Infection control questions

1. In VAP patient what is a standard angle of degree to which head end of bed should be elevated?
a. 30 to 45 degrees
b. 40 to 50 degrees
c. 60 to 90 degrees
d. 120 degrees

2. The epidermis and dermis involvement in the SSI comes under which of the following?
a. Superficial SSI
b. Deep SSI
c. A&B
d. None of the above

3. What are the types of hospital acquired infections?

a. Ventilator associated pneumonia
b. Surgical site infection
c. Central line associated blood stream infection
d. All of the above

4. How long hands to be rubbed together for effective hand washing?

a. 2 minutes
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 40-60 seconds

5. Hospital acquired infection is also known as :

a. Nasocomial infection
b. Nostocomial infection
c. Nosocongenial infection
d. Nosocomial infections

6. How many steps are there in effective handwashing?

a. 10 steps
b. 7 steps
c. 8 steps
d. 6 steps

7. What are portals of entry for M.O in IV catheter systems?

a. Insertion site
b. Stop cock
c. Medication port
d. All of the above

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8. Factors influencing nosocomial infections are:
a. Patient susceptibility
b. Microbial agent
c. Environmental factors
e. All of the above

9. The flank pain (either side of the lower back between pelvis and ribs) and fever is the indication of which
nosocomial infection?
a. UTI
b. BSI
c. Pneumonia
d. SSI

10. The nurse in charge is evaluating the IC procedures in the unit. Which finding indicates a break in tech-
nique and the need for education of staff?
a. The nurse aide is not wearing gloves when feeding an elderly client.
b. Client with active TB is asked to wear a mask when he leaves hie room to go to another department for
testing.
c. A nurse with open, weeping lesions of the hands puts on gloves before giving direct client care.
d. The nurse puts on a mask, gown and gloves before entering the room of a client on strict isolation.

11. In VAP patient, there is a standard angle of degrees to which head end of the bed should be elevated..
a. Reduce GI bleeding
b. Decrease the risk of aspiration
c. Decrease breathing difficulty
d. None of the above

12. In the VAP bundle, Proton pump inhibitors are for the prophylaxis of:
a. Acidity
b. Mouth ulcer
c. Inflammation
d. Peptic ulcer

13. What are the preventive measures for CLABSI ?

a. Prolong use of catheters
b. Maintaining high level of asceptic techniques
c. A&B
d. None of the above

14. Which of the following is the first priority in preventing infections when providing care for a client?
a. Hand hygiene
b. Wearing gloves
c. Using a barrier between client’s furniture and nurse’s bag
d. Wearing gowns and goggles

15. Chlorohexidine is:

a. Bactericidal
b. Germicidal
c. Bacteriostatic
d. Antiseptic solution
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16. Most common nosocomial infection, anaerobic bacterial infection, acquired in hospitals, develop colitis
following antibiotic intake and 1/3 of infected persons don’t have symptoms :
a. Staph.aureus
b. VRE
c. Closridium difficile
d. None of the above

17. Infection occur in HCF by :

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet transmission
d. Nosocomial

18. Growth promoted by warmth and moisture:

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Ptotozoa

19. Causes pneumonia:

a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Diplococci
d. None

20. Involving intermediary such as a contaminated hands or food or inanimate objects:

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet transmission
d. Vector- borne

21. Require oxygen, CARBs, a specific PH and temp.:

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

22. Causes respiratory infections:

a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Diplococci
d. None

23. Transmitted by oral-fecal route, sex, water, shellfish:

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

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24. Very few are pathogenic, most are considered beneficial since they are important in the production of yo-
ghurt, beer and other foods as well as serving as source of antibiotic drugs:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

25. Which exist in many similar forms or strains ?

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

26. Unicellular M.O that don’t require living tissue to survive. They are very simple in structure with a very
complex cell wall and they reproduce:
a. Viruses
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Protozoa

27. Which are specific to target individual antifungal, antiviral, antibacterial . these drugs are unique to the
type of organism and are not interchangeable.
a. Antibiotics
b. Antimicrobials
c. Broad spectrum
d. None

28. Can live independently, some live on dead organic matter, others are parasites living on or in another liv-
ing host :
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

29. More complex organisms, unicellular, mobile, lack a cell wall and may change shapes:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

30. When an insect or animal serves as an intermediary in a disease such as malaria:

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet transmission
d. Vector borne

31. A very small parasite that requires a living host cell for replication :
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
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d. Protozoa

32. Hard to control, they can hide inside the human cell, they can alter the host cell chromosomes, thus lead-
ing to the development of malignant cells or cancer:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

33. Some remain latent after invasion , they enter the host cell, and replicate very slowly or not at all until
some later time:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

34. Ultrasonic bath cleaners are an effective way to clean tiny devices in implements only when used with:
a. 70 % isopropyl alcohol
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. An effective disinfectant
d. An effective astringent

35. Spread through spores that are resistant to temp. changes and chemicals:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

36. Bacteria and viruses can enter the body through:

a. Oily skin
b. Dry skin
c. Broken skin
d. Moist skin

37. Growth replication determined by environment:

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

38. Infection to a certain area consistently occurring in that population:

a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic
d. All of the above

39. Touching infectious lesions or sexual intercourse:

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet transmission
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d. Vector-borne

40. Tend to mutate or change during replication making it very difficult for a host to develop adequate im-
munity:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

41. Occurs when respiratory or salivary secretions containing pathogens as influenza or TB are expelled from
the body:
a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet transmission
d. Vector-borne

42. Pathogens are:

a. Disease causing microbes germs or bugs
b. Non disease causing and are beneficial
c. Both
d. None

43. Some have an external capsule or slime layer offering additional protection against human defenses:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

44. Common S & S include cysts, abdominal pain, appetite loss, ulcers and anemia :
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

45. Live and grow everywhere:

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

46. Single individuals or localized groups:

a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic
d. None

47. Ends when the host resistance becomes effective:

a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Acute period
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d. None

48. Causes skin infections:

a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Diplococci
d. None

49. Protozoa that causes a STD of the reproductive tracts of men and women, attaching to the mucous mem-
branes and causing inflammation:
a. Amoebic dysentery
b. Helminths
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. None

50. Genetic material takes over control of the host cell using the host’s capacity for cell metabolism for repli-
cation:
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

51. AIDS is caused by :

a. Herpes virus
b. Poor personel hygiene
c. HIV virus
d. Contaminated food

52. Worldwide infection :

a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic
d. All of the above

53. Air-borne precautions include:

a. N 95 mask, positive pressure room
b. N 95 mask, negative pressure room
c. Only N 95 mask
d. None of the above

54. Contact precautions include all of the following except:

a. N 95 mask
b. Negative pressure room
c. All of the above

55. Cohort isolation means:

a. Different patients with same infections
b. Different infections in same age group
c. Only old age people

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56. What three elements are needed for a HCAI to occur:
a. An infectious agent, source and susceptible host
b. An infectious agent, carrier and pathogen
c. Source , carrier and contact

57. When are transmission based precautions required?

a. When standard precautions are not useful
b. When standard precautions alone are not sufficient to prevent transmission of infectious disease
c. When Pt. has hepatitis C

58. Mrs. Fatima is admitted to hospital A with a leg wound infected with MRSA. The wound has moderate
purulent ooze. Mr. Jones is admitted to hospital A and because he was in the hospital with a MRSA infected
surgical wound one month ago, he has his nose and groins swabbed for MRSA and is found to be colonized
with MRSA. Mrs. Smith is placed in contact precautions. Should Mr. Smith be also placed in contact precau-
tions?
a. Both conditions will be OK
b. No, there is no need
c. Yes, because colonization is a potential source for transmission

59. Standard precautions are work practices required for the basic level of infection control, which of the fol-
lowing do they apply to:
a. All Hep. B patients
b. All pts. Regardless of suspected or confirmed infectious state.
c. Only TB pts.

60. Five moments have been identified as critical times when HH should be performed. These are:
a. Before and after contact, before a procedure, after a procedure or contact with blood or body fluids, after
contact with patient’s environment
b. After a procedure or contact with blood or body fluids, after contact with patient’s environment, before
using toilet
c. Hands should be washed only when they are visibly soiled

61. Which of the following method of sterilization has no effect on spores ?

a. Hot air oven
b. Autoclave
c. Drying
d. All of the above

62. Temperature used in hot air oven is :

a. 250 degree Celsius for 1 hour
b. 160 degree Celsius for 1 hour
c. 120 degree Celsius for 1 hour
d. 100 degree Celsius for 1 hour

63. The condition required for autoclave

a. 150 degree Celsius for 1 hour
b. 121 degree Celsius and 1.036 bar for 30 minutes
c. 132 degree Celsius and 2.026 bar for 1 hour
d. 250 degree Celsius for 1 hour

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64. Glassware are sterilized by :
a. Hot air oven
b. Incineration
c. Autoclaving
d. All of the above

65. In autoclave, the principle involved is:

a. Moist heat
b. Steam under pressure
c. Dry heat
d. Both A & B

66. Spores are killed by:

a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Autoclaving
c. 70 % alcohol
d. Both A & B

67. Which of the following compounds are commonly used as general antiseptics to treat cuts and scratches ?
a. Aldehydes
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Halogens
d. None of the above

68. Complete destruction of M.O is commonly known as :

a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Antisepsis
d. None of the above

69. Iodophors are mixture of :

a. Iodine and aldehydes
b. Iodine and surface active agents
c. Iodine and alcohols
d. Iodine and phenols

70. Which of the following methods will not sterilize ?

a. Aqueous glutaraldehyde for 10 hours
b. Dry heat at 170 o C for 1-2 hours
c. 121oC at 1.036 bar for 30 minutes
d. 100oC boiling water for 30 minutes

71. Which of the following is/are vapour phase disinfectant/s?

a. Formaldehyde
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

72. Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave ?

a. Takes too long to sterilize
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b. Lacks the ability to inactivate viruses
c. Lacks the ability to kill endospores
d. Will destroy heat labile materials

73. Which of the following has most heat resistant spores ?

a. Clostridium Histolyticum
b. Clostridium Perfringes
c. Bacillus Stearothermophilus
d. Bacillus Cereus

74. Which of the following is sterilized with glutaraldehyde ?

a. Thermometers
b. Bronchoscopes
c. Cystoscopes
d. All of the above

75. Which of the following materials is sterilized by heating at 160oC in a hot air oven for one hour ?
a. Swab sticks
b. All glass syringes
c. Oils and jellies
d. All of the above

76. For sterilization of which material, Gamma rays can be used ?

a. Catheters
b. Plastic syringes
c. Cannulas
d. None of these

77. Microbes can be removed from a liquid solution by the process of :

a. Filtration
b. Freeze-drying
c. Osmosis
d. Dessication

78. Which of the following is widely used as antiseptic and disinfectant ?

a. Chlorine
b. Phenol
c. Iodine
d. Alcohol

79. Ethylene oxide is used to destroy or kill which of the following microbes ?
a. Bacteria
b. Spores
c. Fungi
d. All of the above

80. One drawback to the use of UV light as a sterilizing agent is its :

a. Failure to kill bacteria
b. Failure to kill bacterial spores
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c. Failure to kill microbes in closed environment
d. Failure to kill microbes in the center of the object

81. The process of making an object free from living organisms including bacterial and fungal spores and vi-
ruses is known as :
a. Pasteurization
b. Antisepsis
c. Disinfection
d. Sterilization

82. Which of the following skin desinfectants is/are most frequently used ?
a. Isopropyl alcohol
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Methyl alcohol
d. All except C

83. All of the following are sporicidal except :

a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Formaldehyde
d. Alcohol

84. Which of the following items can be sterilized by dry heat sterilization?
a. IV solutions
b. Plastic IV bags
c. Glass pipettes
d. Rubber gloves

85. Which of the following doesn’t kill endospores ?

a. Autoclave
b. Incineration
c. Hot air sterilization
d. Pasteurization

86. The time required to kill 90 % of M.O in a sample at a specific temp.:

a. Decimal reduction time
b. Thermal death point
c. F value
87. Which of the following disinfectants act by disrupting microbial membranes ?
a. Cationic detergents
b. Halogens
c. Heavy metals
d. Aldehydes

88. Which of the following articles can be sterilized in an autoclave ?

a. Gloves
b. Culture media
c. Dressing material
d. All of the above
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89. In sterilization process, spore of which of the following is considered as control ?
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Bacillus stearothermophillus
d. Asperigillus niger

90. The heat conduction in dry air is :

a. Less rapid than in steam
b. More rapid than in steam
c. Similar to steam
d. None of the above

91. Sterilization can be carried out by :

a. Heat
b. Radiation
c. Chemical agents
d. All of the above

92. Disinfection method for thermometer:

a. Hot air oven
b. Autoclave
c. Flaming
d. Alcohol

93. Sterilization for sterile disposable medical items :

a. UV light
b. Gamma rays
c. Autoclave
d. Hot air oven

94. The following are all examples of sterilization systems for heat sensitive items except :
a. Filtration
b. Gamma rays
c. Autoclave
d. UV light

95. The following is true about sterilization indicators:

a. Sterilization indicators are used to determine whether an item has been properly exposed to the steriliza-
tion process
b. There are three types of indicators used : physical, chemical and biological
c.All of the above

96. Cleaning, disinfection and sterilization differs as follows:

a. Cleaning removes gross contamination, disinfection kills 100% of germs plus endospores, sterilization kills
germs
b. Cleaning kills germs, disinfection kills endospores, sterilization removes dirt and grease
c. Cleaning doesn’t kill germs, disinfection kill germs, sterilization kills 99 % of germs plus endospores
d. Only cleaning and disinfection are required in hospital settings

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 97. An example of antiseptic is:
a. Soap
b. Rubbing alcohol
c. Hand lotion
d. Bleach

98. Containers marked with the biohazard symbol are used to collect :
a. Clean dressings
b. Extra dressings
c. Disposable supplies
d. Infectious material

99. A chemical that kills most pathogenic organisms but does not kill spores:
a. Sterilant
b. Disinfection
c. Disinfectant solution

100. Antiseptics are like disinfectants for living tissues:

a. True
b. False

101. Which of the following is most effective in sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri dishes?
a. Chlorine
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Autoclave
d. Glutaraldehyde
e. UV radiation

102. A(n) …….. is used to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogen growth on animal tissues:
a. Sterilant
b. Sanitizer
c. Disinfectant
d. Bacteriostatic agent
e. Antiseptic

103. In order to be considered ‘ Formulated for hospitals and HCFs’, a disinfectant must be pseudomonocidal,
bactericidal, fungicidal and ……
a. Virucidal
b. Inexpensive
c. Easy to dilute
d. Pneumonicidal

104. Disinfection may be used on :

a. Nail plates
b. Wood
c. Skin
d. Nonporous surfaces

105. Desinfectants are too strong to be used on :

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 a. Shampoo bowls
b. Haircutting tools
c. Ceramic surfaces
d. Skin, hair or nails

106. Surfaces such as tables, walls, doorknobs or your hands , no matter how clean , are very………
a. Infected
b. Sterile
c. Pathogenic
d. Contaminated

107. There are three main levels of decontamination :

a. Steam autoclave, dry heat, disinfection
b. Sterilization, disinfection, sanitation
c. Sterilization, cleaning, sanitation
d. Disinfection, scrubbing, sanitation

108. Only one level of decontamination, sterilization, is capable of killing:

a. Tuberculosis bacteria
b. HIV virus
c. Bacterial spores
d. Both bacteria and viruses

109. The HIV virus is not transmitted through:

a. Unprotected sexual contact
b. Kissing or hugging
c.Cutsand sores
d. IV users sharing needles

110. Penetrating cells and becoming part of them is characteristic of :

a. Bacteria
b. Parasite
c.Virus
d. Fungi

111. Pus-forming bacteria that cause strep. Throat and blood poisoning are:
a. Streptococci
b. Bacilli
c.Staphylococci
d. Diplococci

112. The spirilla bacteria Triponema Pallidum causes:

a. TB
b. Pneumonia
c.Abscess
d. Syphilis

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113. The type of bacteria called cocci have:
a. Spiral shape
b. Rounded shape
c.Rod shape
d. Corkscrew shape

114. The type of bacteria that has rod shape is called :

a. Diplococci
b. Staphylococci
c.Bacilli
d. Spirilla

115. Bacteria that cause disease are called:

a. Non pathogenic
b. Protozoa
c.Saprophytes
d. Pathogenic

116. Which is not a transmission based precaution ?

a. Airborne
b. Contact
c. Isolation
d. Droplet

117. When should you wash your hands?

a. Before and after using gloves
b. Before and after patient care
c. After touching patient zone
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

118. Bed linens should be changed once a week:

a. True
b. False

119. It is not necessary to wear gloves when you handle soiled laundry or linens
a. True
b. False

120. Body waste should be disposed in the toilet

a. True
b. False

121. Universal precautions are all of the practices that help to stop the spread of infection and diseases
a. True
b. False

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122. Germs are only spread by contact , not through air
a. True
b. False

123. You can use the same paper towel to dry your hands and to close the faucet
a. True
b. False

124. You will always need to wear gloves during any personel care for your client
a. True
b. False

125. Gowns will protect your clothes from germs the patient may have
a. True
b. False

126. PPEs include:

a. Gloves—when hand contamination is anticipated
b. Masks and eye protection – when splashes may occur
c. Gowns – when soiling of clothes may occur
d. All of the above

127. Which of the following pathogens is the least likely to be associated by nosocomial infection ?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Coagulase-negative staph
d. Bacteroides fragilis

128. When a patient is on contact precautions for MRSA , which of the following is correct?
a. Enter the room without PPE if no patient contact is planned
b. Wear gown, gloves and faceshield whenever entering the room
c. Wear gown and gloves whenever entering the room
d. Wear gloves only when anticipating patient contact

129. When diagnosing an infection with Clostridium difficile, which type of specimen is necessary?
a. Liquid stool
b. Solid stool
c. Skin swab
d. Blood

130. If an outbreak of Hepatitis A occurred in a group of people who had attended a community retreat with a
total of 36 participants three weeks earlier, the best method of case finding is:
a. Notify laboratories to report positive findings
b. Ask physicians to be on the alert
c. Individually contact the 36 participants
d. Alert the media to the outbreak

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131. When calculating rates of CAUTI on a unit in a six month period, the denominator must include:
a. All patients
b. All patients with urinary catheters
c. All patients with urinary catheters minus those with CAUTI
d. All patients with CAUTI

132. In an outbreak of probable foodborne illness, patients developed symptoms two to four hours after eating
turkey salad, the most likely causative organism is :
a. Salmonella enteritidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d. Clostridium per fringes

133. The presence of which of the following antibodies to HAV confirm the diagnosis of acute Hepatitis A?
a. Ig M
b. Ig G
c. Ig E
d. Ig D

134. In investigating an epidemic, cases should be categorized according to

a. Time, place and person
b. Agent, host and environment
c. Agent, host and date of onset
d. Time, person and date of onset

135. What is the most hygienic and effective method of drying hands after washing ?
a. Using a cloth towel
b. Shaking dry
c. Using disposable paper towel
d. Using a hot air dryer

136. HCWs are exposed to germs on their hands by doing the following:
a. Pulling patients up in bed
b. Taking a blood pressure or pulse
c. Touching a patient hand
d. Touching equipment like bedside rails, over bed tables , IV pumps
e. All of the above

137. What is the time duration for soap water hand washing?
a. 20-30 seconds
b. 2 minutes
c. 40-60 seconds
d. 2-3 minutes

138. What is the time duration for hand rub ?

a. 60 seconds
b. 2 minutes
17
 c. 20 seconds
d. 1 minute

139. Which of the following is considered as the most important aspect of hand washing?
a. Soap
b. Water
c. Friction
d. Time

140. Which is NOT a five moments of hand hygiene ?

a. After a procedure
b. After touching the patient surroundings
c. Before a procedure
d. Before touching a patient

141. What is the HH product of choice for all aseptic non-touch technique?
a. Alcohol based hand rubs
b. Soap and hot water
c. Soap and warm water
d. Iodophors

142. When using alcohol based hand rub , you should:

a. Apply hand rub and wave hands until dry
b. Apply a sufficient quantity of hand rub and rub hands for at least 15 seconds being sure to cover all areas
c. Apply the hand rub and rub palms together for 10 seconds
d. Apply hand rub when you see infection control staff in the unit

143. Which of the following is NOT considered a portal of entry for bacteria ?
a. Eyes
b. Nose
c. Mouth
d. Intact skin

144. MRSA and other MDRs are transmitted by:

a. Medical equipment that is shared and not disinfected appropriately between patients
b. On the hands of the HCWs who don’t perform HH as indicated in the 5 moments for HH
c. Environmental surfaces that are not properly cleaned
d. All of the above

145. Your IC department tells you that a patient can be managed using routine practices. This mean:
a. The patient doesn’t have any bacteria and doesn’t pose a risk to staff or other patients
b. Any care being provided is routine in nature and present no risk of infection
c. A risk assessment should be done before providing care and PPE worn as appropriate to the situation and
the care being provided
d. None of the above

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146. The most effective way for HCWs to protect themselves, their family and their patients from influenza is
to :
a. Wear surgical masks all the time in work
b. Stay at home when they have respiratory symptoms
c. Get an annual flu shot and encourage their family, co-workers and patients to get the flu vaccine annualy
d. Not go to work from November to April

147. Germs spread by airborne transmission can travel :

a. Only one inch
b. Three feet or less
c. Across a room or further
d. No distance at all

148. Additional precautions cover diseases that are spread by :

a. Droplet transmission
b. Contact with blood
c. Dirty gloves
d. Mucous membranes
e. A & B only

149. Phenolic desinfectants has a :

a. Very high PH
b. Very low PH
c. Neutral PH
d. Mildly alkaline PH

150. A person who is asymptomatic is :

a. Is immune to most types of diseases
b. Is exceptionaly prone to most types of diseases
c. Show multiple signs of infection
d. Shows no sign of infection

151. Sterilization :
a. Destroys most but not all bacteria
b. Destroys spores
c. Done through the use of disinfectant
d. None of the above

152. Breaches of gloves torn was reported among HCWs, as an IP want action , you have to give…, EXCEPT:
a. Education about HH and wearing of finger rings which can tear the glove
b. Cutting off the nails
c. Remove all jwellers before a HH and wear glove
d. Give punitive action towards HCWs

153. The study which measures exposure rate, quicker, easier and cheaper and called as case-referant compari-
son is :
a. Descriptive study
19
 b. Analytical cross sectional
c. Case control study
d. Cohort study

154. As per Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends all of the following immun-
izations be provided to HCWs :
a. Only Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis A, B and MMR, Varicella zoster vaccines (if not immune), influenza
c. BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin)
d. HIV vaccination

155. IP making environmental rounds in ICU and a doctor ask him what type gloves must be used to start cen-
tral line dressing change:
a. Clean examination gloves with PPE
b. Sterile gloves with PPE as appropriate with sterile supplies
c.Clean examination gloves with sterile supplies
d. Without gloves

156. During outbreak of influenza , an IP informed by public health to start preparedness, what is your first
step?
a. IP will notify FMS (facility management and safety) department to take action
b. Check the supplies of antibiotic in pharmacy
c.Education, vaccination, isolation and enhance the infection prevention measures
d. Informed ED (emergency department) staff for vaccination only

157. A patient is admitted to facility with (HAV) test positive, how will IP know patient with acute phase of
the illness?
a. Ig G
b. Ig M
c.Ig A
d. Ig M & Ig G

158. From nursery, an IP get a call that mother with untreated active TB , we can keep the baby together in one
room?
What will be the reply in this situation?
a. No, newborn should be separated from her until she is considered non infectious
b. Yes, can remain with mother and start the therapy
c.No, with airborne isolation for the newborn
d. Yes, but N 95 mask for mother

159. Which of the following specific vaccinations have been recommended for the splenectomy (solid organ)
transplant recipient to prevent the risk of life threatening infections ?
a. BCG
b. Oral Typhoid
c.Varicella Zoster
d. Influenza, Neisseria Meningitis, HAV, HBV, Pneumococcal

20
160. In CSF, gram negative cocci intracellular is isolated in selective media must be notified by lab. to ward for
isolation is :
a. Acinetobacter baumannii
b. V. cholera
c. Neisseria Meningitis
d. Streptococcus Pneumonia

161. Previously negative to HBV, an HCP got a needle stick injury, during post exposure follow up, his lab. re-
ports
shows HbsAg = positive, Total anti-HBc = negative, Ig M anti HBc = negative, Anti HBs = negative,
how you interpret these results?
a. Past resolved infection
b. Acute infection, early incubation
c. Susceptible to infection
d. Chronic infection

162. Outbreak of MERS CoV is notified by the public health to IP in a facility , ip was called by ED (emergency
department) nurse for what type of isolation precaution must be followed for suspected cases?
a. Only contact precautions
b. Air born precautions in AIIR room
c.Droplet precautions
d. Standard precautions

163. Blood culture after 10 days of incubation , Gram staining shows Gram negative coccobacilli patient with
history of fever and severe bone and joint problems , taking raw milk, what will be the causative agent ex-
pected to notify to the physician?
a. E. coli
b. Brucella spp.
c.Neisseria Meningitis
d. Klebsiella Pneumonia

164. For which of the following would antibiotic prophylaxis be indicated?

I. Any endoscopic procedure for a patient with prosthetic hip
II. Placement of endoscopic PEG feeding tube in patient
III. Any endoscopic procedure for patient with coronary artery disease
IV. Patient admitted with cirrhosis of liver and acute GI bleeding
a. I, III
b. II, IV
c.III, IV
d. I, II, III

165. Demonstration of an IP’s contribution to patient safety is best represented by which of the following ac-
tions?
a. Using clinical expertise to focus on improving post-operative patient care
b. Utilizing time to focus on the surveillance process
c.Assigning accountability an d attributing causation when errors occur
d. Participating in approaches to strengthen system design
21
166. Which of the following substances can sterilize?
a. Cetylpiridinium chloride
b. Silver nitrate
c.Alcohol
d. Chlorine
e.Ethylene oxide

167. The method used for the sterilization of solutions is called:

a. Sterilization
b. Autoclaving
c.Filtration
d. Radiation

168. A chemical used for the removal of M.O from the mucous memebrane and skin is called:
a. Detergent
b. Alcohol
c.Pesticides
d. Desinfectants

169. The temperature required for the sterilization with dry heat is:
a. 170oC
b. 180oC
c.150oC
d. 190oC

170. Sterilization is done by autoclave consisting of exposure to steam about :

a. 120oC
b. 170oC
c.116oC
d. 121oC

171. The Bowie Dick test is known as:

a. Dynamic air removal test
b. Process challenge test
c.Air challenge test
d. Diagnostic test

172. Which of the following monitoring methods verifies that conditions within the load were adequate to kill
bacterial spores?
a. Mechanical
b. Biological
c.Chemical
d. B & C

173. Which of the following doesn’t carry risk of infection from hepatitis B patient?
a. HBsAg
b. HBsAb
22
174. Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization?
a. Hot air at 160oC for 90 min
b. Boiling water at 100oC for 2 hours
c.Autoclave at 121oC under 15 psi for 20 min
d. Dry heat at 177oC for 60 min
e.All of the above will achieve sterilization

175. Which of the following is true in regards to high risk patients?

a. 0.1 ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1 ml of blood from HIV patient
b. 0.1 ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1 ml of blood from HIV patient
c.Level of virus is similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
d. Level of virus is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
e.The presence of Hepatitis B core antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

176. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures, what would you recommend as the
best method to verify that sterilization has occurred:
a. Use spore test daily
b. Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each package
c.Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
d. Use color change tape daily and spore test monthly
e.Use color change tape in each load and spore test weekly

177. Indicate which of the following has viricidal properties:

a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Chlorhexidine
c.Glutaraldehyde
d. Alcohol 70 %
e.Quaternary ammonium cpds

178. Which is true about disinfectant solution?

a. Destroys all pathogenic M.O including high resistant
b. Reduce the number of M.O to a non infective level
c.Kills all pathogens but not spores

179. For sterilization, paper plastic peel packages should be placed:

a. On their edge
b. Paper side down
c.Plastic side down

180. In a mixed load of textile and metal goods, the textile packs should be placed :
a. On the bottom rack
b. Alternatively on each rack
c.On the top rack

181. Which method of sterilization is used to sterilize liquids?

a. Ethylene oxide
b. Peracetic acid
23
 c.Prevac stream
d. Gravity steam

182. Unless otherwise specified by the device manufacturer, instruments used on patients with known or sus-
pected CJD should be :
a. Sterilized then decontaminated
b. Thrown away
c.Decontaminated as usual

183. Which of the following is the recommended cycle for reprocessing contaminated instrument from a sus-
pected CJD case:
a. Sodium hydroxide ---→ gravity steam (121 oC) for one hour ---→ cleaning ----→ rinsing ----→ sterilization
b. Sodium hypochlorite 20000ppm for one hour ---→ rinsing ---→ gravity steam (121 oC) for one hour ---→
cleaning ----→ rinsing ----→ sterilization
c.Sodium hypochlorite 20000ppm for one hour ---→ rinsing ---→ prevac steam (134 oC) for one hour ---→
cleaning ----→ rinsing ----→ sterilization
d. None of the above
e.All of the above

184. For sterilization to occur, steam must :

a. Make direct contact with all surfaces
b. Be superheated
c.Be flushed into each package
d. Trap air inside the package

185. The three parameters of steam sterilization are:

A. Steam under pressure, time, temperature
B. Time, temperature, conc.
C. Temp., time, humidity

186. Which of the following is the minimum exposure time for wrapped goods in a prevac steam cycle (134 oC):
a. 4 min
b. 3 min
c.5 min
d. 10 min

187. Flash sterilization is necessary when:

a. Loaner instruments are received late
b. A one of a kind instrument is dropped
c.Instrument inventory is low
d. None of the above

188. The sterilizer heat sensing thermometer is located in :

a. Chamber
b. Drain line
c.Jacket
d. Door
24
189. Where are test packs placed to present the greatest challenge to the steam sterilizer?
a. Bottom rack back
b. Top rack back
c.Center
d. Over the drain

190. Which of the following is used to disinfect surfaces and soak rubber equipment?
a. Alcohol
b. Boiling water
c. Iodine
d. Bleach

191. Which one of the following materials is not sterilized by dry heat?
a. Talcum and dry powders
b. Glass wares
c.Linen
d. Paraffin

192. Identify the item that can describe a disinfectant that can inhibit the growth of fungi:
a. Microbiocidal
b. Fungistatic
c.Bacteriostatic
d. Fungicidal

193. All of the following disinfectants contain heavy metal, except:

a. Silver nitrate
b. Chlorine
c.Copper sulphate
d. Merthiolate
e.Mercurochrome

194. Prevention of water associated diseases in hospital relies primarily on which of the following for piping /
water systems:
a. Proper design
b. Proper installation
c. Proper maintenance
d. Proper operation
e. Proper surveillance

195. Which of the following is true regarding prevention of infection associated with hemodialysis:
a. A staff member is designated for monitoring of water and dialysate
b. Testing of water used to prepare dialysate is required manually
c. For testing water used to prepare dialysate, a sample is collected from the water tank
d. Testing of dialysate should be performed at the beginning of the treatment day
e. No testing is required for water used for cleaning machine

196. Which of the following specifications is not a feature of protected environment room:
25
 a. Air direction from the patient to exhaust vents
b. The use of surface fungicide treatment
c. Air exhaust from these rooms doesn’t require filtration
d. Air pressure differential is not necessary

197. Which of the following types of operative procedures coincide with elective inguinal hernia repair?
a. Clean
b. Clean contaminated
c. Contaminated
d. Dirty

198. Quaternary ammonium compounds are used mainly in healthcare settings as :

a. Cleaning agents
b. Decontaminants for blood spillages
c. An alternative for alcohol hand rub
d. High level disinfectants for environmental surfaces in high risk areas

199. Which of the following is not important contributors to increased risk of infection in NICU??
a. The immature immune system of the newborn
b. Overcrowding and understaffing
c. Invasive life support measures
d. Contaminated droplets

200. Which of the following is not included in the occupational health program ?
a) Pre-employment screening of staff
b) Immunization of healthcare personnel
c) Quality assurance for proper use of disinfectants
d) Management of occupational exposures

201. During an endoscopic procedure, what does the nurse use to remove blood and tissue from the endoscopic
instrument?
a) A sponge soaked in chlorine
b) A sponge soaked in sterile water
c) A sponge soaked in enzymatic detergent
d) Automatic washer disinfector for endoscopy

202. Which of the following is true about laundry?

a) Use of hygienically clean textiles in NICU
b) Use of dry cleaning for routine laundering in healthcare facilities
c) Use of sterile linens in burn therapy units
d) Use of disposable fabrics and textiles

203. The rooms designed for storing linens should have the following characteristics except:
a) Having positive pressure
b) Having no drains or hot water pipes
c) Their doors should remain open
d) Properly waste
26
204. The measures needed for collection and handling of linen include one of the following:
a) Bag sac stunty enough to contain wet linen
b) Bags are transported manually to laundry
c) Bags are removed every 48 hours
d) Laundry bags are filled more than two third full

205. You are orienting a new nurse on safe injection practices, which of the following would you tell her?
a) You can administer medications and fluid from one syringe to multiple patients, provided that the needle
is changed between each use.
b) You can reuse a syringe that was used to enter a one-way valve on a patient’s IV catheter, provided that
the valve is disinfected with alcohol swab and the needle is changed.
c) The absence of viable cloudiness or blood in a vial or bag indicators that the medication or solution is free
from contamination.
d) You can use one saline bag for preparation of medication for IV infusion for more than one patient within
the same work saline.
e) In accessing a multi-dose vial, you have to decontaminate the rubber septum and use a sterile needle and a
sterile syringe each time.

206. A patient with uremic encephalopathy was admitted to hospital, the clinical management of the patient
necessitates hemodialysis, the patient was routinely tested for HBV, HCV infections, he was anti HBs, anti
HBc positive and anti HCV negative, for regular hemodialysis for that patient , which of the following is rec-
ommended?
a) Testing for anti HCV monthly
b) Testing for ALT every 6 months
c) Testing for HBs titer
d) Testing for ALT monthly
e) No further testing

207. A dentist received HBV vaccination last year, but was not tested for immunity, today he sustained a nee-
dle stick injury from a HBsAg positive patient, anti HBs antibodies are determined for the dentist and are < 10
mIU/ml, Which of the following should be considered for him??
a) Initiate 1st HBV vaccination series and check response after two months from last dose.
b) Initiate 2nd HBV vaccination series and check response after two months from last dose.
c) Initiate 2nd HBV vaccination series and administer one dose of HBIG
d) Give one booster dose of HBV vaccine and check response after two months from last dose.
e) Administer two doses of HBIG one month in between.

208. Post exposure passive prophylaxis with immunoglobulin is effective in both:

a) HBV post exposure
b) HAV post-exposure
c) Varicella zoster post-exposure

209. Process related standards for accreditation of healthcare facilities include which of the following:
a) Patient satisfaction
b) Information management
c) Organizational management
d) Performance improvement
27
 e) Infection control program management

210. You are the manager of an outpatient oncology center where patients routinely receive chemotherapy,
which requires that ports should be flushed with saline during the procedure, you ask one of your staff to
describe how she performs this procedure, she tells you that she accesses the port and then uses a new sy-
ringe and a new needle to withdraw saline from an open multi-dose vial that is kept for use by the nurses in
the patient treatment area, she then flushes the port with the saline, which of the following items should
you tell her may be contaminated in this procedure ?
a) Vial and syringe
b) Vial, syringe and needle
c) Syringe and needle
d) Needle

211. One of the following is not a characteristic of intermediate risk patient care items?
a) Items in contact with intact mucous membrane
b) Items contaminated with virulent or transmissible organisms
c) Items that should be delivered to the patient
d) Items that don’t enter sterile sites of the body

212. One of the following solutions is used for general cleaning of administrative office:
a) Iodophors
b) 5 % chlorine solution
c) Phenolic acid
d) Plain detergent and water

213. All of the following solutions are used during housekeeping at a health facility except,
a) An antiseptic cleaning solution
b) A detergent and water
c) A disinfectant solution
d) A disinfectant cleaning solution

214. In steam sterilization, what are the three critical factors for the destruction of microbes?
a) Temperature, time, pressure
b) Temperature, concentration, time
c) Time, air displacement, pressure
d) Pressure, aeration, time

215. We should take off PPEs in the following order: ………………….……., ………………….………….,
………………….…………, …………………….…………, ……………….………………, ………………………….

(Critical – Semi-critical – non-critical – low critical)

a) Suture needle: …………………….

b) Thermometer: ………………………
c) Stethoscope: …………………………
d) Ventilator circles: …………………………
e) Peripheral venous catheter: ………………………………….
f) Central venous catheter: ……………………………………….
28
 g) Foley’s urinary catheter: ………………………………………..
h) Patient chair of the dental unit: ………………………………….

216. An alternative to the antiseptic and water surgical scrub is:

a) Scrubbing with plain soap and hot water for 15 minutes
b) Scrubbing with plain soap and warm water for 3-5 minutes then apply an alcohol-based rub solution with
residual activity
c) Washing with plain soap and warm water, followed by pouring hydrogen peroxide over the hands and al-
lowing them to air-dry
d) Scrubbing with warm water alone for 15 minutes

217. Infections are most commonly spread in healthcare facilities, by the following mode of transmission:
a) Contact
b) Vehicle
c) Air-borne
d) Vector

218. Which statement regarding the use of water in hand washing is most correct?
a) Cold water produces better lather
b) Warm water is less damaging to the skin
c) Use hot water to wash hands
d) Cold water is less damaging to the skin

219. The following agents are used for hand antisepsis except:
a) Isopropyl alcohol
b) Iodophors
c) Glutaraldehyde
d) Chlorohexidine

220. To achieve in infection control, adhere to the following basic concepts except:
a) Get the current scientific knowledge
b) Understand and be convinced by your mission
c) Avoid keen staff
d) Clearly define your goal

221. Transient micro-organisms:

a) Are bacteria that often acquired by HCWs during direct contact with patients
b) Are less likely to be associated with HAIs
c) Are attached to deeper layers of skin
d) Are more resistant to removal

222. Which of the following statement is correct??

a) Good infection prevention practice protect patient only
b) Patients are at risk of infection when HCWs don’t wash their hands
c) Infections are rarely transmitted in healthcare settings
d) Most infections acquired by HCWs in HCFs could not be prevented

29
223. One of the following is not a criterion of alcohol:
a) Rapid action
b) Not sporicidal
c) Can be used for antisepsis and disinfection
d) Not affected by organic material

224. Gloves must be worn when there is potential for contacting all of the following except:
a) Intact skin
b) Mucous membrane
c) Blood – contaminated saliva
d) Blood

225. These gloves should be worn for cleaning contaminated instruments, handling waste and cleaning contam-
inated surfaces
a) Surgical gloves
b) Examination gloves
c) Utility gloves
d) No gloves needed

226. For a HCW who is exposed to blood of unknown source previously received HBV vaccine but serological
testing was not performed, it is recommended to :
a) Initiate HBV vaccine series
b) Give HBIG and initiate HBV vaccine series
c) Test for anti HBs antibodies, if adequate nothing is recommended
d) Nothing is recommended

227. Contact precautions are important to prevent transmission of :

a) MRSA
b) VRE
c) SARS
d) All of the above

228. Negative pressure ventilation is required to prevent transmission of :

a) Tuberculosis
b) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci
c) Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus skin infections
d) Hepatitis B virus infections

229. Which of the following is considered medical waste :

a) Outdated client records
b) Used bandage
c) Trash from hospital kitchen
d) Unused condom

230. The consideration for hand washing facilities include the following except :
a) Sinks are placed in convenient and accessible areas
b) Surfaces are smooth, non-porous to resist fungal growth
30
c) Sufficient spaces are designed for proper towel dispensers, soap and waste disposal
d) Bathroom soap dispensers are present

231. The most common practice associated with food-borne diseases in HCFs :
a) Extrinsic contamination of food
b) Bad storage or holding temperature
c) Intrinsic contamination of food
d) Extensive food handling

232. Implementation and management of an infection control programme include the following components
except :
a) Gaining support for infection control
b) Assessing the current status of IC
c) Creativity
d) Monitoring and evaluating IC practices

233. Often, infection prevention standards are not achieved because of one or more of the following reasons
except :
a) Misunderstanding of the risks involved
b) Lack of knowledge of appropriate practices
c) Inadequate supplies, equipment and space
d) Lack of recent equipment and high budget

234. Double gloving…….

a) May increase sensitivity and blood circulation
b) Is a recommended practice for every HCF
c) May be beneficial when there is an increased likelihood of glove tearing and puncture
d) May cause infection in an immunocompromised client

235. One of the following is false regarding recommendations to avoid infection risk associated with infant
feeding in nurseries:
a) Aseptic techniques should be used to prepare formula from liquid concentrates or powders
b) Prepared formula can be refrigerated for a maximum 24 hours
c) Opened bottles of prepared formula should be used within four hours of opening
d) Routine bacterial culturing of liquid concentrates or powder is indicated on a regular basis

236. Approach to minimize the growth of legionella spp. is:

a) Annual elevation of water temperature
b) Monitoring of chlorine level
c) Annual cleaning and maintenance of water storage tanks
d) Annual inspection of water systems

237. Well-maintained water delivery systems depend on:

a) Installing of drainage piping in ceilings
b) Monitoring of chlorine levels
c) Providing one separate water line from a looped municipal water-supply
d) Annual elevation of water temperature
31
238. Which of the following organism is/are exclusively acquired from the environment:
a) VRE
b) MRSA
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Legionella spp.

239. ………………. removes dirt and organic material during cleaning

a) A detergent
b) A disinfectant
c) Plain water
d) An antiseptic solution

240. Quaternary ammonium compounds are used mainly in HCFs as :

a) Environmental disinfectant
b) Chemical sterilizer
c) High disinfectant for high risk items
d) Decontaminating blood spillages

241. Which one of the following should be used to decontaminate spills of blood or body fluids :
a) A hospital disinfectant with a tuberculocidal claim
b) Low level disinfectant
c) A proper antiseptic solution
d) Detergent

242. Long-term storage areas of medical waste are characterized by the following except :
a) Used more than one day
b) Soiled room is the right place
c) Limited access to authorized personel only
d) Should have adequate exhaust ventilation and easy to clean surfaces
e) Should be insect and vermin resistant

243. Environmental sampling is not recommended except :

a) Limit microbiological sampling for quality
b) Monitoring for sterilization
c) Water of dialysate machine every month
d) Blood testing in blood transfusion or out break

244. Cross-infection is mainly acquired from which of the following ?

a) Infected patients
b) Healthy carriers
c) Medical equipment

245. Sterilization is a term used to describe :

a) Killing the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms
b) The reduction of the population to a safe level
c) The prevention of infection by a micro-organism
d) Destruction or removal of all viable micro-organism
32
e) The swabbing of the skin before giving an injection

246. An urgent hemodialysis is required for Hepatitis C positive patient, which of the following precautions
should be applied to prevent infection transmission ?
a) Standard
b) Contact
c) Droplet
d) Airborne
e) Contact + airborne

247. One-hand Scoop technique for recapping the used needle of a reusable anesthetic syringe in dental
healthcare facility. This statement coincides with which of the following ?
a) Engineering control
b) Administrative control
c) Work practices control
d) Personal protective equipment

248. Which of the following coincides with the interpretation of a successful result of an external chemical in-
dicator on the outside of autoclaved packs ?
a) Air is removed appropriately from the packs
b) The mechanical parameters of the autoclave are correct
c) The packs contain sterile items
d) The packs were exposed to the sterilization process

249. While observing hand hygiene practices in ICU, a nurse applied an alcohol hand rub after adjusting the
infusion pump of a patient, then she went directly to report the pulse and blood pressure of another patient.
This HH action is coincided with which of the following indications?
a) After patient contact
b) After patient surrounding contact
c) After patient contact and before patient contact
d) After patient surrounding contact and before patient contact
e) After patient surrounding contact and before aseptic task

259. HCWs are at risk of infection when:

a. They are exposed to potentially infectious blood and body fluids
b. They process contaminated instruments
c. They clean facilities
d. They dispose of medical waste
e.All of the above

260 . Who are at risk of acquiring infections in poor infection control practices?
a. Community
b. Support staff
c. Health care providers
d. All except A
e. All of the above

33
261. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Housekeeping are not at risk of infections when cleaning procedure areas
b. Most infections health care workers acquire at a health facility cannot be prevented.
c. Infections are rarely transmitted in health care settings
d. patients are at risk of infection when providers do not wash their hands
e. Good infection control practices protect only patients

262. Standard Precautions are intended for use with:

a. all patients, regardless of whether or not they are infected
b. only patients with HIV/AIDS
c. only patients with Hepatitis B
d. only patients who are hospitalized
e. only patients at outpatient clinics

263. Washing hands with soap and water

a. reduces transient flora on skin only
b. reduces resident flora on skin only
c. removes soil and debris from skin only
d. removes soil and debris and reduces transient flora on skin

264. Hand should be washed

a. Before examining a patient
b. Before putting on gloves for a pelvic examination or IUD insertion
c. After removing gloves
d. Immediately after arriving at work
e. All of the above

264. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. An alcohol hand rub kills or inhibits microorganisms and removes soil
b. Washing hands after removing gloves is not important
c. Hand antisepsis reduce transient flora but not resident flora on the hands.
d. All
e. None of the above

265. Which of the following is true?

a. PPE provide physical barrier/ protection of HCWs and patients from microorganisms

b. Surgical gloves can be reused.

c. If the procedure involves coming in contact with large amount of blood or other body fluid, double glove may
be used
d. Only A and C
e. All of the above

266. Which of the following is/are the benefits of wearing gloves by healthcare workers?

a. To reduce the risk of staff acquiring infections from patients

34
b. To prevent staff from transmitting their skin flora to patients
c. To reduce cross-contamination
d. All of the above
e. All except C

267. Which of the following items of personal protective equipment do NOT protect the healthcare worker
from splashes and spills of blood or body fluids?

a. Gloves

b Fluid resistant masks and eyewear

c. shoe covers (over shoes)
d. Plastic aprons (single used)

268. Which one of the following is a “safe injection” practice?

a. Recapping the needle
b. Bending the needle
c. Use of puncture-resistant container for needle
d. Breaking the needle

269. To reduce the risk of infections and injury:

a. All hypodermic needles should be recapped
b. In a sterile field, sharps should be passed in a kidney basin or other container
c. Sharps should be disposed of in a puncture-resistant container
d. B and C
e. All of the above

270. Which of the following events is not a risk associated with unsafe injection practices:
a. Abscess
b. Trauma
c. Drug reaction
d. Death
e. None of the above

271. Which of the following practices is not recommended to ensure the safety of injections and related prac-
tices?
a. Hand hygiene
b. Gloves where appropriate
c. Skin preparation and disinfection
d. None of the above

272. To reduce the risk of infections or injury after giving an injection:

a. Always break the needle before disposal
b. Remove the needle from the syringe and dispose it in a puncture-resistant container
c. Dispose the needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant sharps container as soon as possible after use
d. recap hypodermic needles

35
273. Antiseptics are chemical agents that are used to
a. reduce the number of micro-organisms on skin
b. decontaminate instruments
c. high-level disinfect instruments
d. sterilize instruments

274. Which of the following chemical agents is NOT an antiseptic?

a. 2–4% chlorhexidine
b. chlorine
c. 60–90% alcohol
d. 3% iodine

275. Which of the following procedures should NOT be routinely performed to prepare the skin for surgery?
a. Shave the hair around the operative site
b. Wash the area with soap and water, and dry the skin, if it is visibly Soiled
c. Apply an antiseptic solution
d. Allow time for the antiseptic to become effective

276. One way to avoid sharps injuries in the operation theatre is to:
a. Replace sharps containers when completely full
b. Use a Mayo Forceps when removing the scalpel blade from the handle
c. Use fingers to hold tissue or to guide the needle
d. Keep sharps on the surgical field until the procedure is completed

277. Which of the following is the right order of processing instruments?

a. Cleaning → high level disinfection →sterilization
b. High level disinfection → cleaning → sterilization
c. Cleaning →sterilization → high level disinfection
d. Cleaning →sterilization / high level disinfection

278. Which of the following is FALSE about cleaning;

a. Cleaning inactivates HCV, HBV and HIV
b. Cleaning is done by soaking the equipment in 0.5% chlorine solution
c. Cleaning is a method by which the microorganisms are killed, especially endospores
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

279. To make a 1000 ppm of chlorine from a concentrated solution containing 5.0% chlorine as sodium hypo-
chlorite, add one part of concentrated chlorine to
a. 93 parts water
b. 50 parts water
c. 47 parts water
d. 49 parts water

280. Which of the following is/are acceptable method/s of sterilization?

a. Dry-heat
b. Soaking in chemicals
36
c. Boiling
d. Autoclaving
e. All of the above
f. All except C

281. For how long should items be boiled for high-level disinfection?
a. 10 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 120 minutes

282. Which of the following chemicals are suitable for HLD?

a. Chlorine
b. Alcohol
c. Glutaraldehyde
d. A and B
e. A and C
f. B and C

283. After medical or surgical procedures or when changing linen in patient rooms, the soiled or used linen
should be;
a. Collected in containers with lids
b. presorted at point of use and washed at the laundry
c. presorted and washed at point of use if it is heavily soiled
d. None of the above

284. Which one of the following is incorrect about safe clinical laboratory practices?
a. No eating, drinking or smoking in the laboratory.
b. Food should not be stored in refrigerators used for clinical specimens.
c. There is no need to wear gloves when handling blood specimens
d. Decontaminate work surfaces daily or when contaminated

285. For which of the mode of transmission of infections should isolation precaution be applied?
a. Contact
b. Airborne
c. Droplet
d. All of the above

286. Which one of the following is not included in airborne precautions that is effective in preventing transmis-
sion of infections
a. Patient placement in a separate place
b. Using PPE for respiratory protection
c. Dedicated staff
d. Dedicated supplies
e. None of the above

287. Which of the following can be used/advised for cough hygiene

37
a. Surgical mask
b. Tissue to cover mouth and nose while coughing
c. Covering mouth and nose with patient's upper jacket
d. All of the above.

288. Which statement is false about housekeeping practices?

a. 500 ppm – 1000 ppm chlorine solution is used as disinfectant solution
b. Wet mopping is the most common and preferred method to clean floors
c. Between patients, operating or procedure tables should be wiped by a disinfectant solution
d. Fumigation with formalin is an effective and efficient way to reduce contamination of environmental sur-
faces such as walls, ceilings and floors
e. None of the above

289. Which statement is false about healthcare waste management?

a. Everyone who handles waste is at risk of infection
b. Whenever possible, medical waste should be burned or buried
c. The great proportion of wastes generated from healthcare facilities is infectious
d. In management of healthcare waste, open burning (on the ground) should be practiced
e. None of the above

290. Medication orders are not to be carried out unless all of the elements listed below are present
a. Date and time: When the order was written.
b. Full name of the medication
c. Dosage: Specify the amount of medicine to be given. Abbreviations are discouraged.
d. All of the above
e. B and C only

291. Which one of the following is not the benefit of Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)?
a. Both direct and indirect evidence suggest that treatment with ARVs (antiretrovirals) soon after exposure to
HIV decreases the risk of transmission.
b. PEP shows significant reduction in mother to child HIV transmissions
c. PEP is effective when initiated within 72 hours of exposure.
d. Antiretroviral treatment immediately after exposure to HIV can reduce risk of infection by about 100%

292. Segregation of medical waste in a hospital should be done:

a. In a specific place in each department of the hospital
b. In a designated central place in the hospital
c. At the place where it is generated
d. Outside the hospital

293. Which of the following is/are among the food and water safety measure?
a. Excluding those food handlers with diarrhea immediately from handling foods.
b. Holding food above 60oC or below 7oC
c. Storing of row and cooked food separately
d. Monitoring the quality of water supply
e. All of the above
f. All except D
38
294. Complying with Standard Precautions is considered the only means for protection from all the following,
except:
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Hepatitis C virus
c. Human Immunodeficiency virus (AIDS)

295. The responsibility for ensuring that hospitals and clinics have infection control standards, training, and
monitoring rests with
a. administrators
b. clinic managers
c. infection control committee
d. all of the above

296. Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life is considered :

a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection
c. Cleaning
d. Decontamination

297. Concerning hand washing:

a. Poor hand washing has been responsible for 10% of infections within hospitals.
b. Alcohol rubs are just as acceptable to staff as soap and water for the cleaning of hands.
c. Gloves are an acceptable alternative to washing hands after any invasive procedure.
d. The thumb and interdigital spaces are the most commonly missed areas during hand washing.
e. There is evidence that antimicrobial hand washing agents are better than simple soap

298. The following are considered common nosocomial infections, except:

a. Diseases transmitted through the blood
b. Respiratory Tract Infections
c. Urinary Tract Infections
d. Skin Infections
e. Malaria

299. Followings are the most common bloodborne pathogens causing disease in humans, except:
a. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
b. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
c. Human Immunodeficiency Virus ( HIV)
d. Tuberculosis

300. Standard precautions for preventing infections in health institutions include all of the following, except:
a. Environmental cleaning
b. Personal Protective Equipment
c. Sterilization of instruments
d. The use of antibiotics

301. One of the most effective and economical methods of preventing infection in HCFs is:
a. Use of sterile gloves
39
b. Hand washing
c. Waste management
d. Heavy duty gloves

302. Hand rub with alcohol:

a. Removes dirt from hands
b. Remove resident microbes
c. Kills transient microorganisms
d. Kills spores on hands

303. Antiseptic hand washing is done using all the following, except:
a. Betadine
b. Chlorine
c. Chlorhexidine gluconate
d. Alcohol

304. What type of nosocomial infections could be prevented by hand washing:

a. Respiratory infections
b. Bloodborne infection from reuse and needle stick
c. Surgical infection from patient's own flora
d. Enteric infections

305. For each statement indicate whether it is true or false:

T F
a. In order to be cost effective, it is preferable not to change gloves between patients when it gets contaminated
b. Findings of studies showed that wearing caps during surgery is not important
c. Findings of studies showed that it is not important to wear overshoes and use the money to buy other items
such as gloves

306. One of the most important personal protective barrier which is indispensable in the internal medicine de-
partment is:
a. Overshoes
b. Head coverings
c. Single-use clean gloves
d. Sterile gloves

307. Match the appropriate type of gloves with its indication:

a. Sterile gloves
b. Disposable non-sterile gloves
c. Utility gloves
1. When inserting IV fluids in wards
2. Before wound dressing
3. When cleaning up blood spills
4. When preparing & mixing IV fluids in ICUs

308. All of the following nosocomial infections are hard to be diagnosed due to their long incubation period,
except:
40
a. AIDS
b. Urinary tract infections associated with insertion of urinary catheters
c. Hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis C

309. Standard precautions of infection control are implemented on:

a. AIDS patients
b. Active TB patients
c. Meningitis patients
d. All of the above

310. Mention the method of hand wash that precedes each of the following:
a. Patients’ routine checkup………………
b. Insertion of urinary catheter……………..
c. Emptying the urine drainage bag……………..
d. Wound care………………….

311. A towel can be used for more than one patient for hand drying after routine hand wash:
a. True
b. False

312. Choose the correct statement:

a. Aseptic hand wash should be done after surgical procedures.
b. Liquid soap and antiseptic containers should be cleaned and disinfected before refilling.
c. Warm air driers are preferred to paper towels for hand drying inside health care facilities.
d. Long or artificial nails do not affect the efficiency of hand washing.

313. In case of routine hand wash, all of the following are true, except:
a. Removes transient flora
b. Should be done after patient contact and in case of visible hand contamination.
c. Done by using regular soap
d. The effect on microbes remains after routine hand wash for a long time.

314. In case of surgical hand wash, all of the following are true, except:
a. It means hand disinfection before wound care.
b. Kills transient flora and some resident bacteria.
c. It is preferred to use a disinfectant like Chlorohexidine to get a prolonged effect on microbes.
d. A suitable amount of the disinfectant should be used and it should remain on the hands for enough time to be
effective.

315. In case of aseptic hand wash, all of the following are true, except:
a. The remaining effect on microbes after aseptic hand wash depends on the disinfectant used.
b. Must be done before invasive procedures.
c. Kills transient flora and resident bacteria completely.
d. It is possible to replace it by rubbing with 70% ethyl alcohol if the hands weren’t visibly contaminated.

41
316. It is preferred not to change gloves between one patient and another during taking blood samples in the
lab. in case it is not visibly contaminated to decrease costs.
a. True
b. False

317. Previous studies have shown the unimportance of wearing head cover during surgical procedures:
a. True
b. False

318. Which of the following is true considering non-sterile gloves?

a. Used only for surgical procedures.
b. Prevents transfer of hand germs 100%
c. Its quality is not affected by how long it has been worn.
d. They must be changed if it was cut, torn or had a hole in it.

319. Sterile gloves must be used in the following cases, except:

a. Insertion of a peripheral venous catheter to an immunocompromised patient.
b. Insertion of a urinary catheter.
c. Intravenous injection to an immunocompetent patient .
d. Before deep wound care.

320. Clean unsterilized gloves used in the following cases, except:

a. Insertion of a central venous catheter.
b. Dealing with samples or containers that contain samples.
c. Changing dressings or handling soiled dressings.
d. Cleaning and disinfecting spills of blood or other body fluids.

321. It is a must to change gloves in the following cases, except:

a. Between patients.
b. If they become soiled, contaminated or perforated while caring for a single patient.
c. Before each procedure if more than one procedure is done for the same patient.
d. If the medical procedures takes more than 30 minutes.

322. All of the followings are true considering heavy-duty gloves, except:
a. Used for dealing with dangerous medical wastes
b. Heavy-duty gloves must be cleaned and disinfected after taking them off and before reuse.
c. Used in dealing with chemicals, disinfectants and detergents.
d. It is necessary to do routine hand wash after taking them off.

323. All of the followings are true considering personal protective equipment, except:
a. It is not preferred to use cotton gowns because it is permeable to water and fluids.
b. There is scientific evidence that highlights the importance of wearing over head during mixing I.V. fluids in
the neonate intensive care unit.
c. Reusable heavy-duty plastic aprons are preferred to single use plastic aprons as long as they are cleaned, dis-
infected and dried between patients.
d. Eye protective can be discarded after contamination or reused only if they have been disinfected well.

42
324. Routine hand wash decreases microbes to a safe limit enabling HCWs to do invasive procedures :
a. True
b. False

325. Adherence to hand wash policies are affected by the following, except:
a. Availability of sinks in working areas.
b. The number of doctors and nurses.
c. The number of patients.
d. The presence of patients with hepatitis B or C.

326. The most common type of nosocomial infection is :

a. Blood borne pathogens.
b. Urinary tract infection.
c. Respiratory tract infection.
d. Gastro intestinal tract infection.

327. The following diseases are transmitted through contaminated blood

a. T.B.
b. Typhoid fever.
c. Hepatitis A virus.
d. Hepatitis C & B virus.

328. The appropriate duration of leaving the cannula in place (if not infected) is:
a. Less than one day
b. 1-2 days
c. 3-4 days
d. 5-6 days

329. Urinary catheter made of Latex could be left in place (if no signs of infection) in the patient for a duration
of no more than:
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. two days

330. Before a urinary catheter insertion, it is preferable to clean the labial area with:
a. Soap and water
b. Water
c. Betadine
d. Nothing

331. Select the correct statement for a urinary catheter:

a. The urine bag is being hanged at the level of patient’s bed
b. The bladder should be washed routinely to prevent infection
c. A urine sample is to be taken for analysis from the urine opening present at the bottom of the urine collection
bag
d. Aseptic technique should be followed in taking urine sample for analysis and performing urine culture
43
332. All the followings are true considering the non-touch technique except:
a. Its aim is to keep instrument, gloves, skin and surroundings uncontaminated.
b. This technique has to be followed during I.V. administration and use of multi-dose vials.
c. Should be followed at intramuscular injection.
d. Should be followed at P.V. examination.

333. The preferable method in treatment is by injection when other methods like oral treatment is available
a. True
b. False

334. All of the following is true considering I.V. catheter care except:
a. Remove cannula when there is infection at the site of insertion.
b. Adhesive tapes should be changed when become wet.
c. Central venous catheter should not be removed until there are signs of infection & the physician recommend
that.
d. Applying an anti-inflammatory cream at the cannula insertion site to prevent infection.

335. All the followings are true considering change of I.V. catheter system except:
a. Change of system connected to solutions (saline – glucose...) every 72 hours.
b. Change of system connected to PTN (proteins – lipids...) after 48 hours.
c. Change of system used in blood transfusion immediately after transfusion.
d. Change of system every 24 hours in case of blood stream infection outbreak in a hospital as a result of usage of
I.V fluids.

336. The most common risks of nosocomial infections occur from:

a. patients to service providers
b. service providers to patients
c. patient to another patient
d. staff to staff

337. Match the type of hand washing with the different procedures:
a. Routine hand washing
b. Antiseptic hand washing
c. Surgical hand washing

1. Inserting cannula………
2. Inserting catheter………
3. Wound care…………
4. Routine examination of patient………
5. Changing the urine bag………

338. Clearing of medical waste is done:

a. Immediately upon use
b. At the end of each shift
c. Within 24 hours
d. All of the above
44
339. Dangerous infectious medical waste, which should be put in colored bags, include all the following, ex-
cept:
a. Cotton and gauze which is used in wound dressing
b. Used urine bags after emptying it
c. Used pampers in NICU
d. Different fluids such as blood, pus secretions, and body fluids resulting from wounds and ulcers

340. One of the following points is NOT in the specification for a safety box:
a. It should be made from hard puncture resistant material
b. The box is provided with antiseptics inside it to lessen the danger of being infected from it
c. It should be possible to know the amount of waste inside it
d. It should be placed so it is visible and close to the work area

341. Segregation of medical waste in a hospital should be done:

a. In a specific place in each department of the hospital
b. In a designated central place in the hospital
c. At the place where it is generated
d. Outside the hospital

342. The best method of final disposal of solid medical waste is by:
a. Burying
b. Burning
c. Disposal in the general system of garbage collection
d. Disinfection

343. The following are considered dangerous wastes in a hospital, except:

a. Wastes infected with patient’s blood
b. Sharp waste
c. Radioactive waste
d. Waste produced as a result of residues of food in hospital kitchen
e. Waste of outpatient clinics for patients on chemotherapy

344. Indicate for each of the following statements whether they are True of False.
T F
a. Burning medical waste in the yard of the hospital is one of the safe disposals of waste
b. It is possible to empty the sharp disposal containers in garbage collection bags to be more economical

345. Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life is considered :

a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection
c. Cleaning
d. Decontamination

346. Match hospital environments according to levels of risk:

a. Low-risk areas
b. Intermediate-risk areas
c. High-risk areas
45
1. Waiting rooms………..
2. Patient wards…………..
3. Isolation rooms…………..
4. ICU……………
5. Administrative rooms………
6. O.R. ……………
7. Kidney dialysis……………..

347. All of the following agents are used for environmental disinfection, except:
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Chlorine
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. Glutaraldehyde

348. Which of the following concentration of chlorine is used in disinfecting environmental surfaces:
a. 100 PPM
b. 5000 PPM
c. 1000 PPM
d. 20 PPM

349. If the concentration of chlorine supplied by the manufacturer was 5 %, how many parts of water are re-
quired to be added to one part chlorine in order to prepare a disinfectant solution for the floors of ICU (how
to prepare a solution with concentration of 1000 PPM)? -----------------------------------------------------------

350. In order to reuse instruments, which of the following steps are used:
a. Disinfection- cleaning - sterilization
b. Cleaning - disinfection- sterilization
c. Sterilization - cleaning - disinfection
d. Disinfection - sterilization- cleaning
e. (Cleaning – disinfection) or (cleaning – sterilization)

351. For the degrees of risks from different instruments, connect each statement with its corresponding descrip-
tion:
(a) High risk (1) Touching any instrument with intact skin (as with stethoscope, etc.)
(b) Medium risk (2) Touching any instrument with intact mucous membranes
(c) Low risk (3) When these instruments are not in contact with the patient, or away from
the patient or the immediate surrounding environment
(d)Minimal risk (4) Inserting any instrument into a normally sterile body area

352. For the levels of decontamination for medical instruments, connect each of the following statements with
its corresponding description:
(a) High risk instruments (1) Cleaning
(b) Medium risk instruments (2) Cleaning or disinfection, if we are sure that they were con-
taminated with microorganisms or if the patient was susceptible to infection
(c) Low risk instruments (3) Sterilization or chemical disinfection if these instruments are
to be damaged by heat
(d)Minimal risk instruments (4) Sterilization
46
353. Classify the following Items into: high, medium, low, or minimal categories according to their risk
groups:
Item Risk Group
H MED. L MIN.
(a) Endotracheal tubes
(b) Thermometers
(c) Gastro scope
(d)Vaginal speculum
(e) Syringes
(f) Floors in Operating Theaters

354. The main purpose of cleaning instruments is to:

a. Removal of all visible dirt
b. Reduce the number of germs present on the instrument
c. Make sterilization process more effective
d. All of the above

355. Sterilization means:

a. The destruction of all microorganisms including spores
b. The removal of most microorganisms except spores
c. Killing only most dangerous viruses such as hepatitis B and AIDS virus
d. All of the above

356. The following common gram-negative bacillus are likely to grow in moist areas of endoscopes, except:
a. Pseudomonas
b. Klebsiella
c. Enterobacter
d. Mycobacterium

357. Sterilization of endoscopes is done by soaking instruments in a chemical such as Glutaraldehyde for a pe-
riod of :
a. 2 h
b. 4 h
c. 6 h
d. 10 - 12 h

358. The staff in the endoscopy unit should be immunized against:

a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Tetanus
c. Measles
d. Encephalitis

359. Decontamination of item means:

a. Remove visible dirt on the surface of the item only.

47
b. The use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate or destroy pathogens on a surface of the item to
the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectious particles and the item is rendered safe for
handling.
c. High level disinfection of item.
d. Destroy all pathogens on surface of the item.

360. The best method of sterilization is:

a. Boiling
b. Hot air ovens
c. Gravity downward-displacement sterilizers.
d. High speed pre-vacuum sterilizers (porous load autoclave).

361. Cleaning of surgical instrument after use could be cancelled to save time and effort because they will be
sterilized before reuse.
a. True
b. False

362. Wrapping instruments and other items for steam sterilization is done:
a. After cleaning and before sterilization.
b. After cleaning and before chemical disinfection.
c. After sterilization and before use.
d. All of the above.

363. Cleaning of instruments should start:

a. Immediately before sterilization to make sure it’s clean before sterilization no matter how long it has been be-
tween usage and sterilization.
b. Any time after usage since delay in this process won’t affect the process of cleaning.
c. After disinfection.
d. Immediately after usage if possible.

364. Choose the WRONG statement from the following:

a. Minimal risk (noncritical items) is items that didn’t come into contact with the patient : inanimate environ-
ment, walls, floors, ceilings, furniture and sinks.
b. Low risk items are items that come into contact with normal and intact skin.
c. Intermediate risk (semi-critical) are items that come in close contact with intact mucous membrane.
d. Items that penetrate sterile tissue such as body cavities are semi-critical items.

365. Choose the WRONG statement from the following according to levels of decontamination:
a. Suitable decontamination level of semi-critical items is high level disinfection or sterilization.
b. Suitable decontamination level of high risk item is high level disinfection or sterilization.
c. Suitable level of decontamination of minimal critical items is cleaning.
d. Suitable level of decontamination of low critical items is cleaning or disinfection if contaminated by blood or
body fluids.

366. According to sterilization of surgical instruments and medical items, choose the CORRECT statement:
a. We have to be sure that calculation of sterilization time start from reaching exact pressure and temperature.

48
b. Tapes with lines that change color when the intended temperature has been reached are considered as 100%
effective indicator to safe sterilization process.
c. Wrapped sterilized items should be used maximally during 24 hours or it should be resterilized.
d. Wet sterilized items should not be re-sterilized but it could be satisfied by aeration.

367. The following intended temperature and time are correct to gravity downward-displacement sterilizers ex-
cept:
a. (Unwrapped items) 121°C for 15 min.
b. (Unwrapped item, metal and glass only) 134°C for 3min.
c. (Wrapped item and texture) 121°C for 30 min.
d. (Unwrapped item, rubber) 134°C for 5 min.

368. For dry heat ovens with fans, the following holding temperature and sterilization time are correct except:
a. 160°C for 120 min
b. 170°C for 60 min
c. 160°C for 90 min
d. 180°C for 30 min

369. Arrange the following according to resistance to disinfection (from less to high resistance)
a. Unwrapped viruses ( )
b. Prions (prions disease) ( )
c. Active bacteria or wrapped viruses ( )
d. Bacterial spores ( )

370. Factors that affect chemical disinfection:

a. Contact time between the disinfectant and reprocessed items
b. Presence of organic material or air bubbles when you dip the items in the disinfectant.
c. The concentration of the disinfectant and its validity effect.
d. All of the above.

371. Mention the right time for each of the following to be used for sterilization.
a. Glutaraldehyde concentration of more than 2% ……………
b. Peracetic acid concentration of 0.2% - 0.35% ………………
c. Hydrogen peroxide concentration of 7.5% …………………..
d. High speed pre-vacuum sterilizer (porous load autoclave) air temperature of 134°C and pressure of 2 atm. con-
tain textures and wrapped items…………

372. For reprocessing of endoscope, choose the WRONG answer:

a. Glutaraldehyde solution used in the process of endoscopic disinfection should be stored in covered containers
to prevent leakage of fumes.
b. Endoscopes should be cleaned and disinfected or sterilized before the start of work and between each patient
and after the completion of use.
c. The effectiveness of the disinfectant solution material is not affected by the passage of time or because of fre-
quent use.
d. After cleaning and disinfection endoscopes should be rinsed with sterile water or salt solution or water previ-
ously boiled & dried and stored properly.

49
373. Select WRONG statement of the following for reprocessing of endoscope:
a. Room of reprocessing of endoscope should be separated from room of endoscopic procedure.
b. Disinfection of diagnostic endoscope that comes into contact with mucous membrane is medium level of dis-
infection.
c. Cleaning process should be started immediately after the completion of its use.
d. Rinsing with clean water after pushing of enzyme detergent under pressure through the channel of the endo-
scope to remove suspended solids.

374. Select the WRONG statement of the following for the reprocessing of endoscopes:
a. Antiseptics used for skin can be used for disinfection of endoscopes if there are no other alternatives.
b. Endoscopes must be cleaned manually even in the case of the use of automatic processing device.
c. Chlorine can not be used as a disinfectant for endoscopes and its components because it causes erosion of met-
als and its effect inhibited by organic matter.
d. Tools which penetrate the mucous membrane (such as sampling forceps) as high risk tool and therefore must
be sterilized.

375. When you use chlorine for disinfection:

a. You must make sure from the desired concentration and the time of immersion.
b. It is not recommended for use of metal instruments.
c. You must make sure of the date of preparation.
d. All of the above.

376. Instruments must be immersed in diluted chlorine directly after use in order to deal safely with them with-
out wearing gloves while doing clean-up:
a. True.
b. False.

377. For use automatic washing machines, select the correct statement:
a. Its cost is less than other ways.
b. A mean for cleaning and sterilization of surgical instruments.
c. Can use rough chemical products and high temperature that can not be used in the process of manual cleaning.
d. Health care provider must clean up instruments and items manually before use.

378. All the following PPE are important before going into OT, except:
a) Head cover
b) Eye shield
c) Sterile gloves
d) Overshoes
e) Sterile gown

379. If emergency surgery has been decided on in parts of the body which have hair, which one of the following
is the best choice
a) Avoid shaving if possible
b) The site should be shaved using a razor immediately before surgery and only limited to the incision area
c) The hair is to be shaved using reusable razors and shaving brushes
d) Use depilatory cream one day before the operation
50
380. Choose the correct statement:
a) A preoperative antiseptic shower lowers the incidence of surgical site infection
b) Assessment of patient health condition is considered the first step in preventing surgical wound infection
c) Sterilization of instruments can be overcome when antibiotics are administered prior to surgery
d) Stopping of smoking before the operation does not help in controlling wound infection

381. The duration of surgical scrub is:

a) 15 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 3-5 minutes
d) 15 seconds

382. Which one of the following factors is considered important in reducing the possibilities of SSI :
a) Preoperative and postoperative hospital stay
b) Giving prophylaxis antibiotics before the operation
c) Insuring the sterilization of instruments used during surgery
d) Surgical hand scrub for all the team participating in surgery
e) All of the above

383. All of the following are correct with respect to antibiotic prophylaxis, except:
a) Antibiotics given before surgery differ according to procedure or type of surgery
b) It could be useful to give the patient prophylactic antibiotics for two days prior to surgery for the purpose of
preventing surgical wound infection
c) Prophylactic antibiotics could be administered for preventing surgical wound infection at the induction of an-
esthesia.
d) Prophylactic antibiotics should not be given for more than 24 hours.

384. The most common nosocomial infection in NICU is:

a) Pneumonia
b) Bacteremia (blood stream infection related to catheters)
c) Urinary tract infection
d) Ear infection

385. Nosocomial infections for adults differ from premature babies as per the following statements, except:
a) The incidence of Urinary Tract Infections is lower for premature babies
b) The incidence of ear, nose, and throat infections is higher for premature babies
c) The incidence of bacteremia is higher for premature babies
d) The incidence of lower respiratory tract infections is higher for premature babies

386. From the following general characteristics of premature babies, mark true or false those which make them
more exposed to infections:
T F
a) Immature lungs
b) Lower birth weight babies
c) Frequent congenital abnormalities
d) The skin and umbilical cord are common sites for bacterial entry
e) The number of white blood cells reaches its normal value immediately upon delivery
51
f) Antibodies are being transferred from the mother to the baby during the last trimester of pregnancy

387. All of the following statements in relation to a baby bath are correct, except:
a) It is preferable to give a daily bath to premature babies below 32 weeks of gestation
b) If an umbilical catheter is being inserted, it is preferable not to immerse the baby into the water
c) It is preferable to wear gloves in handling and giving a baby bath
d) For babies less than 32 weeks, it is preferable to use only warm water in giving a baby bath

388. All the following statements on umbilical care are correct, except:
a) Hand washing should be done before giving care to the umbilical cord
b) Chlorhexidine or povidine iodine could be utilized on the stump
c) The umbilicus should be kept covered and not exposed to air
d) The area surrounding the umbilical cord stump could be cleaned using soap and water

389. In preparation of IV fluids in NICU, all the following statements are correct, except:
a) It is preferable to use small packs to lessen waste
b) There should be a place designated for the preparation of fluids and it is preferable to have it located outside
the unit
c) It is important to use one single syringe for each solution bottle
d) All fluids could be placed and mixed in a bottle that was previously used for another baby
e) We should get rid of a solution bottle after an elapse of 24 hours

390. Hepatitis B virus infection - all are correct except:

a) Incubation period 6-7 weeks
b) Case fatality .5%-1%
c) Chronic infection 3%-90% less than 5 years
d) Chronic hepatitis 66%

391. A potential way of bloodborne virus transmission in hemodialysis units is:

a) Percutaneous
b) Equipment, supplies, medications
c) Hands of personnel
d) Environmental surfaces
e) All of the above

392. Following are causes of HBV outbreaks in hemodialysis units, except:

a) Infected and susceptible patients share room
b) Shared supplies, vials, multidose
c) Contaminated items in same area with clean supplies
d) Staff not vaccinated

393. The most common sites for bacterial infection in hemodialysis units are:
a) Vascular access
b) Wounds
c) Lungs
d) Urinary Tract

52
394. Management of HIV infection among hemodialysis patients should be:
a) Isolate patients
b) Carry routine testing
c) Universal precautions
d) Wear separate gowns

395. Match the disinfection process for commonly used items in the dialysis unit:
a) Low level
b) Intermediate level
c) High level
1) Gross blood spills
2) Hemodialyzer port caps
3) Interior pathway of dialysis machine
4) Water treatment and distribution system
5) Scissors, clamps, blood pressure cuffs,
6) Environmental cleaning surfaces

396. Disposable, non-sterile gloves are strongly recommended for all the following, except:
a) Examinations
b) Non-surgical procedures
c) Surgical procedures
d) During clean up

397. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in dentistry includes all the following, except:
a) Gloves
b) Eye wear
c) Masks
d) Head cover

398. Place a check mark beside the correct statement regarding the use of PPE in dentistry:
a) PPE to be worn in addition to work clothing when contamination from potentially infected material is likely
b) PPE to be worn routinely in order to guard against infection
c) PPE should have a barrier effect
d) Should be changed at least daily

399. Match reprocessing of dental instruments in accordance to risks assessment:

a) Sterilization
b) High-Level Disinfection
c) Low- Level Disinfection
d) Cleaning
1) Critical: devices that penetrate mucous membrane
2) Semi-critical: devices that touch mucous membrane
3) Non-critical: devices, equipment, and surfaces that touch intact skin only and are not contaminated with blood

400. Prevention of transmission of bloodborne pathogens HBV during dental procedures from patient to patient
requires which of the following:
a) Prevention of sharp injuries
53
b) Vaccination of staff against HBV
c) Disinfection and sterilization of instruments
d) Using barrier precautions (gloves)

401. Which of the following statements is not correct:

a) It is not allowable to touch the surrounding surfaces in a dental clinic with the gloves used in treating patients
b) All instruments used in the dental clinic should be disinfected before beginning sterilization

402. The microbes acquire immunity to antibiotics due to

a) Lack of commitment to the infection control precautions
b) Congestion of HCF by patients
c) Use of prophylactic antibiotics before surgery directly
d) Giving antibiotic after culture & sensitivity

403. Regarding to environmental cleaning in NICU

a) The unit should be closed regularly to clean and sterilized it by using Formaline (every 3 months or when out-
break occurs)
b) Environmental cleaning is not considered important procedure to control nosocomial infections inside the
NICU
c) NICU is considered one of the semi critical areas in the hospital
d) A schedule of daily floor cleaning with soap and water should be followed and as needed and also disinfection
of the floor when contaminated with body fluids

404. In NICU which statement is correct (√) and which is wrong (×)
a) Incidences of nosocomial infections increases when invasive procedures increase ( )
b) I.V. fluid preparation can be done in the same place dedicated for reprocessing of contaminated equipment ( )

405. I.V. fluid preparation in NICU can be done using routine hand washing as long as a sterile gloves will be
worn on
a) True
b) false

406. All of the following are correct with respect to environmental cleaning in NICU, except:
a) Incubators should be cleaned daily from inside & outside using warm water
b) Incubators should be changed & disinfected after 2 weeks from baby admission (after 10 days for babies less
than 1 Kgm)
c) Incubators should be cleaned & disinfected immediately after contamination with body fluids
d) There should be dedicated area for incubator reprocessing.

407. In NICU , Aseptic hand washing should be done

a) Before clinical Exam.
b) After touching contaminated surface
c) Before inserting cannula or fluid preparation
d) Before giving a bath to a baby

408. Modes of transmission for waterborne infections include:

a) Direct contact
54
b) Indirect-contact
c) Ingestion of water
d) Inhalation of aerosols dispersed from water sources.
e) Aspiration of contaminated water.
f) All of the above

409. One of the mode of transmissions for waterborne infections that are commonly associated wit infections
caused by gram-negative bacteria is:
a) Inhalation of aerosols dispersed from water sources.
b) Indirect-contact
c) Aspiration of contaminated water.
d) All of the above

410. All of the followings considering water sampling are true except
a) Routine testing of the water in a health-care facility is usually not indicated.
b) Sampling in support of outbreak investigations can help determine appropriate infection-control measures..
c) Water specimens are not “static specimens” at ambient temperature; potential changes in both numbers and
types of microbial populations can occur during transport.
d) Water samples should be sent to the testing laboratory warm (i.e., at [37°C]) and testing should be done within
24 hours.

411. Considering Dialysis Water Quality which statement is true:

a) The water used to prepare dialysate should be sterile
b) The dialysate used in dialysis unit should be sterile
c) Tap water can not be used without additional treatment.
d) Hemodialysis, does not require special water-treatment processes.

412. The purpose of mechanical ventilation is

a) prevent air stagnation
b) direct air flow
c) maintain comfortable temperature and humidity
d) all the above

413. An HVAC system includes all of the following except:

a) Outside air inlet
b) Filters
c) Humidity modification
d) Windows & doors
e) Heating & cooling equipment
f) Fans

414. The recommended mechanical ventilation parameter for high risk room in airborne isolation room is
a) 2 – 4 ACH
b) 6 – 12 ACH
c) 12 – 16 ACH
d) 1 m/s
e) 4 m/s
55
415. Enumerate Basic elements of building ventilation
1- ----------------
2- ----------------
3- ----------------

416. Natural ventilation depends on :

a) Climate
b) Building design
c) Human behavior
d) All of the above

417. Peak efficiency for particle removal in the air space occurs between 12 – 15 ACH
a) True
b) False

418. Intensive Care Units are one of the places where patients are more exposed to the risk of infection for all
the following reasons, except:
a. Patients are very sick and critically ill, which affects their immunity system
b. It comprises the majority of patients who are either elderly or premature
c. Most instruments and equipment in this department could be easily sterilized and cleaned
d. Patients move less

419. All the following factors are considered risk factors which increase exposure to infections in ICU, except:
a. Exposure to multiple invasive devices and procedures
b. Shorter stay in ICU
c. Feeding the patient through tube feeding
d. Less ventilation

420. All the following factors affect infection rates inside ICU, except:
a. The number of service providers
b. The process of fluid and medication preparation
c. The number of patients inside the unit
d. The distance between the nearest source of water and the point of service provision
e. Availability of overshoes

421. The main sources for transmitting infections in ICU and premature units is:
a. Visitors
b. The surrounding environment inside ICU or the premature unit
c. Health care workers (doctors and nurses)
d. The patient himself

422. One of the following steps are considered NOT important in taking care of Cannula:
a. Remove the cannula when signs of local inflammation appears
b. Change adhesive when it gets wet
c. Put anti-inflammatory cream at the place of cannula,
d. Do not change Central Venous Catheter except when there are signs of infection & the physician recommend
that.
56
423. The following are all correct statements for changing IV lines, except:
a. Change IV lines every 72 h.
b. Change IV lines immediately after blood transfusions
c. Change IV lines after 48 h. when it is used in parenteral nutrition
d. Change IV lines every 24 hours in the case of a blood stream infection spread in one of the hospital depart-
ments as a result of using IV fluids, irrespective of the type of fluid used

424. Isolation is indicated for which of the following:

a. Chicken pox
b. Renal failure
c. Hepatitis (C)
d. Diabetes

425. Match the type of infections with the different diseases:

a. Droplet
b. Contact
c. Airborne
d. Vector
1. Acute respiratory infection
2. Anthrax
3. Herpes Zoster
4. Hepatitis A
5. Diphtheria
6. Hepatitis B
7. AIDS, Hepatitis C
8. Measles
9. Mumps
10. Scabies

426. Key aspects of transmission-based precautions include:

a. Based on the epidemiology of the respective disease
b. A barrier is created between patient and other people
c. Effective isolation requires additional well trained staff & equipment
d. May have negative psychological effect to the patient
e. All of the above

427. Isolation is indicated for all the following, except:

a. TB
b. Measles
c. Meningococcal meningitis
d. Surgical site infection

428. Place a check mark against all personnel who should follow isolation precautions:
a. Physician infected with conjunctivitis ( )
b. Nurse infected with chronic HBV ( )
c. Cook suffering from diarrhea ( )
57
d. Nurse infected with measles ( )
e. Physician who have TB ( )
f. Nurse in NICU with bronchitis ( )

429. Laboratory personnel are at risk of exposure to blood borne pathogens from:
a. Contaminated sharps
b. Splashes to the eyes
c. Unprotected exposure to skin
d. All of the above

430. In working with specimens, which of the following should responsible laboratory personnel NOT to do:
a. Wear gloves prior to handling
b. Wear face/eye protection
c. Use mouth pipette
d. Use care when opening specimens

431. The following are all applicable for waste disposal that has not been visibly decontaminated in laboratory,
except:
a. Incineration
b. Burial
c. Discharge into sanitary sewer system
d. Dispose off in regular garbage

432. Cultures, tissues, and specimens of body fluids or potentially infectious waste in the Lab are:
a. Placed in a container with a cover that prevents leakage during collection and handling
b. Are disposed off with regular waste
c. To be discarded in the toilet
d. All of the above

433. Personnel responsible for transferring blood samples need to do all the following, except:
a. Wear gloves
b. Avoid contact with the content of the container
c. Wear a mask
d. Place specimens in special holders

434. With respect to the recommended guidelines for safety in the laboratory, select the wrong statement.
a. It is recommended that all staff must be vaccinated against hepatitis B virus.
b. It is prohibited to eat, drink, smoke or keep any food or drink in the lab.
c. Wash hands immediately after contamination with blood or other body fluids.
d. It is preferred to use pipettes used by mouth than automatic pipettes for liquid handling in the laboratory.

435. For the safe disposal of laboratory waste, select the wrong statement.
a. The disposal of sharp medical waste by putting it in thick medical waste bags.
b. Bacterial cultures dishes can be disposed with other laboratory wastes only after sterilizing it by steam steriliz-
ers and clearly labeled by “sterilized by steam”
58
c. Human waste, such as urine and faeces can be disposed through provided sewage or toilet.
d. You can use chlorine to disinfect biological waste prior to disposal.

436. For infection control procedures in laboratory, select wrong statement:

a. You must change gloves between each withdrawal of blood samples.
b. You must follow aseptic techniques when withdrawing samples from patients
c. Laboratory workers should change the gloves if they are clearly contaminated when dealing with samples.
d. It is preferred to take samples in the lab at the same room dedicated for dealing with collected samples than to
collect it in a separate room.

437. Select the correct statement of the following phrases considering procedures for laboratory infection con-
trol:
a. Dealing with blood spills in the lab must be at the end of the day.
b. It is preferred to use ultraviolet radiation alone to sterilize laboratory work surface.
c. It is preferred to use single-used plastic capillary test tubes.
d. It is possible to make a centrifugation with open tubes as long as the centrifuge is air tight.

438. Choose the correct answer considering the procedures for laboratory infection control.
a. Laboratory work surfaces must be disinfected.
b. You can use the sink dedicated to get rid of body fluids and chemicals to wash the hands of workers.
c. You should mark the samples of patients in isolation for more caution when dealing with them.
d. Viruses can be isolated in safety cabinets, first class.

439. Choose the wrong statement considering the procedures for infection control in intensive care.
a. It is preferred to wear impervious gown during suction procedures for patients.
b. Use sterile gloves when feeding the patient.
c. Plastic aprons are worn when cleaning and disinfecting the environment and work surfaces.
d. Wearing sterile personal protective equipment (gloves- gowns) and sterile drapes, overhead, foot protectors
when installing central venous catheters.

440. For infection control procedures in intensive care units (choose the wrong statement):
a. The bed on the patient’s head should be lifted at an angle of 30-45 degrees when connecting the patient to a
ventilator after consulting the physician.
b. It is preferred to use single-use oxygen masks and in case of reuse masks, they must be cleaned and disinfected
well after each use.
c. Sterile water in the humidifier must be changed every 96 hours with installation of filters in air inlets and out-
lets vents of a ventilator to prevent contamination.
d. Use sterile water after disinfecting the circuit of ventilator by chemical disinfectant.

441. In case of death of a patient having a contagious disease transmitted through air and air/contact, it would
be required to take the same precautions to prevent infection after death which was taken during the life of the
patient.
a. True
b. False

59
442. For the appropriate isolation precautions to prevent infection of the following diseases, select the wrong
statement:
a. Tuberculosis = airborne isolation precautions
b. Chicken pox disease = air and contact isolation precaution,
c. Viral hepatitis C = No isolation
d. AIDS = Contact isolation precautions
e. German measles = Droplet isolation precautions.

443. For the policy of infection control in intensive care units, choose the correct statement:
a. Wear foot protectors when you do the usual care for patients.
b. Rubbing hands with alcohol before installing cannula.
c. Wearing surgical masks routinely within the unit.
d. Wear protective gowns before any procedures to any patient.

444. What is/are the cause(s) of increased rates of infection in intensive care units?
a. Exposure to many medical interventions that penetrate the patient’s body.
b. Frequent contact between patients and staff.
c. Detoriation of patient condition and week immunity.
d. All of the above.

445. For infection control measures in intensive care units, select the wrong statement:
a. All workers who deal with patients should routinely wash their hands before the start of work.
b. You can use single-use catheter for suction of respiratory tract for the same patient for up to 48 hours.
c. Can use the same artificial respiratory circuit without change or disinfection / sterilization for a patient in in-
tensive care, provided it is maintained in good condition.
d. Wearing a protective gown in case of doubt of the possibility of contamination by respiratory secretion of a
patient and have to be changed before the service is offered to another patient.

446. For the design of rooms to isolate diseases transmitted through the air in the hospital it would be pre-
ferred:
a. The rooms with negative pressure.
b. That single rooms contain a private bathrooms.
c. Have a sink for hand washing outside the bathroom.
d. All of the above.

447. What is applied to the isolation precautions:

a. Avian flu patients
b. Diphtheria patients
c. Viral hemorrhagic fever patients.
d. All of the above.

448. If a worker has one of these diseases, he should stop working in the kitchen except:
a. Salmonella Typhi
b. HCV
c. Shigella spp.
d. HAV
60
449. For infection control procedures in the kitchen of health facility :
a. There should be hand washing basin and another one for washing food.
b. Make sure to store different kinds of food properly in the appropriate temperature.
c. Selected surfaces of work for clear activities and another for unclear activities with the direction of work flow
is always to the front.
d. All of the above.

450. The following factors influence the increased infection rate in intensive care units except:
a. The preparation of intravenous solution within the unit.
b. The availability of shoe covers (over shoes).
c. Density of patients in the department.
d. The distance between the nearest sources of water for a place of service delivery.

451. Isolation precautions are:

a. Alternative to standard precautions to prevent the spread of some infectious diseases.
b. Precautions taken to prevent diseases and viruses transmitted through blood.
c. Actions taken to prevent the spread of certain diseases from health care providers to patients.
d. Precautions taken in addition to standard precautions to prevent the spread of some infectious diseases.

452. The most common microorganism causing ventilator associated pneumonia in health care facility is:
a. E-Coli
b. Klebsiella
c. Pseudomonas
d. Fungi

453. The microorganisms responsible for Early onset VAP (less than 96 hours after intubation or admission to
ICU) include all of the followings except:
a. Acinetobacter
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)
d. Escherichia coli
e. Klebsiella

454. The microorganisms responsible for Late onset VAP (more than 96 hours after intubation or admission to
ICU) include all of the followings except:
a. Acinetobacter
b. pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
d. Escherichia coli

455. Diagnosis of VAP depends on combination of all the followings except:

a. Clinical factors
b. Microbiological factors
c. Environmental factors
d. CXR (chest X-ray) factors

61
456. The incidence of VAP is highest in the following groups except:
a. Trauma
b. Hepatitis B patients
c. Burns
d. Neurosurgical population
e. Surgery

457. One of the two major components that have been shown to reduce the incidence of ventilator acquired
pneumonia is Elevate Head of Bed 30-45 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration.

a. True b. False

458. The most common Blood borne disease transmitted to Health Care workers is:
a. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis D
d. AIDS

459. Complying with Standard Precautions is considered the only means for protection from all the following,
except:
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Hepatitis C virus
c. Human Immunodeficiency virus ( AIDS)
d. Hepatitis A

460. The policy for dealing with a worker exposed to needle stick injury in the hospital should include all the
following, except:
a. The worker who has been exposed should wash hands immediately with running water and soap
b. The worker who has been exposed to injury should inform the designated occupational health person in the
hospital
c. The worker who has been exposed should fill out the form including the circumstances of the incident
d. The worker who has been exposed should be isolated to insure he does not have the infection, that is, if the
patient who is the source of infection has HCV.

461. It is important to adopt which of the following procedures when one of the staff members in your institu-
tion is exposed to a needle stick injury which was contaminated from the blood of a patient who is infected
with hepatitis B and it is unknown whether the worker had been vaccinated against this disease or if he got
infected:
a. No need for any preventive action
b. It is enough to give one dose of immunoglobulin
c. He must start his first dose of hepatitis B vaccine & take one dose of immunoglobulin
d. A sample of blood should be obtained and tested and accordingly the vaccination should be given based on the
laboratory result

462. To reduce the risk of infection or injury after giving an injection:

a. Always break the needle prior to disposal
b. Remove the needle from the syringe and dispose of it in a puncture-resistant container
62
c. Dispose of the needle and syringe as soon as possible after use
d. Recap hypodermic needles

463. Occupational health programs in HCFs should be able to protect both patients & HCWs from risk of noso-
comial infection transmission.
a. True
b. false

464. A HCW in a HCF should be vaccinated against HBV in one of the following cases:
a. He was exposed to needle prick from a patient with hepatitis virus B, and it was known that he was infected
with the same disease.
b. He was exposed to needle prick from a patient with hepatitis virus C, and it was known that he has already
taken 2 doses of HBV vaccine six months ago.
c. He was exposed to needle prick from a patient with hepatitis virus B , and it was known that he has already
taken 3 doses of HBV vaccine
d. All of the above

465. A HCW should be vaccinated against Tetanus :

a. If his clinical history is not available.
b. Every 10 years after the last dose of vaccination
c. If he was injured , and the last booster dose was more than 5 years ago
d. All of the above

466. It is necessary to prevent a HCW who has an active T.B. disease from direct contact with patients
a. True
b. false

467. A booster dose of HBV vaccine can be given to:

a. Each one vaccinated since 5 years ago
b. Those who’s their rate of exposure to needle prick increases
c. Patients who’s immunity against the virus decreased like renal dialysis patients
d. Children in the age of 6

468. It is necessary to vaccinate HCWs in NICU against all of the following except:
a. HBV
b. Measles
c. Tetanus
d. HCV

469. A policy statement means all the following, except:

a. A broad statement that guides actions toward a goal
b. Defines general principles to be followed
c. Describes specific steps to be taken exactly without hesitation
d. Written to be applicable for many unforeseen situations

470. A policy for vaccination of HCW against viral hepatitis B includes one of the following:
a. The number of personnel to be vaccinated
63
b. The type of personnel for whom vaccination criteria applies to them
c. Plan for vaccine storage
d. Means for funding

471. A policy for hand washing should NOT include which one of the following statements:
a. All personnel who have direct contact with patients should comply with proper hand washing before making
any procedure or medical intervention
b. In emergency situations which include fast interference, alcohol hand rub could be used
c. A training plan should be developed for employees on hand washing
d. Those who will not comply will be punished through hospital administration

472. All of the following could be placed in hospital policy for the prevention of needle stick injuries, except:
a. Syringes are not to be used when alternatives are available
b. Training of HCW on safe injections
c. Separating waste in a safe manner
d. Needles should be recapped after use

473. For the policy of infection control in intensive care units, choose the correct statement:
a. Wear foot protectors (cover shoes) when you do the usual care for patients.
b. Rubbing hands with alcohol before installing cannula.
c. Wearing surgical masks routinely within the unit.
d. Wear protective gowns before any procedures to any patient.

474. The modes of transmission of blood borne pathogens include all of the followings except
a. Sexual contact
b. Drinking contaminated water
c. Reusing hypodermic needles
d. Accidental puncture from contaminated needles, broken glass or other sharps
e. Contact between broken or damaged skin and infected body fluids
f. Contact between mucous membranes and infected body fluids

475. All of the followings are at great risk of getting BBP infection except:
a. Physicians
b. Nurses
c. Clinical support staff
d. Laboratory technical staff
e. Waste handlers
f. Visitors

476. What NOT to do in the laboratory

a. Eating/drinking (includes tea and/or coffee)
b. Store food in the refrigerator
c. Smoking
d. Recapping of needles
e. All of the above

477. Major Elements of an Occupational Health Program include:

64
a. Coordination with other departments
b. Screening / medical evaluations
c. Immunization program
d. Health education and counseling
e. All of the above

478. Considering Conjunctivitis of HCWs

a. Rota virus has been the primary cause of nosocomial outbreaks of conjunctivitis
b. Ophthalmologic instruments can become contaminated and transmit infection
c. Contaminated hands can`t spread infection from person-to-person
d. Incubation Period: 5-12 weeks

479. Successful Immunization Program include:

a. Administration Support
b. Mandatory programs more effective than voluntary programs
c. Assigning responsibility for program
d. Convenience of immunizations
e. All of the above

480. Health care staff are at risk of infection when:

a. They are exposed to potentially infectious blood and body fluids
b. They process contaminated instruments
c. They clean facilities
d. They dispose off medical waste
e. All of the above

481. Who are at risk of acquiring infections in poor infection control practices in hospitals
a. Community
b. Support staff
c. Health care providers
d. All of the above
e. All except A

482. Which one of the following is not the benefit of Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)?
a. Both direct and indirect evidence suggest that treatment with ARVs soon after exposure to HIV decreases the
risk of transmission.
b. PEP shows significant reduction in mother to child HIV transmissions
c. PEP is effective when initiated within 72 hours of exposure.
d. Antiretroviral treatment immediately after exposure to HIV can reduce risk of infection by about 100%

483. Hepatitis B vaccine can be given Intradermal (ID)

a. Yes
b. No

484. The responsibility for ensuring that hospitals and clinics have infection control standards, training, and
monitoring rests with
a. administrators
65
b. clinic managers
c. infection control committee
d. all of the above

485. Most sharps injuries are as a result of carelessness in handling or in disposal

a. True b. False

486. Hepatitis B virus is more infectious than Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
a. True b. False

487. The following diseases are preventable by immunization except?

a. Diphtheria
b. Pertussis (whooping cough)
c. Polio
d. HCV
e. Mumps
f. Rubella

488. How often should an adult have a Diphtheria/Tetanus booster

a. every year
b. every 3 years
c. every 5 years
d. every 10 years
e. for dog bites only

489. HCWs should contact infection control department if he/she has been exposed to all of the following dis-
eases or incidents except
a. Hepatitis
b. animal bites
c. food poisoning
d. sunburn

490. You should not visit patients in a hospital if you have:

a. fever
b. sore throat – runny nose
c. nausea, vomiting or diarrhea
d. cough, shortness of breath
e. all of the above

491. Infections of Concern for Pregnant HCWs include

a. Blood Borne Pathogens
b. Rubella
c. Rubeola (Measles)
d. All of the above

492. For a patient with Hepatitis A, the nurse is aware that the disease is transmitted through:
66
a. Feces
b. Blood
c. Skin
d. Droplet nuclei

493. Which one of the following is considered major contraindication to MMR vaccine
a. Diabetes
b. Immunocompromised state
c. Hypertension
d. All of the above

494. SMART Objectives:

a. Specific
b. Measurable
c. Appropriate
d. Realistic
e. Time-bound
f. All of the above

495. Indicators can be either quantitative or qualitative in nature

a. True b. False

496. All of the followings are Examples of Process Indicators except

a. Percentage of healthcare workers who wash hands
b. Percentage of healthcare workers who wear gloves
c. Percentage of staff fully vaccinated against HBV
d. Percentage of departments segregating waste
e. Percentage of hospitals disposing waste safely

497. Outcome Indicators measure the program's effects and long-term impacts on the general population.
a. True b. False
498. Complete killing or removal of all types of M.O , i.e bacteria, viruses, fungi and mycobacteria is called
a. Decontamination
b. Sterilization
c. Disinfection
d. Antisepsis

499. The time in minutes at a specific temp. needed to kill a population of cells is the :
a. F value
b. Thermal death temp.
c. Thermal death point
d. D value
e. Decimal reduction time

500. Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is :
a. Antisepsis
b. Disinfection
67
c. Degermation
d. Sterilization

501. Which of the following is used to clean delicate instruments or instruments with moving parts?
a. Sanitization
b. Disinfection
c. Sterilization
d. Ultrasonic cleaning

502. Which of the following was the first widely used antiseptic and disinfectant?
a. Alcohol
b. Iodine
c. Chlorine
d. Phenol
e. Merthiolate

503. The cleaning process that is required for all instruments that penetrate the skin or that come in contact
with normally sterile areas of the tissue and internal organs is
a. Sanitization
b. Sterilization
c. Ultrasonic cleaning
d. Disinfection

504. A disadvantage of ETO gas sterilization is :

a. It raises the temperature in the unit to 132 OC
b. Instruments must be placed in small chamber
c. Not effective against all organisms
d. Cycle needs at least 24 hours

505. Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat sterilization ?
a. Plastic IV bags
b. Rubber gloves
c. IV solutions
d. Glass pipette

506. The efficiency of moist heat sterilization is monitored with :

a. Spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus
b. Spores of Bacillus atrophaeus
c. Vegetative cells of Bacillus stearothermophilus
d. Clostridium botulinum

507. The most appropriate way of sterilization of oils and grease is :

a. Pasteurization
b. Autoclaving
c. Hot air oven
d. Formaldehyde gas sterilization

68
508. Which of the following scientist introduced the sterilization technique?
a. John Needham
b. Joseph Lister
c. Robert Koch
d. Louis Pasteur
509. A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure ?
a. Point source
b. Continuous common source
c. Intermittent common source
d. Person-to-person

510. Which term best describes the pattern of occurrence of the diseases listed below in a single area?
a. Endemic
b. Outbreak
c. Pandemic
d. Sporadic
A. Disease 1: usually 40-50 cases per week; last week 48 cases
B. Disease 2: fewer than 10 cases per year ; last week 1 case
C. Disease 3: usually no more than 2-4 cases per week; last week 13 cases

511. Indirect transmission includes which of the following?

a. Droplet spread
b. Mosquito-born
c. Food-born
d. Door knobs or toilet seats

512. Disease control measures are generally directed at which of the following?
a. Eliminating the reservoir
b. Eliminating the vector
c. Eliminating the host
d. Interrupting the mode of transmission
e. Reducing host susceptibility

513. A reservoir of an infectious agent can be :

a. An asymptomatic human
b. A symptomatic human
c. An animal
d. The environment

69
514. For each of the following , identify the appropriate number from the timeline in the previous figure repre-
senting the natural history of disease:
a. ……. Onset of symptoms
b. ……. Usual time of diagnosis
c. …… Exposure

515. A key feature of a cross-sectional study is that:

a. It usually provides the information on prevalence rather than incidence
b. It is limited to health exposures and behaviors rather than health outcomes
c. It is more useful for descriptive epidemiology than it is for analytical epidemiology
d. It is synonymous with survey

516. The epidemiological triad of disease causation refers to :

a. Agent, Host, Environment
b. Time, Place, Person
c. Source, Mode of transmission, Susceptible host
d. John Snow, Robert Koch, Kenneth Rothman

517. A cohort study differs from case control study in that :

a. Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case
control study
b. Subjects are asked about their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case control study
c. Cohort studies require many years to conduct, but case control studies don’t
d. Cohort studies are conducted to investigate chronic diseases , case control studies are used for infectious dis-
eases

518. British investigators conducted a study to compare measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (MMR) history
among 1294 children with pervasive development disorder(autism and Asperger’s syndrome) and 4469 chil-
dren without such orders. They found no association. This is an example of which type of study?
a. Experimental
b. Observational
c. Cohort
d. Case-control
e. Clinical trial

519. In the definition of epidemiology, “ Distribution” refers to :

a. Who
b. When
c. Where
d. Why

520. In the definition of epidemiology, “ Determinants” generally include:

a. Agents
b. Causes
c. Control measures
d. Risk factors
70
e. Sources

521. Epidemiology would include which of the following activities?

a. Describing the demographic characteristics of persons with acute aflatoxins poisoning in District A
b. Prescribing an antibiotic to treat a patient with community acquired MRSA infection
c. Comparing the family history , amount of exercise and eating habits of those with and without newly diag-
nosed diabetes
d. Recommending that a restaurant be closed after implicating it as the source of a Hepatitis A outbreak

522. John Snow’s investigation of Cholera is considered a model for epidemiological field of investigations
because it included a :
a. Biologically plausible hypothesis
b. Comparison of a health outcome among exposed and unexposed groups
c. Multivariate statistical model
d. Spot map
e. Recommendation for public health action

523. Public health surveillance include which of the following activities?

a. Diagnosing whether a case of encephalitis is actually due to West Nile virus infection
b. Soliciting case reports of persons with symptoms compatible with SARS from local hospitals
c. Creating graphs of the number of dog bites by week and neighborhood
d. Writing a report on trends on seat belt use to share with the state legislature
e. Disseminating educational materials about ways people can reduce their risk of Lyme disease

524. Concerning sterilization of anesthetic equipment :

a. Boiling in water for 15 min at atmospheric pressure kills bacteria and spores
b. An autoclave pressure of 1 bar at a temperature of 120oC for 15 min will kill all living organisms
c. Glutaraldehyde 2% has no sporicidal activity
d. Ethylene oxide takes < 1 hr. to be completely effective
e. Gas plasma is a form of HLD

525. With regard to decontamination procedures:

a. Cleaning of equipment after use is of little importance if the item is to be autoclaved
b. HLD has no sporicidal activity
c. Manual methods are much more reliable than automatic methods
d. Chemical indicators are used in sterile packs to confirm that the contents are sterile
e. Biological indicators are used to help distinguish processed items from non processed packages

526. Regarding decontamination of flexible endoscopes,

a. Chlorine releasing compounds are commonly used for disinfection
b. Endoscopes are pressure tested before disinfection
c. Ethylene oxide can be used to sterilize endoscopes
d. LLD are acceptable
e. They are stored vertically after use

527. Your patient in droplet precaution has family visiting. A family member asks how far they should stand
away from the patient while visiting. Your response is:
71
a. 2 feet or more
b. 3 feet or more
c. Stand at the doorway
d. 6 feet or more

528. You are providing an in-service on transmission-based precautions to a group of nursing students. Which
statement made by a student warrants re-education about the topic?
a. “I will make sure that any patient who is in droplet precautions wear a surgical mask when being trans-
ported”
b. “patients with air borne diseases as meningitis require a special room with negative air pressure”
c. “I will always wear a gown and gloves when entering a room of a patient in contact precautions”
d. “if I provide care to patients with C. difficile , Norovirus, Rotavirus infections , I will always wash my
hands with soap and water not hand sanitizer”

529. Which of the following patients would be in contact precautions? (select all that apply)
a. An 8 years old patient with lice
b. An 85-year-old patient with CRE (klebsiella pneumoniae)
c. A 65-year-old patient with Norovirus
d. A 75-year-old patient with disseminated herpes zoster
e. A 12-year-old patient with impetigo
f. A 9-year-old patient with RSV

530. A patient is diagnosed with HAV and is incontinent of stool. What type of precautions would be initi-
ated?
a. Contact and droplet
b. Standard and droplet
c. Standard and contact
d. Only contact precautions

531. You are providing care to a patient with C. difficile. After removing appropriate PPEs, you would per-
form HH by:
a. Using hand sanitizer
b. Using soap and water
c. Using soap and water only if hands are soiled but can use hand sanitizer
d. Using either hand sanitizer or soap and water

532. Select all the conditions that warrant airborne precautions : (select all that apply)
a. Norovirus
b. HAV
c. Measles
d. Varicella
e. Disseminated Varicella Zoster
f. Tuberculosis
g. Whooping cough
h. RSV
i. Epiglottitis

72
533. Your patient is being transported to special procedures for a PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter)
line placement. The patient is in droplet precautions. What are your nursing actions to ensure proper
transport of the patient?
a. Notify the receiving department and place a surgical mask on the patient
b. Place a N-95 mask on the patient and notify the receiving department
c. Cancel transport and notify the physician for further orders
d. Notify the receiving department and place goggles, gown and mask on the patient

534. A patient with disseminated Herpes Zoster requires routine tracheostomy suction. Select the appropriate
PPE you will wear:
a. Surgical mask, goggles, gown
b. N-95 mask, face shield, gown, gloves
c. N-95 mask, face shield, gown
d. Surgical mask, face shield, gown, gloves

535. A 6 year old female is diagnosed with Varicella. What type of isolation precautions will be initiated for
thios patient?
a. Droplet
b. Airborne
c. Airborne and contact
d. Droplet and contact

536. Select all the patients that would be placed in droplet precautions:
a. A 5 year old patient with chicken pox
b. A 36 year old patient with pertussis
c. A 25 year old patient with scarlet fever
d. A 56 year old patient with TB
e. A 69 year old patient with Streptococcal pharyngitis
f. A 89 year old patient with C. difficile

537. Which of the following is not considered a portal of entry for bacteria?
a. Eyes
b. Nose
c. Mouth
d. Intact skin

538. Standard precautions are / must be :

a. Only applicable if the patient has a bloodborne virus infection
b. To be used when caring for patients with MRSA
c. Applied to all patients all the time
d. Used when dealing with spillages of blood or body fluids

539. Gloves and aprons ?

a. Are single use items and must be worn for one task / episode of care only
b. Should not be changed regularly as this isn’t cost effective or a good use of resources
c. Can be worn outside of the patient’s isolation / side room
d. Must be worn together as you can’t do any task without wearing both
73
540. Infectious diseases such as HBV or HCV become a reservoir for pathogens in :
a. Blood
b. Urinary tract
c. Respiratory tract
d. Reproductive tract

541. The infectious disease that can be transmitted directly from one person to another , it is:
a. Susceptible host
b. Communicable disease
c. Portal of entry
d. Portal of exit

542. The “first moment” in the “five moments for hand hygiene” occurs when :
a. After patient contact / on leaving the point of care
b. Before you put on PPEs
c. As near to the patient as possible within the patient zone
d. Before you start to gather the equipment that you need to take to the patient’s bedside

543. What is the correct order of the chain of infection?

a. Susceptible patient, route of exit, organism, reservoir / source, mode of transmission, route of entry
b. Organism, reservoir / source, route of exit, mode of transmission, route of entry, susceptible patient
c. Reservoir / source, organism, susceptible patient, mode of transmission, route of entry

544. The chemical agents that inhibit the bacterial growth is called:
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Sterilant
c. Germicide
d. Disinfectant

545. The process by which an article, surface or medium is made free from all living microorganisms including
spores is called:
a. Sterilization
b. Antisepsis
c. Disinfection
d. Decontamination

546. Uses of ultraviolet lamps include:

a. Killing of organisms
b. Making vaccines
c. Prevention of airborne infections
d. All of the above

547. For effective sterilization by autoclave, temperature should be:

a. 90oC for 10 min
b. 121oC for 30 min
c. 150oC for 30 min
d. 121oC for 5 min
74
548. Antibiotics solution and sera are sterilized by :
a. Pasteurization
b. Boiling
c. Radiation
d. Hot air oven

549. Which of the following is the most prevalent risk factor for development of UTI ?
a. Catheter care violation
b. Prolonged catheterization
c. Increasing age
d. Female gender

550. When a nurse performing surgical hand asepsis, the nurse must keep hands:
a. Below elbow
b. Above elbows
c. At a 45-degree angle
d. In a comfortable position

551. Most important step in clinical area waste management is?

a. Labelling
b. Storage
c. Transportation
d. Segregation

552. Hospital acquired UTI are often related to poor hand washing and…
a. Improper catheter care
b. Poor perineal hygiene
c. Urinary drainage bags
d. Poor urinary output

553. What to use to sterilize surgical instruments and surgical dressings?

a. Autoclaving
b. Soap and water
c. ETO gas
d. Disinfectant chemicals

554. In addition to hand washing, wearing gloves, the use of standard precautions involves?
a. Understanding how pathogens are spread and using barrier equipment to protect yourself
b. Prevent the spread of infection
c. Wear PPEs
d. Apply gloves and place the dressing in a plastic bag

555. The nurse aide is responsible for cleaning client care supplies and equipment to ?
a. Routinely in the care of all clients
b. Frequent handwashing
c. Rash and intense itching
75
d. Prevent the spread of infection
556. you are instructed to collect a regular urine specimen from a female patient. You should:
a. Wash the perineum first to prevent specimen contamination
b. Keep clean and dirty items separate in the bedside stand
c. Apply gloves and place the dressing in a plastic bag
d. Apply the principles of standard precautions when obtaining the specimen

557. The best method of preventing the spread of infection is:

a. Frequent handwashing
b. Taking antibiotics
c. Never take injections
d. Avoid contact with carriers

558. Microbes that cause diseases are:

a. Normal flora of the body
b. Pathogens
c. Commensals
d. Innate immunity

559. Which of the following items is an airborne precaution?

a. Wearing a respirator
b. Keeping the room at negative pressure
c. Ensuring the door to the room to be closed
d. All of the above

560. Which of the following items is a droplet precaution?

a. Wearing a HEPA filter mask
b. Wearing a standard surgical mask
c. Keeping the room at negative pressure
d. All of the above
e.
561. Which of the following is not a standard practice for a patient with TB?
a. Move the patient to an isolation room
b. Maintain a room temperature of 24 degrees
c. Those who enter the room should wear respiratory protection
d. Keep the room at negative pressure

562. Which of the following is an example of indirect contact?

a. Touching an open wound
b. Inhaling air droplets after a sneeze
c. None of the above
d. Both A & B

563. You should consult a material safety data sheet to get information about cleaning up what type of spill?
a. Blood
b. Chemical
c. Food
76
d. Bottle of pills
564. What should you place in a red bag with “Biohazardous Waste” label on the bag?
a. Soiled bed linens
b. Patient’s clothes that are stained with blood
c. A soiled dressing from a wound
d. A wet disposable baby diaper

565. A dental assistant tears a glove when assisting a dentist with a patient who is HIV positive. What should
the assistant do FIRST?
a. Notify IC team
b. Report the incident to the CDC
c. Remove the gloves and wash hands
d. Put on a new pair of gloves

566. What is bioterrorism?

a. The threat of leaks or destruction to a nuclear plant
b. Use of microbes for industrial waste disposal
c. Threat of using harmful gases during a war to paralyze the opposition
d. Using microorganisms as weapons to infect humans

567. When HCWs follow standard precautions, they are practicing medical:
a. Asepsis
b. Transmission
c. Contamination
d. Isolation

568. When should HCWs wear gowns and gloves?

a. When there is a chance of contact with blood and body fluids
b. When entering a room of a patient who is HIV positive
c. When she / he has a cold
d. When caring for any patient with an upper respiratory tract infection

569. What does OSHA require HCFs to provide for all employees who come in contact with patients?
a. Health insurance
b. PPEs
c. Annual chest X-rays
d. Annual lab. screening

570. What could be found on the surface of a sterile instrument?

a. Viruses
b. Spores
c. Microbes
d. Nothing

571. Tuberculosis is caused by a tubercle bacillus which is:

a. Virus
b. Protozoa
77
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus

572. A sterile towel falls on the floor. The towel is considered :

a. Infectious
b. Contaminated
c. clean
d. disinfected

573. All pathogens are :

a. Animal like
b. Disease producing
c. Destroyed by antibiotics
d. Transmitted by insects

574. What statement about bacteria is true?

a. All bacteria are harmful
b. All bacteria are round
c. All bacteria reproduce inside living organisms
d. All bacteria are single-celled organisms

575. Which of the following is an example of direct contact?

a. Touching a patient
b. Inhaling a pathogen
c. Touching a bedpan
d. Removing gloves

576. Where would you find an anaerobic M.O?

a. On a toilet seat
b. In the soil
c. In the air
d. In sterile water

577. Practices designed to interrupt the spread of certain transmissible diseases are:
a. Standard precautions
b. Transmission based precautions
c. Negative pressure precautions
d. Universal precautions

578. Which of the following items are considered to be biohazardous waste?

a. Disposable incontinent pad soiled with urine and feces
b. The package a disposable came in
c. Disposable dishes with partially eaten food
d. A used water cup

579. With a high risk of splashing secretions, what is the proper PPEs?
a. Gown, mask, glove, head cover
78
b. Gloves, mask, eye protection, gown
c. Mask, eye protection, gown, shoe cover
d. Gown, gloves, respirator, paper cap

580. When using waterless hand cleaner :

a. Dispense the product into your hands and allow to air dry
b. Rub product into all surfaces of hand and allow to dry
c. Dispense the product then wipe with water towel
d. Apply 15 ml of waterless hand cleaner then rinse with warm water

581. When applying the principles of standard precautions, you must use:
a. Isolation technique
b. Negative pressure ventilation
c. PPEs
d. Universal and body substance standards

582. If your eyes, nose and mouth contact blood or potentially infectious materials, the FIRST thing you do is:
a. Wash with soap and water for 15 min
b. Rinse the area well with clear water immediately
c. Report to your supervisor immediately
d. Contact your personel physician immediately

583. Infection control practices used in the care of all patients are:
a. Universal precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Body substance isolation
d. Transmission based precautions

584. The infection acquired by a patient in HCF is:

a. Pathogenic disease
b. Nosocomial infection
c. Drug resistant infection
d. Toxic disease

585. Gloves must be worn:

a. For all patient care
b. When transferring a patient from bed to chair
c. Only when caring for patients in isolation
d. For contact with blood and body fluids

586. All of the following are rules for standard precautions, EXCEPT:
a. Masks and goggles should be worn if splashing secretions
b. Needles should not be recapped
c. Hands are only washed after gloves are removed
d. Waterproof gowns should be worn if blood splatter may occur

587. All of the following are examples of good infection control practices EXCEPT:
79
a. Reprocessing of equipment that are used by more than one patient
b. Folding soiled linen inwards
c. Carrying clean linen against your uniform
d. Covering your nose and mouth when coughing or sneezing

588. The most important step of hand washing is :

a. Applying germicidal soap
b. Using hot water
c. Friction
d. Using a towel to close the faucet

589. Spores:
a. Can live in the environment for long time
b. Are easily eliminated with alcohol hand cleaner
c. Cannot live long outside the human body
d. Are not a common concern in HCFs

590. Medical asepsis refers to:

a. Absence of all germs from the environment
b. Practices that limit the spread of pathogens
c. Environmental barriers that confine pathogens to a single person
d. Measures taken to sterilize instruments that could spread pathogens

591. HIV is transmitted by:

a. Blood and body fluids
b. Airborne method
c. Indirect contact
d. Vectors and vehicles
e. A & C

592. The purpose of infection control is to:

a. Remind all staff to wear gloves
b. Encourage good hand washing
c. Disrupt the chain of infection
d. Isolate patients with disease

593. The Mantoux test is used to check for the presence of:
a. HIV
b. MRSA
c. TB
d. Hepatitis

594. If the physician suspects a bacterial infection, he usually order a/ an :

a. Urinalysis
b. Strep screen
c. Culture and sensitivity
d. Staph screen
80
595. MRSA and VRE are:
a. Viruses
b. Easily eradicated
c. Fungi
d. Drug resistant bacteria

596. HCWs who have direct contact with patients are advised to take:
a. AIDS vaccine
b. HBV vaccine
c. Herpes vaccine
d. Staphylococcus vaccine
e. All of the above

597. A patient who is immunosuppressed is:

a. Has low resistance to disease
b. Has higher than normal resistance to disease
c. An Is always elderly
d. Is immune to disease

598. Body defenses against infection are:

a. Fingernails and toenails
b. Hair on the head
c. Mucous membranes
d. Non intact skin

599. Immunizations are available to prevent:

a. AIDS
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. Herpes

600. Vector-borne transmission of disease occurs when:

a. Hands come into contact with a fomite
b. Medication is contaminated
c. Disease is spread by insect or rodent
d. An infectious agent is ingested in water

601. An example of droplet transmission:

a. Coughing, sneezing or talking
b. Germs carried through the ventilation system
c. Microbes carried by moisture and dust in the air
d. Inhaling the odor of unpleasant excretions

602. An example of indirect contact:

a. Person – to – person contact
b. Hand contact with a contaminated object
81
c. Contact with an insect that transmits disease
d. Body fluids or sexual contact

603. Individuals that can transmit a disease but don’t show symptoms of the disease are known as:
a. Immunosuppressed
b. Carriers
c. Incubators
d. Saprophytes

604. The smallest microbe is :

a. Virus
b. Bacterium
c. Yeast
d. Spirochete

605. Examples of illnesses caused by viruses:

a. Syphilis and gonorrhea
b. AIDS and Hepatitis
c. Malaria and amebiasis
d. Ringworm and athletic foot

606. Microrganisms that cause infection grow best:

a. At body temperature
b. In the sunlight
c. When it is dry
d. In cold conditions

607. SICPs (Standard Infection Control Precautions) are intended for use ……… whether infection is known
to be present or not.
a. By some health and social care staff in all health and social care settings at all times
b. By all health and social care staff in some health and social care settings at all times
c. By all health and social care staff in all health and social care settings sometimes
d. By all health and social care staff in all health and social care settings at all times

608. Which of the following is not part of standard infection control precaution practice?
a. Placing a patient in an isolation room
b. Washing hands with soap and water
c. Disposing sharps in a sharps container
d. Managing a blood or body fluids spillage

609. The class of relationship where one organism benefits from another without affecting it is known as:
a. Pathogenesis
b. Commensalism
c. Symbiosis
d. Mutualism

610. How many links of the chain of infection are required to occur together to cause infection?
82
a. One
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six

611. Which of the following group of people are at major risk for SSIs ?
a. Children under 18 months old
b. Transplant recipient patient
c. Colon surgery patient
d. All of the above

612. Which of the following is not the major pathogen isolated in CAUTIs:
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Salmonella Para typhi
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. E. coli

613. The following pathogen is responsible for the commonly hospital acquired as well as community acquired
diarrhea, it can survive and stay viable in most of the surface regions for prolonged period of time. The organ-
ism consists of the spores which makes it more difficult to kill sometimes even after a thorough cleaning.
Name the most likely pathogen.
a. Penicillium chrysogenum
b. Methicillin resistant staph aureus
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Bacillus anthracis

614. According to CDC, which of the following PPE guidelines is less important preventive measures taken by
HCWs in control of HAIs :
a. Good HH
b. Proper mask for respiratory protection
c. Sterile gown and gloves
d. Easy and secure eye wears
e. Talking politely to patients

615. A girl born with underdeveloped lung had to stay in hospital for prolonged period of time. She developed
a serious infection during that time which occurred during the use of possibly contaminated central lines
(CLABSIs). Which of the following pathogen is commonly associated with CLABSI?
a. Mycoplasma pneumonia
b. Coagulase-negative staph
c. Streptococcus pyogens
d. Clostridium perfringes

616. Name the least common pathogen for VAP :

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Acinetobacter baumanii
83
617. Current public health surveillance targets which of the following:
a. Chronic diseases
b. Communicable diseases
c. Health-related behaviors
d. Occupational hazards
e. Presence of viruses in mosquitos

618. Which are the most common ways that a local health department uncovers outbreaks?
a. Performing descriptive analysis of surveillance data each week
b. Performing time series analysis to detect deviations from expected values based on the previous few weeks
and comparable periods during the previous few years
c. Receiving calls from affected residents
d. Receiving calls from healthcare providers
e. Reviewing all case reports received each week to detect common features

619. Factors that influence a health department’s decision whether or not to conduct a field investigation in re-
sponse to one or more cases of disease include:
a. The nature of the disease
b. The number of cases
c. Resources available
d. Health department’s traditional attitude toward conducting field investigations

620. If a particular outbreak presents an unusual opportunity to learn more about the disease and its epidemiol-
ogy by conducting a study, but early disease control measures would interfere with the study, one should
conduct the study quickly, then implement control measures immediately afterwards.
a. True
b. False

621. Use the following choices for Questions 621a–b.

a. Disease control and prevention efforts take priority over investigation efforts
b. Investigation efforts take priority over disease control and prevention efforts
1. _____ Outbreak with known causative agent, source, and mode of transmission
2. _____ Outbreak with known causative agent, but unknown source and mode of transmission
3. _____ Outbreak with unknown causative agent, source, and mode of transmission

622. Use the following steps of an outbreak investigation for Question 622:
1. Analyze data by time, place, and person
2. Conduct a case-control study
3. Generate hypotheses
4. Conduct active surveillance for additional cases
5. Verify the diagnosis
6. Confirm that the number of cases exceeds the expected number
7. Talk with laboratorians about specimen collection

For an investigation of an outbreak, what is the logical conceptual order of the steps listed above?

84
a. 1-2-3-4-5-6-7
b. 5-6-4-1-2-3-7
c. 6-5-3-1-2-7-4
d. 6-5-7-4-1-3-2

623. To avoid skipping a critical step, investigators should conduct the steps of an outbreak investigation in the
precise order you answered in question 622
a. True
b. False

624. Use the following choices for Questions 624 ( 1-3.)

a. Cluster
b. Epidemic
c. Outbreak
1. _____ 200 cases of Marburg virus infection in several districts in Angola over several months (usually
none)
2. _____ 40 cases of Salmonella Enteritidis in 1 week traced to a single meal served at a cafeteria (usually
none)
3. _____ 10 cases of cancer diagnosed over 2 years among residents of a single neighborhood (previous data
not available)

625. Why should an investigator who has no clinical background nonetheless talk to a patient or two as an
early step in the outbreak investigation?
a. To advise the patient about common risk factors and the usual course of the illness, after reviewing such
information in appropriate reference material
b. To develop hypotheses about the cause of the outbreak
c. To learn more about the clinical manifestations of the disease
d. To verify the clinical findings as part of verifying the diagnosis
e. To verify the laboratory findings as part of verifying the diagnosis

626. A case definition during an outbreak investigation should specify:

a. Clinical features
b. Time
c. Place
d. Person
e. Hypothesized exposure

627. Ideally, a case definition is 100% accurate in identifying who does and does not have the disease in ques-
tion, but in reality few case definitions achieve this ideal.
a. True
b. False

628. Once a case definition for an outbreak investigation has been established, it should not be changed.
a. True
b. False

85
629. Common methods of identifying additional cases (expanding surveillance) as part of an outbreak investi-
gation include:
a. Advising the public through newspapers, TV, radio, and the health department’s website to contact the lo-
cal health department
b. Asking case-patients who they were with at the time of exposure (if known)
c. Sending a fax to healthcare providers
d. Telephoning the infection control practitioners at local hospitals

630. A case report form devised for an outbreak investigation usually includes which of the following types of
information?
a. Identifying information
b. Demographic information
c. Clinical information
d. Risk factor information
e. Reporter, interviewer, or data abstractor information

631. Descriptive epidemiology is essential for “characterizing the outbreak” by time, place, and person, but has
little bearing on the analytic epidemiology.
a. True
b. False

632. Use the following epi curves as choices for Questions 632 a–c.
Match the epi curve with the outbreak description.

a. _____ A malfunctioning space heater was used each time the outside temperature dropped below freezing
b. _____ At the Eclipse Restaurant, sodium nitrite was mistaken for table salt in the preparation of breakfast
one morning only
c. _____ Common cold passed from classmate to classmate

86
 633. Use the following
epidemic curve for Ques-
tion 633.
A group of tourists on a weeklong bus
tour of a European country experi-
enced an outbreak of norovirus. The
group had followed a consistent
meal time pattern: each morning
they had breakfast together in
whichever hotel they had stayed
from 6:00 a.m. to 7:00 a.m., stopped for lunch from 1:00 p.m. to 2:00 p.m., then had dinner together either
at the next hotel or at a restaurant at about 7:00 p.m. The incubation period for norovirus is about 24-48
hours, with a median of about 33 hours. On which day and at which meal was exposure most likely? Possible
explanations for a case that occurs substantially later than the other cases in an outbreak include:
a. Similar but unrelated disease
b. Secondary case
c. Case with unusually long incubation period
d. Time of exposure later than others
e. Error in recording date

634. A spot map is particularly useful for displaying:

a. Geographic location of exposure of each case-patient
b. Residence of each case-patient
c. Incidence rate of disease by area
d. Prevalence rate of disease by area

635. Which of the following may be useful in generating hypotheses in an outbreak setting?
a. Review the literature
b. Look at the descriptive epidemiology
c. Look at the outliers
d. Talk with the local health authorities
e. Talk with a few of the case-patients
f. Talk with subject matter experts

636. The key feature of an analytic (epidemiologic) study is: (Select only one answer)
a. Analysis by time, place, and person
b. Calculation of a risk ratio or odds ratio
c. Use of Epi Info to analyze the data
d. Presence of a comparison group

637. Disease control measures can be directed at the:

a. Agent
b. Source
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry
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e. Host susceptibility

638. public health surveillance includes which activities?

a. Data collection.
b. Data analysis.
c. Data interpretation.
d. Data dissemination.
e. Disease control.
f. All except, E

639. Current public health surveillance targets which of the following?

a. Chronic diseases.
b. Communicable diseases.
c. Health-related behaviors.
d. Occupational hazards.
e. Presence of viruses in mosquitoes.

640. Public health surveillance can be described primarily as which of the following?
a. A method to monitor occurrences of public health problems.
b. A program to control disease outbreaks.
c. A system for collecting health-related information.
d. A system for monitoring persons who have been exposed to a communicable disease.

641. Public health surveillance is only conducted by public health agencies.

a. True.
b. False.

642. Common uses and applications of public health surveillance include which of the following?
a. Detecting individual persons with malaria so that they can receive prompt and appropriate treatment.
b. Helping public health officials decide how to allocate their disease control resources.
c. Identifying changes over time in the proportion of children with elevated blood lead levels in a community.
d. Documenting changes in the incidence of varicella (chickenpox), if any, after a law requiring varicella vac-
cination took effect.

643. Data collected through which of the following methods is commonly used for surveillance?
a. Vital registration.
b. Randomized clinical trials.
c. Disease notifications.
d. Population surveys.

644. Health-care providers might be important sources of surveillance data used by public health officials, and
they should receive feedback to close the surveillance loop as a courtesy; however, the results almost never
have any relevance to patient care provided by those health-care providers.
a. True.
b. False.

645. Vital statistics are important sources of data on which of the following?
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a. Morbidity.
b. Mortality.
c. Health-related behaviors.
d. Injury and disability.
e. Outpatient health-care usage.

646. Vital statistics provide an archive of certain health data. These data do not become surveillance data until
they are analyzed, interpreted, and disseminated with the intent of influencing public health decision-mak-
ing or action.
a. True.
b. False.

647. Key sources of morbidity data include which of the following?

a. Environmental monitoring data.
b. Hospital discharge data.
c. Laboratory results.
d. Notifiable disease reports.
e. Vital records.

648. Notifiable disease surveillance usually focuses on morbidity from the diseases on the list and does not
cover mortality from those diseases.
a. True.
b. False.

649. Use the following choices for Questions 649.(1-5).

a. Notifiable disease surveillance
b. Surveillance for consumer product-related injuries
c. Both.
d. Neither.
1. ___ State-based, with subsequent reporting to CDC
2. ___ Focused on identifying individual cases.
3. ____ Can monitor trends over time.
4. ____ Based on statistically valid sample.
5. ____ Complete, unbiased reporting.

650. Evaluating and improving surveillance should address which of the following?
a. Purpose and objectives of surveillance.
b. Resources needed to conduct surveillance.
c. Effectiveness of measures for controlling the disease under surveillance.
d. Presence of characteristics of well-conducted surveillance.

651. Criteria for prioritizing health problems for surveillance include which of the following?
a. Incidence of the problem.
b. Public concern about the problem.
c. Number of previous studies of the problem.
d. Social and economic impact of the problem.

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 652. Use the following choices for Questions 652.(1-4)
a. Surveillance based on a specific case definition for a disease (e.g., listeriosis).
b. Syndromic surveillance based on symptoms, signs, or other characteristics of a disease, rather than specific
clinical or laboratory diagnostic criteria.
c. Both.
d. Neither.
1. ____ Watches for individual cases of disease of public health importance.
2. ____ Watches for diseases that might be caused by acts of biologic or chemical terrorism.
3. ____ Can watch for disease before a patient seeks care from a health-care provider.
4. ____ Requires little effort on the part of the health department.

653. Routine analysis of notifiable disease surveillance data at the state health department might include look-
ing at the number of cases of a disease reported this week . .
a. and during the previous 2–4 weeks.
b. and the number reported during the comparable weeks of the previous 2–5 years.
c. simultaneously by age, race, and sex of the patient.
d. by county.
e. by county, divided by each county’s population (i.e., county rates).

654. One week, a state health department received substantially more case reports of a disease in one county
than had been reported during the previous 2 weeks. No increase was reported in neighboring counties. Pos-
sible explanations for this increase include which of the following?
a. An outbreak in the county.
b. Batch reports.
c. Duplicate reports.
d. Increase in the county’s population.
e. Laboratory error.

655. The primary reason for preparing and distributing periodic surveillance summaries is which of the follow-
ing?
a. Document recent epidemiologic investigations.
b. Provide timely information on disease patterns and trends to those who need to know it.
c. Provide reprints of MMWR articles, reports, and recommendations.
d. Acknowledge the contributions of those who submitted case reports.

656. Use the following choices for Questions 656.(1-2)

a. Predictive value positive.
b. Sensitivity.
c. Specificity.
d. Validity.
1. ____ Surveillance detected 23 of 30 actual cases of a disease.
2. ____ Of 16 statistically significant aberrations (deviations from baseline) detected by syndromic surveillance,
only one represented an actual outbreak of disease.

657. Underreporting is not a problem for detecting outbreaks of notifiable diseases because the proportion of
cases reported tends to remain relatively stable over time.
a. True.
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b. False.

658. Initiating surveillance for a public health problem or adding a disease to the notifiable disease list is justi-
fied for which of the following reasons?
a. If it is a communicable disease with a high case-fatality rate.
b. If the problem is new and systematically collected data are needed to characterize the disease and its impact
on the public.
c. If a program at CDC has recommended its addition to better understand national trends and patterns.
d. To guide, monitor, and evaluate programs to prevent or control the problem.

659. The case definition used for surveillance of a health problem should be the same as the case definition used
for clinical (treatment) purposes.
a. True.
b. False.

660. A state health department decides to strengthen its notifiable disease reporting. The one best action to
take is to . . .
a. allow reporting through use of the Internet.
b. require more disease-specific forms from local health departments.
c. ensure that all persons with a responsibility to report understand the requirements and reasons for reporting
and how reports will be used.
d. reduce the number of diseases on the list.

661. Which population is most susceptible to HCAIs ?

a. Patients
b. HCWs
c. Visitors
d. All of the above

662. Which is the most important source / reservoir of HCAIs ?

a. Patients
b. HCWs
c. Visitors
d. None of the above

663. When a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis can be removed from the isolation room?
a. After patient’s signs & syptoms have disappeared
b. When chest X-ray become negative
c. After three consecutive negative sputum smear
d. After three consecutive negative sputum culture

664. Which is the preferred hand washing method to prevent transmission of Clostridium difficile associated
infections ?
a. Alcohol hand rub
b. Water and soap
c. Iodine solution

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665. With regard to HCAIs, visitors may have negative impacts on patients (and community) by :
a. Transmitting infectious agents between patients
b. Serving as a carrier of MDROs from / to community
c. Disturbing effective infection control measures
d. Smoking within the patient’s room

666. What type of PPEs would you

wear ? Gown Mask Goggles Face Gloves None

Shield

a. Transporting coughing patients in / out

of ward

b. Drawing blood from a patient

c. Irrigating a septic wound

d. Nasogastric suctioning

e. Performing lumbar Puncture

f. Visiting NICU

g. Performing physical examination

h. Attending patients with Fecal

Incontinence

i. Delievering a baby of an HIV positive

mother

667. What is your selection criteria (order of importance) when prescribing antibiotics?
a. Antimicrobial spectrum
b. Cost
c. Brand
d. Generation
# Order of importance: 1. ………….., 2. ………………, 3. ……………., 4. …………….

668. Which of the following diseases are preventable by immunization ? (select all that apply)
a. Diphtheria
b. HIV
c. Tetanus (lock jaw)

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d. Polio
e. Chicken pox
f. Mumps
g. Rubella
h. HAV
i. HBV
j. HCV
k. Pertussis (whooping cough)

669. Which of the following is true about Hepatitis A vaccine ?

a. Vaccine may cause mild jaundice 2-6 weeks after administration
b. It can be given to pregnant woman when clinically indicated
c. HAV antibody levels should be tested to check for response
d. Is only effective if given to unvaccinated contacts of Hepatitis A within 72 hours of the onset of jaundice in
the index case
e. Should not be given to someone who may already be incubating HAV infection

670. HAV vaccine is recommended for the following groups:

a. Food handlers working in a shellfish market
b. Sewage workers
c. Patients with chronic renal disease
d. Injecting drug users

671. Which of the following statements is / are true about HBV infection ?
a. Infection results in jaundice in more than 50 % of all cases
b. Incubation period ranges from 14-60 days
c. Chronic disease is strongly linked to the development of liver cancer
d. Less than half of children infected perinataly develop chronic disease
e. Most of those infected as adults will become chronic carriers of HBV

672. HBV vaccines:

a. Are not effective in patients with acute HBV infection
b. Are live attenuated vaccines
c. Fewer than 10 % of adults fail to respond to HBV vaccine adequately
d. Are very effective if used for post-exposure prophylaxis
e. Work best in those aged over 40 years

673. HBV vaccines:

a. Contain Hepatitis B core antigen prepared from yeast cell
b. Should not be given to a person who may already have been exposed to Hepatitis B without checking for
markers of past infection
c. Should not be administered into the buttock
d. Induce anti-HBs specific antibodies

674. Post-exposure prophylaxis with HBIG is recommended for :

a. Non-responders for HBV vaccine who had a needle stick injury from a patient with acute Hepatitis B
b. Babies born to women with chronic Hepatitis B infection who are e antigen positive
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c. Babies born to women who have developed acute Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy
d. all of the above

675. An immunocompetent HCW is found to have an anti-HBs level of 10-100 mIU/mL after a course of HBV
vaccine. Which of the following is / are true?
a. Need no further doses of HBV vaccine as satisfactory protection has been achieved
b. Should have 1 further dose of HBV vaccine
c. Should have 1 further series of HBV vaccine
d. Should receive booster dose of HBV vaccine every 5 years

676. Which of the following should not be given HBV vaccine ?

a. Those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of HBV vaccine
b. Immunosuppressed individuals
c. Pregnant woman
d. HIV positive people
e. Premature infants

677. Which of the following is / are true about MMR vaccine?

a. It is a live attenuated vaccine
b. Should not be given in pregnancy
c. Better not to give it if a person has a previous history of either measles, mumps or rubella
d. If the vaccine course is started after the age of 18 months, a child needs 2 doses separated by three months

678. Which of the following is / are included in the definition of a significant exposure to Varicella Zoster virus
(VZV) :
a. Exposure to chicken pox
b. Exposure to immunosuppressed patients with localized zoster
c. Exposure up to 72 hours before the onset of chicken pox rash
d. Exposure on the day of occurrence of shingles affecting the eye
e. Contact in the same room for 2 minutes

679. In neonates, VZIG is recommended for:

a. Those whose mothers develop chicken pox the day after derlivery
b. Those whose mothers develop chicken pox 10 days before derlivery
c. Infants whose mothers don’t have VZ antibodies and are exposed to a sibling with chicken pox at 1 month
of age
d. VZ antibody negative infants born at 27 weeks in NICU and exposed to a HCW with chicken pox
e. VZ antibody negative infants 70 days old in NICU exposed to a HCW with chicken pox

680. Which of the following is / are true about Varicella Zoster Immune Globulin (VZIG) prophylaxis:
a. It always prevent severe chicken pox
b. It can significantly increase VZ antibody titer in immunocompromised contacts who are already antibody
positive
c. It may not prevent subclinical disease
d. It always prevent congenital Varicella
e. Patients given it should be offered acyclovir if chicken pox developed

94
681. Varicella vaccine should not be given to :
a. Immunosuppressed patients
b. Pregnant women
c. Those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin or gelatin
d. Women who are breast feeding
e. Non-immune contacts within three days of exposure

682. Which mode of infection transmission is due to splashes of blood / body fluids into the mucosa or the con-
tamination of non-intact skin with infected blood / body fluids?
a. Direct / indirect contact
b. Airborne
c. Ingestion
d. Inoculation

683. Which area of the body is microbe free?

a. Skin
b. Inside nose
c. Genitalia
d. Urinary bladder

684. Which of the following is an example of your understanding of normal flora?

a. Process of killing a virus that is bloodborne pathogen
b. Bacteria that normally cause infection in humans
c. Bacteria that live on a person without causing harm
d. Bacteria found on flowers

685. The chain of infection is a visual representation of:

a. The types of microbes that can cause an infection
b. A chain of job functions that increase a person’s risk of developing an infection
c. The events that have to occur for an infection to develop
d. Standard and transmission based precautions

686. Michael has an infection in his sinuses and lungs. He is coughing and sneezing and only remembers to
cover his nose and mouth about half a time. Which link represents the break in the chain of infection in this
scenario ? placing you at risk of contracting the infection
a. Infectious agent
b. Portal of exit
c. Portal of entry
d. Reservoir

687. Which of the following characteristics is more associated with bacteria than a virus?
a. Almost always harmful
b. Largest of microbes
c. Needs host cell to reproduce
d. Simplest of life forms

688. Live viruses are usually used for active immunization against:
95
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Pertussis
c. Typhoid fever
d. Mumps, Measles and Rubella
e. Hepatitis B

689. Which of the following are infection control practices for patients with respiratory infections?
a. Offer them a mask
b. Cohort them with other patients who have the same type of infection
c. Keep them 3-6 feet away from other patients
d. All of the above
e. All except B

690. Which is not the most common type of contact that spreads bacteria?
a. Point of entry
b. Direct contact
c. Susceptible person
d. Indirect contact

691. When wearing gloves, when do you need to wash your hands?
a. Before putting on gloves
b. After taking off gloves
c. Before and after using gloves
d. No need to wash your hands when using gloves

692. What is required before you perform HH?

a. Remove bracelets
b. Fingernails should be short
c. Rings should not have jewels or stones
d. Asses hands for visible soil

693. Which of the following hand wash techniques considered the first in the correct order?
a. Check for disinfectant concentration
b. Wet hands
c. Friction of the hands
d. Apply soap

694. What is the appropriate flow and temperature of water when washing hands?
a. A medium flow and hot water
b. A fast flow and cool water
c. A slow flow and warm water
d. A medium flow and warm water

695. How should you dry your hands?

a. From finger tips to wrists
b. From wrists to finger tips in one direction
c. In a circular motion covering all areas of the hands and wrists
96
d. Lightly pat and allow hands to air dry

696. According to the Centers for Disease Control, which is the single most important way to prevent the
spread of illness, including COVID 19?
a. Covering mouth when coughing.
b. Getting a flu vaccine.
c. Washing hands regularly throughout the day.
d. Maintain social distance

697. What is the purpose of personal protective equipment?

a. To protect the patient from the spread of diseases
b. To protect both the healthcare provider and the patient from being infected with diseases.
c. To protect the healthcare provider from the spread of diseases.
d. To protect equipment from being compromised.

698. What are the three categories of transmission based precaution?

a. Contact, droplet, airborne
b. Contact, blood-borne, airborne
c. Blood-borne, contact, droplet
d. Airborne, blood-borne, droplet

699. What are the five main areas of personal protection covered by the revised PPE Standard?
a. Foot, Head, Eye, Face and Hand
b. Head, Foot, Leg, Ear and Toe
c. Toe, Eye, Head, Hand and Knee
d. Nose, Eye, Head, Thigh and Face

700. When donning PPE, the CDC recommends this order:

a. Gloves, gown, eye protection, mask
b. Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
c. Eye protection, gown, mask, gloves
d. Mask, eye protection, gown, gloves

701. Which type of PPE should a health care provider wear if the patient has tuberculosis?
a. Eye goggles
b. A surgical mask
c. An N95, N99, or N100 respirator
d. Both a surgical mask and a respirator

702. The pandemic of COVID 19in 2019 outlined the importance of PPE because:
a. This disease is highly contagious
b. A significant number of those infected were healthcare staff
c. No vaccine were available
d. No treatment for COVID 19

97
703. Which area of the body is particularly significant in the transmission of pathogens from healthcare staff
to patients?
a. Mouth
b. Eyes
c. Hands
d. Nasal cavities

704. Gloves should be worn when :

a. Undertaking any clinical procedure that involves patient
b. Contact with healthcare-related equipment such as walking frames, hoists or wheelchairs is anticipated
c. Potential exposure to blood and bodily fluid is anticipated
d. Undertaking any clinical procedure that involves contact with the patient’s immediate environment

705. Standard Precautions does not include:

a. Washing hands before and after patient contact
b. Appropriate handling of contaminated clinical waste
c. Use of aseptic technique
d. Use of gloves and gowns at all times

706. Respiratory Hygiene/Cough Etiquette includes all EXCEPT:

a. Sign asking visitors with respiratory symptoms not to enter
b. Providing surgical masks, tissues and hand hygiene products to patients
c. Dividing waiting rooms between respiratory symptom patients and those without respiratory symptoms
d. Wearing a respirator and performing hand hygiene when examining a patient with respiratory symptoms

707. When wearing sterile gloves and performing a sterile procedure, the hands should:
a. be kept below the waistline.
b. be kept above the waistline.
c. rest on the patient's body.
d. never touch each other.

708. Cleaning and disinfection should be performed:

a. On equipment, instruments and devices used on or near patients
b. On furniture and inanimate objects in patient rooms
c. On toys in pediatric areas
d. All of the above

709. The correct Personal Protective Equipment needed to remove used bed linen is
a. Gloves
b. Gloves and apron
c. Gloves, apron and face mask
d. None

710. The correct procedure to remove used bed linen is

a. Remove all linen and take it to the laundry room
b. Put on PPE, roll and fold the linen into a bundle taking care not to shake it and take it to the laundry room

98
c. Put on PPE, roll and fold the linen into a bundle taking care not to shake it and place it in the correct laun-
dry bag close at hand
d. Wearing gloves before removing linen

711. What is the definition of asepsis?

a. Asepsis is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms.
b. Asepsis is to be free from all microorganisms.
c. Asepsis is the absence of microorganisms that can cause infection.
d. Asepsis is the process of inhibiting the number of microorganisms.

712. Which of the following describe Aseptic Technique?

a. Aseptic Technique is a framework for aseptic practice which includes a risk assessment and the use of infec-
tion control measures.
b. Aseptic Technique aims to prevent pathogenic organisms, in sufficient quantity to cause infection from be-
ing introduced to susceptible sites by hands, surfaces and equipment.
c. Aseptic Technique protects patients during invasive clinical procedures by using appropriate infection pre-
vention measures.
d. All of the above.

713. The presence of only one living microorganism means an object is:
a. Aseptic
b. Sanitized
c. Disinfected
d. Contaminated

714. The safe management of linen includes:

a. storage & handling
b. bagging, transportation and laundering
c. a & b
d. handling

715. All of the following considered as high-touch Surfaces EXCEPT:

a. Surfaces switches
b. door knob
c. Chairs
d. Walls

716. Environmental cleaning refers to

a. Visibly clean of the environment
b. Disinfection of the environment
c. Sterilization of the environment
d. None of the above

717. Who is responsible for cleaning care equipment?

a. All staff providing care
b. Domestic staff
c. Housekeepers
99
d. The manager

718. Using disinfectants for environmental cleaning are

a. not recommended for routine use
b. only recommended for operating theater
c. recommended for routine use
d. None of the above

719. _______ free of microorganisms.

a. After hand hygiene the hands are
b. Clean equipment is
c. Non-latex gloves are
d. A sterile field is

720. Sterile technique is necessary:

a. for non-surgical procedures involving the vagina or gastrointestinal tract
b. for non-surgical procedures involving the mouth or rectum.
c. for procedures that penetrate the skin or mucous membrane.
d. only in the operating or delivery room.

721. The use of intravascular devices can be complicated by a variety of local or systemic infectious events in-
cluding;
a. local site infection
b. septic thrombophlebitis
c. Endocarditis
d. metastatic infections.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

722. The incidence of catheter related blood stream infection (CRBSI) varies according to:
a. type of catheter,
b. frequency of catheter manipulation
c. underlying disease and
d. Severity of illness.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

723. Signs of sepsis:

a. hypotension,
b. hypothermia,
c. decrease urine output
d. Difficult breathing.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

724. Process of Catheter-Related Infections include:

a. Pathogen migration along external surface more common early (< 7days).
100
b. Number of days of insertion.
c. Age of the patients.
d. Severity of original disease.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

725. When to suspect catheter related infection:

a. Non functioning catheter.
b. Shivering during the use of catheter.
c. Hypotension
d. a+b
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

726. Benefits of Chlorhexidine:

a. bactericidal activity.
b. effective within 30 seconds after application
c. systemic absorption
d. a+b
e. e) All of the above
f. None of the above.

727. Site of choice for central venous line:

a. Femoral vein
b. Internal jugular vein
c. Sub clavian vein
d. Radial vein
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

728. In fungal infection in central catheter:

a. give antifungal for 14 days
b. remove the catheter
c. give local and systemic antifungal
d. Continue antifungal for 7 days after clearance of symptoms.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.

729. Types of organisms closely related to CRBSI include : ( All are true Except)
a. coagulase-negative staphylococci
b. Enterococci
c. Candida spp
d. Streptococcus pneumonia

730. Urinary tract infection can occur by:

a. Ascending route.
b. Hematogenous or lymphatic route.
101
c. Through urinary catheterization.
d. All of the above.

731. The most important risk factor for developing catheter associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) is:
a. Diabetes mellitus.
b. Duration of catheterization.
c. Old age.
d. Kidney stones.

732. Common viral infection that reactivates in first month post renal transplantation is:
a. Cytomegalo virus.
b. Epstein Barr virus.
c. Herpes viruses 1 and 2.
d. None of the above.

733. If any post-transplant patient who is sero-negative to varicella zoster vaccine and exposed to someone in-
fected with the virus. What should be done?? (All are true EXCEPT)
a. He should receive varicella immune globulin (IG) within 96 hours of exposure.
b. Acyclovir may be considered for post exposure prophylaxis if the patient presents more than 96 hours fol-
lowing exposure .
c. If IG is not available acyclovir may be considered .
d. He should be vaccinated and receive varicella immune globulin

734. According to the Rule of Nines the patient’s hand is equivalent to …….. of the total body surface area .
a. 1%
b. 9%
c. 4.5%
d. None of the above

735. The three zones of the body that the Lund and Browder Chart varies depending on age are :
a. The head, thighs and lower legs.
b. The head, arm and lower legs
c. The head, arm and thighs
d. The head, thighs and hand

736. In burn patient , the loss of epithelium from a previously re-epithelialized surface is a called
a. Cellulitis
b. necrotizing infection-fasciitis
c. Burn wound impetigo
d. None of the above

737. Although Urinary tract infection (UTI) has received little attention in burn patients , But precipitating Risk
factors specific to burn patients include :
a. The presence of perineal burns in certain patients
b. The increased length of time patients require catheterization in the treatment of extensive injuries.
c. Patients with indwelling urinary catheters.
d. All of the above
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738. Infection outbreak in burn unit could be related to all of the following Except
a. Hydrotherapy and common treatment rooms
b. Contaminated equipment such as mattresses
c. The hands and apron area of the care service provided person
d. Site of Burn

739. Routine surveillance Burn wound cultures should be obtained

a. On admission for patients transferred from other facilities
b. On admission throat cultures for pediatric patients
c. To provide early identification of organisms colonizing the wound
d. All of the above

740. Newborn or neonate refers to an infant in the first 28 days after birth, the term applies to
a. preterm infants
b. full term infants
c. post mature
d. all of the above
e. a+b only

741. Neonatal Sepsis is a clinical syndrome characterized by :

a. Signs and symptoms of infection
b. With accompanying bacteremia in the first month of life .
c. Without accompanying bacteremia in the first month of life .
d. All of the above
e. A+b only

742. If a woman found to be HBs Ag positive , in order to prevent neonatal Viral Infection transmission :
a. the infant receives at-birth or within 24 hours after birth specific anti-HBV immune globulin
b. HBV vaccination are effective in reducing the risk of vertical transmission
c. the infant completes the recommended hepatitis B vaccine series on schedule
d. All of the above

743. Evidence Based Bundle Approach to Prevent late onset neonatal sepsis Will target :
a. Central Line-associated Bloodstream Infection
b. Ventilator-associated Pneumonia
c. Multidrug-resistant Organisms
d. All of the above

744. …………………… is the neonate weighing less than 1500 gm.

a. Very low birth weight
b. Extremely low birth weight
c. Low birth weight

745. The following organisms can cause illness when transmitted through food, water and on hands:
a. Bacteria [salmonella, E coli, campylobacter]
b. Virus [norovirus, Hepatitis A]
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c. Parasites [giardia, Ameoba, Cryptosporidium]
d. All of the above

746. The correct method of washing your hands is:

a. Wet hands rinse dry
b. Wet hands, lather with soap, rinse dry with a paper towel
c. Wet hands apply soap rinse, dry with a paper towel
d. Before putting in or taking our contact lenses
e. Wet hands, apply soap rinse

747. Hand sanitizer can be used effectively in place of hand washing when:
a. You cough or sneeze into hands
b. Hand wash facilities are not available
c. After using the toilet
d. Before or after handling food
e. 1 and 2 of above

748. Coughing etiquette includes which of the following:

a. Covering your mouth when coughing
b. Cough/sneeze into your elbow area
c. Washing your hands after coughing
d. Turn your head away from food/people when coughing
e. All of the above

749. Once you sanitize a surface, you should

a. Rinse it off
b. Dry with a cloth towel
c. Allow to air dry
d. Clean with soapy water

750. What is hand hygiene

a. Proper handwashing
b. Using hand sanitizer
c. Proper glove use
d. All of the above, except hand sanitizer is not acceptable when handling food

751. Which of the following conditions would not require that a patient be placed in airborne isolation precau-
tions?
a. TB
b. Influenza
c. Chicken Pox
d. Measles

752. Under which of the following situations is it appropriate to use an alcohol based hand rinse instead of
washing your hands?
a. After using the restroom
b. Before eating meals
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c. When hands are exposed to blood or body fluids
d. When hands are not visibly soiled

753. Which of the following are considered to be bloodborne pathogens?

a. HIV
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. All of the above

754. The patient population at greatest risk for death due to the influenza virus are
a. Teenagers
b. Infants and Pediatrics
c. Young Adults and Middle Adults
d. Elderly Adults over 65 years of age

755. Which of the following isolation precautions should be used if a patient has the flu?
a. Droplet Precautions
b. Contact Precautions
c. Airborne Precautions
d. Protective Precautions

756. Which of the following microorganisms have developed a resistance to antibiotic therapies?
a. Bacterial Meningitis
b. Mumps
c. Staphylococcus Aureus
d. Smallpox

757. A person with MRSA should be placed in which of the following types of isolation?
a. Droplet Precautions
b. Contact Precautions
c. Airborne Precautions
d. Protective Precautions

758. Which of the following test is given to determine if a patient has had exposure too the TB organism?
a. PPD
b. CDC
c. HCV
d. HIV

759. Under which of the following conditions should standard precautions be implemented?
a. When caring for all patients
b. When coming in contact with patient’s blood or body fluids
c. Only for patients who are known to have diseases caused by bloodborne pathogens
d. A and B only
e. B and C only

760. All of the following safety standards should be followed when using needles EXCEPT:
105
a. Never recap needles using 2 hands
b. Never bend or break needles
c. Dispose of all needles in the nearest sharp’s disposal container
d. Replace sharps containers when they are ¾ full to completely full

761. Which of the following is not a symptom of Tuberculosis ?

a. Fever
b. Coughing for longer than 3 weeks
c. Weight gain
d. Coughing up blood

762. Which of the following statements are true regarding treating patients with Tuberculosis?
a. Patients with suspected TB should be placed in Airborne Precautions
b. Personnel entering the room must wear an N95 Particulate Respirator
c. The patient should be placed in a negative pressure room
d. All of the above

763. When caring for patients in Droplet Isolation you must wear an isolation mask if you are within
__________feet of the patient.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

764. Health Care workers should have PPD skin testing at least
a. Once every two years
b. Once every three months
c. Once every year
d. Once every other year

765. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. A patient with bloodborne viral infection who is going to OR must be last on the operating list and nursed
in a single room post-operatively
b. A patient with bloodborne viral infection don’t need to be nursed in a single room and can be cared for using
standard precautions

766. Which one of the following options correctly indicates acute HBV infection?
a. HBsAg, HBeAg and Anti-HBc
b. HBeAg and Anti-HBc for longer than 6 months
c. Anti-HBs and Anti-HBe

767. Which one of the following statements about HBV is false?

a. HBV can survive in dried blood for seven days
b. HBV is 20 times more infectious than HIV
c. HBV is sexually-transmitted disease
d. HBV is double-stranded DNA virus

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768. Which one of the following options is the first marker to be detected in the blood following infection with
HBV?
a. HBeAg, HBV-DNA and Antibody
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg and Antibody

769. Which one of the following statements about retrovirus is true?

a. There are two vital proteins which are essential for the process of viral replication
b. Reverse transcriptase converts DNA into viral RNA
c. The viral envelope is made out of host cell membrane

770. Which one of the following statements about HIV is true?

a. HIV quickly progresses to AIDS
b. HIV is a latent disease

771. Which one of the following options is not a high-risk body fluid?
a. Breast milk
b. Urine
c. Amniotic fluid
d. Pleural fluid

772. Which one of the following options is not a recommended treatment for Norovirus infection?
a. Anti-diarrheal drugs
b. IV fluids

773. Which one of the following statements about immunity to Norovirus is true?
a. Once you have Norovirus, you can’t catch it again
b. It is possible to catch Norovirus more than once

774. Which one of the following statements about Norovirus is true?

a. They are enveloped double-stranded DNA viruses
b. Most outbreaks are associated with genotype II.4

775. Which one of the following statements about Norovirus is false?

a. More than 30 million virus particles can be released in an episode of vomiting
b. Cannot be acquired by eating contaminated food

776. Which one of the following options isn’t a symptom of C. difficile infection?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Vomiting

777. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Toxin A is a cytotoxin
b. Toxin B is an enterotoxin
c. Toxin A and Toxin B act in synergy

778. Which one of the following options is the first stage in the pathogenesis of C. difficile infection?
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a. Colonization with a toxin producing strain
b. Amplification of toxins
c. Disruption of normal colonic flora with antibiotics

779. The risk of acquiring C. difficile is dependent upon which one of the following options?
a. Close proximity to symptomatic patients
b. Infection practice in the ward
c. Age
d. Antibiotics and their duration
e. All of the above

780. Which one of the following statements about Clostridia is true?

a. They are aerobic
b. They are anaerobic

781. Which one of the following options describing the general symptoms of TB is correct?
a. Itching, fatigue and night sweats
b. Fatigue, nausea and night sweats
c. Weight loss, fatigue and fever
d. Fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, fever and night sweats

782. Which one of the following statements about TB is true?

a. Generally, only patients with respiratory TB are potentially infectious and should be isolated
b. Patients with TB at any body site are potentially infectious

783. Which one of the following statements about TB is true?

a. 60 % of bacterial cell wall contains lipids, which means it can’t be gram stained
b. Bacilli are motile, spore-forming, facultative aerobes

784. Which one of the following statements about Staphylococcus is true?

a. They are Gram-positive Catalase-positive, facultative anaerobe
b. They are Gram-positive Catalase-positive, facultative aerobe

785. Which one of the following bacteria is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae

786. Which one of the following statements regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for the prevention of SSIs is not
correct?
a. Prophylaxis should be given before clean-contaminated surgery
b. Prophylaxis should be given before all elective surgery

787. Which one of the following organisms is not a cause of SSI:

a. Bacteroides
b. Clostridium Difficile
c. Listeria Monocytogenes
d. Enterobacteriaceae
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788. Which one of the following options about the occurrence of SSIs affecting deeper tissues is correct?
a. They occur within 30 days of surgery
b. They occur up to six months after surgery
c. They occur up to one year after surgery

789. Which one of the following statements about the cause of SSIs is correct?
a. They are predominantly caused by resident flora
b. They are predominantly caused by transient flora
c. They can be caused by resident or transient flora

790. Which one of the following options describing the risk of HBV infection following a percutaneous injury is
correct?
a. 1 in 30
b. 1 in 300
c. 1 in 3

791. When putting on full PPEs, which one of the following options describe the correct order?
a. Eye protection, mask, apron, gloves
b. Apron, gloves, mask, eye protection
c. Apron, mask, gloves, eye protection
d. Apron, mask, eye protection, gloves

792. When removing full PPEs, which one of the following options describe the correct order?
a. Gloves, apron, mask, eye protection
b. Apron, eye protection, mask, gloves
c. Gloves, apron, eye protection, mask
d. Apron, mask, eye protection, gloves

793. Which one of the following options best describe the patient zone:
a. Area of the ward or environment where most patient contact takes place
b. Area around the patient chair and bed space

794. Which one of the following options correctly describe Moment 2 of the ‘ Five moments for hand hygiene”:
a. After touching a patient
b. Before clean or aseptic task

795. Which one of the following options correctly describe Moment 3 of the ‘ Five moments for hand hygiene”:
a. After touching the patient’s environment
b. After blood or body fluid exposure

796. Which one of the following statements describes the correct stages in the pathogenesis of infection?
a. Attachment, entry, evasion of host defenses, multiplication, invasion and spread, damage to tissues
b. Evasion of host defenses, attachment, entry, damage to tissues, multiplication, invasion and spread,
c. Entry multiplication, invasion and spread, evasion of host defenses, attachment, damage to tissues
d. Attachment, entry, multiplication, invasion and spread, evasion of host defenses, damage to tissues

109
797. Which one of the following statements doesn’t describe innate immunity?
a. It provides life-long protection
b. It is non-specific
c. It consists of physical barriers, surface secretions and cells
d. It can be breached

798. Which one of the following statements about Gram-Staining is true?

a. Gram-positive bacteria stain red and pink
b. Gram-positive bacteria stain blue and black

799. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Clostridium per fringes is an aerobe
b. Obligate anaerobes can grow in an oxygen-rich environment
c. Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen is known as facultative organisms
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is anaerobic

800. Which one of the following statements about specimen collection is false?
a. The person taking the specimen collection is false
b. Specimens can give false positive results
c. Any HCW can obtain specimen

801. Which one of the following bacteria is a gram-negative rod?

a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Klebsiella pneumonia
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Neisseria meningitidis
e. Clostridium difficile

802. Which one of the following statements about viruses is false?

a. All viruses have an “envelope” that is made from cell membrane of a host cell
b. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
c. Capsomers facilitate binding of the virus to host cells
d. Host cell walls have receptor molecules that are virus specific
e. DNA viruses inject their nucleic acid into the nuclei of the host cell

803. Which one of the following statements about bacteria is false?

a. They possess flagella and pili
b. They all have a cell wall
c. They produce and secrete toxins
d. They can produce biofilm

804. Which one of the following options is not a component of Gram-positive bacterial cell wall?
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipid A
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Teichoic acid

110
805. Which of the following options is correct?
a. An outbreak is over when there have been no new cases for two months
b. An outbreak is over when all control measures are in place and there is evidence that they are effective and
sustained
c. An outbreak is over when all of the actions from the outbreak meeting have been implemented
806. Which one of the following statements is false?
a. A cluster can lead to an outbreak
b. Only the Infection Prevention and Control Team (IP & CT) can identify an outbreak
c. A period of increased incidence can relate to any organism or infection
d. An outbreak can be declared for a single case of a communicable disease

807. Which one of the following might not be the effective control measures in reducing the HAIs?
a. Testing of the sterilization technique
b. More use of antibiotics for the infection
c. Proper attention to the routine hygiene practice
d. Routine sampling for bacteriology and sensitivity testing

808. Which of the following pathogen is a frequently found MDR organism in hospitals?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Bacillus anthracis

809. Which of the following factor is NOT the possible major risk factor for hospital acquired neonatal infection
in NICU?
a. Medical instruments
b. Invasive procedures
c. Prolonged stay time in the care unit
d. Breastfeeding soon after the delivery

810. All of the following statements regarding bacteremia and septicemia occurring during hospitalization are
true, EXCEPT:
a. The most common pathogen isolated are Gram negative bacilli
b. It may occur after most of the surgical procedures
c. The infection is seen only in newborns
d. Prolonged use of intravenous cannula can increase the infection

811. A 72 year old was admitted to the emergency care of the hospital, he suffered from head injury and concus-
sion due to fall in the bathroom of his home. After five days in urinary catheter, he showed the symptoms of
UTI with hyponatremia which resulted in secondary nausea, fatigue and confusion. CAUTI was suspected,
the urine sample sent for bacterial identification showed gram negative bacilli with greenish pigmentation.
Name the possible pathogen …
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Escherichia coli

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812. A few hours old premature baby was admitted to the NICU with low birth weight and difficulty in breast
feeding. On the third day the baby developed fever and experienced discomfort while breathing, other symp-
toms included poor feeding and irritability. Other babies in the care unit were suspected of pneumonia,
name the most commonly isolated gram negative bacteria in the hospital acquired pneumonia of neonates ?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Listeria monocytogenes

813. Patient outcomes:

a. The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia with a new nurse in orientation. Which of the following
statements by the new nurse would indicate an understanding of this condition?
b. Measure the success of the infection control techniques. Compare the patient’s actual response with ex-
pected outcomes. If goals are not achieved, determine what steps must be taken.
c. The patient and the nurse are discussing Rickettsia Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Which patient statement
to the nurse indicates understanding regarding the mode of transmission of this disease?
d. The nurse is providing an educational session for a group of preschool workers. The reminds the group that
the most important thing to do to prevent the spread of infection is to ……

814. Categories of additional precaution:

a. Single patient, negative pressure to the patient corridor / adjacent areas with audiovisual alarms, have a
minimum of 12 air exchanges/hour by using HEPA filters, have air flow that is designed to move air from
the likely position of HCWs
b. Transport staff to wear gloves and gown for direct contact with pt. during transport
c. Pt. to wear surgical mask during transport, transport staff to wear the appropriate mask during transport,
limit transport unless required for diagnosis or therapeutic purpose
d. It is based on risk assessment, contact precautions= MRSA, VRE, CRE, c. difficile, droplet precautions=
influenza, pneumonia, air born precautions= TB, chicken pox, SARS

815. Complete the assessment, remove gloves, wash hands and assess the IV infusion:
a. The nurse is dressed and is preparing to care for a patient in the pre-operative area. The nurse has scrubbed
her hands and has donned a sterile gown and gloves. Which action would you a break in sterile technique
b. The nurse is caring for a patient with an incision. Which of the following actions would be best indicate an
understanding of medical and surgical asepsis?
c. The nurse is caring for a patient in labor and delivery. When near completing an assessment of the patient
for dilation and effacement, the electronic infusion device being used on the IV infusion alarms. Which of
these actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take?
d. The nurse is caring for a patient in the endoscopy unit. The nurse observes the technician performing these
tasks. Which of these observations would require the nurse to intervene?

816. Detergents :
a. Refers to either antiseptic handwash or antiseptic hand rub
b. General term that applies to either hand washing, antiseptic handwash, antiseptic hand rub or surgical hand
antisepsis
c. Washing hands with plain (non-microbial) soap and water
d. Compounds that possess a cleaning action

112
817. Alcohol-based hand rub:
a. Soap which contains an antiseptic agents
b. Antimicrobial substances which are applied to reduce the number of microbial flora
c. Alcohols, chlorohexidine, chlorine, hexachlorophene, iodine, chloroxylenol, quaternary ammonium com-
pounds and triclosan
d. A preparation which contain 60-95 % alcohol, used by applying to the hands for the reduction of the number
of viable M.O

818. Resident flora:

a. Reduce water loss, provide protection against M.O, act as permeability barrier to the environment
b. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
c. Stated that due to poor hygiene hospital infections kill 103,000 people every year
d. Are attached to the deeper layers of the skin and are more resistant to removal by hand washing and are less
likely to be associated with such infections

819. Protective isolation :

a. Airborne precautions
b. Contact precautions
c. Droplet precautions
d. For immune competent patients
e. Positive pressure room with dedicated patient care equipment

820. Decontaminate hands:

a. Compounds that possess a cleaning action
b. Refers to either antiseptic hand wash or antiseptic hand rub
c. General term that applies to either hand washing, antiseptic hand wash, antiseptic hand rub, or surgical
hand antisepsis
d. To reduce bacterial counts on hands by performing antiseptic hand wash or antiseptic hand rub

821. Contagious disease is:

a. Communicable
b. Non-communicable
c. Chronic
d. Sub-clinical

822. What kind of technique is thorough hand washing :

a. Routine hand hygiene when hands is visibly soiled
b. Must not be used in HCFs
c. Specific settings: OR, ICUs and burn units
d. Clean technique

823. The most common site of HAIs is :

a. Surgical sites
b. Respiratory tract
c. Urinary tract
d. Eyes

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824. Tubes and catheters are disinfected with :
a. 2 % glutaraldehyde
b. 1 % hypochlorite
c. Formalin
d. None of these
825. Cold sterilization means:
a. Sterilization under temperature range of 1-80OC
b. Disinfection using disinfectant
c. Sterilization done under minus degree Celsius
d. All of these

826. Emily is on her way to visit a friend in a hospital. She’s healthy, but as she is walking towards the hospital,
she trips, opening a small wound in her leg. Does she have a high likelihood of getting a nosocomial infec-
tion? Why or why not?
a. She does have a high likelihood, because the wound provides an opening for invading microbes to enter her
body.
b. She does have a high likelihood, because the wound is a sign of a weakened immune system
c. She does not have a high likelihood, because her immune system is not compromised by a disease
d. She does have a high likelihood, because her immune system is not compromised by the wound

827. The most likely agents to cause a nosocomial infection include:

a. Staphylococcus, pseudomonas and coliform bacteria
b. Staphylococcus, pseudomonas and Marek’s disease
c. streptococcus, pseudomonas and coliform bacteria
d. Staphylococcus, pseudomonas and parvovirus

828. In which of the below mentioned biological fluids HIV is detectable in the highest concentration?
a. Blood
b. Cervical secretion
c. Urine
d. Sperm
e. CSF

829. Vaccination against specific infections mostly protects from:

a. Contamination with infectious diseases
b. Getting sick in general
c. From severe forms of the disease and death
d. Development of the chronic forms of the disease
e. Appearance of atypical forms

830. What promotes variability of initiators of infectious diseases:

a. Antibiotics
b. External environment
c. Increase of the range of infectious agent carriers
d. Vaccination
e. All of the above

114
831. Which of the below mentioned diseases does not have chronic form?
a. Viral Hepatitis B
b. Viral Hepatitis C
c. HIV / AIDS
d. Influenza
e. Tuberculosis

832. What is the natural sequence of different periods / stages of infection process?
a. Culmination, incubation, reconvalescence, prodromal stage
b. Incubation, reconvalescence, prodromal, culmination
c. Incubation, prodromal, culmination, reconvalescence
d. Prodromal, reconvalescence, culmination, incubation

833. What is the difference between a prion and a virus?

a. Prions have resistance against high temperature(80 OC)
b. Prion has no nucleic acid
c. Prions multiply faster
d. a+b
e. b + c

834. what are prions in modern science means?

a. Tiny viruses
b. Small bacteria
c. Specifically infectious proteinaceous particles causing infectious diseases
d. Genetically modified proteins

835. Which of the below mentioned is the most important marker for the assessment of HIV patient’s health
condition?
a. CD4+ cells
b. Thrombocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. CD8+ cells
e. Eosinophils

836. Against which type of Hepatitis there is a vaccine but no medication?

a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. a+b
e. b+c

837. Infectious process is:

a. Circulation of microorganisms in the external environment
b. Resistance of microorganisms in the external environment
c. Long-term resistance of macroorganism
d. Pathological and defensive response resulting from interaction between micro and macro-organisms
e. Life span of microrganisms inside macrorganisms
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838. Specific prophylaxis of infectious diseases is carried out by means of :
a. Phytoncides
b. Drugs
c. Disinfectants
d. Vaccination
e. Dietary supplements

839. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of HAIs?

a. Some infectious diseases which patient becomes infected within hospital
b. Any infectious disease which patient becomes infected with in medical institution during investigation ot
treatment
c. Proportion of septic suppurative infection is under 5 %
d. b+c
e. Any infection acquired in hospital or other HCF when a patient becomes infected with infectious disease
while undergoing health or social care services and / or investigation, or disease obtained in medical institu-
tion by HCW

840. Specific infectious disease prevention concept is:

a. Hand washing
b. Healthy food intake
c. Vaccination
d. Smoking restriction
e. Physical activity

841. Propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure?

a. Point source
b. Continuous common source
c. Intermittent common source
d. Person-to-person

842. A specific case definition is one that:

a. Is likely to include only (or mostly) true cases
b. Is considered “loose” or “broad”
c. Will include more cases than a sensitive case definition
d. May exclude mild cases

843. Comparing the numbers and rates of illness in a community, rates are preffered for :
a. Conducting surveillance for communicable diseases
b. Deciding how many doses of immunoglobulin are needed
c. Estimating subgroups at highest risk
d. Telling physicians which strain of influenza is prevalent

844. A number of passengers on a cruise ship from Puerto Rico to the Panama Canal have recently developed a
gastrointestinal illness compatible with norovirus. Testing for norovirus isnot readily available on any
nearby island, and the test takes several days even where available. Assuming you are the epidemiologist

116
 called onto board the ship and investigate this possible outbreak, your case definition should include at a
minimum:
a. Clinical criteria, plus specification of time, place and person
b. Clinical features plus the exposure(s) you most expect
c. Suspect cases
d. The nationally agreed standard case definition for disease reporting

845. The hallmark feature of an analytical epidemiological study is:

a. Use of an appropriate comparison group
b. Lab. confirmation of the diagnosis
c. Publication in a peer-reviewed journal
d. Statistical analysis using logistic regression

846. Public health surveillance includes which of the following activities:

a. Diagnosing whether a case of encephalitis is actually due to West Nile virus infection
b. Soliciting case reports of persons with symptoms compatible with SARS from local hospitals
c. Creating graphs of the number of dog bites by week and neighborhood
d. Writing a report on trends in seat belt use to share with the state legislature
e. Disseminating educational materials about ways people can reduce their risk of Lyme disease

847. Ethylene oxide is commonly used for the sterilization of:

a. Fiber-optic endoscopes
b. Glassware
c. Rubber tubings and catheters
d. Prosthetic cardiac valves
e. Respiratory ventilators

848. Transmission based precautions are a second level of precautions used when the routes of transmission
is/are not completely interrupted using standard precautions alone. Each of the statements below is true,
except:
a. Contact precautions also apply where the presence of excessive wound drainage, fecal incontinence, or
other discharges from the body suggest an increased potential for extensive environmental contamination
and risk of transmission
b. HCWs caring for patients on contact precautions wear a gown, gloves and mask for all interactions that
may involve contact with the patient or potentially contaminated areas in the patient’s environment
c. Droplet precautions are intended to prevent transmission of pathogens spread through close respiratory or
mucous membrane contact with respiratory secretions
d. In settings where airborne precautions cannot be implemented due to limited engineering resources(e.g. phy-
sician offices), masking the patient, placing the patient in a private room, with the door closed, and provid-
ing intravenous antibiotics will reduce the likelihood of airborne transmission until the patient is no longer
in the facility
e. HCWs caring for patients on airborne precautions wear a mask that is donned prior to room entry

849. Safe injection practices require adherence to basic principles of aseptic technique for the preparation and
administration of parenteral medication. Each of the following statements is true except for:
a. Use of single dose vials is preferred over multi dose vails, especially when medications will be administered
to multiple patients
117
b. Outbreaks related to unsafe injection practices indicate that some HCWs are unaware of basic principles of
infection control and aseptic techniques
c. Among the deficiencies identified in recent outbreaks were a lack of oversight of personnel and failure to
follow up on reported breaches in IC practices in ambulatory settings, equipment and medications
d. Infection control and aseptic techniques need to be reinforced in training programs and incorporated onto
institutional policies that are monitored for adherence
e. Reinsertion of used needles into a multidose vial or a solution container is acceptable as long as the needle is
disinfected after each administration

850. Each of the following is true about standard precautions, EXCEPT:

a. HCWs caring for patients wear a gown and gloves for all interactions that may involve contact with the pa-
tient or potentially contaminated areas in the patient’s environment
b. Standard precautions involve : Hand Hygiene, use of gloves, gown, mask, eye protection, or face shield, de-
pending on the anticipated exposure and safe injection practices
c. Implementation of standard precautions constitutes the primary strategy for the prevention of HCAIs
among patients and HCWs
d. Standard precautions are intended to protect patients by ensuring that HCWs don’t carry infectious agents
to patients on their hands or via equipment used during patient care
e. Standard precautions include a group of infection prevention practices that apply to all patients, regardless
of suspected or confirmed infection status, in any setting in which health care is delivered

851. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: pathogen
leaving the body through sexual secretions
a. Portal of exit
b. Portal of entry
c. Mode of transmission
d. Reservoir
852. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: Recognition
of high risk patients
a. Source or reservoir
b. Susceptible host
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry

853. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: Handwash-
ing
a. Susceptible host
b. Mode of transmission
c. Source or reservoir
d. Portal of entry

854. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: Identifica-
tion of organism
a. Portal of exit
b. Reservoir
c. Infectious agent
d. Portal of entry
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855. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: Catheter
care
a. Mode of transmission
b. Portal of exit
c. Portal of entry
d. Source

856. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: Food han-
dling
a. Infectious agent
b. Source or reservoir
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry

857. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions: Early recog-
nition of signs of infection
a. Infectious agent
b. Portal of entry
c. Source or reservoir
d. Portal of exit

858. All are parts of PPEs, Except:

a. Gowns
b. Paper towels
c. Mask
d. Gloves
859. The purpose of infection control is to:
a. Remind all staff to wear gloves
b. Encourages good handwashing
c. Disrupt the chain of infection
d. Isolate patients with diseases

860. Pathogen transmitted through air, soil, food or feces:

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Opportunistic infection
d. Nosocomial infections

861. Person who gets a disease because of weak defenses:

a. Susceptible host
b. Immunocompromised patient
c. Reservoir
d. Portal of entry

862. Surveillance of nosocomial infections:

a. Is meaningful only if consistent definitions and denominators are used
119
b. Cannot influence infection rates
c. Useful only in outbreak situations
d. Direct infection control action

863. With regard to HCWs, which of the following statements is (are) correct?
a. Immunization of personnel against vaccine- preventable infections of childhood is irrelevant because these
illnesses are rare in hospital today
b. Personnel with monor colds may transmit serious infections to their patients
c. Pediatric personnel don’t need influenza immunization because this infection is mild in children
d. HCWs don’t acquire RSV because they are immune

864. Recommended measures to reduce the risk of catheter- associated blood stream infection include all of the
following, Except:
a. The use of sterile barriers, including full surgical drapes for catheter insertion
b. The use of tunneled catheters
c. Antiseptic coating of catheters
d. Continuous infusion of antibiotics through the catheter

865. IC precautions were appropriate for which of the following patients?

a. A child is admitted for elective hernia repair. Two days ago, he was exposed to a cousin with Varicella, and
he isn’t immune. He is admitted to a negative pressure room.
b. A two-year-old child who has experienced three days of fever and watery diarrhea is admitted with meningi-
tis. Droplet precautions are taken. Blood cultures yielded meningococcus. After 24 hrs. of antibiotic ther-
apy, precautions are discontinued. Three days later, a five-month-old roommate and the attendant physician
have diarrhea
c. A 10-year-old renal transplant recipient is admitted with a diffuse vesicular rash. She had Varicella previ-
ously. Airborne precautions are taken
d. A one-year-old child with fever, upper respiratory tract infection and wheezing is admitted to hospital. On
admission, a rapid screen for RSV is negative, as a result, no additional precautions are taken. The patient
shares a room with a child with bronchopulmonary dysplasia

866. Which of the following patients should be placed in negative pressure rooms?
a. A 16-year-old refuge from Africa with chronic cough, hemoptysis, fever and right upper lobe consolidation
b. A six-year-old unvaccinated child with fever, conjunctivitis, rhinitis, cough and diffuse maculopapular rash
c. A 10-year-old with streptococcal necrotizing fasciitis
d. A two-year-old child with septic shock and petechial rash

867. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to antibiotic use?
a. Widespread use of broad spectrum antibiotics has resulted in resistance
b. Resistance is usually first seen in outpatients and later in hospitalized patients
c. Resistant organisms are readily transmitted in hospital
d. The most coomonly used antibiotics don’t affect normal flora

868. Which are the most common ways that a local health department uncovers outbreaks?
a. Performing descriptive analysis of surveillance data each week
b. Performing time series analysis to detect deviations from expected values based on the previous few weeks
and comparable periods during the previous few years
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c. Receiving calls from affected residents
d. Receiving calls from healthcare providers
e. Reviewing all case reports received each week to detect common features

869. Factors that influence a health department’s decision whether or not to conduct a field investigation in re-
sponse to one or more cases of disease include:
a. The nature of the disease
b. The number of cases
c. Resources available
d. Health department’s traditional attitude toward conducting field investigations

870. If a particular outbreak presents an unusual opportunity to learn more about the disease and its epidemiol-
ogy by conducting a study, but early disease control measures would interfere with the study, one should
conduct the study quickly, then implement control measures immediately afterwards.
a. True
b. False
871. Disease control measures can be directed at the:
a. Agent
b. Source
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry
e. Host susceptibility

872. When an insect or animal serves as an intermediary in a disease :

a. Direct contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet transmission
d. Vector-borne
e. Nosocomial infection

873. Which of the following are specific to target antifungal, antiviral, antibacterial, these drugs are unique to
the type of organism and are not interchangeable
a. Antibiotics
b. Antimicrobials
c. Broad spectrum anti infectives
d. Anti retrovirals

874. ………….. may cause infection in oral cavity (thrush in enfants) or vaginal infections :
a. Tinea pedis
b. Candida

875. Transmitted by oral-fecal route, water shellfish:

a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D

876. The time between entry of the organism into the body and appearance of clinical signs and symptoms of the
disease is:
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a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Acute period
d. Latent period

877. Infection to a certain area consistently occurring in that population:

a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic
d. Sporadic

878. Ends when the host resistance becomes effective:

a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Acute period
d. Latent period

879. Diffuse through body fluids and stimulate antibodies or antitoxin production:
a. Endotoxins
b. Exotoxins

880. A provider is demonstrating proper hand hygiene to a student. Which of the following doesn’t represent
the correct technique during handwashing?
a. Begin by using water to wet hands, then apply a soap solution
b. Clean hands using friction for a minimum of 5 seconds
c. Use clean, disposable towels to dry hands and wrist
d. Avoid recontamination of hands by direct contact with sink or faucet after thoroughly cleansing hands
881. A patient presents with one day of fever, headache and chills and a rash with deep-seated firm pustules.
There is not any variation in the appearance of the lesions that can be seen on his arms. The patient reports
that they work in research lab. what isolation is needed for anyone providing care to this patient?
a. Contact isolation
b. Standard precautions if vaccinated to this pathogen
c. Contact, airborne and droplet
d. Standard precautions

882. A 36 year-old male with an active history of IV drug abuse presents to the clinician concerned about HIV
transmission due to current IV drug abuse. He is asymptomatic at this time. HIV test is negative and the Hep-
atitis panel is remarkable only for HBV DNA. The patients asks about the chances of being infected with
Hepatitis B.
Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
a. Yes, he is most likely in the chronic phase of the infection
b. Yes, he is most likely in the “ window period” where there is no serological activity
c. No, the presence of HBsAg and Anti-HBsAg is required to diagnose active Hepatitis B infection
d. No, he is demonstrating immunity to Hepatitis B

883. A nurse trainee presents the emergency department with a complain of needle stick injury while caring for
a Hepatitis C positive patient. The provider counsels her that she would only require monitoring for six
months. What body fluid is least likely associated with the transmission of hepatitis C?
a. Saliva
b. Blood
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c. Semen
d. Feces

884. Which of the following medical disorders is associated with the least rate of infection from blood transfu-
sion?
a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HLTV
d. HIV

885. Which of the following immunizations should elderly have yearly?

a. Tdap
b. Pneumonia
c. varicella
d. Influenza

886. An outbreak of diarrhea has occurred in a day care center. Which of the following is NOT an important in-
fection control measure in this setting?
a. Written procedure for handwashing
b. Diaper changing areas should not be located in food preparation area
c. Exclusion of children with diarrhea or stools that contain blood or mucous
d. Removal of all toys from rooms where children eat and play

887. What protection should be worn for a routine IV start?

a. Gown and mask
b. Gloves, gown, mask, protective eyewear
c. Gloves only
d. Gown only

888. In which of the following is a prophylactic antibiotic indicated?

a. Prior to a Foley catheter placement
b. In mechanically ventilated patients
c. Prior to insertion of a central line
d. Decrease the incidence of SSIs prior to elective surgery

889. In a patient suspected of early Hepatitis B, what lab parameters are ordered?
a. HBsAg
b. Anti HBc IgM
c. Anti HBeAg
d. ALT, AST

890. When leaving the room of a patient on droplet precautions, which order of actionis correct?
a. Remove the gloves, then goggles, then gown, leave the room, wash hands and finally remove the mask
b. Remove the gown, remove the gloves, wash the hands, exit the room and remove the mask
c. Exit the room, remove the mask and gown, remove the gloves and wash the hands
d. Remove the gloves, remove the mask and gown, wash the hands and exit the room

891. What is the purpose of a biological indicator during the sterilization process?
a. Catalyst
b. Efficiency determination
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c. Increase the efficiency of the process
d. Decreases the temperature requirements

892. Which is an effective method of preventing SSIs when changing bandages in a patient with recent mitral
valve replacement?
a. Prophylactic cefazolin 1 gm IV 30 min before changing bandages
b. Use of sterile gloves
c. Scrubbing the wounds with chlorhexidine before replacing the bandages
d. Routine hand washing

893. To effectively kill most bacteria and viruses, waterless hand sanitizers should contain at least ………. % of
alcohol
a. 20 %
b. 40 %
c. 60 %
d. 80 %

894. What is the most common organism isolated from SSI?

a. Streptococcus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bacteroides
d. Staphylococcus

895. Which group of individuals are at highest risk of developing hepatitis B?

a. Pregnant women
b. HCWs
c. Diabetics
d. Social workers

896. A patient with MRSA:

a. Gown, mask, goggles and gloves should be used for all contacts
b. Patients should always be in a private room
c. The patient is infected with bacteria that is treated by few antibiotics
d. The patient contracted the infection by using illicit drugs

897. Which of the following is least appropriate for an immunocompromised patient?

a. Isolation room
b. Fresh vegetables
c. Aseptic technique
d. Frequent hand washing

898. What pathogen is most responsible for hospital acquired pneumoniae?

a. Legionella
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Klebsiella
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

899. Chicken pox infection is caused by :

a. Herpes zoster
b. Varicella zoster
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c. Epstein Barr
d. Hepatitis A

900. What is the most frequent mode of transmission in nosocomial infections?

a. Airborne transmission
b. Contact transmission
c. Common vehicle transmission
d. Droplet transmission

901. A healthy woman with no history of chicken pox is exposed to chicken pox on the same day she finds out
she is pregnant, what is the most appropriate intervention?
a. Varicella immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 48 hours
b. Elective abortion
c. VZIG and Varicella vaccine within 48 hours
d. No treatment is necessary

902. Which of the following medical disorders is NOT routinely screened prior to blood transfusion?
a. Syphilis
b. HIV
c. HBV
d. HAV

903. What is the most common method of acquiring hepatitis E infection?

a. Sexual intercourse
b. Drinking contaminated water
c. Use of IV drugs
d. Blood transfusion
904. Which of the following is not considered a reportable disease?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Measles
d. Molluscum contagiosum

905. Which is not true regarding Diphtheria?

a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae , a gram positive rod is the causative agent
b. Transmission is only by droplet
c. Neurological and skin manifestations are commonly seen
d. None of the above

906. What is the best diagnostic test for a patient who has HBV infection?
a. HBcAg
b. HBsAg
c. Antibody toward hepatitis B
d. Antibody toward core antigen

907. In a patient suspected of having pulmonary TB, how should the sputum be collected?
a. Anytime there is a productive cough
b. Early in the morning for three consecutive days
c. Late at night after rinsing the mouth with saline
d. Whenever there is fever and cough
125
908. Which of the following doesn’t cause meningitis?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Hemophilus influenza B
c. Herpes simplex
d. Neisseria meningitidis

909. Which is the leading cause of gastroenteritis in young children?

a. Rotavirus
b. Rhinovirus
c. Enterovirus
d. Astrovirus

910. When do symptoms of SSIs usually become obvious?

a. Within 48 hours after surgery
b. Five to six days after surgery
c. When the surgical site is shaved in the operating room
d. When fever becomes predominant

911. The route of transmission for Hepatitis A is predominantly:

a. Feco-oral
b. Perinatal
c. Parenteral
d. Sexual

912. When is a patient with Varicella Zoster lesions considered non-infectious?

a. 7-10 days after lesions appear
b. When fever is resolved for 24 hours
c. When all lesions are crusted over
d. When Varicella Zoster Igg is measurable

913. Patient is diagnosed with active TB , which of the following would be appropriate for isolation?
a. Window open and the door closed
b. Negative pressure in the room
c. Door closed and window closed
d. Patient should wear a mask all time

914. Key to less hazardous waste is :

a. Incineration
b. Sterilization
c. Segregation
d. Chopping

915. All of the following wastes can not be incinerated except:

a. Radio-active wastes
b. Pressurized-gas containers
c. Mercury
d. Tissue residues

916. Which of the following antiseptics can be used to remove visible dirt?
126
a. Povidone iodine 7.5 %
b. Betadine 10 %
c. Chlorhexidine
d. Alcohol

917. Which of the following antiseptics achieve maximum reduction of M.O for long time:
a. Alcohol 70 %
b. Na hypochlorite
c. Povidone iodine
d. Ca hypochlorite

918. Insertion of central line is considered :

a. Clean technique
b. Aseptic technique
c. Sterile technique
d. Aseptic technique with maximal barrier precautions

919. Disinfection is a process that eliminates all pathogenic M.O, except:

a. Clostridium difficile
b. Vegetative bacteria
c. Prions
d. A & C
e. all of the above

920. HLD kill all of the following, except:

a. HIV
b. TB
c. Polio
d. Clostridium difficile

921. ILD kill all of the following, except:

a. Pseudomonas
b. Polio
c. TB
d. Prions

922. LLD kill :

a. TB
b. HCV
c. Clostridium
d. Cryptosporidium

923. All of the following M.O are sensitive to chemical disinfection, except:
a. Vegetative bacteria
b. Enveloped viruses
c. Non-encysted protozoa
d. Protozoal cyst

924. Isopropyl alcohol is mostly active against:

a. HIV
127
b. Rotavirus
c. HBV
d. Echovirus

925. Ethyl alcohol is mostly active against all the following except:
a. Herpes virus
b. Rotavirus
c. Rhinovirus
d. HAV

926. Biological indicators are considered:

a. Process control
b. Equipment control
c. Load control
d. Pack control

927. Air systems included in the engineering control of the exposure problems of glutaraldehyde :
a. 10-12 air exchanges per hour
b. 6-10 air exchanges per hour
c. 7-15 air exchanges per hour
d. 5-10 air exchanges per hour

928. ………………….. is used for neutralization of glutaraldehyde before disposal

a. Na hypochlorite
b. Na hydroxide
c. Na bisulfate
d. Ca hypochlorite
929. One of the following chemicals are NOT affected by the presence of organic matter:
a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Orthophthalaldehyde (OPA)
c. Peracetic acid
d. Ethyl alcohol

930. All of the following are load control indicators, except:

a. Biological indicator
b. Integrator
c. Emulator
d. Bowie-Dick test

931. External indicators are considered :

a. Process control
b. Equipment control
c. Load control
d. Pack control

932. A patient with hepatitis B virus infection undergoes Hernia operation. The following precautions should be
followed during surgery:
a. Air-borne isolation precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Droplet precautions
128
d. Contact precautions
e. All of them

933. A nurse is working on a unit with a number of patients who have infectious diseases. One of the most im-
portant methods for reducing the soread of M.O is:
a. Sterilization of equipment
b. Use of gloves and gowns
c. Maintenance of isolation precautions
d. Hand hygiene before and after patient care

934. A patient who has had a stem cell transplant will require what type of isolation?
a. Contact
b. Airborne
c. Droplet
d. Protective

935. Development of an infection occurs in a cycle that depends on the presence of all of the following, except:
a. Causative agent, portal of entry
b. Source for pathogen growth
c. Sterile equipment
d. Portal of exit, mode of transmission
e. Susceptible host

936. All of the following are essential standard precautions used in the care of all patients irrespective of
whether they are diagnosed infectious, or not, except:
a. Hand hygiene
b. Improper sharp and waste disposal
c. Personel protective equipment
d. Aseptic techniques

937. The removal of harmful M.O from an object by cleaning or disinfection is called:
a. Sanitization
b. Sterilization
c. Disinfection
d. Decontamination

938. ………………… removes dirt and organic material during cleaning of medical instruments:
a. Detergent
b. Disinfectant
c. Antiseptic
d. Plain water
e. Both a & d

939. Which of the following is a method of cold sterilization?

a. Boiling
b. Autoclaving
c. Incineration
d. Air oven
e. Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

129
940. The difference between antiseptic and disinfectant is:
a. Disinfectant is a chemical but antiseptic is a detergent like soap
b. They are both chemicals but antiseptics are mild enough to use on skin and living tissues
c. Disinfectants are used to kill bacteria and spores and antiseptics kill bacteria only
d. Disinfectants kill all germs but antiseptics kill only viruses

941. Low temperature sterilization method which is suitable for processing critical heat sensitive patient care
equipment of high risk includes:
a. Ethylene oxide gas
b. Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
c. Boiling
d. Hot air oven
e. Both a & b

942. HLD kill all of the following, except:

a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Spores

943. To prepare surgical instrument for use, you should:

a. Clean then disinfect them using HLD
b. Clean with soap and water then sterilize them
c. Clean critical heat sensitive patient care item with chlorine
d. Soak them in antiseptic solution before sterilization

944. When inserting intravenous catheter, hands must be washed by:

a. Plain soap and water only
b. Antiseptic soap and water
c. Disinfectant solution
d. Wearing gloves is sufficient without washing hands
e. No need to wash hands

945. A case of clostridium difficile associated diarrhea in the hospital, which of the following isolation precau-
tions is recommended?
a. Airborne
b. Contact
c. Droplet
d. Standard precautions only are required

946. Which of the following patients should be placed in positive pressure room?
a. A 16-year-old patient with chronic cough, hemoptysis, fever and right upper lobe consolidation
b. A 10-year-old child with streptococcal skin infection
c. A 40-year-old leukemia patient undergo HSCT
d. A 6-year-old unvaccinated child with fever, cough and diffuse maculopapular rash

947. A doctor dealing with Hepatitis B patient was exposed to accidental needle stick injury, the immediate ac-
tion is :
a. To take interferon injection
b. To tell your patient to take HBV specific immunoglobulins
130
c. To wash the site of the needle stick with water
d. To wash the site of the needle stick with soap and water

948. A nurse exposed to infection from a patient suspected to have Hepatitis B infection, how to confirm diag-
nosis of Hepatitis B in that patient?
a. Detection of HBcAg in his blood
b. Do abdominal sonography for this patient
c. Detection of HBsAg in his blood
d. Evaluate liver functions of the patient

949. A surgeon was exposed to a patient with AIDS during performing an operation, this surgeon should re-
ceive:
a. HIV specific immunoglobulins
b. HIV vaccine
c. Interferon and lamivudine for 2 weeks
d. Zidovudine and lamivudine for 4 weeks

950. Gloves that should be worn for performing environmental cleaning:

a. Surgical gloves
b. Examination gloves
c. Heavy duty gloves
d. No gloves needed

951. The suitable concentration of alcohol necessary to kill bacteria and enveloped viruses is:
a. 70 %
b. 100 %
c. 40 %
d. 15 %

952. The reason that an autoclave is an effective method of sterilization is:

a. Endospores are only destroyed at temperature of the autoclave, which is 100 oC
b. Sterilization by autoclave has the same power of penetration of dry heat
c. Autoclave is used for sterilization of oils
d. The use of pressure means that water boils at a higher temperature > 121oC to kill spores

953. Aseptic technique should be carried out for procedures such as:
a. Blood glucose monitoring
b. Surgical wound dressing
c. Measuring blood pressure
d. Insertion of a feeding tube

954. The following is a safe practice that protects medical staff members from injury by sharps:
a. Bending used needles before disposal
b. Carrying unprotected sharps from the procedure room to the operating theatre
c. Recapping used needles using “Scoop” technique, when necessary
d. Disposal of sharps in red plastic bags
e. Recapping needles immediately after use by holding the needle still in one hand and carefully placing the cap
over the needle with the other hand

955. Which of the following is not part of acceptable first aid after an occupational blood exposure?
131
a. Washing puncture wound with soap and water
b. Flushing mucous membrane with water
c. Using antiseptics where indicated
d. Applying bleach over the wound

956. Additional contact isolation precautions added to standard precautions are required to prevent transmission
of:
a. HBV
b. TB
c. MRSA skin infections
d. HCV

957. Additional contact isolation precautions added to standard precautions are used when caring of patient
with the following disease:
a. Respiratory tract infection
b. HIV infection
c. HCV
d. A patient who is known to have allergic rhinitis
e. All of the above

958. Which of the following situations can cause air borne transmission of M.O?
a. Equipment is not cleaned, disinfected, or sterilized adequately between patients
b. A negative-air-pressure room is not used for infection precautions
c. Inadequate hand hygiene is performed by a care provider
d. Isolation rooms are not cleaned and disinfection daily or more frequently as needed
e. Employee don’t use appropriate respiratory protection

959. The consideration for hand washing facilities include the following, except:
a. Sinks are placed in convenient and accessible areas
b. Surfaces are smooth, non-porous to resist fungal growth
c. Sufficient spaces are designed for paper towel dispensers, soap and waste disposal
d. Large bar of soap is kept in a saucer for use by all personnel

960. Which of the following is a characteristic of resident flora?

a. Bacteria that patient acquires in HCFs
b. Easy to remove with soap and water
c. Live within the skin and difficult to remove
d. Usually, pathogenic acquired from environment

961. Transient flora are the following, except:

a. Easy to remove with soap and water
b. Usually pathogenic
c. Usually non-pathogenic and are difficult to remove from skin
d. Are bacteria that patients acquire in HCFs

962. Which does routine hand washing remove?

a. Resident M.O
b. Transient M.O
c. a & b
d. None of the above
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963. When inserting IV cannula the following PPEs must be worn:
a. Sterile surgical gloves
b. Non-sterile single use examination gloves
c. Utility gloves
d. Surgical mask

964. The reasons for wearing gloves in hospitals include the following, except:
a. To prevent contamination of hands when touching blood and other body fluids
b. To reduce transmission of M.O from medical personnel to patients
c. To replace handwashing
d. To reduce transmission of M.O between patients

965. Which of the following statements about surgical attire is correct?

a. Over foot is not recommended in the OR
b. Scrub suit worn in the OR should be sterile
c. Sterile surgical gloves should be considered contaminated if your gloved hands drop below the level of your
waist
d. When removing contaminated surgical gloves, always remove the first glove completely and then remove the
second glove with bare hand

966. All of the following are cleaning solutions used for environmental cleaning in HCFs, except:
a. An antiseptic cleaning solution
b. A detergent and water
c. A disinfectant solution
d. A disinfectant cleaning solution
967. Sterilization is achieved with an activated 2 % glutaraldehyde solution when items are completely im-
mersed for ………………… at 25oC
a. 10 hours
b. 10 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 20 hours

968. High level disinfection is achieved with an activated 2 % glutaraldehyde solution when items are com-
pletely immersed for ………………… at 25oC
e. 10 hours
f. 10 minutes
g. 20 minutes
h. 20 hours

969. HLD is the best choice for :

a. Critical heat labile items
b. Critical heat stable items
c. Semi-Critical heat labile items
d. Semi-Critical heat stable items
e. Single use items

970. Sterilization is a term used to describe:

a. Killing the vegetative forms of pathogenic M.O
b. Reduction of microbial populations to a safe level
133
c. Destruction of all forms of M.O including spores
d. The swabbing of the skin before giving an injection

971. The steps involved in the cleaning process for patient care equipment are:
a. Soaking, washing, rinsing, drying
b. Soaking, washing, rinsing
c. Sorting, soaking, washing, rinsing and drying
d. Sorting, washing, rinsing and drying

972. One of the following is NOT a criterion for alcohol:

a. It has a rapid effect
b. Sporicidal
c. Used as disinfectant and antiseptic
d. Inactivated by organic matter

973. When a large spill of blood or another body fluid occurs in the facility:
a. Wipe it with cloth that has been saturated with disinfectant solution
b. Flood the area with disinfectant solution(5 % chlorine), mop up the solution and then clean with a disinfect-
ant solution
c. Place a cloth over the spill temporarily so that you can clean up the spill after the clinic hours are over
d. None of the above

974. The ideal method for disinfecting flexible endoscope is:

a. Chlorine
b. Glutaraldehyde
c. Autoclave
d. Alcohol

975. The following represents the greatest risk of blood borne pathogen transmission:
a. Splash to eyes
b. Spatter to intact skin
c. Percutaneous injury
d. Spatter to mucous membrane

976. Urinary catheter waste bags should be disposed in:

a. Black domestic waste bags
b. Puncture resistant container
c. Red waste bags
d. White waste bags

977. which one of the following statements on the exposure to blood and body fluids is INCORRECT?
a. Exposure to blood, body fluids and sharp injuries has nothing to do with infection
b. Spillages of urine, feces and vomit should be cleaned up immediately
c. A disposable apron and single-use gloves should be worn during cleaning
d. Spillage of blood drop is removed with paper towel and disinfect surface with chlorine

978. When using chlorine (5 %) for routine cleaning during environmental cleaning in HCFs, what is the appro-
priate dilution of chlorine is used?
a. 1: 10
b. Non diluted
134
c. 1: 5
d. 1 : 50

979. Most blood borne infections acquired in HCFs are as a result of:
a. Blood transfusion
b. Sharps injury
c. Cleaning latrines
d. Cleaning walls

980. The measures needed for linen management include one of the following:
a. Bags are transported manually to laundry
b. Temperature of washing should be 72oC > 25 minutes
c. Bags are removed every 48 hours
d. Laundry bags are filled more than two thirds full

981. Housekeeping staff at HCFs are at high risk of infections :

a. If they don’t understand how diseases are transmitted
b. If they don’t wear utility gloves while performing cleaning activities
c. Because they are exposed to potentially contaminated blood and other body fluids as part of their work
d. All of the above

982. Which of the following isolation precautions is mandatory for patients with Influenza virus infection?
a. Isolation in room with negative pressure ventilation
b. Isolation in room with positive pressure ventilation
c. Medical staff should wear surgical mask when contact with the patient
d. Windows of the room should be kept open for good ventilation
983. Which of the following is untrue about surgical asepsis?
a. Includes practices used to render and keep objects and areas free from M.O
b. Such procedures include inserting urinary catheter or IV catheter
c. Also known as sterile technique
d. Involves actions such as hand scrub
e. Such techniques are not considered as standard precautions

984. Aseptic techniques include all of the following, except:

a. Using touch technique during insertion of IV cannula
b. Hand hygiene
c. Sterilization of contaminated surgical instruments
d. Wearing sterile gloves

985. How can people acquire Legionnaire disease?

a. Handshake
b. Needlestick
c. Swimming in fresh water pond
d. Water aerosol

986. A patient is on droplet precaution, what PPE is neede if working within of the patuents?
a. Mask
b. Mask, eye protection
c. Mask, eye protection, gloves
d. Mask, eye protection, gloves, gown
135
987. The vector of transmission of Legionella pneumophila is:
a. Soil
b. Person-to-person
c. Water
d. None of the above

988. What precautions should be taken by HCW who sustain a needle stick injury from a Hepatitis C patient?
a. Get a Hepatitis C vaccination if not already vaccinated
b. Be tested for Hepatitis C only if liver enzymes become elevated
c. Be tested for Hepatitis C only if they have pre-existing Hepatitis B
d. Be tested for Hepatitis C immediately and at 2, 4, 6 months

989. What bacterial pathogen is the most common cause of hospital acquired pneumonia?
a. Listeria
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. E.coli
d. Mycoplasma

990. A 13-year-old boy has a 2-week history of fever, cough productive of sputum, night sweats and fatigue. A
chest radiograph performed shows a right lower lobe infiltrate and a Mantoux test is placed. The test
shows 16 mm of induration. Methods to prevent spread of TB in this hospital setting include which of the
following?
a. Droplet precautions
b. Use a mask within 3 feet of the patient
c. Provide a patient with private room with negative pressure
d. Use gown and gloves with each patient encounter

991. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is primarily transmitted by which route?
a. Fecal-oral
b. Contact with open skin lesions
c. Respiratory aerosol droplets
d. Blood transfusion

992. The wound made to remove a perforated appendix is classified as which of the following?
a. Clean
b. Clean-contaminated
c. Contaminated
d. Dirty

993. What is the skin preparation that has the most immediate activity and the greatest decrease in bacterial
count?
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Iodophors
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. Hexachlorophene

994. Which of the following bacteria is used as an indicator when using Ethylene Oxide sterilization?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Clostridium tetani
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c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Bacillus atrophaeus

995. An 18-month-old boy who attends day-care fever, vomiting and hematochezia. A stool culture sent
grows Salmonella, serotype Newport. Methods recommended to limit the spread of this organism in-
clude which of the following?
a. Stool cultures performed for all attendees and staff members
b. Frequent hand washing measures with staff training
c. Exclusion of asymptomatic children shedding Salmonella in the stool
d. Antibiotic therapy for all children in the daycare with diarrhea

996. German measles is another name for what illness?

a. Small pox
b. Chicken pox
c. Rubella
d. Rubeola

997. Needle stick exposure to Hepatitis C result in transmission in what percentage of casas?
a. Less than 1 %
b. 3 %
c. 10 %
d. About 50 %

998. How long should an employee with Hepatitis A be excluded from work in relation to the onset of ill-
ness?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks

999. Which of the following patients is least likely to require empiric treatment with Oseltamivir therapy for
suspected influenza?
a. HCWs
b. Adult with no comorbidity
c. Children < 2 years of age
d. Adult > 65 years

1000. How many hours after admission is nosocomial pneumonia defined according to CDC?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 72
d. None of the above

1001. Which of these is NOT a killed vaccine?

a. Rabies
b. Polio
c. Hepatitis A
d. BCG

1002. Which is true regarding Varicella (chicken pox) infection?

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a. Lesions and symptoms are limited to the skin
b. Incubation period is 1-3 days after exposure
c. Reactivation of Varicella is related to Herpes Zoster (shingles)
d. Infection is communicable the entire time a rash is present

1003. Which is NOT a risk factor for MRSA infection?

a. Prior hospital admission
b. Advanced age
c. Excessive prior antibiotic use
d. Presence of chronic medical diseases

1004. What is the most common organism isolated from SSI after a clean-contaminated procedure?
a. Staphylococci
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus
d. Peptostreptococcus

1005. Select the correct statement about MRSA:

a. MRSA infection or colonization is not related to prior use of antibiotics
b. Risk is increased by age
c. Patients with MRSA colonization that are in extended care facilities require isolation
d. Risk of MRSA is increased in patients with history of hospitalization

1006. All of the following criteria should be used for evidence of immunity to Varicella :
a. Prior lab evidence for immunity
b. Birth before 1992
c. Prior history of shingles
d. Written documentation of vaccination

1007. Which of the following doesn’t require aseptic technique?

a. Changing patient’s linen
b. Placing a central line
c. Foley catheter placement
d. Spinal tap

1008. Which organism is most responsible for nosocomial pneumonia in the ICU?
a. Enterobacter
b. Staphylococcus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Klebsiella

1009. Ethylene oxide gas can sterilize equipment with exposure over
a. 20 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 4 hours

1010. Which is false about Hepatitis B?

a. Some patients with Hepatitis may have no symptoms
b. Symptoms usually develop 1-3 months after acquiring the infection
138
c. Carriers of the disease are usually asymptomatic
d. Asymptomatic patients cannot pass the infection

1011. A cardiac surgeon is at highest risk for:

a. Brucellosis
b. Hepatitis B
c. HIV
d. Hepatitis A

1012. In a patient with chicken pox, where is the risk of contagion?

a. 1-2 days before the onset of rash
b. Until the vesicles are crusted over
c. Up to a week after the vesicles appear
d. All of the above

1013. Which of the following is a breach of sterile technique?

a. Opening a sterile pack away from you
b. Consistently facing the sterile field
c. Washing hands before opening sterile pack
d. Re-opening irrigating solution and pouring directly into sterile field

1014. A phlebotomist presents with exposure to HIV infected blood. A few drops of blood from an HIV positive
patient landed on her intact skin. Which of the following is a true statement?
a. She should have HIV testing now and HIV RNA PCR in 2 weeks
b. She should be reassured that her risk for HIV infection from this exposure is negligible
c. She should be started on triple drug prophylaxis
d. Her blood should be checked for HIV viral load

1015. A patient with which serology marker for Hepatitis B condition will be most infectious?
a. positive surface antigen
b. negative surface antigen
c. positive e antigen
d. negative e antigen

1016. Autoclave sterilization works by disruption of:

a. protein
b. cell membrane
c. DNA
d. Lipid

1017. What concentration of bleach should be used to clean up body fluids?

a. 100 % bleach
b. 50 % bleach, 50 % water
c. 25 % bleach, 75 % water
d. 10 % bleach, 90 % water

1018. A HCW is found to be positive for Hepatitis B surface antigen, blood tests also reveals the presence of e
antigen. Which of the following is a true statement about the condition of this HCW?
a. He has active Hepatitis and is infective
b. He is not infective at this stage
139
c. He has only recently become infectious
d. He will improve with time

1019. Which of the following bacteria specifically causses the “whooping cough” infection?
a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Pertussis
d. Haemophilus influenzae

1020. Select the INCORRECT statement about sharps disposal:

a. Sharps should be discarded by the user and not handed off
b. Sharps container should be accessible to staff but not patients
c. Sharps containers should be discarded not emptied
d. Retractable needles are unnecessary expense

1021. Select the intervention that is most likely to decrease the risk of vertical transmission of Hepatitis B to a
newborn:
a. Bottle feeding rather than breast feeding
b. HBIG given to the mother perinatally
c. Neonatal HBIG after delivery and HBV vaccine at 2 months
d. Neonatal HBIG and HBV vaccine immediately after delivery

1022. Which viral disease is currently not preventable by vaccines?

a. Yellow fever
b. Rabies
c. Common cold
d. Hepatitis A
1023. Which of the following genetic events are implicated in seasonal influenza pandemics?
a. Antigenic drift
b. Antigenic shift
c. Improper immunization technique
d. Low CD 4 count

1024. Which is least likely to prevent infection in patients with CVC?

a. Good sterile barrier
b. Use of povidone iodine over chlorhexidine
c. Use of antibiotic impregnated catheter
d. Proper dressing at entry site

1025. Which patients should not be given influenza vaccine?

a. Elderly people
b. Individuals undergoing splenectomy
c. Individuals on chemotherapeutic medications
d. A 5-month-old healthy infant

1026. Which type of Hepatitis poses the least risk to HCWs?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
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1027. Which among the following statements speaks of germicidal characteristics of alcohol?
a. Both ethyl and isopropyl alcohols are bacteriostatic against vegetative spores of bacteria
b. Optimal bactericidal activity is achieved in the range of 60 %-90 % solutions
c. In cases of emergency, it is used to sterilize medical and surgical instruments
d. Bactericidal activity is maintained when diluted below 50 %

1028. Routine re-processing of endoscopes are done in your institution. As a fellow-in-training in infectious dis-
eases you were task to talk on proper disinfection of endoscopes. Which among the following statements best
describes the procedures of reprocessing?
a. Cleaning both the internal and external surfaces using water and enzymatic cleaner then immersing the endo-
scope for 20 minutes in 2 % glutaraldehyde then rinsed with tap water
b. Immediately immersing the endoscope in 2 % glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes at 20 oC
c. Cleaning the external surfaces using water and enzymatic cleaner then immersing the endoscope for at least
5-10 minutes in 4 % glutaraldehyde then rinsing with sterile or filtered water
d. Immersing the endoscope for 10 minutes or less, using 2 % glutaraldehyde

1029. After a major operation at the OR, the house keeper had to clean a large spillage of blood. What is the
proper dilution of sodium hypochlorite for disinfection?
a. 1: 100
b. 1: 1000
c. 1: 10
d. 1: 1

1030. True statement regarding hand hygiene:

a. Washing with soap and water is the recommended agent for hand hygiene in HCFs
b. Resident flora on the skin are easily removed by hand washing
c. Coagulase-negative staph is an example of transient flora that is also an important cause of HAIs
d. Soap and water is preferred when caring for patients with Clostridium difficile infection

1031. What is the proper procedure in decontaminating CPR mannequins?

a. Wipe the entire external surface of the mannequin with 70 % isopropyl alcohol
b. Use 500 ppm of chlorine and leave for 10 minutes
c. Spray the entire surface with 2 % glutaraldehyde and leave for 20 minutes to dry
d. A 30-60 seconds contact time using 1.4 % Hydrogen peroxide is enough for decontamination

1032. Elements of airborne precautions:

a. Negative pressure room, doors kept closed, N95 mask for those entering the room, surgical mask on patient
when transport is required
b. Negative pressure room, doors kept closed, N95 mask for those entering the room, N95 mask on patient
when transport is required
c. Negative pressure room, doors kept closed, surgical mask for those entering the room, N95 mask on patient
when transport is required
d. Negative pressure room, doors kept open, N95 mask for those entering the room, surgical mask on patient
when transport is required

1033. When should medical face mask be used?

a. When working with HIV positive patient
b. When working with patients with TB
c. Face masks should always be used
141
d. During invasive procedures only

1034. What is the most important reason for HCWs to practice good hand hygiene?
a. To remove visible soil from hands
b. To prevent transfer of bacteria from their home to HCFs
c. To prevent transfer of bacteria from HCFs to their home
d. To prevent infections that patients acquire in HCFs

1035. Where should instrument reprocessing take place?

a. In the operatory
b. In a separate instrument processing room
c. In the staff room
d. Wherever it is convenient

1036. How often should biological indicators be used to check the functionality of autoclaves?
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Yearly

1037. What is the depth of the sink where instruments are washed prior to sterilization?
a. Minimal depth so that the instruments won’t get soaked
b. Sufficient depth to cover the instruments fully
c. Any depth as it does not matter
d. Flat so that the water doesn’t remain in it

1038. When is surface disinfection considered successful?

a. Upon removing blood
b. Upon removing blood and body fluids
c. Upon eradicating viruses
d. Upon removing spilled fluids

1039. What do ultrasonic cleaning devices do?

a. Loosen debris from instruments
b. Adhere debris to the instruments
c. Clean more safely and effectively than manual cleaning
d. Both A & C

1040. What is the goal of desinfectrion?

a. Complete elimination of germs
b. Selective reduction of the number of pathogens
c. Permanent eradication of pathogens
d. Eliminating macro-organisms but not micro-organisms

1041. Which of the following statements on the exposure to blood and body fluids is INCORRECT?
a. Exposure to blood and body fluids and sharp injuries has nothing to do with infection
b. Spillages of urine feces and vomit should be cleaned up immediately
c. A disposable apron and single-use gloves should be worn
d. Excess material removal with paper towel and absorbent granules if necessary

142
1042. Which of the following pathogens is the LEAST likely to be associated with nosocomial wound infection?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Coagulase negative staph
d. Bacteroides fragilis

1043. Which of the following statements regarding Clostridium difficile spores is NOT true?
a. Hand washing is the most effective method to prevent C.difficile transmission
b. Spores are non-infectious form of the organism
c. Ingestion triggers spore activation to their disease-causing form
d. Spores can be recovered from computer keyboards and window coverings

1044. When diagnosing an infection with Clostridium difficile, which type of specimen is necessary?
a. Skin swab
b. Blood
c. Solid stool
d. Liquid stool

1045. When evaluating a surveillance program, the evaluators should note whether the program has effectively
done which of the following?
I. Saved the facility money
II. Detected infections
III. Identified trends
IV. Identified risk factors for infections
a. II, III and IV only
b. I, II, III and IV
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only

1046. A broad-spectrum antibiotic is administered for empirical therapy because:

a. It is more cost-effective than other types of antibiotics
b. The pathogenic organism is not yet identified
c. It is the most appropriate for the organism
d. It has the better prophylactic properties

1047. Which of the following are medical interventions factors that affect risk of infection?
I. Indwelling devices
II. Staffing ratios
III. Types of disinfectants used
IV. Lengths of stay
a. I and II only
b. I, II and IV only
c. I, II, III and IV
d. II and IV only

1048. When a patient is on contact precautions for MRSA, which of the following is correct?
a. Wear gown and gloves whenever entering the room
b. Enter the room without PPEs if no patient contact planned
c. Wear gloves only if anticipating patient contact
d. Wear gown, gloves and faceguard whenever entering the room
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1049. Once you sanitize a surface, you should:
a. Rinse it off
b. Dry with a cloth towel
c. Allow to air dry
d. Clean with soapy water

1050. What is hand hygiene?

a. Proper hand washing
b. Using hand sanitizer
c. Proper glove use
d. All of the above except hand sanitizer is not acceptable when handling food

1051. Hand sanitizer can be used effectively in place of handwashing when:

a. You cough or sneeze into hands
b. Hand wash facilities are not available
c. After using the toilet
d. Before or after handling food
e. Only a & b

1052. Coughing etiquette includes which of the following?

a. Covering your mouth when coughing
b. Cough / sneeze into your elbow area
c. Washing your hands after coughing
d. Turn your head away from food / people when coughing
e. All of the above
1053. Which of the following are the factors that increase a patient’s potential for acquiring a nosocomial infec-
tion?
a. Age
b. Nutritional status
c. Stress
d. All of the above

1054. When cleaning a site for blood sample, which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. An alcohol swab is used first, followed by iodine
b. A circular motion beginning in the center and moving outward is used to clean the site
c. A previously cleaned area should not be retouched
d. After cleansing, the vein may be repalpated with a gloved finger

1055. What is the most common type of nosocomial infections?

a. Urinary tract
b. Respiratory
c. Skin
d. Surgical wound
e. Neonatal infections

1056. What is the minimal concentration of bleach for disinfection?

a. 0.5 %
b. 1 %
c. 5 %
144
d. 10 %
e. 100 %

1057. How often should high-speed handpieces or air-water syringes be flushed with water?
a. After each patient
b. At the time of lubrication
c. Once a day

1058. Which of the following shows that the sterilization process was successful?
a. Reading autoclave gauges
b. Timer indicating full cycle
c. Spore tests
d. Visual examination of heat indicating tape

1059. The substance produced by the body in response to the Hepatitis B vaccine is a/an:
a. Antibody
b. Antigen
c. Virus
d. Bacterium

1060. Instruments should be pre-soaked in holding solution immediately after use to:
a. Kill bacterial spores
b. Prevent drying of blood and organic matter
c. Safely use the instruments without further processing
d. Eliminate the need for ultrasonic cleaning

1061. A disease that is transmitted from one person to another by contact is said to be:
a. Occupational
b. Communicable
c. Chronic
d. Congenital

1062. Diseases caused by viruses include:

a. Measles and Hepatitis
b. Abscesses and boils
c. Strep throat and blood poisoning
d. TB and tetanus

1063. What is the definition of “single use” item?

a. Item that can be used by a single patient, multiple items
b. An item that can only be used once before it needs disinfecting
c. An item that can only be used once before being disposed of
d. An item that can only be used for a single day

1064. Which of the following should be avoided during hand washing?

a. Paper towels
b. Liquid soap
c. Nail brushes
d. Warm water

145
1065. Which of the following is not included in standard infection control precautions?
a. Management of blood and body fluids spillages
b. Patient’s personal hygiene
c. Safe handling of linen
d. Cleanliness of care equipment

1066. Which of the following can be worn on hands during patient care?
a. A ring with plain band
b. false nails
c. Rings with stones
d. None of the above

1067. Hand washing is critical to infection control. Which of these is not considered a cleaning agent?
a. Water
b. Alcohol hand gel
c. Liquid soap
d. None of the above

1068. Which factor is most important in ensuring successful antimicrobial therapy?

a. Organism virulence and susceptibility
b. Prompt administration of the appropriate antibiotic
c. Patient status
d. Antimicrobial action

1069. In a control chart, the central line represents the :

a. Average of data points
b. Lower limit of data
c. Time period
d. Count/rate
1070. TO BE CONTINUED………..
IN SHA2 ALLAH………..
Dr. Doaa Aly

146
 True or false

1) According to WHO, alcohol-based hand disinfectants are preferrable over alcohol-free hand rubs (……)
2) Doorknobs and other patient-near surfaces in HCFs are important sources of nosocomial infections (…..)
3) Jewelry, watches any hand / finger / arm accessories should be removed during washing and disinfecting
hands (…..)
4) Housekeeping staff are rarely at risk of infection, since they don’t have direct contact with patients (……)
5) Housekeeping equipment such as mops, brushes, sponges and buckets don’t need to be decontaminated and
cleaned since those items are used with a disinfectant cleaning solution (…..)
6) Dry-dusting and sweeping should be avoided because they spread dust particles and M.O into the air and onto
cleaned surfaces (…..)
7) It is important to dry instruments and other items after cleaning them, because water on items can dilute the
chemicals used for sterilization or HLD (…..)
8) If an iodophor solution is used to prepare the skin before a surgical procedure, it should remain on the site for 2
minutes before the procedure (……)
9) The effectiveness of sterilization is not decreased by the presence of blood and other organic materials on in-
struments and other items (…..)
10) Fumigation with formaldehyde is an effective way to reduce contamination of surfaces such as walls and ceil-
ings in order to prevent infection (…..)
11) Boiling is a method of sterilization (…..)
12) It is acceptable to leave a hypodermic needle inserted through the stopper of a multi dose vial (…..)
13) Since it may not be possible to know whether a patient is infected with Hepatitis virus or HIV, contaminated
instruments and other items from all patients must be handled as though the patient were infected (…..)
14) HLD is preferable to sterilization for items that will come in contact with the bloodstream or tissues under the
skin (…..)
15) Burial sites for medical wastes should not be located near water sources because of the potential of water con-
tamination (…..)
16) Alcohol hand rub is substitute for handwashing in all cases (…..)
17) There is no difference between disinfection and sterilization (…..)
18) The disinfection of non-sterile gloves permits their re-use (…..)
19) When using an alcohol hand rub, it is not necessary to let the alcohol dry before putting on surgical gloves (…)
20) Clean non-sterile gloves are accepted for use during pelvic examination (…..)
21) Caps and masks worn in the OR should always be sterile (…..)
22) Alcohol based sanitizer is effective against Clostridium difficile (…..)
23) The use of gloves is an effective substitute for hand washing (…..)
24) All M.O can cause infections (…..)
25) HLD is acceptable for items that will come in contact with mucous membrane (…..)
26) Dry heat sterilization can’t be used for oils or powders (…..)
27) Gram negative bacteria are more resistant to disinfection than gram positive bacteria (…..)
28) Increase in pH increases the activity of phenols (…..)
29) The quality of chemical disinfection is inferior to heat disinfection (…..)
30) Hypo chlorites are inactivated by organic matter (…..)
147
31) Corrosion-resistant semi-critical instruments can be disinfected by hypochlorite solution (…..)
32) Phenolics are active against non-enveloped viruses (…..)
33) Phenolics are not readily inactivated by organic matter (…..)
34) Steam sterilization can be used for waterproof materials (oils) or dry materials (powders) (…..)
35) Intact mucous membrane is sensitive to infection by bacterial spores (…..)
36) In sterilization with Ethylene oxide gas, the biological indicator is placed in the centre of the sterilizer in an
empty cycle (…..)
37) You can clean without disinfection but you can not disinfect without cleaning (…..)
38) If you are cleaning and don’t need to kill and remove germs, then you don’t need to disinfect (…..)
39) The soaked instruments are better not to be transported in the water and soaking solution (…..)
40) Mechanical indicators don’t indicate sterility (…..)
41) Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus are used in biological indicators for monitoring the efficacy of sterili-
zation with Hydrogen Peroxide gas plasma (…..)
42) The shelf life of a sterilized item is event related (…..)
43) Proteinaceous enzymes can be inactivated by germicides (…..)
44) Side effects of vaccine has always been minor (…..)
45) Sterilization of all patient care items is necessary (…..)
46) Disinfection is not sporicidal (…..)
47) It is recommended to use betadine / betadine ointment during the daily care of urinary catheter to decrease risk
of CAUTI (…..)
48) It is recommended to put the sleeves of the sterile gown under the sterile gloves (…..)
49) Increase in pH decreases the activity of glutaraldehyde (…..)
50) Medication cart is considered as a dirty area and thus a safety box can be used (…..)
51) Intermediate level disinfection is needed for bathtubs and hydrotherapy tubs since it touches mucous mem-
branes and non-intact skin (…..)
52) Sorting of contaminated textiles at patient care areas must be done with minimum agitation (…..)
53) No need for colour coding during collection of contaminated textiles (…..)
54) Collection of contaminated textiles can be done in cloth bags if the textiles are not wet (…..)
55) Presorting is preferred over post-sorting during reprocessing of textiles (….)
56) It is recommended to perform routine microbiological sampling of cleaned textiles in HCFs to evaluate laun-
dering process (…..)
57) Clean linens (not sterile) are suitable for use in NICUs (…..)
58) Home laundering of scrub suits that is contaminated with blood is preferred over hospital laundry for effective
cleaning (…..)
59) Dental clinics are of minor sources of health care related wastes (…..)
60) Decrease in pH increases the activity of hypochlorites (…..)
61) Cleaning before HDL by boiling is not necessary, since any blood or organic material will be removed during
the boiling process (………)
62) Shaving is recommended one day before operation to reduce the risk of post procedure infection (………)
63) Chlorine solution prepared for decontamination on Saturday can be used throughout the week (……...)
64) Improving infection prevention practices is not an ongoing process, it is an event that happens all at once
(…….)
65) The role of the ICP during construction and renovation projects to provide surveillance and treatment for at-
risk patient populations (………...)
66) Dust and debris can be dislodged into the environment by vibrations from construction (……...)
67) Spores of Bacillus atrophaeus are used in biological indicators for monitoring the efficacy of sterilization with
Ethylene Oxide gas (…..)
148
68) Unwrapped items that have been sterilized with chemicals can be stored for up to one week in a covered sterile
container (……)
69) Making sure items are properly sterilized is more important than how they are stored after sterilization
(……...)
70) Hepatitis B can be transmitted to HCWs through splashes of blood or other body fluids onto intact skin
(…….)
71) Perinatal screening of women during pregnancy is restricted to bacterial infections (……)
72) Topical antibiotic ointment should be applied to to the central line insertion site (…...)
73) In a safety culture, we must ask “who did it “more than asking “what happened” (…...)
74) Incidence is the absolute number of cases present population at a given instance or over a period of time (……)
75) Eliminating unnecessary injection is the highest priority towards preventing injection associated infections
(…...)
76) MRSA colonization should be contained by treatment not by infection control measures (…...)
77) Adverse event is an injury caused by either medical management or the underlying disease (…...)
78) Bone marrow transplant patient can be protected by basic methods during constructions (….)
79) Open pulmonary TB patient, transported to radiology department must wear N95 mask for the entire visit
(…)
80) Standard precautions cannot interrupt spread of nosocomial infections (…….)
81) The operator of the autoclave is responsible for investigating a Bowie-Dick test failure (………)
82) Inspection and auditing kitchen practices reveals diffencies in catering practices and low connective action to
be taken (…...)
83) Gloves are to be worn when hands may be contaminated with body fluids (blood, urine or non-intact skin)
(…..)
84) Standard precautions include hand hygiene (hand washing with soap and water or use of an alcohol-based
hand rub) before and after patient contact and after contact with the immediate patient environment even if
gloves are worn (….)
85) Use of disinfectants as hand cleansers can cause skin irritation and allergy (……)
86) Viruses are not affected by antibiotics (…...)
87) Acquired immunity is partly inherited and partly developed through healthy life (…...)
88) Bacterial cell division is called binary fission (…...)
89) Illness resulting from conditions associated with employment is called systemic disease (…...)
90) Pathogenic bacteria help the body breakdown food and protect against infection (…...)
91) The process of disinfection eliminates all microorganisms on nonporous surfaces (…...)
92) Tuberculin is made from dead TB germs and cannot cause tuberculosis (…..)
93) Hands should always be washed with antiseptic soap in a hospital (…..)
94) Wearing gloves eliminates the need to wash hands (…..)
95) There is a vaccine available for Hepatitis A (…..)
96) After washing hands and rinsing well, turn off the faucet with your clean and dry hands (…..)
97) Disinfection kills all M.O (…..)
98) Carriers are always known (…..)
99) A positive culture always means infection (…..)
100) A positive culture should always be treated (…..)
101) Taps should be turned off with a dry paper towel to avoid recontamination of hands (…..)
102) HBV is more infectious than HIV (…..)
103) Antibiotic empirical (best guess) guidelines recommend the same antibiotic for the same condition (…..)
104) Antibiotic resistance is due to the human body , not the bacterial cell (…..)
105) Patients with a history of ESBLs should be isolated (…..)
149
106) Patients with weakened immune systems can reactivate latent TB infection (…..)
107) Influenza vaccine is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy (…..)
108) MMR vaccine is an effective prophylaxis if given after exposure to Mumps infection (…..)
109) It is better not to offer MMR if there is uncertainty about an individual’s Mumps vaccination status (…..)
110) The absence of a characteristic BCG scar is reliable evidence that BCG has not been given previously (…..)
111) There is no relationship between length of hospital stay and risk of infection (…..)
112) “pili” enable bacterial cells to move towards a source of nutrients or to evade the host’s immune response
(…..)
113) Endogenous infections are infections arising from the patient’s own resident bacteria (…..)
114) Outbreaks of viral gastroenteritis, such as Norovirus infections, in which older people are severely af-
fected, are difficult to control because the virus can survive in the environment for up to 12 days (…..)
115) “ Virulence” refers to organism’s ability to form spores (…..)
116) The use of indwelling urethral catheter to manage incontinence or to monitor urinary output reduces the
risk of infection (…..)
117) You must fit check your respirator every time before you enter an isolation room (…..)
118) HH is only important if you are involved in direct patient care (…..)
119) When using sharps, it is important to dispose them directly after use (…..)
120) Hands and forearms should be lower than your elbows when performing hand hygiene routine .
121) It is important to remove all the soap from wrists and hands; keeping the hands up and elbows down to
rinse away the microorganisms (…..)
122) Health care provider should use a dry, clean paper towel when turning off the faucet (…..)
123) Antibacterial soaps kill more germs than regular soaps do (…..)
124) The Cold and Flu virus can be spread by coughs, sneezes and contact with surfaces and objects contami-
nated with the virus(…..)
125) A key site is the area of a patient which is involved in an invasive procedure and which must be protected
from introduced microorganisms (…..)
126) The linen bags should be used for linen only and never for clinical waste (……)
127) The healthcare environment contains represents a primary source for infection transmission (…..)
128) Environmental cleaning must be performed from cleaner to dirtier areas (…..)
129) Medical staff must wear safety glasses and face shield on the jobsite at all times (……)
130) If you wear regular eyeglasses, you never need to wear safety glasses (…..)
131) Hard surfaces do not usually require disinfectants for effective cleaning (……)
132) Moist areas are not considered sterile (……)
133) A patient coughing considered as a reservoir, which is a component of the infection chain (…..)
134) All items in a sterile field must be sterile (……)
135) Only areas that can be seen by the clinician are considered sterile (…..)
136) Edges of sterile areas or fields are not considered sterile (…..)
137) Environmental cleaning is a fundamental principle of infection prevention in healthcare settings (…..)
138) Personnel who wear sterile gowns must pass each other back to front (…..)
139) It’s ok to forget to wear my PPE once in a while (……)
140) Hospital wastes is considered infectious agent in the chain of infection (…..)
141) The frequency of linen change will depend on the individual case (…..)
142) Linen not contaminated with blood or other body fluids may be segregated, placed into appropriate laundry
bags and securely closed (…..)
143) Wet or linen saturated with body fluids should be folded with the wet areas inside (……)
144) After removal of linen, soiled linen must be handled with care at all times (…..)
145) Mattresses and pillows may be a major source of contamination if not properly protected (…..)
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146) Bleach facilitate inactivation of pathogens that might be present in the linen (…..)
147) Health Care Wastes is all Wastes (unwanted and discarded) generated from all Health-Care Establishments
(…..)
148) All used sharps must be discarded without re-sheathing in a puncture resistant container that is readily ac-
cessible (…..)
149) Keeping waste containers in convenient place for users not recommended (…..)
150) Bacteremia (BSI): is a condition where the entire body is involved in a toxic condition, with microorgan-
isms and their toxins spreading from one site to another (…..)
151) Surveillance definition overestimates the true incidence of CRBSI because not all BSIs originate from a
catheter (…..)
152) Age of the patients is one of the modifiable risk factors for catheters related blood stream infection.
153) Urine analysis should not be routinely performed on all long term catheterized patients (…..)
154) Changing indwelling catheters or drainage bags at routine, fixed intervals is recommended (…..)
155) Use systemic antimicrobials to prevent catheter associated UTI in patients requiring long-term catheteriza-
tion (…..)
156) Application of topical antibiotic cream to the meatus around the urinary catheter reduce bacteriuria (…..)
157) Infection with herpes simplex virus in renal transplant recipients is usually caused by reactivation of latent
virus (…..)
158) Varicella vaccine can be given for non- immune post-transplant patients (……)
159) Renal transplantation is associated with the lowest incidence of invasive fungal infections (…..)
160) The recommended vaccinations prior to renal transplantation include : Hepatitis B vaccine , Measles-
Mumps - Rubella vaccine and BCG ( for TB) (…..)
161) The Patient’s Palm technique is most effective when burns cover less than 15% or more than 85% of TBSA
(…..)
162) The risk of burn wound infection relates directly to the extent of the burn (…..)
163) Routine environmental surveillance culturing is generally recommended on units with burn patients (…..)
164) In the pediatrician’s office, Sharing of toys poses a potential health risk (…..)
165) Empiric antimicrobial therapy to treat fever is strongly recommended In burn patients (…..)
166) Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy is recommended only for coverage of the immediate perioperative to
cover the documented increase in risk of transient bacteremia (…..)
167) The sub-categories of preterm birth are based on gestational age or birth weight (…..)
168) The cause of infection in Early Onset Sepsis is the widespread use of broad-spectrum antibiotics during
pregnancy or delivery or immediately following delivery (….)
169) In resource-limited countries , Gram-negative bacteria are the predominant bacteria responsible for late on-
set sepsis in neonatal units (…..)
170) Maintaining neonatal skin integrity is one of the Multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) Prevention Bun-
dle (……)
171) Avoid femoral lines is one of the Evidence-Based Strategies Selected to Reduce Catheters related BSIs
(…..)
172) Simultaneous quantitative cultures of blood samples with a ratio of 1 : 5 (CVC vs. peripheral) can diagnose
catheter related blood stream infection (…..)
173) Recurrent urinary tract infection is considered when more than 3 culture confirmed UTI in 1 month with
the same organism (…..)
174) It is safe for health care workers to wear artificial nails, tips, overlays and decorations when providing di-
rect care to patients (……)
175) Over use and misuse of antibiotics can lead to the development of antibiotic resistant microorganisms (…..)

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176) The key principle related to the application of standard precautions is that you should treat all blood,
body fluid, secretions and excretions as potentially infectious for HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C and other
blood borne pathogens (…..)
177) IV vancomycin can be used to treat Clostridium difficile infection (…..)
178) If a patient is colonized with MRSA in their groin, they just need Octenisan as a body wash and not mupi-
rocin nasal ointment for their nose (…...)
179) Tazocin is a penicillin and must not be given to patients who have had anaphylaxis when given flucloxacil-
lin (…..)
180) Patients who have a history of infection with an extended spectrum beta-lactamase producing organism
(ESBL) should be isolated to protect other patients (…..)
181) If Pseudomonas and anaerobes are isolated in a venous leg ulcer, the patient should always be treated with
antibiotic (…..)
182) If a patient’s urine smells ‘strong’, they must have an infection and need antibiotics (…..)
183) It is important to document the indication for any antibiotic prescriptions on the drug chart so that the anti-
biotic can be stopped or changed if an alternative diagnosis is made (…..)
184) Infection is the invasion of a susceptible host by pathogen or M.O (…..)
185) The nurse is caring for a group of medical surgical patients. The patient most at risk for developing an in-
fection is the patient who is recovering from a right total hip replacement (…..)
186) In order for M.O, to enter another host and cause disease, the M.O must find a portal of exit (…..)
187) Annual skin testing for TB is a mandatory for all employees. Employees with a positive skin test complete a
symptoms review and have a chest X-ray if indicated (…..)
188) Transmission based precautions are used in addition to standard precautions when the patient is suspected
of having organisms that could be spread in ways other than in blood or body fluids (…..)
189) Ideally, a case definition is 100% accurate in identifying who does and does not have the disease in ques-
tion, but in reality few case definitions achieve this ideal (…..)
190) Once a case definition for an outbreak investigation has been established, it should not be changed (…..)
191) Descriptive epidemiology is essential for “characterizing the outbreak” by time, place, and person, but has
little bearing on the analytic epidemiology (…..)
192) TO BE CONTINUED……….
IN SHA2 ALLAH
Dr. Doaa Aly

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 A) Engineering control
B) Administrative control
C) Work practices control
D) Personel protective equipments
From the previously mentioned level of control select and write the suitable LETTER matching
with each of the following statements :
1) Ensuring organizational safety culture (…..)
2) Optimally placed-hand washing sinks and single-use hand towels (……)
3) Wearing N95 mask when entering negative isolation room (…….)
4) Monitoring effective concentration of the HLD in the endoscopy unit (…..)

A) Clean technique
B) Aseptic non-touch technique
C) Maximal barrier sterile technique

From the previously mentioned level of control select and write the suitable LETTER that denote
the appropriate technique for each of the following procedures:
1) Inserting a central venous catheter for an adult patient (……)
2) Drainage of a peri-anal abcess in elderly patient (………)
3) Inserting a urinary catheter for an adult female (………)
4) Collecting a blood sample from a neonate (……….)
5) Caring of an infected bed-sore in an elderly patient (…….)
6) Surgical debridement of a wound (……..)
7) Inserting a peripheral venous catheter for an immune-competent child (………)
8) Caring of a diabetic foot in an adult patient (…..)

A) Failure mode and effects analysis

B) Stewardship
C) Performance indicators
D) Leadership
E) Malpractice
From the previously mentioned level of control select and write the suitable LETTER definition
matching with each of the following statements:
1) A term describing the multidisciplinary activity that includes appropriate selection, dosing, route and dura-
tion of antimicrobial therapy (…..)
2) A term describing what relied upon to prove that high quality exist in the care process under investigation
(…..)
3) A term describing the professional misconduct , or failing to meet the standard of care of a professional that
result in harm to another person (…..)
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Sources:
1. Microbiology and immunology MCQs, Faculty of medicine, Ain Shams University
2. www.wiley.com/go/fundamentalsofinfectionprevention
3. https://ecampusontario.pressbooks.pub
4. https://www.propofs.com
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17. https://www.studyguidezone.com
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