THI THỬ ĐỌC – NGHE - VIẾT LẦN 1

PHẦN 1: ĐỌC HIỂU

Thời gian: 60 phút
Số câu hỏi: 40
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the
answer sheet.
Example
Read the following passage:
FALL WEATHER
One of the first things we look for in fall is the first frost and freeze of the season, killing or
sending into dormancy the beautiful vegetation you admired all summer long. For some locations
along the Canadian border, and in the higher terrain of the West, the first freeze typically arrives
by the middle part of September. Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until
November, though a frost is very possible before then. A few cities in the Lower 48, including
International Falls, Minnesota and Grand Forks, North Dakota, have recorded a freeze in every
month of the year.
0. When does the first freeze often arrive in the South?
A. Early September
B. Mid September
C. November
D. Before November
You will read in the passage that “Cities in the South may not see the first freeze until November”, so the
correct answer is option C. November.

PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10

There are more than 14 million businesses in the United States. They are divided into three categories:
proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations.
A proprietorship is a business owned by one person. This person pays all the money needed to run the
business. He or she earns money if the business has a profit. However, the person loses money if the business
has a deficit. A proprietorship is usually a small business, like a store or restaurant. It does not have to pay
the government any extra money for tax.
A partnership is a business owned by more than one person. All partners give money to the business. Those
who give more money own more of it. Those who give less money own less. The people who give more
money get a larger share of the profits. Each partner only pays tax on his or her profits.
A corporation is a business owned by many people. Each owner buys small units of the corporation. Two
examples are Coca-Cola and Microsoft. In a corporation, the people divide the ownership into shares of stock.
[A] Stock prices increase if the business does well. They decrease if the business does poorly. The
stockholders vote for directors to run the business. Anyone can buy a corporation’s stocks. [B] Almost 30
million Americans own stock. Most of these people own a small number of stocks in large corporations.
[C] People buy stocks and hope to sell them when the price rises. [D] People with stocks can also make
money by receiving dividends. A dividend is the stockholder’s part of the company profits. It is usually paid
four times a year.
Corporations are treated differently than proprietorships or partnerships. A corporation can buy land, save
money, and make contracts. The state government watches corporations. The government also taxes its
profits at a higher rate than other businesses. Corporations can get new money quickly by selling more stock.
In general, corporations are not as personal as proprietorships or partnerships. However, they are more secure
and can make greater profits.
1. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “categories” as used in paragraph 1?
A. areas
B. boxes
C. types
D. ideas
2. In paragraph 4, the word “They” refers to
A. businesses
B. people
C. shareholders
D. share prices
3. Which is true of corporations?
A. They are owned by one person.
B. They pay higher taxes than proprietorships and partnerships.
C. They cannot get new money very quickly.
D. They are usually small businesses.
4. The word “company” as used in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. stocks
B. corporation
C. dividend
D. tax
5. Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about buying stocks?
A. You will make a lot of money.
B. Stocks are easy to buy.
C. You could lose money.
D. Corporations always pay dividends.
6. How is corporation different from a partnership
A. Corporations are owned by more than one person
B. Corporations can make money or lose money
C. Corporations can be big or small
D. A corporation’s owners do not run the business.
7. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
A. the number of businesses in the US
B. the number of stock owners in the US
C. the number of business categories in the US
D. the number of corporations in the US
8. The purpose of this passage is to
A. explain different kinds of US businesses
B. explain the US system of stocks
C. explain why there are more than 14 million US businesses
D. explain why corporations are better than proprietorships and partnerships
9. It can be inferred from the passage that a profit means
A. a business earns more money than it spends.
B. a business spends more money than it earns.
C. a business spends the same amount of money that it earns.
D. a business sells shares of stocks.
10. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
The sale value of stock depends on the health of the business.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

Line Ever wondered what it feels like to have a different job? Here, four people with very different
careers reveal the trade secrets of their working day.
Luc
My day typically starts with a business person going to the airport, and nearly always
5 ends with a drunk. I don't mind drunk people. Sometimes I think they're the better version of
themselves: more relaxed, happier, honest. Only once have I feared for my life. A guy ran out at
a traffic light and so I sped up before his brother could run, too. He seemed embarrassed and
made me drop him at a car park. When we arrived, the first guy was waiting with a boulder,
which went through the windscreen, narrowly missing my head. But the worst people are the
10 ones who call me “Driver!”
Harry
I not only provide appearance for my client, I also do damage control. We've had clients
involved in lawsuits, divorces or drugs. One mistakenly took a gun to an airport. On the red
carpet – at the Academy Awards or the Golden Globes – I'm the person making my client look
15 good. The other day at an Oprah Winfrey event, the carpet wasn't put down properly and my
clients almost went flying – I had to catch them. They can make some strange requests, too. At
a black-tie gala at the White House, two clients hated the dinner and insisted that we circle
around Washington DC to find a KFC open at 1a.m. I had to go in wearing a gown and order so
they could eat it in the car.
20 Jennifer
I could teach you to do a basic brain operation in two weeks. But what takes time and
experience is doing it without wrecking the brain of the patients - learning your limitations
takes years.
I ended up working as a pediatric neurosurgeon because children make better recoveries from
25 brain damage than adults. So it's more rewarding in terms of outcome and I find their resilience
really inspiring. It's taken me a decade to become comfortable discussing an operation with
children, but they have to be able to ask questions. You have to show them respect. Sometimes
their perspective is funny; most teenage girls just want to know how much hair you'll shave off.
I don't get upset by my job. These children are dying when they come in and I do whatever I
can to make them better.
30
Solange
When you become a judge after years of being a barrister and trying to make points that win
cases, you have to remember that a huge part of what you do is listening - to advocates, to
witnesses, to defendants. Behind closed doors most judges, even very experienced ones, are
35 much more anxious about their work than most people might think. We agonise over what we
do and the decisions we have to make. It would be bizarre to say that as a judge, we learn to be
less judgmental. But as you see the complex and difficult lives of the people who end up in
front of you, you realise that your job is not so much to judge them as to ensure that everyone
receives justice.

11. In the first paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence ‘My day typically starts with a business
person going to the airport, and nearly always ends with a drunk’?
A. Normally, I will take a business person and a drunk at the airport.
B. Normally, I will go to the airport in the morning and come back with a drunk.
C. Normally, my first passenger will be a businessman and my last one a drunk.
D. Normally, I will drive a businessman to the airport and come back almost drunk.
12. What does Harry probably do for a living?
A. A tour guide C. A lawyer
B. An agent D. A driver
13. The word ‘circle’ in line 17 could be best replaced by
A. drive C. walk
B. look D. ride
14. In lines 22-23, what does Jennifer mean when she says, ‘Learning your limitations takes years’?
It takes a person a long time to
A. control his weakness in a brain operation.
B. understand what he cannot help.
C. perform even a basic operation.
D. be able to perform a brain surgery.
15. The word ‘their’ in line 26 refers to
A. patients’ C. children’s
B. neurosurgeons’ D. adults’
16. The word ‘perspective’ in line 28 is closest in meaning to
A. question C. view
B. worry D. prospective
17. According to the passage, whose job involves in a large part listening to others?
A. Luc’s C. Jennifer’s
B. Harry’s D. Solange’s
18. According to the passage, who is likely to meet different types of people every day?
A. Luc C. Jennifer
B. Harry D. Solange
19. The word ‘ones’ in line 36 refers to
A. judges C. advocates
B. barristers D. defendants
20. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To inform people of what to expect in those jobs.
B. To report what different people do and think about their jobs.
C. To raise awareness of the importance of different jobs.
D. To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of these jobs.

PASSAGE 3 – QUESTIONS 21 – 30
The United Nations
When the United nations was first formed in 1945, only 51 countries were members. Now, however, the
United Nation is truly a world organization. In fact, today almost every nation in the world is a member of
the UN. The main goal of the United Nations is to bring different nations together to promote peace and
justice in the world. The UN also works to make the world a safe and secure place.
It is important to remember that the UN is not a “world government”. This means that the UN does not make
laws for different countries to follow. It also does not enforce laws made by governments. However, the UN
does hold regular votes on global policies and issues. Also, like a government, the UN is divided into
different branches, or sections. Considering that the UN is such a large organization, it makes sense that it
needs to be separated into different pieces to be effective. There are six branches in the United Nations.
Below, the first three branches of the UN are discussed. In a later chapter, the other three divisions will be
explained.
The main branch is called the “General Assembly”. In this branch, all members of the United Nations are
represented. Each member country has one vote. These votes are counted when the UN has meetings about
world issues. For example, if there is a problem in a certain area of the world or a particular country, the UN
will vote on how to best solve the problem. At least two-thirds of all member countries, that is 67 percent,
must agree on how to resolve the problem in order for the UN to take action. If less than two-thirds of the
voting countries agree, no immediate action is taken.
Another branch of the UN is the Security Council. [A] The main purpose of this department is to maintain
international peace and keep the world secure. [B] In this branch, there are only fifteen members. Five of
these members are permanent. The permanent members are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom
(Britain), and the United States . [C] The other ten members are elected by the General Assembly for two-
year terms. [D]
The third important branch of the UN is the Economic and Social Council. This branch works to help
monitor the world economy. It also works to resolve social issues around the world. For example, issues of
concern for the Economic and Social Council are violations of human rights, the fight against international
crime such as selling illegal drugs, and destruction of the environment. There are 54 government
representatives serving on this council. These members are elected by the General Assembly to serve for
three year terms. Council members are elected to represent certain areas of the world, so the council has
fourteen members from Africa, eleven from Asia, ten from South American, and nineteen from Europe and
North America.

21. The world “branches” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. growing parts
B. locations
C. divisions
D. places of separation
22. The world “maintain” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. hold on to
B. preserve
C. develop
D. argue
23. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 5 refers to
A. the world economy
B. the general assembly of the UN
C. the monitors
D. the Economic and Social Council
24. In paragraph 2, why does the writer mention the highlighted sentence?
A. to defend the reasoning behind separating the UN into different sections
B. to argue for the UN as a world government
C. to say that there are a total of six branches in the UN
D. to explain how the voting works in the UN
25. According to the passage, where does the largest percentage of representatives on the Economic and
Social Council come from?
A. South America
B. Asia
C. Europe and North America
D. Africa
26. According to the passage, how many members of the Security Council are elected on a rotating basis?
A. 15
B. 5
C. 20
D. 10
27. Which of the following best describe the tone of the author in the passage
A. indifferent
B. optimistic
C. argumentative
D. impersonal
28. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT
A. The Economic and Social Council has fewer members than Security council
B. There are six branches of the UN
C. China is one of the five permanent members of the Security Council
D. The UN tries to promote world justice and peace
29. What does the author imply when he explains that the UN is not a world government?
A. The UN would probably work better if it did function as a government.
B. Some larger countries would like the UN to be a government.
C. Many people mistakenly think that the UN is really a type of government.
D. Countries do not like governments.
30. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
If the Council feels that international peace is being threatened, the fifteen members will try to
outline a way to resolve the situation in a peaceful manner.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]

PASSAGE 4- Questions 31-40

Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses,
however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place?
Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The
brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as
the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory
comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember
approximately seven chunks of information. [A] A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such
as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the
capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term
storage. [B]
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people
engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive.
Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not
handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the
dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the
number instantly. [C] Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term
to long term memory. A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic
meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.
[D]
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by
recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used
often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The
more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why
multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.

31. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
32. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. passes C. appears
B. adds up D. continues
33. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the
A. STM
B. long term memory
C. sensory storage area
D. maintenance area
34. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?
A. To give an example of a type of memory
B. To provide a type of interruption
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
35. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
For example, a reader engages in elaborate rehearsal when he brings prior knowledge of a subject to a
text.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
36. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it
B. By repeating it
C. By giving it a name
D. By drawing it
37. The author believes that rote rotation is
A. the best way to remember something
B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run
D. an unnecessary interruption
38. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to
A. encoding
B. STM
C. semantics
D. information
39. The word “elaborate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. complex
B. efficient
C. pretty
D. regular
40. Which of the following best provides the important informaton in the highlighted sentence in the last
paragraph from the passage.
Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a
memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting.
A. Prompting is the easiest way to retrieve short term memory after an extended period of time.
B. A memory can be retrieved by prompting, in a case where it has been rarely used.
C. It's easier to remember short term memories than long term memories due to regular prompts.
D. Recalling a long term memory that is often used is easy, while forgotten memories often require
prompting.

This is the end of the reading paper.

Now please submit your test paper and your answer sheets.
 PHẦN 2: NGHE HIỂU
Thời gian: Khoảng 40 phút
Số câu hỏi: 35
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions
for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the
recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The
recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
PART 1-Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question
for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on
the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer that you have chosen.

1. What time will the taxi arrive at the woman’s house?

A. 5.30 C. 7.30
B. 6.30 D. 8.00
2. What will they give George?
A. some videos C. a bike
B. a guitar D. a book
3. What was the weather like when the holiday began?
A. rainy
B. sunny
C. cloudy
D. snowy
4. What will Tim and his dad play today?
A. tennis
B. football
C. golf
D. basketball
5. What did Joe get for his birthday?
A. a CD
B. a bicycle
C. a CD player
D. a camera
6. What time will the writer arrive at the bookshop?
A. 1.45 C. 2.15
B. 1.15 D. 3.30
7. What source of information is this?
A. television
B. radio
C. cinema hotline
D. university phone-line
8. What is probably the relationship between the speakers?
A. husband and wife
B. a hotel instructor and a client
C. a manager and a staff
D. a salesgirl and a client
PART 2-Questions 9-20
In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are
four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.

Questions 9-12: Listen to a conversation at an information center.

9. The job is in…
A. a hotel C. an office
B. a sports centre D. a restaurant
10. You cannot do the job if you are younger than…
A. 16 C. 19
B. 18 D. 20
11. For work, the girl must wear….
A. a white shirt C. formal dresses
B. a blue skirt D. black trousers
12. What is the main topic of the conversation?
A. finding a job for the man
B. wearing proper clothes for a new job
C. finding a job for the girl
D. exchanging jobs

Questions 13-16: Listen to a conversation between Sally and Peter.

13. What does Peter want to drink?
A. tea C. a cold drink
B. coffee D. nothing
14. What cause Peter problems at the bank?
A. The exchange rate was down C. The computers weren’t working
B. He was late D. He got stuck on the queue
15. Henry gave Peter a map of
A. the city C. the train system
B. the bus routes D. the city center
16. Where are the speakers?
A. a restaurant in their hometown C. in a café
B. in a bank D. in an office

Questions 17-20: Listen to a conversation between two men.

17. The camping trip will be held
A. the following month C. over a five day period
th th
B. from the 24 to the 26 D. within one day only
18. The campsite is located
A. in the Lake District C. near the campsite last year
B. in Carlisle D. beside Lake Brant
19. Each child will pay
A. less than £4 a night C. approximately £5
B. more than £14 in total D. more than £10
20. What is Jamie’s purpose in this conversation?
A. complain about the previous trip
B. recommend a new camping trip place
C. persuade the principal to keep the camping trip
D. explain his report on the pupils
PART 3-Questions 21-35
In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated.
There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C
or D.

Questions 21-25: Listen to a talk about a festival.

21. When is this year’s festival being held?
A. 1-13 January
B. 5-17 January
C. 25-31 January
D. 5-7 January
22. What will the reviewer concentrate on today?
A. theater
B. dance
C. exhibition
D. costume
23. How many circuses are there in the festival?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. several
24. Where does Circus Romano perform?
A. in a theater
B. in a tent
C. in a stadium
D. in a brick house
25. What source of information is this talk?
A. a lecture
B. a class presentation
C. a radio program
D. an information line

Questions 26-30:Listen to a talk about the Grand Canyon in the USA

26. When did a part of the Grand Canyon become a National park?
A. 1940
B. 1919
C. 1916
D. 1944
27. What did the managers at Grand Canyon do to solve the problems of too many cars?
A. ban all visitors’ cars
B. run a coach
B. set up a bus system from New York
D. run electric buses
28. The author mention the winds from Southern California to prove that…
A. Some problems come from outside the Grand Canyon
B. Floods can be very dangerous with strong wind
C. California is the most polluted part of the USA
D. It is often windy in Grand Canyon
29. What is the normal temperature of the Colorado River nowadays?
A. 24 degrees
B. 17 degrees
C. 7 degrees
D. 14 degrees
30. What is the main idea of the talk?
A. The beautiful landscapes of the Grand Canyon
B. The current problems facing the Grand Canyon
C. The geographical features of the Grand Canyon
D. Why the Grand Canyon became one natural wonder of the world

Questions 31-35:Listen to a lecture about the Itaipu Dam and answer questions 31 to 35
31. When was the dam completed?
A. 1975
B. 1795
C. 1982
D. 1892
32. What does the speaker imply about the design of the dam?
A. tiny
B. small but sophisticated
C. huge but simple
D. big and complex
33. What from the dam can create health problems to people?
A. birds
B. mud and silt
C. flooded forests
D. dead animals
34. The speaker talk about the sheet given out to the students in order to…
A. explain how people can walk through the dam
B. clarify the reasons of environmental problems from the dam
C. explain the structure of the dam
D. make students try to learn how to design such a dam
35. What is the main idea of the lecture?
A. possible problems caused by the dam
B. the architecture of the dam
C. the expenses to construct the dam
D. the link between body parts and architecture

This is the end of the listening paper.

Now you have 07 MINUTES to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
 BÀI VIẾT THI THỬ LẦN 1
TASK 1:
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You received an email from your English friend, Jane. She asked you for some information about one of your
friends. Read part of her email below.
I’ve just got an email from your friend, An. She said she’s going to take a course in London this
summer. She asked if she could stay with my family until she could find an apartment. Can you tell me
a bit about her (things like her personality, hobbies and interests, and her current occupation or study
if possible)? I want to see if she will fit in with my family.
Write an email responding to Jane. You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name
or addresses. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and
Grammar (Tiêu chí chấm: Hoàn thành đề, Kết cấu của bức thư, Từ vựng & Ngữ pháp)

TASK 2: CHOOSE 1 AMONG 3 FOLLOWING TOPICS

TOPIC 1:
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Read the following text from an online article.
Online shopping is the process of buying goods and services from merchants who sell on the Internet.
Since the emergence of the World Wide Web, merchants have sought to sell their products to people
who surf the Internet. Shoppers can visit web stores from the comfort of their homes and shop as they
sit in front of the computer. Thanks to its numerous advantages, online shopping is getting more
popular than in-store shopping nowadays. Nevertheless, it is not always a perfect thing since there’s
always a trap online; thus, customers should be well-aware of both sides of shopping on the Internet.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of online shopping. Include
reasons and relevant examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words. Your response will
be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar. (Tiêu chí chấm: Hoàn
thành đề, Kết cấu của bức thư, Từ vựng & Ngữ pháp

TOPIC 2:
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task
Parents should become their children’s friends.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from
your own experience or knowledge. You should write at least 250 words.
TOPIC 3:
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task
Sex education should be a main subject at school.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from
your own experience or knowledge. You should write at least 250 words.