1. Why does secondary resistance to antituberculosis drugs arise?

improper treatment
irregular medication intake
premature discontinuation of treatment

2. In pseudohypoparathyroidism parathormone is
a) Normal
b) Elevated
c) Reduced

3. Eradication of [Link] infection is carried out by a combination of measures:

a. H2 receptor blockers and antacids
b. proton pump inhibitors and H2 receptor blockers
c. antacids and antibiotics

4. The group of hyperplastic gastropathies include

Menetriere's disease and Zollinger Ellison syndrome

5. Ulcerative colitis
a) Large intestine (lesions "on the jump")
b) Mandatory rectal
c) Right column only

6. Primary hypopituitarism is caused by:

a) Damage to the adenohypophysis
b) Damage to the hypothalamus
c) By damage to the pituitary stalk
d) Lack of hypothalamic hormones

7. The radiological characteristics of emphysema are (circle 3 answers):

a) accentuated broncho vascular patter
b) lack of peripheral vascular pattern
c) lowered and flattened hemidiaphragm
d) increased pulmonary transparency parenchyma

8. The common tumours of the pituitary gland are

a) Adenomas of lactotropic cells
b) Adenomas of somatotropic cells
c) Adenomas of corticotropic cells

9. Determination of alpha-fetoprotein is a significant finding for diagnosis

a) Acute viral hepatitis
b) Chronic viral hepatitis
c) Carcinoma of the small intestine
d) Hepatocellular carcinoma

10. What are the stages of modern tuberculosis chemotherapy

Bactericidal-initial
Hospital-controlled
Sterilization under the control of ATD
11. What is creatinine clearance in terminal
a) 30 ml/min
b) less than 10 ml/min
c) over 35 ml/min

12. In a person with diabetes insipidus

a) Plasma osmolarity is reduced
b) Plasma osmolarity IS normal or high
c) Urine osmolarity is high

13. In a person with diabetes insipidus

a) Hyper protein diet
b) Reduction or complete exclusion of egg white
c) Reduction or complete of fat

14. Cytostatic chemotherapy is treatment options:

a) epidermoid carcinoma
b) adenocarcinoma
c) undifferentiated carcinoma
d) microcellular carcinoma

15. Organic mitral insufficiency occurs (circle two correct answers):

a) due to pathoanatomic mitral valve
b) anatomical damage of subvalvular structures (chorda tendons, papillary muscle,
mitral annulus)
c) due to dilatation of the left ventricle
d) lengthening of the left ventricle and changes in the ratio of the mitral valve to the
mitral valve resistance

16. The most common location of deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals

(chondrocalcinosis) is:
a) thumb
b) knee
c) hip
d) MTP1

17. Heinz corpuscles in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes, represent:

Denatured haemoglobin

18. Match each of the different types of haemolytic anaemia with the appropriate one
diagnostic test

a) Immune haemolytic anaemia - Ham test

b) Hereditary spherocytosis -Coombs
c) Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria -osmotic resistance
19. For each type of leukaemia, add the name of the cytochemical analysis (staining for
differentiation:
AML- Periodic Schiff's reagent (PAS)
ALL- myeloperoxidase (POX)

20. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most commonly seen in the M3 subtype
of AML.

21. For the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), it is necessary to determine
lymphocytosis in the bone marrow greater than 30%.

22. The pathohistological classification of non-Hodgkin's lymphomas (NHL) is based on:

a) cell type
b) degree of differentiation
c) the way of growth
d) all of the above

23. IgE is synthesized in:

a) Mast cells
b) Plasma cells
c)Monocytes

24. Oral tolerance disorders are pathogenetic mechanisms responsible for:

a) nausea, disgust and vomiting in inflammatory conditions

b) occurrence of stomach cancer
c) development of gluten enteropathy.
d) ulcerative colitis and Cohn's disease

25. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is characterized by the full swing of the clinical
picture:
a) with an equally weak response as to viruses, as well as fungi, bacteria, and other
parasites
b) preserved immunity to viruses and weak against others microorganisms
c) weak immunity to bacteria and viruses and preserved resistance to other
microorganisms

26. Tetralogy of Fallot

a) Mitral stenosis, ASD, right ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aortic
b) Pulmonary stenosis, VSD, hypertrophy of the aorta dextroposition
d) Aortic stenosis, VSD, left ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta

27. Pleural effusion puncture is performed:

a) In the zone of greatest percussive dullness, the upper edge of the lower
b) in the zone of greatest percussive dullness, the lower edge of the upper
c) mandatory for all spouts, with the lower edge of the upper rib

28. The two most common drugs used in treatment hyperthyroidism are:
 propiltiouracil (PTU) Metimazol (Favistan)

29. The two most common causes of liver cirrhosis are:

a) alcohol and viruses
b) drugs and alcohol
c) drugs and viruses
d) unknown causes.

30. Carcinoma of the right colon is characterized by:

a) anaemic syndrome
b) the presence of blood in the stool
c) alternating constipation and diarrhoea

31. Carriers of a specific immune response are:

a) "natural killer" lymphocytes
b) phagocytes
c) B lymphocytes
d) acute phase reactants

32. What kidney disease can be transmitted to descendants

a) Polycystic kidney disease
b) Alportov sy
c) Urinary tract infections

33. What is hepatorenal syndrome?

a) Progressive azotemia in patients with advanced liver
b) Progressive azotemia in acute hepatitis
c) Acute inflammation of the kidney tissue

34. Emergency examinations code suspicion of acute pancreatitis are

a) Radiological examination of the gastroduodenal
b) Passage of the small intestine
c) Amylase in serum and urine. echo, native abdominal imaging

35. For the occurrence of cardiac tamponade, the following is important

a) the size of the spout
b) intensity of effusion accumulation
c) the size and speed of the effusion accumulation

36. What are the two basic types of precocious puberty?

Real (central or gonadotropin dependent)
Peripheral (gonadotropin independent)

37. Free fluid in the abdominal cavity is proven by:

a) inspection of the abdomen
b) auscultation of the abdomen
c) palpation of the abdomen
d) by percussion of the abdomen

38. A marker of predisposition to the occurrence spondyloarthropathy is:

 B-27 antigen

39. Bronchial carcinoma most often metastasizes in:

a) kidney
b) adrenal gland
c) endocardium
d) brain
e) bones
f) larinks

40. In status asthmaticus due to hyperventilation, the following occurs:

a) hypercapnia
b) respiratory alkalosis
c) hypocapnia
d) respiratory acidosis

41. What does Graham-Steely noise mean and what is it caused by?
Heart murmur typically associated with pulmonary regurgitation, a consequence
of pulmonary hypertension secondary to mitral valve stenosis.

42. Glucagon is used patients with

a) Ketoacidosis
b) Hyperosmolar non-ketogenic state
c) Lactic acidosis
d) Hypoglycaemia

43. Hurst's achalasia is a precancerous condition:

Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

44. Basic pathogenetic mechanisms in systemic autoimmune diseases are

a) the unknown
b) damage in antigen processing
c) disorders of immune tolerance mechanisms in and secondary immune tissues
d) damage in the circulation of antibodies

45. Basic stem cell Pluripotent stem cell (STEM cell) of haematopoiesis from which are the
cell of all lineage is called:
Myeloid or Lymphoid stem cells

46. What should be the protein intake of patients with AKI

a) Less than 1.2 g/kgBW
b) About 1.2 g/kgBW
c) Over 1.2 g/kgBW

47. In most patients with dermatomyositis, routine laboratory tests are:

a) normal
b) pathological
48. The simplest and the most specific dynamic test for acromegaly is:
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

49. The basic type of CLL therapy is application

a) cytostatics and corticosteroids
b) radiation
c) bone marrow transplantation

50. Synovial analysis fluids can help confirm G the diagnosis of arthrosis. She has arthritis
a) Cloudy, with a small number of cells
b) Clear, with a small number of cells
c) Cloudy, with a large number of cells

51. In the emergency therapy of complete AV block, we give medication

a) Xylocaine, Propafen
b) Atropine, Dopamine, Adrenaline
c) Furosemide, opiate analgesic

52. In the therapy of arrhythmias associated with WPW syndrome should be given
a) Cyanidin
b) Verapamil
c) Amiodarone

53. Electrocardiogram changes in VI I pericarditis occur due to

a) subepicardial myocardial damage
b) inflammation of the visceral pericardium
c) visceral and parietal damage pericardium a

54. Pneumocystis carini pneumonia most often occur in

a) of children
b) patients treated with radiation therapy
c) adults
d) immunodeficient patients

55. Asymptomatic bacteriuria represents the presence of significant number of bacteria in 1

ml of urine:
a) 1,000 germs
b) 10,000 germs
c) 100,000 germs

56. The basic auscultatory finding in aortic stenosis is characterized by:

ejection-type systolic murmur
weakened or silent second sound over the aorta

57. Transfusion reactions in ABO incompatibilities are the prototype of hypersensitivity

reactions:
a) Type II
b) Type IlI
c) Type V
d) Type IV
58. Early clinical manifestations Scleroderma is:
a) Symmetrical arthritis of peripheral joints
b) Erythema on cheekbones and nose rash"
c) Raynaud's the fingers phenomenon painless swelling and tightness of the fingers
or the entire hand

59. What are the two pulmonary fibrosis of unknown etiology

Sarcoidosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (Hamman-Rich)

60. What is the age of individual elements in blood?

a) Erythrocytes- UP TO 120 DAYS
b) leukocytes - SEVERAL HOURS
c) platelets- 7-10 DAYS

61. They lead to obstructive uropathy the following conditions .(circle two answers)
a) Nephrolithiasis
b) Prostate adenoma
c) Circulation disorder in the kidney

62. Ventricular Tachycardia pointes torsades de is accompanied by:

a) prolonged QT interval
b) shortened QT interval
c) prolonged PQ interval

63. In menopausal women, LH and FSH are:

a) Normal
b) Raised
c) Lowered

64. Single diverticulum the esophagus that is "visible” hears and palpates" is
Zenker's diverticulum

65. Carotid massage sinus

a) accelerates the sinus rhythm
b) slows sinus rhythm
c) does not change the sinus rhythm

66. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c indicates the regulation of glycemia in the previous ones
a) 8-12 hours
b) 8-12 days
c) 8-12 weeks

67. We are talking about obesity if the index is body mass

≥30kg/m

68. What emergencies arise as complications of thyroid disease LH stimulates

a) thyrotoxic crisis
b) myxedema coma
 c) TEKA ovarian cells yes produce androgens

69. Treatment of acromegaly can be carried out

a) transvenoidal adenectomy
b) By air therapy
c) By application somatostatin

70. The most common place of localization of stomach ulcers

a) Subcardiac part of the stomach
b) Greater curvature of the stomach
c) Prepyloric part of the stomach
d) Angulus and small curvature of the of the stomach

71. Epithelial benign tumors of the stomach

a) lipomas and and fibromas
b) carcinoids and neurinomas
c) hyperplastic polyps and adenomas
d) granulomas and leiomyomas

72. The two most common etiological agents of chronic hepatitis caused by viruses are
a) virus A and B.
b) virus A & C
c) virus B & C
d) virus B & D

73. The most significant hereditary syndromes of colon cancer are

a) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome and juvenile polyposis
b) FAP and Lynch syndrome
c) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome Menetriere's disease
d) Cronkhite-Canada syndrome

74. Sulfosalazine is the drug of choice in treatment

a) Ulcer diseases
b) Amoebiasis
c) Diverticulitis
d) Ulcerative colitis

75. Basic pathogenetic mechanisms in are systemic autoimmune diseases

a) unknown
b) damage in antigen processing
c) disorders of immune tolerance mechanisms in primary and secondary immune
tissues
d) damage in the circulation of antibodies

76. Apart from rare exceptions, systemic autoimmune diseases are more prevalent in
a) a men in relation to women
b) in women, especially in the generative period, compared to men
c) representation in both sexes is equal
77. Cutaneous lesions in systemic erythema Lupus
a) butterfly rash
b) lupus discoides
c) Lupus profundus

78. Immunosuppressive cytokines are

a) IL-18, IL-12
b) G-CSF, GM-CSF
c) IL-2, IL-7
d) TGFB, IL-10
e) IL-1, IL-6, TNFa
f) IFNa, IFNY

79. The diagnostic triad required for the diagnosis of multiple myeloma includes
a) in the bone marrow: more than 30 plasma cells
b) on the skeleton: osteolysis
c) in the serum: M-component

80. In anaemia due to iron deficiency, all the mentioned parameters are lowered except
a) hemoglobin (Hb)
b) ferritin
c) mean erythrocyte volume (MCV)
d) hematocrit (HCT)
e) unsaturated transferrin capacity (UIBC)

81. In conditions accompanied by diarrhea, vomiting, then in pregnancy and W renal

diseases, better for the laboratory parameter assessment of anaemia is
a) erythrocyte count
b) haematocrit

82. In which type of leukaemia is prevention of neuroleukemia (leukaemia of the CNS)

a) AML
b) ALL

83. Prolonged prothrombin time is occurs in all the listed states except in
a) vitamin K deficiency
b) therapy with oral anticoagulants
c) liver cirrhosis
d) SEC
e) heparin therapy

84. Electrocardiogram changes in pericarditis occur due to

a) subepicardial myocardial damage
b) infection of the visceral pericardium
c) visceral and parietal damage pericardium

85. Beta blockers in patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy have a

symptomatic effect but do not reduce mortality.
a) correct
 b) incorrect
86. The AV node is supplied with blood in the largest number of cases through
a) anterior descending arteries
b) circumflex coronary arteries
c) right coronary arteries

87. Pulse deficit (difference in heart frequency palpated on the hand and during auscultation
heart) follows
a) ventricular tachycardia
b) ventricular extrasystoles
c) atrial fibrillation

88. What do we mean by the term, "pressure gradient" in aortic stenosis and what is its value
in severe forms of aortic stenosis
the difference between the systolic pressures in the left ventricle and aorta
over 50 mmHg

89. What are the auscultatory characteristics mitral stenosis

a) systolic murmur, accented I tone, ringing opening of the mitral valve
b) systolic murmur, accentuated PL tone, ringing closing of the mitral valve
c) diastolic murmur, accented second tone, sound of closing of the mitral valve
d) diastolic murmur, accentuated first tone, mitral valve opening sound

90. Organic mitral insufficiency occurs (circle two correct answers)

a) Due to pathoanatomic damage mitral valve
b) anatomic damage to subvalvular structures (chorda tendineae, papillary muscle,
mitral ring)
c) Due dilatation of the left ventricle
d) elongation of the left ventricle and changes in the ratio of the mitral valve and
mitral resistance

91. The most common causes of prerenal AKI are (circle two answers)
a) Bleeding
b) Rhabdomyolysis
c) Dehydration
d) Prostate adenoma

92. The most important cause of anaemia in patients with HBI (chronic renal insufficiency)
is
a) Iron deficiency
b) Erythropoietin deficiency
c) Deficiency of vitamin B12

93. What are the most common renal forms osteodystrophy in haemodialysis patients (circle
two answers)

a) Secondary hyperparathyroidism
b) Adynamic hair loss
c) Osteosclerosis and osteoporosis
94. Treatment of nephrogenic insipidus diabetes includes (circle the two correct ones
answers)
a) adequate fluid intake
b) Thiazide diuretic
c) chlorpropamide
d) corticosteroids
e) cytostatics

95. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia most often occurs at

a) children
b) patients treated with radiation therapy
c) adults
d) immunodeficient patients

96. In patients with kyphoscoliosis, chronic respiratory insufficiency occurs due to

a) depression of the respiratory center
b) reduced diffusion constants
c) diffusion disorders
d) alveolar hypoventilation
e) due to all the above reasons

97. In conditions of long-term hypoxemia and hypercapnia, occurs

a) hyperbicarbonatemia
b) hypobicarbonatemia

98. Radiological findings on the lungs in ARDS characterizes

a) unilateral shadowing along the thoracic wall
b) increased transparency in the tops
c) Bilateral intense shadowing paracardial
d) the shadow of a unilateral pleural effusion

99. Respiratory acidosis is represented by the following pH value Hi

a) 7,241
b)7,563
c) 7.652

100. Characteristic clinical sign it is more hypercapnic

a) peripheral cyanosis
b) central cyanosis
c) swelling of the lower leg
d) tachycardia

101. CREST syndrome belongs to

a) sleroderma with diffuse involvement skin
b) scleroderma with limited involvement skin

102. In most patients with dermatomyositis, routine laboratory tests are

 a) normal
b) pathological

103. In gout, niyo is increased in the blood and urine

a) oxalate
b) butyrate
b) pyrophosphate

104. Risk factors for development postmenopausal osteoporosis are (circle three answers)
a) thickness (emaciation)
b) prevent loss of menstruation
c) increased intake of calcium
d) alcohol
e) physical activity

105. Cutaneous lesions in systemic erythema lupus

a) butterfly rash
b) Lupus discoides
c) Lupus profundus

106. Immunosuppressive cytokines are

a) 11-18, IL-12
b) G-CSF, GM-CSF
c) IL-2, IL-7 O
d) TGFB, IL -10
e) IL-1, IL-6, TNFa
f) IFNa, IFNY

107. The diagnostic triad required for the diagnosis of multiple myeloma includes
a) in the bone marrow: more than 30 plasma
b) on the skeleton: osteolytic
c) in the serum: M-component

108. Prolactin secretion is regulated primarily by

Hypothalamus

109. Prolactin acts on

a) Lactation
b) Reproduction
c) Plasma osmolarity is reduced bUrine osmolarity is reduced
d) Urine osmolarity is high

110. In people with diabetes insipidus

a) Plasma osmolarity is reduced
b) Urine osmolarity is reduced
c) Urine osmolarity is high

111. There are two basic types of aggressive (ablative) therapy for hyperthyroidism
Radioactive therapy iodine
 Surgical ablation of the thyroid gland

112. Intensified insulin therapy implies application

a) Two daily doses of insulin
b) Three daily doses of insulin
c) Four daily doses of insulin

113. Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by

Hyperketonemia.
Hyperglycemia
Metabolic acidosis

114. Physical inspection methods cannot be used establish the existence of pleural effusion
if its quantity is less than
a) 300 ml
b) 500 ml
c) 1000 ml

115. Diagnosis of carcinoma bronchus is placed most often by transthoracic percutaneous

biopsy lungs
a) true
b) false

116. The clinical picture of mediastinal primarily depends on (circle two answers)
a) pathohistological type of tumor
b) immunity of the sick per son
c) the age of the sick person
d) location and size of the tumor
e) degree of compression of mediastinal organs

117. Medicines of choice for the treatment of atypical are pneumonia

a) tetracycline macroides
b) aminoglycosides
c) cephalosporins

118. What are the two pulmonary fibrosis of unknown etiology

sarcoidosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (Haman Rich)

119. Effector mechanisms of non-specific immunity include, among others

a) TiB lymphocytes
b) classical way of complement activation
c) stomach acid, altemative pathway of complement activation, "natural killer"

120. Obstructive uropathy is caused by the following conditions ((circle two answers)
a) Nephrolithiasis
b) Prostate adenoma
c) Circulation disorder in the kidney
121. What is the creatinine clearance in terminal stage HBI
a) 30 ml/min
b) less than 10 mV/min
c) over 35 mVmin

122. The most common complications during haemodialysis are (circle two answers)
a) Hypotension
b) Bleeding from the urinary tract
c) Muscle cramps

123. Early radiopaque manifestation

a) bambutre mnteriori
b) spontanus anterior

124. Early clinical manifestations of scleroderma

a) symmetrical arthritis of peripheral joints
b) high temperature
c) erythema on cheekbones, cheeks, nose root »Butterfly - rash<<
d) Raynaud's phenomenon, painless swelling and sensation tightening of fingers or
entire hands

125. Frequency of interstitial fibrosis in rheumatism is higher in patients with " patents
with scleroderma
a) anti Scl-70 antibodies
b) anti-centromeric antibodies

126. Clinical forms of Reiter's syndrome are:

urogenital
enteropathic

127. Drug of first choice for termination of PSVT of paroxysmal supraventricular

tachycardia is
a) Verapamil
b) Xylocaine
c) Amiodarone

128. AV block characterized by gradual by prolonging the PR interval until dropout The
QRS complex is designated as
a) Mobitz I (Wenchebach)
b) Mobitz lI
c) complete AV block

129. In patients with myocardial infarction survivors, in order to prevent subacute bacterial
endocarditis, antibiotic prophylaxis during extraction is necessary. teeth or some
oropharyngeal surgical intervention
a) Yes
b) No

130. Most important modifiable risk factors for coronary atherosclerosis are
 Hypertension
Smoking
Hypercholesterolemia

131. An advantage in the treatment of acquired heart defects has the installation of
a) mechanical prostheses
b) biological prostheses

132. In people with diabetes insipidus

a) Plasma osmolarity is reduced
b) Plasma osmolarity is normal or high
c) Urine osmolarity is high

133. FSH stimulates

ovarian follicle growth
testicular growth and spermatogenesis

134. The simplest and most specific dynamic the test for acromegaly is
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

135. The most common malignant tumor of the thyroid gland

a) Papillary carcinoma
b) Follicular carcinoma
c) Anaplastic carcinoma
d) Medullary carcinoma

136. Treatment of Addison's disease

a) It lasts until the hormones are noraized
b) It is carried out for life with Hydrocortisone tablets
c) It is carried out for life with Methimazole tablets

137. The earliest morphologically recognized cell of the platelet lineage is called
Megakaryocyte

138. We use the indirect Coombs test to prove antibodies

a) an the erythrocyte membrane
b) in the patients serum

139. The basic type of CLL therapy is application

a) cytostatics and corticosteroids
b) radiation
c) bone marrow transplants

140. Complications of ulcer disease are

Bleeding, perforation, penetration and stenosis

141. Menetriere's disease is diagnosed by (endoscopy with barium meal should be answer)
a) classic biopsy
b) polypectomym
 c) with macroparticulate biopsy (rugectomy)

142. Standard cytolysis laboratory tests hepatocytes include determination serum

a) In serum
b) ALP and cholesterol,
c) SE, Le, total and direct bolirubin

143. Colon cancer develops in 100% of FAP patients by the age of 50

a) false
b) true
c) There are no rules

144. Hematochezia represents

Fresh blood in the stool

145. Nutrition of patients with hepatic encephalopathy requires

a) Hyperprotein diet
b) Reduction or complete exclusion of proteins
c) Reduction or complete exclusion of fat

146. The complement can be activated on two on the

Classic way of activation
Alterative way of activation

147. The role of lg A is to serve as a defence

a) surfaces of all mucous membranes without of microorganism-aggressor
b) interior of lymphatic organs and tissues
c) to help in case of helminth infestation

148. Congenital immunodeficiencies of the humoral immune response are distinguished

a) predominantly normal immune response in diseases and weaker resistance in
bacterial infections
b) equally disturbed immune response in both bacterial and viral infections
c) extremely weak immune response to helminths ar fungi and preserved immunity to
bacterial ar infections

149. Antimitochondrial antibodies are exceptional common finding a

a) Primary biliary cirrhosis
b) autoimmune myocarditis
c) Autoimmune haemolytic anaemias

150. What are the stages of development and course of infection caused by M. tuberculosis
whom the BCG vaccine is given?
Stage without growth
Symbiosis
Stage of specific immune answers
Liquefaction for children at birth before leaving maternity hospital

151. Whom is the BCG vaccine given?

Children at the age of 10 or children between 1-16yrs
152. Cytostatic chemotherapy is the method of choice for the treatment of:
a) epidermoid
b) adenocarcinoma
c) undifferentiated carcinoma
d) microcellular carcinoma

153. Intrahospital (nosocomial) pneumonias are most often caused

a) Gram positive bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Gram negative bacteria
d) Parasites

154. The disease can be indicated by the itis localized on the knee deposition of calcium
pyrophosphate crystals

a) an attack of acute arthritis in the elderly, especially it is localized on the knee

b) bursitis or tendinitis with homogeneous calcifications in bursae and tendons
c) Attack of acute arthritis especially if localized on the elbow

155. The square shape of the vertebra squaring - is a characteristic radio logical change in
spine in
a) ankylosing vertebral hyperostosis
b) ankylosing spondylitis
c) uric arthritis
d) hyperparathyroidism

156. Synovial fluid analysis can help confirm the diagnosis of ost eoarthritis. She has
arthritis
a) Blurred, with a small number of calls
b) Clear, with a small number of cells
c) Cloudy, with a large number of cells

157. Most often, gout is affected by

a) MCP1
b) MTPI
c) Knee joint

158. Oliguria is the amount of urine

a) 500 ml/24h
b) less than 400 ml/24h.
c) less than 100 ml/24h

159. The most common causes leading to prerenal AKI are (circle two answers)
a) Bleeding
b) Rhabdomyolysis
c) Dehydration
d) Prostate adenoma
160. What are the most common forms of acute tubular necrosis (circle two answers)
a) Ischemic
b) Nephrotoxic
c) Benign
d) Mixed

161. What should be the protein intake of patients with AKI?

a) Less than 1.2 g/kg BW
b) About 1.2 g/kg WT
c) Over 1.2 g/kg WT

162. Infective endocarditis according to the course can

acute OR subacute

163. The most common mechanism of origin tachyarrhythmia is

a) impaired automaticity
b) reentrry
c) triggering activity

164. Pulse deficit (difference in heart rate are palpated on the arm during the auscultations
of Heart) follows
a) ventricular tachycardia
b) ventricular extrasystoles
c) atrial fibrillation

165. Urgent therapy of complete AV block of the medicines we give

a) Xylocain, Propafen
b) Atropine Dopamine, Adrenaline
c) Furosemide, opiate analgesic

166. What is the creatinine clearance in terminal stage HBI?

a) 30 ml/min
b) less than 10 ml/min
c) over 35 ml/min

167. Torsade de point, is a disorder rhythm

a) atrial
b) nodal
c) ventricular

168. in the therapy of arrhythmias associated with WPW Syndrome, DI0 should be used
a) Chynidin
b) Verapamil
c) Amiodarone

169. What are the "peripheral" signs in aortic insufficiency?

Duroziez sign
Becker sign
 de Musset sign
Quincke sign
Corrigan pulse
Mullers sign

170. Does obesity play a role in the aetiology of essential hypertension

a) No
b) Yes

171. What are Jones' major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever
Carditis
polyarthritis
chorea minor
erythema marginatum
subcutaneous nodules

172. Conn's syndrome is the most common cause

a) Primary hyperaldosteronism
b) Secondary hyperaldosteronism
c) Fechromocitoma

173. A pheochromocytoma is a tumour whose cells produce, store and secrete

Catecholamines

174. Primary testicular also called acquired hypogonadism is:

a) Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
b) Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
c) Normogonadotropic hypogonadism

175. Kussmaul breathing in a person with newly discovered type I diabetes indicates
Diabetic Ketoacidosis

176. Anorexia nervosa most often occurs in:

a) Young men
b) Young girls
c) Old women
d) Old men

177. In Cushing's disease, the production of is increased

ACTH and Cortisol

178. The most powerful drugs that inhibit excretion hydrochloric acids are
Proton inhibitors pumps (PPI)

179. The only esophageal diverticulum that can be "seen, heard and documented
Zencker's diverticulum

180. Tests for the determination of Helicobacter pylori infections can be

invasive
 non-invasive

181. Esophageal varicosities are treated

a) conservative, endoscopic and surgical
b) exclusively surgical
c) exclusively conservative
d) exclusively endoscopically

182. More often than primary biliary cirrhosis get

a) Men
b) Women
c) there are no differences in frequency between the sexes

183. Intestinal colic pains are:

a) in the form of occasional intensification and relaxation
b) Permanent character
c) Seasonal character

184. The D-Xylosa test is a diagnostic test for

a) Fat malabsorption
b) Malabsorption of carbohydrates
c) Electrolyte malabsorption

185. Some characteristics of a non-specific immune response are

a) absence of immunological memory, non-selectivity, non-specificity
b) presence of psychological memory, non-specificity
c) selectivity and non-specificity

186. Anaphylaxis, allergic asthma, urticaria and allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis
a) occur according to type I1 hypersensitivity
b) take place according to type Ill hypersensitivity reactions
c) take place according to type IV hypersensitivity
d) take place according to type I hypersensitivity

187. One of the mentioned diseases is not a systemic autoimmune disease

a) gluten enteropathy
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) rheumatoid arthritis

188. Anaemia caused by iron deficiency belongs to

a) normochromic normocytic anaemia
b) normochromic microcytic anaemia
c) hypochromic microcytic anaemia
d)hypochromic macrocytic anaemia

189. Multiple myeloma is caused by monoclonal proliferation of the cell in the bone
marrow specify which ones:
Plasmacyte (plasma cell)
190. Artifacts created by lymphocyte lysis on bone marrow preparations with CLL are
called
Gumprecht shadow (Smudge cells)

191. The need for platelet transfusions arises when their falls below
20000 mm³ or 20x10^9 l

192. Left bundle branch block is a pathognomonic finding in patients with dilated
cardiomyopathy
a) true
b) false

193. Asymptomatic myocardial ischemia should be treated because it has a good forecast
a) true
b) false

194. Carotid sinus massage

a) accelerates the sinus rhythm
b) slows down the sinus rhythm
c) does not change the sinus myhm

195. Organic mitral insufficiency occurs (circle two correct answers):

a) due to pathoanatomical damage to the mitral valve
b) anatomical damage to subvalvular structures (chorda tendineae, papillary muscle,
mitral annulus)
b) due to dilatation of the left ventricle
c) lengthening of the left ventricle and changes n the ratio of the mitral valve and mitral
resistance

196. In the treatment of patients with artificial valves, the medicine is:
a) cardiotonic
b) diuretic
c) oral anticoagulant therapy
d) antiarrhythmic therapy

197. List the most important groups of drugs in treatment arterial hypertension:
a) Thiazide Diuretics
b) Beta blockers
c) Angiotensin
d) ACE inhibitors,
e) Blockers Alfa 1 receptors,

198. Which anti hypertensives give the best effect in protecting Diuretic the kidneys from
the progression of HBI
a) Diuretic
b) ACE inhibitor
c) Vasodilator

199. The level of iron in the body is assessed by based on the following analyses
a) serum ferritin
 b) erythropoietin in blood
c) vitamin B6 in cells

200. Recurrent urinary tract infections are:

reinfection and relapse

201. Asymptomatic bacteriuria represents the presence of a significant number of bacteria

in one ml of urine:
a) 1000 germs
b) 10000 germs
c) 100000 germs

202. The clinical picture in emphysema dominates

a) cough and expectoration
b) dyspnea

203. Spirometry in patients with massive pneumonia shows:

a) restrictive ventilation disorder
b) obstructive ventilation disorder

204. What are the two most important factors in the development of bronchial asthma:
genetic predisposition
external factors middle

205. Percussive and auscultatory findings in patients with bronchial asthma during an
attack are:
hyper sonorous lung sound
high pitched whistling u prolonged expiration

206. Pulmonary thromboembolism causes a ventilation disorder due to

a) perfusion disorders
b) diffusion disorders
c) ventilation and perfusion disorder

207. Characteristic clinical sign of hypercapnia

a.) peripheral cyanosis
b.) central cyanosis
c.) swelling on the lower legs
d.) tachycardia

208. Subcutaneous calcinosis is found more often in:

a) limited cutaneous scleroderma
b) diffuse cutaneous scleroderma

209. The diagnosis of gout is based on the findings __________ a synovial fluid
Monosodium urate crystals

210. The most common location of deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals

(chondrocalcinosis) is :
a) thumb
 b) knee
c) hip
d) MTP1

211. The term seropositive arthritis refers presence of RF class:

a) IgM
b) IgA
c) IgG

212. Pleural effusion puncture is performed:

a) in the zone of greatest percutoma darkness, the upper edge of the lower one ribs
b) in the zone of greatest percutomial darkness, along the lower edge of the upper rib
c) mandatory for all spouts, with the lower edge of the upper rib

213. Radiographic signs of pneumothorax are:

a) narrowed hemithorax
b) structureless air lumen of part or the entire hemithorax
c) mediastinum shifted to the diseased side
d) high raised hemidiaphragm

214. Why does secondary resistance to antituberculosis drugs are?

improper treatment
irregular taking of medicines
premature termination of treatment

215. Surgical resection of the tumour provides the greatest chance for long-term survival in
patients with microcellular in bronchial carcinoma
a) yes
b) no

216. The following are deposited in the neurohypophysis hormones:

vasopressin (ADH)
Oxytocin

217. Panhypopituitansm represents

Total insufficiency of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland (absence of secretion of all
tropic harmanes of the pituitary gland)

218. The two most common drugs used to treat hyperthyroidism are:
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Methimazole (Favistan)

219. In pseudobipoparathyroidism, parathormone is...

a) Norinalan
b) Elevated
C) Saizen

220. The most common malignant tumour of the Thyroid gland is:
a) Papillary carcinoma
b) Follicular carcinoma
 c) Anaplastic carcinoma
d) Medullary carcinoma

221. The two most common causes of liver cirrhosis are:

a) alcohol and viruses
b) drugs and alcohol
c) drugs and viruses
d) unknown causes

222. The terminal stage of liver failure is treated:

a) Conservative
b) Splenectomy
c) c) Abdominocentesis
d) Liver transplantation

223. Carcinomas of the right colon are characterized by:

a) anaemic syndrome
b) presence of blood in the stool
c) alternating constipation and diarrhoea

224. Most rectal cancers can be detected initially:

a) anamnesis
b) rectosigmoidoscopy
c) Digito-rectal examination

225. Eradication of H pylori infection is carried out with a combination of drugs

a) proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics
b) H2 receptor blockers and antacids
c) proton pump inhibitors and H2 receptor blockers
d) antacids and antibiotics

226. Functional colopathy are

a) Disorders of all colonic functions
b) Inflammatory disease of the colon
c) Parasitic disease of the colon
d) Viral disease of the small intestine

227. Characteristic of the advanced stage of chronic cure for pancreatitis

a) Weight gain
b) Echotomographically enlarged pancreas
c) Melena
d) Steatorrhea, diabetes, calcifications in the pancreas

228. Yolk in carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is followed by

a) Hyperbolic chair
b) Light urine
c) Acholic stools and dark urine
229. The most important cause of anaemia in patients I with HBI is:
a) Iron deficiency
b) Erythropoietin deficiency
c) Vitamin B6 deficiency

230. What are the most common forms of renaissance osteodystrophy in patients on
haemodialysis?
a) Secondary hyperparathyroidism
b) Adynamic bone disease
c) Osteosclerosis and osteoporosis

231. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is the presence of a significant number of bacteria in the

1m of urine
a) 1000 germs
b) 10,000 germs
c) 100,000 germs

232. AKI is divided into

prerenal
renal
postrenal

233. Oliguria is an amount of urine of:

a) 500 ml/24h
b) less than 400 ml/24h
c) less than 100 ml/24h

234. What is hepatorenal syndrome?

a) Progressive azotaemia in a patient with advanced liver disease
b) Progressive azotaemia in acute hepatitis
c) Acute inflammation of kidney tissue

235. On the prognosis of patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, the

following RADIO findings have an unfavourable prognostic impact
Episodes of Ventricular Tachycardia
syncope
the magnitude of the gradient on the left ventricular out flow tract

236. The basic auscultatory finding in aortic stenosis is characterized by:

ejection-type systolic murmur
weakened or silent second tone over the aorta

237. What is the patient's ejection fraction? with dilated cardiomyopathy?

a) Increased
b) Normal
c) Reduced

238. AV block, which is characterized by a gradual prolongation of the PR interval until it

drops out The QRS complex is denoted as
 a) Mobitz I (Wenchebach)
b) Mobitz II
c) complete AV block

239. Why does secondary resistance to antituberculosis drugs arise?

improper treatment
iregular medication intake
premature dis continuation of treatment

240. In pseudohypaparathyroidism parathormone is

a) Normal
b) Elevated
c) Reduced

241. Eradication of H. pylori infection carried out by a combination of measures:

a) proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics
b) H2 receptor blockers and antacids
c) proton pump inhibitors and H2 receptor blockers
d) antacids and antibiotics

242. The group of hyperplastic gastropathies includes

Menetriere's disease and Zollinger Ellisonov syndrome

243. Ulcerative colitis

a) Large intestine (lesions "on the jump")
b) Mandatory rectal
c) Right column only

244. Primary hypopituitarism is caused by:

a) Damage to the adenohypophysis
b) Damage to the hypothalamus
c) By damage to the pituitary stalk
d) Lack of hypothalamic hormones,

245. The radiological characteristics of emphysema are (circle 3 answers):

a) accentuated bronchovascular patter

b) lack of peripheral vascular pattern
c) lowered and flattened hemidiaphragm
d) increased pulmonary transparency parenchyma

246. The most common tumours of the pituitary gland are

a) Adenomas of lactotropic cells
b) Adenomas of somatotropic cells
c) Adenomas of corticotropic cells

247. Determination of alpha-fetoprotein is a significant finding for diagnosis

a) Acute viral hepatitis
b) Chronic viral hepatitis
c) Carcinoma of the small intestine
 d) Hepatocellular carcinoma

248. What are the stages of modern tuberculosis chemotherapy?

Bactericidal-initial
Hospital-controlled
Sterilization under the control of ATD

249. What is creatinine clearance in terminal stage HBI?

a) 30 ml/min
b) less than 10 ml/min
c) over 35 ml/min

250. In a person with diabetes insipidus

a), Plasma osmolarity is reduced
b) Plasma osmolarity is normal or high
c) Urine osmolarity is high

251. Nutrition of patients with hepatic encephalopathy requires

a) Hyper protein diet
b) Reduction or complete exclusion egg white
c) Reduction or complete exclusion of fat

252. Cytostatic chemotherapy is a method treatment options:

a) epidermoid carcinoma
b) adenocarcinoma
c) undifferentiated carcinoma
d) microcellular carcinoma

253. What are the two basic types of precocious puberty?

Peripheral (gonadotropin independent
True (central) or gonadotropic dependent

254. The following is important for the occurrence of cardiac tamponade

a) the size of the spout
b) speed of effusion accumulation
c) size and rate of effusion accumulation

255. latrogenic osteoporosis most often occurs with long-term use of

glucocorticoids

256. AML therapy is carried out in three phases. Name each of them:
Induction, consolidation, and maintenance

257. Pathohistological classification of he based non- Hodgkin’s lymphomas (NHL) is

based on:
a) cell type
b) degree of differentiation
c) the way of growth
d) all of the above
258. Haemophilia A is a hereditary disease that is transmitted linked to chromosomes, the
basis of which is a deficiency ____________ of the coagulation factor.
VIII

259. Molecular mimicry is:

a) the name of the newly discovered enzyme disorder
b) occurrence of deliberate imitation of the molecular structure of the host by
pathogenic microorganisms
c) another name for the effects of nicotine nabrochial epithelium
d) d) the mechanism of not recognizing hormonal receptors due to theirs mutual
similarities

260. Transfusion reactions in ABO incompatibles are the prototype of hypersennitviy

reactions
a) Type lI
b) Type IlI
c) Type V
d) Type IV

261. An early radiological manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis is

a) bamboo
b) anterior spondylitis
262. The frequency of interstitial fibrosis in patients with scleroderma is higher in patients
with rheumatism
a) anti Scl-70 antibodies
b) anticentromere antibodies

263. Early clinical manifestations of scleroderma are:

a) Symmetric arthritis of peripheral joints
b) Erythema on the cheekbones of the cheeks and the bridge of the nose Buterfly rash"
c) Raynaud's phenomenon, painless sweling and a feeling of tightening of the Sac
fingers or the entire hand

264. Signs of rheumatoid arthritis are

increased local temperature
redness above the joint.
limited mobility
deformation

265. Medicines in the prophylaxis of atrial recurrence fibrillations are

a) Verapamil, Digoxin
b) Beta blocker, Propafen or Amiodarone
c) Heparin, Warfarin

266. Torsade de point is medicinally groaning

a) by giving Chynidine
b) giving Amiodarone
c)by giving potassium

267. In the therapy of hyperkinetic syndrome that

 a) Verapamil
b) Beta blocker
c) Digoxin

268. The ejection fraction, as an indicator of the systolic function of the left ventricle, is
normal
a) About 20%
b) About 40%
c) about 60%
d) About 80%

269. Tetralogy of Fallot includes:

a) Mitral stenosis, AD hypertrophy of the gums chambers, dextroposition of the aorta
b) Pulmonary stenosis, VSD, hypertrophy of the right ventricle, de xtroposition of the
aorta
c) Aortic stenosis, VSD, left hypertrophy chambers, dextroposition of the aorta

269. The most common cause of subacute acute bacterial endocarditis is

Streptococcus viridians

270. The drug used to treat ventricular tachycardia in acute myocardial infarction is
a) Verapamil
b) Lidocaine
c) Propafen

271. What does Graham Steel murmur mean and what is it for?
soft, blowing, decrescendo early diastolic murmur of pulmonary incompetence caused
by pulmonary hypertension

272. Basic principles applied in the treatment of essential arterial hypertension

hygiene diet regime
drug treatment

273. In people with panhypopituitarism first step

a) Substitution of thyroid disorders
b) Substitution of adrenal disorders
c) Substitution of sex hormones

274. They can lead to hyperprolactinemia the following causes

Pregnancy Stress & Nipple stimulation

275. The most common pituitary tumours are:

a) Adenomas of lactotropic cels
b) Adenomas of somatotropic cells
c) Adenomas of corticotropic cells

276. Diabetes insipidus has two basic types. Forms

central (neurogenic) insipid diabetes
non-forgenic (nephrogenic) insipid diabetes
277. Metformin is a drug that:
a) Stimulates insulin secretion
b) Reduces insulin resistance
c) Reduces glucose absorption
d) Reduces body weight

278. Glucagon is used in patients with

a). Ketoacidosis
b) Hyperosmolar non-ketogenic state
c) Lactic acidosis
d) Hypoglycemia

279. Which form of obesity poses a high risk for diabetes and cardiovascular disease?
Central (abdominal)

280. The most common symptoms of esophageal disease are;

a) Abdominal pain, constipation, flatulence
b) Difficulty swallowing, heartburn, belching
c) Blood in the stool, elevated temperature, frequent stools
d) Nausea, disgust, vomiting

281. Hurst's achalasia is precancerous:

Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

282. Duodenal ulcer pains the intestines are mandated:

a) during food intake
b) in the course of performing a large bowel
c) movement before dawn
d) no rules

283. Urgent proximal endoscopy in gastroenterology is a diagnostic procedure performed

within hours of _______________ the onset of bleeding
6-12hrs

284. The two most common etiological causes of chronic hepatitis caused by viruses are:
a) virus A & B
b) virus A & C
c) virus B & C
d) virus B & D

285. The three morphological forms of liver cirrhosis are:

Macronodule, micronodule & mixed

286. Serotonin values in carcinoidy thin are:

a) Normal
b) Extremely elevated
c) Slightly elevated

287. Determination of Alpha-fetoprotein is significant finding for diagnosis

 a) Acute viral hepatitis
b) Chronic viral hepatitis
c) Carcinoma of the small intestine
d) Hepatocellular carcinoma

288. The physiological role of HLA molecules in the organism is:

a) to serve for tissue typing during preparation for transplantation
b) to serve for the processing, selection and presentation of antigens
c) if they are present, they cause immune disorders

289. HLA class I molecules can be found on:

a) cells suffering from autoimmune diseases
b) only on the surface of antigen presenting cells to all cells except brain cells
c) on the membrane of all cells of the human organism

290. The basic pathogenetic mechanisms in systemic autoimmune diseases are:

a) unknown
b) damage in antigen processing
c) disorders of immune tolerance mechanisms in primary and secondary immune
tissues
d) damage in the circulation of antibodies

291. List which groups of drugs are used in the treatment of chronic obstructive disease
lungs
Bronchodilators, antibiotics, corticosteroids, secretolytics

292. What are the most common complications of pneumonia?

Lung abscess, empyema effusion

293. Cytostatic induction therapy in acute leukaemia is caused

presence of autoantibodies to the parietal cells of the mucous membrane stomach

294. The main pathogenetic model for the origin pernicious anaemia implies
a) the presence of intestinal parasites in the small intestine
b) loss of resorptive surface after gastric resection
c) insufficient intake of Vit. B12 through food

295. Cytostatic induction therapy in acute leukemias is caused

a) complete bone marrow aplasia
b) destruction of only malignant cells
c) destruction of malignant cells from peripheral blood

296. The basic stem cell of hematopoiesis, from which cells of all lineages arise, is called:
Pluripotent Stem cell

297. Anuria is the amount of urine of:

a) 400-600 mi/24h
b) less than 100 ml/24h
 c) 100-400 ml/24h

298. What should be the protein intake be in patients with AKI?

a) Less than 1.2 g/kg WT
b) About 1.2 g/kg WT
c) Over 1.2 g/kg WT 30 mV/min

299. What is the creatinine clearance in terminal stage HBI?

a) 30ml/min
b) less than 10 ml/min
c) over 35 ml/min

300. In ankylosing spondylitis, the basic element for diagnosis is:

a) unilateral sacroiliitis
b) bilateral sacroiliitis

301. Early clinical manifestations Scleroderma is:

a) symmetrical arthritis of peripheral joints
b) high temperature
c) erythema on the cheekbones of the cheeks, the root of the nose >> Butterfly rash
d) Raynaud's phenomenon, painless swelling and in the fingers or the entire hand

302. In most patients with dermatomyositis, routine laboratory tests are:

Skin or muscle biopsy

303. Enthesitis is:

Inflammation of the attachment of the tendon to the bone

304. The presence of subcutaneous nodules in Rheumatoid Arthritis is a sign of

a) Low activities of the rheumatoid process
b) High disease activity
c) Absence of disease
305. What are the auscultatory characteristics of mitral stenosis?
a) Systolic murmur, accentuated first sound, mitral valve opening sound
b) Systolic murmur, accentuated I tone, ringing dosing of the mitral valve
c) Diastolic murmur,tone, mitrai valve closing sound
d) Diastolic murmur, accented tone, ringing opening of the mitral valve

306. What are the biochemical markers of acute myocardial infarction?

a) Troponins, myoglobin, creatine phosphokinase
b) Creatinine, urea, acidum uricum
c) Potassium, sodium, magnesium

307. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism is:

a) Thrombosis of superficial veins
b) Thrombosis of deep veins
c) Atherosclerosis
d) Arterial embolism

308. Pericardial friction is a pathognomonic sign:

a) Acute dry pericarditis
b) Acute exudative pericarditis
c) Hylopericarditis
d) Subacute pericarditis
e) Constrictive pericarditis

309. What is the most common cause of sudden, pissing death?

a) Constrictive pericarditis
b) Primary cardiomyopathy
c) Ischemic heart disease
d) Rheumatic fever
e) Endocarditis

310. What is the patient's ejection fraction with Dilatated cardiomyopathy?

a) Increased
b) Normal
c) Reduced

311. In patients with survivor’s myocardial infarction in the aim prevention of subacute
bacterial endocarditis is necessary antibiotic prophylaxis during extraction tooth or
some or pharyngeal to surgical intervention
Increased
a)YES
b)NO

312. The most important modifiable risk factors for coronary atherosclerosis
high blood pressure, high blood cholesterol, smoking, obesity, diabetes, and physical
inactivity

313. The major Jones criteria for dg rheumatic fever are:

• Carditis
• Polyarthritis
• Chorea
• Erythema marginatum
• Subcutaneous Nodules

314. In the treatment of patients with artificial valves need therapy is:

a) Oral anticoagulant therapy

b) Parenteral anticoagulant therapy
c) Antiarrhythmic therapy
d) Cardiotonic there
e) Curete therapy

315. A marker of predisposition to the occurrence of spondyloarthropathies is:

 HLA – B27

316. Square shape of the vertebra squaring it is characteristic radiological change on the
spine in
a) Ankylosing vertebral hyperostosis
b) Ankylosing spondylitis
c) Uric arthritis
d) Hyperparathyroids

317. In gout, it is increased in blood and level urine

a) oxalate
b) Duration
c) pyrophosphate

318. "Early clinical manifestations of scleroderma are:

Symmetric arthritis of peripheral joints
High temperature
Erythema on cheekbones and roots nose » Butterfly rash
Raynaud's phenomenon, painless swelling keeling of lightening of the fingers or the
whole of the hands and feet

319. Hypersensitivity to drugs can manifest itself:

a) Exclusively for the first type of hypersensitivity
b) Only as type 101 hypersensitivity
c) Only as IllI type of hypersensitivity
d) In the form of all four forms of immune reaction hypersensitivity

320. One of the mentioned diseases is not an organ-specific autoimmune disease

a) Isolated autoimmune thyroiditis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Hemolytic anaemia with cold agglutinins

321. When there is primary hyperthyroidism, laboratory analyzes show:

a) Increased T4 level, decreased 13 level and decreased TSH la val
b) Decreased T4 lavel, increased T3 level and increased TSH level
c) Decreased T4 level, de creased T3 level and elevated TSH
d) Elevated T4, elevated T3 and decreases TSH

322. It is considered that there is an endemic goiter in an area if

a) More than 1% of the population has goiter
b) More than 5% of the population has goiter
c) More than 10% of the population has gaiter More than 50% of the population
has goiter

323. Obciel from Addisoflo's disease they have

a) Increased sinus pressure and increase in TT
b) Increased blood pressure and loss of TT
c) Lowered blood pressure and loss of TT
d) Decreased blood preesure and increased TT
324. It is used in the treatment of diabetic keto acidosis
a) Intravenous
b) Intraperitoneal
c) Subcutaneous
d) Orally
325. According to the anatomical localization, pneumonia can be
lobular, lobar, bronchopneumonia, and interstitial

326. Mucolytics are very useful in the treatment of COPD

a) Yes
b) No

327. Hurst's achalasia is precancerous condition for

a) Squamous call carcinoma of the esophagus
b) Adenocarcinama of the esophagus

328. The most powerful group of drugs that inhibits the secretion of hydrochloric acid are
PPI

329. Eradication of H. pylori infection is carried out with a combination of drugs:

a) Proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics
b) H2 receptor blockers and antibiotics
c) Proton pump inhibitors and H2 blockers
d) receptors
e) Antacids and antibiotics

330. The two most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver are
a) Alcohol and viruses
b) Medians and alcohol
c) Medicines and viruses
d) Unknown causes.

331. Hematochezia represents:

a) Vomiting contents in the form of coffee grounds
b) Fresh blood in stool
c) I have a chai

332. A gluten-free diet is important

a) Tropical Sprue
b) Celiac sprue
c) Second malabsorption

333. Crohn's disease affects

a) Only the superficial part of the mucosa
b) Mucosa and submucosa
c) Mucous, submucosa, muse layer, serosa and lymph glands of the associated
region
334. One of the listed diseases is not a systemic autoimmune disease:
a) Gluten enteropathy
b) Systemic lupus erythematosus
c) Rheumatoid arthritis

335. Enter the name of the cell in the blank spaces peripheral blood that performs a given
function:
TR participates in temptation haemostasis
LE had a role in non-specific body defence
FR role in transport gases

336. Serum is different from coma plasma in that it does not contain
Fibrinogen

337. The most important growth factor for red the lineage is called
Erythropoietin

338. Anaemia caused by iron deficiency belongs to:

a) Normochromic normocytic anemias

b) Normochromic mic ocytic anaemia
c) Hypochromic microcytic anaemia
d) Hypochromic macrocytic anaemia

339. The basic type of CLL therapy consists of:

a) Cytostatic and corticosteroids
b) Radiation
c) Bone marrow transplantation

340. In the manifest SEC, all of the above parameters have lower values except:
a) Fibrinogen
b) T platelets
c) D- dimer
d) Coagulation factors

341. What are the most common renal forms? osteodystrophy in hemodialysis patients?
a) Secondary hyperparathyroidism
b) dynamic bone disease
c) Osteosderosis
d) Osteoporosis

342. Asymptomatic bacteriuria represents the presence of a significant number of bacteria

in 1 ml of urine:
a) 1000 germs
b) 10,000 sprouts
c) 100,000 sprouts

343. Carriers of a specific immune response are:

a) "natural killer" lymphocytes
b) phagocytes
 c) T8 lymphocytes
d) reactants of the acute phase

344. By antigen presenting cells we mean:

a) all monocytes and macrophages
b) Lang-Hans dendritic cells, activated macrophages, follicular dendritic cells
c) Mast cells
6) Langer-Hans beta cells.

345. The physiological significance of the immune response mediated by cytotoxic T

lymphocytes is primarily in:
a) defence against bacteria
b) defence against all types of extracellular microorganisms are
c) protected from all types of intracellular para sites and tumors
d) defence against viruses and helminths

346. Common clinical features of spondyloarthropathies

a) locomotive system
b) extra-articular system
c) on locomotor and extra-articular Sister

347. Square shape vertebra squaring radiological change is characteristic spine in:
a) ankylosing vertebral hyperostosis
b) ankylosing spondylitis
c) uric arthritis
d) hyperparathyroidism

348. A large number of patients with scleroderma in serum has:

a) antibodies to native DNA
b) antinuclear antibodies
c) anti-Sm antibodies

349. The triad of disease signs in Reiter's syndrome includes

Urethritis, arthritis, conjunctivitis,

350. Which kidney disease can be passed on to offspring?

a) Polycystic kidney disease
b) Alport syndrome
c) Urinary tract infections

351. AKl is divided into

• prerenal
• renal
• postrenal

352. Ischemic acute tubular necrosis is the consequence

a) Long-term prerenal hypoperfusion kidneys
 b) Drug effects
c) Kidney trauma

353. The aim of dialysis treatment of patients with AKI

a) Normalization of body fluid volume and electrolyte balance
b) Prevention of infection
c) Uremia control

354. What is hepatorenal syndrome?

a) Progressive azotemia in patients with advanced liver disease
b) Progressive azotemia in acute hepatitis
c) Acute inflammation of kidney tissue

355. Epithelial benign tumours of the stomach are:

a) lipomas and fibromas carcinoids
b) carcinoids and neurina
c) hyperplastic polyps and adenomas
d) granuloma and leiomyomas

356. Haudek's niche is a radiological sign:

a) perforating gastric ulcer
b) penetrating duodenal ulcer
c) penetrating gastric ulcer
d) stenotic duodenal ulcer

357. They are included in the group of hyperplastic gastropathies

Menetriers disease and Zollinger Ellison syndrome

358. Diagnosis perforation of ulcer disease

a) Proximal endoscopy
b) Laboratory analyses
c) Contrast radiography
d) Native graphics of the belly.

359. The largest number of colon cancers arise from the following:
a) non-change the mucous membrane (de novo)
b) From previous adenomas
c) From previous hyperplastic polyps colon.

360. Biliary Calculi is a complication

a) In ulcerative colitis
b) In ulcer disease
c) In diverticulosis of the colon
d) In Crohn's disease

361. H2 receptor blockers are used in the treatment of acute pancreatitis

a) They do not apply
b) Sometimes they apply
c)They must apply
362. In cancer of the head of the pancreas, the gallbladder is
a) Painful, enlarged
b) Painless; normal size
c) Distended palpation, painless

363. What elements of the peripheric blood possess the core?

a) Erythrocytes
b) Reticulocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) leukocytes

364. Howell Jolly corpuscles in the erythrocyte represent

hyposplenism (or asplenia)

365. Anaemia in chronic kidney disease morphologically belongs to

a) Nornochromic normocytic anaemia
b) hypochromic microcytic anaemia
c) hypochromic normocytic anaemia

366. Hodgkin' disease is pathohistological graded into the following four stages
lymphocyte predominance
nodules, sclerosis
mixed cellularity
Lymphocyte deficit

367. A diagnosis of lymphoma cannot be made

a) of pathohistological examination after biopsy affected lymph glands

b) bone marrow punctures
c) CT scan of the abdomen
368. The therapy of first choice in immune thrombocytopenic purpura is the application of:
a) corticosteroids
b) b) splenectomy
c) c) radiation

369. Electrocardiogram changes in pericarditis occur due to:

a) subepicardial damage to the myocardium
b) inflammation of the visceral pericardium
c) damage to the visceral and parietal pericardium

370. Factors that determine myocardial oxygen demand are:

heart rate
systolic pressure
left ventricular wall tension

371. The electrocardiogram in an attack of vasospastic angina pectoris most often shows
Transient elevation of the ST segment
372. The atrial frequency in atrial fibrillation is:
a) 350-500/min
b) 250-350/min
c) 100- 160/min

373. Ventricular tachycardia torsade’s de pointes is followed by:

a) prolonged QT interval
b) shortened QT interval
c) prolonged PQ interval

374. Adams-Stokes syncope means:

a) onset of atrial fibrillation

b) paroxysm of supraventricular tachycardia
c) asystole or ventricular fibrillation 11 in the presence of AV block

375. Basic auscultatory findings in aortic stenosis characterized by:

a) Ejection-type systolic murmur

b) Weakened or inaudible: sound of the aorta

400. Complications in mitral stenosis:

• Acute pulmonary edema
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• Thrombosis of the left atrium and consequent embolic system complications
• Atrial fibrillation
• Infective endocarditis

401. In menopausal women, LH and FSH are:

a) Normal
b) Elevated
c) Decreased

402. Myxedema represents:

a) Expressed severe picture of hypothyroidism
b) Expressed severe picture of hyperthyroidism
c) Accumulation of mucopolysaccharides he basic substance of the binder

403. In patients with primary hypothyroidism TSH

a) Elevated
b) Normal
c) Reduced

404. A chylous pleural effusion occurs as a result of:

a) metastatic spread of bronchial cancer in pleura
b) coagulation disorders
c) lung hilus injuries
d) injuries and ruptures of the thoracic duct
 405. Obstruction in chronic obstructive disease
a) reversible reversible,
b) mostly irreversible, although it can also be partially reversible

406. In patients with central cyanosis, the following drugs are not recommended.
a) antibiotics
b) cardiotonic
c) sedatives and neuroleptics
d) diuretics

407. Aortic insufficiency: Early diastole and murmur,

408. Mitral stenosis- accentuated first sound audible opening of the mitral valve - no one's
voice
410. Mitral insufficiency regurgitation-type holosystolic murmur

1. The most common mechanism in the development of tachyarrhithmias is: а) automatism disorder
b) reentry
c) triggering activity

2. In most cases, AV node is supplied with blood via: a) anterior descending artery
b) circumflex coronary artery
c) right coronary artery

3. Atrial frequency in atrial fibrillation is:

a) 350-600/min

b) 250-350
c) 100-160
4. Torsade de point, represents a rhythm disorder:
a) atrial
b) nodule
c) ventricular
5. Aortic baloon pump is used in:
a) atrio-ventricular dissociation
b) cardiogenic shock
c) pulmonary thromboembolism
d) severe hypertension crysis
6. Normal surface of the mitral orifice:
a) 2-4 cm
b) 4-6 cm
c) 6-8 cm
7. For the diagnosis of myocarditis, elevation of the following laboratory markers is necessary:
a) transaminases and leukocytes
b) markers of inflammation and BNP
c) troponin and markers of inflammation
d) CRP and BNP
8. The tests that have to be immediately done in patients with acute pancreatitis are (write down)
Lipase test
CBC test
LDH
CT
9-Wilson's disease is characterized by:
a) progressive neurologic disease, chronic hepatic disease and corneal disorder (Keiser-Fleischer
ring)

b) disturbed absorption of iron in the digestive tract, hepatomegaly, diabetes mellitus

c) splenomegaly, ascites, yellowish skin color

10. Eradication of H. pylori infection is performed using the combination of the following agents: a)
proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics
b) H2 receptor blockers and antacides
c) proton pump inhibitors and H2 receptor blockers
d) antacides and antibiotics

11. The most important complication of portal hypertension is:

a) ascites
b) rupture of esophageal varices
c) splenomegaly

12. Pain in duodenal ulcer occurs:

a) during food intake
b) during defecation
c) after overnight fasting and before morning
d) without any regularity

13. Achalasia (Hurst achalasia) is: (encircle the correct answer)

a) chronic inflammatory bowel disease

c) a tear between the esophagus and the stomach

14. In order to quickly eliminate the symptoms of asthma, the following is used: (encircle two correct
answers)

a) inhalation corticosteroids b) long-acting B2 agonists

c) systemic corticosteroids

d) short-acting B2 agonists

15. Respiratory acidosis is represented by the following finding of acid-base and gas status:

a) pH-7,27 PaC02-70 mmHg Pa02-31 mmHg HC03- 34 mmol/l

b) pH-7,56 PaC02-36 mmHg Pa02-67 mmHg HC03- 36 mmol/l

c) pH-7,37 PaC02-41 mmHg mmHg HC03- 21 mmol/l

16. Pickwickian syndrome obesity causes chronic respiratory insufficiency because of: (encircle two
correct answers)

a) arteriovenous shunt
b) diffusion disorder
c) alveolar hypoventilation
d) disorder of central respiratory regulation
e) all of the above

17. The key non-invasive diagnostic methods for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism are:
a) ECG
b) Chest x-ray
c) Perfusion scintigraphy of the lungs
d) Respiratory gas analysis in the arterial blood
e) Echocardiography
f) all of the above

18. Out of all histopathological types of bronchial carcinoma, the one most prone to metastasis is : a)
microcellular carcinoma
b) squamocellular carcinoma
c) adenosquamous carcinoma
d) carcinoid

19. Acute generalizæd miliary forms of post-primary tuberculosis of the lungs are:
a) asphyxiating, catarrhal and pleural form
b) caseous pneumonia and bronchopneumonia
c) typhoid, septic and meningeal form

e) glandular form and cavernous form

d) tuberculosis miliaris discreta; tuberculosis miliaris subacuta; tuberculosis miliaris migrans and cold

granulia

20. Administration of bicarbonates in diabetic ketoacidosis is: a) mandatory

b) forbidden
c) recommended only if blood pH is below 7

d) recommended only if blood pH is over 7 21. NPH insulin is:

a) rapid-acting
b) short-acting
c) intermediate-acting

d) long-acting
22. In hyperthyroidism, the following are present:
a) increased appetite, increased BW, tachycardia, elevated cholesterol level
b) decreased appetite, loss of BW, bradycardia, elevated cholesterol
c) increased appetite, loss of BW, tachycardia, decreased cholesterol
d) decreased appetite, increased BW, bradycardia, decreased cholesterol
23. Malignant tumors of the thyroid gland are:
a) scirrhous, follicular, ductal and microcellular
b) papillary, macrocellular, anaplastic and tubular
c) papillary, follicular, medullar and anaplastic
d) anaplastic, tubular, microcellular and medullar
24. In individuals with panhypopituitarism, the first therapeutic step is:
a) Substitution of thyroid disorder
b) Substitution of adrenal disorder
c) Substitution of sex hormones
25. Hyperaldosteronism manifests with:
a) hypotensia with hypokalemia
b) hypotensia with hypocalcemia
c) hypotensia with hypokalemia
26. Acute renal failure is characterized by the following (encircle the correct answers): a) Sudden
decrease in glomerular filtration
b) increased creatinine and urea in the serum

c) reduced amount of excreted urine

d) hypertensive crisis

27. characteristic laboratory finding in acute tubular necrosis are (encircle the correct answers):

a) specific weight of urine around 1.010

b) sodium in urine over 20 mmol/l

c) fractional excretion of sodium over 2%

d) Urine osmolarity of around 280mOsm/1

e) Urine sediment with tubular cells and cylinders

f) Quiet urine sediment

28. What are the target values of hemoglobin in patients with anaemia in chronic renal failure?

a) Around 12 g/dl

b) 8 g/dl

c) 14 g/dl
29. The treatment of renal tuberculosis is initiated with three agents (encircle the correct answers):

a) isoniazid

b) rifampicin

c) etambutol

d) streptomycin

30. Goodpasture syndrome -its diagnosis (encircle the correct):

a) encountered most commonly in males aged around 25 years and is usually preceded by a
respiratory infection

b) hematuria is preceded by pulmonary changes - hemoptysis

c) anaemia is always present

d) on chest x-ray, bilateral infiltrations can usually be seen, descending from the hilus to lung bases
e) anti-GBM antibodies can be found in the serum

31. Permanent vascular access in hemodialysis treatment is (encircle the correct):

a) arteriovenous fistula

h) central venous catheter c) vascular prosthesis

f) linear depositions of lgG and C3 along the basal membrane of the glomeruli and pulmonary aveoli

are characteristic

32. The most popular in vitro tests to demonstrate allergies to food or insects make use of the
following technique:

a) Patch and Prick on the skin

b) RAST

c) Tissue biopsies and immunohistochemistry

33. Write down at least three groups of drugs used today in the treatment of autoimmune diseases.
Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) e.g. methotrexate, sulfasalazine
Immunosuppressants e.g. corticosteroids
Biologic drugs e.g. TNF inhibitors, IL inhibitors, B-cell inhibitors

34. Indicate the correct order of procedures in the treatment of a severe, systemic anaphylactic
reaction: (write on the line the correct order of procedures)
......6.... administration of bronchodavanje bronchodilators, beta agonist

......7... administration of corticosteroids

...4...... intramuscular, subcutaneous or intravenous administration of adrenalin

......1... placement in a lying position, allergen elimination (if possible)

......5. fluid replacement

...2.... elevation of the limbs, airway patency, venous access placement, oxygen therapy

...3.... administration of antihistamines

35. Radiological signs of arthrosis are :

a) joint subluxations and ankylosis

b) narrowing of the joint space, subchondral sclecrosis

c) subchondral cysts

36. Treatment of mild forms of SLE (changes on the skin, joints, elevated body,..) (write down):

IMMUNOSUPPRESANTS

CORTICOSTEROIDS

METHOTREXATE

37. The diagnosis of gout is made based on the finding of ......URIC ACID CRYSTALS................ synovial
fluid

38. The finding of two involved regions of lymph glands on the same side of the diaphragm in
patients with Hodgkin’s disease, indicates................ clinical stage of the disease. (write down)

2nd STAGE

39. The main pathogenetic model in the development of pernicious anaemia involves :

a) presence of antibodies against the partial cells of the stomach mucosa

b) presence of bowel parasites in the small gastric resection c) loss of the respiratory surface after
gastric resection
d) deficient intake of vitamin B12 via food
40. The two basic groups of lymphomas are: (write down) HODGKIN

NON HODGKIN

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Name 5 criteria indicating severe pneumonia requiring hospital treatment (fill in)
a. Respiratory rate >30 breaths per minute
b. Oxygen saturation (SaO2) <90% on room air

c. Confusion or altered mental status

d. Systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≤60 mmHg

e. Multilobar infiltrates on chest X-ray

2. In patients with kyphoscoliosis, chronic respiratory failure occurs due to:

1. Depression of respiratory centre

2. Decreased diffusion capacity
3. Alveolar hypoventilation
4. Impaired perfusion
5. All of the above reasons

3. Regardless of of whether bronchial carcinoma is localised, regional or metastatic approximately

...90.... % of patients at the time of diagnosis have no significant symptoms (indicate the percentage)

4. Respiratory acidosis is the following finding of acid-base and gas status:

1. pH 7.56, PaCO2 36mmHg, PaO2 67mmHg, HCO3 36mmol/L

2. pH 7.37, PaCO2 36mmHg, PaO2 71mmHg, HCO3 21mmol/L
3. pH 7.27, PaCO2 70mmHg, PaO2 31mmHg, HCO3 34mmol/L
4. pH 7.56, PaCO2 31mmHg, PaO2 67mmHg, HCO3 19mmol/L
5. pH 7.27, PaCO2 31mmHg, PaO2 71mmHg, HCO3 14mmol/L

5. Why does secondary resistance to antituberculosis drugs occur? (write 3 causes)

a. Inadequate treatment adherence

b. Inappropriate drug dosages
c. Acquisition of resistant strains through transmission

6. The usual daily dose of pyrazinamide for tuberculosis therapy is:

1. 300mg
2. 2000mg
3. 100mg
4. 600mg
5. 200mg

7. The blood supply to the AV node is most commonly derived from:

1. Anterior descending artery

2. Circumflex coronary artery
3. Right coronary artery
4. Left coronary artery

8. Tetralogy of Fallot consists of:

 1. Mitral stenosis, ASD, right ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta
2. Pulmonary stenosis, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta
3. Aortic stenosis, VSD, left ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta
4. Mitral stenosis, ASD, right ventricular hypertrophy, dextroposition of the aorta

9. What are the auscultatory characteristics of mitral stenosis?

1. Systolic murmur, accentuated first heart sound, opening snap of the mitral valve
2. Systolic murmur, accentuated second heart sound, closing snap of the mitral valve
3. Diastolic murmur, accentuated second heart sound, closing snap of the mitral valve
4. Diastolic murmur, accentuated first heart sound, opening snap of the mitral valve

10. List 4 complications that can occur in mitral stenosis: a. Pulmonary congestion

b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Left atrial thrombus formation

11. Ventricular fibrillation or flutter end fatally if appropriate measures are not taken within

a. 5-10minutes

2. 2-3minutes
3. 3-5minutes

12. The pressure at which a stent expands in a coronary artery is:

1. 2atm
2. 5atm
3. 15atm

13. The classification of ventricular rhythm disorders (from 0 to 5) is named according to:

1. Wenckebach
2. Lewis
3. Lown
4. Parkinson
5. Leiden

14. Bifascicular block consists of:

1. Left bundle branch block and right bundle branch block

2. Anterior left or posterior left hemi block and right bundle branch block
3. First degree AV block and left bundle branch block
4. Left bundle branch block and right bundle branch block with first degree AV block

15. List 5 groups of symptoms in small bowel carcinoid (fill in): a. Abdominal pain
b. Flushing

c. Diarrhea

d. Wheezing

e. Right-sided heart failure

16. Menetrier’s disease:

a. Thickening of the gastric corpus mucosa, where the foveolar layer is 1/5 to 1⁄4 thickness of the
mucosa, and the rest is the glandular layer; the antral mucosa is thinner than the corpus

c. A syndrome with single multiple ulcers in the stomach, duodenum, jejunum and oesophagues with
gastric hypersecretion and the development of a gastrin secreting pancreatic tumour

b. Diffuse giant thickening of folds with epithelial hyperplasia mainly in the foveolar layer of the

corpus and fornix with significant protein loss and hypoproteinemia

17. Determining the alpha-fetoprotein is a significant finding for the diagnosis of:

1. Acute viral hepatitis

2. Chronic viral hepatitis
3. Carcinoma of the small bowel
4. Hepatocellular carcinoma
5. Colorectal carcinoma

18. The most important hereditary syndromes of colorectal cancers are:

1. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome and juvenile polyposis

2. FAP and lynch syndrome
3. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and Menetrier’s disease
4. Cronkite Canada

19. List at least 3 complications of liver cirrhosis (write down)

a. Ascites

b. Hepatic encephalopathy

c. Portal hypertension-related bleeding

20. Eosinophilia in the peripheral blood smear is present in approximately 40% of patients with:

1. Celiac sprue disease

 2. Ulcerative colitis
3. Echinococcal cyst in the liver
4. Small bowel tumours
5. Crohn’s disease
6. None of the above

21. What is the dose of dopamine given to improve diuresis in oliguric patients with acute renal
failure?

1. Over 5ug/kg/min
2. 1-3ug/kg/min
3. 3-5ug/kg/min

22. In uremia the most common electrolyte disorders seen as secondary hyperparathyroidism are:

1. Hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

2. Hypocalcaemia

c. And hypophosphataemia d. None of the above

23. The most common forms of glomerulonephritis presenting with clinical picture of nephritic
syndrome are:

. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
. IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease)
24. The fundamental histomorphological features of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is: a.
Crescents (cellular or fibrocellular)
25. A patient has a normal amount of iron in the body when ferritin is:

1. Upto 100ug/L
2. Over 100ug/L
3. 500-700ug/L
4. 200-500ug/L
5. 700-1000ug/L

26. Malignant tumours of the thyroid gland are:

1. Squamous, follicular, ductal and microcellular

2. Papillary, microcellular, anaplastic and tubular
3. Papillary, follicular, medullary and anaplastic

27. Subacute thyroiditis is also known as:

1. Hashimoto’s
2. Riedel’s
3. De Quervain’s

28. The following symptoms are often associated with hypoglycaemia:

1. Chest pain, shortness of breath and palpitations

2. Chest pain, sweating and hypotension
 3. Tremors, sweating and palpitations
4. Tremors, shortness of breath and sweating
5. Tremors, chest pain and shortness of breath

29. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland arises from:

1. Follicular epithelial cells

2. Medullary cells

c. Parafollicular cells

30. Hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membrane is encountered in:

1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex
4. Hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex
5. Hypersecretion of the adrenal medulla

31. Untreated chronic haemolytic anaemia can transform into:

1. Hyposideremic anaemia
2. Megaloblasic anaemia due to folate depletion
3. Pernicious anaemia
4. Megaloblastic anaemia due to vitamin B12 depletion

32. Circle the parameter that does not belong to the so called B symptoms in lymphoma

1. Unexplained weight loss

2. Night sweats unrelated to external temperature
3. Spontaneous bruising
4. Body temperature above 38 degrees in the absence of infection

33. Prothrombin time is prolonged in all the mentioned conditions except:

1. Vitamin K deficiency
2. Liver cirrhosis
3. Oral anticoagulant therapy
4. Heparin therapy

34. List five types of anaemias based on mechanism of occurrence (write down)

a. Hemolytic anaemia
b. Nutritional deficiency anaemia
c. Aplastic anaemia

d. Hemorrhagic anaemia

e. Hemoglobinopathies
35. CREST syndrome involves the presence of (write down)

a. Calcinosis
b. Raynaud's phenomenon

c. Esophageal dysmotility

d. Sclerodactyly
e. Telangiectasias

36. Raynaud’s phenomenon is most commonly present in:

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Systemic sclerosis
3. Polymyositis
4. Hand osteoarthritis

37. The diagnosis of chondrocalcinosis (pseudogout) is certain if the synovial fluid shows the
presence of:

1. Monosodium urate crystals

2. Rheumatoid factor
3. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals
4. Fibrinogen

38. Serum sickness is the prototype for:

1. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

2. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
3. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

39. Immunosuppressive cytokines are:

1. IL-18, IL-12
2. G-CSF, GM-CSF
3. IL-2, IL-7
4. TGF-B, IL-10
5. IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a
6. IFN-a, IFN-y

40. HLA-B27 is most commonly found in patients with:

1. SLE
2. Reiter’s syndrome
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Ankylosing spondylitis

1. List changes in joints and muscles in systemic lupus erythematosus (write down):
a) increased local temperature
b) redness above the joint.
c) limited mobility
d) deformation
e) pain and inflammation

2. The most commonly affected joint in gout

a) MCP1
b) MTP1
c) knee joint
d) wrist

3. the square shape of the vertebra - squaring - is n characteristic radiological change

the spine in:
a) ankylosing vertebral hyperostosis
b) ankylosing spondylitis
c) uric acid arthritis
d) hyperparathyroidism

4. 4. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory rheumatic disease that most

commonly affects:
a) Metatarsophalangeal joints (MTP)
b) Interphalangeal joints (PIP)
c) Sacroiliac joints and the vertebral column
d) Elbow and knee joints

5. Which disease Is characterized by the triad of symptoms: arthritis, urethritis,

conjunctivitis (write down):
Reiter's syndrome

6. Which of the following peripheral blood elements have a nucleus?

a) red blood cells
b) reticulocytes
c) monocytes
d) platelets

7. What is the name of the plasma transport protein that carries vitamin B12?
Transcobalmins I & II

8. In hypsideremic anaemia, all parameters except one are decreased:

a) haemoglobin
b) ferritin
c) mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
d) haematocrit
e) unsaturated iron-binding capacity (UIBC)

9. The main pathogenetic model for the development of pernicious anaemia involves:
a) the presence of autoantibodies to parietal cells of the gastric mucosa
b) the presence of intestinal parasites in the small intestine
c) loss of absorptive surface after gastric resection
d) insufficient intake of Vit. B12 through food
10. Chronic granulocytic leukemia is characterized by the following chromosomal
abnormality, also known as the Philadelphia chromosome
a) translocation 9:22
b) translocation 15:17
c) inversion

11. Hypocalcemia in FBI is a result of (circle 2 correct)

a) Reduced calcium intake
b) Reduced calcium absorption
c) Reduced vitamin D synthesis
d) Increased calcium loss from the body,

12. The diagnostic method that is not necessary for diagnosing urinary tract obstruction
(circle the correct answer)
a) Ultrasonography
b) Native urinary tract radiography
c) Intravenous urography (IVU)
d) Voiding cystourethrography
e) Retrograde pyelography
f) Anterograde pyelography
g) Renovasography

13. In renal glycosuria, glucose in the blood is:

a) increased
b) normal
c) decreased

14. The most sensitive diagnostic test or renovascular hypertension is (circle the answer):
a) Sequential intravenous urography
b) Digital subtraction angiography
c) Renovasography
d) Captopril test

15. Complications in patients with acute renal failure that require dialysis are (circle 2
correct answers)
a) Hyperkalaemia
b) Hypertension
c) Elevated blood urea above normal values
d) Loss of appetite
e) Metabolic acidosis
f) Hyponatremia
g) Hyperphosphatemia

16. The AV node is primarily supplied with blood through:

a) Anterior descending artery
b) Circumflex coronary artery
c) Right coronary artery

17. Adams-Stokes syncope indicates:

a) The onset of atrial fibrillation
 b) Paroxysm of supraventricular tachycardia
c) Asystole or ventricular fibrillation in the presence of AV block

18. Etiopathogenetically, atherosclerosis is:

a) A chronic inflammatory disease of arterial intima
b) A degenerative disease of arterial intima
c) A metabolic disease of arterial intima
d) None of the above is correct

19. Aortic dissection Type A (STANFORD CLASSIFICATION):

a) All dissections that do not involve the ascending aorta
b) All dissections that involve the ascending aorta, regardless of the site of onset of
dissection
c) All aortic dissections with dissection of the renal arteries
d) All aortic dissections with

20. What is WPW syndrome?

Wolf Parkinson white- accessory pathway, delta waves, shortened PR, wide QRS
complex is seen.

21. Xylocaine is used in the treatment of:

a) Conduction disorders
b) Ventricular rhythm disorders
c) Supraventricular rhythm disorders
d)All of the above

22. IgE is synthesized in:

a) Mast cells
b) Plasma cells
c) Monocytes

23. The physiological role of HLA molecules

a) To serve for tissue typing during transplantation preparation
b) To serve for processing, selection, and presentation of antigens
c) If present, they trigger immune disorders

23. Allergic hypersensitivity to penicillin can over time:

a) Completely disappear if the patient has not come into contact with penicillin
for 10 years
b) Worsen regardless of further contact with penicillin
c) Remain unchanged regardless of the time elapsed

24. Effector mechanisms of non-specific immunity include, among other

a) T and B lymphocytes
b) Classical complement pathway activation
c) Gastric acid, alternative complement pathway, natural killer lymphocytes.

26. In pulmonary sarcoidosis, the CD4/CD8 T cell ratio in bronchoalveolar lavage is:
 a) Normal
b) increased
c) Decreased

27. In status asthmaticus due to hyperventilation, there is (circle 2 correct answers):

a) Hypercapnia.
b) Hypocapnia
c) Respiratory acidosis
D)Respiratory alkalosis

28. Among all histopathological types of bronchial carcinoma, microcellular carcinoma has
the highest propensity for early metastasis:

a) Microcellular carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell carcinoma
e) Adenosquamous carcinoma

29. The usual daily dose of rifampicin tuberculosis therapy is:

a) 300 mg
b) 1000 mg
c) 100 mg
d) 600 mg
e) 200 mg

30. T triad (Allen's sign) in lung infarction consists of (write down):

intravascular vessel wall damage
stasis of flow
the presence of a hypercoagulable state.

31. Ulcerative colitis affects:

a) Large intestine (skip lesions)
b) Small and large intestine
c) Rectum only

32. Achalasia (Hurst's achalasia) is

a) Chronic inflammatory bowel disease
b) Pharyngoesophageal dyskinesia with pathological motility characterized by the absence of
one and propulsion of the esophagus, unsuccessful relaxation of the distal esophageal
sphincter and difficulty swallowing
c) Esophagogastric junction split

33. Menetrier's disease is:

a) Thickening of the corpus mucosa of the stomach with the foveolar layer being 1/5 to 1/4 of
the mucosal thickness, and the rest is the glandular layer: while the antral mucosa is thinner
than the
b) Diffuse, giant thickening of folds with epithelial hyperplasia, mainly in the c. A corpus
syndrome and fornix, with single leading or to multiple significant ulcerations protein loss
and hypoproteinaemia
c) A syndrome with single or multiple ulcerations in the stomach, duodenum, jejunum.
oesophagus, along with gastric hypersecretion and the development of a gastrin-secretin
pancreatic tumor.

35. Zenkers diverticulum is:

a) A true diverticulum of the esophagus
b) A true diverticulum of the stomach
c) A true diverticulum of the esophagus
d) A true diverticulum of the stomach

35. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome belongs to the group

a. Hyperplastic gastropathies
b. Atrophic gastropathies
c. non- erosive gastropathies
d. Erosive gastropathies

36. Medullary thyroid carcinoma originates from?

a) Follicular epithelial cells
b) Medullary cells
c) Parafollicular cells
d) Hürthle cells

37. Secondary hypothyroidism occurs due to:

a) Thyroid surgery
b) Autoimmune inflammation
c) Pituitary damage
d) Thyrosuppressive therapy

38. The term morbus Cushing refers to:

a) Ectopic ACTH production
b) increased ACTH production from a pituitary adenoma
c) Increased glucocorticoid production from the adrenal cortex

39. In primary hyperparathyroidism, the urine

a) Increased levels of calcium and phosphorus

b) Increased levels of calcium and decreased phosphorus
c) Decreased levels of calcium and phosphorus
d) Decreased levels of calcium and increased phosphorus

40. Precocious and delayed puberty are the result of damage to the:
a) Gonads
b) Hypothalamus
c) Pituitary gland
d) Adrenal gland