GOAL TALENT SEARCH EXAM : 08.01.

2023
[Time : 2.00 Hours] CLASS : X - PRE EXAM Full Marks : 400

PHYSICS PHYSICS
01. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial 01. , d d.ki zkjafHkd osx u dsl kFk, d l h/ hjs[kkesa?kw
e jgkgSA; fn
velocity u and uniform acceleration a. If the sum t osav kS
j (t + 1)osal sd a
Mesar; dhxbZnw fj; ksadk; ksx 200 ehVj
of the distances travelled in tth and (t + 1)th
se conds is 200 m, the n it s ve locity a ft er gS] rkst l sd a
M dsckn m s–1 esabl dk osx gS&
t seconds in m s–1 is (1) 50 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(1) 50 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 100 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 100 m/s
02. VckZbu l a
pkfyr djusdsfy, 25 kg/s dhnj l s80 m mQ ¡pkbZ
02. Water falls from a height of 80 m at the rate of l sfxjrkgSA?k"kZ
. kcyksadsdkj.kgksusokyhgkfu mQ
t kZdk20%
25 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional forces are 20% of energy. How much gSAVckZbu l sfdruh' kfDr mRiUUk gksrh gS\
power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(g = 10 m/s2) (1) 16 kW (2) 24 kW
(1) 16 kW (2) 24 kW (3) 20 kW (4) 28 kW (3) 20 kW (4) 28 kW
03. In a rocket, fuel burns at the rate of 5 kg s–1. 03. , d jkWd sV esa
] bZ
/ u 5 kg s-1 dhnj l st yrk gSAbl b±
± / u dks
This fuel is ejected from the rocket with a jkW
d sV l s80 km s dsosx l sckgj fudkykt krkgSA; g jkW
–1 d sV
velocity of 80 km s–1. This exerts a force on the
i j cy yxrk gSog gS&
rocket equal to
(1) 2 × 105 N (2) 8 × 104 N
(1) 2 × 105 N (2) 8 × 104 N
(3) 1.6 × 104 N (4) 4 × 105 N
(3) 1.6 × 104 N (4) 4 × 105 N
04. Four sound waves M, N, O and P are shown in 04. pkj èofu rja
xsM, N, O v kS j P dksuhpsfn, x, fp=kesafn[ kk; k
figures below. Which of the following is correct x; k gSAfuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS
u&l k dFku l gh gSA
statement?
x(m) x(m)
x(m) x(m)
2 2
2 2 1 1
1 1 0 0
0 0 t(s) t(s)
–1 –1
t(s) t(s)
–1 –1 –2 –2
–2 –2 M N
M N
x(m) x(m)
x(m) x(m)
2 2
2 2 1 t(s) 1
1 t(s) 1 0 0
0 0 –1 t(s)
t(s) –1
–1 –1 –2 –2
–2 –2 O P
O P
(1) M v kS
j P esal eku i zcyrk gS
A
(1) M and P have the same loudness.
(2) N v kS
j O esal eku i zcyrk gS
A
(2) N and O have the same loudness.
(3) N and P have the same loudness
(3) N v kS
j P esal eku i zcyrk gS
A
(4) M and O have the same loudness (4) M v kS
jO esal eku i zcyrk gS
A

Class-X (Pre)/03
05. Sound travels with a speed of about 332 ms–1. 05. èofu yxHkx 332 ms-1 dhpky l sxeu djrhgSAèofu dh
What is the wa ve le ng th of sound whose rja
xnS
?; ZD; k gSft l dhv kof̀Ùk 1328 Hz gS\
frequency is 1328 Hz?
(1) 0.5 m (2) 0.25 m (1) 0.5 m (2) 0.25 m
(3) 4 m (4) 2 m (3) 4 m (4) 2 m
06. A body is suspended from a spring balance kept 06. , d mi xzg esaj[ ksfLi za
x cS
y sa
l l sfi .MdksyVdk; kt krkgSAt c
in a statellite. The reading of the spring balance mi xzg R f=kT; kokysd{kesai zos'kdjrkgSrksfLi za x cSy sa
l dki Bu
is W1 when the satellite goes in an orbit of radius
W1 rFkkt c 2R f=kT; kokysd{kes ai zos'kdjrhgSrksi Bu W2
R and W2 when it goes in an orbit of radius 2R.
Which of the following is correct? gSAfuEu esadkS u&l gh gS\
W1 W1 W1 W1
(1) W2  (2) W2  (1) W2  (2) W2 
4 2 4 2
(3) W1 = W2 (4) W2 = 4W1 (3) W1 = W2 (4) W2 = 4W1
07. A truck and a car having equal kinetic energies 07. l eku xfrt mQ t kZokys, d Vªd v kS
j , d dkj dksl eku ea
nd cy
are stopped by applying equal retarding force. If yxkdj jksd kt krkgSA; fn #dusl si gysS1 v kS j S2 Øe' k%Vªd
S1 and S2 are the distances covered by truck
v kS
j dkj }okjk r; dh xbZnw j hgS
] rks
a
and car respectively, before stopping, then
(1) S1 = S2 (2) S1 > S2
(1) S1 = S2 (2) S1 > S2
(3) S1 < S2 (4) Cannot say (3) S1 < S2 dgk ughat k l drk gSA
(4)
08. Which of the following would probably show the 08. fuEufyf[ kr es adkS
u&l kl aHkor%ml fi aMdsfy, osx&l e; xzki Q
v elocit y-time g ra ph for a body whose fn[ kk, xk ft l dk Roj.k&l e; xzki Qfp=k esafn[ kk; k x; k gS\
acceleration-time graph is shown in figure?
a
a

t
t
v v
v v

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
t t
t t
v v
v v

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
t t
t t
09. ' kCndks"k esai k, t kus okys NksVs v {kjksadks i <+ r s l e; v ki
09. Which of the following lenses would you prefer
fuEufyf[ kr esal sfdl ysa l dk mi ; ksx dksi zkFkfedrk nsaxs?
to use while reading small letters found in a
dictionary? (1) 50 l s ehi Q ksd l nwj hdk mÙky ysal A
(1) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm. (2) 50 l s ehi Q ksd l nwj hdk v ory ysa l A
(2) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm. (3) 5 l s ehi Qksd l nw j hdk mÙky ysal A
(3) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
(4) 5 l s ehi Qksd l nw j hdk, d v ory ysa l A
(4) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
10. 5 l sehya ckbZdh, d oLrqdks10 l sehi Q ksd y ya ckbZdsv fHkl kjh
10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from
a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the ysal l s25 l sehnw j j[ kkt krkgS
Acusgq , i zfrfcEc dhfLFkfr Kkr
position of the image formed. dhft , A
40 50 40 50
(1) cm (2) cm (1) cm (2) cm
3 3 3 3
(3) 12 cm (4) 9 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 9 cm

Class-X (Pre)/04
11. The human eye can focus on objects at different 11. ekuo v k¡[ k] v k¡[ k dhi Qksd y yackbZdksl ek; kfst r djdsfofHkUUk
distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye nw
j hi j oLrq v ksai j è; ku dsfUnzr dj l drhgSAbl dk dkj.k gS
lens. This is due to
(1) t jk&nw
j nf' kZ
rk (2) l ek; kst u
(1) presbyopia (2) accommodation
(3) near-sightedness (4) far-sightedness (3) fudV nf̀"V nks"k (4) nw
j&nf̀"V&nks"k
12. The human eye forms the image of an object at 12. ekuo v k¡[ k fdl hoLrqdk i zfrfcEc fuEu LFkku i j cukrh gS&
its
(1) LoPNea
My (2) i fjrfj dk
(1) cornea (2) ir is
(3) jsfVuk (4) iq
r yh
(3) retina (4) pupil
13. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five 13. Riz
frjks/ okysrkj ds, d Vq d M+
sdksi k¡p cjkcj HkkxksaesadkVk
equal parts. These parts are then connected in t krk gSAfi Qj bu Hkkxksadksl ekuka
r j esat ksM+
k t krk gSA; fn bl
parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this la; kst u dk rq
Y; i zfrjks/ R ' gS
] rksv uq i kr R / R ' gSµ
combination is R ' , then the ratio R /R ' is -
1 1
1 1 (1) (2) (3) 5 (4) 25
(1) (2) (3) 5 (4) 25 25 5
25 5
14. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When 14. , d fo| q
r cYc i j 220 V v kS j 100 W fy[ kk gS A t c bl s
it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will 110 V i j l a
pkfyr fd; k t krk gS
] rks[ ki r dh xbZfct yh %
be - (1) 50 W (2) 12.5 W
(1) 50 W (2) 12.5 W
(3) 25 W (4) 100 W
(3) 25 W (4) 100 W
15. Which of the following is not an example of a 15. fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS
u ck; ksekl mQ
t kZÏ ksr dkmnkgj.kughagS\
bio-mass energy source? (1) ydM+
h (2) xkscj&xS
l
(1) Wood (2) Gobar-gas
(3) i jek.kqmQ
t kZ (4) dks;yk
(3) Nuclear energy (4) Coal
16. The e ssential diffe re nce be tw ee n an A C 16. , d AC t ujsVj v kS j , d DC t ujsVj dschp v ko' ; d v a r j gS
generator and a DC generator is that fd
(1) AC generator has an electromagnet while a (1) AC t ujs Vj esa, d fon~ ;qr pqcd gksrk gSt cfd , d DC
a
DC generator has permanent magnet. t ujsVj esaLFkk; hpq c gksrk gSA
a
(2) DC generator will generate a higher voltage. (2) DC t ujs Vj mPPk oksYVst mRiUUk djsxk
(3) AC generator will generate a higher voltage. (3) AC t ujs Vj mPPk oksYVst mRiUu djsxk
(4) AC generator has slip rings while the DC (4) AC t ujs Vj esafLyi fja x gksrs gSat cfd Mhl h t ujsVj esa
generator has a commutator.
dE; w VsVj gksrk gS
A
17. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction
17. fon~
;qr pq Ecdh; i zsj.kk dh ?kVuk gS&
is
(1) fdl h oLrqdk pkt Zdjusdh i z fØ; k A
(1) the process of charging a body.
(2) fdl h dq . Myh l s/ kjk i zokfgr gksusdsdkj.k pq
cdh; {ks=k
a
(2) the process of generating magnetic field due
to a current passing through a coil mRiUUk djusdhi zfØ; k
(3) producing induced current in a coil due to (3) pq cd v kS
a j dqMyhdschp l ki s{k xfr dsdkj.k dq
a . Myhesa
relative motion between a magnet and the i zsfjr / kjk mRiUUk djuk
coil
(4) fdl hfon~
;q
r eksVj dhdq
. Myhdks?kq
eusdhi zfØ; k
(4) the process of rotating a coil of an electric
motor.
18. A concave spherical mirror forms a 60 cm high 18. , d v ory xksy h; ni Z . k , d oLrqdk 60 cm l seh mQ ¡pk
real image of an object whose height is 15 cm. okLrfod i zfrfcEc cukrkgSft l dhmQ ¡pkbZ15 l sehgSAni Z
. kdh
The radius of the mirror is 40 cm. Find the
f=kT; k 40 l sehgSAoLrql sml dsi zfrfcEc dhnw j hKkr djsaA
distance from the object to its image.
(1) 125 cm (2) 75 cm
(1) 125 cm (2) 75 cm
(3) 45 cm (4) 85 cm (3) 45 cm (4) 85 cm

Class-X (Pre)/05
19. An electric bulb rated for 200 W at 100 V is used 19. 100 V i j 200 W fy[ ksx, , d fct yh dscYc dk mi ; ks x
in a cir cu it hav ing a 300 V su pply . The 300 V dhv ki w
frZokysl £dV esafd; kt krk gSAi zfrjksèkR ft l s
resistance R that must be kept in series with
the bulb so that the bulb draws 200 W is
cYc dsl kFk Jà
[ kyk esabl i zd kj j[ kk t kuk pkfg, rfkd cYc
200 W ' kfDr ns&
(1) 100  (2) 75 
(1) 100  (2) 75 
(3) 25  (4) 50 
(3) 25  (4) 50 
20. In the given circuit ideal voltmeter shows a
reading of 6 V, then the power developed across 20. fn, x, i fji Fk esav knZ
' k oksYVehVj 6 V dk i kB~
; ka
d fn[ kkrk gS
]
R resistance will be rksR i zfrjks/ dsv kj&i kj mRiUu gksusokyh ' kfDr gksxh

+ +
18 V 18 V
3 k 3 k
– –

R V R V

(1) 16 mW (2) 24 mW (1) 16 mW (2) 24 mW

(3) 48 mW (4) 32 mW (3) 48 mW (4) 32 mW

CHEMISTRY CHEMISTRY
01. Which of t he following st ate me nts is/a re 01. fuEu esal sdkS u l k dFku l ghgS @gS
\
a
correct? I. CO2 dk 5 eks y rFkk H2O dk 5 eksy dk nzO;eku l eku
I. 5 moles of CO2 and 5 moles of H2O have the gksrk gS A
same mass.
II. 150 g, NH3 es ] 150 g, N2 esami fLFkr i jek.kqdhv i s{kk
a
II. 150 g of NH 3 has more atoms than that
present in 150 g of N2. v f/ d i jek.kqgksrsgS A
a
III.16 g of solid sulphur contains 3.76 × 1022 III.16 g Bks l l Yi Q j esa3.76 × 1022 v .kqgksrsgS A
a
molecules. (1) ds oy I rFkkII (2) ds oy II rFkkIII
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only (3) ds oy III (4) ds oy I
(3) III only (4) I only
02. l Yi sQ
V rFkk l Yi Q kbMv k; u gS
a&
02. Sulphate and Sulphide ions are :
(1) , dy l a ; kst d (2) f}l a
; kts d
(1) monovalent (2) divalent
(3) f=kl a
; kst d (4) prq %l ;akst d
(3) trivalent (4) tetravalent
03. German silver is an alloy of 03. t eZu fl Yoj feJ/ kkrqgS&
(1) Cu and Ni (2) Cu, Sn and Ag (1) Cu v kS j Ni (2) Cu, Sn v kS j Ag
(3) Cu, Zn and Ni (4) Cu, Ni, Fe and Mn (3) Cu, Zn v kS j Ni (4) Cu, Ni, Fe v kS j Mn
04. Which of the following is not an allotropic form 04. fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS u l k dkcZ
u dk v i j: i ughagS \
of carbon?
(1) Ýyks j hu (2) i q
QYysjhu
(1) Fluorine (2) Fullerene
(3) ghjk (4) xzsiQ
kbV
(3) Diamond (4) Graphite
05. , d bysDVªkW u d{kk P l sQ Nyka x yxkrk gSrFkkÅt kZi zkIr djrk
05. An electron jumps from an orbit P to Q and gain
energy. The same electron when jumps from gSAogh bysDVªkW u t c R l sQ Nyka x yxkrk gSrksÅt kZdk gkfu
R to Q, lose energy. gksrk gSAdsUnzl sbu d{kk dschp dhnw j hdk v kjksgh Øe gS&
The increasing order of distance of these orbits (1) P < Q < R
from the nucleus is (2) R < P < Q
(1) P < Q < R (2) R < P < Q (3) R < Q < P
(3) R < Q < P (4) P < R < Q (4) P < R < Q

Class-X (Pre)/06
06. Which of the following statements are correct? 06. fuEu esal sdkS
u l k dFku l ghgS
\
a
I. The atomic radii increase along a period from
I. v koÙkZdsvuq
fn' kck¡, l snk, ¡dhv ksj i jek.kqf=kT; kc<+
r hgS
A
left to right.
II. In periodic table isotopes are given separate II. v koÙkZl kj.khesal eLFkkfudksadk LFkku v yx gksrk gS
A
places. III. / krq
v ksadk v kW
Dl kbM] {kkjh; i zd f̀r dk gksrk gS
A
III.The oxides of metals are basic in nature.
IV. Na, Mg rFkk Al l eku v koÙkZesagksrsgS
A
a
IV. Na, Mg and Al belong to the same period.
(1) dsoy I rFkkIV (2) dsoy II rFkkIV
(1) I and IV only (2) II and IV only
(3) I and II only (4) III and IV only (3) dsoy I rFkkII (4) dsoy III rFkkIV
07. Which of the following reactions is a redox 07. fuEu esadkS
u l hv fHkfØ; k v kW
Dl hdj.k v fHkfØ; k gS
\
reaction?
(1) HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O
(1) HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O
(2) 2KOH + H2SO4  K2SO4 + 2H2O
(2) 2KOH + H2SO4  K2SO4 + 2H2O
(3) PbCO3 + 2KI  PbI 2 + K2CO3
(3) PbCO3 + 2KI  PbI 2 + K2CO3
(4) H2S + Cl2  2HCl + S
(4) H2S + Cl2  2HCl + S
08. Zn, Co rFkk Ni dsjkl k; fud i zfrfØ; k dk l ghØe D; k gS
\
08. What is the correct order of chemical activity of
Zn, Co and Ni? (1) Ni > Zn > Co (2) Co > Zn > Ni
(1) Ni > Zn > Co (2) Co > Zn > Ni (3) Zn > Co > Ni (4) Zn = Co > Ni
(3) Zn > Co > Ni (4) Zn = Co > Ni 09. , d foy; u uhysfyVel dksyky dj nsrk gS
Afoy; u dk pH
09. A solution turns blue litmus red. The pH of the yxHkx gS&
solution is probably (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 6
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 6
10. i kuh dk bysDVªksfyfl l , d v i ?kVu v fHkfØ; k gS A i kuh ds
10. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction.
The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases
bysDVªksfyfl l dsnkS j ku eq
Dr gkbMªkst u v kS
j v kW
Dl ht u xSl ksads
liberated during electrolysis of water is eksy dk v uq i kr gS&
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
11. Which of the following compounds is not a base? 11. fuEufyf[ kr esadkS
u l k ; kS
fxd {kkj ughagS
\
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) NaOH (1) CH3CH2OH (2) NaOH
(3) KOH (4) NH4OH (3) KOH (4) NH4OH
12. In which of the following test tubes effervescence 12. fuEu esal sfdl i j[ kuyhesacq
ncq
nkgV dhèofu i zs{k.kdht k, xh\
will be observed?

Acetic acid

NaCl NaHCO3
solution solution
P Q

Acetic
acid

NaOH Na2SO4
solution solution
R S

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

Class-X (Pre)/07
13. When a base is dissolved in water 13. t c {kkj dksi kuh esa?kksy k t krk gS&
(1) Concentration of OH– ions per unit volume (1) OH– v k; uksadh i zfr bdkbZv k; ru esal ka
nzrk c<+t krhgS
increases
(2) OH– v k; uksadhi zfr bdkbZv k; ru esal ka
nzrk ?kV t krh gS
(2) Concentration of OH– ions per unit volume
decreases (3) OH– v k; uks
adhi zfr bdkbZesal kUnzrkc<+; k?kVl drhgS; g
(3) Concentration of OH– ions per unit volume {kkj dhi zd f̀r i j fuHkZ
j djrh gS A
may increase or decrease depending upon the (4) OH– v k; uksadh i zfr bdkbZv k; ru esal kUnzrk esai fjoÙkZ
u
nature of the base
ughagksrk gSA
(4) No change in concentration of OH– ions per
unit volume occurs
14. X- v / krqgekjsHkks
t u dk egRoi w
. kZ?kVd gS
A; g nksv kW
Dl kbMksa
14. A non-metal X is an important constituent of our
food. It forms two oxides Y and Z. Y is toxic and Y rFkkZ l scukrkgS AY t gjhykgSrFkk?kqVu mRiUu djrkgS; gk¡
causes suffocation and even death while Z is rd fd eR̀;qHkhgkst krhgSoghaZ Xykscy okfeZxa dsfy, mÙkjnk; h
r esponsible for g loba l wa rming. I de nt ify gS
AX, Y rFkk Z dkspq usa
A
X, Y and Z.
(1) X = C, Y = CO, Z = CO2
(1) X = C, Y = CO, Z = CO2
(2) X = S, Y = SO2, Z = SO3
(2) X = S, Y = SO2, Z = SO3
(3) X = P, Y = P2O3, Z = P2O5
(3) X = P, Y = P2O3, Z = P2O5 (4) X = O, Y = O2, Z = O3
(4) X = O, Y = O2, Z = O3
15. v fHkfØ; k i j fopkj djsa&
15. Consider the reaction :
Alk. KMnO4
CH3CH2 OH 
Heat
CH3 COOH
Alk. KMnO4
CH3CH2OH  CH3 COOH
Heat
bl v fHkfØ; k esa
] , Ydsy kbu KMnO4 O;ogkj djrk gS&
In this reaction, alk.KMnO4 acts as :
(1) v kW
Dl hdkjd ?kVd (2) v odkjd ?kVd
(1) oxidising agent (2) reducing agent
(3) mRizsjd (4) fut Z
fyr ?kVd
(3) catalyst (4) dehydrating agent
16. After making two covalent bonds with hydrogen
16. t y ] esa gkbMªkW
t u i j ek. kq d s l kFk nks l gl a;kst d
atoms in water, oxygen acquires the electronic ca/ u cukusdsckn v kW
Dl ht u bl dh bysDVªkW
fud foU;kl i zkIr
configuration of : djrk gS&
(1) He (2) Ne (3) Ar (4) Kr (1) He (2) Ne (3) Ar (4) Kr
17. Phenolphthalein gives : 17. i sQ
uksYi Q
Fksfyu nsrk gS&
(1) pink colour with HCl solution (1) HCl foy; u dsl kFkxqy kchjax
(2) pink colour with NaOH solution (2) NaOH foy; u dsl kFk xq y kchjax
(3) purple colour with HCl solution (3) HCl foy; u dsl kFkcS xuhja
a x
(4) purple colour with NaOH solution (4) NaOH foy; u dsl kFk cS xuhja
a x
18. Aluminium bears a diagonal relationship with
18. , Y; q
fefu; e dk bl dsl kFk fod.kZl EcU/ gkrsk gS&
(1) Be (2) C (3) B (4) Ga (1) Be (2) C (3) B (4) Ga
19. To study the chemical properties, Mendeleev 19. jkl k; fud xq
. kksadkv è; ; u djusdsfy, ] esa Mfyo] P rFkkQ ds
concentrated on the compounds formed by
differ ent ele ment s with P and Q . I dentify l kFkfHkUu rRoksa}kjkcus; kS
fxd i j è; ku nsrsgS
a
AP rFkkQ dkp; u
P and Q. djsaA
P Q P Q
(1) Oxygen Nitrogen (1) v kW
Dl ht u ukbVªkst u
(2) Oxygen Sulphur (2) v kW
Dl ht u l Yi Qj
(3) Hydrogen Oxygen (3) gkbMªkst u v kW
Dl ht u
(4) Hydrogen Carbon (4) gkbMªkst u dkcZ
u

Class-X (Pre)/08
20. Geetika poured 25 g of salt into 250 mL of water 20. xhfrdkfdl hcÙkZ u esa250 ml t y esa25g ued feykrhgS Aog
in a beaker. She stirred the water to dissolve ued dksi w . kZ
r %?kq
y kusdsfy, t y dksfgykrhgS Afi Q
j og ?kksy
the salt completely. Then she heated the solution
until it was reduced to half. How many grams of
dksrcrd xeZdjrhgSt c rd fd ?kVdj v k/ ku gkst k, Acps
salt can be re covere d from the remaining gq
, ?kksy l sfdruk xzke ued i zkIr fd; k t k l drk gS
\
solution?

Salt solution

Bunsen burner

(1) 0 g (2) 20 g (3) 25 g (4) 40 g

(1) 0 g (2) 20 g (3) 25 g (4) 40 g

BIOLOGY
BIOLOGY
01. Which one of the following element is used in 01. fuEu rÙoksaesafdl dk mi ; ksx i zksVhu l a
' ys"k.k esa
sfd; kt krk gS\
the synthesis of proteins ?
(1) iQ
kW
Li Q
ksjl (2) yksgk
(1) Phosphorus (2) Iron
(3) ukbVªkst u (4) eS
fXuf' k; e
(3) Nitrogen (4) Magnesium
02. Which enzyme helps in the digestion of protein ? 02. dkS
u&l k bUt kbe i zksVhu dsi kpu esaenn djrk gS\
(1) Pepsin (2) Salivary amylase (1) i sIl hu (2) l k; ysojh, ek; yst
(3) Trypsin (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) fVªfIl u (4) (1) rFkk(3) nksuksa
03. Which duct takes the urine out from the urinary
bladder to the outside of the body ? 03. dkS
u&l hokfguh] ew
=k dksew
=kk' k; l s' kjhj dsckgj yst krhgS\
(1) Ureter (2) Vena cava
(1) ew
=kokfguh (2) osuk dkok
(3) Renal vein (4) Urethra
04. Choose the incorrect statement (3) oD̀d f' kjk (4) ew
=k ekxZ
(1) The hind-brain is the main thinking part of 04. xyr dFku dkspq usa%
the brain
(1) i ' p&efLr"d] efLr"d es al kspusdk eq [ ; fgLl k gSA
(2) Involuntary actions are controlled by the
medulla in the hind-brain (2) v uS fPNd fØ; k] i ' p efLr"d dseè; ka ' kl sfu; a
f=kr gksrkgSA
(3) The gustatory receptors are present in tongue (3) l a okn xzkgh] t hHk i j mi fLFkr gksrk gSA
(4) All of the above (4) mi ; q Dr l HkhA
Z
05. What is the main function of cytokinins in 05. i kS
/ ksaesal k; Vksfduhu dk eq[ ; dk; ZD; k gS\
plants ?
(1) ruk dsof̀¼ dksc<+ krk gSA
(1) Promote growth of stem
(2) of̀¼ dks?kVkrk gSA
(2) Inhibit growth
(3) dks f' kdkv ksadhyEckbZdksc<+ krk gSA
(3) Increase the length of cells
(4) Promote cell division
(4) dksf' kdk foHkkt u dksc<+
kok nsrk gSA

Class-X (Pre)/09
06. Identify A, B and C 06. A, B rFkk C dksi gpkusa%

A B C A B C
(1) HypothalmusPituitary Pineal gland
(1) gkbi ksFkS
y el i h; w
"k xza
fFk fi fu; y xza
fFk
gland
(2) Fkk; el i h; w
"k xza
fFk Fkk; jkW
bM xza
fFk
(2) Thymus Pituitary Thyroid gland
gland (3) i kjkFkkjkbM fi fu; y xza
fFk Fkk; el
(3) Parathyroid Pineal Thymus xza
fFk
gland gland (4) i kjkFkk; W
j kbM Fkk; jkW
; M xa
zfFk
a fi fu; y xa
zfFk
(4) Parathyorid Thyroid Pineal
xza
fFk
gland gland gland
07. ekuo i zt uu ra
=k esa' kq
Øk.kqdsLFkkukUrj.k dsl ghØe dkspq
usa
07. Choose the correct sequence of organs in the
male reproductive system for transport of sperms. (1) o`"k.k ' kq
Øokgd  ew
=kokfguh
(1) Testis  Vas deferens  Ureter (2) o`"k.k ew
=kokfguh ew
=kekxZ
(2) Testis  Ureter  Urethra
(3) o`"k.k ' kq
Øokgd  ew
=kekxZ
(3) Testis  Vas deferens  Urethra
(4) o`"k.k eq
=kekxZ ' kq
Øokgd
(4) Testis  Urethra Vas deferens
08. In ______ a bud develops as an outgrowth due to 08. ________ esafdl h fuf' pr LFkku i j yxkrkj dksf' kdk foHkkt u
repeated cell division at one specific site. dsdkj.k mHkkj ds: i esa, d dyhfodfl r gksrh gSA
(1) Hydra (2) Planaria (1) gkbMªk (2) Iykus fj; k
(3) Rhizopus (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) jkbt ksil (4) (1) rFkk(2) nks uksa
09. Copper-T are placed in the : 09. dkWi j&T dksj[ kk t krk gS
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Ovary
(1) v aMokfguhufydk esa (2) v aMk' k; esa
(3) Uterus (4) Vagina
(3) xHkkZ
' k; esa (4) ; ks
fu esa
10. Which one of the following is the unisexual
flower ? 10. fuEu es al sdkS u&, dyS fxd i q
a "i gS\
(1) Hibiscus (2) Watermelon (1) v M+ gqy (2) rjcw t
(3) Mustard (4) All of the above (3) l jl ks
a (4) mi ; q
Dr l Hkh
Z
11. I f a round, green seeded pea plant RRyy is 11. ; fn xks
y ] gjscht okyseVj dsi kS / s(RRyy) dksfl dq M+
s] i hyscht
crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea (rrYY) okyseVj dsi kS / s(rr YY) l sl a
d j djk; kt krk gSrksF1i h<+ hesa
plant the seed production in F1 generation cht dk mRiknu gS &
(1) Round and green (1) xksy v kS j gjk
(2) Wrinkled and green
(2) fl dq M+k v kSj gjk
(3) Round and yellow
(3) xksy v kS j i hyk
(4) Wrinkled and yellow
(4) fl dq M+k v kS
j i hyk

Class-X (Pre)/010
12. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to 12. feyj v kS
j mM+
s] dkcZ
fud ; kS
fxd dst hou dh mRifÙk dksfl ¼
prove the origin of life from organic compounds. djusdsfy, , d i z;ksx djrk gSAmUgksa
usbu xS
l ksadksfy; k—
They took gases—
(1) v eksfu; k] feFksu rFkk gkbMªkst u l Yi Q
kbM
(1) Ammonia, Methane and Hydrogen Sulphide
(2) Ammonia, Butane and Hydrogen Sulphate (2) v eksfu; k] C;w
Vsu rFkk gkbMªkst u l Yi sQ
V
(3) Nitrate, Methane and Oxygen (3) ukbVªsV] feFksu rFkk v kW
Dl ht u
(4) Nitrogen, Butane and Oxygen (4) ukbVªkst u] C;w
Vsu rFkk v kW
Dl ht u
13. Identify the given wing : 13. fn, x, i a
[ kksadksi gpkus:

(1) Bird (2) Bat (1) fpfM+

; k¡ (2) pexknj
(3) Lizard (4) Frog (3) fNi dyh (4) es<+
d
14. What is the name of the ancestor of Kale ? 14. dk, y dsi w
oZ
t dk uke D; k gS
a\
(1) Red cabbage (2) Broccoli
(1) yky xksHkh (2) czksd yh
(3) Kohlrabi (4) Wild cabbage
(3) dksgy jkch (4) ta
xyh xksHkh
15. Which one of the follow ing sta tement s is
incorrect ? 15. fuEufyf[ kr dFkuksaesadkS
u v l R; gS\
(1) Intercalary meristem seen in some plants (1) dq
N i kS
/ ksaesa
] eè; LFkfoHkkT; ksÙkd xk¡B dsi kl fn[ kkbZnsrkgSA
is located near the node
(2) i kS
/ sesayphyki u] dkW
y sUdk; ek dsdkj.k gksrk gSA
(2) The fle xbilit y in pla nt s is due t o the
collenchyma (3) i kS
/ sesat k; ye] t y dsLFkkukUrj.k dsfy, mÙkjnk; hgSA
(3) The xylems in plants are responsible for the (4) mi ; q
Dr dksbZugha
Z
transport of water
(4) None of the above 16. vl a
xr ; q
Xe dkspq
usa
A
16. Choose the mismatched pairs.
(1) fl yUVsjkVk— l h, uheksu
(1) Coelenterata — Sea anemone
(2) i kW
fji sQ
jk— l kW
fUt yk
(2) Porifera — Spongilla
(3) IysfVgsfYeUFkl — usfjl
(3) Platyhelminthes — Nereis
(4) Mollusca — Unio (4) eksy Ldk— ; w
fu; ks
17. Which one of the following diseases does not 17. fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS
u&l hfcekjhgok ds}kjk i Q
y rhgS\
S
spread through the air ?
(1) gS
tk (2) l nhZ
&t q
[ kke
(1) Cholera (2) Common cold
(3) fueksfu; k (4) {k; jksx
(3) Pneumonia (4) Tuberculosis
18. fdl feV~
Vhesat y dkst dM+
sj[ kusdh{kerkl cl sv f/ d gksrh
18. The water holding capacity is the highest in
which soil gS&
(1) Sandy soil (2) Loamy soil (1) cyq
bZfeV~
Vh (2) nkseV feV~
Vh
(3) Clayey soil (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) fpduhfeV~
Vh (4) (1) rFkk(3) nksuksa
19. Cyperus rotundus is the scientific name of : 19. ^l k; i sfjul jksVa
Ml * _________ dk oS
Kkfud uke gS\
(1) Gokhroo (2) Motha
(1) xks[k: (2) eksFkk
(3) Gajar ghas (4) Cowpea
(3) xkt j ?kkl (4) dkmi h

Class-X (Pre)/011
20. Match the columns : 20. LrEHkksadk feyku djsa%
Column-I Column-II Lr EHk-I LrEHk-II
(a) Binary fission (i) Hydra (a) ; qXe foHkkt u (i) gkbMªk
(b) Budding (ii) Rhizopus (b) uoks fnr (ii) jkbt ks
il
(c) Regenaration (iii) Leishmania
(c) i q
uZt uu (iii) ys' kekfu; k
(d) Spore formation (iv) Planaria
(d) cht k.kqdk cukuk (iv) Iykus fj; k
(1) a = (i), b = (iv), c = (iii), d = (ii)
(1) a = (i), b = (iv), c = (iii), d = (ii)
(2) a = (iii), b = (i), c = (iv), d = (ii)
(2) a = (iii), b = (i), c = (iv), d = (ii)
(3) a = (iii), b = (iv), c = (i), d = (ii) (3) a = (iii), b = (iv), c = (i), d = (ii)
(4) a = (i), b = (ii), c = (iii), d = (iv) (4) a = (i), b = (ii), c = (iii), d = (iv)

MATHS MATHS
01. The HCF and the LCM of 12, 21, 15 respectively 01. 12, 21 rFkk 15 dk y?kq
Ùke l eki oR;ZrFkk egÙke l eki oZ
R;
are
Øe' k%gS\
(1) 3, 140 (2) 12, 420 (3) 3,420 (4) 420, 3
(1) 3, 140 (2) 12, 420 (3) 3,420 (4) 420, 3
02. I f    a re t he z er os of t he polynomia l
f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, then + + 2 =
02. ; fn cgq
y d f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d ds' kq
U;d gS
arks
+ + 2 =
b2  ac b2  2ac
(1) (2) b2  ac b2  2ac
a 2 a (1) (2)
a2 a

b2  2ac b2  2ac b2  2ac b2  2ac

(3) (4) (3) (4)
b2 a2 b2 a2
03. In figure if tangents PA and PB are drawn to a 03. fp=kesa] fdl hoÙ̀ki j Li ' kZ
j s[kkPA rFkkPB bl i zd kj [ kha
pkt krk
circle such that APB = 30° and chord AC is gSfd APB = 30° rFkkT; kAC dks] Li ' kZ j s[kkPB dsl ekUrj
drawn parallel to the tangent PB, then ABC =
[ kha
pk t krk gSrksABC =

C A C A

O O

30° 30°
B P B P
(1) 60° (2) 90° (1) 60° (2) 90°
(3) 30° (4) None of these (3) 30° buesal sdksbZugha
(4)
04. In figure, PQ  BC. The ratio of the perimeter of 04. fp=k esaPQ  BC. ABC rFkk APQ dsi fjf/ dk v uq i kr
ABC to that of APQ is 3 : 1. Given that the 3 : 1 gSAfn; kx; k gSfd APQ ds{ks =ki Q
y dk l ka
f[ ; d eku
numerical value of the area of APQ is a whole ,d i w. kZl a
[ ; k gSAfuEu esal sdkS
u ABC dk {ks=ki Qy gksxk?
number. Which of the following could be the area
of ABC ? A
A

P Q
P Q

B C
B C
(1) 28 sq. units (2) 60 sq. units (1) 28 oxZbdkbZ (2) 60 oxZbdkbZ
(3) 99 sq. units (4) 120 sq. units (3) 99 oxZbdkbZ (4) 120 oxZbdkbZ

Class-X (Pre)/012
05. Seema has only j 1 and j 2 coins with her. If the 05. l hek dsi kl dsoy 1 j rFkk2 j dsfl DdsgS A; fn ml dsi kl
a
total number of coins that she has is 50 and the dqy fl Ddksadhl a[ ; k 50 gSrFkk ml dsi kl dqy jkf' k 75 j gS
amount of money with her is j 75, then the rks1 j rFkk2 j dsfl Ddksadh l a [ ; k Øe' k%gS
number of j 1 and j 2 coins are, respectively
(1) 35 rFkk15 (2) 35 rFkk20
(1) 35 and 15 (2) 35 and 20
(3) 15 and 35 (4) 25 and 25 (3) 15 rFkk35 (4) 25 rFkk25
06. Which of the following equations has no real 06. fuEu l ehdj.kksaesafdl dk okLrfod ew
y ughagS\
roots ?
(1) x 2  4x  3 2  0 (2) x 2  4x  3 2  0
(1) x 2  4x  3 2  0 (2) x 2  4x  3 2  0
(3) x 2  4x  3 2  0 (4) 3x 2  4 3x  4  0
(3) x 2  4x  3 2  0 (4) 3x 2  4 3x  4  0
07. If A(x, 2), B(–3, –4) and C(7, –5) are collinear, then 07. ; fn A(x, 2), B(–3, –4) rFkkC(7, –5) , d jS
f[ kd gSrksx dk
the value of x is eku gS\
(1) –63 (2) 63 (3) 60 (4) –60 (1) –63 (2) 63 (3) 60 (4) –60
5  9  13   to n terms 17 5  9  13   n i nksard 17
08. If 7  9  11   to(n  1) terms  16 , then n = ; fn 7  9  11  .. n  1) i nka
s rd 16 rc n =
08.  ,

(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 11

(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 11
09. The value of
cos(90  )sec(90  ) tan  tan(90  )
cos(90  )sec(90  )tan  tan(90  ) 09. 
 is cosec(90  )sin(90  )cot(90  ) cot 
cosec(90  )sin(90   )cot(90  ) cot 
dk eku gS
&
(1) 1 (2) –1 (3) 2 (4) –2
(1) 1 (2) –1 (3) 2 (4) –2
10. In a ABC, if B = 90°, BC = 5 cm, AC – AB = 1 cm.
10. fd l h AB C esa ; fn B = 90°, BC = 5 cm,
1  sin C
Then the value of is 1  sin C
1  cos C
AC – AB = 1 cm. dk eku gS
&
1  cos C
18 36 25 31
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 31 18 36 18 36 25 31
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 31 18 36
cot  tan 
11.  is equal to
cot   cot 3 tan   tan 3 cot  tan 
11.  cjkcj gS
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) 2 cot   cot 3 tan   tan 3
12. Two poles are ‘a’ metres apart and the height of (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) 2
one is double of the other. If from the middle point 12. nks[ kEHks, d nw l jsl s'a' ehVj dhnw
j hi j gSrFkk, d dhmQ ¡pkbZ
of the line joining their feet an observer finds
the a ngular e levations of the ir tops to be nw
l jsl snksxquhgSA; fn mudsv k/ kjksadksfeykusokyhjs[kkdseè;
complementary, then the height of the smaller fcUnql s, d i zs{kd i krkgSfd muds' kh"kZdsdks.kh; mUu; u i w
jd
is gSrksNksVs[ kEHksdh Å¡pkbZgS&
a a
(1) 2a metres (2) metres
2 2 (1) 2a ehVj (2) ehVj
2 2
a
(3) metres (4) 2a metres a
2 (3) ehVj (4) 2a ehVj
2
13. If AB is a chord of length 5 3 cm of a circle with
13. ; fn AB dsUnz O v kS
j f=kT; k 5 cm okys oÙ̀k dh yEckbZ
centre O and radius 5 cm, then area of sector
OAB is 5 3 cm dh , d t hokgSrksf=kT; [ ka
MOAB dk{ks=ki Q
y gS
&
3 8 3 8
(1) cm2 (2) cm2 (1) cm2 (2) cm2
8 3 8 3

25 
(3) 25 cm2 (4) cm2 25 
cm2
3 (3) 25 cm2 (4)
3

Class-X (Pre)/013
14. The height and radius of the cone of which the 14. , d ' ka
d qft l dsfNUUkd dsfgLl sdh mQ ¡pkbZrFkk f=kT; k Øe' k%
frustum is a part are h1 and r1 respectively. If h1 rFkkr1 gSA; fn fNU Ukd dsNksVsv k/ kj dhmQ ¡pkbZrFkkf=kT; k
h2 and r 2 are the heights and radius of the
smaller base of the frustum respectively and
Øe' k%h2 rFkk r2 gSrksh2 : h1 = 1 : 2 rksr2 : r1 cjkcj gS &
h2 : h1 = 1 : 2, then r2 : r1 is equal to (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 15. fuEu v kof̀Ùk v koa
Vu dksè; ku l sv è; ; u djsa%
15. Consider the following frequency distribution. oxZ 65 - 85 85 -105 105 - 125 125 - 145 145 -165 165 - 185 185 - 205
Class 65 - 85 85 -105 105 -125 125 -145 145 -165 165 -185 185 - 205
v kof̀Ùk 4 5 13 20 14 7 4

eè; oxZdsmPPkl hekrFkkekW

My oxZdsfuEu l hekdschp dk
Frequency 4 5 13 20 14 7 4

The difference of the upper limit of the median v Urj gS%

class and the lower limit of the modal class is
(1) 0 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 38
(1) 0 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 38
16. ; fn v k¡d M+
s: 24, 25, 26, x + 2, x + 3, 30, 31, 34 dk
16. If the median of the data : 24, 25, 26, x + 2, x + 3,
30, 31, 34, is 27.5, then x = ekè; d 27.5, gSrksx =
(1) 27 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 30 (1) 27 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 30
17. In figure, the area of ABC (in square units) is 17. fp=k esa
] ABC dk {ks=ki Q
y ( oxZbdkbZesagS
)&
y y
A(1, 3) A(1, 3)

B C B C
x –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 x x –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 x

y y

(1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 7.5 (4) 2.5 (1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 7.5 (4) 2.5
18. When the Sun’s elevation is 30°, the shadow of 18. tclw ; ZdkmUUk; u 30° gSrksfdl hehukj dhNk; k30 yEchgS
]
a tower is 30 m long, if the Sun’s elevation is
60°, then the length of the shadow is ; fn l w
; Zdk mUUk; u 60° gSrksNk; k dhyEckbZgS
(1) 35 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) 15 m (1) 35 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) 15 m
19. In figure if AQ = 4cm, QR = 7 cm, DS = 3 cm, 19. fp=k esa; fn AQ = 4cm, QR = 7 cm, DS = 3 cm rks x =
then x =
Q
Q 4cm
4cm P
A
A
P
7cm
7cm

D
3cm

D B
3cm

B
S
S C
x R
C
x R

(1) 6 cm (2) 8 cm (3) 11 cm (4) 10 cm

(1) 6 cm (2) 8 cm (3) 11 cm (4) 10 cm
20. A bag contains cards numbered from 1 to 25. A 20. , d FkS
y sesa1 l s25 rd fy[ ksl a [ ; kdk dkMZgSAFkSy sl s, d
card is drawn at random from the bag. The dkMZdks; knf̀PNd : i l sfudky fy; kt krkgS Aml dkMZi j fy[ ks
probability that the number on this card is vad dk 2 rFkk 3 nksuksal sfoHkkft r gksusdhl a
Hkkouk gS&
divisible by both 2 and 3 is
1 2 4 2
1 2 4 2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 5 25 25 25
5 25 25 25

Class-X (Pre)/014
 REASONING REASONING
01. Choose the correct answer from the option which 01. fodYi l sl ghmÙkj pq
usat ks^\ * dksfoLFkkfi r djrk gS%
replaces '?'
7 4 5
7 4 5
8 7 6
8 7 6
3 3 ?
3 3 ?
29 19 31
29 19 31
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 5 (4) 9
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 5 (4) 9
02. Choose the correct answer from the option which 02. fodYi l sl ghmÙkj pq
usat ks^\ * dksfoLFkkfi r djrk gS%
replaces '?'
3 3 5
3 3 5
12 18 ?
12 18 ?
5 4 5 6 8 3
5 4 5 6 8 3
(1) 27 (2) 21 (3) 29 (4) 24
(1) 27 (2) 21 (3) 29 (4) 24 03. , d O;fDr i w
j c dhv ksj 4 fdyksehVj pyrk gSAfi Q j og mÙkj
03. A man moves 4 km towards East. Then moves
dhv ksj 3 fdyksehVj pyrkgSAog i zkjafHkd fcUnql sfdruhnwjh
3 km; towards north. How far he is from the
starting point ? i j gS\
(1) 8 km (2) 7 km (3) 5 km (4) 6 km (1) 8 km (2) 7 km (3) 5 km (4) 6 km
04. If + means ×, – means ÷, × means – and ÷ means 04. ; fn + dkv FkZ'×', '–' dkv FkZ÷, '×' dkv FkZ'–' rFkk'÷' dkv FkZ
+ then 9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 = ? + gSrks9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 = ?
(1) 62 (2) 64 (3) 65 (4) 67 (1) 62 (2) 64 (3) 65 (4) 67
05. If in any code language NATIONAL is written as
05. ; fn fdl hl kad sfrd Hkk"kkesaNATIONAL dksMZGRLMZO
MZGRLMZO then how is JAIPUR written in that
language ? fy[ kk t krk gSrksJAIPUR dksml Hkk"kk esadS
l sfy[ kk t k; sxk
(1) QZRKFI (2) PZRKFI (1) QZRKFI (2) PZRKFI
(3) QZRIFK (4) QARKFI (3) QZRIFK (4) QARKFI
06. SPOT the stranger, in the following group. 06. fuEufyf[ kr l ew
g esafHkUu dksi gpkusa&
(1) Lotus (2) Jasmine (1) dey (2) pes yh
(3) Marigold (4) Lily
(3) xs nk
a (4) fyyh
07. How many numbers between 10 and 90 are
divisible by 8 completely ? 07. 10 l s90 dschp , s l h fdruh l a
[ ; k, ¡ gS
at ks8 l si w
. kZ: i l s
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 8 foHkkft r gS\
08. Which letter is exactly midway between H and S (1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 8
in the given alphabet? 08. fn, x, o.kZ
ekyk esadkS
u l k v {kj H v kS
j S dsBhd chp esagS
\
(1) K (2) L (1) K (2) L
(3) M (4) None of these (3) M (4) bues
alsdksbZugha
09. Choose the correct answer figure. From the 09. mÙ kj fp=kl sl ghmÙkj dkspq
usat ksi z'u fp=kesa^\ * dksfoLFkkfi r
option figure, which replaces '?' in the problem
djrk gS\
figure.
Problem Figures ç' u fp=k

Answer Figures mÙkj fp=k

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

Class-X (Pre)/015
10. In the following questions, complete the missing 10. fn, x, fodYi ksa(1, 2, 3, 4) l sl ghfodYi pq
ust ksuhpsfn,
se gme nt by sele cting from the g iven four x, i z'u l syq
Ir fgLl sdksi w
j k djrk gS
A
(1, 2, 3, 4) alternatives.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

11. How many triangles are present in the following 11. fuEu fp=k esafdrusf=kHkq
t mi fLFkr gS\
figure ?
A
A

E D
E D F
F B C
B C
(1) 14 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 9
(1) 14 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 9 12. fn, x, pkj fodYi ksal s]fn, x, i z'u fp=kdkl ghni Z
. ki zfrfcEc
12. Choose the correct mirror image of the given pqusaA
problem figure from given four alternative

i z'u fp=k
Problem Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)
13. v {kj 'Q' dsfoi jhr dkS
u&l k v {kj gS\
13. Which letter is opposite to letter Q ?
P R U
P R U R S Q
R S Q T U
T U
(1) T (2) R (3) P (4) U
(1) T (2) R (3) P (4) U
14. Given a figure (X) followed by four figures 1, 2, 3 14. v ki dks, d v kÑfr (X) nhxbZgSft l dspkj fp=k 1, 2, 3 rFkk
and 4 such that (X) is embedded in one of them. 4 bl i zd kj fn, x, gS
afd fp=k (X) muesal s, d esav UrfuZ
fgr
Trace out the correct alterantive. gSAl ghfodYi dkspq usaA

(X) (X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. Find out the odd one and write correct answer. 15. buesal sfHkUUk dkspq
usarFkk l ghmÙkj fy[ ksa%
(1) ACEGF (2) FHJLK (3) KMOQP (4) UWYZA
(1) ACEGF (2) FHJLK (3) KMOQP (4) UWYZA
16. Identify the correct related word. 16. l ghl a ca
f/ r ' kCn dksi gpkusa%
Calender : Dates :: Dictionary : ? dSy sUMj %rkjh[ k% %' kCndks"k%\
(1) Language (2) Sentences (1) Hkk"kk (2) okD;
(3) Grammar (4) Vocabulary (3) O ; kdj .k (4) ' kC
nkoyh
Class-X (Pre)/016
17. Find the wrong number from the group of 17. nh xbZ Ü
k̀a
[ kyk esaxyr l a
[ ; kv ksadsl ew
g dksKkr djsa%
numbers in the given series.
15, 34, 71, 134, 223, 350
15, 34, 71, 134, 223, 350
(1) 71 (2) 134 (3) 233 (4) 350
(1) 71 (2) 134 (3) 233 (4)350
18. ; fn ^gok* dksi kuh dgk x; k] t y dksgjk dgk x; k] gjk dks
18. If air is called water, water is called green, green
is called dust, dust is called yellow and yellow is /wy dgk x; k] / wy dksi hykdgk x; krFkk i hykdksckny dgk
called cloud, which of the following does fish live x; k rksfuEu esal sfdl esaeNyhjgrh gS\
in ?
(1) gok (2) i kuh (3) gj k (4) / w
y
(1) Ai r (2) Water (3) Gr een (4)Dust
19. fuEu osu v kjs[k esadkS
u] t ; i q
j ] jkt LFkku rFkk Hkkjr dksl ghl s
19. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
represents Jaipur, Rajasthan and India ? fu: fi r djrk gS\

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

20. Find out the correct alternative in this question 20. bl i z'u esal ghfodYi dkspq
usat ks^\ * dksfoLFkkfi r djrkgSA
which replaces ?.
1
1 8 2
8 2 5 3
5 3
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 15
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 15

Class-X (Pre)/017
 GTSE - Pre Exam (08.01.2023)
ANSWER KEY
CLASS - 10
PHY CHEM BIO MATHS REAS.
1. (4) 1. (2) 1. (3) 1. (3) 1. (3)
2. (1) 2. (2) 2. (4) 2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (4) 3. (3) 3. (4) 3. (3) 3. (3)
4. (4) 4. (1) 4. (1) 4. (3) 4. (3)
5. (2) 5. (1) 5. (4) 5. (4) 5. (1)
6. (3) 6. (4) 6. (2) 6. (1) 6. (1)
7. (1) 7. (4) 7. (3) 7. (1) 7. (2)
8. (1) 8. (3) 8. (1) 8. (2) 8. (4)
9. (3) 9. (4) 9. (3) 9. (3) 9. (4)
10. (2) 10. (2) 10. (2) 10. (3) 10. (2)
11. (2) 11. (1) 11. (3) 11. (2) 11. (3)
12. (3) 12. (2) 12. (1) 12. (2) 12. (4)
13. (4) 13. (1) 13. (2) 13. (4) 13. (2)
14. (3) 14. (1) 14. (4) 14. (2) 14. (4)
15. (3) 15. (1) 15. (4) 15. (3) 15. (4)
16. (4) 16. (2) 16. (3) 16. (2) 16. (4)
17. (3) 17. (2) 17. (1) 17. (3) 17. (2)
18. (2) 18. (1) 18. (3) 18. (3) 18. (3)
19. (1) 19. (3) 19. (2) 19. (1) 19. (3)
20. (2) 20. (3) 20. (2) 20. (3) 20. (3)

Correction and Modification

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question or answer or in both of them, then suggest the correct one with reference of book and expla nation. Your suggestion
will be sent to expert of respective subject and may be corrected in case of right claim. You can go on the following two links
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Class-X (Pre)/018