. originate C. mount D. produce
27. The authorities have ________ their original decision to allow development of this
rural area.
A. dispensed B. detached C. refrained D. revoked
28. The integrity of a marine ecosystem could be ________ due to the impact of coastal
reclamation.
A. compromised B. conceded C. conciliated D. confronted
29. I don’t like turning down work, but I will have to, I am afraid. I’ve far too much
_______ at the moment.
A. up my sleeve B. on my plate C. on my mind D. in effect
30. John will never buy you a drink- he’s far too _______
A. tight-fisted B. pigheaded C. highly strung D. easy going
[Link] a few drops of this liquid would present a _________ dose for a small child.
A. mortal B. terminal C. killing D. lethal
32. Can you recite the alphabet ________?
A. around B. reverse C. backwards D. returned
33. The damage was far more serious than ________ believed.
A. primarily B. initially C. precedingly D. prior
34.__________ a teacher in New England, Webster wrote the Dictionary of the American
language.
A. It was while B. When C. When was D. While
35. By no stretch of imagination____________
A. the trip was described as relaxing B. the trip be described to be relaxing
C. could thee trip be described as relaxing D. did the trip describe as relaxed
36. _________, creative interests are are put to one side as we struggle with our academic
subjects.
A. As often happens with young people B. Often happening with young people
C. Often does it happen to young people D. Only happening to young people
37. _________ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The star as small
C. As the small stars D. Despite the small stars
38.________ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system is not
surprising to me.
A. The earth being B. The earth is C. That the earth is D. Being the
earth
39. This shirt is__________ that one
A. much far expensive than B. a bit less expensive
C. as much expensive as D. not nearly as expensive as
40. ________ a man of genius could pass the exam with high distinction.
A. None short of B. Far from C. Nothing near D. None but
41. _________ everything else, his heart always came back to her.
A. Concentrated though he grew on B. Concentrate as much as he might on
C. Concentrate as he might on D. Concentrate may he on
42. A: “Did you enjoy the movie?” B: “No, I __________home”
A. would rather to have stayed B. had better stay
C. had rather be staying D. would sooner have stayed
43. It rained every day of our holiday – but we had a good time_______
A. despite that B. all the same C. Even though D. in contrast
44. During the earthquake, the land dropped ________ down to the rocky shore.
A. precipitously B. immaculately C. categorically D. unequivocally
45. The candidate _________ nervously up and down waiting to be called for the
interview.
A. marched B. paced C. strutted D. plodded
Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or
D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (15 pts)
THE MYSTERIOUS ISLE
In the early morning of 23th January, 2009, the most powerful storm for a decade hit
western France. With wind speeds in (66) _______ of 120 miles per hour, it flattened
forests, (67) _______ down power lines and caused massive destruction to buildings and
roads. But it also left behind an extraordinary creation. Seven miles out to sea at the (68)
_______ where the Atlantic Ocean meets the estuary of the River Gironde, a small island
had (69) _______ out of water. Locals soon gave it the name The Mysterious [Link]
was so remarkable, (70) _______its sudden apparition, was the fact that the island (71)
_______ in tact in what is often quite hostile sea environment. It could well become a
permanent feature.
Scientists (72) _______ realised that the island’s appearance (73) _______ a unique
opportunity to study the creation and development of a new ecosystem. Within months, it
had been colonized by seabirds, insects, and vegetation. Unfortunately, however, they
were not alone in (74) _______ the island attractive. It became increasingly difficult to
(75) _______ the site from human visitors. In its first year, day trippers came in powered
dinghies, a parachute club used it as a landing strip, a rave party was even held there one
night.
66. A. surplus B. advance C. excess D. put
67. A. fetched B. brought C. carried D. sent
68. A. scene B. mark C. stage D. point
69. [Link] B. raised C. lifted D. surfaced
70. A. in spite of B. instead of C. apart from D. on account
of
71. A. prolonged B. remained C. resided D. preserved
72. A. quickly B. briskly C. hastily D. speedily
73. A. delivered B. awarded C. proposed D. offered
74. A. regarding B. finding C. seeking D. deciding
75. A. prevent B. preserve C. protect D. prohibit

Your answers
Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and choose the best answer to
each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
(15pts)
SIMPLE – IT’S ALL IN THE MIND
Tony Buzan is his own best advertisement when he claims that his latest book can teach
you not only how to be brilliant with words, but also to be fitter, live longer and be
happier. He has transformed himself from a promising but not outstanding schoolboy into
a man with an IQ at genius level, who has contributed to more than 80 books on the brain
and is consulted by universities, business organisations and governments. Some 250
million people worldwide have already benefited from his Mind Maps, a diagrammatic
learning tool that helps the brain to store and recall information. [A]
In his latest book, Head First, subtitled, ‘10 ways to tap into your natural genius’, he
redefines intelligence to include not only the familiar verbal, numerical and spatial
benchmarks measured by IQ tests, but other skills such as creative, social, spiritual and
physical intelligence, to which he gives equal weight. Developing these, he claims, will
bring confidence, self-awareness and personal fulfilment. And with this transformation
will come physical benefits – less stress, a stronger immune system and even a longer life.
It is estimated that we use around one per cent of our brain, so there is plenty of scope for
improvement. ‘I have fallen into the usual traps of thinking that IQ was the be-all and
end-all, that being academic was better than being artistic and that art and music were
unteachable gifts,’ admits Buzan, 58. “Bit by bit, I have come to know better. This book
is a compact history of my revelations”.
The first moment of truth came when Buzan was at primary school. After scoring 100 per
cent in a nature test, he found himself top of the A-stream. His best friend knew far more
about ecology than Buzan, but was bottom of the D-stream. ‘That started me wondering.
Later, I became aware that many of the so-called intelligent people I knew did not seem
very bright at all. [B] They were brilliant at words and numbers, but not particularly
interesting to be with, or happy with themselves or even successful. [C] I began working
with children and found that many were like my best friend. [D] For instance, I spoke to a
boy of eight who had been marked down in an ‘intelligence test’ for ticking a picture of
the earth when asked which image was the odd one out – sun, moon, lemon or earth.
When I asked him why he had done this, he looked at me as if I were an idiot and said:
‘Because the earth is the only one that is blue.’ At that point I wondered who was the fool
– the eight-year-old ‘slow learner’ or the university lecturer. If we had measured the
process by which the child had reached his answer – instead of the expected response –
we would have realised the beautiful, sophisticated intelligence behind it.’

Identifying and developing this kind of undervalued intelligence is Buzan’s mission. His
starting point is that all people have the potential to excel if they can only rid themselves
of the barriers placed in their way by upbringing, education and society’s belief systems
and expectations. The first obstacle to overcome is lack of selfbelief. Buzan describes
how his marks in maths soared at secondary school after he was told he was in the top one
per cent of the population in the subject. ‘I realised that what I thought about my ability in
a subject affected how well I did.’ The second hurdle is the conviction most of us have
that certain skills – art, music and numerical ability – are gifts from heaven, conferred
only on the naturally talented few. Buzan disputes this, claiming that all we have to do is
learn the appropriate ‘alphabet’. If we can learn to copy, he insists, we can learn to draw.
‘It is the same with music. The most sophisticated musical instrument is the human voice.
Many people think they cannot sing. But everybody sings without realising it. It’s called
talking. Listen to somebody speaking a foreign language of which you know no
vocabulary; it is pure music.’ Buzan’s third lesson is the recognition that we are all
intelligent; otherwise, we could not survive. ‘There is only one true intelligence test,’ he
says, ‘and that is life on planet Earth. Sitting in a room answering questions is not as
difficult as survival. Every day, we are confronted with new problems that we learn to
handle.’

Head First offers a template for each of the 10 kinds of intelligence, including a
definition, an outline of its benefits and lots of exercises. ‘Think of each of your multiple
intelligences as a finger on a pair of wonderfully adept and agile piano-playing hands.
You can play life’s music with just two fingers, but if you use all 10 you can play a
concerto where each one supplements and enhances the others. The Moonlight Sonata
will sound OK with two fingers. But it sounds much better with 10.

86. What is implied about Tony Buzan in the first paragraph?

A. His views have caused a certain amount of controversy.
B. Some of the claims he makes are rather exaggerated.
C. It is hard to understand why he has been so successful.
D. His theories are supported by his own life story.
87. What is said about the book Head First in the second paragraph?
A. Buzan accepts that some people may disagree with some of the views expressed in it.
B. In it Buzan argues against beliefs he previously held.
C. It suggests that IQ tests are of no real value.
D. Its main focus is on the relationship between intelligence and physical condition.
88. The phrases “verbal, numerical and spatial benchmark” in paragraph 2 are
mentioned to _________.
A. analyze the contents of his latest book “Head First”.
B. question the template for kinds of intelligence
C. illustrate some of the criteria of intelligence
D. appreciate the value of the book “Head First”.
89. What does the phrase “tap into” in paragraph 2 mostly mean___.
A. boost B. scour C. sift D. unravel
90. Buzan uses the boy who ticked a picture of the earth as an example of_____.
A. People who are more interesting than many people considered to be intelligent.
B. People whose intelligence is not allowed to develop fully.
C. People with an attitude that prevents them from being considered intelligent.
D. People whose intelligence is likely to develop later in life.
91. Which of the following square brackets [A],[B],[C] and [D] best indicates where
in the paragraph the sentence “They were amazing, but they were not able to
express their brilliance at school.” can be inserted?
A.[B] B. [C] C.[D] D. [A]
92. Buzan thinks that one thing that prevents people from excelling is_____.
A. their habit of focusing too much on trivial aspects of everyday life.
B. their belief that too much effort is required to acquire certain skills.
C. their failure to realize how much natural intelligence they have.
D. their tendency to be easily discouraged by the comments of others.
93. Buzan uses the Moonlight Sonata to illustrate his belief that_____.
A. his book can benefit everyone who reads it.
B. some things are not as difficult to learn as they may seem.
C. it is desirable but not essential for people to develop their intelligence.
D. his definitions of intelligence are simple enough for everyone to understand.
94. Which of the following best summarises the view expressed by Tony Buzan in the
article as a whole?
A. Too much emphasis in life is placed on how intelligent people are.
B. Most people are inclined to underestimate their own intelligence.
C. Intelligence is something that it is unwise to generalise about.
D. Conventional views on what constitutes intelligence are inaccurate.
95. What does the word “adept” mentioned in paragraph 5 pertain to?
A. skillful B. awkward C. advisable D. skittish
Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the text and do the tasks followed. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS
A brain-damaged patient suffering from prosopagnosia cannot recognize familiar faces
although her vision is other intact. She has awareness without recognition. A patient with
blindsight is blind in parts of his visual field, but if asked to guess the location of objects
in those “blind” spots, he is more than likely to guess right. He has recognition without
awareness. Are both these patients conscious?
How the brain produces consciousness is a question that has puzzled philosophers and
scientists for millennia, and many of them have looked to brain-damaged patients for the
answer. Consider a patient with Parkinson’s disease who wants to move his legs but
cannot. His thoughts have become severed from his actions, and that dissociation seems
to be related to the lack of a certain chemical, dopamine, in one area of his brain. But why
dopamine should perform that particular function in that particular area nobody knows.
What studies of brain damage reveal is that consciousness has many facets. But it can be
a dangerous approach because it rests on the assumption that each part of the brain that
contributes to consciousness does so consistently over time. Yet, if consciousness is
dynamic rather than static, if the conscious functions performed by a certain body of
neurons in the brain are transient, then the functions lost when a brain receives a blow at a
specific point in time could differ from that might have been lost a moment later.
In the past, scientists have searched for discrete switches at the neuronal level- singular,
all-or-nothing events which when put together give rise to a global sensibility. But how
and where the translation from physical to mental takes place remains a mystery, not least
because those on/off neuronal mechanisms seem so incompatible with the diffuse and
indefinable property of consciousness.
In Journey to the Centers of the Mind, neuroscientist Susan Greenfield suggests that the
underlying physical processes are no less complex and diffuse than consciousness itself.
Consciousness is not located in one region of the brain, one neuron or one molecule, and
it does not necessarily go hand in hand with stimulation of the senses. But each conscious
experience is singular in time. She describes shades of subtlety in the activities of
neurons: they can be biased to respond in certain ways and in the sense that their behavior
is shaped by past experience; they even have memory. The action potential, the firing of a
cell in response to stimulation, might be an all-or-nothing event, but the threshold at
which a neuron produces an electrical signal can be lowered or raised incrementally.
By the same token, consciousness is better viewed as a continuum rather than as an all-or-
nothing phenomenon. Greenfield suggests that it is the product of large interacting groups
of neurons which form and reform rapidly around a triggering stimulus like concentric
ripples on the surface of a pond. And the size of each neuronal assembly or “gestalt” is
determined by the brain’s level of arousal at a particular moment in time. Arousal is, in
turn, controlled by chemicals called amines (neuromodulators) that are produced in the
most primitive part of the brain. According to Greenfield’s theory, fountains of these
neuromodulators diffuse upwards and outwards from neurons in the brainstem, and it is
these chemicals which bias the firing threshold of neurons in the rest of the brain – even
in the sophisticated outer cortex. By so doing, they dictate the number of neurons that will
be incorporated in each gestalt, and so determine the depth of the emerging
consciousness. In this way, each conscious experience is qualitatively unique.
The idea of neuronal assemblies is not new. But the concept of consciousness as
something that shrinks and expands, growing in depth as the brain grows physically, is a
new departure. Very young children have no sense of other people’s thought processes –
their consciousness is egocentric. But by the age of about four they have begun to project
mental states onto others. And brain-damaged patients, whose brains have effectively
been reduced in size, have something in common with children. Both function at a
shallower level of consciousness because stimuli trigger relatively small gestalts in their
brains.
Greenfield does not pretend to have uncovered the secret of consciousness. Her theory
cannot answer all the questions, but it may have brought us a small step closer to a
physical explanation of what it is to be human.

Questions 96 - 100. Complete the gaps in the following summary by using NO

MORE THAN TWO WORDS taken from the Reading Passage.
Consciousness is a state of mind that has interested philosophers and scientists for
thousands of years. However, our understanding of it has remained fairly basic. For
example, scientists do not know whether the (96.)____________ of a prosopagnosia
patient means the same as consciousness and whether dopamine in the brain is linked
with dissociation of the thoughts and actions of someone with Parkinson’s disease.
Susan Greenfield’s theory has added a new dimension to our understanding of
consciousness. She feels that consciousness and stimulation of the senses are not attached
to each other and the responses of (97.) ____________, which are closely related to a
global sensitivity of the body, have patterns which may have been conditioned by (98.)
____________. Consciousness is not a yes-or-no state of mental and physical condition;
it is a (99.) ____________ that has a range. Within this range, there is a chain of
interactions between the quantity of amines and (100.) ____________, between gestalt
and the depth of consciousness. These interactions ultimately determine the level of
consciousness.
PRACTICE TEST 1 TB
Part 1: For questions 26 – 40, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the
following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
26. The figures available for ______ - often considered to be one of the most difficult
categories of crime both to detect and to clear - are also impressive when seen in a
comparative context.
A. leniency B. lechery C. larceny D. laity
27. However, complaints have arisen because of a lack of ______ regarding the plans.
A. conjecture B. contention C. controversy D.
consultation
28. I would like to say at once how ______ we welcome the broad statement which he
has made.
 A. cordially B. diligently C. disdainfully
D. intermittently
29. Both of the jobs I’ve been offered are fantastic opportunities – I’m in such ______!
A. a constituency B. a quandary C. an arrhythmia D.
a deviation
30. The President has gotten used to being ______ by his opponents whenever a new
policy is proposed.
A. blasted off B. ripped off C. zonked out D.
sniped at
31. When she was young, she used to experience a(n) _______ of domestic violence
and negligence.
A. chapter B. orgy C. sequel D.
epilogue
32. Try as he might, he only has a _____ of beating the big guy in my school.
A. narrow squeak B. fat chance C. sticky end
D. cleft stick
33. My boss is ever so sweet and nice when it suits her, but if you cross her, she soon
gets on her ______.
A. tall order B. dirty dog C. high horse D.
low ebb
34. Our guests are from a _____ of society and so should reflect most points of view.
A. cross-section B. cross-fire C. cross-purpose D. cross-
reference
35. The gulf of difference between them, with her holding unrealistic opinions, as
opposed to his pragmatism, is due to her growing up in a(n) ______ world of private
schools and luxurious mansions.
A. rarefied B. exclusive C. privileged D.
unique
36. Many clubs in the lower ______ of the league are in financial difficulty.
A. borders B. limits C. reaches D.
spheres
37. Still doubtful of the success of the ______ “flying machines”, the writer mused that
“comparatively few of us have any desire to float in the air at a great height from the
earth.”
A. bedraggled B. newfangled C. credentialed D. bespectacled
38. Of my friends without children, one half have become ninja masters of the
sourdough arts, and the other half are practicing mindfulness during their enforced
solitude, as they _______ quietly at home.
A. mount up B. sit out C. astride on D.
hunker down
39. How far ______ are you with your assignment?
A. long B. left C. along D. in
total
40. I offered to do the job, but soon found that I was ______ as it was more difficult
than I had thought.
A. pushing up daisies B. knocking on wood C. in over my head
D. off my hands
Part 2: For questions 56 – 68, read the passage below and do the following tasks.
ASSESSING THE RISK
A. As a title for a supposedly unprejudiced debate on scientific progress, “Panic attack:
interrogating our obsession with risk” did not bode well. Held last week at the Royal
Institution in London, the event brought together scientists from across the world to
ask why society is so obsessed with risk and to call for a “more rational” approach.
“We seem to be organising society around the grandmotherly maxim of ‘better safe
than sorry’,” exclaimed Spiked, the online publication that organised the event. “What
are the consequences of this overbearing concern with risks?”
B. The debate was preceded by a survey of 40 scientists who were invited to describe
how awful our lives would be if the “precautionary principle” had been allowed to
prevail in the past. Their response was: no heart surgery or antibiotics, and hardly any
drugs at all; no aeroplanes, bicycles or high-voltage power grids; no pasteurisation,
pesticides or biotechnology; no quantum mechanics; no wheel; no “discovery” of
America. In short, their message was: no risk, no gain.
C. They have absolutely missed the point. The precautionary principle is a subtle idea. It
has various forms, but all of them generally include some notion of cost-effectiveness.
Thus the point is not simply to ban things that are not known to be absolutely safe.
Rather, it says: “Of course you can make no progress without risk. But if there is no
obvious gain from taking the risk, then don’t take it.”
D. Clearly, all the technologies listed by the 40 well-chosen savants were innately risky at
their inception, as all technologies are. But all of them would have received the green
light under the precautionary principle because they all had the potential to offer
tremendous benefits – the solutions to very big problems – if only the snags could be
overcome.
E. If the precautionary principle had been in place, the scientists tell us, we would not
have antibiotics. But of course, we would – if the version of the principle that sensible
people now understand had been applied. When penicillin was discovered in the
1920s, infective bacteria were laying waste to the world. Children died from diphtheria
and whooping cough, every open-drain brought the threat of typhoid, and any wound
could lead to septicaemia and even gangrene.
F. Penicillin was turned into a practical drug during the Second World War when the
many pestilences that result from were threatened to kill more people than the bombs.
Of course antibiotics were a priority. Of course, the risks, such as they could be
perceived, were worth taking.
G. And so with the other items on the scientists’ list: electric light bulbs, blood
transfusions. CAT scans, knives, the measles vaccine – the precautionary principle
would have prevented all of them, they tell us. But this is just plain wrong. If the
precautionary principle had been applied properly, all these creations would have
passed muster, because all offered incomparable advantages compared to the risks
perceived at the time.
H. Another issue is at stake here. Statistics are not the only concept people use when
weighing up risk. Human beings, subtle and evolved creatures that we are, do not
survive to three-score years and ten simply by thinking like pocket calculators. A
crucial issue is the consumer’s choice. In deciding whether to pursue the development
of new technology, the consumer’s right to choose should be considered alongside
considerations of risk and benefit. Clearly, skiing is more dangerous than genetically
 modified tomatoes. But people who ski choose to do so; they do not have skiing thrust
upon them by portentous experts of the kind who now feel they have the right to
reconstruct our crops. Even with skiing, there is the matter of cost-effectiveness to
consider: skiing, I am told, is exhilarating. Where is the exhilaration in GM soya?
I. Indeed, in contrast to all the other items on Spiked’s list, GM crops stand out as an
example of a technology whose benefits are far from clear. Some of the risks can at
least be defined. But in the present economic climate, the benefits that might accrue
from them seem dubious. Promoters of GM crops believe that the future population of
the world cannot be fed without them. That is untrue. The crops that really matter are
wheat and rice, and there is no GM research in the pipeline that will seriously affect
the yield of either. GM is used to make production cheaper and hence more profitable,
which is an extremely questionable ambition.
J. The precautionary principle provides the world with a very important safeguard. If it
had been in place in the past it might, for example, have prevented insouciant miners
from polluting major rivers with mercury. We have come to a sorry pass when
scientists, who should above all be dispassionate scholars, feel they should
misrepresent such a principle for the purposes of commercial and political propaganda.
People at large continue to mistrust science and the high technologies it produces
partly because they doubt the wisdom of scientists. On such evidence as this, these
doubts are fully justified.

For questions 56 – 60, decide whether the following statements are True (T), False
(F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
56. The debate’s title lacks impartiality.
57. The entirety of the scientists summoned for the debate originated from the medical
realm.
58. The underlying message conveyed by the scientists who orchestrated the survey
was a social discouragement of risk-taking behaviors.
59. All forty technologies enumerated pose a greater risk compared to their
counterparts.
60. The invention of antibiotics justified the associated risks.
Your answers
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

For questions 61 – 68, complete the following note using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the passage for each blank. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
When applying the precautionary principle to decide whether to invent a new
technology, people should also show the consideration of the (61) ______, along with the
usual consideration of (62) ______. For example, though risky and dangerous enough,
people still enjoy (63) ______ for the excitement it provides. On the other hand, experts
believe that the future population desperately needs (64) ______ in spite of their
undefined risks. However, the researchers conducted so far have not been directed
towards increasing the yield of (65) ______, but to reduce the cost of (66) ______ and to
bring more profit out of it. In the end, such selfish use of (67) ______ for business and
political gain has often led people to (68) ______. science for they believe scientists are
not to be trusted.
Part 4: For questions 76 – 85, read the passage below and choose the correct answer
(A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
It was a feature peculiar to the colonial wars of North America, that the toils and
dangers of the wilderness were to be encountered before the adverse hosts could meet. A
wide and apparently an impervious boundary of forests severed the possessions of the
hostile provinces of France and England. The hardy colonist, and the trained European
who fought at his side, frequently expended months in struggling against the rapids of the
streams, or in effecting the rugged passes of the mountains, in quest of an opportunity to
exhibit their courage in a more martial conflict. But, emulating the patience and self-
denial of the practiced native warriors, they learned to overcome every difficulty; and it
would seem that, in time, there was no recess of the woods so dark, nor any secret place
so lovely, that it might claim exemption from the inroads of those who had pledged their
blood to satiate their vengeance, or to uphold the cold and selfish policy of the distant
monarchs of Europe.
Perhaps no district throughout the wide extent of the intermediate frontiers can
furnish a livelier picture of the cruelty and fierceness of the savage warfare of those
periods than the country which lies between the head waters of the Hudson and the
adjacent lakes. The facilities which nature had there offered to the march of the
combatants were too obvious to be neglected. The lengthened sheet of the Champlain
stretched from the frontiers of Canada, deep within the borders of the neighboring
province of New York, forming a natural passage across half the distance that the French
were compelled to master in order to strike their enemies. Near its southern termination, it
received the contributions of another lake, whose waters were so limpid as to have been
exclusively selected by the Jesuit missionaries to perform the typical purification of
baptism, and to obtain for it the title of lake ‘du Saint Sacrement.’ The less zealous
English thought they conferred a sufficient honor on its unsullied fountains, when they
bestowed the name of their reigning prince, the second of the house of Hanover. The two
united to rob the untutored possessors of its wooded scenery of their native right to
perpetuate its original appellation of ‘Horican.’ As each nation of the Indians had its
language or its dialect, they usually gave different names to the same places, though
nearly all of their appellations were descriptive of the object. Thus a literal translation of
the name of this beautiful sheet of water, used by the tribe that dwelt on its banks, would
be ‘The Tail of the Lake.’ Lake George, as it is vulgarly, and now, indeed, legally, called,
forms a sort of tail to Lake Champlain, when viewed on the map. Hence, the name.
Winding its way among countless islands, and imbedded in mountains, the ‘holy
lake’ extended a dozen leagues still further to the south. With the high plain that there
interposed itself to the further passage of the water, commenced a portage of as many
miles, which conducted the adventurer to the banks of the Hudson, at a point where, with
the usual obstructions of the rapids, or rifts, as they were then termed in the language of
the country, the river became navigable to the tide. While, in the pursuit of their daring
plans of annoyance, the restless enterprise of the French even attempted the distant and
difficult gorges of the Alleghany, it may easily be imagined that their proverbial acuteness
would not overlook the natural advantages of the district we have just described. It
became, emphatically, the bloody arena, in which most of the battles for the mastery of
the colonies were contested. Forts were erected at the different points that commanded the
facilities of the route, and were taken and retaken, razed and rebuilt, as victory alighted on
the hostile banners. While the husbandman shrank back from the dangerous passes,
within the safer boundaries of the more ancient settlements, armies larger than those
that had often disposed of the scepters of the mother countries, were seen to bury
themselves in these forests, whence they rarely returned but in skeleton bands, that were
haggard with care or dejected by defeat. Though the arts of peace were unknown to this
fatal region, its forests were alive with men; its shades and glens rang with the sounds of
martial music, and the echoes of its mountains threw back the laugh, or repeated the
wanton cry, of many a gallant and reckless youth, as he hurried by them, in the noontide
of his spirits, to slumber in a long night of forgetfulness.
The imbecility of her military leaders abroad, and the fatal want of energy in her
councils at home, had lowered the character of Great Britain from the proud elevation on
which it had been placed by the talents and enterprise of her former warriors and
statesmen. No longer dreaded by her enemies, her servants were fast losing the
confidence of self-respect. In this mortifying abasement, the colonists, though innocent of
her imbecility, and too humble to be the agents of her blunders, were but the natural
participators. They had recently seen a chosen army from that country, which, reverencing
as a mother, they had blindly believed invincible—an army led by a chief who had been
selected from a crowd of trained warriors, for his rare military endowments, disgracefully
routed by a handful of French and Indians, and only saved from annihilation by the
coolness and spirit of a Virginian boy, whose riper fame has since diffused itself, with the
steady influence of moral truth, to the uttermost confines of Christendom.
A wide frontier had been laid naked by this unexpected disaster, and more
substantial evils were preceded by a thousand fanciful and imaginary dangers. The
alarmed colonists believed that the yells of the savages mingled with every fitful gust of
wind that issued from the interminable forests of the west. The terrific character of their
merciless enemies increased immeasurably the natural horrors of warfare. Numberless
recent massacres were still vivid in their recollections; nor was there any ear in the
provinces so deaf as not to have drunk in with avidity the narrative of some fearful tale of
midnight murder, in which the natives of the forests were the principal and barbarous
actors. As the credulous and excited traveler related the hazardous chances of the
wilderness, the blood of the timid curdled with terror, and mothers cast anxious glances
even at those children which slumbered within the security of the largest towns. In short,
the magnifying influence of fear began to set at naught the calculations of reason, and to
render those who should have remembered their manhood, the slaves of the basest
passions. Even the most confident and the stoutest hearts began to think the issue of the
contest was becoming doubtful; and that abject class was hourly increasing in numbers,
who thought they foresaw all the possessions of the English crown in America subdued by
their Christian foes, or laid waste by the inroads of their relentless allies.
(Extracted from “The Last of The Mohicans” by James Fenimore Cooper)

76. What specific geographical features contributed to the hardships faced by the
French and English in North America?
A. Treacherous rivers and dense forests B. Unpredictable weather patterns
C. Abundance of natural resources D. Geographic isolation
77. What can be inferred about the impact of the wilderness on the French and English
colonial efforts in North America?
A. The wilderness did not constitute a substantial impediment to their advancement.
B. The wilderness represented a negligible hindrance that had no impact on their
military endeavors.
C. The wilderness displayed formidable hurdles, demanding considerable exertion to
surmount.
D. The wilderness bore no influence on their colonial undertakings.
78. What was the primary reason for the constant erection and destruction of forts in
the region between Lake Champlain and Hudson?
A. Frequent skirmishes between British and French military contingents
B. Ferocious competition and animosity among French and English colonists
C. Fluctuating meteorological conditions and environmental cataclysms
D. The imperative dominance over a pivotal and strategically significant passageway
79. What term was used to describe the role of the indigenous people in tales of
midnight murder?
A. Peaceful negotiators B. Skilled diplomats
C. Barbarous actors D. Cultural historians
80. What aspect of the French's military enterprise is NOT mentioned?
A. Erecting fortifications B. Bloodshed in the forest
C. Struggling in the wilderness D. Building settlements
81. Which of the following best expresses the information in the highlighted sentence
in paragraph 3?
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. "The more ancient settlements were deemed safer by the husbandman, who avoided
the perilous passes, while armies larger than those that had often determined the rulers
of their home countries could be witnessed concealing themselves in these woods."
B. "Despite the husbandman's reluctance to venture into the treacherous passes, armies
larger than those responsible for toppling the rulers of their mother countries
frequently concealed themselves in the forests."
C. "The husbandman opted for the safety of the ancient settlements, avoiding the
perilous passes, while armies larger than those that had previously toppled the leaders
of their home nations could be observed hiding in the forests."
D. "Armies larger than those that had often disposed of the scepters of their mother
countries were seen burying themselves in these forests, while the husbandman
hesitated to approach the dangerous passes near the ancient settlements."
82. Why was Lake "du Saint Sacrement" renamed Lake George?
A. To pay homage to a local saint B. To appease the local indigenous
tribes
C. To honor a British monarch D. To signify a peaceful resolution
83. Which of the following factors did not contribute to the lowering of Great Britain's
character?
A. The triumph of their adversaries B. The ineptitude of their military
leaders overseas
C. The missteps of the colonists D. A dearth of self-assurance among the
colonists
84. What can be inferred about the relationship between the British and the indigenous
people in the context of colonial warfare?
A. The British and indigenous people were allies, fighting together against common
enemies.
B. The British avoided any interaction with the indigenous people during warfare
C. The British had great respect for the indigenous tribes and treated them as equals.
D. The British and indigenous people had a tense, often hostile relationship.
85. What can be inferred about the impact of the colonial wars on the mental state of
the colonists?
A. The colonists remained unfazed and unafraid throughout the colonial wars.
B. The colonists experienced heightened anxiety and fear as a result of the colonial
wars.
C. The colonists viewed the colonial wars as a series of minor conflicts with no
significant impact on their emotions.
D. The colonists were primarily concerned with the success of their military leaders
during the colonial wars.
PRACTICE TEST 2 HG
Part 1. For questions 26-35, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the
following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.
26. Sandra’s unpleasant ______ suggested that she knew about Amanda’s terrible secret.
A. grimace B. smirk C. wince D. snort
27. He didn’t mean to be offensive; it was quite an ______ remark.
A. innocuous B. inaugural C. integral D. insidious
28. I am sick of hearing the same old ______ in meetings.
A. plenitudes B. placidities C. pliabilities D. platitudes
29. She was rudely awakened by a sudden bout of ______ turbulence.
A. stern B. somber C. weighty D. heavy
30. She was very frustrated by his behaviour, but didn’t say anything because she didn’t
want to ______ the boat.
A. shake B. rattle C. rock D. roll
31. I still ______ in the morning even though I gave up smoking a week ago.
A. whistle B. wheeze C. whirl D. whip
32. George had a(n) ______ and enduring affection for the garrulous old man.
A. unabashed B. crude C. forward D. shameless
33. James could no longer bear the ______ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing
34. She found the novel absolutely ______ and impossible to put down.
A. riveting B. pinning C. enfastening D. nailing
35. Having beaten all six challengers, he is now the ______ champion of the world.
A. unquestioned B. undisputed C. unchallenged D. unaccosted
36. I was ______ when I heard that the MP for Burnham had been arrested for fraud.
A. leveled B. floored C. hurled D. heaved
37. Their decision on whether I get the job or not will be based mostly on my academic
______.
A. reputation B. credits C. credentials D. standing
38. When Eric’s mother could no longer stand his ______, she bought him the toy car.
 A. crowing B. squirreling C. wolfing D. badgering
39. Don't worry; you are as safe as houses here as long as you are in my good ______.
A. graces B. feelings C. likes D. regards
40. All the members of the board were ______ themselves to please the Chairperson.
A. coming about B. jumping over C. carrying off D. falling over
Part 2: For questions 66-75, read the following text and choose the correct answer A,
B, C or D. Write your answers in the boxes provided. (10 points)
Four stages of planetary development
The planet Earth has passed through four-stages of planetary development. All
terrestrial planets pass through these same stages to some degree, but some planets
evolved further or were affected in different ways.
The Four Stages
The first stage of planetary evolution is differentiation, the separation of material
according to density. Earth now has a dense core and a lower-density crust, and that
structure must have originated very early in its history. Differentiation would have
occurred easily if Earth were molten when it was young. Two sources of energy could
have heated Earth. First, heat of formation was released by in-falling material. A
meteorite hitting Earth at high velocity converts most of its energy of motion into heat,
and the impacts of a large number of meteorites would have released tremendous heat. If
Earth formed rapidly, this heat would have accumulated much more rapidly than it
could leak away, and Earth was probably molten when it formed. A second source of
heat requires more time to develop. The decay of radioactive elements trapped in the
Earth releases heat gradually; but, as soon as Earth formed, that heat began to accumulate
and helped melt Earth. That would have helped the planet differentiate.
While Earth was still in a molten state, meteorites could leave no trace, but in the
second stage in planetary evolution, cratering, the young Earth was battered by meteorites
that pulverized the newly forming crust. The largest meteorites blasted out crater basins
hundreds of kilometers in diameter. As the solar nebula cleared, the amount of debris
decreased, and after the late heavy bombardment, the level of cratering fell to its present
low level. Although meteorites still occasionally strike Earth and dig craters, cratering is
no longer the dominant influence on Earth's geology. As you compare other worlds with
Earth, you will discover traces of this intense period of cratering, on every old surface in
the solar system.
The third stage, flooding, no doubt began while cratering was still intense. The
fracturing of the crust and the heating produced by radioactive decay allowed molten rock
just below the crust to well up through fissures and flood the deeper basins. You will find
such flooded basins with solidified lava flows on other worlds, such as the moon, but all
traces of this early lava flooding have been destroyed by later geological activity in
Earth's crust. On Earth, flooding continued as the atmosphere cooled and water fell as
rain, filling the deepest basins to produce the first oceans. [A] Notice that on Earth
flooding involves both lava and water, a circumstance that we will not find on most
worlds. [B]
The fourth stage, slow surface evolution, has continued for the last 3.5 billion years
or more. [C] Earth’s surface is constantly changing as sections of crust slide over each
other, push up mountains, and shift continents. [D] Almost all traces of the first billion
years of Earth’s geology have been destroyed by the active crust and erosion.
Earth as a Planet
 All terrestrial planets pass through these four stages, but some have emphasized one
stage over another, and some planets have failed to progress fully through the four stages.
Earth is a good standard for comparative planetology because every major process on any
rocky world in our solar system is represented in some form on Earth.
Nevertheless, Earth is peculiar in two ways. First, it has large amounts of liquid
water on its surface. Fully 75 percent of its surface is covered by this liquid; no other
planet in our solar system is known to have such extensive liquid water on its surface.
Water not only fills the oceans but also evaporates into the atmosphere, forms clouds, and
then falls as rain. Water falling on the continents flows downhill to form rivers that flow
back to the sea, and in so doing, the water produces intense erosion. You will not see such
intense erosion on most worlds. Liquid water is, in fact, a rare material on most planets.
Your home planet is special in a second way. Some of the matter on the surface of this
world is alive, and a small part of that living matter is aware. No one is sure how the
presence of living matter has affected the evolution of Earth, but this process seems to be
totally missing from other worlds in our solar system. Furthermore, the thinking part of
life on Earth, humankind, is actively altering our planet.
66. Why does the author mention the ‘Earth’ in paragraph 1?
A. To explain the stages in planetary development for the Earth in detail
B. To contrast the evolution of the Earth with that of other planets
C. To demonstrate that the Earth passed through similar stages to those of most planets
D. To give an example of exploration of the terrestrial planets
67. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted
statement in the passage?
A. The Earth may have been liquid because the heat collected faster than it dissipated if
the formation took place quickly.
B. Because of-the rapid formation of the Earth, the crust took a long time to cool before it
became a solid.
C. The liquid core of the Earth was created when the planet first formed because the heat
was so high and there was little cooling.
D. The cooling caused the Earth to form much more quickly as it met with the intense
heat of the new planet.
68. The word ‘pulverized’ in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. melted into liquid B. broken into small parts C. frozen very hard D.
washed very clean
69. What can be inferred about radioactive matter?
A. It floods the planet’s crust. B. It generates intense heat.
C. It is an important stage. D. It is revealed by later activity.
70. According to paragraph 4, how were the oceans formed?
A. Ice gouged out depressions in the Earth. B. Rain filled the craters made by
meteorites.
C. Earthquakes shifted the continents. D. Molten rock and lava flooded the
basins.
71. According to the passage, which stage occurs after cratering?
A. Flooding B. Slow surface evolution C. Differentiation D. Erosion
72. What is the author’s opinion of life on other planets?
A. She does not know whether life is present on other planets.
B. She does not express an opinion about life on other planets.
C. She is certain that no life exists on any planet except Earth.
D. She thinks that there is probably life on other planets.
73. Look at the four squares that show where the following sentence could be inserted in
the passage. ‘At the same time, moving air and water erode the surface and wear
away geological features.’
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
74. The word ‘process’ in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. regulation B. improvement C. procedure D. definition
75. All of the following are reasons why the Earth is a good model of planetary
development for purposes of comparison with other planets EXCEPT_________.
A. The Earth has gone through all four stages of planetary evolution.
B. Life on Earth has affected the evolution in a number of important ways.
C. All of the fundamental processes on terrestrial planets have occurred on Earth.
D. There is evidence of extensive cratering both on Earth and on all other planets
Part 3. For questions 76 - 88, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
(13 points)
Questions 76-82: Reading Passage has seven sections, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write
the correct number, i-x, in boxes 76-82 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Getting the finance for production
ii. An unexpected benefit
iii. From initial inspiration to new product
iv. The range of potential customers for the device
v. What makes the device different from alternatives
vi. Cleaning water from a range of sources
vii. Overcoming production difficulties
viii. Profit not the primary goal
ix. A warm welcome for the device
x. The number of people affected by water shortages
76. Section A
77. Section B
78. Section C
79. Section D
80. Section E
81. Section F
82. Section G
The Desolenator: producing clean water
A. Travelling around Thailand in the 1990s, William Janssen was impressed with the
basic rooftop solar heating systems that were on many homes, where energy from the sun
was absorbed by a plate and then used to heat water for domestic use. Two decades later
Janssen developed that basic idea he saw in Southeast Asia into a portable device that
uses the power from the sun to purify water.
B. The Desolenator operates as a mobile desalination unit that can take water from
different places, such as the sea, rivers, boreholes and rain, and purify it for human
consumption. It is particularly valuable in regions where natural groundwater reserves
have been polluted, or where seawater is the only water source available.
Janssen saw that there was a need for a sustainable way to clean water in both the
developing and the developed countries when he moved to the United Arab Emirates and
saw large-scale water processing. ‘1 was confronted with the enormous carbon footprint
that the Gulf nations have because of all of the desalination that they do,’ he says.
C. The Desolenator can produce 15 litres of drinking water per day, enough to sustain a
family for cooking and drinking. Its main selling point is that unlike standard desalination
techniques, it doesn’t require a generated power supply: just sunlight. It measures 120 cm
by 90 cm, and is easy to transport, thanks to its two wheels. Water enters through a pipe,
and flows as a thin film between a sheet of double glazing and the surface of a solar
panel, where it is heated by the sun. The warm water flows into a small boiler (heated by
a solar-powered battery) where it is converted to steam. When the steam cools, it becomes
distilled water. The device has a very simple filter to trap particles, and this can easily be
shaken to remove them. There are two tubes for liquid coming out: one for the waste - salt
from seawater, fluoride, etc. - and another for the distilled water. The performance of the
unit is shown on an LCD screen and transmitted to the company which provides servicing
when necessary.
D. A recent analysis found that at least two-thirds of the world’s population lives with
severe water scarcity for at least a month every year. Janssen says that by 2030 half of the
world’s population will be living with water stress - where the demand exceeds the supply
over a certain period of time. Tt is really important that a sustainable solution is brought
to the market that is able to help these people,’ he says. Many countries ‘don’t have the
money for desalination plants, which are very expensive to build. They don’t have the
money to operate them, they are very maintenance intensive, and they don’t have the
money to buy the diesel to run the desalination plants, so it is a really bad situation.’
E. The device is aimed at a wide variety of users - from homeowners in the developing
world who do not have a constant supply of water to people living off the grid in rural
parts of the US. The first commercial versions of the Desolenator are expected to be in
operation in India early next year, after field tests are carried out. The market for the self-
sufficient devices in developing countries is twofold - those who cannot afford the money
for the device outright and pay through microfinance, and middleincome homes that can
lease their own equipment. ‘People in India don’t pay for a fridge outright; they pay for it
over six months. They would put the Desolenator on their roof and hook it up to their
municipal supply and they would get very reliable drinking water on a daily basis,’
Janssen says. In the developed world, it is aimed at niche markets where tap water is
unavailable - for camping, on boats, or for the military, for instance.
F. Prices will vary according to where it is bought. In the developing world, the price will
depend on what deal aid organisations can negotiate. In developed countries, it is likely to
come in at $1,000 (£685) a unit, said Janssen. ‘We are a venture with a social mission.
We are aware that the product we have envisioned is mainly finding application in the
developing world and humanitarian sector and that this is the way we will proceed. We do
realise, though, that to be a viable company there is a bottom line to keep in mind,’ he
says.
G. The company itself is based at Imperial College London, although Janssen, its chief
executive, still lives in the UAE. It has raised £340,000 in funding so far. Within two
years, he says, the company aims to be selling 1,000 units a month, mainly in the
humanitarian field. They are expected to be sold in areas such as Australia, northern
Chile, Peru, Texas and California.
Questions 83-88: Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 83-88 on your answer sheet.

How the Desolenator works

The energy required to operate the Desolenator comes from sunlight. The device can be
used in different locations, as it has (83) ______. Water is fed into a pipe, and a (84)
______ of water flows over a solar panel. The water then enters a boiler, where it turns
into steam. Any particles in the water are caught in a (85) ______. The purified water
comes out through one tube, and all types of (86) ______ come out through another. A
screen displays the (87) ______ of the device, and transmits the information to the
company so that they know when the Desolenator requires (88) ______.
PRACTICE TEST 3VP
Part 1: Choose the answer A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following
sentences. (20 points)
1. That old house hasn't been lived in for nearly thirty years, hence the fact that it looks so
______.
A. decrepit B. trashed C. rotten D. derelict
2. Despite harsh criticism, she's sticking to her ______ on this issue.
A. weapons B. guns C. thumb D. neck
3. If traffic increases beyond a certain level, the city grinds to a ______
A. halt B. stop C. pause D. end
4. Various ecological issues have come to the ______ since the discovery of the hole in
the earth's ozone layer.
A. front B. back C. side D. fore
5. I've seen her perform on television, but never in the ______
A. meat B. flesh C. blood D. vein
6. As far as I can ________, she wasn't there on that occasion.
A. memorize B. reminisce C. recollect D. remind
7. I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella (just) to be on the ________ side.
A. sunny B. straight C. safe D. secure
8. I was in ________ at that comedy show. I could barely breathe it was so funny.
A. stitches B. pleats C. shreds D. tears
9. She tried to ________ Tom’s importance to the company in order to gain a promotion
for herself.
A. diminish B. swindle C. reduce D. shrink
10. I hate the way Tony ________ around looking so self – important.
A. struts B. scampers C. slithers D. slinks
11. Thank you for paying me back—now we can ________ it quits.
A. name B. call C. consider D. state
12. She looked confused for a moment, then suddenly the ________ dropped.
A. pound B. coin C. quid D. penny
13. She said she was late because her flight was canceled, and we gave her the ________
of the doubt.
A. right B. point C. benefit D. value
14. Catherine ________ spots off the other kids in the spelling bee.
A. won B. knocked C. drew D. beat
15. I love these pants because they fit like a ________ and they're so comfortable.
A. suit B. sock C. glove D. shirt
16. You’d _______ that clock fixed; it hasn’t worked for over a week now.
A. rather have B. better have C. rather had D. have
17. The picking of the fruit, _______, takes about a week.
A. whose work they receive no money.
B. as they receive no money for that work
C. for which work they receive no money
D. they receive no money for it
18. As it’s not out on DVD yet, we might ______ get it on video, I suppose.
A. also B. as well C. too D. and
19. I’m ______ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as
20. It's freezing outside so ______ to stay home and be warm.
A. we'd do well B. we might as well C. we'd better D.
we're better off
Part 2: Read the article below and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think
fits best according to the text. (10 points)
WRITING FICTION
Because I am a novelist myself, I am always faintly fussed by the idea of creative
writing courses. I completely accept that you can teach the craft, that you can give
instruction on how to structure a book, how to vary space and tension, how to write
dialogue. But what you can’t teach, it seems to me is the right kind of interpretation of
what has been observed. It worries me to think of all those earnest pupils who have
diligently mastered the mechanics, wondering with varying degrees of misery and rag
why the finished recipe just hasn’t somehow worked.
The great writer Samuel Coleridge explained it. He said that there are two kinds of
imagination, the primary and the secondary. We all, he said, possess the primary
imagination, we all have the capacity to perceive, to notice. But what only poets (loosely
translated as all truly creative people, I suppose) have - the secondary imagination is the
capacity to select, and then translate and illuminate everything that has been observed so
that it seems to the audience something entirely new, something entirely true, something
exciting, wonderful and terrible.
There is, after all, nothing new to say about the human condition. There is nothing
to say that Shakespeare or Sophocles hasn’t already, inimitably, brilliantly, said. Codes of
product, fashions in morality and ethics, all may come and go. But what the human heart
has desired - and feared – down the ages goes on being very much the same. The
novelist’s task is to follow the well-trodden, time-worn path of human hopes and
terrors. Never forget: betrayal may be as old as time, it may happen every nanosecond of
every minute that’s ever been, but the first time it happens to you feels like the first time
in the history of the world. A cliché is a cliché only if it is comfortably taking place in
someone else’s life.
This empathy is vital in the writing of fiction. Coleridge’s view of the poet as
prophet to the hungry hordes is, in truth, a bit grand for me. I admire it, but I am not,
personally, quite up to it. I am happier seeing the novelist, sleeves rolled up, in the thick
of it alongside the reader, bleeding when pricked, in just the same way that the reader
does. The only capacity I would claim is that I have an instinct to select, from everything
I have noticed in half a century’s beady-eyed people-watching, the telling detail, the apt
phrase. I seem to be good at the rhythms of dialogue. I seem to know how not to
overwrite. But that is it really. Except that the older I get, the more prepared I am to
surrender and trust to the power of the unconscious mind. Maybe this is a modest form of
the secondary imagination, maybe not. Whatever it is, it produces a level and intensity of
communication that causes people to buy my books and write to me about them in
numbers that I still can’t get over.
What I do believe, fervently, is that we are all in this boat together – writer, reader,
critic. I have a tattered little quotation that lies on my desk and becomes more valuable to
me as time goes on. It comes from the autobiography of the celebrated nineteenth-century
writer Anthony Trollope. He said many remarkable things in this book, but my own
personal favourite is on the subject of the novelist’s central preoccupation. Trollope is not
so much concerned with the landscape of the grand passions as with something else,
something less glamorous perhaps, but just as intense and certainly more universal: ‘My
task’, he wrote, ‘is to chronicle those little daily lacerations upon the spirit.’
I feel a thrill of recognition every time I read that, or even think about it. That is
what the writer’s life is all about for me. The point of it is to emphasise that we are none
of us immune to longing, or disappointment (much under-rated, in my view, as a source
for distress), or frustration, or idiotic hope, or bad behaviour. What fiction does, in this
difficult world, is to reassure us that we are not alone, nor we are (most of us) lost causes.
There is a theory that suffering strengthens and elevates us in a way that joy can never
somehow do. I’m not so sure about that. Isn’t it just that we have, on the whole, so much
more suffering than joy that we have resolved, out of our great surviving instinct, to insist
that something worthwhile must be made of it? And isn’t fiction a handrail, of a kind,
which we can all grasp while we blunder about in the dark? Isn’t fiction written by people
for people about people? And is there a subject more fascinating or more important?
[Link] view does the novelist express about creative writing courses?
A. A few good books emerge from them.
B. It would be inappropriate for her to teach on them.
C. Students are frustrated by the poor teaching on them.
D. Some aspects of writing skills can be successfully taught on them.
[Link] novelist implies that a writer’s most valuable asset is ______.
A. an instinct for the unusual
B. a gift for meticulous observation
C. the ability to put a fresh interpretation on the everyday world
D. the ability to highlight sensational aspects of our existence
[Link] is stated about writers in the third paragraph?
A. They should not exploit their readers’ fears.
B. They should revisit well-established themes.
C. They should be prepared to exaggerate their personal experience.
D. They should not try to keep pace with changes in literary tastes.
[Link] phrase ‘the well-trodden, time-worn path’ refers to themes of writing that are
______.
A. familiar and long-standing B. extraordinary and profound
C. up-to-date and catchy D. simple and soulful
[Link] word ‘prophet’ refers to writer as a(n) ______ person.
 A. conservative B. receptive C. impartial D. emotional
[Link] novelist states that one of her own strengths as a writer lies in ______.
A. her depiction of character B. her construction of plot
C. her command of language D. her knowledge of psychology
[Link] does novelist admire Anthony Trollope?
A. He portrays the fact that everyone suffers in some way.
B. He realises that all writers need a strong sense of place.
C. He understands that everyone craves deep emotion.
D. He is aware that all writers have a particular obsession.
[Link] word ‘lacerations’ refers to ______ events.
A. exhilarating B. epoch-making C. pathetic D. trivial
[Link] novelist describes fiction as ‘a handrail, of a kind’ because it ______.
A. reflects the negative aspects of emotion B. enables us to deal with failure
C. helps us make sense of complex events D. offers reassurance in an uncertain world
[Link] theme recurs in this text?
A. The need for novelists to avoid complex philosophical questions
B. The need for novelists to develop their writing techniques
C. The need for novelists to give an accurate reflection of the spirit of the time
D. The need for novelists to identify closely with readers’ preoccupations
PRACTICE TEST 4LS
Part 1. For questions 26 – 45, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the
following questions. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (20 points)
26. The president was eventually _______ by a military coup.
A. disbarred B. supplanted C. deposed D. subverted
27. Poor Mary, all her colleagues teased her; she was the ______ of all their jokes.
A. hubbub B. butt C. bulk D. brunt
28. We do not have a secretary _______, but we do have a student who comes in to do a
bit of filing.
A. as such B. the least bit C. whatsoever D. little more
29. Derek had no experience of white-water canoeing, so it was extremely _______ of
him to try and shoot the rapids.
A. treacherous B. intrepid C. perilous D. foolhardy
30. He wanted to know whose car I had borrowed _______ .
A. yesterday evening B. the last evening
C. last night D. the previous night
31. Minister of Interior has recently disclosed why the nation’s passport administration
was still ______ with fraud, racketeering and delay.
A. thick B. fraught C. imbued D. brimming
32. When a show is popular, everyone is content but if its popularity ______. It is likely
to be scrapped.
A. subsides B. dims C. fades D. weakens
33. Artists have been ______ by people who stream music without paying.
A. short-dated B. short-changed
C. short-circuited D. short-handed
34. People could donate money to non-governmental organisations that feed Palestinians
or channel as medical aid to people who have suffered from the ________ of war.
A. blows B. hardships C. calamities D. adversities
 35. Owning and living in a freestanding house is still a goal of young adults, _______
earlier generations.
A. as did B. as it was of C. like that of D. so have
36. The new regime determined to _______ compulsory military service.
A. strike into B. phase out C. end up D. check off
37. The government needs to _____ businesses that have been trying to evade the tax.
A. put the screws on B. get into gear
C. put one over on D. wipe off the map
38. Being a _____ entrepreneur, you will have to make a special effort for people to take
you seriously.
A. successful B. budding C. blossoming D. flowering
39. What I like about this amusement park is that there is _____ parking space right
outside it.
A. copious B. ample C. expanded D. manifold
40. Last weekend, _____ nothing to watch on TV, we played chess together.
A. there being B. there having C. having had D. being

PRACTICE TEST 5HB

Part 1. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions
and write your (20 pts)
1. The novel depicts the state of adolescence and the rites of ________ that lead to
adulthood.
A. passage B. doorway C. threshold D. pathway
2. The unions ________ their hand in the end and failed to get the pay rise they wanted.
A. outplayed B. overplayed C. outdid D. overdid
3. John was not surprised when his boss criticized his work again; it was ________ in that
company.
A. par for the course B. thick on the ground C. a nervous wreck D. red tape
4. The bed had been made, fresh towels were in the bathroom and everything was ____
A. rant and rave B. down and out C. spick and span D. fair and square
5. When playing on a team, it is important to ________ the line and follow the
coach's instructions.
A. stand B. follow C. face D. toe
6. After years of practicing yoga, waking up early in the morning has become second
________ to me.
A. routine B. instinct C. nature D. sense
7. When my boss goes on vacation, I have free ________ to make decisions and run the
department the way I see fit.
A. rein B. right C. reign D. authority
8. The fact that she is having an affair with her boss is ________ obvious to everyone
except her husband.
A. blindingly B. utterly C. radically D. highly
9. He says he knows nothing about the missing documents but I'm sure he's holding
________ me.
A. back for B. out on C. on with D. up for
10. The naughty boys went on making terrible noise in the park though they had been
________ off by the annoyed constable.
A. laid B. broken C. ticked D. thrown
11. Teaching high school students is relatively easy. Teaching majored students, on the
other hand, is a different________ of fish.
A. kettle B. pot C. pan D. bowl
12. The cat slept peacefully, ________ in the long grass.
A. huddled B. nestled C. snuggled D. cuddled
13. Their relationship had been on the ________ for years before they finally broke up.
A. stones B. rocks C. pebbles D. marbles
14. He couldn't have been in his right ________ saying that he can fly.
A. minds B. brains C. senses D. thoughts
15. It was the________ warning from the seismologists that helped save the lives of the
island inhabitants before the volcano erupted.
A. preliminary B. hasty C. cursory D. advance
16. The lecture _______ focused on theory only turned out to lose attraction from the
audience.
A. the first part of it B. of which the first part
C. which the first part D. whose part first
17. I've yet ________ a person as Jim.
A. to meet as infuriating B. to have met such infuriating
C. met as infuriating D. been meeting such infuriating
18. The river _______ with fish, the campers were so excited about another fishing trip.
A. being abounded B. abounded C. was abounded D.
abounding
19. "It's a pity she had to pull out of the competition." - "Yes, especially since she
________ such excellent progress."
A. is making B. Made C. had been making D. has been making
20. In the eastern part of New Jersey ____ , a major shipping and manufacturing center.
A. lies the city of Elizabeth B. the city of Elizabeth lies there
C. around the city of Elizabeth lies D. there lies the city of Elizabeth around
Part 2. Read the text and answer the questions. (10pts)
1) There has, in recent years, been an outpouring of information about the impact of
buildings on the natural environment; Information which explains and promotes green
and sustainable construction design, strives to convince others of its efficacy and warns of
the dangers of ignoring the issue. Seldom do these documents offer any advice to
practitioners, such as those designing mechanical and electrical systems for a building, on
how to utilise this knowledge on a practical level.
2) While the terms green and sustainable are often considered synonymous, in that they
both symbolise nature, green does not encompass all that is meant by sustainability,
which can be defined as minimizing the negative impacts of human activities on the
natural environment, in particular those which have long-term and irreversible effects.
Some elements of green design may be sustainable too, for example those which reduce
energy usage and pollution, while others, such as ensuring internal air quality, may be
considered green despite having no influence on the ecological balance.
3) Although there are a good many advocates of ‘green’ construction in the architectural
industry, able to cite ample reasons why buildings should be designed in a sustainable
way, not to mention a plethora of architectural firms with experience in green design, this
is not enough to make green construction come into being. The driving force behind
whether a building is constructed with minimal environmental impact lies with the owner
of the building; that is, the person financing the project. If the owner considers green
design unimportant, or of secondary importance, then more than likely, it will not be
factored into the design.
4) The commissioning process plays a key role in ensuring the owner gets the building he
wants, in terms of design, costs and risk. At the predesign stage, the owner’s objectives,
criteria and the type of design envisaged are discussed and documented. This gives a
design team a solid foundation on which they can build their ideas, and also provides a
specific benchmark against which individual elements, such as costs, design and
environmental impact can be judged.
5) Owners who skip the commissioning process, or fail to take ‘green’ issues into account
when doing so, often come a cropper once their building is up and running. Materials
and equipment are installed as planned, and, at first glance, appear to fulfil their purpose
adequately. However, in time, the owner realises that operational and maintenance costs
are higher than necessary, and that the occupants are dissatisfied with the results. These
factors in turn lead to higher ownership costs as well as increased environmental impact.
6) In some cases, an owner may be aware of the latest trends in sustainable building
design. He may have done research into it himself, or he may have been informed of the
merits of green design through early discussion with professionals. However, firms
should not take it as read that someone commissioning a building already has a
preconceived idea of how green he intends the structure to be. Indeed, this initial
interaction between owner and firm is the ideal time for a designer to outline and promote
the ways that green design can meet the client’s objectives, thus turning a project
originally not destined for green design into a potential candidate.
7) Typically, when considering whether or not to adopt a green approach, an owner will
ask about additional costs, return for investment and to what extent green design should
be the limiting factor governing decisions in the design process. (1) Many of these costs
are incurred by the increased cooperation between the various stakeholders, such as the
owner, the design professionals, contractors and end-users. (2) However, in green design,
they must be involved from the outset, since green design demands interaction between
these disciplines. (3) This increased coordination clearly requires additional expenditure.
(4) A client may initially balk at these added fees, and may require further convincing of
the benefits if he is to proceed. It is up to the project team to gauge the extent to which a
client wants to get involved in a green design project and provide a commensurate
service.
8) Of course, there may be financial advantage for the client in choosing a greener design.
Case studies cite examples of green / sustainable designs which have demonstrated lower
costs for long-term operation, ownership and even construction. Tax credits and rebates
are usually available on a regional basis for projects with sustainable design or low
emissions, among others.
1 The writer’s main purpose is to _________
A. explain to professionals how they can influence clients to choose greener designs.
B. explain the importance of green building design in reducing long-term damage to the
environment.
C. explain to owners commissioning a building why ignoring green issues is costly and
dangerous.
D. explain to professionals why it is important to follow the correct procedures when a
building is commissioned.
2 The examples of green and sustainable designs given in paragraph 2 show that
_________
A. designs must be sustainable in order for them to be described as green.
B. for the purposes of this paper, the terms green and sustainable have the same meaning.
C. some sustainable designs are green, while others are not.
D. some designs are termed green, even though they are not sustainable.
3 According to paragraph 3, the reason for the lack of green buildings being designed is
that _________
A. few firms have any experience in design and constructing buildings to a green design.
B. construction companies are unaware of the benefits of green and sustainable designs.
C. firms do not get to decide whether a building is to be constructed sustainably.
D. firms tend to convince clients that other factors are more important than sustainability.
4 Which of the following is NOT true about the commissioning process? _________
A. It is conducted before the building is designed.
B. It is a stage that all clients go through when constructing a building.
C. It is a step in the design procedure in which the client’s goals are identified.
D. It provides the firm with a measure of how well they did their job.
5 In paragraph 5, what does the phrase ‘come a cropper’ mean? _________
A. experience misfortune B. change one’s mind
C. notice the benefits D. make a selection
6 In paragraph 6, the writer implies that _________
A. most clients enter the commissioning process with a clear idea of whether or not they
want a green building
B. designers are usually less concerned about green design than the clients are.
C. the commissioning process offers a perfect opportunity to bring up the subject of green
design.
D. firms should avoid working with clients who reject green designs in their buildings.
7 Where in paragraph 7 does this sentence belong?
In a typical project, landscape architects and mechanical, electrical and plumbing
engineers do not become involved until a much later stage. _________
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
8 In paragraph 7, what does ‘balk at’ mean? _________
A. display shock towards B. agree to pay
C. question the reason for D. understand the need for
9 Green buildings are most likely to incur more expense than conventional buildings due
to _________
A. higher taxes incurred on sustainable buildings.
B. higher long-term operational costs.
C. the higher cost of green construction materials.
D. increased coordination between construction teams.
10. Which sentence best expresses the most important ideas in the passage?
A. Ensuring good internal air quality is one way of ensuring that occupants are satisfied
with a building’s design.
B. Most clients are prepared to pay extra in order to receive the benefits of green building
design.
C. Green, sustainable buildings are advantageous not only in terms of environmental
impact but also financial benefits.
D. Architects are more interested in green building design than other contractors, such as
engineers and plumbers.
Part 3. Questions 1–13, read the passage below and complete the questions (13pts)
Life lessons from villains, crooks and gangsters
(A) A notorious Mexican drug baron’s audacious escape from prison in July doesn’t, at
first, appear to have much to teach corporate boards. But some in the business world
suggest otherwise. Beyond the morally reprehensible side of criminals' work, some
business gurus say organised crime syndicates, computer hackers, pirates and others
operating outside the law could teach legitimate corporations a thing or two about how to
hustle and respond to rapid change.
(B) Far from encouraging illegality, these gurus argue that – in the same way big
corporations sometimes emulate start-ups – business leaders could learn from the
underworld about flexibility, innovation and the ability to pivot quickly. “There is a
nimbleness to criminal organisations that legacy corporations [with large, complex layers
of management] don’t have,” said Marc Goodman, head of the Future Crimes Institute
and global cyber-crime advisor. While traditional businesses focus on rules they have to
follow, criminals look to circumvent them. “For criminals, the sky is the limit and that
creates the opportunity to think much, much bigger.”
(C) Joaquin Guzman, the head of the Mexican Sinaloa drug cartel, for instance, slipped
out of his prison cell through a tiny hole in his shower that led to a mile-long tunnel fitted
with lights and ventilation. Making a break for it required creative thinking, long-term
planning and perseverance – essential skills similar to those needed to achieve success in
big business.
(D) While Devin Liddell, who heads brand strategy for Seattle-based design consultancy,
Teague, condemns the violence and other illegal activities he became curious as to how
criminal groups endure. Some cartels stay in business despite multiple efforts by law
enforcement on both sides of the US border and millions of dollars from international
agencies to shut them down. Liddell genuinely believes there’s a lesson in longevity here.
One strategy he underlined was how the bad guys respond to change. In order to bypass
the border between Mexico and the US, for example, the Sinaloa cartel went to great
lengths. It built a vast underground tunnel, hired family members as border agents and
even used a catapult to circumvent a high-tech fence.
(E) By contrast, many legitimate businesses fail because they hesitate to adapt quickly to
changing market winds. One high-profile example is movie and game rental company
Blockbuster, which didn’t keep up with the market and lost business to mail order video
rentals and streaming technologies. The brand has all but faded from view. Liddell argues
the difference between the two groups is that criminal organisations often have
improvisation encoded into their daily behaviour, while larger companies think of
innovation as a set process. “This is a leadership challenge,” said Liddell. “How well
companies innovate and organise is a reflection of leadership.”
Left-field thinking
(F) Cash-strapped start-ups also use unorthodox strategies to problem solve and build
their businesses up from scratch. This creativity and innovation is often borne out of
necessity, such as tight budgets. Both criminals and start-up founders “question authority,
act outside the system and see new and clever ways of doing things,” said Goodman.
“Either they become Elon Musk or El Chapo.” And, some entrepreneurs aren’t even
afraid to operate in legal grey areas in their effort to disrupt the marketplace. The co-
founders of music streaming service Napster, for example, knowingly broke music
copyright rules with their first online file sharing service, but their technology paved the
way for legal innovation as regulators caught up.
(G) Goodman and others believe thinking hard about problem solving before worrying
about restrictions could prevent established companies falling victim to rivals less
constrained by tradition. In their book The Misfit Economy, Alexa Clay and Kyra Maya
Phillips examine how individuals can apply that mindset to become more innovative and
entrepreneurial within corporate structures. They studied not just violent criminals like
Somali pirates, but others who break the rules in order to find creative solutions to their
business problems, such as people living in the slums of Mumbai or computer hackers.
They picked out five common traits among this group: the ability to hustle, pivot,
provoke, hack and copycat.
(H) Clay gives a Saudi entrepreneur named Walid Abdul-Wahab as a prime example.
Abdul-Wahab worked with Amish farmers to bring camel milk to American consumers
even before US regulators approved it. Through perseverance, he eventually found a
network of Amish camel milk farmers and started selling the product via social media.
Now his company, Desert Farms, sells to giant mainstream retailers like Whole Foods
Market. Those on the fringe don’t always have the option of traditional, corporate jobs
and that forces them to think more creatively about how to make a living, Clay said. They
must develop grit and resilience in order to last outside the cushy confines of cubicle life.
“In many cases scarcity is the mother of invention,” Clay said.
Questions 1-8
The reading passage has eight paragraphs A-H. Match the headings below with the
paragraphs. Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1- 8.
1. Jailbreak with creative thinking _________
2. Five common traits among rule-breakers ________
3. Comparison between criminals and traditional businessmen ________
4. Can drug baron's espace teach legitimate corporations? ________
5. Great entrepreneur ________
6. How criminal groups deceive the law ________
7. The difference between legal and illegal organisations ________
8. Similarity between criminals and start-up founders ________
Questions 9-12
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONLY ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.
9. To escape from a prison, Joaquin Guzman had to use such traits as creative thinking,
long-term planning and _________
10. The Sinaloa cartel built a grand underground tunnel and even used a _________ to
avoid the fence.
11. The main difference between two groups is that criminals, unlike large corporations,
often have __________ encoded into their daily life.
12. Due to being persuasive, Walid Abdul-Wahab found a _________ of Amish camel
milk farmers.
 PRACTICE TEST 6LQD
Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions and
write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. They can pay us what they like. They know they have us over a ____.
A. barrel B. drum C. keg D. hogshead
2. The thieves got away with a ____ of jewellery worth millions of pounds.
A. plunder B. haul C. snatch D. loot
3. He came into the room and sat down without ____ a word to anyone.
A. as far as B. too much of C. very much of D. so much as
4. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journeys and ups and
downs ____.
A. aplenty B. inexhaustibly C. profusely D.
superabundant
5. It stands to reason that a touch of humour and optimism can work ____.
A. on all cylindersB. spectacles C. wonders D. your
bones
6. Just take a look at his neat appearance. It sticks out ____ that he is a big shot.
A. a kilometre B. an inch C. a yard D. a mile
7. I did my ____ best to apologise for the mistake, but I couldn't soften Judy up by even
the most honest explanation.
A. level B. utmost C. irregular D. extreme
8. Before the policeman even thought about the chase, the motorcyclist was a long way
away. He must have been riding ____.
A. at full stretch B. at a fair lick C. at loggerheads D. at ease
9. The newspapers wrote that our team had given a good ____ of themselves in the semi-
final.
A. performance B. account C. display D. triumph
10. Several of the new bills are still _____. That is why the enactment of the new penal
code has been delayed.
A. on the cheap B. in the pineline C. in the wing D. on the
double
11. Union leaders called for _____ between themselves and the government.
A. speeches B. elections C. debates D. consultations
12. David has just finished a ____ compulsory military service.
A. bout B. stint C. patch D. spurt
13. It’s no good constantly complaining but at the same time being totally ____. You
have to do something to help yourself.
A. idle B. engaged C. apathetic D. languid
14. The Government intends to introduce a new Bill on taxation, ____
A. whose provisions will be the work of experts on both sides of the House will be study
B. of which the study of its provisions will be the work of experts on both sides of the
House
C. the work of experts on both sides of the House will be the study of its provisions
D. the study of whose provisions will be the work of experts on both sides of the House
15. ___________, there’s no place like home.
A. Be it ever so humble B. Should it be humble
C. As humble as it could be D. To be humble
16. When I was a child I always hated wearing my older brother’s ____.
A. let-offs B. cast-offs C. drop-offs D. hand-offs
17. - I think that Mick will leave his new job before the year is out.
- Yes, I agree. I don’t think he’ll _____ either.
A. stay the course B. relieved of his duties C. get the sack D. rake
industrial action
18. –“Did the kids enjoy the circus?”
–“Absolutely! The clown got them _____ all the time.”
A. laugh B. to be laughing C. to laugh D. laughing
19. State officials are confident that Missouri has been put on a course ______ of states
that have sued tobacco companies to recover damages.
A. to join scores B. joining a scoring C. joins score D.
joining a score.
20. His educational theories are hotly _______.
A. disapproved B. perceived C. received D. contested

Part 2: For questions 1-10, read the following article and choose the answer A, B, C
or D that fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
THE PRINT REVOLUTION
For more than five thousand years, from the dawn of civilization in Mesopotamia and
Egypt, people in the West wrote by hand. Imperial degrees, sacred scriptures,
commercial transactions, private letters - all required the skills of a select group of
scribes, clerks, or monks. In Korea and China, however, mechanical printing using
carved wooden blocks had been introduced by A.D. 750. Moveable type, using
characters made of baked clay, was invented in China in the eleventh century. But the
Chinese continued to prefer block printing well into the modern period. Written Chinese
consists of thousands of ideographic characters. The labor of creating, organizing, and
setting so many different bits of type made it much simpler to cut individual pages from
a single wooden block. European languages, which can be written with fewer than a
hundred characters, were much better adapted to printing with moveable, reusable type.
It appears that the Mongol armies brought examples of Chinese printing - the Venetian
Marco Polo described seeing paper money during his travels - to western Asia and
Europe at the end of the thirteenth century. In the early fourteenth century, European
began using block printing techniques to produce religious images, short prayers, and
even decks of playing cards. As with Chinese printing, European block printing was a
slow and expensive process for printing large numbers of varied texts. The print
revolution had to wait another century, until the innovations of the German goldsmith
Johan Gutenberg (ca. 1399 – 1468).
Gutenberg drew on his knowledge of metallurgy to devise a lead-tin-copper alloy that
could be cast into durable, reusable type. His crucial invention was a type mold
consisting of a flat strip of metal - stamped in the same way a coin is minted, leaving the
impression of a single letter - inserted in the bottom of a rectangular brass of box held
together by screws. Molten metal was poured into it, producing a single piece of type. An
experienced type founder could produce up to six hundred pieces of type a day. No
wooden- block carver could have approached that rate. [A] To solve the remaining
problems, Gutenberg adapted the screw press commonly used to produce linen, paper,
and wine to make a printing press. [B] He followed the example of Flemish painters by
adding linseed oil to the ink to make it thick enough to adhere uniformly to the metal
type.
In 1455, the Gutenberg Bible was published in Mainz., Germany - but not by Gutenberg.
After years of costly experimentation, Gutenberg was forced to turn over his equipment
and newly printed Bibles to his partner and creditor, the wealthy merchant and
moneylender Johann Fust. [C]
The new technology, which enabled printers to create a thousand or more copies in a
single print run, was highly efficient. Simple printed school texts cost only a quarter of
the price of hand- copied texts. The leading bookseller in the university town of Bologna
managed to stock ten thousand copies of texts, treatises, and commentaries. By 1500,
even street singers sold printed copies of their songs. [D]
Gutenberg’s invention was revolutionary because, for the first time, the same information
and ideas were available throughout Europe at virtually the same time. The great
Venetian printer Aldus Manutius (1450-1515) produced over 120,000 volumes, many in
the new, smaller, easily portable “octavo” format - about 6 by 9 inches. Books from the
Aldine Press and other humanistic publishers played a decisive role in spreading
humanism to parts of Europe where manuscript books were difficult to acquire.
Moreover, book owning was no longer the exclusive preserve of scholars. This was all
the more true because printers included on their lists of works in vernacular languages,
not just the ancient classics. The very popularity of printed vernacular texts affected
language. William Caxton (1422 – 1492), for example, began printing books in English
in 1472. His pioneering work helped standardize modern English, just as the publication
of Martin Luther’s German translation of the Bible in 1522 would standardize modern
German. The advent of printing had other far-reaching consequences: it promoted the
increase of literacy throughout Europe.
By the eighteenth century, printed books had changed the nature of popular culture.
Myths, folk songs, and popular histories were traditionally passed by word of mouth,
often changing in the telling to fit the time and place. Once they appeared in print, they
could no longer be performed and refashioned, only recited. Printing not only changed
the way information was transmitted but also changed the character of the information
itself.
1. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. A comparison of religious and humanistic publications
B. A history of the printing process worldwide
C. An account of Gutenberg’s inventions
D. The effects of books on the history of Europe
2. How was popular culture affected by printing?
A. The oral tradition required editing of printed documents
B. More folk histories were preserved.
C. Stories and songs changed less often.
D. Traditional performers became more popular.
3. The word character in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. popularity B. nature C. truth D. difficulty
4. The word it in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. box B. letter C. impression D. coin
5. According to the passage, how did Europeans learn about block printing?
A. The Egyptians used the blocks for documents that the Europeans received.
B. A German goldsmith invented it at the beginning of the fifteenth century.
C. It was first devised in Europe in order to print paper money.
D. They saw examples that were brought from China by explorers and soldiers.
6. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the bold and
underlined statement in the passage?
A. Scholars owned more books than other people.
B. Scholars were not the only people who could own books.
C. Scholars preserved books for use by other people.
D. Scholars owned some exclusive books.
[Link] author mentions all of the following advantages of the print revolution
EXCEPT ______.
A. the restoration of manuscripts B. the advancement of literacy
C. the dissemination of humanism D. the standardization of English
8. It can be inferred that Gutenberg ______.
A. had probably traveled to China and western Asia
B. did not live to see his invention succeed
C. was a painter before he became an inventor
D. worked for a long time to perfect his painting process
9. The four squares [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence can
be added to the passage.
Although he did not receive the financial remuneration that he deserved, history has
recorded his name among the most influential inventors of all time.
Where would the sentence best fit into the passage?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
10. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. And
three other options express the most important ideas in the passage to complete the
summary. Choose ONE option that does not belong to the summary.
Printing not only changed the way information was transmitted but also changed the
character of the information itself.
A. Gutenberg devised reusable type for European languages to replace the block printing
that was more appropriate for Asian languages.
B. Block printing continued to be used to print paper money in most of the European
countries.
C. Information and ideas were made available throughout Europe to a large number of
people at virtually the same time.
D. Many changes in literacy and vernacular languages occurred as a result of the printing
Part 5: Read the passage and choose the answer that fits best according to the text.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
 COLONIZING THE AMERICAS VIA THE NORTHWEST COAST
It has long been accepted that the Americas were colonized by a migration of peoples
from Asia slowly traveling across a land bridge called Beringia (now the Bering strait
between northeastern Asia and Alaska) during the last Ice Age. The first water craft
theory about this migration was that around 11,000-12,000 years ago there was an ice-free
corridor stretching from eastern Beringia to the areas of North America south of the great
northern glaciers. It was this midcontinental corridor between two massive ice sheets—
the Laurentide to the east and the Cordilleran to the west—that enabled the southward
migration. But belief in this ice-free corridor began to crumble when paleoecologist Glen
MacDonald demonstrated that some of the most important radiocarbon dates used to
support the existence of an ice-free corridor were incorrect. He persuasively argued that
such an ice-free corridor did not exist until much later, when the continental ice began its
final retreat.
Support is growing for the alternative theory that people using watercraft, possibly skin
boats, moved southward from Beringla along the Gulf of Alaska and then southward
along the Northwest Coast of North America possibly as early as 16,000 years ago. This
route would have enabled humans to enter southern areas of the Americas prior to the
melting of the continental glaciers. Until the early 1970s, most archaeologists did not
consider the coast a possible migration route into the Americas because geologists
originally believed that during the last Ice Age the entire Northwest Coast was covered by
glacial ice. It had been assumed that the ice extended westward from the
Alaskan/Canadian mountains to the very edge of the continental shelf—the flat, sub-
merged part of the continent that extends into the ocean. This would have created a barrier
of ice extending from the Alaska Peninsula, through the Gulf of Alaska and southward
along the Northwest Coast of North America to what is today the state of Washington.
The most influential proponent of the coastal migration route has been Canadian
archaeologist Knut Fladmark. He theorized that with the use of watercraft, people
gradually colonized unglaciated refuges and areas along the continental shelf exposed by
the lower sea level. Fladmark’s hypothesis received additional support from the fact
that the greatest diversity in Native American languages occurs along the west coast
of the Americas, suggesting that this region has been settled the longest.
More recent geologic studies documented deglaciation and the existence of ice- free areas
throughout major coastal areas of British Columbia, Canada, by 13,000 years ago.
Research now Indicates that sizable areas of southeastern Alaska along the inner
continental shelf were not covered by ice toward the end of the last Ice Age. One study
suggests that except for a 250-mile coastal area between southwestern British Columbia
and Washington state, the Northwest Coast of North America was largely free of Ice by
approximately 16,000 years ago. Vast areas along the coast may have been deglaciated
beginning around 16,000 years ago, possibly providing a coastal corridor for the move-
ment of plants, animals, and humans sometime between 13,000 and 14,000 years ago.
The coastal hypothesis has gained increasing support in recent years because the remains
of large land animals, such as caribou and brown bears, have been found in southeastern
Alaska dating between 10,000 and 12,500 years ago. This is the time period In which
most scientists formerly believed the area to be inhospitable for humans. It has been
suggested that if the environment were capable of supporting breeding populations of
bears, there would have been enough food resources to support humans. Fladmark and
others believe that the first human colonization of America occurred by boat along the
Northwest Coast during the very late Ice Age, possibly as early as 14,000 years ago. The
most recent geologic evidence indicates that It may have been possible for people to
colonize ice-free regions along the continental shelf that were still exposed by the lower
sea level between 13,000 and 14,000 years ago.
The coastal hypothesis suggests an economy based on marine mammal hunting, saltwater
fishing, shellfish gathering, and the use of watercraft. Because of the barrier of ice to the
east, the Pacific Ocean to the west, and populated areas to the north, there may have been
a greater impetus for people to move In a southerly direction.

1. According to paragraph 1, the theory that people first migrated to the Americas by way
of an ice-free corridor was seriously called into question by
A. paleoecologist Glen MacDonald’s argument that the original migration occurred much
later than had previously been believed
B. the demonstration that certain previously accepted radiocarbon dates were incorrect
C. evidence that the continental ice began its final retreat much later than had previously
been believed
D. research showing that the ice-free corridor was not as long lasting as had been widely
assumed
2. Paragraph 2 begins by presenting a theory and then goes on to
A. discuss why the theory was rapidly accepted but then rejected
B. present the evidence on which the theory was based
C. cite evidence that now shows that the theory is incorrect
D. explain why the theory was not initially considered plausible
3. Paragraph 2 supports the idea that, before the 1970s, most archaeologists held which of
the following views about the earliest people to reach the Americas?
A. They could not have sailed directly from Beringia to Alaska and then southward
because, it was thought, glacial ice covered the entire coastal region.
B. They were not aware that the climate would continue to become milder.
C. They would have had no interest in migrating southward from Beringia until after the
continental glaciers had begun to melt.
D. They lacked the navigational skills and appropriate boats needed for long distance
trips.
4. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important
ways or leave out essential information.
A. Because this region has been settled the longest, it also displays the greatest diversity
in Native American languages.
B. Fladmark’s hypothesis states that the west coast of the Americas has been settled
longer than any other region.
C. The fact that the greatest diversity of Native American languages occurs along the west
coast of the Americas lends strength to Fladmark’s hypothesis.
D. According to Fladmark, Native American languages have survived the longest along
the west coast of the Americas.
5. The author’s purpose in paragraph 4 is to
A. indicate that a number of recent geologic studies seem to provide support for the
coastal hypothesis
B. indicate that coastal and inland migrations may have happened simultaneously
C. explain why humans may have reached America’s northwest coast before animals and
plants did
D. show that the coastal hypothesis may explain how people first reached Alaska but it
cannot explain how people reached areas like modern British Columbia and Washington
State
6. According to paragraph 5, the discovery of the remains of large land animals supports
the coastal hypothesis by providing evidence that
A. humans were changing their hunting techniques to adapt to coastal rather than inland
environments
B. animals had migrated from the inland to the coasts, an indication that a midcontinental
ice-free corridor was actually implausible
C. humans probably would have been able to find enough resources along the coastal
corridor
D. the continental shelf was still exposed by lower sea levels during the period when the
southward migration of people began
7. According to paragraph 5, the most recent geologic research provides support for a first
colonization of America dating as far back as
A. 16,000 years ago B. 14,000 years ago C. 12,500 years ago D. 10,000 years
ago