23-06-2024

2202CMD303021240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The current in a conductor varies with time t as I = 2t + 3t2. A where I is amperes and t in
seconds. Electric charge flowing through a section of the conductor during t = 2 s to t = 3 s is :-

(1) 10 C
(2) 24 C
(3) 33 C
(4) 44 C

2) There are 8.4 × 1022 free electrons per cm3 in copper. The current in the wire is 0.21 A (e = 1.6 ×
10–19C). Then the drifts velocity of electrons in a copper wire of 1mm2 cross section, will be :-

(1) 2.12 × 10–5m/s

(2) 0.78 × 10–5m/s
(3) 1.56 × 10–5m/s
(4) none of these

3) When no current flows through a conductor :-

(1) the free electrons do not move

(2) the average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(3) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(4) the average of square of velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is zero

4) In a Neon discharge tube 2.9 × 1018Ne+ ions move to the right each second, while 1.2 × 1018
electrons move to the left per second; electron charge is 1.6 × 10–19C. The current in the discharge
tube is :-

(1) 1 A towards right

(2) 0.66 A towards right
(3) 0.66 A towards left
(4) zero

5) A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shown in figure. A steady current flows through it. The
drift speed of electrons at points P and Q is Vp and VQ, then :-

(1) Vp = VQ
(2) Vp < VQ
(3) Vp > VQ
(4) data is insufficient

6) The plot represents the flow of current through a wire for different time intervals. The ratio of
charges flowing through the wire corresponding to these time intervals is (see figure) :-

(1) 2 : 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 3 : 4

7) Three copper wires are there with lengths and cross-sectional areas as and

. Resistance :-

(1) minimum for the wire of cross-sectional are A/2

(2) minimum for the wire of cross-sectional are A
(3) minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area 2A
(4) same for all the three cases.

8) When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is drawn to reduce its diameter to half its original
value, its resistance will become :-

(1) two times

(2) four times
(3) eight times
(4) sixteen times
9) On increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor-

(1) both increase

(2) both decrease
(3) increases and decreases respectively
(4) decreases and increases respectively

10) The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per degree Celsius. At 300 K its
resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of the wire will be 2 ohms at a temperature :-

(1) 1154 K
(2) 1127 K
(3) 600 K
(4) 1400 K

11) The effective resistance is , when two wires are joined in parallel. When one of the wire
breaks, the effective resistance is 2 ohms. The resistance of the broken wire was :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A metal wire of resistance R is cut into three equal pieces which are then connected side by side
to form a new wire, the length of which is equal to one third of the original length. The resistance of
this new wire is :-

(1) R
(2) 3R
(3) R/9
(4) R/3

13) Three resistances of values 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω are to be connected to yield an effective resistance of
4Ω This can be done by connecting :

(1) 3Ω resistance in series with a parallel combination of 2Ω and 6Ω

(2) 6Ω resistance in series with a parallel combination of 2Ω and 3Ω
(3) 2Ω resistance in series with a parallel combination of 3Ω and 6Ω
(4) 2Ω resistance in parallel with a parallel combination of 3Ω and 6Ω

14) What will be the equivalent resistance between the points A and D ?
(1) 10Ω
(2) 20Ω
(3) 30Ω
(4) 40Ω

15) The resistance across P and Q in the given figure is-

(1) R/3
(2) R/2
(3) 2R
(4) 6R

16) Thirteen resistances each of resistance RΩ are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure.

The effective resistance between A and B is -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) The resultant resistance of n wires each of resistance r ohms is R, when they are connected in
parallel. When these n resistances are connected in series, the resultant resistance will be :-

(1) R/n
(2) R/n2
(3) nR
(4) n2R

18) In the circuit shown the equivalent resistance between A and B is -

(1) R
(2) 2R/5
(3) R/3
(4) 2R

19) Value of current i in the following circuit is -

(1) 13 A
(2) 12 A
(3) 9 A
(4) None of these

20) If i = 0.25 A in figure, then value of R is :

(1) 48Ω
(2) 12Ω
(3) 120Ω
(4) 42Ω

21) The equivalent resistance and potential difference between A and B for the circuit are
respectively:

(1) 4Ω, 8 V
(2) 8Ω, 4 V
(3) 2Ω, 2 V
(4) 16Ω, 8 V

22) In the circuit shown in figure, find the current through the branch BD.

(1) 1 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 7 A

23) Find the potential difference across the 24Ω:-

(1) 48 volts
(2) 2 volts
(3) 4 volts
(4) 1 volts

24) Five equal resistances each of resistance R are connected as shown in the Figure. A battery of
voltage V is connected between A and B. The current flowing in AFCEB will be -

(1) V/R
(2) V/2R
(3) 2V/R
(4) 3V/R

25) In a typical Wheatstone bridge the resistance in cyclic order are A = 10Ω, B = 5Ω C = 4Ω, and D

= 4Ω. For the bridge to be balanced : (a) 10Ω should be

connected in parallel with A
(b) 10Ω should be connected in series with A
(c) 5Ω should be connected in series with B
(d) 5Ω should be connected in parallel with B

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c
(4) all

26) Two cells X and Y are connected to a resistance of 101 as shown in the figure. The terminal

voltage of cell Y is :-

(1) zero
(2) 2 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 10 V

27) The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is found to be 3 volts when it is
connected to a resistance of value equal to its internal resistance. The e.m.f. of the cell is

(1) 3 V
(2) 6 V
(3) 1.5 V
(4) 4.5 V

28) Electromotive force of a cell is basically a

(1) force
(2) power
(3) work
(4) current capacity

29) When a resistance of 2 ohms is connected across the terminals of a cell, the current is 0.5 A.
When the resistance is increased to 5 ohms, the current becomes 0.25 A. The e.m.f. of the cell is

(1) 1.0 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 2.0 V
(4) 2.5 V

30) A 10 V battery with internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected across a variable resistance R. The
value of R for which the power delivered to it is maximum, is equal to

(1) 0.5Ω
(2) 1Ω
(3) 1.5Ω
(4) 2Ω

31) 25 W, 200 V and 100 W, 200 V bulbs are connected in series to a source of 400 volts. Which
bulb will fuse ?

(1) 25 W
(2) 100 W
(3) Both will fuse at the same time
(4) None of the bulbs will fuse

32) In the circuit shown in figure, the power which is dissipated as heat in the 6Ω resistor is 6W.
What is the value of resistance R in the circuit ?

(1) 6Ω
(2) 10Ω
(3) 13Ω
(4) 24Ω

33) Resistance in the two gaps of a meter bridge are 10 ohms and 30 ohms respectively. If the
resistances are interchanged, the balance point shifts by :-

(1) 33.3 cm
(2) 66.67 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

34) A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have :

(1) a high resistance in series with its coil

(2) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
(3) a low resistance in series with its coil
(4) a high resistance in parallel with its coil

35) The resistance of a galvanometer is G ohms and the range is 1 volt. The value of resistance (in Ω)
used to convert it into a voltmeter of range 10 volts is :

(1) 9 G
(2) G

(3)

(4) 10 G

SECTION-B

1) A galvanometer of resistance 100Ω gives full defection for a current of 10–5 A. The value of shunt
required to convert it into an ammeter of range 1 ampere, is

(1) 1Ω
(2) 10–3Ω
(3) 10–5Ω
(4) 100Ω

2) An unknown resistance R1 is connected in series with a resistance of 10Ω. This combination is

connected to one gap of a metre bridge while a resistance R2 is connected in the other gap. The
balance point is at 50 cm. Now, when the 10Ω resistance is removed the balance point shifts to 40
cm. The value of R1 is (in ohms)

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 60
(4) 40

3) A 1Ω voltmeter has a range of 1V. Find the additional resistance which has to be joined with the
series in voltmeter to increase the range of voltmeter to 100V:

(1) 10Ω

(2)

(3) 99Ω
(4) 100Ω

4) Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is-

(1) 40Ω
(2) 25Ω
(3) 250Ω
(4) 500Ω

5) Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when

two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1
6) Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?

(1) conductor
(2) inductor
(3) switch
(4) fuse

7) In the circuits shown below, the readings of ideal voltmeters and ammeters will be :

(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2

(2) V1 > V2 and i1 = i2
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
(4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2

8) The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is :

(1) 0.6 V
(2) 0 V
(3) 0.5 V
(4) 0.4 V

9) The metre bridge shown is in balanced position with . If we now interchange the positions
of galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work? If yes, what will be balance condition?
(1)

(2) no, no null point

(3)

(4)

10) A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10Ω resistance in the
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1Ω of the resistance wire is :

(1) 1.5 × 10–2 m

(2) 1.0 × 10–2 m
(3) 1.0 × 10–1 m
(4) 1.5 × 10–1 m

11) The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :

(1) insulators and semiconductors

(2) metals
(3) insulators only
(4) semiconductors only

12) A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10–4 ms–1 is an electric field of 3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has
a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :

(1) 2.25 × 10–15

(2) 2.25 × 1015
(3) 2.5 × 106
(4) 2.5 × 10–6

13) Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for
copper?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)

15) The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal
area of cross-section and same material is 0.25Ω. What will be the effective resistance if they are
connected in series ?

(1) 0.25Ω
(2) 0.5Ω
(3) 1Ω
(4) 4 Ω

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1)

The reaction intermediate produce by homolytic bond fission is :-

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbon free radical
(3) Carbanion
(4) Carbonium ion

2) Most stable carbanion is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3)

Which of following has incorrect representation of flow of electrons :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Correct stability order of following alkene will be:-

(1) II > IV > III > I

(2) IV > II > III > I
(3) III > IV > I > II
(4) I > II > III > IV

5) Which is maximum stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) In which of the following carbocation hyperconjugation is absent ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following group show –m and –I effect?

(1) –NO2
(2) –NH2
(3) –OH
(4) –F

8) Which of the following pairs of structures is not a pair of resonating structures?

(1) and
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 and CH3CH2CH = CH2

and
(3)

(4)
and

9) Which of the following shows +R effect:

(1)

(2) – Cl
(3) – COOH
(4) – CONHR

10) Which of the following is most stabilised by hyper conjugation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

Which C–H bond in the following molecule takes part in Hyperconjugation :-

(1) Ι & ΙΙ
(2) Ι & ΙV
(3) Ι & ΙΙΙ
(4) ΙΙΙ & ΙV

12) Which of the following alkenes is the most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

Among the following, the number of aromatic compounds (s) is/are :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

14)
The correct order of stability among these canonical structures is

(1) III > II > I

(2) II > III > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) I > II > III
15) Given :-

The enthalpy of the hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as :-

(1) III > II > I

(2) II > III > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > II > III

16) Which shows resonance :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Sum of α- hydrogen in :-

(i) + (ii) = ?

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16

18) Which of the following has maximum number of α - hydrogen ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) For elementary reactions the order of reaction and molecularity are identical.
(2) For rate determining step the values of order of reaction and molecularity are same.
(3) Catalyst does not affect ΔH of a chemical reaction.
The activation energy of reaction decreases on increasing temperature which results in increase
(4)
in reaction rate.

20) The plot of log k vs.1/T yields a straight line. The slope of the line would be equal to -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The correct graph regarding first order reaction is– The correct graph regarding first order
reaction is–

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All of these

22) A reaction takes place in 3 steps their rate constants are k1, k2 and k3 and over all rate constant

. If the energies of activation are 40, 30 and 20 kJ mol–1, then over all energy of activation
is : (assume ‘A’ to be constant for all)

(1) 10
(2) 50
(3) 30
(4) 60

23) Incorrect statement for arrhenius equation,

k = Ae–Ea/RT is/are

(1) "A" may be termed as rate constant at very high temperature

(2) "A" may be termed as the rate constant at zero activation energy
(3) Ea is activation energy of reaction

(4)
is fraction of activated molecules.

24) The standard oxidation potentias of zinc and silver in water at 298K are :-
Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e; E° = 0.76V
Ag(s) → Ag+(aq) + e; E° = –0.80V
Which of the following reaction actually takes place :-

(1) Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)

(2) Zn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Ag+(aq) + Zn(s)
(3) Zn2+(aq) + Ag+(aq) → Zn(s) + Ag(s)
(4) None

25) An aqueous solution containing 1 M each of Au3+, Cu2+, Ag+, Li+ is being electrolysed by using
inert electrodes. The value of standard potentials are :- and

With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be :-

(1) Li, Cu, Ag, Au

(2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Au, Ag, Cu
(4) Au, Ag, Li, Cu

26) The e.m.f. of the following galvanic cells : (a) Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu

(b) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(c) Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
(d) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
are represented by E1,E2,E3 and E4 respectively. Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4

(2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2
(4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

27) An aqueous solution of Li2SO4 in water is electrolysed using Pt electrodes. The products at the
cathode and anode are respectively

(1) H2, SO2

(2) O2, LiOH
(3) H2 ,O2
(4) O2, SO2

28) By the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4, the products obtained at both the inert
electrodes are :-

(1) O2 at anode and H2 at cathode

(2) H2 at anode and Cu at cathode
(3) O2 at anode and Cu at cathode
(4) H2S2O8 at anode and O2 cathode

29) A cell constructed by coupling a standard copper electrode and a standard magnesium electrode
has emf of 2.7 volts. If the standard reduction potential of copper electrodes is +0.34V, that of
magnesium electrode is:-

(1) +3.04 V
(2) –3.04 V
(3) +2.36 V
(4) –2.36 V

30) The equivalent conductivity of 1M H2SO4 solution would be, if its specific conductance is 26 ×
10–2 ohm–1cm–1 (in ohm–1cm2equi–1) :-

(1) 2.6 × 102

(2) 1.6 × 102
(3) 2.3 × 102
(4) 1.3 × 102

31) The hydrogen elecrtrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25°C. The reduction potential of the
cell would be :-

(1) 0.177 V
(2) – 0.177 V
(3) 0.087 V
(4) 0.059 V

32) E° of Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn and Fe2+/Fe are – 2.37 V, –0.76 V and –0.44 V respectively which of the
following is correct:

(1) Mg oxidises Zn
(2) Zn oxidises Fe
(3) Zn reduces Mg2+
(4) Zn reduces Fe2+

33)

The rusting of iron is catalysed by :-

(1) Fe
(2) O2
(3) H+
(4) Zn

34) Calculate (in S cm2 mol–1) for NH4OH, given that value of for Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl as
523.28, 280.0 and 129.8 Scm2 mol–1 respectively:

(1) 373.80
(2) 673.48
(3) 543.68
(4) 251.44

35) The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2eq–1 and at
infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2eq–1. The dissociation constant of this acid is :-

(1) 1.25 × 10–5

(2) 1.25 × 10–6
(3) 6.25 × 10–4
(4) 1.25 × 10–4

SECTION-B

1) Arrange the following in increasing order of heat of hydrogenation.

(1) I > II > III
(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) None

2) Correct stability order is :-

(1) 2 < 3 < 1

(2) 3 < 2 < 1
(3) 1 < 2 < 3
(4) 3 < 1 < 2

3) Hyperconjugation involves the overlap of the following orbitals :-

(1) σ – σ
(2) σ – p
(3) p – p
(4) π – π

4) Correct order of –I effect is :-

(1) –CN > –COOH > –NO2

(2) –COOH > –CN > –NO2
(3) –NO2 > –COOH > –CN
(4) –NO2 > –CN > –COOH

5)

Correct order of stability of carbon free radical is:-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) III > I > II
(4) II > I > III

6) The decreasing order of stability is :-

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(4) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

7) The decreasing order of stability of following cation is :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) Q > P > R > S

8) If unit of k is L1/2 mole–1/2 sec–1 then order of reaction will be :-

(1) – 1/2
(2) 1/2
(3) 3/2
(4) – 3/2

9) Rate constant for a reaction is 2×10–2 × s–1. If the concentration of the reactant after 25 sec is
0.5 M. Then initial concentration must be :-

(1) 1.0 M
(2) 1.25 M
(3) 2 M
(4) 0.5 M

10)

For a reaction starting with 1 M of 'A' only, concentration of B (in M) after 100
sec.? (K is rate constant)
(1) 4 M
(2) 1 M
(3) 3 M
(4) None of these

11) For an elementary reaction 2A + B → A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to half of it's
original volume then rate or reaction will :-

(1) unchanged
(2) increase four times
(3) increase eight times
(4) decrease eight times

12) H2(g) and O2(g), can be produced by the electrolysis of water. What total volume (in L) of O2(g)
and H2(g) are produced at STP when a current of 30 A is passed through a K2SO4(aq) solution for 193
min :-

(1) 20.16
(2) 40.32
(3) 60.48
(4) 80.64

13) The emf of the cell

at 298K is 0·2905 than the value of equilibrium constant
for the cell reaction is –

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution which of the half cell reaction will occur
at anode ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which statement is correct?

 A galvanic cell is an electro chemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a
(1)
spontaneous redox reaction into electrical energy.
If an external opposite potential is applied on Daniel cell is more than 1.1 V than it function
(2)
as an electrolytic cell.
In a galvanic cell, the half cell in which oxidation takes place is called anode and it has a
(3)
negative potential with respect of the solution.
(4) All are correct

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Mendel proposed which of the following term for hereditary units :-

(1) Factor
(2) Genome
(3) Gene
(4) Allele

2) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

3) Which of the following factor did not contribute to Mendel's success in his study of heredity -

(1) His use of the pea plant

(2) His study of plant chromosome
(3) His adoption of an experimental approach
(4) His use of mathematics

4) Mendel always used pure parents for crosses, He develops pure parents by :-

(1) Selfing of hybrids only

(2) Hybridization process
(3) Bagging & Tagging Technique
(4) Continuous selfing & Selection

5) Mendel's principle of segregation means that gametes always receive :-

(1) One pair of alleles

(2) One quarter of the genes
(3) One of the paired alleles
(4) Any pair of alleles

6) Alleles are :-

(1) Slightly variable forms of genes present on same locus of homologous chromosomes.
(2) Slightly variable form of genes present on same chromosomes.
(3) Similar genes present at different locus of homologous chromosomes.
(4) Slightly different form of genes present on same locus of non homologous chromosomes.

7) In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use :-

(1) Pod length

(2) Seed shape
(3) Flower position
(4) Seed colour

8) Recessive trait is seen due to

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) No enzyme
(3) Non functional enzyme
(4) Both (2) and (3)

9) What is the sum total of genotypes and phenotypes in F2 of dihybrid cross ?

(1) 8
(2) 13
(3) 4
(4) 9

10) A genetically dwarf plant made tall by use of gibberellin was crossed with a dwarf plant. Then
the progenies would be :-

(1) All dwarf

(2) All tall
(3) 50% tall & 50% dwarf
(4) May be tall or dwarf

11) Mendel chose pea plants because :-

(1) They were cheap

(2) They were having many contrasting characters
(3) They were easily available
(4) They have great economic importance
12) Dominant phenotype/trait is produced by :-

(1) Unmodified allele only

(2) Modified alleles only
(3) Both unmodified and equivalent modified alleles
(4) Every modified and unmodified allele.

13) In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently discovered Mendel's principles. They are :-

(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarty
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

14) If F1 individual of genotype (Tt) go through sexual reproduction, then it's gamete (pollen grain)
with genotype (T) have what chances to pollinate eggs of
the genotype (T).

(1) 25 %
(2) 50 %
(3) 75 %
(4) 100 %

15) The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in
a monohybrid cross in ..... and the expression of both in ..... .

(1) F1 and F2
(2) F2 and F3
(3) F1 and F3
(4) F2 and F1

16) In a monohybrid cross what will be percentage of heterozygous offspring in F4 – generation -

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 6.25%

17) A cross between an individual with unknown genotype for a trait with recessive plant is :-

(1) Back cross

(2) Reciprocal cross
(3) Test cross
(4) Monohybrid cross

18) A double heterozygous garden pea plant was crossed with double recessive plant. In the progeny
100 plants were showing recessive trait for both characters. How many plants were showing
dominant trait for both characters?

(1) 100
(2) 900
(3) 300
(4) 450

19) Reciprocal cross :-

(1) Helps to know the presence of cytoplasmic trait

(2) Helps to know whether alleles are present on sex chromosome or autosomes
(3) Always gives same F2 phenotypic ratio
(4) Both (1) & (2)

20) How many double heterozygotes will be produced in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In a cross between TtRr × TtRr, total 640 seeds are produced. Find the number of plants
produced with first dominant and second recessive traits :-

(1) 106
(2) 300
(3) 240
(4) 120

22) In dihybrid cross the ratio of parental and recombinant phenotype in F2 is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 10 : 6
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 7 : 1

23) The _____ states that 'when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair
of traits is independent of the other pair of traits'.

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of independent assortment
(3) Law of segregation
(4) Law of unit factors

24) In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb, F2 progency of AABB, AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in the
ratio of :-

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4

25) If a tall & pink flowered (TtRr) Mirabilis plant is self crossed, then the offsprings would be -

(1) 50% plants will be tall

(2) 50% plants will have Red flower
(3) 25% plants will have white flower
(4) 25% plants will have pink flower

26) Which of the following can be found only when population studies are made :-

(1) Multiple allelism

(2) Codominance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Pleiotropy

27) Rabbit coat colour is controlled by 4 alleles. Find out suitable number of type of genotype, if
number of allele is denoted by n.

(1)

(2) n + 1

(3)

(4)

28) In wheat grain colour is controlled by 3-polygenes. Then what is the percentage of offspring in F1
generation which is similar to either of parent.

(1) Less than 5%

(2) 12.5 %
(3) 3.125 %
(4) Zero %

29) How many of following are the examples of codominance :-

(A) AB blood group
(B) Sickle cell anaemia carrier
(C) Size of starch grain in pea plant
(D) Seed shape
(E) Coat colour in cattles

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

30) In multiple allele system a gamete possesses :-

(1) Two alleles

(2) One allele
(3) Three allele
(4) Several alleles

31) Which of the following do not show incomplete dominance :-

(1) Flower colour in Snapdragon

(2) Flower colour in Mirabilis
(3) Flower colour in Pisum sativum
(4) Size of starch grain in Pisum sativum

32) Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. This phenomenon is called

(1) Multiple allelism

(2) Mosaic Inheritance
(3) Pleiotropy
(4) Polygeny

33) The maximum height of a plant is '18' feet and minimum height is 6 feet. If plant height is
controlled by 3 pairs of polygenes then the height of a plant with genotype AabbCc will be :-

(1) 8 feet
(2) 10 feet
(3) 12 feet
(4) 14 feet

34) If a mulatto man marries with a mulatto woman, then :-

(1) Seven types of genotypes will be obtained.

(2) Only mulatto will be produced.
(3) Offspring with three dominant alleles will be maximum.
(4) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 phenotypic ratio will be obtained.

35) Many traits which are not so distinct in their occurrence and are spread across a gradient is due
to
(1) Dominance
(2) Pleiotropy
(3) Qualitative inheritance
(4) Polygenic inheritance

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following is incorrect for garden pea?

Character Genotype Phenotype

(1) Flower position Homozygous or hetezygous Terminal

(2) Seed colour Homozygous or heterozygous Yellow

(3) Pod colour Homozygous or heterozygous Green

(4) Pod shape Only homozygous Constricted

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Mendel work later formulated into laws of :-

I. linkage.
II. segregation.
III. incomplete dominance.
IV. independent assortment.
Choose the correct option

(1) I, III and IV

(2) II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II and III

3) Mendel's work remain unrecognised for long time due to :-

I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problem was unacceptable
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existance of factors.
Choose the right combinations

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I,II,III and IV
4) Which of the following trait is only expressed in homozygous condition in garden pea -
(a) Yellow seed colour
(b) Green pod colour
(c) Inflated pod shape
(d) Terminal flower position
(e) White flower colour

(1) Only e
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) d & e

5)

Dominant Recessive
Character
trait trait

Seed shape
Round Wrinkled

A
Yellow Green

Flower
colour
Violet White

Pod shape B C

Pod colour

Green Yellow

Flower
D E
position

Stem height

Dwarf
Tall

In given table of seven pairs of contrasting trait, match the column :-

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
 Seedcoat
(1) Full Constricted Axial Terminal
colour

Cotyledon
(2) Full Constricted Terminal Axial
colour

Seed
(3) Full Constricted Axial Terminal
colour

Seedcoat
(4) Constricted Full Axial Terminal
colour
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a

genetic cross, is known as -

(1) Mendel square

(2) Punnett square
(3) Crossboard method
(4) Emasculation method

7) If substrate 'S' is transformed into product 'P' with the help of enzyme 'E'. Enzyme 'E' has been
produced from wild allele 'A'. After mutation 'A' changes into modified forms as follows :-

After considering the above findings,

which of the following allele pair will produce recessive phenotype ?

(1) a, α
(2) a, β
(3) A, a
(4) β, γ

8) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding law of segregation ?

(1) Alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis

(2) The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
(3) Law of segregation is called as law of purity of gametes
(4) All of the above

9) A trihybrid Aa Bb Cc plant produces :-

8 types of gametes in ratio of

(1)
27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
8 types of gametes in ratio of
(2)
1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1:1
(3) 27 types of gametes
(4) None of these

10) In humans ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene-I. Select the correct statement from
following :

(1) The alleles IA and IB produce a same kind of sugar

(2) Humans are diploid organism, each person possesses three allele of gene-I
(3) Allele IA and IB are incompletely dominant over allele i
(4) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes are formed in case of ABO blood group

11) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for. It
depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular phenotype from this
product as it does on the particular phenotype that we choose to examine. In case more than one
phenotype is influenced by the same gene. This statement refers to which characters in garden pea ?

(1) Seed shape and grain of the starch

(2) Flower colour and Flower position
(3) Pod shape and pod colour
(4) Both (1) and (2)

12) Assertion: Human Skin colour is an example of polygenic inheritence.

Reason: Human skin colour is controlled by three genes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Assertion (A) : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of
character is independent of the another pair of character.
Reason (R) : A dihybrid cross also show dominance.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
14) Assertion : The modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele when it produces normal
enzyme.
Reason : Modified allele is formed by mutation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15)

Read the following statements about hybridization technique of Mendel and select the correct
statement :-
(A) Emasculation of both male and female parents is required.
(B) Emasculation of only male parent is required.
(C) Emasculation of female parent is required.
(D) Emasculation is not necessary.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All correct

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1)

An arthropod, who work as a vector for a protozoal disease which is characterised by chills and
fever.
Find the correct option which reveals the name of vector.

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Malaria
(3) Malignant malaria
(4) Female anopheles

2) In which technique of ART fertilization takes place in fallopian tube ?

(1) AI and ZlFT

(2) In vitro fertilisation
(3) ZlFT and IUT
(4) GlFT and AI

3) Choose the incorrect regarding the given diagram of a contraceptive method :-

(1) It is a surgical method, also called sterilisation
(2) It prevents gamete transport and thereby prevent conception
(3) In this, a small part of epididymis is removed or tied up through a small incision on the abdomen
In this, a small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
(4)
scrotum

4) In which of the following assisted reproductive technology, the semen collected either from the
husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the uterus?

(1) GIFT
(2) ICSI
(3) IUT
(4) IUI

5) Which of the following sexually transmitted infection isn’t completely curable?

(1) Trichomoniasis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Genital warts

6) Which of the following is the correct explanation about the working of IUDs :

(1) Non medicated IUDs (Eg-lippes loop) increase the phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus
Cu ions released from CuT, Cu-7 like IUDs suppress the motility and fertilising capacity of
(2)
sperms
(3) Progestasert and LNG-20 like IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implanation
(4) All of these

7)

Which of the following statement is true about innate immunity ?

(1) It is present at the time of birth

(2) It is non-specific defence
(3) Cytokine belongs to adaptive or acquired immunity
(4) Both (1) & (2)

8) Which of the following are included in barrier method ?

(1) Condoms
(2) Diaphragms
(3) Cervical caps and vaults
(4) All of the above

9)

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed by in vitro fertilisation is transferred into

(1) Uterus
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Cervix

10) What are the characteristics of an ideal contraceptive?

(a) User-friendly
(b) Easily available
(c) Effective
(d) Reversible
(e) No or least side effects
(f) No way to interfere with the sexual drive, desire and / or the sexual act of the user.

(1) a, b, c and e
(2) b, d, e and f
(3) a, b, c, d, e and f
(4) a, b, c and f

11) A structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body called -

(1) Umbilical cord

(2) Allantois
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Placenta

12) How many given statements are true about ringworm -

(a) It is caused by ascaris lumbricoids
(b) Trichophyton and epidermophyton genera only responsible for this
(c) Appearance of dry scaly lesion are main symptoms of this diseases
(d) Heat and moisture do not help to grow

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

13) If all sertoli cells of both testis were destroyed then what will be happen ?
(1) Secondary sexual characters of male will not be developed
(2) Level of testosterone will be low
(3) Sperms will not be produce
(4) Libido will be lost

14)

Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hairs on the head are usually observed
during fourth month.
(B) Saheli is a new oral contrapceptive for the male
(C) MTPs are considered relatively safe during the second trimester
(D) The corpus luteum secretes large amount of estrogen which is essential for maintenance of the
endometrium

How many statement are incorrect in following?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

15) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function.

(1) Ovary → Synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones.

(2) Fimbriae → Collection of the ovum after ovulation
(3) Seminal vesicle → Produces a fructose sugar containing fluid to nourish sperm.
(4) Bartholin glands → Secretion present in seminal plasma.

16) Which statement is incorrect?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue

(2) Each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes
(3) Hymen is not a true sign of virginity.
(4) For fertility 100% sperm should be of normal shape and size

17) Find odd group with respect to pathogen type : -

(1) Common cold, AIDS

(2) Plague, Diphtheria
(3) Ascariasis, Ringworm
(4) Malaria, Amoebiasis

18) I-meiotic division completed in :

(1) Primordial follicle

(2) Primary follicle
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Mature tertiary follicle

19) LNG - 20 is a.

(1) Levonorgestrol containing pill

(2) Hormone releasing IUDS.
(3) Barrier method, which protect from STD / STI.
(4) Progesterone containing pills

20)

Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica or amoebiasis is :-

(a) Parasite of small intestine
(b) Causes dysentery
(c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers

(d) Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp.

(1) a
(2) c
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c, d

21) Which statement is false for typhoid fever?

(1) Sustained high fever

(2) Spreads through contaminated food and water
(3) In all cases intestinal perforation is seen.
(4) Widal test used for detection

22) Which of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro organism in human
body :-
(A) Mucosa of Respiratory tract
(B) Monocyte
(C) Tear
(D) Skin
(E) Saliva
(F) Acid in stomach
(G) N-K-cell

(1) E, F, G
(2) B, C, E
(3) C, E, F
(4) A, B, D

23) Assertion : Infertility is the inability to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-
habitation.
Reason : Infertile couples could have children using assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

24) Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess mucus and blood clots can be seen
in which disease ?

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Filariasis
(3) Typhoid
(4) Pneumonia

25) Assertion :- Wuchereria bancrofti causes elephantiasis.

Reason :- It is transmitted by female culex mosquito.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

26) Which statement is correct about given diagram:- (a)

Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for this
(b) Allergic reactions
(c) Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Heat and moisture help these to grow

(1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, d
(4) a, b, c, d

27) Vaginal acidic pH is example of :-

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cytokin barrier
(4) Cellular barrier

28) Read the following four statements A, B, C and D which are the description of events in the life
cycle of Plasmodium vivax. Select the right option having both the correct statements.
(A) Parasites reproduce asexually in the red blood cells, bursting the red blood cells and causing
cycles of fever and other symptoms.
(B) Sexual stages gametocytes are formed in gut of mosquito.
(C) Fertilization and development take place in the gut of mosquito.
(D) Female mosquito takes up gametes with blood meal.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

29)

Which of the following statement is correct :-

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is "absence of disease" or physical fitness" only
(d) "Good humour" hypothesis was disapproved by William Harvey.

(1) a, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

30) A method in which male partner withdraw his penis from vagina just before ejaculation to avoid
insemination is :

(1) Withdrawal
(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Coitus interruptus
(4) Both (1 & (3)

31) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Symptoms of ascariasis include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing
(2) Ringworm is caused by round worm
(3) Dysentery is caused by Salmonella typhi
(4) Sustained high fever is a symptom of typhoid

32)

Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(1) ICSI- Sperm directly injected into ovum

(2) IUT- Semen introduced artificially into uterus
(3) GIFT- Ovum is transferred into fallopian tube
(4) ZIFT- Embryo upto 8 blastomeres transferred into fallopian tube
33) Which of the following is incorrect about given diagram :-

(1) Slowly developing chronic inflammation

(2) Wuchereria bancrofti
(3) Elephantiasis
(4) Infection by contaminated food & water

34) Consider the following statements :

I. Neural system and endocrine system influences our immune system.
II. Mind and mental state can affect our health.
III.Health is affected by genetic disorders, infections and life style.
IV.Health does simply mean only absence of disease.
Which of the above given statements are correct?

(1) only I
(2) only III and IV
(3) I, II and IV
(4) I, II and III

35) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid disease.
Statement-II : Virus like Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease pneumonia.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

SECTION-B

1) Identify A, B, C and D and choose the option showing correct correlation of them :-
 single gland secretion of which
(1) (A) Seminal vesicle
enter directly in urethra
(2) (B) Prostate gland paired gland
which carries both urine and
(3) (C) Vas deferens
semen
receives secretion of seminal
(4) (D) Ejaculatory duct
vesicle.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle (human) in sequence :-

(I) Secretion of FSH
(II) Growth of corpus luteum
(III) Growth of follicles
(IV) Ovulation
(V) Sudden increase in level of LH.
(VI) Formation of corpus albicans

(1) III → I → IV → II → VI → V
(2) I → III → V → IV → II → VI
(3) I → IV → III → V → II → VI
(4) II → I → III → IV → VI → V

3) Match the Column-A with Column-B and choose the correct option :-

Column-A Column-B

Fusion of male and

(A) (i) Parturition
female gametes

Attachment of
(B) blastocyst to the (ii) Gestation
uterine wall

Embryonic
(C) (iii) Fertilization
development

Delivery of the
(D) (iv) Implantation
baby
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

4) Read the following statement about the given diagram carefully & state which of them are

correct? (i) A - It is the site for formation of sperm

(ii) B - It is male external genitalia
(iii) C - Secretion of this gland lubricates the penis
(iv) D - Produce fructose that is a disaccharide

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

5) Entamoeba histolytica is a __C__ parasite in the __B__ of human which cause ___A__. Identify CBA.

(1) Protozoan, Large intestine, Amoebic dysentery

(2) Bacterial, Small intestine, Amoebiasis
(3) Helminthes, Small intestine, Dysentery
(4) Large intestine, Protozoal, Amoebiasis

6) Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. health

(1) Defined as state of complete physical, mental and social well being
(2) Health increases longevity of people
(3) Health increases infant and maternal mortility
(4) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise maintain good health

7) Mark the correct statement :-

(a) Yoga has been practised to achieve physical and mental health
(b) Infectious diseases are very common and everyone of us suffers from these at sometime
(c) AIDS is an infectious disease
(d) Cancer is non - infectious disease
(e) Healthy persons bring economic prosperity

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b, c, d and e only
(3) c and d only
(4) a, b, c, d and e

8) Read the following statements (A - D)

(A) When people are healthy they are more efficient at work
(B) Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain humors
(C) William Harvey thought that persons with 'blackbile' belonged to hot personality and would have
fevers
(D) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host
How many of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

9) Match the columns w.r.t. diseases and caustive agents.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Pneumonia (p) Rhino viruses
Haemophilus
(b) Common cold (q)
influenze
(c) Filariasis (r) Microsporum
(d) ringworms (s) Wuchereria bancrofti
(1) a – p, b – q, c – r, d – s
(2) a – r, b – p, c – s, d – q
(3) a – q, b – p, c – s, d – r
(4) a – p, b – q, c – s, d – r

10)
Above diagram shows multiplication of Plasmodium in human RBC. Choose the correct option from
the given table:

Substance Effects on
Reproduction
released body
Recurring
(1) Asexual Haemotoxin fever
with chills
Stomach
(2) Sexual Neurotoxin
pain
 Recurring
(3) Asexual Haemozoin fever
with chills
Nasal
congestion
(4) Sexual Haemozoin
and
discharge
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following is correct matching ?

(A) Wuchereria bancrofti (i) House fly

(B) Common round worm (ii) Female anopheles

(C) Entamoeba histolytica (iii) Female culex

(D) Plasmodium falciparum (iv) Contaminated food and water

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iii ii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which of the following options gives the correct categorisation of barriers of Innate immunity ?

Physical Physiological Cellular

(1) NK cell Saliva PMNL Neutrophils

(2) Skin Tear W.B.C

(3) Mucous Interferon T-killer

(4) Fever Phagocyte cells Leucocytes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
13)

Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below :-

Causal organism
Disease Medium of transfer
and part it enters

Common droplets from sneezing

(i) A
cold of infected persons

Trichophyton
Using towels of
(ii) B skin, nails
infected individuals
and scalp

Droplets/aerosols
released
(iii) Pneumonia C
by an infected person,
sharing utensils

Wuchereria,
(iv) Filariasis D
Lymphatic vessels
In which one of the following options all the blanks A,B,C and D are correctly filled :-
A – Rhinovirus. Nose and respiratory passage not lungs
B – Ringworm
(1)
C – Haemophilus influenzae. Alveoli of lungs
D – Contaminated food and water
A – Influenza virus. Alveoli of lungs
B – Ringworm
(2)
C – Streptococcus pneumoniae. Nose and respiratory passage
D – Culex mosquito
A – Rhinovirus. Nose and respiratory passage not lungs
B – Ascariasis
(3)
C – Haemophilus influenze. Lungs
D – Culex mosquito
A – Rhinovirus. Nose and respiratory passage not lungs
B – Ringworm
(4)
C – Haemophilus influenzae. Alveoli of lungs
D – Culex mosquito

14) The barriers in the innate immunity are given in the following. Identify a, b, c and d :-

Types of
Barrier
Barrier

Skin, gastrointestinal
A. a i.
and urogenital tracts

B. physiological ii. b, in the mouth

C. c iii. Interferon

D. cellular iv. d
(1) a-physiological barrier, b-saliva, c-cytokine barrier d-PMNL- basophill
(2) a-physiological barrier, b-saliva, c-Physiological, d-PMNL- neutrophills
(3) a-physical barrier, b-Tear, c-cytokine barrier, d-PMNL- Acidophil
(4) a-physical barrier, b-saliva, c-cytokine barrier, d-PMNL- neutrophills

15) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Sporozoite Gametocyte Salivary gland Liver

(2) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver Salivary gland

(3) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver Salivary gland

(4) Gametocyte Sporozoite Salivary gland Liver

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 1 3 4 1 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 2 1 1 4 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 3 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 1 4 3 3 2 2 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 1 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 1 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 2 4 1 1 2 2 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 3 4 3 4 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 3 4 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 2 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 4 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

59)

–Cl → +R or +M effect

67)

⇒ 10αH + 3αH
⇒ Total 13αH

77)

91) Stability of carbanion

93)

94) x = k t
x = 2 × 10–2 × 25
x = 0.5 M
a – x = 0.5
a – 0.5 = 0.5
a=1M
 96) r = K[A]2 [B]1
Volume is Halved
Conc, become double

97)

moles of O2 =

= = 0.9
moles of H2 = 2 × moles of O2
= 2 × 0.9 = 1.8
Total moles = 1.8 + 0.9 = 2.7
Total volume at STP = 2.7 × 22.4
= 60.48 L

BOTANY

102)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 70

106)

NCERT XII, Page # 72

107)

NCERT XII Pg. # 71

111)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71

115)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 73

123)

NCERT XII Pg. # 80

126)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 78

130) NCERT XII Pg. No.#75

 134)

NCERT XII Pg.# 83-84

137)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 75

138)

NCERT XII Pg.# 81

139)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 76-78

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 55

148)

NCERT Pg. 80 [E]

NCERT Pg. 80 [H]

149)

NCERT Pg#77

150) NCERT-XII, Pg # 71

ZOOLOGY

153)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 62, Para-1 (E)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 68, Para-3 (H)

154)

NCERT XII Pg. # 60/67(H)Para:4.2

155) NCERT XII Pg. # 63/70(H)Para:4.4

161)

NCERT Pg. # 53

169)

NCERT Pg. # 134, 135

 170)

NCERT Pg.# 148

172)

NCERT XII Pg. # 150

173)

NCERT XII Pg. # 147, 148

174)

NCERT XII, Pg.# 148

179) NCERT-XII Pg. # 146

183)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 149 (E) ; 160 (H)

187) NCERT XII Pg. 51, Fig 3.9 at Pg 50

190)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 146, para-2

191)

NCERT XII Pg. # 146

197)

NCERT Pg. # 151, Para-8.2