Contents

Subject category Chapters

Chemistry Matter in our surroundings

Chemistry Is matter around us pure?

Chemistry Atoms and molecules

Chemistry Structure of atom

Biology The fundamental unit of life

Biology Tissues

Biology Improvement in food resources

Physics Motion

Physics Force and laws of motion

Physics Gravitation

Physics Work and Energy

Physics Sound
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
CLASS-IX SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY

Chapter-1 Matter in Our Surroundings

Q-1. Which of the following are matter?
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold-drink, smell of perfume.

Q-2. Give reasons for the following observation:

The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several meters away, but to get the smell from
cold food you have to go close.

Q-3. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does
this observation show?

Q-4. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?

Q-5. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.

(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container,
shape, kinetic energy and density.

Q-6. Give reasons

(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we
need a karate expert.

Q-7. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of
state?

Q-8. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?

Q-9. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

Q-10. Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale.

(a) 25°C (b) 373°C.

Q-11. Give reason for the following observations.

(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.
Q-12. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

Q-13. What produces more severe bums, boiling water or steam?

Q-14. Give two reasons to justify

(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

Q-15. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

Q-16. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?

Q-17. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

Q-18. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases?

Q-19. Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale:

(a) 300 K (b) 573 K

Q-20. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed
that ice floats on water. Find out why.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
CLASS-IX SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY

Chapter-2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Q-1. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Q-2. How are sol, solution and suspension different from each other?

Q-3. To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at

293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Q-4. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their
boiling points is more than 25°C), which are miscible with each other?

Q-5. Name the technique to separate

(i) butter from curd,
(ii) salt from sea-water,
(iii) camphor from salt.

Q-6. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words, solution, solvent, solute,
dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.

Q-7. Explain the following giving examples:

(a) Saturated solution
(b) Pure substance
(c) Colloid
(d) Suspension

Q-8. How would, you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

Q-9. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
(a) Ice (b) Milk (c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid (e) Calcium oxide (f) Mercury
(g) Back (h) Wood (i) Air.

Q-10. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

(a) Soil (b) Sea water
(c) Air (d) Coal
(e) Soda water.
Q-11. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution (b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution (d) Starch solution.

Q-12. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

(a) Sodium (b) Soil (c) Sugar solution
(d) Silver (e) Calcium carbonate (f) Tin
(g) Silicon (h) Coal (i) Air
(j) Soap (k) Methane (l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood

Q-13. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant (b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand (d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food (f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.

Q-14. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. soda water,
wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.

Q-15. Mercury and Bromine are both

(a) liquid at room temperature
(b) solid at room temperature
(c) gases at room temperature
(d) both (a) and (b)

Q-16. Boron and carbon:

(a) are metalloids
(b) boron is metalloid and carbon is non-metal
(c) boron is metallic and carbon is a metal
(d) boron is non-metal and carbon are a metalloid

Q-17. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their
boiling points is more than 25oC), which are miscible with each other?

Q-18. What is a solution? What are the properties of the solution?

Q-19. Differentiate between elements and compounds.

Q-20. What is the Tyndall effect? Which kinds of solutions show it?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
CLASS-IX SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY

Chapter-3 Atoms and Molecules

Q-1. In a reaction 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products
were 2.2 g of carbon dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these
observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass carbonate.

Q-2. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of
mass?

Q-3. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?

Q-4. Define the atomic mass unit.

Q-5. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?

Q-6. Write down the formulae of

(i) Sodium oxide
(ii) Aluminium chloride
(iii) Sodium sulphide
(iv) Magnesium hydroxide

Q-7. What is meant by the term chemical formula?

Q-8. How many atoms are present in a

(i) H2S molecule and
(ii) P043- ion?

Q-9. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na 2O, K2C03, given atomic masses of Zn = 65
u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.

Q-10. If one mole of carbon atoms weigh 12 grams, what is the mass (in grams) of 1 atom of
carbon?
Q-11. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of iron (given
atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?

Q-12. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain
0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound
by weight.

Q-13. When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced.
What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of
oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?

Q-14. Write the chemical formulae of the following:

(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.

Q-15. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.

Q-16. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.

(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HNO3

Q-17. What is the mass of

(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2S03)?

Q-18. Convert into mole.

(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of Carbon dioxide.

Q-19. What is the mass of:

(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?
Q-20. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.

Q-21. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide. (Hint:
The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al =
27 u).
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
CLASS-IX SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY

Chapter-4 Structure of Atom

Q-1. What are canal rays?

Q-2. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.

Q-3. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which sub-atomic particle is present in
the nucleus of an atom?

Q-4. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Q-5. What do you think would be the observation if the a-particle scattering experiment is
carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?

Q-6. Name the three sub-atomic particles of an atom.

Q-7. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons
does it have?

Q-8. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Q-9. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons
in the atom?

Q-10. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Q-11. If number of electrons in an atom is 8 and number of protons is also 8, then

(i) What is the atomic number of the atom? and
(ii) What is the charge on the atom?

Q-12. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobar.
Q-13. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Q-14. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?

Q-15. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Q-16. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Q-17. Compare all the proposed Bohr’s models of an atom.

Q-18. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the
first eighteen elements.

Q-19. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Q-20. Explain with examples:

(i) Atomic number (ii) Mass number,
(iii) Isotopes and (iv) Isobars.
Give any two uses of isotopes.

Q-21. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Q-22. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under X – Y
Protons =6 6, Neutrons = 6 8. Give the mass number of X and Y. What is the relation between
the two species?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL,MEERUT

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY CLASS: IX

CHAPTER: THE
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF
LIFE

STUDENT NAME:

• MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of life?

a)Organelles c) Cells
b)Tissues d) Organ system

2. Which structure acts as a barrier between the cell and its surrounding ?
a). Cell wall c) Cell membrane

b)Cytoplasm. d) Nucleus

3. Structure that contains genetic material and controls cell activities –

a)Cell wall c) Cytoplasm
b)Nucleus d) Cell membrane

4. Gel- like substance present in the cell

a)Cytoplasm. c) Nucleus

b) Endoplasmic Reticulum d) Lysosome

5. Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis ?

a) Lysosome c) Endoplasmic Reticulum

b) Vacuole. d) Nucleus

6.A temporary mount of onion peel was observed under a microscope. Which

Of the following is the correct observation?

 a) A b) B c) C d) D

7.A cell will swell up if :

a) The concentration of the water molecules in the cell is higher than the
concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium.

b)The concentration of the water molecules in the surrounding medium is

higher than the concentration of water molecules in the cell.

c)The concentration of water molecules is same in both the cases.

d)The concentration of water molecules does not matter.

8.Since mitochondria in the cell is also used to synthesis energy , so it is also

called as -

a)Energy generator of the cell

b)Energy currency of the cell

c)Powerhouse of the cell

d)Kitchen of the cell

 9.Among the following which statement is incorrect?

a)Golgi apparatus is involved in the formation of lysosome

b)Nucleus , mitochondria and plastid have DNA , hence they are able to make
their own proteins

c)Cytoplasm is called as protoplasm

d)lysosomes are called as suicidal bags as they eat up their own cell.

10. Colourless plastids are called as :

a) chromoplasts c) leucoplasts

b) chloroplast. d) cytoplasm

11. ________ is called the energy currency of the cell

a) Endoplasmic reticulum. c) Oxygen

b) ATP. d)Mitochondria

12. ________ coined the term “cell.”

a) Gorbachev. c) Himmler

b) Robert Hooke. d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

13. Which of the following is not a function of the vacuole in plants?

a)They store toxic metabolic wastes

b)They help with the process of cell division

c)They help to maintain turgidity

d)They provide structural support

14.The process by which water moves through a semi-permeable membrane

from a region of high concentration to a region of lower concentration, thereby
equalizing water concentration is called:

a) Evaporation. c) Diffusion

b) Osmosis. d) All of the above

15. Which scientist proposed the cell theory?

a)Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann

b)Robert Hooke

c)Louis Pasteur.

d)Anton van Leeuwenhoek

16. Which type of cells lack a well-defined nucleus?

a) Prokaryotic cells. C) Eukaryotic cells

b) Plant cells. . d) Animal cells

• ASSERTION AND REASON
1.Assertion (A) : Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell theory .

Reason ( R) : His cell theory states that all plants and animals are
composed of cells.

2.Assertion (A): Prokaryotic cells are primitive and larger than eukaryotic
cells .

Reason ( R) : Prokaryotic cells lack cytoplasmic organelles

3.Assertion (A): Chromosomes are composed of DNA and protein

Reason (R) : They are thread like structures present in nucleus.

4.Assertion (A) : The presence of genetic material as nucleoid is the

characteristic feature of prokaryotes .

Reason (R) : The genetic material in these cells is not present in nucleus.

5.Assertion ( A) : Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is associated with synthesis

of proteins.

Reason (R) : Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum do not possess ribosomes.

6.Assertion (A) : Golgi bodies store, modify and pack products in vesicles.
Reason (R) : They are involved in the formation of lysosomes.

7.Assertion ( A) : Lysosomes are called as suicidal bags of cells.

 Reason ( R) : when the cells get damaged , lysosomes may burst and the
enzymes digest their own cell .

8.Assertion (A) : Chloroplast are called the ‘ kitchen of the cell ‘.

Reason ( R) : Chlorophyll pigment is present in chloroplast which helps in

photosynthesis.

9.Assertion ( A) : Leucoplasts are colourless plastids.

Reason ( R) : They play a role in photosynthesis.

10.Assertion ( A) : Vacuoles are known as storage sacs.

Reason ( R) : Vacuoles store amino acids, salts and minerals within the cell.

• SHORT QUESTIONS

1.What do you mean by unicellular and multicellular organisms?

2. Name the following:

• Controls the function of a cell.

• Selectively allows things to get in and out of the cell.
• Transfer characters from parents to offsprings.
3. Differentiate between
a) Cell wall and cell membrane
b) Leucoplast and chloroplast
4. What is nucleolus ?
5. State 4 differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
6. What is hypertonic and hypotonic solution?
7. What is endocytosis?
8. There would be no plant life if chloroplasts did not exist. Justify.
9. Explain mitosis and meiosis in brief.
10. Where are proteins synthesized inside a cell ?
11. What is isotonic solution?
12. What is active transport?
13. What is a nucleoid ? Is it found in eukaryotes also ?
14. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?
 15. Define diffusion and osmosis.
16. Which cell organelle controls the activities of the cell and how ?
17. What are the functional regions of a cell ?
18. Why are lysosomes known as suicidal bags of cells?
19. Which cell organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?
20. Define the different types of plastids found in plant cell.
21. What is a vacuole ? Explain its role in a cell .

LONG QUESTIONS

1. Differentiate between diffusion and osmosis.

2. What is cell division? Give the types of cell division.
3. What are the functions of a nucleus ?
4. State the major role of Golgi apparatus in a cell .
5. What is ER ? State its functions .
6. Which organelle is known as powerhouse of the cell and why ?
7. Draw a neat diagram of plant cell and label any three parts that
differentiate it from animal cell .
8. Draw a well labelled diagram of a Prokaryotic cell.
9. Do you agree ‘ cell is the building unit of an organism’. If yes,explain how?
10. Draw a table showing comparison between a plant cell and an animal cell.
• CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

Read the text carefully and answer the questions :

CASE-1

Plant cells, in addition to the plasma membrane, have another rigid outer
covering called the cell wall. The cell wall lies outside the plasma membrane.
The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. Cellulose is a complex
substance and provides structural strength to plants. When a living plant cell
loses water through osmosis there is shrinkage or contraction of the contents
of the cell away from the cell wall. This phenomenon is known as plasmolysis.

a) Which is the outermost covering of the plant cell ?

b) What are the main constituents of plasma membrane?
c) What is meant by plasmolysis ?
d) What is the reason behind structural strength of plant cell?

CASE -2

The Golgi apparatus, first described by Camilo Golgi, consists of a system of

membrane-bound vesicles (flattened sacs) arranged approximately parallel to
each other in stacks called cisterns. These membranes often have connections
with the membranes of ER and therefore constitute another portion of a
complex cellular membrane system. The material synthesized near the ER is
packaged and dispatched to various targets inside and outside the cell through
the Golgi apparatus. Its functions include the storage, modification and
packaging of products in vesicles. In some cases, complex sugars may be made
from simple sugars in the Golgi apparatus. The Golgi apparatus is also involved in
the formation of lysosomes.

a) Who discovered Golgi apparatus?

b) Enlist the functions of Golgi apparatus .
c) Name the cell organelle involved in formation of lysosomes.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL,MEERUT

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
CLASS: IX
CHAPTER: TISSUES

STUDENT NAME:

● MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a type of plant tissue?
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Meristematic tissue
C) Permanent tissue. D) Vascular tissue
2. The tissue responsible for providing support and mechanical strength to
plants is:
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Meristematic tissue
C) Connective tissue. D) Parenchyma tissue
3. Which of the following is not a type of animal tissue?
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Muscular tissue. D) Vascular tissue
4. Xylem and phloem are types of:
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Muscular tissue. D) Plant tissues
5. Cartilage is an example of which type of tissue?
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Connective tissue. D) Muscular tissue
6. The tissue responsible for transmitting electrical impulses in the human
body is:
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Muscular tissue. D) Connective tissue
7. The tissue responsible for covering the body surfaces and lining body
cavities is:
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Muscular tissue. D) Connective tissue
8. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of meristematic tissue?
A) Cells with large vacuoles.
B) Presence of intercellular spaces
C) Rapid cell division.
D) Highly specialized cells
9. Cartilage is an example of which type of tissue?
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Connective tissue. D) Muscular tissue
10. The tissue responsible for providing insulation and storing energy in animals
is:
A) Adipose tissue. B) Nervous tissue
C) Blood tissue. D) Muscle tissue
11. The distinguishing feature of sclerenchyma is:
A) living cells with thickened walls
B) living cells with thin walls
C) dead cells with thin walls
D) dead cells with thickened walls
12. What is the main function of collenchyma tissue?
A) Support. B) Nutrient storage
C) Conduction of water and nutrients
D) Photosynthesis
13. Girth of stem increases due to :
A) Apical meristem B) lateral meristem
C) Intercalary meristem D) Vertical meristem
● ASSERTION AND REASON
1. Assertion : Parenchyma cells help in storage of food.
Reason : Parenchyma cells are the main seats of photosynthesis.
2. Assertion : Permanent tissue is composed of mature cells.
Reason : Meristematic tissue is a group of actively dividing cells.
3. Assertion : Meristematic tissues constitute the major portion of the plant
body.
Reason : Meristematic tissues consist of differentiated cells.
4. Assertion : Lateral meristems add thickness of plants.
Reason : Lateral meristems divide only in one plane.
5. Assertion : Surface of skin is impervious to water.
Reason : Surface of skin is covered by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
6. Assertion : Apical meristem is present at shoot and root tips
Reason: It helps in longitudinal growth of plants
7. Assertion: A simple tissue is made up of only one type of cell.
Reason: Various simple tissue in plants are xylem and phloem.
8. Assertion: Epidermal cells aids in protection against loss of water and
mechanical injury.
Reason: They secrete waxy , water resistant layer on their outer surface.
9. Assertion: Xylem and phloem both are conducting tissue.
Reason: Conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of plants for survival in
the terrestrial environment.
10. Assertion: Blood is a fluid connective tissue .
Reason: It is a motile connecting tissue which connects all the tissues ,
organs with each other.
11. Assertion: Axon and dendrites are special feature of neurons.
Reason: They help in rapid conduction of nerve impulses
12. Assertion: Non – striated muscles are said to be involuntary in nature.
Reason: Non – striated muscles can be moved according to will.
13. Assertion: Areolar tissue supports internal organs and helps in tissue repair.
Reason: Areolar tissue is widely distributed tissue in body of adults.
● SHORT QUESTIONS
1. Differentiate between meristematic and permanent tissue.
2. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they
different from one another ?
3. Write short note on blood.
4. What are involuntary muscles ? Where are they found ?
5. Name the different components of xylem and draw its diagram
6. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary muscles. Give one
example of each .
7. How are messages conveyed from one place to another within the body ?
8. Describe the functions of permanent tissues in brief.
 9. Which are the types of muscles found in human body?
10. State two differences between areolar and adipose tissue.
● LONG QUESTIONS
1. Describe the different types of epithelial tissue.
2. What is a permanent tissue ? Classify permanent tissues and describe
them in detail.
3. What is a neuron ? Write the structure and functions of a neuron .
4. Describe briefly striated and smooth muscles with their functions.
5. Write a note on complex tissues.
6. Describe the types of connective tissue along with their functions.
● CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
Read the text carefully and answer the following questions:
● CASE-1
A few layers of cells beneath the epidermis are generally simple permanent
tissue. Parenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue. It consists
of relatively unspecialized cells with thin cell walls. They are living
cells. Collenchyma allows bending of various parts of the plant-like tendrils
and stems of climbers without breaking. Sclerenchyma tissue makes the
plant hard and stiff. We have seen the husk of a coconut. It is made of
sclerenchymatous tissue. They are long and narrow as the walls are
thickened due to lignin. The tissue is present in stems, around vascular
bundles, in the veins of leaves and in the hard covering of seeds and nuts.

1. The flexibility in plants is due to

a)Collenchyma. b)parenchyma
c) chlorenchyma d) aerenchyma
2. Function of aerenchyma:
a)It performs photosynthesis
b) It helps the aquatic plant to float
c) It provides mechanical support
 d) none of these
3. Which of the following tissues has dead cells?
a)Parenchyma. b)Sclerenchyma
c) Collenchyma d) Epithelial tissue
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
I. Parenchyma tissues have intercellular spaces.
II. Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
III. Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.

(I) and (II). (I) and (III)

(II) and (I). Only (III)
5.Which of the following is the function of the tissue which is shown in
the below diagram?

a)Transpiration b) Provides mechanical support

c) Provides strength to the plant parts
d) None of these
● CASE -2
The covering or protective tissues in the animal body are epithelial tissues.
Epithelium covers most organs and cavities within the body. External and
Internal covering of the body and organs are all made of epithelial tissue.
Simple squamous epithelial cells are extremely thin and flat and form a
delicate lining. The oesophagus and the lining of the mouth are also covered
with squamous epithelium. The skin, which protects the body, is also made of
squamous epithelium.
Cuboidal epithelium (with cube-shaped cells) forms the lining of kidney
tubules and ducts of salivary glands, where it provides mechanical support.
Epithelial cells often acquire additional specialisation as gland cells, which
can secrete substances at the epithelial surface. Sometimes a portion of the
epithelial tissue folds inward, and a multicellular gland is formed. This is
glandular epithelium.
1. The ciliated columnar epithelium is present in -
2. External and Internal covering of the body and organs are all made of
________
3. How are cells arranged in epithelial tissue?
4. Enlist the types of epithelial tissue.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL,MEERUT

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY

CHAPTER: IMPROVEMENT CLASS: IX

IN FOOD RESOURCES

STUDENT NAME:

● MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.Which one is not a source of carbohydrates?

a) Rice. b)Millets. c)Sorghum d) Grass

2.Find out the correct statement:

a) Hybridization means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants

b) Cross between two varieties is called as inter- specific hybridization.

c) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives same crop

d) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter varietal hybridization.

3.Weeds affect the crop plants by :

a) Killing of plants in field before they grow.
b) Dominating the plants to grow.
c) Competing for various resources of crops plants causing low availability of nutrients
d) All of the above
4. Find out the correct statement about manure :
i) Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and small quantities of nutrients
ii) It increases water holding capacity of sandy soil
iii) It helps in draining excess water from clayey aoil.
. Its excessive use pollutes environment because it is made up of animal excretory waste
a)(i) and (iii)
b)(i) and (ii)
c)(ii) and ( iii)
d)(iii) and (iv)
5.Cattle husbandry is not done for :

a) Meat production b) Agricultural work c)Milk productin d)Egg production

6. Poultry farming is done for:

a) Egg production b)Feather production c)Milk production d)Agricultural work

6. Vermi- composting is done with the help of –

a)Birds b)Earthworm c)Snail. d)-Frog

7.Using fertilizers in farming is an example of-

a) No cost production b)Low cost production

c)High cost production d) None of these

8.Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of-

a)Micro- nutrients b)Macro – nutrients c)Fertilizer d)None of these

9.Cyperinus and Parthenium are types of-

a)Diseases b)Pesticides c)Weeds. d) Pathogens

10. Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of-

a)Marine fishes. b) Fresh water fishes. c) Finned fishes. d) Shell fish

11.. What is the other name for Apis cerana indica?

a)Indian cow b) Indian buffalow. c)Indian bee. d) Both a and b

12. The management and production of fish is called-

a) Pisciculture. b)Apiculture. C) Sericulture d) Aquaculture

13.Rohu and catla are types of-

a)Fresh water fish. b)Marine water fish. c) Both a and b. d) None of these

15.Pasturage is related to-

a) Cattle. b)Fishery. c)Apiculture d) Sericulture

16. What is the process of growing two or more crops in a definite pattern?
 a) Crop rotation b) Inter – cropping. c) Mixed cropping d)Organic cropping

17. Leghorn is related to-

a) Apiculture b)Dairy farming. c)Pisciculture. d) Poultry

● ASSERTION AND REASON
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given,
and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements,
given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
1. Assertion: Inter cropping prevents pests.
Reason: Plant pests can be controlled biologically by their natural parasites and pathogens.
2. Assertion: A pulse crop grown in a time interval between two cereal crops
Reason: To compensate for the loss of nitrogen
3. Assertion: Some weeds produce substances toxic for the crops.
Reason: Weeds take up nutrients and reduce the growth of crops.
4.Assertion: Nitrogen is a micronutrient.
Reason: Micronutrients are nutrients required in small quantity
5.Assertion: Manures improve soil conditions.
Reason: In manures, elements are not present in adequate proportions.
6.Assertion: Vaccinations are given to farm animals.
Reason: Vaccinations protect the farm animals from a number of diseases caused
due to virus and bacteria
7.Assertion: Fisheries are important place in Indian economy.
Reason: Fisheries provide income and employment to millions of farmers and
fishermen particularly in coastal states.
8.Assertion: Legumes increases the soil fertility.
Reason: Microbes in the root nodules of leguminous plants fix atmospheric nitrogen.
9.Assertion: Presence of weeds affects the crop field.
Reason: Weeds compete for food, space and light.
10.Assertion: Crop rotation is the practice of growing two or more varieties of
crops in the same region in sequential seasons.
Reason: Cauliflower and chilli plants grown together in alternating rows are examples
 of crop rotation.
11.Assertion: Layers are given more of vitamin A and K.
Reason: Layers are raised for eggs.
12. Assertion: Wheat is a Rabi crop
Reason : wheat is completely grown in the month of June to October
13. Assertion: Fertilizers and manure enhance crop production
Reason: They increase the nutrients which enhance crop production
14. Assertion: Manure helps in enhancing soil nutrition
Reason: Manure is made up of inorganic matter and is a vital factor for soil erosion
15. Assertion: Cleaning, Sanitation and spraying are very important process for poultry farm
Reason: Broiler chickens are our primary energy source of body.
16. Assertion: Removal of weeds from cultivated fields during early stages of crop
growth is important for good harvest
Reason : weeds are very harmful for crop growth

● SHORT QUESTIONS

1.Which food items primarily supply proteins?

2.Name any two fodder crops

3.What is the duration of kharif season?

4.Name two rabi crops.

5.Name the three stages in which farming practices are divided.

6.What is the name given to crops obtained by introducing a gene that provides

the desired characteristic?

7.What is the main benefit of mixed cropping?

8.Name any two factors for which crop variety improvement is done.

9.Name two foreign cattle breeds that are selected for long lactation periods.

10.Name one exotic breed of cattle.

11.Why should beekeeping be done in good pasturage?

12.What happens due to deficiency of nutrients?

13.How is culture of Pomphret and Mackeral different from that of Catla and Rohu?

14.How is the use of manure beneficial for our environment?

15.Why is excess use of fertilizers detrimental for the environment?

16.Differentiate between compost and vermicompost

17.List out some useful traits in improved crop?

18.Why should pesticides be used judiciously?

19.What are pathogens? Name any two plant diseases caused by pathogens.

20.Which factors should be taken into consideration for fish culture?

21.What are the advantages of beekeeping?

22.Why is animal husbandry essential?

● LONG QUESTIONS

1.What is mixed farming ? Enumerate the advantages of mixed farming

2.(a) Give any three preventive measures for pest control.

(b) What preventive and control measures are used before grains are stored for future ?

3. Why is crop variety improvement important in cultivation? Describe the important

factors for which variety improvement is done.
4. What are weeds? Enlist the methods employed to control weeds.
5. Differentiate between fertilizers and manure.
6.How is intercropping different from mixed cropping?
7.Group the following and tabulate them as energy yielding, protein yielding,
oil yielding and fodder crop.Wheat, rice, berseem, maize, gram, oat, pigeon gram,
sudan grass, lentil, soyabean, groundnut, castor and mustard.
8.What is pasturage, and how is it related to honey production?
9.Which management practices are standard in dairy and poultry farming?
10.How do farmers benefit from good animal husbandry practices?
11.What do you understand about the composite fish culture? Describe its advantages
and disadvantages.
● CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
 ● CASE-1

The Green Revolution in India began in the 1960s with the introduction of high-
yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds, especially for wheat and rice. These seeds,
combined with increased use of fertilizers, pesticides, and improved irrigation
methods, led to a significant increase in crop production. While the Green
Revolution helped India achieve food security, it also had several environmental and
social impacts. The overuse of chemical fertilizers and pesticides led to soil
degradation and water pollution, while small farmers often could not afford the
new technologies and were left behind.

1.What were the primary goals of the Green Revolution in India?

2.Identify two major crops that were the focus of the Green Revolution.

3.Discuss one positive and one negative impact of the Green Revolution on the
environment.

4.How did the Green Revolution affect small-scale farmers?

5.Suggest an alternative approach to improving crop yield that could mitigate some
of the negative effects of the Green Revolution.

● CASE-2

Organic farming is a method of farming that relies on natural substances and processes
to grow crops. It avoids the use of synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, and genetically
modified organisms (GMOs). Instead, organic farming practices include using compost,
green manure, crop rotation, and biological pest control. For example, an organic farmer
might use compost to enrich the soil and plant cover crops to prevent soil erosion and
improve fertility. This method not only produces healthy and nutritious food but also
promotes biodiversity and sustainability.

1.Define organic farming and its key principles.

2.Explain how the use of compost benefits soil health in organic farming.

3.Why is crop rotation an important practice in organic farming?

4.What are the environmental benefits of organic farming?

5. Identify and discuss one major challenge faced by organic farmers.

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
Question Bank Class IX, 2024-25
Sub: Physics
Ch- Motion

Multiple choice questions –

Q-1. What does the rate of motion refer to?

a) Change in position
b) Change in speed
c) Change in direction
d) Change in time

Q-2. A stone tied to a thread and whirled in a circular path is an example of

a) Circular motion
b) Uniform circular motion
c) Linear motion
d) Oscillatory motion

Q-3. Which is not the correct equation of motion?

a) S=ut +1/2 at^2

b) V^2-u^2=2as
c) v = u – at
d) v – u = at

Q-4. The area under a velocity-time graph gives __________.

a) distance
b) speed
c) acceleration
d) displacement

Q-5. The S.I. unit of acceleration is:

a) ms-2
b) ms
c) ms2
d) m
Assertion Reasoning based questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a

corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given
below, mark the correct answer as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q-1. Assertion : An object may acquire acceleration even if it is moving at a constant

speed.

Reason : With change in the direction of motion, an object can acquire acceleration

Q-2. Assertion : During a journey from the earth to the moon and back, maximum fuel is
spent to overcome the earth’s gravity at take off.

Reason : Earth’s mass is much greater than that of the moon.

Q-3. Assertion : the speedometer of a car measures the instantaneous speed of the car.

Reason : Average speed is equal to the total distance covered by an object divided by the
total time taken.

Q-4. Assertion : When the displacement of a body is directly proportional to the square of
the time. Then the body is moving with uniform acceleration.

Reason : The slope of velocity-time graph with time axis gives acceleration.

Q-5. Assertion: A body can have an acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given
instant of time.

Reason: A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.

Short Answer questions –

Q-1. What is essential to describe the position of an object?

Q-2. Can a body have constant speed but variable velocity? Give an example.

Q-3. Differentiate between uniform and non-uniform motion. Give examples.

Q-4. Represent a distance-time graph for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object.

Q-5. Aryan went from Delhi to Chandigarh on his bike. The bike’s odometer reads 4200 km
at the start and 4460 km at the end of the trip. If Aryan took 4 hours and 20 min to
complete his journey, find the average speed and velocity in km/h and m/s.

Q-6. A bus travels at a speed of 90 km/h. Brakes are applied to produce a uniform
acceleration of -0.5 m/s 2. Please find out how far the train will go before it come to rest.

Q-7. The walls of your classroom are in motion but appear stationary. Explain.

Q-8. The speedometer readings of a car are shown below. Find the acceleration of the car
and its displacement.

Time Speedometer

9:25 am. 36km/hr

9:45 am. 72 km/h

Q-8. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km h-1. Brakes are applied so as to produce a

uniform acceleration of 0.5 m s-2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to
rest.

Q-9. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes
30 seconds and then turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute.
What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging (a) from A to B and (b) from A
to C?

Long Answer questions –

Q-1. Prove that S=ut+1/2at2 graphically.

Q-2. Can displacement be zero? If yes, give two examples of such situations.

Q-3. Derive mathematically the equation of motion.

Q-4. Velocity-time graph for the motion of an object in a straight path is a straight line
parallel to the time axis.

(a) Identify the nature of motion of the body.

(b) Find the acceleration of the body.

(c) Draw the shape of distance-time graph for this type of motion.

Q-5. (a) Define uniform acceleration. What is the acceleration of a body moving with
uniform velocity?

(b) A particle moves over three quarters of a circle of radius r. What is the
magnitude of its displacement?

Q-6. (a) Differentiate between speed and velocity.

(b) When is a body said to have uniform velocity?

(c) How can we describe the position of an object?

Illustrate with suitable example.

Q-7. A car is moving on a straight road with uniform acceleration. The following table gives
the

Speed of the car at various instants of time:

Time: 0. 10. 20. 30. 40. 50. (Seconds)

Speed: 5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30. (m/s)

Draw the speed time graph choosing a convenient scale. Determine from it (i) the

Acceleration of the car (ii) the distance travelled by the car in 50 sec.

Case study based questions –

Q-1. ) Distance and displacement are two quantities that seem to mean the same but are
different with different meanings and definitions. Distance is the measure of “how much
distance an object has covered during its motion” while displacement refers to the
measure of “how far is the object actually from initial place.” Using this data answer the
following questions.
a)Kapil travels 20 km North but then comes back to South for 40 km to pick up a friend.
What is kapil’s total distance?

b) Rahul travels 20 km East but then comes back to West for 10 km. Find displacement.

c)Define distance and displacement of a particle.

Q-2. One day Rahul decided to go his office by his car. He is enjoying the driving along
with listening the old songs. His car is moving along a straight road at a steady speed. On a
particular moment, he notices that the car travels 150 m in 5 seconds.

a) What is its average speed?

b) Hwo far does it travel in 1 second?
c) How far does it travel in 5 second?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
Question Bank Class IX, 2024-25
Sub: Physics
Ch- Force and Laws of Motion

Multiple choice questions –

Q-1. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to

a)Mass of the body

b)Velocity of the body

c)Net force applied on the body

d)None of these

Q-2. A football and a stone has same mass

a)Both have same inertia

b)Both have same momentum

c)Both have different inertia

d)Both have different momentum

Q-3. The speed of a car weighing 1500 kg increases from 36 km/h to 72 km/h uniformly.
What will be the change in momentum of the car?

a)15000 kg km/h

b) 15000 kg m/s

c)54000 kg m/s

d)54000 g m/s

Q-4. The unit of measuring the momentum of a moving body is:

a)m/s

b)kg.m/s

c)kg.m/s2

d)N m2/kg2

Q-5. The inertia of a moving object depends on:

a)Mass of the object

b) Momentum of the object

c)Speed of the object

d) Shape of the object

Q-6. Newton’s second law of motion defines

a) Inertia
b) Force
c) Gives measure of force
d) None of the above

Assertion Reasoning based questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a

corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given
below, mark the correct answer as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q-1. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is
zero.

Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.

Q-2. Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision,
even when the initial and the final velocities are identical.

Reason : Because the rate of change of momentum which determines the force is greater
in the first case.

Q-3. Assertion : Newton’s third law applies to all types of forces. E.g. gravitational,
electric or magnetic forces etc.
Reason : Newton’s third law of motion is applicable only when bodies are in motion

Q-4. Assertion : When we sit on a chair, our body exerts a force downward and that chair
needs to exert an equal force upward or the chair will collapse.

Reason : The third law says that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Q-5. Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in linear motion.

Reason : Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or
motion.

Short Answer questions –

Q-1. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it. Explain.

Q-2. State Newton’s second law of motion.

Q-3. On a certain planet, a small stone tossed up at 15ms−1 Vertically upwards takes 7.5s
to return to the ground. What is the acceleration due to gravity on the planet?

Q-4. Why does the passenger sitting in a moving bus are pushed in the forward direction
when the bus stops suddenly?

Q-5. Explain why some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake
its branch.

Q-6. If action is always equal to the reaction, explain how a horse can pull a cart.

Q-7. Give two examples each of inertia of motion and inertia of rest.

Q-8. Which has more inertia:

• rubber ball and a rock of the same size?

• bicycle and a train

• a five rupee coin and a one rupee coin?

Q-9. Why is it recommended to tie down luggage carried on the roof of a bus with a rope?

Q-10. A motor vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. How large must the force between the car
and the road be for the car to stop with a negative acceleration of 1.7 ms-2?

Q-11. When a motorcar makes a sharp turn at a high speed, we tend to get thrown to one
side. Explain why?

Q-12. How does a karate player breaks a slab of ice with a single blow?
Long Answer questions –

Q-1. How are Newton’s three laws of motion related?

Q-2. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels
a distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if its mass is
7 tonnes (Hint : 1 tonne = 1000 kg).

Q-3. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track.
If the engine exerts a force of 40000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N,
then calculate:

(a) the net accelerating force;

(b) the acceleration of the train; and

© the force of wagon 1 on wagon 2.

Q-4. A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at 10 ms–1 is struck, by a hockey stick so as to
return it along its original path with a velocity at 5 ms–1. Calculate the change of
momentum occurred in the motion of the hockey ball by the force applied by the hockey
stick.

Q-5. Give three examples exhibiting inertia in our daily life with explanation.

Case study based questions –

Q-1. Akhtar, Kiran and Rahul were riding in a motorcar that was moving with a high
velocity on an expressway when an insect hit the windshield and got stuck on the
windscreen. Akhtar and Kiran started pondering over the situation. Kiran, suggested that
the insect suffered a greater change in momentum as compared to the change in
momentum of the motorcar (because the change in the velocity of insect was much more
than that of the motorcar). Akhtar said that since the motorcar was moving with a larger
velocity, it exerted a larger force on the insect. And as a result the insect died. Rahul
while putting on entirely new explanation said that both the motorcar and the insect
experienced the same force and a change in their momentum. Comment on these
suggestions.

Q-2. Newton’s first law of motion states that a body at rest will remain at rest position
only and a body which is in motion continues to be in motion unless otherwise they are
acted upon by an external force. In other words, all objects resist a changein their state
of motion. In a qualitative way, the tendency of undisturbed objects to stayat rest or to
keep moving with the same velocity is called inertia. This is why, the firstlaw of motion is
also known as the law of inertia. Answer the following questions.

A) The first law of motion is also known as_____&

B) If no external force acts on object which is at rest. It will______
C) If no external force acts on moving object. It will_____
D) State Newton’s first law of motion.
E) Why Newton’s first law of motion is called law of inertia?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
Question Bank Class IX, 2024-25
Sub: Physics
Ch- Gravitation (Part-1 and 2)

Multiple choice questions –

Q-1. What is the gravitational force between two objects? a) attractive at large
distances only

b) attractive at small distances only

c) attractive at all distances

d) attractive at large distances but repulsive at small distances

Q-2. The distance between two bodies becomes 6 times more than the usual distance. The
Force becomes

a)36 times

b)6 times

c) 12 times

d) 1/36 times

Q-3. Newton’s law of gravitation applies to

a) Small bodies only

b) Plants only

c) All bodies irrespective of their size

d)For solar system

Q-4. The value of ‘g’

a) Increases as we go above the earth’s surface

b) Decreases as we go to the centre of the earth

c) Remains constant

d) Is more at equator and less at pole

Q-5. Thrust per unit area is

a) Density
b) Buoyancy
c) Pressure
d) None of the above

Q-6. Which type of school bag strap is suitable for children

a) School bag has wide strap made if thick Canvas strap

b) School bag with wide straps
c) School bag strap made of thin strap
d) None of the above

Q-7. One SI Unit of thrust is equal to ________ CGS Unit of it?

a) 10^5
b) 10
c) 10^5
d) 10^7

Q-8. The upthrust that acts on a body placed in a liquid is due to _____.

a) The volume of the displaced liquid

b)The volume of the body floating above the liquid

c)The volume of body inside the liquid

d)Both a and c

Q-9. Pressure applied at any point of the liquid is transmitted equally and distributed in all
directions is given by ______.

a)Newton’s law
b)Pascal’s law
c)Archimedes’ principle
d)Universal law of gravitation
Q-10. The SI unit of weight is

a) Newton
b) Kilogram
c) Metre
d) Joule
Q-11. According to Archimedes’ principle when a body is submerged in a liquid, its apparent
weight

a)decreases

b)increases

c)remains unchanged

d)may increase or decrease depending upon the material of the body

Assertion Reasoning based questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a

corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given
below, mark the correct answer as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q-1. Assertion : Universal gravitational constant G is a scalar quantity.

Reason : The value of G is same through out the universe.

Q-2. Assertion : If we drop a stone and a sheet of paper from a balcony of first floor,
then stone will reach the ground first.

Reason : The resistance due to air depends on velocity only.

Q-3. Assertion : It is the gravitational force exerted by the sun and the moon on the sea
water that causes to the formation of tides in the sea.

Reason : Gravitational force of attraction is a strong force.

Q-4. Assertion : An object floats if it displaces an amount of liquid whose weight is

greater than the actual weight of the object.

Reason : During floatation an object experiences no net force in the downward direction.
Q-5. Assertion-An object when thrown upward reaches a certain height and float upward.

Reason-Due to gravitational energy an any object get float upward in the sky.

Q-6. Assertion-An object when thrown upward reaches a certain height and falls
downward.

Reason-Object which thrown upward get float on the sky.

Q-7. Assertion: - The SI unit of weight is Newton.

Reason: - Weight is the force of gravity with which a body is attracted towards the earth.

Short Answer questions –

Q-1. Explain buoyancy with an example.

Q-2. State the difference between the mass of an object and its weight?

Q-3. If the mass of a body is 9.8 kg on the earth, what would be its mass on the moon?

Q-4. The earth is acted upon by gravitation of sun, even though it does not fall into the
sun. Explain.

Q-5. Suppose gravity of earth suddenly becomes zero, then in which direction will the
moon begin to move if no other celestial body affects.

Q-6. Why does a truck or a motor-bus has much wider tyres?

Q-7. Relative density of steel is 7.8. What is the density?

Q-8. Describe thrust and write its SI unit. Name one factor on which the effect of thrust
depend.

Q-9. An egg sinks in fresh water but floats in highly salty water.

Q-10. State Archimedes’ principle. What does it signify?

Long Answer questions –

Q-1. A solid weighs 80g in air and 64g in water. Calculate the relative density of solid.

Q-2. Find the value of ‘g’, acceleration due to gravity.

Q-3. Show that the weight of the body on moon =1/6 of the weight of the body in earth.
Q-4. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object
on its surface?

Q-5. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?

Q-6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate

(i) The maximum height to which it rises,

(ii) The total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.

Q-7. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time
another stone is projected vetically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s.
Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.

Case study based questions –

Q-1.We know that the earth attracts every object with a certain force and this force
depends on the mass (m) of the object and the acceleration due to the gravity (g). The
weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards the earth.
Mathematically W = m x g

Where, W= weight of object M= mass of object

g= acceleration due to the gravitational force

As the weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards the earth, the
SI unit of weight is the same as that of force, that is, Newton (N). The weight is a force
acting vertically downwards; it has both magnitude and direction. We have learnt that the
value of g is constant at a given place. Therefore at a given place, the weight of an object
is directly proportional to the mass, say m, of the object, that is, W αm. It is due to this
reason that at a given place, we can use the weight of an object as a measure of its mass.
Answer the following questions.

1) Unit if acceleration due to gravity is___&

2) Which of the following has same unit

(a) Mass and weight

(b) Weight and force
(c)Velocity and acceleration
(d) None of these
3) Whether weight is scalar quantity or vector quantity? Justify your
answer.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
Question Bank Class IX, 2024-25
Sub: Physics
Ch- Work and Energy

Multiple choice questions –

Q-1. The spring will have maximum potential energy when

(a) it is pulled out (b) it is compressed

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

Q-2. A students caries a bag weighing 5 kg from the ground floor to his class on the first
floor that is 2 m high. The work done by the boy is

(a) 1J (b) 10 J (c) 100 J (d) 1000 J

Q-3. The gravitational potential energy of an object is due to

(a) its mass

(b) its acceleration due to gravity

(c)Its height above the earths surface

(d) all of the above.

Q-4. If the velocity of a body is doubled its kinetic energy

(a) gets doubled (b) becomes half

(c) does not change (d) becomes 4 times

Q-5. Which one is not the unit of energy?

(a) Joule.
(b) Kilowatt hour
(c) Newton -metre
(d) Kilowatt

Q-6. When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy

(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) First increases and then decreases
(d) Remains constant
Q-7. The form of energy possessed by a flying bird is

(a) Kinetic energy

(b) Potential energy
(c) Kinetic and potential energy
(d) Can’t say

Assertion Reasoning based questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a

corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given
below, mark the correct answer as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q-1. Assertion : Work done by or against gravitational force in moving a body from one
point to another is independent of the actual path followed between the two points.

Reason : Gravitational forces are conservative forces.

Q-2. Assertion : The kinetic energy, with any reference, must be positive.

Reason : In the expression for kinetic energy, the velocity appears with power 2 and mass
is a scalar quantity.

Q-3. Assertion : A light body and heavy body have same momentum. Then they also have
same kinetic energy.

Reason : Kinetic energy depends on mass of the body.

Q-4. Assertion : When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is negative.

Reason : Work done depends on angle between force and displacement.

Q-5. Assertion : According to law of conservation of mechanical energy, change in

potential energy is equal and opposite to the change in kinetic energy.

Reason : Mechanical energy is not a conserved quantity.

Short Answer questions –

Q-1. State the law of conservation of energy.

Q-2. How much work is done in ploughing a 15 m long field when a pair of bullocks applies a
force of 140 N on the plough?

Q-3. Calculate the work done by the force that changes the velocity of a moving body
from 5 ms-1 to 2 ms-1. The body has a mass of 20 kg.

Q-4. The potential energy of an object decreases gradually in a free fall. How does this
violate the law of conservation of energy?

Q-5. Write some differences between kinetic and potential energy.

Q-6. Write down the expressions for with their notations.

Potential energy of an object, Kinetic energy of an object

Q-7. The law of conservation of energy is explained by discussing the energy changes that
occur when we move the pendulum laterally and swing it. Why does the pendulum eventually
stop? What happens to the energy and does it violate energy conservation law?

Q-8. Define 1 J of work.

Q-9. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.

Q-10. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its
potential energy. If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half-way
down.

Long Answer questions –

Q-1. Derive the formula for potential energy.

Q-2. Derive the formula for kinetic energy.

Q-3. State and explain one example where kinetic energy is present in a body and is used.

Q-4. A car weighing 1800 kg is moving at a speed of 30 m/s when braking. If the average
braking force is 6000 N, it is determined that the vehicle has traveled to a standstill
distance. What is the distance at which it becomes stable?

Q-5. How much work is done to stop a car of weight 1500 kg moving with a velocity 60
km/h?
Q-6. A stone is thrown with a velocity of 40 m/s in upward direction.

The potential and kinetic energy of that stone will be equal at what height?

If the stone’s mass is 10 kg, what will be its potential energy?

Q-7. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its
potential energy. If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half-way
down.

Q-8. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which
occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it oscillates. Why does the bob
eventually come to rest? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation of the law
of conservation of energy?

Case study based questions –

Q-1. Take a look at the steps below. Based on your understanding of the word “work”,
prove whether the work will proceed.

• Suma swims in the pond.

• The donkey carries a heavy load.

•The windmill draws water from the well.

•Green plants perform photosynthesis.

•The trains are pulled by engines.

•Drying food grains in the sun.

•Sailing boats are powered by wind.

Q-2. Lift an object through a certain height. The object can now do work. It begins to fall
when released. This implies that it has acquired some energy. If raised to a greater height
it can do more work and hence possesses more energy. From where did it get the energy?
In the above situations, the energy gets stored due to the work done on the object. The
energy transferred to an object is stored as potential energy if it is not used to cause a
change in the velocity or speed of the object.An object increases its energy when raised
through a height. This is because work is done on it against gravity while it is being raised.
The energy present in such an object is the gravitational potential energy.The
gravitational potential energy of an oject at a point above the ground is defined as the
work done in raising it from the ground by height h
To that point against gravity.Let the work done on the object against gravity beW. That is,
Work done, W = force × displacement= mg × h

potential energy (PE)= mg*h.

A) Energy possessed by body due to its position is called____&

B) Find the energy possessed by an object of mass 5kg when it is at a height of
10 m above the ground. Given, g = 9.8 m/s2.
C) SI unit of potential energy is ______.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, MEERUT
Question Bank Class IX, 2024-25
Sub: Physics
Ch- Sound

Multiple choice questions –

Q-1. The upper frequency limit of the audible range of human hearing is about

a) 20 kHz
b) 2000 Hz
c) 2 kHz
d) 2,000,000 Hz

Q-2. You can not talk to each other on the moon because

a) atmosphere is not present, that is, there is vacuum

b) you would not feel like talking
c) compressions and rarefactions can only travel on earth’s surface
d) gravity is 1/6th that on the earth

Q-3. Sound can travel through

a) gases only
b) vacuum only
c) gases and liquids only
d) solids, liquids and gases.

Q-4 What do dolphins, bats and porpoise use

a) Ultrasound
b) Infrasound
c) Both a and b
d) None of them

Q-5. Which characteristic is this? We can distinguish between sound having same pitch
and loudness.

a) Tone
b) Pitch
c) Note
d) Timbre
Q-6. Loud sound can travel a larger distance, due to

a) Higher amplitude
b) Higher energy
c) High frequency
d) High speed

Q-7. A wave in slinky travelled two and fro in 5 sec the length of the slinky is 5m. What
is the velocity of wave?

a) 10m/s
b) 5m/s
c) 2m/s
d) 25m/s

Q-8. A mechanical wave can propagat

a) Through a gas
b) Without a material medium
c) Through a liquid
d) Both (a) and (c)

Assertion Reasoning based questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a

corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given
below, mark the correct answer as:

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Q.1- Assertion : Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each other.

Reason : There is no atmosphere on moon

Q-2. Assertion : Sound is a form of energy which produces a sensation of hearing in our
ears.
Reason : When you clap, a sound is produced.

Q-3. Assertion : The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a
medium

Reason : Sound moves through a medium from the point of generation to the listener.

Q-4.Assertion : Echo is the repetition of sound due to reflection of original sound by a

large and hard obstacle.

Reason : To hear a distinct echo, the time interval between the original sound and the
reflected one must be atleast 0.1 sec.

Q-5. Assertion : Audible sound lies in the range of 20 to 200 Hz.

Reason : Infrasonic sound or Infra-sound has frequency less than 20 Hz.

Short Answer questions –

Q-1. What is SONAR?

Q-2. Define wave-motion.

Q-3. Give two applications of echo.

Q-4. What is one Hz?

Q-5. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical
wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed
of sound in air as.

Q-6. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.

Q-7. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

Q-8. What is the loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?

Q-9. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Long Answer questions –

Q-1. Explain the working and application of a sonar.

Q-2. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is
440 m/s in a given medium.
Q-3. Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.

Q-4. How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?

Q-5. Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.

Case study based questions –

Q-1. The individual particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of
propagation of the disturbance. The particles do not move from one place to another but
they simply oscillate back and forth about their position of rest.This is exactly how a
sound wave propagates; hence sound waves are longitudinal waves.There is also another
type of wave, called a transverse wave. In a transverse wave particles do not oscillate
along the direction of wave propagation but oscillate up and down about their mean position
as the wave travels.Thus, a transverse wave is the one in which the individual particles of
the medium move about their mean positions in a direction perpendicular to the direction
of wave propagation.

A) Light is a ______ wave .

B) Sound is a ______ wave.
C) When stone is dropped in water; waves are generated of which
types?
D) Differentiate between longitudinal wave and transverse waves.