(SAMPLE FORMAT)
Republic of the Philippines
REMARKABLE REVIEW AND TRAINING CENTER
Manila
Preboard Examination
RADIOLOGIC AND X-RAY TECHNOLOGISTS Licensure Examination
Thursday, December 22, 2022 11:30 a.m. – 02:00 p.m.
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Radiologic Sciences SET A
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. For 99m Tc, which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to
patient dose?
A. Auger Electrons
B. Beta Particles
C. Internal Conversion
D. Gamma rays
E. Characteristic x-rays
2. Energies of alpha particle are generally between:
A. 1.02 MeV – 2.04 MeV
B. 0.511 MeV – 1.02 MeV
C. 5 – 10 MeV
D. 4 – 7 MeV
3. The isocenter is
A. An imaginary point in the beam where the dose is normalized
B. The point at the center axis where the maximum dose occurs
C. The point around which the source of the beam rotates
D. The central ray of the beam
4. Alpha particle is equivalent to the nucleus of what atom?
A. Lithium
B. Deuterium
C. helium
D. Tritium
5. Onco- means
A. swelling
B. tumor
C. cancer
D. inflammation
6. It is branch of radiology that uses ionizing radiation to treat
diseases such as malignant tumors.
A. nuclear medicine
B. radiobiology
C. cobalt 60
D. Radiotherapy
7. A person in radiation oncology that plans the dose to be delivered
to the patient
A. Radiation therapist
B. Radiation oncologist
C. medical physicist
D. all of the above
8. The acoustic impedance of the matching layer
A. can be chosen to improve transmission into the body
B. must be much larger than the transducer material to reduce
attenuation
C. must be made with the same material as the damping material
D. must be smaller than the impedance of the tissue
9. The actual time from the start of the pulse to the end of the
pulse is known as
A. pulse repetition frequency
B. pulse repetition period
C. pulse duration
D. spatial pulse length
10. Artifacts appearing as parallel, equally spaced lines are
characteristic of
A. acoustic shadowing
B. specular reflection
C. reverberation
D. enhancement
11. There are many types of natural and synthetic crystals that
possess and exhibit piezoelectric properties. Which of the
following are not natural?
A. tourmaline
B. quartz
C. Rochelle salt
D. lithium sulphate
12. Ultrasound wave propagation causes displacement of particles in a
medium. What are the regions of greatest particle concentration
called?
A. compression
B. rarefaction
C. attenuation
D. reflection
13. If frequency is doubled, the wavelength will
A. double
B. increase by a factor of four
C. become shorter by one-fourth
D. become shorter by one-half
14. What is the typical frequency of medical ultrasound transducers?
A. less than 20 kHz
B. greater than 20 Hz but less than 20,000 Hz
C. greater than 20,000 Hz but less than 2,000,000 Hz
D. greater than 1 MHz
15. Attenuation of an ultrasound beam can occur by
A. absorption
B. scattering
C. reflection
D. all of the above
16. What type of artifact is seen with a bright tapering trail of
echoes just distal to closely spaced strong reflectors?
A. edge
B. mirror image
C. comet
D. shadowing
17. The fundamental operating principle of medical ultrasound
transducers is ___________.
A. Snell’s law
B. Doppler law
C. impedance effect
D. piezoelectric effect
18. Beam attenuation can be defined as
A. The phenomenon by which artifacts result when lower-energy
photons are prefentially absorbed, leaving only higher-
intensity photons to strike the detector array.
B. X-ray energy that is produced from bombarding a susbstance
with fast-moving electrons
C. The ability of the detector to capture transmitted photons
and change them to electronic signals
D. The phenomenon by which an x-ray beam passing through a
structure is decreased in intensity or amount because of
absorption and interaction with matter.
19. Which of the following is a low-attenuation structure?
A. Iodine-filled aorta
B. Trachea
C. Rib
D. Calcified arteries
20. How often should an average CT number water calibration test be
performed?
A. Daily
B. Yearly
C. Monthly
D. Weekly
21. Which of the following is affected by the slice in a CT study?
A. Spatial resolution
B. Radiation does to the patient
C. Quantum mottle
D. Signal-to-noise ration
22. The 2-dimensional representation of attenuation coefficient:
A. Voxel
B. Pixel
C. Pinhole
D. All
23. The main purpose of the slip ring technology is to:
A. Increase the number of detectors that can be housed in the
gantry
B. Make the CT scanning operation quieter
C. Allow for continuous rotation of the detectors and X-ray
tube around the patient
D. Reduce the potential for motion artifacts associated with
spiral/helical scanning
24. Which of the following describe the fraction of those reaching
the detector that is being detected?
A. Geometric Efficiency
B. Thermonuclear Efficiency
C. Detection Efficiency
D. Intrinsic Efficiency
25. Conventional Tomography has improved contrast resolution because
of the following reason:
A. Imaging time is reduced
B. Out of plane tissues are blurred
C. X-ray beam is selectively filtered
D. Tissues are superimposed
26. The primary type of interaction that contributes to the subject
contrast in CT images.
A. Pair production
B. Compton scattering
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Linear Attenuation
27. Which of the following is defined as the ability to distinguish
details in objects of different densities a small distance apart?
A. Contrast resolution
B. Spatial resolution
C. Cross field uniformity
D. Interpolation
28. The ability of the tube to withstand by-product heat is called
____
A. Heat capacity
B. Thermal potential
C. Heat dissipation
D. Thermal transference
29. What is the amount of dose measurement given in RT?
A. Gray
B. Rads
C. Centigray
D. All
E. A & C only
30. The 0 line density in CT scanning is ____.
A. Fats
B. Bones
C. Muscle
D. Water
31. Acromegaly is characterized by which of the following
manifestations?
A. Abnormal enlargement of the torso
B. Abnormal enlargement of the extremities
C. Abnormal enlargement of the pituitary gland
D. Abnormal enragement of the fingers
32. Which of the following are the uses of the procedure urinary
catheterization?
1. To procure a specimen for diagnostic purpose
2. To drain urine from the bladder when the patient is
unable to urinate for other reasons
3. To place medication into the bladder
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. All of the above
33. Paraplegia is caused by injury to the __.
A. Spinal cord
B. Thoracic spinal cord
C. Spinal column
D. Lumbar spinal cord
34. The establishment of an anastomosis between the upper portion of
the stomach and the jejunum
A. Gastroduodenostomy
B. Gastrojejunostomy
C. Ileectomy
D. Colostomy
35. Commonly known as the Black lung disease.
A. Pneumoconiosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Anthracosis
D. Tuberculosis
36. The breaking apart of an intervertebral disk that results in
pressure on spinal nerve roots
1. Herniated disk
2. Dislocated disk
3. Ruptured disk
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. All of the above
37. The power capacity of the generator is listed in
A. Milliamperage (mA)
B. Kilowatts (kW)
C. Thousand heat units (KHU)
D. Million heat units (MHU)
38. Cooling mechanisms housed within the gantry help to reduce
temperature fluctuations that could affect the system performance.
A. X-ray tube
B. Generator
C. Filtration
D. DAS
39. Third generation (rotate-rotate) scanners overcame which of the
following?
A. Detector signal drift sensitivity
B. Spurious signal from moving signal
C. Translation motion
D. Cost
40. Which of the following modalities is most useful in demonstrating
the density of the renal carcinoma and its degree of metastasis?
A. MRI
B. Ultrasound
C. Nuclear Medicine
D. CT Scan
41. It is a rare congenital anomaly with complete duplication of the
uterus, cervix, and vagina.
A. Unicornuate horn
B. Bicornuate horn
C. Uterus didelphys
D. Hydrosalpinx
42. Depicts a uterus that is more vertical than normal and points
backward toward the bowel.
A. Anteversion
B. Retroversion
C. Retroflexed
D. Anteflexed
43. Propagation speed errors result in
A. reverberation
B. improper axial position
C. shadowing
D. a Doppler shift
44. Which of the following has an effect on the propagation speed of
the ultrasound?
A. high-frequency transducers
B. output power
C. angle of the ultrasound beam
D. tissue type
45. When particle motion of a medium is parallel to the direction of
a wave propagation, what is the wave being transmitted called?
A. longitudinal wave
B. shear wave
C. surface wave
D. transverse wave
46. The acoustic impedance of a material is
A. directly proportional to density and inversely proportional
to velocity
B. directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional
to density
C. inversely proportional to density and velocity
D. equal to the product of density and velocity
47. What is the average velocity of ultrasonic waves in soft tissue?
A. 1,540 mm/s
B. 154,000 m/s
C. 0.154 μm/μs
D. approximately one mile per second
48. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on
A. angulation
B. reflection
C. the medium and the mode of vibration
D. frequency
49. Which of the following test will allow an early detection of
cervical carcinoma?
A. Pap smear
B. Amniocentesis
C. Laparoscopy
D. Sonography
50. Results from an overgrowth of the uterine smooth muscle tissue.
A. Cystadenocarcinoma
B. Uterine Fibroids
C. Leiomyomas
D. Both B and C
*** E N D ***
WARNING: Failure to submit your Test Questions (Complete) set will
cause the cancellation of your Test-Results for the subject.
