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PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211209 - : Learning Centre

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207 views56 pages

PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211209 - : Learning Centre

Uploaded by

Rasheed Khan

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PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.1)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The revolution of the Earth around the Sun, combined with the tilt of the Earth's axis, leads to several
important phenomena.
Statement 1 and 2 is correct. The Earth's revolution around the Sun is one of the primary causes of the
variation in seasons and in length of day and night along with it Tilt. The revolution of earth is the
orbital motion of our planet as it travels around the Sun in an elliptical path. This continuous journey
takes approximately 365.25 days to complete, defining the length of a year. The revolution of earth is
the fundamental reason for the changing seasons, as it results in variations in the angle and intensity
of sunlight reaching different parts of the globe. As the Earth moves along its orbit, the tilt of its axis
causes different regions to receive varying intensities and durations of sunlight. This cyclical change
in sunlight distribution across the planet as the Earth completes its revolution leads to seasonal
variations.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The planetary wind system is primarily a result of the Earth's rotation, not
its revolution. The Coriolis effect, caused by the Earth's rotation, influences global wind patterns.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Day and night occur because of the Earth's rotation on its axis, not its
revolution. As the Earth rotates, different parts of the planet face the Sun, causing day, while the parts
facing away from the Sun experience night.
Source:) G. C. Leong Chapter The Earth and the Universe
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic)

Q.2)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
The concepts of time zones, the Prime Meridian, and the International Date Line (IDL) are essential for
coordinating global time. These concepts help define the divisions of time across different regions and
play a critical role in international travel, commerce, and communication.
Statement 1 is correct. Time zones are established to divide the Earth into regions where a consistent
local time is maintained. Each time zone corresponds to a region where local times are adjusted in
relation to the global standard, GMT. For example, India follows IST (Indian Standard Time), which is 5
hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT. Time zones help align local time with the position of the Sun in the
sky, ensuring uniformity in daily activities.
Statement 2 is correct. GMT, located at the Prime Meridian (0° longitude), passing through Greenwich,
London, is the global reference point for time. All time zones are defined by their difference (in hours and
minutes) from GMT. This reference system allows for a standardized global timekeeping structure,
ensuring that every region's time is compared against a common reference.
Statement 3 is correct. The Earth's 360 degrees of longitude are divided into 24 time zones, each
spanning 15 degrees. This division is based on the Earth's rotation, where the planet completes one full
rotation (360 degrees) in 24 hours. Therefore, each 15-degree longitudinal segment corresponds to one
hour of time difference.
Statement 4 is correct. The Prime Meridian at 0° longitude and the International Date Line (IDL)
(roughly 180° longitude) together divide the Earth into Eastern and Western Hemispheres. The Prime
Meridian serves as the reference for time zones, while the IDL helps adjust calendar dates when crossed.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
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[1]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Traveling west across the IDL adds a day, while traveling east subtracts a day, maintaining global time and
date consistency.
Source:) G. C. Leong Chapter the Earth and the Universe
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.3)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Stars undergo different stages in their life cycles, depending on their mass. These stages produce distinct
stellar objects.
Pair 1 is correct. A Red Giant is a stage in the evolution of a star that occurs when it has exhausted the
hydrogen in its core. Once the hydrogen is depleted, the core contracts, and the outer layers expand and
cool, giving the star a red appearance. This phase is common for stars with masses similar to or slightly
larger than the Sun.
Pair 2 is correct. A White Dwarf is the final evolutionary stage of a low to medium-mass star, like the
Sun. After such a star has gone through the Red Giant phase and shed its outer layers, what remains is a
dense core, which is the White Dwarf. It no longer undergoes nuclear fusion, meaning it has burned out
most of its nuclear fuel. This remnant is extremely dense, often having a mass similar to the Sun's but
compressed into a size comparable to Earth. Additionally, a White Dwarf no longer has an atmosphere, as
it has lost its outer gaseous layers.
Pair 3 is correct. A Neutron Star forms from the collapse of the core of a massive star after a supernova
explosion. If the original star's mass is greater than 8 times the Sun's, but not large enough to form a black
hole, it will compress into a Neutron Star. These are incredibly dense objects, primarily composed of
neutrons.
Source:) [Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Metamorphic Rocks are formed by the process by which recrystallisation and
reorganisation of minerals occur within an original rock. This occurs due to pressure, volume and
temperature changes. When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten
magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks, metamorphosis occurs.
Statement 2 is correct: Causes of Metamorphism among rocks are:
1) Orogenic (Mountain Building) Movements: Such movements often take place with an interplay of
folding, warping and high temperatures. These processes give existing rocks a new appearance.
2) Lava Inflow: The molten magmatic material inside the earth’s crust brings the surrounding rocks under
the influence of intense temperature pressure and causes changes in them.
3) Geodynamic Forces: The omnipresent geodynamic forces such as plate tectonics also play an
important role in metamorphism.

[2]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 3 is correct: The change of form or re-crystallisation of minerals of sedimentary and igneous
rocks under the influence of high temperatures is known as thermal metamorphism. As a result of
thermal metamorphism, sandstone changes into quartzite and limestone into marble.
The conversion of granite into gneiss is due to the process of Dynamic metamorphism i.e., under high
pressure.
Source:) G C Leong Chapter 2 The Earth’s Crust
NCERT 11th Geography Chapter 5, Minerals and Rocks Pg no 43
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently a Hyderabad-based start-up HYLENR demonstrated how cold fusion technology can be used to
generate Clean Energy. This innovation has received a patent from the Centre for its Low Energy Nuclear
Reactor Technology.
Low Energy Nuclear Reactor Technology often refers to what is popularly known as "Cold Fusion" or
Low Energy Nuclear Reactions (LENR). Cold fusion promises to generate nuclear reactions at or near
room temperature without the high-energy inputs required for traditional nuclear fusion (which occurs
at extremely high temperatures, like in the Sun).
Statement 1 is correct. LENR or cold fusion proposes nuclear reactions at low energy levels, typically
without involving highly radioactive materials such as uranium or plutonium. In contrast to traditional
nuclear reactors, which rely on radioactive isotopes and produce significant radioactive waste, LENR aims
to induce nuclear reactions between non-radioactive elements like hydrogen, palladium and nickel.
Statement 2 is correct. A key claim of LENR technology is that it can generate more energy (in the form
of heat) than the amount of energy initially input. This idea is based on the principle that a successful
nuclear reaction can release vast amounts of energy compared to the energy required to trigger it. Early
experiments and ongoing research in LENR suggest that certain materials, when treated in specific ways,
can produce an excess of heat.
Source:) [Link]
technology-to-generate-clean-energy/[Link]
[Link]
low-energy-nuclear-reactor/articleshow/[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Low Energy Nuclear Reactor Technoloy
Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Perihelion and Aphelion phenomena are important components of Earth’s orbit around the Sun. Due
to the elliptical nature of Earth’s orbit, the distance between Earth and the Sun changes throughout
the year, which leads to these phenomena.
Statement 1 is correct. Perihelion is the point in Earth's elliptical orbit where it is closest to the Sun. This
happens because Earth’s orbit is not a perfect circle but an ellipse. Perihelion usually occurs around
January 3rd, at which time the Earth is approximately 147 million kilometers from the Sun.

[3]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 2 is correct. Aphelion is the point in Earth’s orbit where it is farthest from the Sun. This
usually occurs around July 4th, at which point the Earth is about 152 million kilometers away from the
Sun.
Source:) G. C. Leong Chapter the Earth and the Universe
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.7)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Earthquakes are sudden, violent shaking of the Earth’s surface caused by the movement of tectonic
plates. They can cause significant damage to buildings, infrastructure, and lives.
Statement 1 is correct: The Richter scale was developed by Charles F. Richter in 1935 and is designed
to measure the magnitude of an earthquake. Magnitude refers to the amount of energy released by an
earthquake at its source (epicenter).

The Mercalli Intensity Scale measures the intensity of an earthquake, which refers to the effects and
damage caused by the earthquake at different locations on the Earth's surface.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Richter scale is a Logarithmic scale means an earthquake of magnitude 3
is 10 times more severe than an earthquake of magnitude 2. The scale ranges from 0 to 10, theoretically,
and it could go beyond. Though the most massive, recorded earthquake has been under 10.
The Mercalli is a linear scale. It categorizes the effects of earthquake from I to XII, with I indicating
earthquake "not felt" and XII signifying "total destruction" due to the earthquake.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 (interior of earth)
G C Leong Chapter 3(Volcanism and Earthquakes)
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.8)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
P waves (Primary waves) are the fastest seismic waves, traveling through solids, liquids, and gases.
They compress and expand the material they move through. S waves (Secondary waves) are slower and
only travel through solids, causing the ground to move perpendicular to their direction.
Statement 1 is correct: The shadow zone is defined as an area on the Earth's surface where seismic
stations do not detect P-waves (Primary waves) or S-waves (Secondary waves) from a distant
earthquake. This is due to the way seismic waves interact with the different layers of the Earth,
particularly the core, which alters the path of these waves.

[4]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 2 is correct: The shadow zone of one earthquake differs from the shadow zone of another
because earthquakes occur in different locations on different tectonic plates. This results in variations
in how seismic waves travel through the Earth's layers and interact with its internal structures. The S-
waves, which cannot pass through the liquid core, and P-waves, which get bent or refracted, create
unique shadow zones based on the specific location and path of the waves.
Statement 3 is correct: The S-wave shadow zone is significantly larger because S-waves are blocked
entirely by the liquid outer core, while P-waves are only refracted. This results in a shadow zone for S-
waves that covers over 40% of the Earth's surface, making it much larger than the P-wave shadow zone.

Source:) Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 (interior of earth)

G C Leong Chapter 3(Volcanism and Earthquakes)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Volcanoes are openings in the Earth’s crust where magma, ash, and gases escape from below the
surface. They form at tectonic plate boundaries and hotspots. Eruptions can be explosive or effusive,
shaping landscapes and affecting climate.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Shield volcanoes are characterized by their broad and gently sloping
profiles, formed from repeated lava flows of low-viscosity basaltic lava. The lava spreads out in wide,
thin layers, giving the volcano a shield-like shape. An example of this type of volcano is Mauna Loa in
Hawaii.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Composite volcanoes, also known as stratovolcanoes, are formed by
alternating layers of hardened lava flows, volcanic ash, and other volcanic debris. These volcanoes tend
to have steep, symmetrical sides and are often highly explosive due to the viscosity of their magma.
Examples include Mount Fuji in Japan and Mount St. Helens in the U.S.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Cinder cone volcanoes are indeed characterized by steep slopes and are
built from pyroclastic fragments like cinders and volcanic ash. They have a small crater at the summit
and exhibit a more explosive type of eruption. These debris piles build up around the volcanic vent,
creating a cone-shaped structure. Cinder cone volcanoes are usually short-lived and much smaller in size
compared to other types of volcanoes. An example is Paricutin in Mexico.
Source:) Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 (interior of earth)
G C Leong Chapter 3(Volcanism and Earthquakes)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

[5]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Mars Odyssey is a part of NASA's Mars exploration program. It was launched in
2001. Its primary objective was to search for signs of water and ice on Mars, as well as study the planet's
geology and radiation environment. The orbiter’s instruments, such as the Gamma Ray Spectrometer
(GRS), were designed to detect hydrogen, an indicator of water ice beneath the surface of Mars.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mars Odyssey mission was not a joint mission with the Japanese Space
Agency (JAXA). It was a NASA-only mission, developed and operated solely by the United States' space
agency. There was no involvement from Japan in this particular mission.
Statement 3 is correct: Scientists recently used the orbiter’s camera to take a stunning new image of
Olympus Mons, the tallest volcano in the solar system. Olympus Mons has a base that sprawls across
373 miles (600 kilometers), the shield volcano rises to a height of 17 miles (27 kilometers).
Source:) [Link]
volcano-in-solar-system-3089185
[Link]
orbits/
[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Mars Odyssey Mission
Subtopic:)

Q.11)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: Acidic lava (high viscosity) forms steep-sided domes. This is due to its high
viscosity, which means it is thicker and does not flow easily. When it erupts, it tends to pile up near the
vent, creating steep-sided cones or domes. Examples include lava domes and stratovolcanoes.
Basic lava (low viscosity) forms broad, gently sloping shields. This lava is much more fluid, allowing it to
travel long distances before solidifying. This results in the formation of broad, gently sloping shields.

[6]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement-II is correct: Acidic lava has high viscosity because it is more silica-rich. High viscosity
means the lava is thick and sticky, leading to a tendency to pile up around the vent rather than spreading
out. This results in the formation of steep-sided domes or cones.
Basic lava has low viscosity because it contains less silica. It flows more easily and travels farther from
the vent before solidifying.
Statement-II explains Statement-I: The high viscosity of acidic lava results in the steep, steep-sided
domes because this type of lava does not flow far and builds up quickly around the vent.
Conversely, the low viscosity of basic lava allows it to spread over greater distances before cooling,
resulting in the broad, gently sloping shields.
Source:) Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 (interior of earth)
G C Leong Chapter 3(Volcanism and Earthquakes)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: A geyser erupts intermittently, often with a powerful explosion of steam and
hot water due to the buildup of pressure. In contrast, a hot spring continuously releases geothermal
water gently without such explosive activity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both geysers and hot springs can contain dissolved minerals, including those
with medicinal properties. The presence of these minerals depends on the geothermal conditions and
the mineral content of the groundwater, not the type of geothermal feature.
Statement 3 is correct: Geysers are rare and found in only five countries: the US, Russia, Chile, New
Zealand, and Iceland. In contrast, hot springs are more widespread and are commonly located in areas
with active volcanoes.
Source:) fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 (interior of earth)
G C Leong Chapter 3(Volcanism and Earthquakes)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Lithification refers to the process through which unconsolidated sediments are transformed into
sedimentary rocks. This transformation involves key processes such as burial, compaction, and
cementation. During lithification, sandstones are cemented, limestones undergo recrystallization, and
shales are compacted, leading to a reduction in the rock's original porosity.
Burial: The prolonged deposition of sediments exerts immense pressure on the lower layers of the basin
floor, resulting in subsidence. Depending on the tectonic setting and basin structure, this can lead to the
burial of sediments to depths of hundreds or even thousands of meters.
Compaction: Compaction occurs when sediments are deeply buried, subjecting them to increasing
pressure from the overlying layers. This pressure causes the sediment grains to be pressed together more
tightly, reducing pore spaces.

[7]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Cementation: Cementation is the process in which new minerals precipitate from groundwater, binding
sediment grains together. Common cementing minerals include calcite and silica, which solidify the
sediment into rock.

Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphic Processes
Subtopic:)

Q.14)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Mountain relief features are recognizable for their high altitudes and their slopes, some steeper than
others. Generally, we distinguish two types of fold mountains, according to their age – Old fold
mountains and young fold mountains.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fold mountains are often associated with continental crust. They are created at
convergent plate boundaries (not at divergent plate boundaries) sometimes called continental collision
zones or compression zones. Convergent plate boundaries are sites of collisions, where tectonic plates
crash into each other. Compression describes a set of stresses directed at one point in a rock or rock
formation. The Himalayan Mountain Range is the most active example of continental convergent (not
divergent) plate boundaries. India and Asia crashed about 55 million years ago, slowly giving rise to the
Himalayas, the highest mountain system on Earth. Here, the Indian and Eurasian plates are currently in
collision. This tectonic collision led to the formation of the youngest fold mountains i.e., the
Himalayas.
Statement 2 is incorrect: young fold mountains are undergoing both the processes of formation and
erosion simultaneously but the rate of formation is greater than erosion. This is the reason for their
increase in height.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Old fold mountains have rounded peaks and slopes made gentler by hundreds
of millions of years of erosion. Young fold mountains have steep slopes and high-pointed peaks.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphology: The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[8]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Pair 1 is correct: The Apatani, or Tanw, also known by Apa and Apa Tani, are a tribal group of people
living in the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh in India. They are known for
their unique agricultural practices and social organization. They have two major festivals – Dree and
Myoko.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Maram tribe does not primarily reside in Sikkim. The Marams are a Naga ethnic
group, inhabiting Senapati district of Manipur state. The Maram people are Well known for their rich
cultural heritage, the Maram folk songs and tales speak of a glorious past. The two major festivals of the
Marams are Punghi (celebrated around July) and Kanghi (around December).
Pair 3 is correct: The Konyak tribe is one of the largest and most well-known Naga tribes, residing
mainly in Nagaland. The Konyaks are famous for their history as warriors and their distinctive facial
[Link] the past the Konyaks were head hunters, now they are agriculturist.
Pair 4 is correct: The Mara tribe is primarily found in Mizoram. They are concentrated in the Saiha
district of south Mizoram and also have their own autonomous district council called the Mara
Autonomous District Council (MADC). The maras also celebrate four major festivals- Ladawdai or Pazita
“Festival of happiness”, Awrao Ku “Festival for the dead”, Khohna Kuh Chycha, Pakhupi O Dopa bu.
Source:) [Link]
new-species-of-horned-frog/[Link]
[Link]
arunachal-pradesh
[Link]
[Link]
runachal%20Pradesh%20in%20India.
[Link]
[Link]
events/konyak-warrior-nagaland
[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Indian Tribes and Associated States
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Alfred Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory proposed in 1912 suggested that continents were once part of
a supercontinent called Pangaea and have since drifted apart. His theory was supported by various
geological and fossil evidence, which are discussed below:
Statement 1 is correct: The Jigsaw Fit of the shorelines of Africa and South America -
Wegener cited the remarkable fit of the coastlines of South America and Africa as evidence of
continental drift. He observed that the east coast of South America and the west coast of Africa seem to
fit together like pieces of a puzzle. This provided visible proof that the two continents were once
connected and had drifted apart over time.
Statement 2 is correct: Tillite deposits found in various regions of the Gondwana system -Wegener used
tillite deposits, which are sedimentary rocks formed by ancient glaciers, as evidence to support the
existence of Gondwanaland. The presence of these deposits in regions such as India, South Africa,
Antarctica, and Australia indicated that these landmasses were once connected and located closer to the
South Pole, forming part of a larger supercontinent in the past.

[9]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 3 is correct: The presence of gold deposits along the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins in
Brazil - The gold deposits along the Ghana coast and their similarities with gold-bearing veins in Brazil
might seem to support the theory of continental drift as a geological correlation between South America
and Africa.
Statement 4 is correct: The discovery of Mesosaurus fossils in both the Southern Cape of South Africa
and Brazil -The Mesosaurus, a freshwater reptile, provided strong fossil evidence for Wegener’s theory.
Fossils of this reptile were found in both South Africa and Brazil, but nowhere else in the world. Since
the Mesosaurus could not have swum across the Atlantic, this distribution suggested that these
continents were once connected.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 4 DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS
AND CONTINENTS
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: The Nazca Plate is a tectonic plate located in the eastern Pacific Ocean, bordered by
South America to the east and the Pacific Plate to the west. It plays a crucial role in subduction processes,
influencing seismic activity in the region.
Pair 2 is correct: The Cocos Plate is a tectonic plate located off the western coast of Central America,
bordered by the Pacific Plate to the west. Its subduction beneath the North American Plate contributes to
significant seismic activity and volcanic formations in the region.
Pair 3 is correct: The Philippine Plate is a tectonic plate located in the western Pacific Ocean,
bordered by the Asiatic Plate to the north and the Pacific Plate to the east. Its complex interactions
contribute to significant seismic activity and volcanic eruptions in the region.
Pair 4 is correct: The Caroline Plate is a minor tectonic plate located in the western Pacific Ocean,
positioned between the Philippine Plate to the west and the Indian Plate to the south. It features
complex boundaries, including subduction zones and transform faults, influencing geological activity in
the region, particularly around New Guinea.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 (Chapter 4 DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS
AND CONTINENTS)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.18)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Earth’s magnetic reversals occur due to changes in the outer core’s molten iron flow, causing the poles to
switch roughly every 300,000 years. Despite reversals, Earth's magnetic protection remains intact.
Statement I is correct: The Earth's magnetic field has reversed many times throughout its history,
with 183 reversals in the last 83 million years. These reversals occur over thousands of years and don’t
lead to catastrophic changes, as geological and fossil records show no major extinctions or global
disruptions during these events..

[10]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement II is incorrect: Geomagnetic reversals result from changes in the flow of molten iron within
Earth's outer core, which disturb the geodynamo process responsible for generating the planet’s
magnetic field. While solar winds can affect Earth's magnetosphere and cause geomagnetic storms, they
do not trigger geomagnetic reversals. Reversals are an internal process linked to core dynamics, not
external solar influences.
Source:) [Link]
magnetic-field-arent-causing-todays-climate-change/
Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 (Chapter 4 DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTINENTS)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Geomorphic processes are natural mechanisms that shape the Earth’s surface, forming landforms like
mountains, valleys, and plains. These processes are driven by internal forces (endogenic) such as
tectonic activity, and external forces (exogenic) like weathering, erosion, and deposition. They
continuously modify the landscape over time.
Option 1 is incorrect: Volcanism is an endogenic geomorphic process that involves the movement of
molten rock (magma) from the Earth's interior to the surface. This movement results in volcanic
eruptions and the formation of volcanic landforms, such as volcanoes and lava plateaus. The driving
forces behind volcanism include internal energy sources like radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction,
and primordial heat. These internal processes are responsible for the creation of volcanic features and
are not classified as exogenic because they originate from within the Earth.
Option 2 is incorrect: Diastrophism is an endogenic geomorphic process involving the deformation of
the Earth's crust due to tectonic forces. It includes phenomena such as folding, faulting, and the
movements associated with plate tectonics. These processes are driven by internal forces like geothermal
gradients and tectonic pressures. Diastrophism affects the Earth's crust on a large scale, leading to the
formation of mountain ranges, earthquakes, and other structural changes in the Earth's crust.
Option 3 is correct: Weathering is an exogenic geomorphic process that involves the breakdown and
alteration of rocks and minerals at the Earth's surface due to external factors. These factors include
atmospheric agents such as temperature fluctuations, water, and chemical reactions with air and
moisture. Weathering can be physical, chemical, or biological and occurs in situ, meaning that it happens
without the movement of the material. It is driven by external climatic and environmental conditions,
making it an exogenic process.
Option 4 is correct: Mass wasting, also known as mass movement, is an exogenic geomorphic process
characterized by the downslope movement of soil, rock, and debris due to gravity. This process
includes landslides, rockfalls, and soil creep. It is influenced by surface conditions and gravitational
forces, which cause material to move from higher to lower elevations.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 6
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphic Processes
Subtopic:)

[11]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.20)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently it was announced that International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) completion
is delayed by another decade due to cost overruns, Covid, corrosion of key parts, last-minute redesigns
and confrontations with nuclear safety officials triggered delays.
The ITER is a major international project aimed at demonstrating the feasibility of nuclear fusion as a
large-scale, carbon-free energy source. Nuclear fusion is the process of combining two light atomic
nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a tremendous amount of energy in the process — this is the
same reaction that powers the Sun and other stars. It is an international collaboration involving 35
countries, including the European Union, China, Russia, the United States, Japan, South Korea, India, and
the United Kingdom.
Source:) [Link]
fusion-dead-why-the-international-experimental-reactor-is-in-big-trouble
[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER)
Subtopic:)

Q.21)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Orogenic and epeirogenic processes are two distinct types of movements that shape Earth's crust.
Understanding their differences is critical in geomorphology, as they explain various landforms,
particularly mountains and plateaus.
Statement 1 is correct: Orogenic processes are primarily linked to mountain building and occur due to
the collision of tectonic plates. These processes involve intense folding, faulting, and volcanic activity.
The formation of mountain ranges such as the Himalayas and the Alps is a result of orogenic activities,
which are usually concentrated in relatively narrow, linear belts along plate boundaries. This statement is
correct as it accurately describes the nature of orogenic processes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Epeirogenic processes are related to the vertical movement of large sections
of the Earth's crust, leading to the uplift or subsidence of continental masses without significant
deformation, unlike orogenic processes. These movements typically create plateaus and basins. This
statement is incorrect because horizontal movements of crustal plates are associated with tectonic
activities like orogeny, while epeirogeny involves vertical motions.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 6
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphology: The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
An Estuary is a semi enclosed coastal body of water with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it.
Features of estuaries are:
Statement 1 is incorrect - Estuarine environments are among the most productive on earth, creating
more organic matter each year than comparably-sized areas of forest, grassland or agricultural land. The

[12]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

sheltered waters of estuaries also support unique communities of plants and animals specially adapted for
life at the margin of the sea. Thousands of species of birds, mammals, fish and other wildlife depend on
estuarine habitats as places to live, feed and reproduce. And many marine organisms, including most
commercially-important species of fish, depend on estuaries at some point during their development.
Statement 2 is correct - An estuary is a partially enclosed body of water along the coast where
freshwater from rivers and streams meets and mixes with salt water from the ocean. Estuaries and the
lands surrounding them are places of transition from land to sea and freshwater to salt water.
Source:) NCERT – Class XI – Oceans
[Link]
estuaries#:~:text=An%20estuary%20is%20a%20partially,transition%20from%20land%20to%20sea.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms and Their Evolution
Subtopic:)

Q.23)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: In dry climates, characterized by low rainfall and high evaporation rates,
the soil experiences significant moisture loss from the surface. As water evaporates, it draws up
dissolved salts and minerals from the deeper soil layers through capillary action. These minerals and salts
accumulate at the surface, forming hard, cemented layers known as kankar. This process results in a hard,
often crusty layer on the soil surface that can affect agricultural productivity and soil structure.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: In regions with wet and rainy climates, there is frequent and intense
precipitation that leads to a process known as leaching. During leaching, water percolates through the
soil, carrying away essential nutrients such as calcium, potassium, and silica. This results in a soil profile
that is low in nutrients and often leads to poor soil fertility. This phenomenon is particularly pronounced
in tropical regions where rainfall is abundant and frequent.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Cold climates, such as those found in polar and subarctic regions,
experience low temperatures that result in reduced bacterial and microbial activity. This reduced
biological activity slows down the decomposition of organic matter, such as dead plants and animals. As a
result, organic matter accumulates in the soil, forming a rich layer of humus. This humus is crucial for soil
fertility, even though the decomposition process is slow.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 6
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Ozone (O3) is a reactive gas that exists in two layers of the atmosphere: the stratosphere (upper layer)
and the troposphere (at ground level and up to 15km). It is both a natural and a man-made
(anthropogenic) product that occurs in the Earth's upper atmosphere (the stratosphere) and lower
atmosphere (the troposphere). Depending on where it is in the atmosphere, ozone affects life on Earth in
either good or bad ways.
Statement 1 is correct: Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the interaction of solar
ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O2). Tropospheric or ground-level ozone – what we

[13]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

breathe – is formed primarily from photochemical reactions between two major classes of air pollutants,
volatile organic compounds (VOC) and nitrogen oxides (NOx).
Statement 2 is correct: Ozone (O3) is a highly reactive gas composed of three oxygen atoms. Chemically
Ozone in both stratosphere and troposphere are same (O3). However, the formation processes are
completely different. In both the cases, the atmosphere has to produce nascent Oxygen, a highly reactive
species, which can react with molecular oxygen (O=O). In stratosphere, the high energy UV rays can
photolyze (O=O) to form [O], which can combine with another (O=O) to form O3, whereas in troposphere,
the source of [O] is from the photolytic dissociation of NO2. The NO2 needs much less energy that can be
available in troposphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The easiest way to distinguish between stratospheric ozone and tropospheric
ozone is by looking at the difference in the ozone concentrations in each atmospheric layer.
Stratospheric ozone concentration is very high, whereas tropospheric ozone concentration is low.
Ozone layer is a region of Earth’s stratosphere containing a high concentration of ozone compared to
ozone content in other parts of the atmosphere. Typically, the ozone layer consists of an average of 0.3
ppm ozone gas. About 90% of the total ozone concentration in the atmosphere of Earth occurs in the
stratospheric layer.
Statement 4 is correct: Stratospheric ozone is found in the altitude range between approximately 10-50
km above the sea level (depending on geomagnetic latitude: equatorial, mid-latitude, and high latitude
region). This atmospheric region shields us from the detrimental impact of solar UV radiation. On the
other hand, tropospheric ozone is nothing but air pollutant. They are found from ground level to about
10 km above the sea level. This type of ozone is concentrated in metropolitan areas as smog.
Source:) The Ozone Problem | Ground-level Ozone | New England | US EPA
Tropospheric ozone | Climate & Clean Air Coalition ([Link])
What is Ozone? | US EPA
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.25)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Aditya L1 mission is India's first dedicated solar mission, launched by the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) to study the Sun. Recently the mission has completed its halo orbit around the Sun-
Earth L1 point.
Statement 1 is correct: The Aditya L1 mission is a solar observatory mission that will be placed at the
Lagrangian point 1 (L1), which is about 1.5 million kilometers from Earth. Lagrange point L1 is a position in
space where the gravitational forces of the Earth and the Sun, along with the orbital motion of a
satellite, balance each other, allowing the satellite to remain in a stable position relative to the Sun and
Earth. Placing Aditya L1 at this point enables continuous observation of the Sun without any
obstructions (like Earth's shadow).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Aditya L1 is not placed in Low Earth Orbit (LEO). LEO refers to orbits that are
relatively close to Earth. Rather it is placed in Halo orbit.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the primary objectives of the Aditya L1 mission is to study the solar
corona and chromosphere, which are the outermost layers of the Sun. The mission aims to understand
the dynamics of the solar corona, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and solar flares, which have a
significant impact on space weather and can affect satellite communications, GPS, and power grids on
Earth.

[14]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Source:) [Link]
completes-first-halo-orbit-around-sun-earth-l1-point-3542028/
[Link]
[Link]#:~:text=The%20Aditya%2DL1%20mission%20is,Low%20Earth%20Orbit%20(LEO)%3A
[Link]
ditya%2DL1%20mission%20is,orbit%20on%20January%206%2C%202024.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Aditya L1 Mission
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Erosion is the process by which the Earth's surface is worn away by the action of water, wind, ice, and
gravity. The rate of erosion is influenced by factors such as climate, topography, vegetation, and human
activities.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Erosion is not the breaking up of rocks but rather the process of wearing
away and transporting material through agents like water, wind, and ice. Weathering, on the other
hand, refers to the breaking up of rocks on the Earth's surface. Deposition occurs when eroded materials
are carried and eventually settle due to a decrease in the velocity of erosional agents like water, wind etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Gravity acts as a driving force for both erosion and deposition by activating all
downslope movements of materials, such as landslides and mass wasting. It creates gradients, enabling
the movement of water, ice, and wind, which erode surfaces, transport materials, and ultimately deposit
them when these forces lose energy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The erosion and deposition of sea waves create various coastal landforms.
Erosion forms sea caves, which later develop into sea arches as the roof of the caves remains. Eventually,
further erosion collapses the roof, leaving behind stacks. Deposition of sediments along the shores forms
beaches.
Knowledge Base: Both erosion and deposition have long-term impact on soil fertility. Sediments eroded
from plateaus may be deposited in lowlands, creating fertile plains.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 6
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphic Processes
Subtopic:)

Q.27)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Erosional landforms are shaped by the removal of surface material through processes like running water,
wind, and glaciers. Examples include gorges, valleys, canyons, and waterfalls. Depositional landforms,
on the other hand, are created by the accumulation of sediments, forming features like deltas, alluvial
fans, sand dunes, and estuaries.
Option 1 is incorrect: Alluvial Fans
Alluvial fans are depositional landforms, not erosional. They form when rivers lose velocity as they
descend from mountains onto flatter terrain, depositing sediment in a fan-shaped formation.
Option 2 is correct: Gorges

[15]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Gorges are deep valleys formed through the erosion of river water cutting through hard rock over long
periods, carving narrow and steep-sided landforms.
Option 3 is correct: Plunge Pools
Plunge pools are created by the erosive power of waterfalls. As water falls from a height, it erodes the
rock at the base, forming a deep pool.
Option 4 is incorrect: Estuaries
Estuaries are depositional landforms, formed where rivers meet the sea, depositing sediment as the flow
slows down. They are not formed by erosion.
Option 5 is correct: Waterfalls
Waterfalls are erosional landforms created when river water erodes softer rock beneath harder rock
layers, leading to vertical drops.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Running Water
Subtopic:)

Q.28)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Karst topography is mainly formed through the process of carbonation, where
carbon dioxide in water forms a weak acid (carbonic acid) that dissolves limestone and other soluble
rocks. This chemical weathering process leads to the formation of typical karst landforms.
Statement 2 is correct. Karst regions are defined by unique features like sinkholes, caves, and
underground drainage systems, all formed through the dissolution of soluble rocks like limestone and
dolomite. These features result from the collapse or hollowing out of rock layers due to water infiltration.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution
Additional Readings: [Link]
[Link]
ST_topography.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Groundwater
Subtopic:)

Q.29)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Corrasion refers to the mechanical breakdown of rocks as particles like sand or
pebbles scrape against rock surfaces, usually in rivers or coastal areas or by winds.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Corrosion involves the chemical breakdown of rocks, typically through processes like
solution, where acids or other chemicals dissolve minerals in the rock. This is common in areas with
limestone, leading to karst landscapes. It is not a mechanical process, as described in the pair.
Pair 3 is correct: Attrition occurs when rocks collide with each other, breaking into smaller, smoother
pieces. This process is typical in rivers and coastal environments, where pebbles and rocks are carried by
water, hitting each other and gradually wearing down.
Source:) G C LEONG CHAPTER 5 LANDFORMS MADE BY RUNNING WATER
NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 7 Landforms and their Evolution

[16]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

[Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Running Water
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Monoclonal antibodies have recently been in the news concerning Nipah virus outbreaks, as
experimental treatments. In the case of viral infections like Nipah, monoclonal antibodies are designed to
specifically target viral antigens, neutralizing the virus and preventing it from infecting human cells.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Monoclonal antibodies are not naturally occurring proteins in the human
body. They are artificially produced proteins in laboratories to mimic the natural immune response.
While the human immune system does naturally produce antibodies (which are proteins), monoclonal
antibodies are specifically engineered versions of these antibodies. These are made from a single clone of
immune cells, meaning they are identical and target a specific antigen (such as a virus, bacteria, or
cancer cell).
Statement 2 is correct Monoclonal antibodies can be engineered to attach drugs, toxins, or radioactive
materials directly to cancer cells or other disease-causing cells in the body. By binding specifically to the
antigen present on the surface of cancer cells, monoclonal antibodies help deliver the attached
therapeutic agents (such as chemotherapy drugs or radioactive substances) directly to the affected cells.
Source:) [Link]
india-in-2025/[Link]
[Link]
specifications/norms-and-standards/monoclonal-antibodies
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Monoclonal Antibodies
Subtopic:)

Q.31)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct statement
Deltas are depositional landforms that occur at the mouth of rivers where they meet a body of
standing water like ocean, sea or lake. They are typically formed when the river deposits Sediments as
it flows into the standing water, creating a fan shaped pattern of land.
Statement 1 is correct: Deltas form when a river’s velocity decreases as it enters a larger, static body of
water like a sea or lake. This loss of energy causes sediments to settle out of the water.
Statement 2 is correct: A river must carry an abundant sediment load for a delta to form. The sediment
builds up at the river’s mouth, creating deltaic features.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Strong tidal currents typically redistribute sediments and may inhibit delta
formation rather than promoting it. Deltas generally form in areas with weaker tidal actions.
Statement 4 is incorrect: A gentle gradient is more conducive to delta formation, as a steep gradient
would cause the river to flow too quickly, preventing sediment deposition.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution
Subject:) Geography Topic) Landforms: Running Water
Subtopic:)

[17]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: Tectonic lakes are formed in depressions caused by the warping, sagging,
bending, and fracturing of the Earth's crust. These depressions result in lakes of significant size and
depth.
Statement 2 is correct: The Caspian Sea, spanning 143,550 square miles, is the largest tectonic lake in
the world. Other examples of tectonic lakes include Lake Superior in the United States and Lake Titicaca
in the Andes.
Source:) G C LEONG CHAPTER 9 LAKES
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Lakes
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Rainfall in the deserts is an occasional event. But torrential downpour with thunderstorm can bring
several inches of rainfall in a short time period.
Statement I is correct: Playas are shallow, temporary lakes found in desert basins, where drainage flows
toward the centre. Water in playas is highly saline due to the high rate of evaporation often leaving
behind significant salt deposits at the floor of the desert plain. The salt-covered surface of a playa is
referred to as alkali flats.
Statement II is correct: Playas are formed in the desert region when water from the occasional rainfall
flows in form of small stream into the depression or desert basin created in the desert region
Given the high evaporation rate in deserts, the collected water quickly evaporates, making playas
temporary, shallow lakes with high salinity. Hence option a is correct: Both statements are correct, and
Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 7 Landforms and their Evolution
G C LEONG CHAPTER 7 ARID OR DESERT LANDFORMS
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Lakes/Desert
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: Crescent-shaped dunes, known as barchans, form where the wind direction is
constant and moderate, and the surface over which the sand moves is relatively uniform. The points or
"wings" of these dunes are directed downwind, away from the wind.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Sief dunes, also known as longitudinal dunes, form parallel to the prevailing wind
direction, not perpendicular. They occur in areas when the sand supply is limited, and the wind
direction remains constant. Strong winds blow straight through the corridors between the dune lines,
keeping them free of sand and smooth. Meanwhile, eddies formed along the sides deposit sand,
contributing to the growth of the dunes.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Transverse dunes are oriented perpendicular to the wind direction. They form
when the wind blows consistently, and the sand source is an elongated feature positioned at right
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[18]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

angles to the wind. These dunes can stretch for long distances while remaining relatively low in height.
When there is an abundant supply of sand, individual dunes often merge, losing their distinct shapes.
Most dunes in deserts are mobile, though some may become stabilized, particularly in areas near human
settlements.
Pair 4 is correct: Parabolic dunes occur in areas where some vegetation helps anchor parts of the dune,
preventing the sand from being blown away completely. As the central part of the dune moves forward,
the arms remain fixed due to the vegetation and thus its shape is the opposite of barchans, where the
arms face downwind. Both types of dunes are shaped by wind, but the presence of vegetation in
parabolic dunes influences their form.

Source:) [Link]
G C LEONG CHAPTER 7 ARID OR DESERT LANDFORMS
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Desert
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Project Kusha is an Indian long-range surface-to-air missile system being developed by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The missile system will consist of at least three types
of interceptors and is expected to be deployed by the Indian Air Force by 2028-2029. It is a multi-
layered air defence system comparable to Russia’s S-400 TRIUMF air defence system. Jointly developed
with Israel Aerospace Industries. It is envisaged to detect and neutralise aerial threats such as stealth
fighters, aircraft, ballistic and cruise missiles, precision guided munitions, and unmanned aerial vehicles
(UAVs). It seeks to build a three-tiered air-defence system with interceptor missiles capable of hitting at
150, 250, and 350 km.
Source:) [Link]
documents/[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Project Kusha
Subtopic:)

Q.36)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
As a glacier moves downward, it is fed by ice from multiple corries, similar to tributaries joining a river.
During its journey, the glacier erodes the sides and floor of the valley it flows through, scratching and

[19]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

grinding the bedrock while removing any rock debris and surface soil and lead to the formation of Glacial
trough/Valley
Statement 1 is incorrect: Glaciated valleys are trough-like and U-shaped with broad floors and relatively
smooth, and steep sides.
Statement 2 is correct: Glacial trough/Valley is an erosional landform created by the movement of
glaciers as they erode the valley floor and sides.
Statement 3 is correct: A fjord is a specialized form of a glacial trough, distinguished by its unique
formation and geographical features. When glacial troughs are deeper than the current sea level,
seawater floods these troughs, creating a fjord. Fjords are predominantly located in high-latitude regions
where glaciation has occurred.. Example: Canada (British Columbia), New Zealand (Milford Sound), and
Chile (Patagonian fjords).
Source:) [Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Glacial
Subtopic:)

Q.37)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Limestone and chalk, both sedimentary rocks of organic origin, are formed from the accumulation of
corals and shells in the sea. Limestone is soluble in rainwater, which, when combined with carbon dioxide
from the air, creates a weak acid. As a result, regions with extensive limestone deposits develop a distinct
type of topography known as Karst topography due to this dissolution process.
Statement 1 is correct: Stalagmites and stalactites are formed in underground caves due to the
deposition of minerals, primarily calcium carbonate, from dripping water. This process happens in
limestone caves,
Statement 2 is correct: Stalagmites and stalactites are formed by the precipitation of minerals, typically
calcium carbonate, from water that seeps through the cave ceiling. As the water drips, it leaves behind
deposits that form stalactites and stalagmites
Statement 3 is incorrect: Stalactites hang from cave ceilings like icicles and vary in diameter. They are
typically wider at their base and taper towards the tips, appearing in a range of shapes. Stalagmites, on
the other hand, rise from the cave floor. They form from water dripping from a stalactite above, or from
water seeping through the cave ceiling, depositing minerals as it falls.
Source:) [Link]
G. C. Leong Chapter 8 Limestone and Chalk Landform
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Limestone and Chalk
Subtopic:)

Q.38)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. The thermocline is a layer in the ocean where the temperature drops rapidly with
increasing depth. Below the thermocline, the temperature decreases slightly but not rapidly, and it does
not increase.

[20]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Option b is incorrect. While the temperature at the ocean bottom is low but it typically above 0°C. Also,
ocean water freezes at lower temperatures compared to freshwater (Fresh water freezes at 32 degrees
Fahrenheit but seawater freezes at about 28.4 degrees Fahrenheit, because of the salt in it). Therefore,
due to the salinity and pressure of deep-sea water, it does not exactly reach the freezing point of water.
The change in sea temperature below the depth of 2000m is negligible.

Option c is incorrect. While equatorial waters are warmer, the highest ocean surface temperatures are
usually recorded slightly north of the equator rather than exactly at the equator. This is because of the
influence of trade winds and the heavy daily rainfall in the equatorial regions.
Option d is correct. Oceans in the northern hemisphere typically record higher temperatures
compared to the southern hemisphere. This is due to several factors:
The northern hemisphere has more landmass, which absorbs and retains heat more efficiently than
water, leading to higher temperatures.
The southern hemisphere has more oceanic coverage, which results in more efficient heat distribution
and generally cooler temperatures.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 13 Water (Oceans)
[Link]
0like,only%20the%20water%20part%20freezes.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

[21]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.39)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The continental shelf is essentially part of the continental crust and is considered
an extension of the landmass, whereas the continental slope signifies the start of the deep ocean basin
and is the transition between the continental crust and the oceanic crust.
Statement 2 is correct. The continental shelf has a gentle slope and is relatively shallow, typically
extending to a depth of about 200 meters. The continental slope is much steeper and marks the
transition from the shallow shelf to the deep ocean, with depths quickly increasing to thousands of
meters.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Deep-sea trenches are typically found in the deep ocean floor and near the
continental slope, not on the continental shelf. Additionally, coral reefs are usually located in shallow
waters on the continental shelf, where sunlight can penetrate, rather than along the steep and deep
continental slope.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 13 Water (Oceans)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Oceans
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Jerdon's Courser is nocturnal bird, meaning it is primarily active at night.
This adaptation helps it avoid competition for food and predators during the day. Jerdon's Courser is
exclusively endemic to Andhra Pradesh specifically within the Sri Lankamalleswara wildlife
sanctuary in Kadapa.

[22]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 3 is correct: Jerdon's Courser is a bird species classified as critically endangered by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature. It was sighted in the Kadapa-Nellore Forest area on the
Eastern Ghats in 1848. The bird was named after the British soldiers who discovered it in this region.
Knowledge Base:
IUCN:
1) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was established in 1948. It was originally
known as the International Union for the Protection of Nature.
2) It is a global union of states, governments, NGOs, and scientists that works to conserve nature and
ensure it is used equitably.
3) It is best known for its Red List of Threatened Species, which categorizes species based on their risk of
extinction.
4) IUCN helps establish and manage protected areas, such as national parks and nature reserves.
Source:) [Link]
courser-not-seen-in-a-decade/articleshow/[Link]
[Link]
critically-endangered-bird-species-jerdons-courser-begins-in-kadapa-1811882
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Jerdon’ Courser
Subtopic:)

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume of water in a
definite path and direction.

Statement 1 is correct. The California Current is a cold current that flows southward along the western
coast of North America, in the North Pacific Ocean.
Statement 2 is correct. Humboldt Current also known as the Peru Current, is a cold current that flows
northward along the western coast of South America, in the South Pacific Ocean.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Benguela Current is a cold current located off the southwestern coast of
Africa, in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Canaries Current is a cold current that flows southwestward along the
northwest coast of Africa, in the North Atlantic Ocean.
Statement 5 is correct. The Oyashio Current is a cold current flowing southward along the eastern coast
of Russia and northern Japan, in the North Pacific Ocean.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 14 MOVEMENTS OF OCEAN
WATER
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

[23]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.42)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun
and the moon, is called a tide.

Statement 1 is correct. Neap tides happen during the first and third quarter moon phases, when the
when the Sun and Moon are at right angles to each other due to which the gravitational forces of the
Sun and Moon partially cancel each other out. Spring tides occur during the full moon and new moon,
when the Sun and Moon are in line, resulting in stronger gravitational forces and higher tides.
Statement 2 is correct. During spring tides, the tidal range is greater because the combined
gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon causes extreme high and low tides. In contrast, during neap tides,
the tidal range is smaller, with high tides being lower and low tides being higher than average.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Both neap tides and spring tides occur twice a month. Spring tides happen
during the full and new moon phases, while neap tides occur during the first and third quarter moon
phases.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 14 MOVEMENTS OF OCEAN
WATER
[Link]
ived,right%20angles%20to%20each%20other.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Salt in the ocean comes from two sources: runoff from the land and openings in the seafloor.
Rocks on land are the major source of salts dissolved in seawater. Rainwater that falls on land is slightly
acidic, so it erodes rocks. This releases ions that are carried away to streams and rivers that eventually
feed into the ocean. Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean and are removed from
the water. Others are not removed, so their concentrations increase over time.
Another source of salt in the ocean is hydrothermal fluids, which come from vents in the seafloor.
Ocean water seeps into cracks in the seafloor and is heated by magma from the Earth’s core. The heat
causes a series of chemical reactions. The water tends to lose oxygen, magnesium, and sulfates, and pick

[24]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

up metals such as iron, zinc, and copper from surrounding rocks. The heated water is released through
vents in the seafloor, carrying the metals with it. Some ocean salts come from underwater volcanic
eruptions, which directly release minerals into the ocean.
Also, rain replenishes freshwater in rivers and streams, so they don’t taste salty. However, the water in
the ocean collects all of the salt and minerals from all of the rivers that flow into it.
Source:)
[Link]
from,and%20openings%20in%20the%20seafloor.&text=Salt%20in%20the%20ocean%20comes,acidic%2
C%20so%20it%20erodes%20rocks.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic Ocean is the smallest and shallowest of the world's five oceanic
divisions. This water body is completely surrounded by the continents of Asia, North America, Europe
and the island of Greenland.
Statement 2 is correct: The Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean in the world, covering about 63 million
square miles, which is more than the combined landmass of all the continents. It covers more than 63
million square miles (165 million square kilometers) and contains more than half of the Earth's free water.
The Pacific Ocean's average depth is around 4,280 meters (14,040 feet), making it the deepest ocean as
well.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian Ocean does span both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres,
but it is not the only ocean to do so. The Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean also extend across both
hemispheres. The Atlantic Ocean covers about 41 million square kilometers (16 million square miles) and
reaches from the Arctic Ocean in the north to the Southern Ocean in the south.
Statement 4 is correct: The Atlantic Ocean is home to the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, which is the longest
underwater mountain range in the world. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge extends for about 16,000 kilometers
(10,000 miles) from the Arctic Ocean in the north to the Southern Ocean in the south. It is a divergent
boundary between tectonic plates where new oceanic crust is formed.
Source:) [Link]
,With%20a%20total%20area%20of%20about%2014%20million%20square%20kilometers,the%20Earth's%
20major%20ocean%20basins.
[Link]
,of%20the%20world%20ocean%20basins.&text=Covering%20approximately%2063%20million%20square
,fit%20into%20the%20Pacific%20basin.
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[25]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

The Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes is
an international treaty adopted by the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) in 1992.
It aims to promote cooperation and sustainable management of shared water resources among countries.
Statement 1 is correct. The Water Convention is overseen by the United Nations Economic Commission
for Europe (UNECE). Initially, it was a regional agreement, but later it was opened to all UN member
states, making it a global convention for the sustainable use of transboundary water resources.
Statement 2 is correct. The Water Convention is a legally binding agreement for its member states. It
requires parties to take measures for the prevention, control, and reduction of transboundary impacts,
and encourages joint management and cooperation in the use of shared water resources.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indus Waters Treaty between India and Pakistan, signed in 1960, was not
under the framework of the Water Convention, as this convention was only adopted in 1992. The Indus
Waters Treaty was brokered by the World Bank to regulate the use of shared waters of the Indus River
system, long before the UNECE Water Convention came into existence.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
[Link]
nation
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes
Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Ocean currents are the continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater driven by gravity,
wind (Coriolis Effect), and water density. The ocean where the direction of ocean currents reverses with
the seasons is the Indian Ocean. This is primarily due to the seasonal monsoon winds that change
direction between northeast and southwest, significantly impacting the current flow in the northern part
of the ocean.
During winter, the northeast monsoon winds push currents in one direction, while in summer, the
southwest monsoon winds reverse the current flow. This seasonal change in ocean currents has a major
impact on the regional climate, influencing weather patterns in surrounding areas.

Reversal of Ocean Current in Indian Ocean

Source:) G C LEONG CHAPTER 12
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[26]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.47)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Tsunamis are primarily triggered by underwater seismic activities such as
earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides that abruptly move the sea floor. These disturbances
displace large volumes of water, generating powerful waves.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In deep water, tsunamis have long wavelengths, often hundreds of kilometers,
and relatively small wave heights. As they approach the coast, their wavelengths decrease, but the wave
heights increase dramatically, causing the devastating effects seen onshore.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tsunamis are caused by underwater seismic events and are not directly
related to atmospheric phenomena like storms or strong winds. Tsunamis are triggered by seismic or
volcanic activity, and occur mostly on calm, clear days with no stormy weather.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
waves
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.48)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The ocean currents may be classified based on their depth as surface currents and deep-water currents.
Statement 1 is correct: Surface Ocean currents are mainly influenced by global wind patterns. Winds,
such as the trade winds and westerlies, push the surface water in the direction of the wind, creating
currents like the Gulf Stream and the Kuroshio Current. In contrast, deep ocean currents, also known as
thermohaline circulation, are driven by variations in water density caused by differences in
temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline). When cold, salty water becomes denser, it sinks and drives
the deep ocean currents, forming a global conveyor belt that circulates water throughout the world's
oceans.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Surface currents are normally found in the upper 400 meters of the ocean and
are responsible for the bulk of the ocean's horizontal circulation. Deep currents, on the other hand,
circulate in the deeper layers of the ocean below the surface layer, often extending to the ocean floor.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Coriolis effect influences both surface and deep currents, although it has
a stronger impact on surface currents. Its impact is more pronounced on surface currents, causing them
to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[27]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Tides vary in their frequency, direction and movement from place to place and also from time to time.
Tides may be grouped into various types based on their frequency of occurrence in one day or 24 hours
or based on their height.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "ebb" refers to the period when the tide is receding or falling.
Specifically, "ebb tide" occurs between high tide and the next low tide, when the water level is decreasing.
During this time, the water is moving away from the shore, and the tide is going out.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term flow" or "flood" refers to the period when the tide is rising, not
falling. Specifically, "flood tide" or "flow" occurs between low tide and high tide, during which the water
level is increasing. During this time, the water is moving towards the shore, and the tide is coming in.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
%20the%20%22ebb%20tide%22.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Option d is correct: The State of the World's Forests (SOFO) is an annual report published by the Food
and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO). It provides a comprehensive overview of key
forest issues, such as deforestation, forest degradation, and forest conservation. The Food and
Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that
leads international efforts to defeat hunger. FAO is headquartered in Rome, Italy and was established in
1945
Knowledge Base:
State of the World's Forests (SOFO) report 2024
1) In 2020, the global forest covered approximately 4.1 billion hectares (ha), or 31 per cent of the land area.
The Russian Federation, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America, and China account for 54 per cent
of the global forest area, in descending order.
1) Between 1990 and 2020, approximately 420 million ha of forest were converted to land use.
However, deforestation rates fell from 15.8 million ha per year between 1990 and 2002 to 10.2 million ha
between 2015 and 2020.
1) The net rate of change in forest area, which is the difference between forest expansion and
deforestation, is estimated at -4.7 million ha per year in 2010-2020.
2) Global mangrove area was recorded to be 14.8 million ha, out of which South and Southeast Asia
contributed almost 44 per cent of the total global area.
3) Fires in 2023 emitted 6,687 megatons of carbon dioxide globally.
Conservation International is a nonprofit organization dedicated to conserving the Earth's
biodiversity. It was founded in 1987. It works to protect the natural world and the well-being of people
who depend on it.
The World Resources Institute (WRI) is non-profit global research organization that focuses on finding
solutions to critical environmental challenges. It was founded in 1982. It works to move the world toward
an equitable and sustainable future by focusing on three areas:
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is the leading international body for assessing
the science related to climate change. It was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The IPCC has published

[28]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

several major reports on climate change, including the Fifth Assessment Report (AR5) in 2013-2014 and
the Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) in 2021-2023.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
deforestation-but-threats-to-forests-from-wildfires-and-pests-remain
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) State of the World's Forests (SOFO) report 2024
Subtopic:)

Q.51)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Iron ore is distributed globally, with major production in countries like Australia, Brazil, China, and India.
These nations account for a significant portion of the world’s supply, primarily extracting hematite and
magnetite. Iron ore is essential for steel production, making it a critical resource for industrial economies.
1. Lorraine (Europe): This region is famous for its extensive iron ore deposits, which played a crucial role
in the industrialization of France.
2. Manchuria (China): This region is rich in various minerals, particularly coal and iron ore, along with
other resources like copper and lead.
3. Novotrotsk (Russia): Located in the Orenburg region, Novotrotsk is known for its iron and steel
production, with significant iron ore deposits in the area.
Source:) [Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [World]
Subtopic:)

Q.52)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Water vapor is the gaseous form of water, produced by evaporation or boiling. It’s invisible and plays a
crucial role in the Earth’s climate and weather systems. As a greenhouse gas, it helps regulate
temperature and forms clouds and precipitation, making it essential for the water cycle.
Statement 1 is correct: The concentration of water vapor is highest in tropical regions near the
equator due to higher temperatures and evaporation rates. As we move towards the poles, the
temperature drops, leading to less evaporation and, consequently, lower concentrations of water vapor.
Therefore, the amount of water vapor decreases from the equator to the poles.
Statement 2 is correct: Water vapor is one of the most significant greenhouse gases. It acts like a
blanket by absorbing infrared radiation (terrestrial radiation) emitted by the Earth’s surface and
preventing it from escaping into space too quickly. This process helps retain heat in the atmosphere,
keeping the Earth’s surface warmer than it would be without this insulating effect.
Statement 3 is correct: Water vapor is indeed a key greenhouse gas in Earth's atmosphere. It is the
most abundant greenhouse gas by volume, and it plays a crucial role in the Earth's greenhouse effect.
Greenhouse gases trap heat by absorbing infrared radiation emitted from the Earth's surface and then re-
radiating it back towards the surface. Although carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄) are also

[29]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

important greenhouse gases, water vapor is more abundant and has a greater effect on the Earth's energy
balance.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 8 COMPOSITION AND
STRUCTURE OF ATMOSPHERE
Reference Reading: [Link]
atmospheric-water-vapor-amplifies-earths-greenhouse-effect/
[Link]
greenhouse-gases
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.53)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere, extending up to about 13 km on average. It
contains 80% of the atmosphere’s mass and most weather phenomena occur here. Temperature and
pressure decrease with altitude. The troposphere is bounded by the tropopause, above which lies the
stratosphere.
Statement-I is correct: The troposphere, the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, varies in
thickness from place to place. At the equator, the troposphere reaches a thickness of about 16-18 km,
whereas at the poles, it is much thinner, typically about 8-10 km. This difference is due to the equator's
warmer temperatures and the convection currents caused by intense solar heating, which forces the
atmosphere to expand vertically.
Statement-II is correct explains Statement-I: The higher temperatures at the equator result in more
intense heating, which causes the air to expand and rise. This expansion of the air increases the vertical
height of the troposphere. Conversely, at the poles, cooler temperatures result in more compressed air
and a thinner troposphere.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 8 COMPOSITION AND
STRUCTURE OF ATMOSPHERE
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Clouds are visible masses of tiny water droplets or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. They
form when air becomes saturated with moisture and cools. Clouds play a crucial role in weather patterns
and climate, reflecting sunlight and precipitating rain or snow.
Statement-I is correct: Albedo is the measure of how much solar radiation a surface reflects. Clouds,
especially thick ones like stratus or cumulonimbus, have a much higher albedo (up to 70-90%) than most
parts of the Earth's surface (which averages around 10-30%). This means clouds are much more reflective
compared to the Earth's land or ocean surfaces.
Statement-II is incorrect: The insolation (incoming solar radiation) at the top of the atmosphere is 100
units (or 100%). Before reaching the Earth's surface, approximately 35 units are reflected back to space
due to the Earth’s albedo, which includes:

[30]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

27 units reflected by clouds.

2 units reflected by ice and snow-covered areas.
The rest of the reflection comes from other sources, such as atmospheric particles.
Thus, clouds alone reflect 27% of the total solar radiation, not more than half, which contributes
significantly to the Earth's cooling effect.
Knowledge Base: The remaining 65 units of solar energy are absorbed, divided as follows:
1) 14 units are absorbed within the atmosphere by water vapor, dust, and gases.
2) 51 units are absorbed by the Earth's surface, which then radiates this energy back in the form of long-
wave terrestrial radiation.
Out of the 51 units of terrestrial radiation:
1) 17 units are radiated back to space directly.
2) 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (with 6 units absorbed directly, 9 units through convection
and turbulence, and 19 units through latent heat of condensation).
Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography- SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE
AND TEMPERATURE.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.55)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Soil acidification is a process in which soil pH gradually decreases over time. This process, which is
accelerated by agricultural activities, can impact both surface and subsoil, leading to various impact on
soil and plant health.
Option 1 is correct: Acidic soils impact crop growth and productivity by decreasing the availability of
essential plant nutrients such as phosphorus and molybdenum. Additionally, they make plants more
susceptible to various biotic and abiotic stress factors.
Option 2 is incorrect: While soil acidification itself does not directly cause CO₂ emissions, certain related
processes (like the decomposition of organic matter) can contribute to increased CO₂ levels. However,
this is not a direct significant implication of soil acidification
Option 3 is correct: Highly acidic soils can inhibit the survival of beneficial bacteria, such as rhizobia,
which are essential for nitrogen fixation in legumes.
Source:) [Link]
billion-tonnes-of-essential-carbon-affecting-crop-growth-sequestration-study-95561
[Link]
acidity#:~:text=Instead%2C%20biological%20processes%20favourable%20to,that%20fix%20nitrogen%2
0for%20legumes
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Soil Acidification
Subtopic:)

Q.56)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[31]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Option 1 is correct: Latitude plays a crucial role in temperature distribution. As we move from the
equator towards the poles, the temperature generally decreases because the Sun's rays hit the Earth at
more oblique angles, reducing the intensity of solar radiation received.
Option 2 is incorrect: Longitude does not directly affect temperature distribution. While it helps
determine time zones, the distribution of temperature is not influenced by east-west positioning alone.
Option 3 is correct: Altitude or elevation significantly affects temperature. As altitude increases, the
temperature decreases due to the thinning of the atmosphere, where less heat is trapped. This is why
mountainous regions tend to be cooler than low-lying areas.
Option 4 is correct: Ocean currents influence the temperature of coastal areas. Warm currents, such as
the Gulf Stream, raise temperatures in adjacent regions, while cold currents, like the California Current,
have a cooling effect.
Option 5 is incorrect: While Earth's rotation affects the day-night cycle and weather patterns, it does
not directly influence the global distribution of temperature. The rotation speed remains constant and
does not create variations in temperature distribution across latitudes or altitudes.
Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography- SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE
AND TEMPERATURE.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.57)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The air at the equator rises due to high insolation, flows poleward and descends
in the subtropics (30°N and S). Down below near the land surface, the air flows towards the equator due
to pressure gradient as the easterlies. The north-east trade winds and south-east trade winds converge
in the ITCZ. Such a circulation of air gives rise to cells.
This type of cell formed along with trade winds, equatorial low (ITCZ) and subtropical high-pressure belts
is called the Hadley cell.
Statement 2 is correct: In the middle latitudes, the circulation is that of sinking cold air that comes from
the poles and the rising warm air that blows from the subtropical high. At the surface these winds are
called westerlies, and the cell is known as the Ferrel cell.
Statement 3 is correct: At polar latitudes the cold dense air subsides near the poles and blows towards
middle latitudes as the polar easterlies. This cell is called the polar cell.

Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography-chapter 10: Atmospheric circulation and
weather system.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

[32]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.58)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Local winds blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Valley breeze is upslope wind occurs during the day and the mountain
breeze is downslope wind happens at night. In hilly areas, throughout the day, the slopes heat up, causing
air to go upslope and to fill the resulting gap the air from the valley blows up. This wind is known as valley
breeze.
Statement 2 is correct: Mountain breezes can cause frost in valleys, while valley breezes can cause
precipitation in mountains due to the differences in temperature and moisture between the
mountains and valleys.
Valley breezes reach mountain peak and yield precipitation through cumulus clouds. The Mountain
breezes cause inversion of temperature in the valleys. This is why the valley floors are characterized
by frost during night while the upper parts are free from frost in cold areas

Knowledge Base: The valley and mountain breezes are also named as anabatic and katabatic breezes.
The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cool air at the hills and mountains
produced during night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts
almost like water that moves downward and consolidates in the valley region with hot air above. The cool
air of the high plateaus and ice fields draining into the valley is called katabatic winds.
Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography-chapter 10: Atmospheric circulation and
weather system
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.59)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The Coriolis
force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the
left in the southern hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s Law’.
Statement-II is incorrect: The Coriolis force does not vary between the hemispheres. It is a function of
earth’s rotation and is more dependent on the speed of wind and latitude rather than the hemisphere
itself. The Coriolis effect is stronger at higher latitudes, that is, Coriolis force is maximum at the poles
and zero at the equator.
Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography-Chapter 10: Atmospheric circulation and
weather system.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

[33]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.60)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Bustard and Lesser Florican are both critically endangered species, with only around 140 Bustards
and fewer than 1,000 Lesser Floricans remaining. The Bustard Recovery Project began with an initial five-
year phase (2016-2021) and was extended for an additional two years (2021-2023). Recently, The Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has approved Rs 56 crore for the next phase of the
conservation of Great Indian Bustard (GIB) and Lesser Florican for the 2024-2029 period.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bustard Recovery Program prepared by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII),
an autonomous body under the Union Environment Ministry.
Statement 2 is correct: The Bustard Recovery Program encompasses habitat development, in-situ
conservation of Great Indian Bustard and Lesser Florican, the completion of the conservation breeding
centre planned in earlier phases of the program, the release of captive-bred birds, and further habitat
enhancement.
Statement 3 is correct: The program is funded with support from the National Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) through the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund.
Source:) [Link]
use-nasa-space-crafts-gas-leakage-spacex-9566545/
[Link]
f
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Bustard Recovery Program
Subtopic:)

Q.61)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: During the day, the temperature over the land is higher than that over the sea.
The difference in temperature creates a pressure gradient that drives the sea breeze from sea to land.
Thus, sea breeze is driven by land heating, not by warming of sea surface, which happens more slowly.

Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I: Because land has a lower specific heat
capacity than water, meaning it takes less energy to raise the temperature of land.
The slower heat absorption of water compared to land leads to temperature difference, which creates
pressure difference, driving the sea breeze from Sea to the land during the day.
Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography-chapter 10: Atmospheric circulation and
weather system.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

[34]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.62)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Tropical cyclones are low pressure systems that form over warm tropical waters. They typically form
when atmospheric conditions are favourable, and the sea surface temperature is above 26.5 °C.
Statement 1 is correct: Warm Ocean waters (of at least 26.5°C) are necessary to fuel the heat engine of
the tropical cyclone.
Statement 2 is correct: Storm (TC) that moves over land will abruptly lose its fuel source and quickly lose
intensity due to the lack of warm, moist air and increased friction. Some tropical cyclones can maintain
their intensity as they move inland, particularly if they encounter moisture from large lakes or rivers.
Statement 3 is correct: Some of the heavier, cool air sinks into the low-pressure region at the centre of
the tropical cyclone. This creates the relatively calm eye.
The eye is usually about 40 km wide but can range from 10 km to more than 100 km. It has light winds and
often clear skies. Rotating thunderstorms form spiral rainbands around the eye. The strongest winds and
heaviest rain are found around the eye wall.
Knowledge Base:
1) Tropical Cyclone Favourable Conditions:
2) A large area of the sea surface with a temperature above 27° C
3) The Coriolis force is present
4) The vertical wind speed varies slightly
5) A weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation that already exists
6) Above the sea level system, there is a higher divergence
Source:) NCERT Class XI - Fundamentals of Physical Geography-chapter 10: Atmospheric circulation and
weather system.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

Q.63)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Horse Latitudes are not located in the equatorial low-pressure region.
They are actually found in the subtropical high-pressure belts, typically between 30° and 35° latitude in
both hemispheres. The equatorial region is characterized by low pressure due to intense solar heating,
which causes rising air (Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ). In contrast, Horse Latitudes are regions
of high pressure where descending air creates calm, stable conditions.
Statement 2 is correct. The term "Horse Latitudes" is believed to have originated from the days of
sailing ships. In this region, sailors often experienced long periods of calm winds, which slowed down
their ships. Running out of food and water due to being unable to sail in absence of winds, they reportedly
threw horses overboard to conserve supplies, giving the region its name.
Source:) The Certificate Physical and Human Geography by Goh Cheng Leong - CHAPTER 14.
[Link]
[Link]#:~:text=Unable%20to%20sail%20and%20resupply,'horse%20latitudes'%20was%20born.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

[35]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.64)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Convectional rainfall occurs primarily due to the heating of the Earth's surface, causing warm air to rise
rapidly, cool, and eventually lead to rainfall.
Statement 1 is correct. High temperatures and humidity cause rapid heating of the land, leading to the
upward movement of moist air. This warm air cools as it rises, condensing into cumulonimbus clouds, and
typically results in convectional rainfall around midday, particularly in equatorial regions.
Statement 2 is correct. Convectional rainfall occurs due to the rapid ascent of warm, moist air, which
cools as it rises, forming cumulonimbus clouds. This type of rainfall is often accompanied by
thunderstorms and lightning
Source:) The Certificate Physical and Human Geography by Goh Cheng Leong CHAPTER 14.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

Q.65)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Recently, Landslide Early Warning System (LEWS), a crucial component of disaster management, have
become operational in India. These systems generate and disseminate timely information to help mitigate
the effects of landslides. They encompass risk knowledge, monitoring and warning, information
dissemination and communication, as well as response capabilities.
Statement 1 is correct: Landslide Early Warning System (LEWS), developed by the Geological Survey of
India (GSI) functioning under Ministry of mines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The early warning system (EWS) is a decentralised network system currently
operational in landslide-prone areas like Kalimpong and Darjeeling in West Bengal and Nilgiris district
in Tamil Nadu; the government aims to expand it nationwide by 2030.
Statement 3 is correct: Early warning systems (EWS) involve forecasting the likelihood of landslides,
sharing relevant information, and facilitating timely responses. These can be region-specific or target
individual slopes based on rainfall data.
Source:) [Link]
localised-early-warnings-in-india-still-an-uphill-
battle#:~:text=Landslide%20early%20warning%20systems%2C%20an%20essential%20part,India%20(GS
I)%2C%20was%20launched%20in%20July%202024.
[Link]
warning-systems-for-landslips-in-india-but-how-do-they-
work#:~:text=Just%20a%20fortnight%20before%20the,landslides%20based%20on%20rainfall%20data.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Landslide Early Warning System (LEWS) in India
Subtopic:)

Q.66)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
An anticyclone is a high-pressure system where air descends, leading to calm, dry, and stable weather
conditions.

[36]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Option a is incorrect. While the cooling of air at higher altitudes does contribute to air sinking,
anticyclones are mainly caused by high-pressure systems that form due to surface heating rather than
upper-atmosphere cooling alone.
Option b is correct. During summer, the intense heating of the Earth’s surface causes the air to rise. As
the warm air rises, it eventually cools at higher altitudes. Once cooled, the air becomes denser and starts
to sink back down. This creates a high-pressure zone at the surface, which is characteristic of
anticyclones. In these conditions, the descending air inhibits cloud formation and precipitation, leading
to stable and dry weather. Since the air in an anticyclone is sinking, it warms as it descends, causing
moisture to evaporate. This results in fewer clouds and generally dry, clear weather. This phenomenon is
common in summer when the land heats up quickly.
Option c is incorrect. While low-pressure systems do move poleward, this does not cause anticyclones.
Anticyclones are independent high-pressure systems, typically forming in response to descending air, not
the movement of low-pressure areas.
Option d is incorrect. Solar activity (such as solar flares) has no direct impact on the formation of
anticyclones. Anticyclones are a result of atmospheric pressure systems and air movement, not solar
phenomena.
Source:) The Certificate Physical and Human Geography by Goh Cheng Leong - CHAPTER 14.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

Q.67)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Tornadoes are much smaller in scale and form primarily over land. They are
short-lived but extremely intense and localized. Tornadoes are typically associated with severe
thunderstorms or supercell storms. Whereas Hurricanes are much larger weather systems that form over
warm ocean waters in tropical or subtropical regions. Hurricanes can last for days or even weeks and
affect large areas, often spanning hundreds of miles.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Tornadoes are more frequent in spring, particularly in areas like the United
States, where tornadoes are common in the spring and early summer due to the mixing of warm and cold
air masses. However, hurricanes are most common during the late summer and fall they are not strictly
limited to the summer months. They can occur in the late summer and fall as well, depending on when
ocean waters are warm enough to fuel their formation.
Source:) The Certificate Physical and Human Geography by Goh Cheng Leong - CHAPTER 14
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.68)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Many hot deserts, such as the Sahara, Atacama, Namib, and Mojave deserts, are
indeed found on the western coasts of continents. This is because these regions typically experience cold
ocean currents along with the easterly trade winds.

[37]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

1. Cold ocean currents cool the air above them, causing the moisture in the air to condense offshore. This
dry air, when it reaches land, reduces precipitation and creates arid conditions along the western coasts,
contributing to desert formation.
2. Easterly trade winds blow from east to west, pushing warm, moist air away from the western coasts of
continents. This limits the amount of moisture reaching these regions, enhancing dry conditions and
contributing to the formation of deserts along the western coasts.
Statement 2 is correct. Deserts often form in regions dominated by high-pressure systems, where air
descends from higher altitudes. As this air descends, it warms and loses its moisture, preventing cloud
formation and precipitation. These arid conditions are common in areas like the Sahara and Arabian
deserts, where consistent high-pressure results in extremely low rainfall and dry climates..
Source:) The Certificate Physical and Human Geography by Goh Cheng Leong - Chapter 18.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

Q.69)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct.
The Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate is found between 5° and 10°north and south of the equator. Its greatest
extent is found in the lowlands to the Amazon, Congo, Malaysia and the East Indies. Further away from
the equator, the influence of the onshore.
Statement 1 is correct: Due to the great heat in the equatorial belt, mornings are bright and sunny.
There is much evaporation and convectional air currents are set up, followed by heavy downpours of
convectional rain in the afternoons from the towering cumulonimbus clouds.
Statement 2 is correct: The hot, wet equatorial climate does not experience a winter season. Instead, it
has high temperatures year-round, with only slight changes between the hottest and coolest months.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The difference between day and night temperatures (diurnal range) is very
small in equatorial regions. This is due to the high humidity and cloud cover, which limits temperature
fluctuations.

Source:) The Certificate Physical and Human Geography by Goh Cheng Leong Chapter 15. The Hot, Wet
Equatorial Climate
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

[38]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.70)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The high seas refer to areas beyond the jurisdiction of any nation. The High Seas Treaty, also known as
the Agreement on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdictions (BBNJ), was negotiated in March of last year.
Recently, the UN's 193 Member States adopted a historic agreement on marine biodiversity, aimed at
safeguarding the ocean for both current and future generations. As of now 91 countries had signed and
eight of them ratified the treaty.
Statement 1 is correct: The High Seas Treaty is the first international, legally binding agreement under
the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) aimed at conserving and sustainably
managing marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UNCLOS provides the legal framework for regulating all human activities in
the ocean. The High Seas Treaty, on the other hand, establishes common governance for approximately
half of the Earth's surface and 95% of the ocean's volume. It aims to promote equity and fairness, address
environmental degradation, combat climate change, and prevent biodiversity loss in the high seas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not a founding member of the treaty; however, the European Union
played a significant role in its global adoption. The Indian government has committed to signing and
ratifying the treaty
Source:) [Link]
treaty-biodiversity-in-oceans-9441301/
[Link]
2023-09-20_en
[Link]
[Link]
protection-of-marine-biodiversity/articleshow/[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) High Seas Treaty
Subtopic:)

Q.71)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
High temperature and abundant rainfall in the equatorial regions support a luxuriant type of vegetation-
the tropical rain forest. The equatorial vegetation comprises a multitude of evergreen trees that yield
tropical hardwood, e.g. mahogany, ebony, greenheart, cabinet woods and dyewoods.
Statements 1 is correct: Tropical rainforests exhibit clear stratification with different layers of vegetation,
including the emergent layer, canopy, understory, and forest floor.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the temperate forests, where only a few species occur in a particular
area, the trees of the tropical rain forests are not found in pure stands of a single species. Trees in
Tropical Rain Forests are found in diverse stands with multiple species.
Statement 3 is correct: Epiphytes are plants that grow on other plants, such as trees. They are common
in tropical rainforests, as they can access sunlight and nutrients from the air and rainwater.
Source:) G C LEONG CHAPTER 15.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

[39]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.72)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: Wine production is another speciality of the Mediterranean countries, because
the best wine is essentially made from grapes. Some 85 per cent of grapes produced, go into wine. The
long, sunny summer allows the grapes to ripen and then they are hand-picked. Viticulture is by tradition
a Mediterranean occupation and the regions bordering the Mediterranean Sea account for three-
quarters of the world’s production of wine. In Spain, Portugal, France, and Italy, wine is the national drink.
Statement II is incorrect: The Mediterranean climate is characterized by dry summers, not high
summer rainfall. The dry summers and mild, wet winters are what make this region ideal for grape
cultivation. High summer rainfall would actually be detrimental to grape production, leading to diseases
like Mold and rot. The prevailing trade winds in the region, known as the Westerlies, blow from west to
east. These winds carry moisture from the Atlantic Ocean, resulting in mild, wet winters.
Source:) GC Leong Chapter 19.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.73)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Deserts are regions of scanty rainfall which may be hot like the hot deserts of the Saharan type; or
temperate as are the mid-latitude deserts like the Gobi. The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly due to the
effects of off-shore Trade winds.
Statement 1 is correct: The predominant vegetation of both hot and mid-latitude deserts is xerophytic
or drought-resistant scrub. This includes the bulbous cacti, thorny bushes, long-rooted wiry grasses and
scattered dwarf acacias. Trees are rare except where there is abundant ground water to support clusters
of date palms. Along the western coastal deserts washed by cold currents as in the Atacama Desert, the
mists and fogs, formed by the chilling of warm air over cold currents, roll inland and nourish a thin cover
of vegetation.
Statement 2 is correct: Plants that exist in deserts have highly specialized means of adapting themselves
to the arid environment. Intense evaporation increases the salinity of the soil so that the dissolved salts
tend to accumulate on the surface forming hard pans. Absence of moisture retards the rate of
decomposition and desert soils are very deficient in humus. Plants, whether annuals or perennials have to
struggle for survival against both aridity and poor soil.
Statement 3 is correct: Most desert shrubs have long roots and are well spaced out to gather moisture,
and search for ground water. Plants have few or no leaves and the foliage is either waxy, leathery, hairy
or needle-shaped to reduce the loss of water through transpiration. Some of them are entirely leafless,
with pricks or thorns. Others like the cacti have thick succulent stems to store up water for long
droughts.
Source:) GC Leong Chapter 18.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

[40]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.74)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The taiga is a forest of the cold, subarctic region. The taiga lies between the tundra to the north and
temperate forests to the south. Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia, and Siberia have taigas.
Statement 1 is correct: Permafrost is a layer of soil that remains frozen for at least two consecutive years.
In the taiga, especially in the northernmost regions, the soil is often underlain by permafrost. This
frozen ground affects the types of vegetation that can grow, as it limits root penetration and water
drainage. The presence of permafrost also leads to the formation of wetlands and bogs, as water remains
trapped in the upper layers of the soil.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rosewood and ebony are tropical hardwoods and are not found in the taiga.
The taiga is dominated by coniferous trees, and one of the few deciduous trees that can survive there
is the larch, not rosewood or ebony.
Statement 3 is correct: Moose (Alces alces), the largest species of deer in the world, are commonly found
in taiga forests. They are well adapted to the cold, harsh conditions of this biome.
Source:) GC Leong -Chapter 23
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.75)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A currency swap is an agreement between two cross-border entities where one
of them agrees to provide a loan to another in a foreign currency. The repayment takes place in a
different currency at a fixed date and an exchange rate. The interest rate charged on such loans is usually
less than that available in the foreign market. Since 2018, India has agreed to sign currency swaps with 23
countries.
Statement 2 is correct: A currency swap agreement serves as a backstop funding mechanism to address
short-term foreign exchange liquidity needs or balance of payment crisis of the debt-receiving entity.
Source:) [Link]
currency-swap-framework-for-2024-27/articleshow/[Link]?from=mdr
[Link]
countries/[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Currency Swap Agreements
Subtopic:)

Q.76)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct: Northwestern Europe encompasses countries such as the United Kingdom,
Ireland, coastal regions of Norway, Belgium, the Netherlands, and parts of France. These areas are
heavily influenced by maritime conditions from the nearby Atlantic Ocean, which helps to keep
winters relatively mild. As a result, most coastal weather stations rarely record temperatures below
freezing, particularly in regions affected by oceanic currents and prevailing winds.

[41]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: The South-westerly winds, originating over the
Atlantic Ocean, bring warm, moist air toward Europe, playing a crucial role in moderating temperatures
across Northwestern Europe. In combination with the North Atlantic Drift—a warm ocean current
extending from the Gulf Stream—these winds help keep the region's coastal areas significantly warmer
than other locations at similar latitudes. Without the moderating effects of these oceanic currents and
winds, winters in Northwestern Europe would be much colder, comparable to those experienced in parts
of Canada or Eastern Europe.
Source:) "Certificate Physical and Human Geography" - Chapter 22: The Cool Temperate Western Margins
(British Type Climate) by Goh Cheng Leong.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)

Q.77)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
British Type of Climate is characteristic of regions with mild, wet winters and cool summers. It is
typically found in regions such as the United Kingdom, parts of northwestern Europe, and areas with
temperate maritime climates. The dominant vegetation in this climate is deciduous forests.
Statement 1 is correct: The British type of climate experiences moderate rainfall throughout the year,
with a slight winter maximum due to the influence of frontal cyclones. The climate is influenced by
westerlies and maritime conditions, making it typical of northwestern Europe, including the UK, Ireland,
and coastal Norway.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The British type of climate is found on the western margins of continents,
primarily between 40° and 60° latitudes, not on the eastern margins or in lower latitudes (20° to 30°). It
typically occurs in regions like Western Europe and parts of New Zealand.

Source:) Certificate Physical and Human Geography" - Chapter 22: The Cool Temperate Western Margins
(British Type Climate) by Goh Cheng Leong.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Climatic Phenomena
Subtopic:)
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[42]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.78)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct: Douglas Fir and Scots Pine are two important species commonly found in temperate
coniferous forests, which are characterized by trees that bear cones and have needle-like leaves. These
trees are well adapted to survive in cooler climates with shorter growing seasons and harsh winter
conditions. Conifers such as Douglas Fir and Scots Pine are evergreen, meaning they retain their needles
year-round to conserve water during colder months when soil moisture is often limited due to freezing
temperatures.
Temperate Coniferous Forests are found primarily in the Northern Hemisphere. Major regions include
the Pacific Northwest of the United States and Canada, parts of Northern Europe (such as Norway and
Sweden), and areas in Siberia and Asia. These forests are adapted to moderate rainfall and cooler
temperatures, and they differ from tropical and subtropical coniferous forests in terms of temperature,
humidity, and seasonal variations.
Source:) "Certificate Physical and Human Geography" - Chapter 23: Cool Temperate Continental
(Siberian) Climate by Goh Cheng Leong.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.79)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
African Savanna is one of the most famous ecosystems in the world, stretching across large parts of
Africa. The savanna is characterized by grasslands interspersed with trees. The region supports a diverse
range of herbivores, carnivores, and other wildlife, making it one of the best places in the world for
wildlife tourism.
Statement I is correct: The African Savanna is often referred to as "Big Game Country" due to its rich
biodiversity, especially its large mammals like elephants, lions, rhinos, and giraffes. These animals, known
as "big game," are prominent in this ecosystem, making it globally famous for wildlife safaris and
conservation efforts.
Statement-II is correct: The distinct dry and wet seasons in the African Savanna are critical for
supporting the rich diversity of herbivores and predators. During the wet season, abundant vegetation
supports herbivores, while the dry season triggers migrations in search of water, influencing predator-
prey dynamics. This seasonal rhythm sustains the biodiversity essential to "Big Game Country."
Hence both the statements are correct, and Statement 2 explains why the African Savanna is called Big
Game Country. The seasonal changes in rainfall support the diverse wildlife populations, including large
herbivores and predators, making the region ideal for game viewing and conservation.
Source:) "Certificate Physical and Human Geography" - Chapter 17: The Savanna or Sudan Climate by Goh
Cheng Leong.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.80)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[43]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

The Moidams – The Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty, recently inscribed as India's 43rd entry
in the UNESCO World Heritage List, is a testament to the rich cultural heritage of Assam and India. These
mound-burial sites are royal necropolises created by the Tai-Ahom people between the 13th and 19th
centuries, primarily located in Choraideo, Assam. The Tai-Ahom, who believed their monarchs were
divine, constructed the Moidams to serve as "homes-for-spirits" for their deceased kings. These
structures, initially made from wood and later using stone and brick, symbolize a unique funerary
tradition similar to the pyramids of Egypt. The international recognition of Moidams underscores their
Outstanding Universal Value (OUV) and highlights the efforts made by the Archaeological Survey of India
(ASI) and the Assam government in preserving these culturally significant sites.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
included-in-unesco-world-heritage-list/[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Moidams of Aasam
Subtopic:)

Q.81)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Arctic Tundra exists in regions near the North Pole, where temperatures remain extremely cold for
most of the year. The tundra is characterized by a permafrost layer, which means that the soil remains
frozen just below the surface.
Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic Tundra experiences extremely low temperatures throughout the
year, with summer temperatures often barely exceeding the freezing point. Winters are severe, with
temperatures frequently dropping as low as -40 to -50°C.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Arctic Tundra is treeless, and vegetation is dominated by mosses, lichens,
and low-lying grasses, not coniferous trees like pine and spruce. The harsh climate and permafrost
prevent deep-rooted plants from thriving in this environment.
Statement 3 is correct: Permafrost, a permanently frozen layer of soil, is a defining feature of the Arctic
Tundra. It prevents the growth of deep-rooted plants and plays a critical role in shaping the tundra’s
vegetation, limiting it to shallow-rooted species Migration and hibernation are survival strategies that
allow animals to avoid the harsh winters and the scarcity of food.
Source:) "Certificate Physical and Human Geography" - Chapter 25: The Arctic or Polar Climate.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.82)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In terms of GDP, during 2021–2022, tourism contributed 1.77 percent (direct +
indirect. Tourism continues to play an important role as a foreign exchange earner for the country. In
2022, foreign exchange earnings (FEEs) from tourism were US $ 17.611 billion as compared to US$ 8.797
billion in 2021. 1.50% of worldwide tourists come to India
Statement 2 is correct: PRASAD stands for Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spirituality Augmentation Drive.
It is 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Tourism Ministry. The PRASAD scheme focuses on
developing pilgrimage tourist destinations in India.

[44]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

This scheme focuses on developing and identifying pilgrimage sites across India for enriching the
religious tourism experience. It aims to integrate pilgrimage destinations in a prioritised, planned and
sustainable manner to provide a complete religious tourism experience. The growth of domestic tourism
hugely depends on pilgrimage tourism.
Knowledge Base: The Swadesh Darshan Scheme was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Tourism,
Government of India, to develop sustainable and responsible tourism destinations in the country. The
Ministry had sanctioned 76 projects under the Scheme to date. With the mantra of ‘vocal for local’, the
revamped scheme namely Swadesh Darshan 2.0 seeks to attain “Aatmanirbhar Bharat” by realizing India’s
full potential as a tourism destination. Swadesh Darshan 2.0 is not an incremental change but a
generational shift to evolve Swadesh Darshan Scheme as a holistic mission to develop sustainable and
responsible tourism destinations covering tourism and allied infrastructure, tourism services, human
capital development, destination management and promotion backed by policy and institutional reforms.
Source:) [Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [World]
Subtopic:)

Q.83)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The term "agglomeration economies" refers to the benefits that businesses can experience by being in
proximity to other related businesses, suppliers, and resources. For instance:
1. A steel making factory benefiting from an iron and coal producing industrial complex nearby.
2. A tech company benefiting from the presence of a large pool of skilled software engineers in a tech
hub.
3. A fashion retailer benefiting from being located near other clothing and accessory stores in a shopping
district.
4. Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres
known as agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large industrial agglomeration takes place.
Source:) [Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [World]
Subtopic:)

Q.84)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best
understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the
manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character. Professional (white collar)
worker
Statement I is correct: High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and
highly specialised are called technopolies. It is a specialized hub that brings together various
stakeholders, including businesses, research institutions, educational centres, and government bodies, to
drive technological advancements and economic growth.
Statement II is correct. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle in USA
are examples of technopolies.

[45]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Source:) Class XII: Fundamentals of Human Geography chapter 6: Secondary activities

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [World]
Subtopic:)

Q.85)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Jumping genes" are DNA sequences, or transposable elements (TEs), that are considered to be a type of
gene. They can move from one location in the genome to another. Jumping genes are important for
evolution and have been involved in cross-species gene transfers. It can cause diseases like hemophilia
and cancer by interrupting or altering the function of other genes.
Jumping genes are important for evolution because they move around in developing sperm and egg cells.
They can also help explain the differences between humans and chimpanzees, which share a common
ancestor but have evolved different facial features.
Source:) [Link]
to-shake-up-biomedicine/[Link]
[Link]
518#:~:text=Transposable%20elements%2C%20or%20%22jumping%20genes,exactly%20what%20do%20
they%20do?&text=Transposable%20elements%20(TEs)%2C%20also,genome%20(SanMiguel%2C%201996
).
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Jumping Genes
Subtopic:)

Q.86)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Himalayas are primarily composed of metamorphic and igneous rocks, formed through intense heat
and pressure during the tectonic collision. Himalayas are the result of a collision between the Indian Plate
and the Eurasian Plate. About 225 million years ago, when Pangea still existed, India was a large island still
situated off the Australian coast to the east and joined to Africa by way of the now island of Madagascar.
Statement 1 is incorrect: While Limestone can be found in the Himalayas, it is not a major constituent.
since the Himalayas have igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks, not sedimentary rocks like limestone,
this type of rock cannot be the major constituent of the Himalayas.
Geosyncline deposits in tertiary rocks are regions of potential coal and oil reserves. Coal is found in
Kashmir, Copper, lead, zinc, gold, silver, limestone, semi-precious and precious stones occur at some
places in the Himalayas
Statement II is correct: Limestone is indeed a sedimentary Rock formed from the accumulation and
cementation of marine organism's shells and skeletons over millions of years. Limestones originate
mainly through the lithification of loose carbonate sediments. Modern carbonate sediments are
generated in a variety of environments: continental, marine, and transitional, but most are marine
Source:) NCERT Class XII: India people and Economy, chapter 7: Mineral and Energy Resources
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphology: The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

[46]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.87)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Recently, a Taliban leader mentioned that the Taliban would address the issues holding up Turkmenistan-
Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) gas pipeline project.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The pipeline will transport natural gas from the Galkynysh Gas Field in
Turkmenistan not Tajikistan through Afghanistan into Pakistan and then to India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Pakistan and India will each purchase 42% of the gas deliveries, and
Afghanistan 16%, while Kabul will also benefit from lucrative transit fees of around $500 million per year.

Source:) [Link]
pipeline/[Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Energy Resources [World]
Subtopic:)

Q.88)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
he planets in our solar system are broadly classified into two categories: Terrestrial planets and Jovian
planets. Terrestrial planets, also known as inner planets, are rocky, smaller, and denser, while Jovian
planets, or outer planets, are much larger and primarily composed of gas, with thick atmospheres.
Statement 1 is correct. Terrestrial planets like Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are small and dense,
composed mostly of rocky material. In contrast, Jovian planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune)
are significantly larger and less dense, made mostly of hydrogen and helium.
Statement 2 is correct. Terrestrial planets have minimal planetary magnetic fields compared to Jovian
planets because of differences in their composition, size, and rotation. Among the terrestrials, only Earth
has a substantial planetary magnetic field. Whereas in Jovian planets- all have significant planetary
magnetic fields. The planets who don't have magnetic fields have (mostly) solid interiors and thus don't
have this movement dynamo.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In our solar system, none of the terrestrial planets have ring systems,
whereas all the Jovian planets possess rings, with Saturn having the most prominent ones because the

[47]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

rings are made of frozen icy dust, and the sun is too hot near the inner planets for rings made of frozen
icy dust to form.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter: The Origin and Evolution of the
Earth
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.89)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Fold mountains are typically associated with continental crust and are formed at convergent plate
boundaries, also known as continental collision zones or compression zones. These boundaries are sites
where tectonic plates collide, leading to significant tectonic activity. The compression at these zones
forces the crust to fold and rise, resulting in the formation of fold mountains. Consequently, most fold
mountains are located along the edges of continental plate boundaries.
Statement 1 is correct: The Himalayas are termed “young fold mountains” because their formation
began only a few million years ago due to the collision of the Indo-Australian Plate with the Eurasian
Plate. This relatively recent geological activity makes them younger compared to other mountain ranges.
Statement II is correct and explains statement I: The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the
Indo-Australian Plate with the Eurasian Plate around 50 million years ago. As the two plates converged,
the denser Indo-Australian Plate was forced beneath the lighter Eurasian Plate in a process called
subduction. This immense tectonic pressure caused the Earth's crust to buckle and fold, resulting in the
uplift of the Himalayan Mountain range, which continues to rise due to ongoing tectonic activity.
Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphology: The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.90)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 focuses on creating a more well-rounded and effective
education system by merging academic and vocational education, while promoting students' vertical and
horizontal mobility. To support NEP's implementation, the National Credit Framework (NCrF) has been
developed by key educational bodies like UGC, NCERT, CBSE, AICTE, and the Ministry of Education.
Statement 1 is correct: The National Credit Framework (NCrF) will serve as a comprehensive and
inclusive framework that allows for the seamless integration of credits earned through various forms of
education, including school education, higher education, and vocational or skill-based training.
Statement 2 is correct: The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 introduces the concept of an
‘Academic Bank of Credit’ (ABC), a digital platform designed to store academic credits earned from
accredited institutions. These credits, accumulated under the National Credit Framework (NCrF), will
be deposited into the student's Academic Bank of Credit account. This account will be integrated with
the student's APAAR ID and DigiLocker for seamless access and management of their academic
achievements.

[48]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 3 is correct: The credits stored in the Academic Bank of Credit (ABC) are transferable across
educational institutions, allowing students to use them for admission into various programs at different
levels. This transferability is based on the National Credit Framework (NCrF) principles and the
acceptance of these credits by relevant agencies. This system facilitates mobility by establishing
equivalence between general and vocational education/training without requiring additional certification
to validate academic qualifications.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) National Credit Framework
Subtopic:)

Q.91)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Weathering is the breakdown of rocks, soils, and minerals through contact with water, atmospheric
gases, and biological organisms. It occurs in situ, meaning without movement. Weathering can be
physical (mechanical), chemical, or biological, and it plays a crucial role in soil formation and landscape
evolution.
Statement 1 is correct: Solution weathering is a chemical weathering process in which minerals within
rocks dissolve in water, often aided by the presence of acidic compounds like carbonic acid (formed
when carbon dioxide dissolves in water). This process primarily affects soluble rocks such as limestone,
where calcium carbonate is dissolved, resulting in the breakdown of the rock.
Statement 2 is correct: Warm and wet climates accelerate solution weathering because higher
temperatures increase the rate of chemical reactions, and abundant water facilitates the dissolution of
minerals. These climatic conditions are common in tropical regions, where intense chemical weathering
occurs. Dry climates, in contrast, do not favor solution weathering as they lack sufficient water.
Statement 3 is correct: The best-known examples of solution weathering are found in limestone
regions, particularly in Karst landscapes. Karst topography, which includes features like sinkholes,
caves, and underground rivers, is formed due to the dissolution of limestone by slightly acidic water.
Source:) G. C. Leong Chapter 4
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphic Processes
Subtopic:)

Q.92)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Landslides are the rapid downslope movement of rock, earth, or debris, triggered by factors like heavy
rainfall, earthquakes, or volcanic activity. They occur when gravitational forces exceed the slope’s
stability. Landslides can cause significant damage to infrastructure and pose serious risks to human life.
Statement 1 is correct: A slump is the downward movement of rock debris that occurs along a curved
failure surface, often resulting in a backward rotation of the material relative to the slope. This rotational
movement creates a distinctive step-like structure as the mass moves downward. Slumps are common in
areas with soft clay or loosely compacted materials, where gravitational forces lead to slope failure. The
key element is the rotational movement that differentiates it from other forms of landslides.

[49]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Statement 2 is correct: A debris slide involves the rapid rolling or sliding of earth materials, such as soil,
rock, and organic matter, without any backward rotation of the mass. The movement usually occurs
along a planar surface, and the debris moves in a relatively straight or downward path. Unlike slumps,
debris slides are more linear and lack rotational components. Debris slides are often triggered by factors
like heavy rainfall or seismic activity, which reduce the cohesion of the slope materials.

Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 6

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Weathering, Mass movements
Subtopic)

Q.93)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Front is a three-dimensional boundary zone formed between two converging air masses with different
physical properties (temperature, humidity, density etc.). Fronts are the typical features of midlatitudes
weather (temperate region – 30° – 65° N and S).
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Cold Front is formed when a cold air mass replaces a warm air mass by
advancing into it or when the warm air mass retreats and cold air mass advances. Cold fronts can
produce dramatic changes in the weather. They move fast, up to twice as fast as a warm front. As a cold
front moves into an area, the heavier (more dense) cool air pushes under the lighter (less dense) warm air,
causing it to rise up into the troposphere.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Warm front is formed when the warm air mass makes way for cold air mass
on the ground, i.e., when the warm air mass completely sits over the cold air mass. As the warm air
moves up the slope, it condenses and causes precipitation but, unlike a cold front, the temperature and
wind direction changes are gradual. These fronts cause moderate to gentle precipitation over a large
area, over several hours.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Occluded front is formed when a cold air mass overtakes a warm air mass
and goes underneath it. Thus, a long and backward swinging occluded front is formed which could be a
warm front type or cold front type occlusion. The formation of Mid-latitude cyclones i.e., temperate
cyclones or extra-tropical cyclones involves the formation of occluded front.

[50]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Source:) [Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.94)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The rocky exterior part of Earth is known as the lithosphere. It is composed of
the top layer of the upper mantle and the brittle crust.
Statement 2 is correct. The lithosphere is a rigid layer of solid rock that "floats" on top of the
asthenosphere. The lithosphere is the region of Earth that is the coolest and most rigid. It is enclosed by
the atmosphere above and the asthenosphere below. The asthenosphere is a layer of plastic-like rock in
the upper part of the mantle.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The rocks inside the lithosphere are considered elastic but they are not
viscous. The elastic nature of the rocks of the lithosphere is attributed to the thermal energy
appearing from the mantle. Compared to the asthenosphere, the lithosphere has far less ductility.
Oceanic lithosphere and continental lithosphere are the two different forms of lithosphere.

[51]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Knowledge Base:
1) The tectonic plates that make up the lithosphere include the North American, Caribbean, South
American, Scotia, Antarctic, Eurasian, Arabian, African, Indian, Philippine, Australian, Pacific, Juan de
Fuca, Cocos, and Nazca plates.
2) Most tectonic activity takes place at the boundaries of these plates, where they may collide, tear
apart, or slide against each other.
3) Thermal energy (heat) from the lithosphere's mantle part enables the movement of tectonic plates.
The lithosphere's rocks become more elastic due to this thermal energy.
Source:) GC Leong
[Link]
des%20the%20brittle,elastic%2C%20they%20are%20not%20viscous.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphology: The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.95)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Vizhinjam Port in Kerala, India's first deep-sea container transshipment port, is set to transform the
country's maritime trade landscape by 2028-29.
Option a is incorrect: While Vizhinjam is the first transshipment port in India, other South Asian
countries, such as Sri Lanka and Singapore, already have transshipment ports. Colombo Port in Sri
Lanka, for instance, has been a major transshipment hub in the region for years.
Option b is correct: Vizhinjam Port will accommodate the world's largest container ships and boost
container and cargo traffic. It is designed to handle ultra-large container vessels with capacities
exceeding 15,000 TEUs. Its advanced infrastructure aims to increase container and cargo traffic, making
it a significant player in international maritime trade.
Option c is correct: Vizhinjam Port is strategically linked to the 4-lane NH66 highway, which connects it
to major regions of India. Additionally, there are proposed freight corridors that will further enhance its
connectivity and logistics efficiency.
Option d is correct: Vizhinjam Port's location at the southern tip of India provides a strategic advantage
by connecting with key international shipping routes. It links Europe, the Persian Gulf, and the Far East,
bridging major global maritime pathways such as those connecting the Swiss Canal and the Strait of
Malacca.
Source:) [Link]
transshipment-port-will-make-india-a-dominant-player-in-global-maritime-trade-437025-2024-07-13

[52]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

[Link]
gets-final-approval-from-nhai
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Vizhinjam Port
Subtopic:)

Q.96)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct. A hotspot is a massive plume of heated mantle material rising from the Earth's
core. A hot spot is fed by a place deep under the Earth's mantle where heat rises due to convection. This
heat promotes the melting of rock near the lithosphere's base, where the brittle top portion of the mantle
meets the Earth's crust. Magma, or molten rock, frequently pushes through cracks in the crust to
generate volcanoes.

Major Hotspot on the Earth

Source:) [Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Geomorphology: The Earth's Interior
Subtopic:)

Q.97)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Limestone topography, also known as karst topography, is a unique and distinctive landscape that forms
in regions where there is a significant presence of limestone bedrock. It is characterised by a variety of

[53]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

surface and subsurface features created through the chemical weathering and dissolution of limestone
by water.

Option a is incorrect: Uvalas are not steep limestone peaks, but wide and shallow depressions. The
features described in this statement are best expressed by lapiés or karren limestone landforms. Karren
(or lapies) are ridge-like structures formed by the dissolution of limestone along joints
Option b is incorrect: Uvalas are not underground chambers or cavities but rather surface depressions.
The underground chambers or cavities described in this statement are related to Limestone caves, which
are formed by the dissolution of limestone.
Option c is correct: Uvalas are indeed wide, shallow depressions found in limestone landscapes. They
are typically formed when the roofs of underground caves or caverns collapse, creating surface
depressions.
Uvalas are closed karst depressions usually larger than a sinkhole and they are a smaller opening in the
ground caused by the collapse of a cave roof. Uvalas form when several sinkholes merge together.
Option d is incorrect: Uvalas are not irregular-shaped cave formations that grow when water seeps
through porous surfaces but rather depressions or sinkholes. Seepstones are a type of helictite, which is
a cave formation that grows in irregular shapes and directions, seemingly defying gravity. They are
formed when water slowly seeps through porous roof or wall surfaces of limestone caves, producing tiny
droplets that precipitate calcite in the form of fine tubes with minute internal channels.
Source:) [Link] - Chapter 8 (Limestone and Chalk Landform)
Class XI - Physical Geography (7 -Landforms and their Evolution)
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Limestone Landforms
Subtopic:)

Q.99)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[54]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

A tombolo is a coastal formation that appears to be a small island that has not fully separated from the
mainland. One of the most well-known tombolos around the world is Chesil Beach, located on the
southern coast of Dorset in England.
Karst and caves have high cultural and historical values. Many artifacts documenting early human
development have been preserved in karst areas: most of our knowledge on our ancestors is based on
cave findings. Tombolo is one or more sandbars or spits that connect an island to the mainland. It is a
depositional landform formed due to resultant action of coastal waves.
This island-like landform is actually attached to the coast by a thin sand bar or spit.
Source:) [Link]
[Link]
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Landforms: Coastal Landforms
Subtopic:)

Q.99)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The International Date Line (IDL) is an imaginary line that runs from the North to the South Pole. It
roughly follows the 180° line of longitude and passes through the Pacific Ocean. There is a total difference
of 24 hours or a whole day between the two sides of the 180° meridian.
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the date line generally runs north to south from pole to pole, it zigzags
around political borders such as eastern Russia and Alaska’s Aleutian Islands. So, it is not a straight line.
Also, it does not pass through Britain. The International Date Line passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean
and roughly follows a 180 degrees longitude north-south line on the Earth. It is located halfway around
the world from the prime meridian — the 0 degrees longitude line in Greenwich, England (Britain).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The date changes by exactly one day when International Date Line is crossed.
A traveller crossing the date line from east to west loses a day and while crossing the dateline from west
to east he/she gains a day.
Source:) Geography, G. C Leong, Chapter 1, The Earth and the Universe, Pg. 8
[Link]
[Link]#:~:text=The%20international%20date%20line%2C%20established,longitude%20line%20in%20
Greenwich%2C%20England.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) The Earth and The Universe
Subtopic:)

[55]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Q.100)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The third schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the forms of oaths and affirmations for
various offices: Union Ministers of India, Parliament Election Candidates, Members of Parliament (MPs),
Supreme Court Judges, Comptroller and Auditor General, State Ministers, State Legislature Elections'
Candidates, State Legislature Members, High Court Judges.
The oaths include the Oath of office and Secrecy. The oath of secrecy is taken by ministers to keep all
matters related to national security secret unless it is required to discharge duties.
Source:) [Link]
constitution-one-thing-to-remember-9433639/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic) Third Schedule of the Constitution of India
Subtopic:)

[56]

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PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211209 - : Learning Centre

Uploaded by

PTS 2025 - Solution - Test Code: 211209 - : Learning Centre

Uploaded by

PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211209 |

Source:) Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 (interior of earth)

Reversal of Ocean Current in Indian Ocean

27 units reflected by clouds.

Source:) Class XII: Fundamentals of Human Geography chapter 6: Secondary activities

Source:) NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Class 11 Chapter 6

Major Hotspot on the Earth

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