Logical Database Design and the Relational Model

1) ________ database specification indicates all the parameters for data storage that are then
input to database implementation.
A) Logical
B) Physical
C) Schematic
D) Conceptual

2) A form of database specification which maps conceptual requirements is called:

A) logical specifications.
B) response specifications.
C) security specifications.
D) physical specifications.

3) Data is represented in the form of:

A) data trees.
B) tables.
C) data notes.
D) chairs.

4) A two-dimensional table of data sometimes is called a:

A) group.
B) set.
C) declaration.
D) relation.

5) ________ is a component of the relational data model included to specify business rules to
maintain the integrity of data when they are manipulated.
A) Business rule constraint
B) Data integrity
C) Business integrity
D) Data structure

6) An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a relation is called a:
A) column.
B) foreign field.
C) primary key.
D) duplicate key.

7) An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary key of another relation in the
same database is called a:
A) link attribute.
B) link key.
C) foreign key.
D) foreign attribute.

8) A primary key whose value is unique across all relations is called a(n):
A) global primary key.
B) inter-table primary key.
C) enterprise key.
D) foreign global key.

9) A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a:

A) foreign key.
B) composite key.
C) multivalued key.
D) cardinal key.

10) In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make table definitions.
A) create session
B) create table
C) create index
D) select

12) Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a relational schema with
sample data?
A) Sample data can be used to improve user communications.
B) Sample data can be used for prototype generation.
C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.
D) Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of your design.

13) A domain definition consists of all of the following components EXCEPT:

A) domain name.
B) data type.
C) integrity constraints.
D) size.

14) Which of the following are properties of relations?

A) Each attribute has the same name.
B) No two rows in a relation are identical.
C) There are multivalued attributes in a relation.
D) All columns are numeric.
15) Which of the following violates the atomic property of relations?
A) Sam
B) Hinz
C) Sam Hinz
D) Atomic

16) The entity integrity rule states that:

A) no primary key attribute can be null.
B) referential integrity must be maintained across all entities.
C) each entity must have a primary key.
D) a primary key must have only one attribute.

17) The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null.
A) referential integrity constraint
B) entity integrity rule
C) partial specialization rule
D) range domain rule

19) All of the following are the main goals of normalization EXCEPT:
A) minimize data redundancy.
B) simplify the enforcement of referential integrity.
C) maximize storage space.
D) make it easier to maintain data.

20) When all multivalued attributes have been removed from a relation, it is said to be in:
A) first normal form.
B) second normal form.
C) Boyce-Codd normal form.
D) third normal form.

23) A relation that contains no multivalued attributes and has nonkey attributes solely dependent
on the primary key but contains transitive dependencies is in which normal form?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth

24) A constraint between two attributes is called a(n):

A) functional relation.
B) attribute dependency.
C) functional dependency.
D) functional relation constraint.
25) A candidate key must satisfy all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) the key must uniquely identify the row.
B) the key must indicate the row's position in the table.
C) the key must be nonredundant.
D) each nonkey attribute is functionally dependent upon it.

26) The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional dependency is the:
A) candidate key.
B) determinant.
C) foreign key.
D) primary key.

27) A functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally
dependent on part, but not all, of the primary key is called a ________ dependency.
A) partial key-based
B) partial functional
C) cross key
D) merged relation

28) A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes is called a:

A) partial functional dependency.
B) partial nonkey dependency.
C) transitive dependency.
D) partial transitive dependency.

29) ________ problems are encountered when removing data with transitive dependencies.
A) Insertion
B) Modification
C) Deletion
D) Merging

45) A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use is considered to be:
A) clean.
B) simple.
C) complex.
D) well-structured.

The Enhanced E-R Model

1) The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all attributes of a supertype is
called:
A) hierarchy reception.
B) class management.
C) attribute inheritance.
D) generalization
2) Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a relationship with one or more
subtypes?
A) Megatype
B) Supertype
C) Subgroup
D) Class

4) Subtypes should be used when:

A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type.
B) supertypes relate to objects outside the business.
C) the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that is unique to that subtype.
D) a recursive relationship is needed.

7) The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and forming relationships is
called:
A) specialization.
B) generalization.
C) creating discord.
D) selecting classes.

9) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types
is called:
A) generalization.
B) specialization.
C) normalization.
D) extrapulation.

11) The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to
any subtype.
A) semi-specialization
B) total specialization
C) partial specialization
D) disjointedness

13) The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the supertype must be a member of
some subtype in the relationship.
A) semi-specialization
B) total specialization
C) partial specialization
D) total convergence
14) Which of the following is a completeness constraint?
A) Total specialization
B) Partial generalization
C) Total recall
D) Partial hybridization

15) A(n) ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses whether an instance of a
supertype must also be an instance of at least one subtype.
A) disjoint
B) overlap
C) completeness
D) weak

17) The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of only one subtype at a time.
A) exclusion
B) disjoint
C) removal
D) inclusion

18) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member

of two or more subtypes.
A) disjointedness constraint
B) disjoint rule
C) partial specialization
D) total specialization

20) An attribute of the supertype that determines the target subtype(s) is called the:
A) determinant.
B) subtype decision.
C) disjoint indicator.
D) subtype discriminator.

21) The ________ rule states that an entity instance can simultaneously be a member of two (or
more) subtypes.
A) disjoint
B) overlap
C) partial specialization
D) total specialization

24) The subtype discriminator is a composite attribute when there is a(n):

A) overlap rule.
B) disjoint rule.
C) partial specialization.
D) full specialization.

26) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, each subtype has:

A) only one supertype.
B) many supertypes.
C) at most two supertypes.
D) at least one subtype.

Modeling Data in the Organization

1) The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n):

A) database model.
B) entity-relationship model.
C) relationship systems design.
D) database entity diagram.

2) A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a data object EXCEPT:
A) subtleties.
B) examples.
C) who determines the value of the data.
D) who can delete the data.

3) A fact is an association between two or more:

A) words.
B) terms.
C) facts.
D) nuggets.
4) Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems development process because:
A) data characteristics are important in the design of programs and other systems
components.
B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and play a central role in
development.
C) data are less stable than processes.
D) it is the easiest.

5) The most common types of entities are:

A) strong entities.
B) weak entities.
C) associative entities.
D) smush entities.

6) In an E-R diagram, there are/is ________ business rule(s) for every relationship.
A) two
B) three
C) one
D) zero

7) Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT:

A) managing employees.
B) creating data.
C) updating data.
D) removing data.
8) A ________ defines or constrains some aspect of the business.
A) business constraint
B) business structure
C) business control
D) business rule

9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business rule?

A) Declarative
B) Atomic
C) Inconsistent
D) Expressible

10) Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data name?

A) Relates to business characteristics
B) Readable
C) Repeatable
D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system

11) Customers, cars, and parts are examples of:

A) entities.
B) attributes.
C) cardinals.
D) relationships.

12) Which of the following is an entity that exists independently of other entity types?
A) Codependent
B) Weak
C) Strong
D) Variant

13) An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a ________ entity.
A) strong
B) weak
C) codependent
D) variant

15) A(n) ________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and its owner.
A) member chain
B) identifying relationship
C) jump path
D) chain link

16) An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT:

A) concise.
B) specific to the organization.
C) as short as possible.
D) a singular noun.

17) A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to the organization is called
a(n):
A) attribute.
B) coexisting entity.
C) relationship.
D) cross-function.

18) An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or relationship) instance is a(n):
A) composite attribute.
B) required attribute.
C) optional attribute.
D) multivalued attribute.

19) A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all examples of:
A) attributes.
B) entities.
C) relationships.
D) descriptors
20) An attribute of an entity that must have a value for each entity instance is a(n):
A) optional attribute.
B) composite attribute.
C) required attribute.
D) fuzzy attribute.

21) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called a(n) ________ attribute.
A) associative
B) simple
C) composite
D) complex
22) The number of entity types that participate in a Unary relationship is:
A) zero.
B) one.
C) two.
D) three
23) The number of entity types that participate in a relationship is called the:
A) number.
B) identifying characteristic.
C) degree.
D) counter.

24) A relationship between the instances of a single entity type is called a ________ relationship.
A) ternary
B) primary
C) binary
D) unary

27) A simultaneous relationship among the instances of three entity types is called a ________
relationship.
A) ternary
B) tertiary
C) primary
D) binary

31) An attribute that can be calculated from related attribute values is called a ________
attribute.
A) simple
B) composite
C) multivalued
D) derived

32) The total quiz points for a student for an entire semester is a(n) ________ attribute.
A) derived
B) mixed
C) stored
D) addressed

33) Which of the following criteria should be considered when selecting an identifier?
A) Choose an identifier that is not stable.
B) Choose a null identifier.
C) Choose an identifier that doesn't have large composite attributes.
D) Choose the most complex identifier possible.

34) An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity and consists of a composite attribute is called
a(n):
A) composite attribute.
B) composite identifier.
C) identifying attribute.
D) relationship identifier.

35) An entity that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes
specific to the relationships is called a(n):
A) associative entity.
B) build entity.
C) gateway entity.
D) smush entity.

36) A ________ specifies the number of instances of one entity that can be associated with each
instance of another entity.
A) degree
B) cardinality constraint
C) counter constraint
D) limit

37) A relationship where the minimum and maximum cardinality are both one is a(n) ________
relationship.
A) optional
B) unidirectional
C) mandatory link
D) mandatory one

Physical Database Design and Performance

1) A requirement to begin designing physical files and databases is:

A) normalized relations.
B) physical tables created.
C) implementation complete.
D) all datatypes determined.

2) A key decision in the physical design process is:

A) ignoring the size of the database.
B) selecting structures.
C) deciding on the monitor.
D) deciding the e-r diagrams
3) Designing physical files requires ________ of where and when data are used in various ways.
A) maps
B) descriptions
C) keys
D) hints

5) A detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data
is called a(n):
A) DBMS code.
B) data type.
C) SQL.
D) DB layout.

6) All of the following are objectives when selecting a data type EXCEPT:
A) represent all possible values.
B) improve data integrity.
C) support all data manipulations.
D) use a lot of storage space.

8) The smallest unit of application data recognized by system software is a:

A) field.
B) row.
C) data type.
D) column

9) An appropriate datatype for one wanting a fixed-length type for last name would include:
A) VarChar.
B) Char.
C) Blob.
D) Date.

10) An appropriate datatype for adding a sound clip would be:

A) VarChar.
B) Char.
C) Blob.
D) Date
14) The value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit value for an instance of that
field is called a:
A) default value.
B) null value.
C) range control.
D) gurand.

The Database Environment and Development Process

1) A database is an organized collection of ________ related data.

A) logically
B) physically
C) loosely
D) badly
2) Older systems that often contain data of poor quality are called ________ systems.
A) controlled
B) legacy
C) database
D) mainframe
3) Program-data dependence is caused by:
A) file descriptions being stored in each database application.
B) data descriptions being stored on a server.
C) data descriptions being written into programming code.
D) data cohabiting with programs.

4) Because applications are often developed independently in file processing systems:

A) the data is always non-redundant.
B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception.
C) data can always be shared with others.
D) there is a large volume of file I/O.

5) Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by means of common fields
included in a file called a(n):
A) entity.
B) relationship.
C) relation.
D) association.

6) A(n) ________ is often developed by identifying a form or report that a user needs on a
regular basis.
A) enterprise view
B) reporting document
C) user view
D) user snapshot
7) A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data is called a(n):
A) XML data model.
B) hypertext graphic.
C) relational database
D) data model.
8) Data that describe the properties of other data are:
A) relationships.
B) logical.
C) physical.
D) metadata.

9) All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT:

A) data definitions.
B) processing logic.
C) rules or constraints.
D) data structures.

10) A person, place, object, event, or concept about which the organization wishes to maintain
data is called a(n):
A) relationship.
B) object.
C) attribute.
D) entity.

11) ________ are established between entities in a well-structured database so that the desired
information can be retrieved.
A) Entities
B) Relationships
C) Lines
D) Ties

12) All of the following are primary purposes of a database management system (DBMS)
EXCEPT:
A) creating data.
B) updating data.
C) storing data.
D) providing an integrated development environment.

13) With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a central location known as a:
A) server.
B) mainframe.
C) PC.
D) repository.
14) A user view is:
A) what a user sees when he or she looks out the window.
B) a table or set of tables.
C) a logical description of some portion of the database.
D) a procedure stored on the server.

15) Which organizational function should set database standards?

A) Management
B) Application development
C) Technical services
D) Database Administration

16) ________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access information from a database.
A) ODBC
B) Structured query language
C) ASP
D) Data manipulation query language

17) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database systems?

A) Redundant data
B) Program-data independence
C) Better data quality
D) Reduced program maintenance

18) The most common source of database failures in organizations is:

A) lack of planning.
B) inadequate budget.
C) inadequate hardware.
D) failure to implement a strong database administration function.

19) A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a:

A) password.
B) constraint.
C) program.
D) view.

20) In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the logic for accessing the data are
built into:
A) application programs.
B) database descriptors.
C) fields.
D) records.

22) Which of the following is NOT an objective that drove the development and evolution of
database technology?
A) The need to provide greater independence between programs and data
B) The desire to manage increasing complex data types and structures
C) The desire to require programmers to write all file handling functionality
D) The need to provide ever more powerful platforms for decision support applications
24) A relatively small team of people who collaborate on the same project is called a:
A) server group.
B) workgroup.
C) data collaborative.
D) typical arrangement.

25) A workgroup database is stored on a central device called a:

A) client.
B) server.
C) remote PC.
D) network.

27) Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database approach?
A) Specialized personnel
B) Cost of conversion
C) Improved responsiveness
D) Organizational conflict

28) The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of which type of risk in the
database environment?
A) Specialized personnel needs
B) Organizational conflict
C) Conversion costs
D) Legacy systems

30) Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to
databases?
A) Network operating system
B) User view
C) Database management system (DBMS)
D) Attribute
33) Database development begins with ________, which establishes the range and general
contents of organizational databases.
A) database design
B) cross-functional analysis
C) departmental data modeling
D) enterprise data modeling

34) The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain and replace information systems is
called the:
A) Enterprise Resource Model.
B) Systems Development Life Cycle.
C) Unified Model.
D) Systems Deployment Life Cycle.

35) The SDLC phase in which every data attribute is defined, every category of data is listed and
every business relationship between data entities is defined is called the ________ phase.
A) planning
B) design
C) analysis
D) implementation

36) The SDLC phase in which database processing programs are created is the ________ phase.
A) planning
B) design
C) analysis
D) implementation

38) Organizing the database in computer disk storage is done in the ________ phase.
A) design
B) maintenance
C) analysis
D) implementation

42) ________ do NOT concentrate on determining the requirements for the database component
of an information system.
A) Database analysts
B) Systems analysts
C) Programmers
D) End Users

43) The three-schema approach includes which of the following schemas?

A) Internal
B) Logical
C) Cross-functional
D) Dissecting
45) ________ is the most popular RDMS data model notation.
A) ERD
B) END
C) DRE
D) RED