Split 20240911 2315
Split 20240911 2315
1. Hydrogen has three isotops, the number of 8. Hydrogen readily combines with metals
possible molecule will be – and thus shows its
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12 (1) Electropositive character
(2) Electronegative character
2. Which of the following statement is not (3) both (1) and (2)
true for 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 respectively –
(4) None of these
(1) They are isotopes of each other
(2) They have similar electronic
configuration 9. Which acid used in formation of H2 gas ?
(3) They exist in the nature in the ratio (1) Concentrated H2SO4
1:2:3 (2) Conc. HNO3
(4) Their atomic masses are in the ratio (3) Dilute HNO3
1:2:3 (4) Dilute HCl
3. Hydrogen has the tendency to lose one e– 10. Which of following reaction does not
and formation of H+, In this respect it form H2?
resembles with : (1) Fe + H2SO4 (2) Sn + H2SO4
(1) Alkali metal
(3) Cu + H2SO4 (4) Zn + H2SO4
(2) Carbon
(3) Alkaline earth metal
(4) Halogens 11. Match List I (Fuels) with List II
(composition) and select the correct
4. Hydrogen is : answer using the codes given below the
(1) Electropositive lists
(2) Electronegative List I (Fuels) List II(Composion)
(3) Both electropositive as well as A. water gas i. A mixture of CO
electronegative and N2
(4) Neither electropositive nor B. Producer gas ii. Methane
electronegative
C. Coal gas iii. A mixture of
CO and H2
5. False statement for H atom
(1) It resembles halogens in some D. Natural gas iv. A mixture of
properties. CO, H2, CH4 and
(2) It resembles alkali metals in some CO2
properties A B C D
(3) It cannot be placed in Ist group of (1) iii i iv ii
periodic table (2) iii i ii iv
(4) It can be placed in 17th group periodic (3) i iii iv ii
table (4) iii ii iv i
6. Which is the lightest gas ?
12. Which of the following metals give H2 on
(1) Nitrogen (2) Helium
(3) Oxygen (4) Hydrogen reaction with NaOH :
I : Zn, II : Mg, III : Al, IV : Be
7. Hydrogen readily combines with non- (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, IV
metals and thus it shows its (3) II, IV (4) I, III
(1) Electronegative character
(2) Electropositive character 13. H2 gas cannot be prepared by :
(3) both (1) and (2) (1) Be + NaOH (2) Pb + NaOH
(4) None of these (3) Mg + NaOH (4) Sn + NaOH
14. Which combination cannot be used for the 21. Weakest reducing agent :
preparation of hydrogen gas in the (1) Atomic hydrogen
laboratory ? (2) Nascent hydrogen
I. zinc/conc. H2SO4 ; (3) Molecular hydrogen
II. zinc/dil. HNO3 (4) All
III. pure zinc/dil. H2SO4
22. The correct order of reactivity among
(1) I and II (2) I, II, III
I (atomic hydrogen); II (Dihydrogen) and
(3) III only (4) I and III III (Nascent hydrogen) is
(1) I > II > III (2) I > III > II
15. In which reaction H2 gas evolved. (3) II > III > I (4) III > II > I.
(1) Zn + H2SO4 (conc.) →
(2) Zn + NaOH (conc.) → 23. The adsorption of hydrogen by platinum is
(3) F2 + H2O → known as
(4) Cl2 + H2O → (1) Hydrogenation
(2) Reduction
16. Hydrogen does not combine with (3) Dehydrogenation
(1) Antimony (2) Sodium (4) Occlusion
(3) Bismuth (4) Helium
24. Nascent hydrogen consists of
(1) Hydrogen atoms with excess of energy
17. Which of the following produces
(2) Hydrogen molecules with excess
hydrolith with dihydrogen energy
(1) Mg (2) Al (3) Cu (4) Ca (3) Hydrogen ions in excited state
(4) Solvated protons
18. Hydrogen combines with other elements
by : 25. Hydride gap in periodic table is from:
(1) Losing an electron (1) Group 7 to group 9
(2) Gaining an electron (2) Group 5 to group 7
(3) Sharing an electron (3) Group 4 to group 6
(4) Losing, gainig or sharing electron (4) Group 7 to group 10
19. Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent and 26. A molten ionic hydride on electrolysis
thus resembles gives :
(1) H2 is liberated at anode
(1) Halogen
(2) H2 is liberated at cathode
(2) Noble gas
(3) H+ ions moving towards the cathode
(3) Radioactive elements (4) H+ ions moving towards the anode
(4) Alkali metals
27. The hydrides of the first elements in
20. Which is true about different forms of groups 15-17 namely NH3, H2O and HF
hydrogen : respectively show abnormally high values
(1) ortho hydrogen has same spins of two for melting and boiling points. This is due
nuclei clockwise or anticlockwise to :
(2) para hydrogen has different spins of (1) small size of N, O and F
two nuclei (2) the ability to form extensive
(3) at absolute zero, there is 100% para intermolecular H-bonding
form and at high temperature, there is 75% (3) the ability to form extensive
intramolecular H-bonding
ortho form
(4) Effective vander Waal's interaction
(4) all are correct
28. Which of the following is electron rich 37. Which of the following statements about
hydride? H2O2 is not true –
(1) CH4 (2) HF (3) B2H6 (4) None (1) Both oxidising and reducing agent
(2) Two hydroxyl group of H2O2 lie in the
29. H2O2 can be obtained when following same plane
reacts with H2SO4 except with : (3) Same structure in liquid and solid form
(4) None of these
(1) PbO2 (2) BaO2
(3) Na2O2 (4) KO2
38. Bleaching action of H2O2 is due to its :
(1) Oxidising nature
30. HCl is added to the following oxides, (2) Reducing nature
which one would give H2O2 ? (3) Acidic nature
(1) BaO2 (2) MnO2 (4) Thermal instability
(3) PbO2 (4) NO2
39. Acidic order of following compounds is :
31. In the Merck's process, the reagents (I) H2O2, (II) H2O, (III) H2, (IV) D2O
involved for the preparation of hydrogen (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > IV > III
peroxide are (3) IV > I > II > III (4) I > II > IV > III
(1) BaO2, HCl (2) Na2O2, H2SO4
(3) BaO2, H2CO3 (4) PbO2, H2O 40. Among the following, identify the
compound which can act as both oxidizing
32. The oxide that gives hydrogen peroxide and reducing agents
on the treatment with a dilute acid is (1) H2O2 (2) H2 (3) SO2 (4) All
(1) MnO2 (2) PbO2
(3) Na2O2 (4) TiO2 41. In which of the following reaction
hydrogen peroxide is a reducing agent
33. Hydrogen peroxide is manufactured by (1) 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + 2H2O
the auto oxidation of (2) Cl2 + H2O ⎯→ 2HCl + O2
(1) Naphthalene (3) 2HI + H2O2 ⎯→ 2H2O + I2
(2) Anthracene (4) H2SO3 + H2O2 ⎯→ H2SO4 + H2O
(3) 2-Butyl anthraquinol
(4) None 42. Correct ORDER of acidity & dielectric
constant is
34. In the reaction 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 (1) H2O2 > D2O > H2O
(2) D2O > H2O2 > H2O
oxidation state of oxygen changes as :
(3) H2O2 > H2O > D2O
(1) Only – 1 to –2
(4) None
(2) Only – 1 to zero
(3) Both of the above 43. Correct order of BP is :-
(4) –1 to –3 (1) H2 > H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2
(2) H2O2 > H2 > D2O > H2O > D2
35. H2O2 does not act as : (3) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2 > H2
(1) oxidant, reductant (4) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > H2 > D2
(2) bleaching agent
(3) antiseptic 44. Decomposition of H2O2 retarded by :
(4) catalyst NH—C—CH3
(1) O (2) MnO2
36. An aqueous solution of H2O2 (Acetanilide)
(1) Alkaline (2) Neutral (3) Zn (4) Colloidal Ni
(3) Strongly acidic (4) weekly acidic
45. The dipole moment of H2O2 is 2.1D. This 53. Heavy water reacts respectively with CO2,
indicates that the structure of H2O2 is : SO3, P2O5 and N2O5 to give the
(1) Linear (2) Non-linear compounds :
(3) Symmetrical (4) None (1) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO2, DNO2
(2) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO4, DNO2
46. The structure of H2O2 is (3) D2CO3, D2SO3, D3PO4, DNO2
H (4) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO4, DNO3
H H
(1) (2) O O
O O 54. Which of the following pairs produce
H
deutronitric acid
H (1) NO2, H2O (2) NO, D2O
(3) H—O—O—H (4) O O (3) N2O5, D2O (4) N2, D2O
OH
55. Heavy water is not used for drinking
because:
47. Which of following true structure of
(1) It is poisonous.
F2O2?
F (2) It is costly.
(3) It physiological action is different
O
(1) (2) F—O—O—F from ordinary water.
O (4) Its chemical properties are different
F from ordinary water.
(3) None (4) Both
56. The geometry of water molecule is same
48. Density of H2O is maximum at: as that of :
(1) 0º C (2) 100º C (1) Chlorine oxide
(3) –273º C (4) 4ºC (2) Boron trifluoride
(3) CO2
49. Which is true statement about D2O and (4) C2H4
H2O :
(1) D2O has lower dielectric constant than 57. High boiling point of water is due to :
H2O (1) High dielectric constant
(2) NaCl is more soluble in D2O than in (2) Low dissociation constant
H2O (3) It's high specific heat
(3) both are correct (4) Hydrogen bonding
(4) none is correct
58. Water acts as excellent solvent due to :
50. Which does not react with cold water : (1) Neutral nature
(1) Sic (2) AIN (3) CaC2 (4) Al4C3 (2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) High dielectric constant
51. Deuteromethane can be prepare if D2O
(4) None of these
reacts with
(1) Al4C3 (2) CaC2
59. Temporary hardness of water due to
(3) Both (4) None
presence of :
(1) CaCl2, MgSO3
52. 4D2O + 3Fe ⎯⎯⎯ Redhot
→ Fe3 O4 + gas. The
(2) Ca+2, Mg+2
gas produced in the above reaction is:
(3) K, CaCO3
(1) O2 (2) H2 (3) D2 (4) None
(4) Ca(HCO3)2, Mg(HCO3)2
60. The formula of sodium zeolite which is
used in permutit process for softening
water is
(1) Na2O. Al2O3. Si2O4.xH2O
(2) Na2O. Al2. Si2O4.xH2O
(3) Na2O. AlO3. SiO4.xH2O
(4) K2Al2SiO8.xH2O
EXERCISE – III
1. Which of the following reaction produces 5. The H–O–H angle in water molecule is
hydrogen? [AIIMS 2005] about [AIIMS 2011]
(1) Mg + H2O (2) BaO2 + HCI (1) 90º (2) 180º (3) 102º (4) 105º
(3) H2S4O8 + H2O (4) Na2O2 + 2HCl
6. When two ice cubes are pressed over each
2. Some statements about heavy water are other, they unite to form one cube. Which
given below [AIPMT 2005] of the following forces is responsible to
(i) Heavy water is used as a moderator in hold them together?
nuclear reactors. [AIIMS 2012]
(ii) Heavy water is more associated than (1) Hydrogen bond formation
ordinary. (2) vander walls forces
(iii) Heavy water is more effective solvent (3) Covalent attraction
than ordinary water. (4) Ionic interaction
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iii) 7. Which of the following statements about
hydrogen is incorrect? [AIIMS 2016]
3. Which of the following is correct for
(1) Dihydrogen acts as a reducing agent
hydrogen? [AIIMS 2009] (2) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which
(1) It can form bonds in +1 as well as – 1 tritium is the most common
oxidation state (3) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic
(2) It is always collected at cathode only salts
(3) It has one less e– then inert gas (4) Hydronium ion, H3O+, exists freely in
(4) It has same electronegativity as halogens. solution.
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 1 4
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 1 4 4
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 4 1
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 2 4 2 3 2 2
EXERCISE # II
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 2
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 2 4 4 2 3 2 2
EXERCISE # III
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 1 1 1 3 4 1 2
S-BLOCK (exercise 1)
1. Which of the following electronic (3) Rb+ (aq.) (4) Li+ (aq.)
configurations in the outermost two shells
is characteristic of the alkaline earth 8. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in
metals ? aqueous solution is maximum for –
(1) (n – 1)s2p6ns2 (2) (n – 1)s2p6d10ns2 (1) Li+ (2) Na+ (3) K+ (4) Rb+
(3) (n – 1)s2p6ns2p1 (4) None of these
9. Aqueous solutions of lithium salts are not
2. Which of the following configurations good conductors of electricity, because
represents the s–block element ? of–
(1) [Ar]3d104s1 (2) [Ne]3s2 3p1 (1) High hydration energy of Li ion
(3) [He] 2s22p63s1 (4) None of these
(2) High ionization energy of Li ion
3. The similarity in the properties of alkali (3) Small size of Li ion
metals is due to : (4) Non-metallic character of Li ion
(1) their same atomicity.
(2) similar outer shell electron 10. Atomic radii of alkali metals (M) follow
configuration. the order : Li < Na < K < Rb but ionic radii
(3) same energy of valence shell. in aqueous solution follows the reverse
(4) same principal quantum number of order Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+. The reason
valence shell. for the reverse order is -
(1) Increase in the ionisation energy
4. Which one of the following metals is
largest in the periodic table ? (2) Decrease in the metallic bond
(1) K (2) Cs (3) Zn (4) Ba character
(3) Increase in the electropositive
5. The set representing the correct order of character
ionic radius is :
(4) Decrease in the amount of hydration
(1) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+
(2) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ 11. The most electropositive amongst the
(3) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ alkaline earth metals is :
(4) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+ (1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Ba
6. The hydration enthalpies of alkali metal 12. The ionization enthalpy of alkaline earth
ions : metals is :
(1) decrease with increasing ionic size
(1) greater than elements of 1 and 13
down the group.
groups.
(2) increase with increase in ionic size
(2) less than alkali metals.
down the group.
(3) remain same with increase ionic size (3) greater than alkali metals.
down the group. (4) equal to alkali metals.
(4) first decrease from Li to K and then 13. Which of the following statement is
increase of Rb to Cs. incorrect ?
(1) The atomic radius of Na is greater than
7. In aqueous solution, the largest ion is -
that of Mg.
(1) Na+ (aq.) (2) Cs+ (aq.)
(2) Metallic bond of Mg is stronger than
the metallic bond in Na. 19. The density of –
(3) Melting and boiling points of Mg are (1) Na > K (2) Na = K
less than those of Ca. (3) K > Na (4) Li > K
(4) Mg and Ca both impart characteristic
colour to the flame. 20. Strong reducing agent of alkali metals is :
(1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Cs
14. Which one of the following properties
increases on moving down the group from 21. In K, Rb and Cs, the decreasing order of
Li to Cs ? reducing power in gaseous state is –
(1) Melting point (1) K > Cs > Rb (2) Cs > Rb > K
(2) Hardness of metals
(3) K < Cs < Rb (4) Rb > Cs > K
(3) Tendency to lose electron
(4) Metallic bond strength+ 22. Strong reductant in IIA and IA group is
(1) Ba, Li (2) Li, Be
15. Which is having highest m.p. –
(3) Cs, Ba (4) Ba, Cs
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Sr
16. With the increase in atomic weights 23. Weak reductant in alkali metal is –
melting points of the alkali metals (1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Cs
(1) increase
(2) Decrease 24. Which of the following alkaline earth
metals is strongest reducing agent
(3) Remain constant
(1) Ca (2) Sr (3) Ba (4) Mg
(4) do not show definite trend
17. Select the correct statement. 25. In vies of their low ionisation energies the
(1) Density of alkali metals regularly alkali metals are -
increases in moving down the group (1) Weak oxidising agents
from Li to Cs. (2) Strong reducing agents
(2) Group 1 elements are the largest in (3) Strong oxidising agents
their horizontal periods in the periodic
(4) Weak reducing agents
table (exclude noble gases).
(3) The melting and boiling points of 26. Strong reductant in IIA and IA group in
group 1 elements increases on moving gas medium –
down from Li to Cs.
(1) Ba, Li (2) Li, Be
(4) Alkali metals are more harder than
(3) Cs, Ba (4) Ba, Cs
alkaline earth metals.
27. Consider the following points -
18. The correct order of density of following
elements is : (Mg, Ca, Sr) (A)Cs is the strongest reducing agent in IA
group element
(1) Mg > Ca > Sr (2) Ca > Mg > Sr
(B) Be does not form peroxide in II A
(3) Ca < Mg < Sr (4) Mg < Ca < Sr group elements
(C) The density of potassium is less than 33. A fire work gives out crimson coloured
sodium light. It contains a salt of
(D)In alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, (1) Ca (2) Na (3) Sr (4) Ba
lithium has the minimum value of
M.P. 34. The yellow coloured flame is of –
Correct statement are - (1) Na (2) K (3) Ca (4) Ba
(1) (A) & (B) are correct
(2) (A), (B) & (C) are correct 35. On allowing ammonia solution of s-block
(3) (B) & (C) are correct metals to stand for a long time, blue colour
(4) (B), (C) & (D) are correct becomes fade. The reason is
(1) Formation of NH3 gas
28. Select the correct statement with respect (2) Formation of metal amide
to alkali metals.
(3) Cluster formation of metal ions
(1) Melting points decrease with
increasing atomic number. (4) Formation of metal nitrate
(2) Density of potassium is less then
36. On heating sodium metal in the current of
sodium
dry ammonia leads to the formation of
(3) Salts of Li to Cs impart characteristic
which gas–
colour to flame.
(1) NaNH2 (2) NaN3
(4) All of these.
(3) NH3 (4) H2
29. In India at the occasion of marriages, the
fire works used give green flame. Which 37. An element having electronic
one of the following radicals may be configuration 1s 2s 2p , 3s , 3p6, 4s1 will
2 2 6 2
present ? form –
(1) Na+ (2) K+ (3) Ba2+ (4) Ca2+ (1) Acidic oxide
30. Alkali metals give colour in Bunsen flame (2) Basic oxide
due to (3) Amphoteric oxide
(1) Low ionization potential (4) Neutral oxide
(2) low m.p.
(3) softness 38. Which of the following is an amphoteric
oxide -
(4) one electron in outermost orbit
(1) CaO (2) SrO (3) BeO (4) MgO
31. Which of the following does not give
flame colouration - 39. In the presence of oxygen, on heating,
(1) MgCl2 (2) BaCl2 lithium forms
(3) CaCO3 (4) SrCO3 (1) LiO (2) LiO2 (3) Li2O (4) Li2O2
32. Which of the following imparts violet 40. The basic strength of which hydroxide is
colouration to the Bunsen burner non- maximum ?
luminous flame - (1) LiOH (2) NaOH
(1) NaCl (2) BaCl2 (3) CaCl2 (4) KCl (3) CsOH (4) KOH
59. A compound which upon hydrolysis 68. Lithium chloride is highly soluble in –
releases ammonia is – (1) C6H6 (2) H2O (3) D2O (4) All
(1) Li3N (2) LiNO3
69. MgBr2 and MgI2 are soluble in acetone
(3) NaNO3 (4) None of these
because of –
60. Which of the following hydrides is not (1) Their ionic nature
ionic - (2) Their covalent nature
(1) CaH2 (2) BaH2 (3) SrH2 (4) BeH2 (3) Their co-ordinate nature
(4) None is correct
61. Thermal stability of hydrides of first
group elements follows the order - 70. Which of the following halides has the
(1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH highest melting point –
(2) LiH > KH > NaH > RbH (1) NaCl (2) KCl (3) NaBr (4) NaF
(3) LiH > RbH > KH > NaH
71. Which of the following exists as hydrated
(4) LiH > KH > RbH > NaH
salt –
62. Which of the following hydride is (1) NaCl (2) LiCl (3) RbCl (4) KCl
covalent and polymeric –
72. When NaCl is dissolved in water, the
(1) CaH2 (2) BeH2
sodium ion is -
(3) NaH (4) BaH2
(1) oxidised (2) reduced
63. More stable hydride is – (3) Hydrolysed (4) hydrated
(1) Cs – H (2) Rb – H
73. Anhydrous MgCl2 can be prepared by
(3) K – H (4) Li – H
heating MgCl2.6H2O –
64. Which pair of metal on heating form oxide (1) in a current of dry HCl gas
and nitride in air- (2) with carbon
(1) Li, Na (2) Na, Mg (3) until it fuses
(3) Li, Ba (4) K, Mg (4) with lime
74. Of the metals Be, Mg, Ca and Sr of group
65. Which metal does not form ionic hydride– II A in the periodic table the least ionic
(1) Na (2) Rb (3) Ca (4) Be chloride would be formed by -
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Sr
66. Which of the following 0.2 moles of
hydrogen on hydrolysis – 75. Which of the following has electrovalent
(1) 0.1 mole of LiH (2) 0.2 mole of LiH linkage –
(3) 0.3 mole of LiH (4) 0.4 mole of LiH (1) CaCl2 (2) AlCl3 (3) SiCl4 (4) PCl3
76. Which of the following is soluble in 84. The thermal stability of alkaline earth
organic solvents like ethanol? metal carbonates MgCO3, CaCO3, BaCO3
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) RbCl and SrCO3 decreases as –
(1) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > BrCO3
77. Which of the following halides are ionic
in nature? (2) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3
(1) BaX2 (2) CaX2 (3) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3
(3) SrX2 (4) All of these (4) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3
78. Among the alkaline earth metals, the 85. Which of the metal carbonates is
element forming predominantly covalent decomposed on heating ?
compound is : (1) MgCO3 (2) Na2CO3
(1) Ba (2) Sr (3) Ca (4) Be
(3) K2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
79. Li does not resemble other alkali metals in
86. Maximum thermal stability is shown by
following properties -
(1) Li2CO3 decomposes into oxides while (1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
other alkali carbonates are thermally (3) SrCO3 (4) BaCO3
stable
(2) LiCl is predominantly covalent 87. Which of the following compounds has
(3) Li3N is stable maximum thermal stability ?
(4) All (1) K2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) Li2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
80. There is loss in weight when mixture of
Li2CO3 and Na2CO3.10H2O is heated 88. Which of the following can not
strongly. This loss is due to – decompose on heating to give CO2?
(1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3.10H2O (1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) both (4) None (3) KHCO3 (4) BaCO3
81. Potassium carbonate when heated to high
89. The pair whose both species are used in
temperature –
antacid medicinal preparations is -
(1) Gives CO2
(1) NaHCO3 and Mg(OH)2
(2) Gives O2
(3) Gives CO (2) Na2CO3 and Ca(HCO3)2
(4) Gives no gas at all (3) Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(OH)2
(4) Ca(OH)2 and NaHCO3
82. Which of the following carbonate will not
decompose on heating – 90. On passing excess of CO2 in lime water,
(1) BaCO3 (2) ZnCO3 its milky appearance disappears because
(3) Na2CO3 (4) Li2CO3 (1) Soluble Ca(OH)2 is formed
(2) Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
83. Stable oxide is obtained by heating the (3) Reaction becomes reversible
carbonate of the element -
(4) Calcium compound evaporated
(1) Li (2) K (3) Na (4) Rb
91. Which does not exists in solid state -
(1) LiHCO3 (2) CaCO3 (1) AgNO3 (2) KNO3
(3) NaHCO3 (4) Na2CO3 (3) Cu (NO3)2 (4) Pb(NO3)2
92. Select the correct order of thermal 99. Which salt on heating does not give brown
stability of alkali metal bicarbonates : coloured gas ?
(1) LiHCO3 > NaHCO3 > KHCO3 > (1) LiNO3 (2) NaNO3
RbHCO3 (3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) AgNO3
(2) RbHCO3 > KHCO3 > NaHCO3 >
LiHCO3 100. Which of the following salts on heating
gives a mixture of two gases ?
(3) KHCO3 > RbHCO3 > NaHCO3 >
LiHCO3 (1) Ca(NO3)2 (2) NaNO3
(4) RbHCO3 > NaHCO3 > LiHCO3 > (3) KNO3 (4) RbNO3
KHCO3
101. An alkali metal nitrate on heating
93. Which of the following compounds has decomposes and liberates two different
minimum thermal stability ? gases along with an oxide. The alkali
metal is :
(1) Li2SO4 (2) Na2SO4
(1) Li (2) Na (3) K (4) Cs
(3) K2SO4 (4) Rb2SO4
102. The products obtained on heating LiNO3
94. Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O on heating to about
will be –
120ºC forms plaster of pairs which has
chemical composition represented by – (1) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (2) Li3N + O2
(1) 2CaSO4.3H2O (2) CaSO4.H2O (3) Li2O + NO + O2 (4) LiNO2 + O2
(3) 2CaSO4.H2O (4) CaSO4 103. Metallic magnesium is prepared by –
95. The right order of the solubility of (1) Reduction of MgO by coke
sulphates of alkaline earth metals is : (2) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Mg
(1) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr (NO3)2
(2) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr (3) Displacement of Mg by iron from
MgSO4 solution
(3) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
(4) Electrolysis of molten MgCl2
(4) Mg > Ca > Ba > Be > Sr
104. Calcium is obtained by –
96 Maximum solubility of alkaline earth
metal sulphate is shown by - (1) Calcination of lime stone
(1) MgSO4 (2) CaSO4 (2) Electrolysis of calcium chloride in
H2O
(3) SrSO4 (4) BaSO4
(3) Reduction of calcium oxide with
97. Nitrate is converted into metal oxide on Carbon
heating. This metal is - (4) Electrolysis of molten calcium
(1) Li (2) Na chloride
(3) Mg (4) (1) and (3) both
105. Both Be and Al becomes passive on
98. NO2 is not obtained on heating – reaction with conc. Nitric acid due to –
(1) The non reactive nature of the metal (4) calcium carbonate
(2) The non reactive nature of the acid
110. Sodium carbonate can be manufactured by
(3) The formation of an inert oxide layer
Solvay’s process but potassium carbonate
on the surface of the metals
cannot be prepared because:
(4) None of these
(1) K2CO3 is more soluble
106. The commercial production of sodium (2) K2CO3 is less soluble
carbonate is done by - (3) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3
(1) Lead chamber process (4) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3
(2) Haeber's process
111. Which of the following products are
(3) Solvay's process
obtained in the electrolysis of brine
(4) Castner's process
solution (i.e. NaCl solution) in Castner-
Kellner cell ?
107. Crystals of washing soda lose nine
molecules of water when exposed to dry (1) Na, H2
air. This phenomenon is known as - (2) Na-amalgam
(1) Dehydration (2) Hydration (3) Na-amalgam, NaOH
(3) Deliquescence (4) Efflorescence (4) NaOH, Cl2, H2.
108. The raw material used in the Solvay 112. What products are formed during the
process for the manufacture of sodium electrolysis of a aqueous solution of
carbonate comprises sodium chloride ?
(1) Sodium chloride and carbon dioxide I. Cl2 (g) , II. NaOH (aq). ,
III. H2(g).
(2) Ammonia and carbon dioxide (1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) Sodium chloride, limestone and (3) I and III only (4) All of these
ammonia
113. Crude common salt becomes damp on
(4) Sodium chloride, limestone and
keeping in air because :
carbon dioxide
(1) It is hygroscopic in nature.
109. The by-product of Solvay ammonia (2) It contains MgCl2 and CaCl2 as
process is : impurities which are deliquescent in
(1) carbon dioxide nature.
(2) ammonia (3) (1) and (2) both.
(3) calcium chloride (4) None.
S-BLOCK EXERCISE --2
1. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution 5. Sodium amalgam on reaction with water
of Zn+2 ions, a white precipitate appears yields :
and on adding excess NaOH, precipitate (1) Hg + NaOH
dissolves. In this solution zinc exists in the
(2) Hg + NaOH + O2
–
(3) Hg + NaOH + H2
(1) Cationic part
(4) HgO + NaOH + H2
(2) Anionic part
(3) both in cationic and anionic part 6. Lithium is the only alkali metal which is
(4) there is no zinc left in the solution not placed in kerosene but is wrapped in
paraffin wax, because -
2. Compounds of alkaline earth metals are (1) It reacts with kerosene
less soluble in water than the (2) It floats to the surface of kerosene
corresponding alkali metal salts due to: because of low density
(1) their high ionisation energy (3) It does not react with air and H2O
(2) their low electronegativity (4) None
(3) their low hydration energy
7. Which is correct order of ionic mobility in
(4) their high lattice energy aqueous medium -
+ + +
3. Halides of alkaline earth metals from (1) Li (aq) < Na (aq) < Rb (aq)
hydrates such as MgCl2.6H2O, 3+
(2) Al(aq)
2+ +
< Mg(aq) < Na(aq)
CaCl2.6H2O, BaCl2.2H2O and
+ + +
SrCl2.2H2O. This shows that halides of (3) Rb (aq) > Na (aq) > K(aq)
group 2 elements -
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Are hygroscopic in nature
(2) Act as dehydrating agents 8. Considering greater polarization in LiCl
as compared to that in NaCl, which of the
(3) Can absorbs moisture from air
following statements you would expect to
(4) All of these be wrong -
4. Alkali metals are soluble in liquid NH3. (1) LiCl has lower melting point than
As the concentration of metal increases, NaCl
solution turns blue to bronze. It reflects
(2) LiCl dissolves more in organic
the change in magnetic property of the
solution - solvents than NaCl
(3) LiCl will ionize in water more than
(1) Diamagnetic to paramagnetic
NaCl
(2) Paramagnetic to diamagnetic
(4) Fused LiCl would be less conducting
(3) Weak to intense paramagnetic than fused NaCl
(4) No change in magnetic property
9. One mole of a substance (A) on reacting 15. Which metal bicarbonates does not exist
with excess of water, gives two mole of in solid state ?
readily combustible gas and an alkanline (i) LiHCO3 (ii) Ca(HCO3)2
solution. The alkaline solution gives white
(iii) Zn (HCO3)2 (iv) AgHCO3
turbidity with (CO2). The substance (A) is
- (1) i, ii, iii, iv (2) i, ii, iii
(1) CaH2 (2) NaH (3) i, ii, iv (4) ii, iii, iv
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) NaNO3
16. X and Y are two metals. When burnt in air,
10. Which of the following compounds is not X forms only oxide while Y forms oxide
obtained when the products obtained from and nitride. The metals X and Y may be –
the electrolysis of brine are mixed ? (1) Ca and Mg (2) Na and Mg
(1) NaCl (2) H2 (3) Li and Na (4) Na and K
(3) NaOCl (4) Cl2
11. When dry ammonia gas is passed over 17. Which of the following statements is
heated sodium (in absence of air) the incorrect ?
product formed is – (1) Sodium and potassium are soft and
(1) sodium hydride silvery white metals
(2) sodium nitride (2) Sodium and potassium in air get
(3) sodamide tarnished due to the formation of a
(4) Sodium cyanamide layer of oxide or carbonates
12. Sodium peroxide is used to purify the air (3) Sodium and potassium burn in dry
in submarines and confined spaces oxygen (excess) giving peroxides
because –
(4) Sodium and potassium are kept under
(1) It removes CO2 and produces O2
kerosene to avoid the contact with air
(2) It decomposes to form Na2O
and moisture
(3) It reacts with oxygen to form sodium
superoxide
(4) None of these 18. Calcium imide on hydrolysis gives gas (B)
13. The fluoride which is most soluble in which on oxidation by bleaching powder
water is – gives gas (C). Gas (C) on reaction with
(1) CaF2 (2) BaF2 (3) SrF2 (4) BeF2 magnesium give compound (D) which on
hydrolysis gives again gas (B). Identify
14. The pairs of compounds which cannot
exist together in aqueous solution are – (B), (C) and (D) –
33. On commercial scale, sodium hydroxide 39. Which does not exist in solid state.
is prepared by : (1) NaHCO3 (2) NaHSO3
(1) Dow's process (3) LiHCO3 (4) CaCO3
(2) Solvay process
(3) Castner-Kellner cell 40. On addition of metal, colour of liquid NH3
(4) Hall-Heroult process solutions converts into bronze, the reason
is :
34. Which of the following statements is false
? (1) Ammoniated electrons
(1) BeCl2 exists as dimer in the vapour (2) Metal amide formation
state and polymeric in the solid state (3) Liberation of NH3 gas
(2) Calcium hydride is called hydrolith (4) Cluster formation of metal ions
(3) The oxides of Be and Ca are
amphoteric
(4) Bicarbonates of Na is soluble in water
17. Which of the following compounds has The reaction will be most favourable if M
the lowest melting point ?[AIPMT-2011] happens to be– [AIPMT MAINS-2012]
(1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2 (1) K (2) Rb (3) Li (4) Na
(3) CaBr2 (4) CaI2
22. On heating which of the following 25. Which of the following oxides is most
releases CO2 most easily? acidic in nature ? [NEET-2018]
[Re-AIPMT-2015] (1) MgO (2) BeO (3) BaO (4) CaO
(1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
26. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the otder of
(3) K2CO3 (4) Na2CO3
ionic character is - [NEET-2018]
23. Which of the following statements is (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
false? [NEET-2016] (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
+2
(1) Ca ions are important blood in (3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
clotting (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
2+
(2) Ca ions are not important in
maintaining the regular beating of 27. Crude sodium chloride obtained by
heart crystallization of brine solution does not
contain [NEET-2019]
(3) Mg+2 ions are important in the green
parts of plants (1) MgSO4 (2) Na2SO4
(4) Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP (3) MgCl2 (4) CaSO4
24. In context with beryllium, which one of 28. Which of the alkali metal chloride (MCl)
the following statements is incorrect? forms its dihyrate salt (MCl.2H2O) easily?
[NEET-2019]
[NEET-2016]
(1) LiCl (2) CsCl
(1) It is rendered passive by nitric acid
(3) RbCl (4) KCl
(2) It forms Be2C
(3) Its salts rarely hydrolyze 29. Which of the following is an amphoteric
(4) Its hydride is electron-deficient and hydroxide? [NEET-2019]
polymeric (1) Sr(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2
(3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2
EXERCISE # 1
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 1
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 3 3
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 1 4
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 3
Q.No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 4 2 2 1
Q.No. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113
Ans. 1 1 4 4 3 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 3
EXERCISE # 2
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 2 2 4 3 1 4 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 1
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 4 1 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 4
EXERCISE # 3
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 1
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 4
METALLURGY (exercise-2)
Ores, Mineral
10. Which of the following mineral does not
1. A mineral is called an ore if – contain Al –
(1) A metal can be economically obtained (1) Cryolite (2) Mica
from it
(3) Feldspar (4) Fluorspar
(2) A metal can be extracted from it
(3) A metal can not be obtained from it
(4) It contains a precious metal 11. Important ore of aluminium is –
(1) Malachite (2) Cinnabar
2. Chloride ore among the following is - (3) Bauxite (4) Magnetite
(1) Malachite (2) Magnesite
(3) Magnetite (4) Rock salt 12. The carbonate ore of iron and sulphide ore
of copper are respectively -
3. Corundum is –
(1) Limonite and malachite
(1) SiC (2) Al2O3
(3) Al2O3.2H2O (4) KAlSi3O8 (2) Siderite and chalcopyrite
(3) Haematite and chalcocite
4. Consider – (4) Magnetite and azurite
(1) Zinc blande = Zn2O
(2) Pyrolusite = MnO2 13. Malachite is -
(3) Cryolite = Na3AIF6
(1) Al2O3.H2O (2) Cu(OH)CuCO3
(4) Cinnabar = PbS
(3) Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 (4) FeCO3
Which is/are not correctly matched -
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only
(3) 4 only (4) 1 and 4 14. Which is not iron ore ?
(1) Haematite (2) Siderite
5. Bauxite has the formula – (3) Dolomite (4) Limonite
(1) Al2O3.H2O (2) Al2O3.2H2O
(3) Al2O3.3H2O (4) KAlSi3O8 15. Among the following statements, the
incorrect one is -
6. The most common ore of copper is –
(1) Calamine and siderite are carbonates
(1) Cu2S (2) CuFeS2
(3) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (4) Cu5FeS4 (2) Argentite and cuprite are oxides
(3) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides
7. Galena is an ore of: (4) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
(1) Pb (2) Hg (3) Sn (4) Zn
16. Pyrolusite is a /an
8. Choose the set of carbonate ore –
(1) Oxide ore (2) Sulphide ore
(a) Galena (b) Siderite
(3) Carbide ore (4) Not an ore
(c) Copper pyrites (d) Malachite
Answer is- 17. Which of the following is not a mineral of
(1) a,c (2) b,d (3) b,c (4) a,d iron ?
9. Carnalite is a mineral of - (1) Magnetite (2) Siderite
(1) Ca (2) Na (3) Mg (4) Zn (3) Smithsonite (4) Limonite
18. Which of the following is a carbonate ore? 25. Mac-Aurthur forrest process is used for
(1) Pyrolusite (2) Malachite the extraction of –
(3) Diaspore (4) Casseterite (1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Fe (4) Ag
Calcination, Roasting
(2) For increasing boiling point of metal
35. Heating of pyrites in air for oxidation of (3) To make ore porous
sulphur is called – (4) To remove the impurities
(1) Roasting (2) Calcination
(3) Smelting (4) Slagging 41. Which of the following is used for the
extraction of cadmium from cadmium
36. Which one of the following is not a basic sulphide–
flux – (1) Roasting (2) Reduction
(1) CaCO3 (2) CaO
(3) Oxidation (4) Electrolysis
(3) SiO2 (4) MgO
46. Which of the following ores is 53. Calcination is the process in which –
concentrated by leaching – (1) Heating the ore in presence of air
(1) Pyrite (2) Galena (2) Heating the ore in presence of sulphur
(3) Cuprite (4) Argentite (3) Heating the ore in absence of air
(4) Heating the ore in presence of chlorine
47. In the froth floatation process the particles
of the ore come on the froth because – Reduction
(1) They become water repellent
(2) They have light 54. Which one of the following metals is
(3) They are lower molecular weight extracted by carbon reduction process –
(4) Both 1 & 2 are correct (1) Sodium (2) Iron
(3) Aluminium (4) Magnesium
48. Leaching process is used to concentrate-
(1) Bauxite (2) Galena 55. False statement is –
(3) Cinnabar (4) None of these (1) Mond's process is used for refining of
nickel
49. In the Hall-Heroult process for extraction (2) Gold is extracted by cyanide process
of Al, the ore is fused with - (3) Calcination of an ore requires excess
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2CO3 of air
(3) NaF (4) Na3AlF6 (4) None
50. Which one of the following reactions is an 56. In the metallurgy of iron, when lime stone
example for calcination process ? is added to the blast furnace, the calcium
(1) 2Ag + 2HCl + (O) → 2AgCl + H2O ion ends up in –
(1) Slag (2) Gangue
(3) Metallic Ca (4) CaCO3
(2) 2 Zn + O2 → 2ZnO2
64. Extraction of silver from Ag2S by the use
57. A reaction showing slag formation is – of sodium cyanide is an example of:
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 (1) roasting (2) hydrometallurgy
(2) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 (3) electrometallurgy (4) smelting
(3) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
(4) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 65. Aluminothermic process is used in the
extraction of
58. In metallurigical processess, the flux used (1) Mn (2) Cr
for removing basic impurities is – (3) Co (4) All of these
(1) Silica
(2) Sodium chloride 66. Which reaction take place in Bessemer
(3) Limestone converter ?
(4) Sodium carbonate (1) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
59. In the extraction of copper from its (3) CuO + C → Cu + CO
sulphide ore the metal is formed by (4) CuCO3 → CuO + CO2
reduction of Cu2O with:
(1) FeS (2) CO (3) Cu2S (4) SO2
67. Reducing metal required in Goldschmidt
Alumino Thermic process is
60. The commonest method for the extraction
(1) Chromium powder
of metals from oxide ores involves –
(2) Zinc powder
(1) Reduction with carbon
(3) Aluminium powder
(2) Reduction with aluminium
(4) Silver powder
(3) Reduction with hydrogen
(4) Electrolytic method
68. Which of the following mixture is used in
the electrolysis of aluminium ?
61. Copper matte consist of :
(1) Al2O3 + BaF2 (2) Na3AlF6 + Al2O3
(1) Copper oxide and ferrous sulphide
(3) NaAlO2 + Al2O3 (4) Al2O3 + NaOH
(2) Copper sulphide and ferrous oxide
(3) Copper sulphide and ferrous sulphide
(4) Copper oxide and ferrous oxide 69. Calcium is obtained by -
(1) Roasting of lime stone
62. The process in which metal oxide is (2) Electrolysis of calcium chloride in H2O
reduced to metal by Al is called: (3) Electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium
(1) Smelting (2) Aluminothermy chloride
(3) hydrothermy (4) no specific name (4) Reduction of calcium oxide with
63. In the extraction of lead by self reduction carbon
process the reducing agent is - 70. After partial roasting the sulphide of
(1) PbS (2) O2 (3) C (4) Al copper is reduced by -
(1) Cyanide process
(2) Electrolysis (1) silica (2) sodium chloride
(3) Reduction with carbon (3) limestone (4)sodium carbonate
(4) Self reduction
77. Aluminium oxide is not reduced by
71. In the manufacture of iron from haematite, chemical reactions since -
(1) Aluminium oxide is highly stable
limestone is added to act as -
(2) Aluminium oxide is reactive
(1) An oxidizing agent
(3) Reducing agents contaminate
(2) A reducing agent
(4) The process pollutes the environment
(3) Flux
(4) Slage 78. In the extraction of iron from an ore, the
slag obtained from blast furnace in the
72. The cryolite is used in the electrolytic mixture of -
extraction of aluminium - (1) CaO + FeO
(1) To oxidise bauxite (2) FeSiO3 + CaO
(2) To get more aluminium (3) CaSiO3 + Aluminium silicate
(3) To protect anode (4) CaCO3 + Al2O3
(4) To reduce the m.p. of Alumina
79. Which of the following sulphides when
heated strongly in air gives the
73. The metal which cannot be produced on
corresponding metal ?
reduction of its oxide by aluminium is –
(1) Cu2S (2) CuS
(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Cr (4) Fe
(3) HgS (4) FeS
84. Extraction of metal from the ore (1) 3Mn2O4 + 8Al → 9Mn + 4Al2O3
cassiterite involves – (2) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(1) carbon reduction of an oxide ore (3) 2Fe + Al2O3 → 2Al + Fe2O3
(2) self-reduction of a sulphide ore (4) B2O3 + 2Al → 2B + Al2O3
(3) removal of copper impurity
(4) removal of iron impurity 90. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
85. Oxidation states of the metal in the
below in the lists.
minerals haematite and magnetite,
List-I (Metals) List-II
respectively, are –
(Process/methods
(1) II, III in haematite and III in magnetite
involved in
(2) II, III in haematite and II in magnetite
extraction process)
(3) II in haematite and II, III in magnetite
(4) III in haematite and II, III in magnetite (a) Au (1) Self reduction
(b) Al (2) Liquation
86. In the extraction of copper, metal is (c) Pb (3) Electrolysis
formed in the Bessemer converter due to (d) Sn (4) Bayer's process
reaction : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 (1) 3 1 2 4
(2) Cu2S → 2Cu + S (2) 3 4 1 2
(3) Fe + Cu2O → 2Cu + FeO (3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 2Cu2O → 4Cu + O2 (4) 3 2 4 1
87. Which of the following process involves 91.
air
Pbs ⎯⎯ → X, X + PbS → Pb + SO2. 'X'
smelting?
(1) 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2 may be :
(2) Al2O3.2H2O → Al2O3 + 2H2O (1) PbO (2) PbO2
(3) Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe + 2CO2 (3) PbO and PbSO4 (4) PbO2 and PbO
(4) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr + Heat
92. Reducing agent of haematite in blast-
furnace is : 98. CO on passing over heated nickel gives -
(1) Coke in furnace (1) NiCO3 (2) Ni(CO)4
(2) Coke in upper part and CO in lower (3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO + H2
part of furnace.
(3) CO in most part of the furnace. 99. Purification of silicon element used in
(4) CO in the furnace. semi-conductors is done by –
(1) Zone refining
93. Main source of lead is PbS. It is converted (2) Heating
to Pb by : (3) Froth floatation
air
A : PbS ⎯⎯ C
→ PbO+SO2 ⎯⎯ → Pb+ CO2 (4) Heating in vacuum
insufficient air
B : PbS ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ PbO + PbS 100. Mond's process is used for refinining –
⎯⎯
→ Pb + SO2 (1) Ni (2) Co
Self reduction process is : (3) NH3 (4) H2SO4
(1) A (B) B (3) Both (4) None
101. Which process represents the equation –
94. Matte : Ti + 2I2 → TiI4 → Ti + 2I2
(1) Cu2S + FeS (2) Cu2O + FeS (1) Cupellation (2) Van - Arkel
(3) Cu2O + Cu2S (4) FeS + SiO2 (3) Poling (4) Zone refining
95. Which one of the following metals cannot 102. In the smelting of Cu2S, the flux is –
be extracted by using Al as a reducing (1) CaSiO3 (2) FeO
agent? (3) FeSiO3 (4) SiO2
(1) Na from Na2O (2) Cr from Cr2O3
(3) Mn from MnO2 (4) V from V2O5 103. Cupellation process is involved in the
metallurgy of –
96. Which reaction shows formation of (1) Copper (2) Silver
bilstered copper? (3) Gold (4) Lead
(1) 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2
(2) 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2 104. In electro-refining the impure metal is
made as-
(3) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
(1) Cathode (2) Anode
(4) Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO
(3) Electrolyte (4) 1 & 3
Purification of Metal
105. The process of Zone refining is based
upon
97. Refining of silver is done by–
(1) Fractional crystallization
(1) Liquation (2) Poling
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Cupellation (4) Van arkel method
(3) Magnetic properties of impurities
(4) Impurities are less fusible than metals (3) Iron (4) Aluminium
106. Van Arkel method of purification of 110. In the electrolytic refining of pure copper
metals involves converting the metal to a
from impure copper the anode is made up
(1) Volatile stable compound
of -
(2) Volatile unstable compound
(1) Graphite (2) Platinum
(3) Non volatile stable compound
(4) Non volatile unstable compound (3) Pure Cu (4) Impure Cu
1. An ore after levigation is found to have (1) Cu (2) Au (3) Ag (4) All
acidic impurities. Which of the following 8. Match the method of concentration of the
can be used as flux during smelting ore in column I with the ore in column II
operation?
and select the correct alternate
(1) H2SO4 (2) CaCO3
(I) (II)
(3) SiO2 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(i) Magnetic separation (A) Ag2S
2. Froth floatation process is based on: (ii) Froth Floatation (B) FeCr2O4
(1) Wetting properties of ore particles (ii) Gravity separation (C) Al2(SiO3)3
(2) Specific gravity of ore particles i ii iii
(3) Magnetic properties of ore particles (1) A B C
(2) B A C
(4) Electrical properties of ore particles
(3) C A B
(4) B C A
3. Gold is extracted by hydro-metallurgical
process, based on its property
(1) of being electropositive 9. Ag2S + NaCN ⎯→ A, A + Zn ⎯→ B
(2) of being less reactive B is a metal . Hence A and B :
(3) to form complex which are water (1) Na2 [Zn(CN)4], Zn
soluble (2) Na [Ag(CN)2], Ag
(4) to form salts which are water soluble
(3) Na[Ag(CN)4], Ag
(4) Na3 [Ag(CN)4], Ag
4. Cassiterite is concentrated by:
(1) Levigation
(2) Electromagnetic separation 10. Which one of the following ores is best
(3) Floatation method concentrated by froth-flotation method?
(4) Liquefaction (1) Galena (2) Cassiterite
(3) Magnetite (4) Malachite
5. Which one of the following ores is not
concentrated by froth floatation process? 11. Extraction of silver from its ore involving
(1) Copper pyrites (2) Argentite
NaCN, air and an active metal is known
(3) Pyrolusite (4) zinc blende
as:
(1) Mond’s method
6. "Hydro metallurgy" method is used for the
extraction of the following metals - (2) Amalgamation method
(1) Zn and Ag (2) Ag and Cu (3) Mc Arthur-Forrest method
(3) Zn and Hg (4) Hg and Cu (4) Van Arkel
7. Which of the following is obtained by 12. The flux used in the extraction of iron is:
hydrometallurgy -
(1) Limestone (2) Silica 17. Which of the following sulphides when
(3) Flint (4) Feldspar heated strongly in air gives the
13. After partial roasting the sulphide of correspoding metal?
(1) Cu2S (2) CuS (3) FeS (4) HgS
copper is reduced by:
18. x, y and z in the following processes are
(1) Cyanide process
respectively
(2) Electrolysis (A) P2O5 + .........x ..............→ Ca3(PO4)2
(3) Reduction with carbon (B) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → ....... y .....+ SO2
(4) Self reduction (C) Fe2O3 + 3CO → .......z......+ 3CO2
25. Which series of reactions correctly 29. Which of the following is/are correctly
represents chemical relations related to matched ?
iron and its compound? (1) Copper – Bessemer converter
Cl , heat
(1) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ FeCl3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
heat, air (2) Iron – Blast furnance
Zn (3) Chromium – Aluminothermic process
FeCl2 ⎯⎯→ Fe
O , heat CO, 600C
(4) All the above
(2) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ Fe3O4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
CO, 700C
FeO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Fe 30. The following equation represents a
dil. H 2SO 4 H 2SO 4 , O 2
→ FeSO4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(3) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → method of purification of nickel by,
Heat
Fe2(SO4)2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ Fe Ni + 2CO
320 K
Ni(CO)4
420 K
Ni + 4CO
Impure Pure
O , heat dil. H SO
(4) Fe ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ FeO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4
→
(1) Cupellation
Heat
FeSO4 ⎯⎯⎯
→ Fe (2) Mond’s process
(3) Van Arkel method
26. In which of the following extraction no
(4) Zone refining
reducing agent in required?
(1) Iron from haematite
31. Poling process is used:
(2) Tin from caseterite
(1) For the removal of Cu2O from Cu
(3) Magnesium from carnallite
(4) Zinc from zinc blende (2) For the removal of Al2O3 From Al
(3) For the removal of Fe2O3 from Fe
(4) In all the above
(3) IV II I III
32. Purification of silicon element used in (4) III I II IV
semiconductors is done by:
(1) Zone refining 35. The method of zone refining of metals is
(2) Heating based on the principle of :
(3) Froth floatation (1) Greater mobility of the pure metal than
(4) Heating in vaccum
that of the impurity.
33. Nickel is purified by thermal decomposition
(2) Higher molting point of the impurity
of its:
(1) Hydride (2) Chloride that that of the pure metal.
(3) Azide (4) Carbonyl (3) Greater noble character of the solid
metal than that of the impurity.
34. Match list I with II and select the correct
(4) Greater solubility of the impurity in the
answer using the codes given below the
lists. molten state than in the solid.
List I List II
A. Van Arkel I. Purification of
36. Purification of Ge like semiconductor is
method titanium
done by :
B. Solvay process II. Manufacture of
Na2CO3 (1) Cyanide process
C. Cupellation III. Purification of (2) Van arkel process
copper
(3) Alumino thermite
D. Polling IV. Refining of silver
(4) Zone refining
A B C D
(1) I II IV III
(2) II I III IV
METALLARGY (exercise-3)
1. Sulphide ores of metals are usually 6. In the extraction of copper from its
concentrated by froth floatation process. sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained
Which one of the following sulphide ores by the reduction of cuprous oxide with:
offers an exception and is concentrated by [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
chemical leaching? [AIPMT-2007] (1) Iron sulphide (FeS)
(1) Sphalerite (2) Argentite (2) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(3) Galena (4) Copper pyrites (3) Copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S)
(4) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
2. Which of the following elements is
present as the impurity to the maximum 7. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal
extent in the pig iron? as a constituent in it. [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
[AIPMT Pre.-2011] (1) Bell metal (2) Bronze
(3) Invar (4) Steel
(1) Manganese (2) Carbon
(3) Silicon (4) Phosphorus
8. Which one of the following is a mineral of
iron? [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
3. Which of the following pairs of metals is (1) Pyrolusite (2) Magnetite
purified by van Arkel method ? (3) Malachite (4) Cassiterite
[AIPMT Pre.-2011]
(1) Ga and In (2) Zr and Ti 9. Which method of purification is
(3) Ag and Au (4) Ni and Fe represented by the following equation :
[AlPMT-2012]
523 K
4. The following reactions take place in the Ti(s) + 2I2(g) ⎯⎯⎯→ TiI4(g)
1700 K
blast furnace in the preparation of impure ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Ti(s) + 2I2(g)
iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the (1) Van Arkel (2) Zone refining
formation of the slag:-
(3) Cupellation (4) Poling
[AIPMT Mains-2011]
(1) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g) 10. Which of the following is separated as
(2) Fe2O3(s)+3CO(g)→2Fe(l)+3CO2(g) slag during extraction of Fe in blast
furnace? [AIIMS-2014]
(3) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(1) SiO2 (2) Al2O3 (3) CaO (4) MgO
(4) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s)
EXERCISE–II
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 3 1 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
2 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 4 2 1 1 4 1 4 4
EXERCISE–III
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. 2 2 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 3 4