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Grade 10 Map Book and Workbook Final

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
414 views137 pages

Grade 10 Map Book and Workbook Final

Uploaded by

haleembashavlog
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

NAME :

REGISTERED NUMBER :

CLASS :

SUBJECT :

MY STRENGTHS AND AREAS I NEED TO WORK ON (Self-Assessment)

PEER ASSESSMENT

1
REFLECTIONS BY THE TEACHER:

INTERNAL ASSESSMENT MARKS DISTRIBUTION

[Link] Activity Maximum marks Marks obtained

1. Portfolio 5

2. Multiple assessment 5

3. Periodic assessment 5

4. Subject Enrichment Activity 5

TOTAL 20

Signature of the Subject Teacher: _________________________

Signature of the Vice-Principal: _________________________

2
PORTFOLIO AND
MULTIPLE
ASSESSMENT
ACTIVITES

3
ART INTEGRATION ACTIVITY
Tamil nadu Vs West Bengal

4
5
BMI CALCULATION

Calculate the BMI of 10 adult members and categorise Under 18.5 Underweight
them as obese, overweight, normal and underweight. 18.5 – 24.9 Normal
25 – 29.9 Overweight
30 and over Obese

6
7
FEDERALISM
Find out about the local government in the village or town you live in.
If you live in a village, find out the names of the following:
your panch or ward member, your sarpanch, your panchayat samiti, the chairperson of your
zilla parishad. Also find out when did the last meeting of the gram sabha take place and
how many people took part in that?
If you live in urban areas, find out the following:
the name of your municipal councillor, and the municipal chairperson or mayor. Also find out
about the budget of your municipal corporation, municipality and the major items on which
money was spent.

8
Collect information on the wildlife sanctuaries and national parks of India and
cite their locations on the map of India. (Minimum 15)

9
10
Enact with your classmates a scene of water dispute in your locality and give your
feedback of the performance of your pair team.

Make a list of inter-state water disputes.

11
Find out the current Railway zones and their headquarters. Also locate the headquarters
of Railway zones on the map of India.

12
13
Imagine that you are the village head. Suggest some activities that you think should be
taken up under MGNREGA 2005 that would increase the income of people?

14
Talk to someone who has a regular job in the organised sector and another who works in
the unorganised sector. Compare and contrast their working conditions in all aspects.

15
Talk to some people to find out the credit arrangements that exist in your area. Record
your conversation. Note the differences in the terms of credit across people.

16
Take some branded products that we use every day (soaps, toothpaste, garments,
electronic goods, etc.). Check which of these are produced by MNCs.

17
Make a timeline table for Nationalism in Europe

18
Make a timeline table for Nationalism in India

19
Make a table that lists the names of various books and their authors from the chapter Print Culture
and the modern world

20
WORKSHEETS
(MCQ)

21
NATIONALISM IN EUROPE
[Link] what name is the civil code of 1804 known?
a. French code b. National code
c. Diplomatic code d. Napoleonic code
[Link] was Customs union or 'Zollverein' founded?
a. 1833 b. 1834 c. 1837 d. 1840
3. Which one of the following assertion is NOT true about the liberal nationalists of
Europe?
a. They stood for freedom for the individuals and equality of all before the law.
b. They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people.
c. They supported the universal suffrage and denied the right to private
property.
d. They stood for the freedom of markets and abolition of state-imposed
restrictionon the movement of goods and capital.
4. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding Romanticism and Nationalfeeling
in Europe?
a. It was a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of
nationalist sentiment.
b. The romantic artists and poets generally did not criticize the glorification of
science and reasons.
c. It focused on emotions and mystical feelings.
d. Its effort was to create a sense of collective heritage.
5. Why and when Mazzini was sent into exile?
a. In 1831, for attempting a revolution in Liguria
b. In 1830, for starting a revolution in Genoa
c. In 1840, for founding a secret society
d. For attempting to over throw the Italian government, in 1830
6. Zolleverin started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a:
a. Trade Union b. Customs Union
c. Labour Union d. Farmer’s Union
7. The Habsburg Empire ruled over the area of
a. Austria – Hungary b. Dutch Republic
c. Germany d. Sweden
[Link] the battle which Napoleon lost in 1813:
a. Milan b. Victoria c. Warsaw d. Leipzig.

22
9. Which one of the following was the effect of the Act of the Union 1707 between
England and Scotland?
a. England was able to impose the influence on Scotland.
b. Scotland was able to impose its influence on England
c. The Scottish Highlanders were allowed to speak their language.
d. They were also allowed to wear their National dress.
10. In France, whose images were marked on coins and stamps during 1850s?
a. Germania b. Marianne c. Garibaldi d. King Victor
11. Which one of the following statements is true about the Napoleonic code?
a. Privileges were given on the basis of birth b. Right to property was abolished
c. Privileges based on birth were abolished d. Right to equality was abolished
[Link] amongst the following said “If France sneezes, rest of the Europe catchescold.”?
a. Napoleon b. Cavour c. Mazzini d. Metternich
[Link] amongst the following were the inhabitants of Balkan region?
a. Tyrols b. Slavs c. Dutch d. Slovaks
14. Which amongst the following is the national anthem of New Britain
a. The star spangled banner b. God save our noble king
c. Star of the sea c. Hymn to the flag
15. In which of the following events, we see the first clear expression of Nationalism?
a. Glorious Revolution of England b. The French Revolution of 1789
c. The October 1917 Revolution of Russia
16. Which of the following societies was founded by Guiseppe Mazzini in Marseilles
a. Young Europe b. Jacobin Club c. Young Italy d. Carbonari
17. Which treaty recognized „Greece‟ as an independent nation?
a. Treaty of Versailles b. Treaty of Vienna
c. Treaty of Constantinople d. Treat of Laussanne
18. The Independence of which of the following countries was recognised by the
Treaty of Constantinople in 1832?
a. Italy b. Greece c . Netherlands d . Turkey
19. How was Ireland incorporated in the United Kingdom of Great Britain?
a. Act of Settlement b. Act of Union
c. The Treaty of Venice d. The Treaty of Versailles
[Link] which Act or Treaty were England and Scotland united under the name of
United Kingdom of Great Britain?
a. Act of Settlement b. Act of Union
c. The Treaty of Venice d. The Treaty of Versailles

23
NATIONALISM IN INDIA
1. Who was the writer of the book “Hind Swaraj‟?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jawahar Lai Nehru
2. Khilafat Committee was formed in 1919 in the city of
(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta (c) Lucknow (d) Amritsar
3. The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement began in
(a) January 1921 (b) February 1922
(c) December 1929 (d) April 1919
[Link] of the following was the reason for calling off the Non-cooperation Movement by
Gandhiji?
(a) Pressure from the British Government (b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji’s arrest (d) Chauri-Chaura incident
5. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following movements?
(a) Khilafat Movement (b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Peasants ‟Movement of Awadh” (d) Plantation Workers‟ Movement in Assam
6. Who set up the” Oudh Kisan Sabha‟?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra (b) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Shaukat Ali (d) Mahatma Gandhi
7. Under the presidency of Jawahar Lal Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of 1929
formalised the demand of _______.
(a) “Purna Swaraj‟ or complete independence (b) Abolition of Salt Tax
(c) Separate electorate for the “dalits‟ (d) Boycott of Simon Commission
8. The “Simon Commission‟ was boycotted because
(a) There was no British Member in the Commission.
(b) It demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.
(c) There was no Indian Member in the Commission.
(d) It favoured the Muslims over the Hindus.
9. A form of demonstration used in the Non-cooperation Movement in which people block
the entrance to a shop, factory or office is ________.
(a) Boycott (b) Begar (c) Picketing (d) Bandh
10. Who formed the “Swaraj Party‟ within the Congress?

24
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru
(b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
11. Who founded the “Depressed Classes Association‟ in 1930?
(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju (b) C.R. Das
(c) M.R. Jayakar (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
12. Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year 1921?
(a) Swaraj Party (b) Justice Party
(c) Muslim League (d) Congress Party
13. What do you mean by the term “Begar‟?
(a) An Act to prevent plantation workers from leaving the tea gardens without
permission.
(b) The forced recruitment of soldiers in rural areas during World War I.
(c) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment.
(d) Refusal to deal and associate with people, or participate in activities as a form of
protest.
14. Where did Mahatma Gandhi start his famous “Salt March‟ on 12th March 1930?
(a) Dandi (b) Chauri-Chaura (c) Sabarmati (d) Surat
15. Which industrialist attacked colonial control over the Indian economy and supported the
Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) Dinshaw Petit (b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore (d) Seth Hukumchand
16. Who visualized and depicted the image of “Bharat Mata‟ through a painting?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri (d) Abanindranath Tagore
17. Which of the following was Mahatma Gandhi’s novel method of fighting against the
British?
(a) He used a violent method of stone pelting.
(b) He used arson to bum down government offices.
(c) He fought with the principle of “an eye for an eye‟.

25
(d) He practiced open defiance of law, peaceful demonstration, satyagraha and non-
violence.
18. What does Sathyagraha mean? Choose one from the following options.
(a) “Satyagraha‟ means use of physical force to inflict pain while fighting.
(b) “Satyagraha‟ does not inflict pain, it is a non-violent method of fighting against
oppression.
(c) “Satyagraha‟ means passive resistance and is a weapon of the weak.
(d) “Satyagraha‟ was a racist method of mass agitation.
19. What was the purpose of imposing the Rowlatt Act?
(a) The Rowlatt Act forbade the Indians to qualify for administrative services.
(b) The Rowlatt Act had denied Indians the right to political participation.
(c) The Rowlatt Act imposed additional taxes on Indians who were already groaning
under the burden of taxes.
(d)The Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison any person without trial
and conviction in a court of law

20. Where did the brutal “Jallianwala Massacre‟ take place?


(a) Amritsar (b) Meerut (c) Lahore (d) Lucknow

21. Who was responsible for organizing Dalits into the Depressed Class Association in 1930?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Sitaram Raju
22. Who wrote Vande Mataram?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Natesa Shastri
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (d) Abanindranath Tagore
23. The Non-cooperation Movement began on which one of the following dates?
(a) January 1921 (b) November 1921
(c) December 1921 (d) May 1921
24. In which of the following places Mahatma Gandhi organized Sathyagraha for the first
time in India?
(a) Dandi (b) Ahmedabad (c) Kheda (d) Champaran
25. Who published “The Folklore of Southern India‟?
(a) Natesa Sastri (b) Dr. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) None of these

26
PRINT CULTURE AND THE MODERN WORLD

1. What is calligraphy?
a. Poetry b. Textbooks c. Flowers arrangement d. Stylized Writing
2. What was Gutenberg’s first printed book?
a. Ballads b. Dictionary c. Bible d. None of these
3. What were ‘Penny Chapbooks’?
a. Pocket – sized books b. Journals c. Ritual Calendars d. Newspaper
4. Who introduced the printing press in India?
a. French b. Italian c. Portuguese d. None of these
5. Who wrote ‘My childhood My university’.
a. Thomas wood b. Maxim Gorky c. George Eliot d. Jane Austen
6. When was the Vernacular press act passed?
a.1878 b.1887 c.1867 d.1898
7. Who said, “Printing is the ultimate gift of god and the greatest one.”?
a. Charles Dickens b. J. V. Schely c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Martin Luther
8. Which is the oldest printed book of Japan?
a. Bible b. Diamond Sutra c. Mahabharata d. Ukiyo
9. Who wrote 95 theses?
a. Martin Luther b. Johann Gutenberg
c. J. V. Schley d. Charles Dickens
10. Who authored ‘Gitagovinda’?
a. Jayadeva b. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c. J. A. Hickey d. Chandu Menon
11. Who wrote ‘Amar Jibon’?
a. Rockaya Hussein b. Rashsundari Devi
c. Tara Bai Shinde d. Kailashashini Debi
12. Which of the following travellers brought back the art of wood block painting to Italy?
a. Paes b. Marco Polo c. Magellon d. Dominigos
13. Printing Press first came to India with—
a. The Dutch b. Portuguese missionaries c. The French d. The English
14. Name the paper started by Bal Gangashar Tilak
[Link] Kesari [Link] Young India

27
c. The Statesman [Link] Bazar Patrika
15. The Book Gulamgiri dealt with—
a. Restriction on vernacular press b. Treatment of widows
c. Injustices of caste system d. None of these
16. Print technology of China was brought to Italy by the great explorer.
a. Marco Polo b. Columbus c. Vasco Da Gama d. Magellan
17. An annual publication giving astronomical data was known as
a. Chapbook b. Penny book c. Almanac d. Journal
18. The Portuguese introduced the printing press in
a. Bombay b. Calcutta c. Madras d. Goa
19. The oldest Japanese Book Diamond Sutra was printed in
a. AD 686 b. AD 868 c. AD 668 d. AD 866
20. The earliest kind of print technology was first developed in
a. India b. China c. Britain d. None of the above
21. Metal frames in which types are laid and the text composed is known as
a. Platen b. Galley c. Printing press d. Cylindrical press
22. Protestant Reformation movement is related to the religion
a. Buddhism b. Hinduism c. Christianity d. Jainism
23. The Grimm brothers of Germany published
a. Newspapers b. Folk tales c. Ballads d. Novels
24. The first Indian to publish a newspaper was
a. Ram Mohan Roy b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Gangadhar Bhattacharya d. Ranade
25. The newspaper Shamsul Akhbar was published in
a. Hindi b. Persian c. Arabic d. Urdu
26. Rashundari Debi wrote the autobiography
a. Amar Jiban b. Istri Dharm Vichar c. Saachi Kavitayan d. Gulamgiri
27. In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was modelled on the
a. French Press Laws b. British Press Laws
c. Irish Press Laws d. Scottish Press Laws
28. The book Chotte Aur Bade Ka Sawal is about the topic of
a. Religion b. Philosophy c. Science d. Caste System

28
POWER SHARING
1. What is the population of Belgium?
(a) over one crore (b) under one crore
(c) Two crore (d) over two crore
2. What percent of the population lived in the Flemish region and spoke Dutch in Belgium?
(a) 29% (b) 40% (c) 79% (d) 59%
3. What percent of Brussels speaks Dutch in Belgium?
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80%
4. _______people of ______________ region of Belgium spoke French?
(a) 40 %, Wallonia (b) 70%, Flemish
(c) 65%, Sinhala (d) 15%, Tamil
5. ____community is relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?
(a) French speaking (b) Sinhala-speakers
(c) Dutch-speaking (d) Tamil speakers
6. Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometers from the Southern coast of ____
(a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Lakshadweep
7. When power is shared among legislative executive and judiciary in democracy it is known
as?
(a) Horizontal distribution of power (b) Vertical distribution of power
(c) Federalism (d) Competitive Federalism
8. Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has
borders with ___________________
(a) Netherlands, Germany (b) France, Luxembourg
(c) Germany, France (d) Luxembourg, France, Germany,
Netherlands
9. Belgium is a ______ country in Europe, _______ in area than the state of Haryana. It has
border with France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
(a) small, bigger (b) small, Smaller
(c) big, bigger (d) big, smaller
10. Between 1970 and 1993, how many times did the Belgian’s amend their constitution so as
to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country?

29
(a) Two times (b) Three times
(c) Four times (d) Five times
11. What is the population of Sri Lanka in 2020?
(a) over one crore (b) under one crore
(c) Two crore (d) over two crore
12. The major social groups of Sri Lanka are ______
(a) Sinhalis and Dutch (b) Dutch and Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) French and Dutch (d) Sinhalis and Sri Lankan Tamils
13. The population of Sri Lanka is divided into___________
(a) Sinhala 55 % and Tamil 45% (b) Sinhala 68 % and Tamil 25%
(c) Sinhala 74 % and Tamil 18% (d) Sinhala 80 % and Tamil 15%
14. Which one of the following communities is not related to Sri Lanka?
(a) Dutch (b) Sri Lankan Tamils (c) Sinhalese (d) Indian Tamils
15. In Sri Lanka Most of the Sinhala speaking people are ____, while most of the Tamils are
____or____
(a) Buddhists, Hindus, Muslims (b) Hindus, Buddhists, Muslims
(c) Muslims, Buddhists, Hindus (d) Hindus, Muslims, Buddhists
16. Buddhism is the official religion of____
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Pakistan (c) Indonesia (d) England
17. In Sri Lanka there are about ___percent Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 7 (d) 12
18. The religion which is practiced by 7 percent of Sri Lankan population is____
(a) Hinduism (b) Buddhism (c) Christianity (d) Islam
19. When did Sri Lanka emerge as an independent country?
(a) 1940 (b) 1956 (c) 1948 (d) 1984
20. Act of ____, recognized Sinhala as the official language by disregarding Tamil.
(a) 1940 (b) 1956 (c) 1948 (d) 1984
21. What kind of measures was adopted in Sri Lanka after independence to establish Sinhala
supremacy in the government?
(a) Economic measures (b) Majoritarianism measures
(c) Political measures (d) None of the above
22. Sri Lankan government followed preferential policies for Sinhalas in____

30
(a) Government jobs (b) University positions
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
23. The state that protects and fosters Buddhism is________________
(a) Nigeria (b) Finland (c) Sri Lanka (d) Belgium
24. The major objective of LTTE in Sri Lanka was to________________
(a) Establish autonomy for Buddhist people
(b) Attain independence for Christians
(c) End Sinhala rule (d) Demand separate homeland for Tamils
25. The major cause of the civil war in Sri Lanka was the distrust between the two
communities namely_________________
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils and the Indian Tamils (b) Hindus and Muslims
(c) Sinhalas and Moors (d) Sinhalas and the Tamils
26. The capital of Belgium is ________________
(a) Walloon (b) Brussels (c) Paris (d) Melbourne
26. Who does not elect the Community Government in Belgium?
(a) Dutch speaking people (b) French speaking people
(c) German speaking people (d) Sinhala leaders
27. Which of the following countries has the headquarters of the European Union?
(a) USA (b) France (c) Belgium (d) Australia
28. Which of the following was not similar between Sri Lanka and Belgium?
(a) Both nations have small geographical area
(b) Both nations have small populations
(c) Both nations faced ethnic problems.
(d) Both formed a community government
29. Imposing the will of the majority community over others may look like an attractive
option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the ______________.
(a) Economic interests of the nation (b) Political interests of the nation
(c) Economic interests of the minority. (d) Unity of the nation
30. Where power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature,
executive and judiciary, what is the functioning of this system called?
(a) Horizontal system (b) System of checks and balances
(c) System of shared duties (d) System of limited power

31
FEDERALISM
1. When power is taken away from state governments and is given to local government, it is
called ________________.
a. Decentralisation b. Centralisation
c. Panchayat Samiti d. Federalism
2. Which statement is not true about the Zila Parisad?

a. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a district together constitute the zilla
(district) parishad.

b. Most members of the zilla parishad are elected.

c. The members of this representative body are elected by all the panchyat members in
that area.

d. Zilla parishad chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.

3. Whose law prevails if there is conflict between the State government and Union
government on the subject of concurrent list?

a. The Law made by the state government.

b. The law made by the both state and union government.

c. The laws made by the union government

d. The laws would be cancelled

4. Which major step towards decentralisation was not taken in 1992?

a. it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government


bodies.

b. At least 1/3 of all positions are reserved for women.

c. The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.

d. 2/3 seats are reserved for Other Backward classes.

5. What makes India a federal country?

a. The distribution of powers between the union and state governments.

b. The distribution of powers between the two states governments.

c. The distribution of powers between the state and union territory.

d. None of these

6. _____________ list includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country,
foreign affairs etc.

32
a. State list b. Union list c. Concurrent list d. Both A and B

7. Which one of the following countries has the federal form of government?
a. Egypt b. Sri Lanka c. Australia d. England

8. How many other languages are recognised as Scheduled Languages by the


constitution, besides Hindi?
a.20 b.21 c.18 d.19

9. Name the country among the following which follows “coming together‟ style of
federalism.
a. UK b. India c. Switzerland d. Spain

10. Which of the following is a feature of federalism?


a. There is only one level of government.
b. Each level of government has its own jurisdiction
c. All powers and revenue are under the control of central government.
d. The fundamental provision of constitution can be unilaterally changed by the top
level of government.
11. Identify the subject on which the state and centre both make laws:
a. Defence b. Marriage c. Police d. Currency
12. Which of the following government has one level of governance and the sub - units
is subordinate to the Central government?
a. Federal Government b. Community Government
c. Coalition Government d. Unitary Government

13. Which one of these statements is true for representation of women in elected
bodies?
a. Women have 1/3 seats reserved in Lok Sabha.
b. Women have 1/6 seats reserved in Rajya Sabha.
c. Women have 1/3 seats reserved in local self-bodies.
d. Women have 1/6 seats reserved in Legislative Assembies.
14. Which one of the following makes India a federation?
a. Its constitution demarcates powers between different levels of government.
b. It has no court to solve federal disputes.
c. It has no demarcation of revenue.
33
d. There is lack of mutual agreement between the different levels of government.
15. Much of the official work done in the states is in which one of the following
languages?
a. Hindi b. English c. Official language of the concerned state
d. Hindi and English both
16. Which one of the following subjects can be classified as a residuary subject?
a. Defence b. Information Technology c. Police d. Banking
17. Which one of the following countries does not have a federal form of government?
a. Australia b. Germany c. Spain d. Nepal
18. Which of the following countries is not federal in form?
a. Nigeria b. Ethiopia c. Argentina d. Nepal

19. Which one of the following subjects is not included in the State List?
a. Police b. Trade c. Foreign affairs d. Agriculture
20. Which of the following falls under residuary subject?
a. Police b. Trade c. Computer software d. Banking
21. Which of the following subjects is included in the State list?
a. Agriculture b. Foreign Affairs c. Banking d. Education
22. Which one of the following states was created to recognize diversity of culture,
ethnicity and geography?
a. Andhra Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu c. Uttarakhand d. Maharashtra
23. Which one of the following countries is an example of Holding together
Federation?
a. India b. USA c. Australia d. Switzerland
24. The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
a. The village block and district level b. The village and state level
c. The village, district and state level d. The village, district and union level.
25. Which one of the following lists include subjects of common interest to both
central and state governments?
a. Union List b. State List c. Concurrent List d. None of these.
26. Who among the following is called head of the state at the state level?
a. Chief Minister b. Speaker c. Governor d. President

34
POLITICAL PARTIES

1. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?


a. Sahu Maharaj b. Jyotiba Phule
c. B.R. Ambedkar d. Kanshi Ram
2. Identify the guiding philosophy of the Bhartiya Janta Party.
a. Bahujan Samaj b. Revolutionary democracy
c. Integral Humanism d. Modernity
3. Which political party believes in Marxism-Leninism?
a. Communist Party of India b. Nationalist Congress Party
c. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) d. Bahujan Samaj Party
4. Which party is the oldest political party in India?
a. Indian National Congress (INC) b. Bahujan Samaj Party
c. Bhartiya Janta Party d. Communist Party
5. Which country has an example of a Multi-Party System?
a. India b. United Kingdom c. USA d. China
6. Which is a recognized political party??
a. A party that is present in only one of the federal units.
b. A party that is based on regional and communal diversities.
c. A party that is recognized by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the privileges and
facilities.
d. A party that is present in several and all units of the federation.
7. What does the term ‘Partisan’ mean?
a. The affair of the state or the science of the governance
b. A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs
c. A person who is strongly committed to the party
d. The ruling party which runs the government
8. How many parties are required in any democratic system to compete in elections in order
to come to power?
a. Al least two parties b. Less than two parties
c. More than two parties d. At least three parties
9. How many numbers of parties are registered with The Election Commission of India?
a. More than 750 parties b. Less than 750 parties
35
c. 705 parties d. 750 Parties
10. Which of the following country has single party system…
a. Pakistan b. Bangladesh c. Nepal d. China
11. The rise of political parties is directly linked to ____________.
a. emergence of representative democracies
b. rise of large scale economies
c. rise of mechanism of restrain and support the government
d. rise of internet
12. Which one of the following is the national political party?
a. Samajwadi party b. Rashtriyajanata dal
c. Rashtriyalok dal d. Bahujansamaj party
11. Who among the following organize the Dalits in to the depressed classes association in
1930 ?
a. Kanchi ram b. Gandiji c. BR Ambedkar d. Alluri sitaram
12. Select the statement related to the advantages of a multiparty system?
a. Multi-party system provides limited choice to voters.
b. There is a chance of conflict.
c. Provides choice to the voters.
d. In a Multi-party system regional parties get representation.
13. Many political parties protested against POSCO, the Korean steel company for being
permitted by the State Government to export iron ore from ______ to feed steel plants in
China and Korea.
a. Andhra Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu c. West Bengal [Link]
14. Which of these parties has national level political organisations?
a. Samajwadi Party b. Telugu Desam Party
c. Rashtriya Janta Dal d. None of the above

15. Which one of the following is a better way of carrying out political reforms in a
democratic country?
a. The legal changes b. The constitutional changes
c. The empowerment of people d. The legislation for reforms

36
RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT
1. Black soil is commonly found in _____________.

a. Deccan trap region b. Kashmir valley

c. Northern plains d. None of the above

2. Laterite soil is very useful for growing _____________.

a. Tea, Coffee and cashewnut b. Rice, Wheat and mustard

c. Pulses, sugar cane and Maize d. None of the above

3. Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil

i. Develops in high rainfall area

ii. intense teaching process takes place

iii. Humus content is low

a. i. Laterite ii. Arid iii. regur b. i. Regur ii. Regur iii. regur

c. i. Laterite ii. Regur [Link] and yellow d. i. Laterite ii. Laterite iii. Laterite

4. What can be called a resource?

a. Human environment [Link] Made products

c. Extracts from environment that are technologically accessible, economically feasible


and culturally acceptable

d. Anything from which a product can be manufactured

5. What are fallow lands?

a. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year

b. Land under miscellaneous tree crops groves

c. Land put to non-agricultural uses

d. Wastelands

37
6. There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody's greed,’’ who among the
following has given the above statement?

a. Vinoba Bhave b. Mahatma Gandhi

c. Jawaharlal Nehru d. Narendra Modi

7. The lower horizon of soil are occupied by Kankar due to increasing____

a. Magnesium content b. Potash and lime

c. Calcium content d. Phosphoric

8. RAVINES refers to the ___

a. Bad land created at Godavari valley

b. Bad land created at Kullu valley

c. Bad land created at Chambal valley

d. None of the above

9. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to
____have caused severe land degradation.
a. raining b. over irrigation c. mining d. overgrazing
10. Which is the right sequence of the soil profile?
a. Topsoil, Substratum weathered parent rock material, subsoil, Unweathered parent
bedrock
b. Substratum weathered parent rock material, Unweathered parent bedrock, subsoil,
topsoil
c. Topsoil, Unweathered parent bedrock, Substratum weathered parent rock material,
subsoil
d. Topsoil, subsoil, Substratum weathered parent rock material, Unweathered parent
bedrock
11. Which state is well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources?
a. Gujarat b. Rajasthan c. Madhya Pradesh d. Maharashtra

38
12. What is the main reason behind global ecological crises such as global warming and
environmental pollution?
a. Accumulation of resources in a few hands b. Depletion of resources
c. Indiscriminate exploitation of resources d. Use of resources
13. _____means development should take place without damaging the environment?
a. Sustainable development b. Local Environment development
c. Sustainable economic development d. Economic development
14. Where was the first Earth Summit held?
a. Rio de Janeiro, Brazil b. Nairobi Kenya
c. Stockholm Sweden d. Johannesburg South Africa
15. What is not true about Agenda 21?
a. It aims for achieving Global Sustainable Development.
b. It is an agenda to fight environmental damage, poverty, disease etc.
c. Agenda 21 has legal powers to acquire even private property for public good.
d. One of its major objectives is that every local govt. should draw its own agenda
16. What is the full form of UNCED?
a. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
b. United Nations Children’s Emergency Development
c. United Nations Educational and Cultural Development
d. United Nations Conference on global development

AGRICULTURE
1. Facilities like irrigation, awareness about modern techniques of agriculture, kissan credit
cards, provision of crop insurance, personal accident insurance scheme, special weather
bulletins and minimum support price are all a part of ____________

a. Technical and institutional measures b. Input measures

c. Physical measures d. Human resources


2. Which of the following crop is not a millet?

a. Jowar b. Maize c. Ragi d. Bajra

[Link] the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Rubber.

39
a. A- Food crop; B- Above 40°C b. A- Non- Food crop; B- Above 25°C

c. A- Non- Food crop; B- Above 35°C d. A- Food crop; B- Above 20°C

4. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Cotton.

a. A- Kharif B- Black soil b. A- Rabi B-Black soil

c. A -Zaid B- Alluvial soil d. A-Rabi B- Alluvial Soil

5. India has three cropping seasons: Rabi, kharif and Zaid, Rabi crops are sown in winter
from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Kharif crops are
grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in
September- October. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season
during the summer months known as the Zaid season.

Analyse the information given above and consider one of the following as the correct option:

a. Commercial farming b. Major seasons

c. Farming practices d. Cropping pattern

6. Which one of the statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming?

a. crops are grown for sale b. Family involved is growing crops

c. Practiced in large land holdings d. Use of higher doses of modern inputs

7. Karnataka is famous for which plantation crops.

a. sugarcane b. Tea c. jute d. coffee


40
8. Choose the correct option for the riddle.

“I require high doses of biochemical.

I am practiced in areas of high population.

I produce good Yield with irrigation facilities.”

a. Intensive farming b. Primitive subsistence farming

c. Commercial farming d. All of the above

9. What is Primitive Subsistence Farming known as in north-eastern states like Assam,


Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland?
a. Horticulture b. Penda c. Jhumming d. Milpa
10. How many crops of paddy are grown in a year in the states like Assam, West Bengal and
Orissa and they are termed as which of the following?
a. Once-Arabica b. Two-Rabi anti Zaid
c. Three-Aus, Aman, Born d. Three-Kumar- valre, Waltre
11. Which of the following is an annual crop?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton (c) Jute (d) Cucumber
12. In which type of soil does Maize grow well?
(a) Black (b) Sandy Soil (c) Old alluvial (d) None of the above
13. Which of the following is an example of the Kharif crop?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Gram (d) Peas
14. Cultivation of fruits and Vegetables is called:
(a) Floriculture (b) Sericulture (c) Horticulture (d) Agriculture
15. The rearing of silkworms for the production of silk fibre is known as:
(a) Sericulture (b) Horticulture (c) Floriculture (d) Agriculture
16. Arabica variety of coffee was initially brought to India from which of the following
countries?
(a) Yemen (b) Vietnam (c) Japan (d) Korea
17. Rice is a subsistence crop in Orissa. In which of the following states, is rice a
Commercial crop?
(a) West Bengal and Bihar (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

41
MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES
1. Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to placer deposits?
(i) They occur as alluvial deposits.
(ii) They are corroded by water.
(iii) They occur in ocean beds.
(iv) They are found in sands of the valley floors and the base of hills.
a. (i) and (ii) b. (ii) and (iii) c. (iii) and (iv) d. (i) and (iv)
2. The Hazira – Vijaipur – Jagdishpur pipeline does not pass through this state.
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Gujarat
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Maharashtra
3. Low grade brown coal is called ___________.
a. Magnetite b. Bauxite c. Lignite d. Limonite
4. Which of the following states is the oldest producer of oil?
a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Assam c. Andhra Pradesh d. Gujarat
5. Metallurgical coal used in the smelting of iron ore is ______________.
a. Anthracite b. Bituminous c. Lignite d. Peat
6. Kakrapara nuclear power station is located in the state of ___________.
a. Maharashtra b. Andhra Pradesh c. Karnataka d. Gujarat
11. Kudremukh is an important Iron Ore mine of ______________.
a. Kerala b. Madhya Pradesh c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh
12. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks?
a. Sedimentary rocks b. Igneous rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks d. None of the above
13. Which among the following is a 100 per cent ‘export-oriented’ iron ore mine of India?
a. Kendujhar in Orissa b. Bailadila range of Chhattisgarh
c. Ratnagiri of Maharashtra d. Kudremukh mines of Karnataka
14. In which region of India tidal energy is produced?
a. Gulf of Kuchchh b. Puga Valley of Ladakh
c. Gulf of Cambay d. Madhapur near Bhuj
15. Electricity produced from the heat of the earth’s interior is ___________.
a. Geothermal energy b. Solar energy c. Hydel energy d. Nuclear energy

42
16. Which one of the following states has the largest wind-farm cluster?
a. Himachal Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu c. Gujarat d. Rajasthan
17. India exports ………… minerals.
a. Metallic minerals b. Non-metallic minerals
c. Ferrous minerals d. Non-ferrous minerals
18. A person who studies the formation of minerals, their age and physical and chemical
properties – Who am I ?
a. Geographer b. Geophysicist c. Geologist d. Geomorphologist
19. Minerals obtained from veins and lodes are________________.
a. Iron b. Gold c. Copper d. Manganese
20. The ocean beds are rich in _____________.
a. Mica b. Manganese c. Gold d. Copper
21. Mining depends upon _______________.
a. Concentration of mineral only b. Ease of extraction
c. Nearness to the market d. All of the above
22. Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Iron ore ?
a. Chhattisgarh b. Jharkhand c. Karnataka d. Madhya Pradesh
23. Where in India is Rat Hole mining done ?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Meghalaya c. Uttar Pradesh d. Mizoram
24. Which of the following minerals is mined at Balaghat mines?
a. Manganese b. Aluminium c. Copper d. Limestone
25. Which of the following pairs of statements are incorrect ?
(i) India is rich in copper.
(ii) Bauxite is formed by decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
(iii) Maharashtra is the largest producer of Bauxite.
(iv) Mica is the most indispensable mineral used in electrical and electronic industries.
a. (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii) c. (ii) and (iii) d. (iii) and (iv)
26. To which Geological period does Gondwana coal belong ?
a. over 200 million years b. 100 million years
c. 50 million years d. 500 million years

43
MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES
1. Which one of the following organizations is responsible for the marketing of steel of the
Public Sector Undertaking?
a. TISCO b. IISCO c. BHEL d. SAIL
2. Which of the following country is the largest producer of jute in the world?
a. India b. Pakistan c. Bangladesh d. Nepal
3. Which of the following is a mineral based product?
a. WoolIen b. Tea c. Cotton d. Cement
4. Which one of the following is manufactured at Salem?
a. Steel b. Cotton c. Aluminium d. Copper
5. In what ratio are iron ore, coking coal and limestone required to make steel?
a. 4: 2: 1 b. 4: 1: 2 c. 4: 3: 1 d. [Link]
6. Most of the integrated steel plants in India are located in ________________.
a. Malwa Plateau b. Bundelkhand Plateau
c. Meghalaya Plateau d. Chotanagpur Plateau
7. ________ is an example of a private sector industry.
a. BHEL b. TISCO c. SAIL d. CIL
8. __________ is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the
value chain, i.e., from raw material to the highest value-added products.
a. Agriculture industry b. Textile industry
c. Light industry d. Heavy industry
9. ________ is the second largest industry in India in terms of employment generation,
giving employment to 35 million people.
a. IT industry b. Semiconductor industry
c. Agriculture industry d. Textile industry
10. The first jute mill was set up in 1859 at Rishra, located near _______.
a. Mumbai b. Chennai c. Kolkata d. Surat.
11. India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands in second place as an
exporter after ______.
a. China b. Bangladesh c. Japan d. United Kingdom
12. How does the Manufacturing industries help in modernized agriculture?

44
a. reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them
jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
b. Provides modernised tools c. Less time consumption
c. More production
13. Why has there been a tendency for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the areas of
Maharashtra?
a. cane produced here has a higher sucrose content b. Good marketing of cane
c. More high tech industry d. Better trained labour
14. Which city has emerged as the electronic capital of India?
a. Jamshedpur b. Bengaluru c. Mumbai d. Gurgaon
15. Which of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
a. Aluminium b. Cement c. Jute d. Steel.
16. Which one of the following public sector plants is located in Chhattisgarh ?
a. Bokaro Steel Plant b. Bhilai Steel Plant
c. Durgapur Steel Plant d. Rourkela Steel Plant.
17. _________pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is
drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
a. Thermal b. Industrial c. Noise [Link]
18. Which of the following is a basic industry?
a. Sugar b. Cotton c. Jute d. Iron and steel
19. The full form of BPO is ________________.
a. Business Progress Outstanding b. Business Process Outstanding
c. Business Process Outsourcing d. None of these.
20. Which of the following is not a reason for the growth of the software industry in India?
a. Large number of engineering graduates
b. Lower wages of software professionals in India
c. Government support for the industry
d. Abundance of natural resources

45
DEVELOPMENT

1. The Developmental goal for a Landless agricultural labour is ______________.


a. More days of work and better wages.
b. Assured a high family income through higher support prices for their crops
c. they should be able to settle their children abroad.
d. Proper and developed Irrigational facilities for their crops.
2. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make?
a. Their dignity in the household and society decreases
b. Household work of women decreases.
c. Income of the family is reduced.
d. their dignity in the household and society increases
3. What is the correct definition of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
a. It is the total value of all the goods and services produced during a particular year.
b. It is the total value of all final goods and services produced during a particular year.
c. It is the total value of all intermediate goods and services produced during a
particular year.
d. It is the total value of all intermediate and final goods and services produced
during a particular year.
6. Per capita income is ____________.
a. Income per family b. Income per person
c. Income per earning member d. Income per month
7. Choose the incorrect option from the pairs given below
a. Prosperous Farmer from Punjab – High support price for his crop.
b. Farmers depending on Rainfall for farming – Development of alternate sources of
irrigation.
c. An Urban Unemployed Youth – Regular Job with high wages.
d. An urban girl from a Rich Family – Lots of leisure time to enjoy.
8. Based on the conflicting developmental goals, which of the following pairs are not
correctly matched?
a. More wages to workers - against the interests of the entrepreneur.
b. Rich farmers want to sell food grains at high prices - poor workers want to purchase
it at low prices.
46
c. Construction of a dam means more and cheaper power for people - The tribals do
not want to leave the place.
d. Expansion of roads in the city - good for reducing traffic congestion.
9. For development, people look at a mix of ______.
a. goals b. responsibilities c. accountability d. none of the above
10. Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of the age group ________ attending
school as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.
a. 17 and 18 years b. 9 and 10 years
c. 12 and 13 years d. 14 and 15 years
11. Which of the following statements about money are true?
a. Money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment.
b. Money cannot ensure that you get unadulterated medicines.
c. Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases.
d. All of the above.
12. If the Body Mass Index (BMI) is _________, then the adult person would be considered
undernourished.
a. less than 18.5 b less than 10.5
c. less than 25.5 d. less than 28.5
13. Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on
_________.
a. health status b. per capita income
c. educational levels of the people d. all of the above
14. Which country can be considered as a developed country in the modern world? Select
your answer from the following statements.
a. Countries which have accumulated huge amount of wealth and always secures the
future of their citizens. These countries are considered to be developed.
b. Countries which are among the highest in the ‘Human Development Index’ are
considered to be the developed countries.
c. Only rich countries are considered to be developed because people have money to
buy everything needed for human beings—both material and non-material.
d. Iran is a rich country and therefore it is a developed country.

47
SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY
1. Ramesh owns a medical shop. He managed the shop with the help of an assistant. Once his
son Mahesh finished his education, he also joined his father in the medical shop. Now both
Ramesh and Mahesh managed the medical shop with the help of the assistant. Mahesh is
____________________
a. Unemployed b. Underemployed
c. Over employed d. employed.
2. In a village, 200 families are living. 65 families work on their own piece of land, 80 families
work on the field of other farmers, 15 families run their own shops and 40 families work in a
nearby factory to earn their livelihood. What percentage of villagers depend on the
secondary sector?
a. 20 b. 30 c. 25 d. 40
3. If the price of fertilizers, pump sets go up, cost of cultivation of farmer will also go up and
their profit will reduce. This shows the dependence of____________.
a. Primary on secondary sector b. Secondary on tertiary sector
c. Secondary on primary sector d. Primary on tertiary sector
4. A sugar mill owner purchased sugarcane from farmers, manufactured sugar from it and
then sold it to wholesalers. Such kind of activities comes under __________.
a. Primary sector b. Tertiary sector
c. Secondary sector d. Service sector
5. Why is the tertiary sector becoming so important in India?
a. Government is taking the responsibility of providing the basic services.
b. Development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as
transport, trade, storage and others.
c. In India maximum population is dependent on agriculture that's why this sector
dominates.
(d) As income level rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services.
(e) Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as those based on information and
communication technology have become important and essential.
a. (a), (b), (c) & (d) are correct b. (a), (b), (d) & (e) are correct
c. (b), (c), (d) & (e) are correct d. (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e) all are correct
6. Choose the incorrect option from the following

48
a. Courier – Tertiary sector
b. Fisherman – Primary sector
c. Carpenter – Primary sector
d. Banker – Tertiary sector
7. Choose the improper group from the following
a. Maruti Suzuki, Tata Motors and Volkswagan
b. Indian Railways, TSRTC, and Indian Airlines
c. Agriculture, Lumbering and Mining
d. BSNL, Hero Honda and Amul Dairy
8. Agriculture, dairy, fishing, and forestry are examples of ________.
a. tertiary Sector b. secondary Sector
c. primary Sector d. none of the above
9. Which of the following comes under the tertiary sector?
a. transport b. communication c. both (a) & (b) d. none of the above
10. __________ shows how big the economy of a country is.
a. GSDP b. GDP c. PPP d. None of the above
11. Which of the following statements are true regarding the services sector?
a. As income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more
services like eating out, tourism, and shopping.
b. Over the past decade or so, certain new services, such as those based on information
and communication technology, have become important and essential.
c. In the year 2010-11, the tertiary sector emerged as the largest producing sector in
India, replacing the primary sector.
d. All of the above.
12. The _______ continues to be the largest employer in India.
a. quaternary sector b. tertiary sector
c. secondary sector d. primary sector
13. Which of the following statements are true regarding the organised sector?
a. Workers in the organised sector enjoy the security of employment.
b. They are expected to work only a fixed number of hours.
c. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by the employer.
d. All of the above.

49
MONEY AND CREDIT
1. What is the drawback of barter system?
a. Double coincidence of wants b. Medium of exchange
c. Demand deposits. d. None of these
2. Which of the following suggests barter system?
a. Sumit buys a car by cash b. Bhagyesh buys a bike by taking loan from bank.
c. Tejal buys a kg of sugar with the exchange of 1 kg wheat.
3. Identify the informal source of credit from the following.
a. Loan from employer b. Loan from Cooperative society
c. Loan from Bank. d. None of these
4. Which of the following suggest a credit activity?
a. A businessman obtaining machinery from the seller with assurance to pay on
later date.
b. A farmer obtaining fertilizers from seller with assurance to pay on later date.
c. Both of these.
5. What do you mean by debt-trap?
a. The condition when a person repays the loan in decided time.
b. The condition when a person could not be able to repay the amount of credit in
decided time.
c. The condition when the moneylender refuses to give money.
6. Bank facilitates loan activities between _________.
a. Two depositors. b. Two borrowers
c. Between depositor and borrower.
7. Which among the following banks issues currency notes on behalf of the Central
Government of India?
a. RBI b. SBI c. BOI
8. A typical Self-Help group usually has ____________
a. 100-200 members b. 50 -100 members c. 15-20 members
9. What percentage of their deposits is kept as cash by the banks in India?
a. 15% b. 20% c. 25%
10. Which one of the following is a modern form of money?
a. Gold b. Paper notes c. Silver

50
11. Banks and Co-operatives come under _____________.
a. Formal credit sector b. Informal credit
c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
12. Which one of the following terms is not included against Loans?
a. Interest rate b. Collateral
c. Documentation d. Lender's land.
13. What is the main source of income for banks?
a. Interest on loans. b. Interest on deposits.
c. Difference between the interests charged on borrowers and depositors.
d. None of these.
14. Which of the following is NOT the motive of Self-Help Group?
(a) It does not help women to become financially self-reliant.
(b) The group provides a platform to discuss on variety of social issues such as
health, nutrition etc.
(c) It helps borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.
(d) It provides timely loans at a reasonable interest rate.
15. Why Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development?
(a) For increasing agricultural production. (b) Setting up new industries.
(c) For trading in goods. (d) For all of the above.
16. Which of the following reasons is correct for accepting currency as a medium of
exchange?
(a) Authorised by the President (b) Authorised by the Parliament
(c) Authorised by the government of the country
(d) Authorised by the state government
17. If the borrower fails to repay loans, the lender has the right to ______________.
(a) compel the borrower to repay the loan
(b) file the case in the court against the borrowers.
(c) sell the collateral to obtain the payment.
(d) stop lending loans.
18. Commodity for commodity is known as __________.
(a) Barter system (b) Money system
(c) Exchange Rate (d) Financial system

51
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS
DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable:

a. If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A).

b. If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).

c. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

d. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.

[Link] Question Ans


Assertion (A): From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries
introduced various measures and practices like the idea of La Patrie and Le
1. Citoyen.
Reason (R): La Patrie and Le Citoyen. This was done in order to create a sense
of collective Identity among French people.
Assertion (A): Giuseppe Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to
be the natural units of mankind.
2.
Reason (R): Metternich described him as “the most dangerous enemy of our
social order”.
Assertion (A): The Grimm brothers saw French domination as a threat to
German culture.
3.
Reason (R): They believed developing the German language as a part of
wider effort to oppose French domination.
Assertion(A): The Congress and Muslim League entered into compromise in
1927 and formed an alliance.
4.
Reason(R): In 1928 hopes of conference were removed when M.R. Jayakar of
the Hindi Mahasabha strongly opposed efforts of compromise.
Assertion(A): The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried to connect
5. different groups together into one movement.
Reasons(R): Unity didn’t come without conflicts

52
Assertion(A): When Simon Commission reached India it was opposed with
slogans of ‘Simon Go Back’ in1928.
6.
Reason(R): This statutory commission was in India to give suggestions about
constitution system, but didn’t have a single Indian member
Assertion (A): Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points and opened fire
on the crowd, killing hundreds.
7.
Reason (R): His object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to
create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe.
Assertion(A): Gandhiji entered the Gandhi Irwin pact on 5th March 1931.
8. Reason(R): Gandhiji consented to participate in the 2nd Round Table
Conference and the government agreed to release political prisoners.
Assertion (A): Gandhiji's idea of 'Satyagraha' emphasised the power of truth
and the need to search for truth.
9.
Reason(R): Gandhiji believed that a Satyagrahi could win the battle by
appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
Assertion (A): Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political
fragmentation.
10.
Reason (R): During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided
into seven States.
Assertion(A): Discovery of America resulted in transformation of trade, life
and abundance of wealth for Europeans.
11.
Reason(R): The Americas had vast lands, minerals, silver and gold which
enhanced European trade.
Assertion (A): On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the
Frankfurt parliament.
12.
Reason (R): The elected representatives revolted against the issue of
extending political rights to women.
Assertion (A): As literacy and school spread in African countries, there was a
virtual reading mania.
13.
Reason (R): Primary education became compulsory from the late 19th
century.

53
Assertion (A): The 1830’s were the years of great economic hardship in
14. Europe.
Reason (R): National assembly of 1848 proclaimed France as a republic
Assertion (A): The new reading culture was accompanied by a new
technology.
15.
Reason (R): From hand printing there was a gradual shift to mechanical
printing.
Assertion (A): The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic
language or wear their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly
16. driven out of their homeland.
Reason (R): The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their
dominance over a largely Catholic country.
Assertion (A): Arid soil is found in Rajasthan and West Bengal.
17.
Reason (R): These areas have dry climate and high temperature.
Assertion (A): Tea cultivation is a labour intensive industry.
18. Reason (R): It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour to pluck the tender
leaves throughout the year.
Assertion(A): Power sharing is good for democracy.
19. Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between the social
groups.
Assertion(A): Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1949.
20. Reason(R): The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure
dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
Assertion(A): A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992.
21. Reason(R): The constitution was amended to make the third tier of
democracy more powerful and effective.
Assertion (A): Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate.
22. Reason (R): Kerala lacks the provision of basic health and educational
facilities.
Assertion (A): Different persons have different notions of development.
23. Reason (R): Each person seeks similar things. All persons seek things that are
least important for them.
54
Assertion (A): In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets
and provides all the services.
24.
Reason (R): the purpose of the public sector is not first to earn profits but to
promote public welfare.
Assertion (A): Per Capita Income is calculated in US dollars.
25. Reason (R): US dollar is not considered as the medium of international
exchange. It is accepted as a method of payment across the world.
Assertion (A): Elections are the spirit of democracy
26.
Reason (R): Elections expand political participation.
Assertion (A): Women in different parts of the World organized themselves
and agitated for equal rights.
27.
Reason (R): Women’s movement aimed at equality in personal and family life
as well.
Assertion (A): Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.
28. Reason (R): Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of
unemployment and poverty from the country.
Assertion (A): Belgium amended their constitution four times.
29. Reason (R): Amendments were to enable everyone to live together in the
same country.
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted ‘Tamil’ as the official language of the state.
30. Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian
measures.
Assertion (A): Leela works five days a week, receives her income on the last
31. day of each month and gets medical facilities from her firm.
Reason (R): Leela is working in the organized sector.
Assertion (A): There was a feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils.
32. Reason (R): The Sri Lankan government denied them equal political rights
and discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities.
Assertion (A): Democracy is an accountable, responsive and legitimate
government.
33.
Reason (R): Democracies have regular, free and fair elections and decision-
making is based on norms and procedures.
55
Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
34.
Reason ( R ): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.
Assertion (A): Reserved forests cover more than half of the total forest land.
35.
Reason (R): Reserved forests are regarded as non-valuable.
Assertion (A): Joint Forest Management is a programme launched by the
36. government for rigorous protection of forest.
Reason (R): Community participation is a part of Joint Forest Management.
Assertion (A): Democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives
37. Reason(R): Democratic government may be slow, less efficient but it is
legitimate and people’s own government.
Assertion (A): In 1517, the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety
Five Theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of the Roman
38. Catholic Church.
Reason (R): This led to a division within the Church and to the beginning of
the Protestant Reformation.
Assertion (A): The new reading culture was accompanied by a new
technology.
39.
Reason (R): From hand printing there was a gradual shift to mechanical
printing.
Assertion (A): Third-tier of government is local government.
40.
Reason (R): It made democracy weak.
Assertion (A) : Folklores give a picture of traditional culture, it helps in
discovering a national identity and restoring a sense of pride in one’s past.
41.
Reason (R) : Nationalism spreads when people discover some unity that
binds them together.
Assertion (A) : Tidal energy is a renewable source of energy.
42. Reason (R) : Tidal energy is produced by the surge of ocean waters during
the rise and fall of tides.
Assertion (A) : Brussels has a Separate government in which both the
communities have equal representation.
43.
Reason (R) : In Brussels French – Speaking people accepted equal
representation in Brussels.
56
Assertion (A) : Not the entire service sector is growing equally well.
44. Reason (R) : Services that employ highly skilled and educated workers are
not producing more.
Assertion (A): Gandhiji entered into Gandhi-Irwin Pact on 5th March 1931.
Reason(R): Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were both put in jail, the
45.
Congress was declared illegal, and a series of measures had been imposed to
prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts.
Assertion (A) : Power can be shared among governments at different levels –
a general government for the entire country and governments at the
46. provincial or regional level.
Reason (R) : Such a general government for the entire country is usually
called federal government.
Assertion (A): Only those parties that are recognized as National parties can
contest elections at the Union level
47.
Reason (R): Recognition to a political party as a national party is accorded by
the Election Commission
Assertion (A): Copper is mainly used in electrical cables and electronics
48. industries.
Reason (R): Copper is malleable, ductile and a good conductor.
Assertion (A): The issue of extending political rights to women was a
controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of
49. women had participated actively over the years.
Reason (R): When the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St
Paul, women were granted the rights.
Assertion (A): Self-Help Groups are instrumental in promoting economic
democracy.
50.
Reason (R): They contribute to a more equitable distribution of economic
power and opportunities.
Assertion(A): India has evolved a multi-party system
51. Reason(R): It is because the social and geographical diversity in such a large
country is not absorbed by one or two parties.

57
Assertion (A): Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash
with themselves.
52.
Reason (R): Banks in India these days hold about 15 per cent of their deposits
as cash.
Assertion (A) : Most societies across the world were historically male
dominated societies.
53.
Reason(R): Equal treatment of women is a necessary ingredients of a
democratic society.
Assertion (A): Consumer Industries produces goods for direct use of the
54. consumers
Reason (R): Almost all consumer goods are raw materials.
Assertion (A): European conquest in Americas was not a result of superior
fire power.
55. Reason (R): In fact, the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors was
not a conventional military weapon; it was the germs such as those of
smallpox.
Assertion (A): The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure
dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
56.
Reason (R): As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a
series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
Assertion (A): Belgium shifted from a federal form of government to a
57. unitary government.
Reason (R): Indian federation has three levels of governments.
Assertion (A): India is a developing Country.
58.
Reason (R): Literacy of India is 100 percent.
Assertion (A): The treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognized Greece as
59. independent Nation.
Reason (R): Vienna Congress was organised by Matternich.
Assertion (A): Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate.
60 Reason(R): It has adequate provision of basic health and educational
facilities.

58
PICTURE BASED QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of


Germania?
a. As a protector of Germany.
b. As a protector of her own child.
c. As a protector of German Rhine.
d. As a guardian of women’s rights.
2. Identify the name of the person given in this picture.
a. Ram Mohan Roy
b. Raja Ravi Verma
c. Lakshminath Bezbaruah
d. Gangadhar Bhattacharya
3. Identify the painting from the options given below.
a.) Frankfurt Parliament
b.) Reichstag
c.) The House of Parliament
d.) Duma
4. Who is represented as a postman in the given image?
a. Guiseppe Mazzini
b. Napoleon Bonaparte
c. Otto Von Bismarck
d. Guiseppe Garibaldi
5. Which of the following events is described in the following image?
a. Signing of Treaty of Vienna
b. Founding of Young Europe in Berne 1833.
c. Guiseppe Mazzini unifying Italy.
d. None of the above

[Link] of the following aspects best signifies this


image of Germania?
a. Heroism and Justice b. Folk and Cultural Tradition
c. Austerity and Asceticism d. Revenge and Vengeance

59
7. Which of the following best describes this image by Julius Hubner?
a. Defeat of Otto Von Bismarck
b. The Fallen Germania
c. Sleeping lady
d. None of the above.

8. The postage stamp shows the female allegory of France. Who is


she?
a. Germania b. Marianna
c. Britannia c. Roma
9. Identify the political party through the symbol
given below.
a. NCP b. AITC c. INC d. CPI
10. Which one of the following leaders is shown
in this cartoon?
a. [Link] Gandhi
b. [Link]
c. [Link] Gowda
d. [Link]
11. Look at the picture given below. Identify the name of the
painter of this painting from the following options.
a. Abindra Nath Tagore b. Rabindra Nath Tagore
c. Raja Ravi Verma d. Samant Das Gupta

12. The given picture represents


a. Bismarck helping Kaiser William I of Prussia
b. Giuseppe Mazzini helping Victor Emmanuel II
c. Cavour helping Victor Emmanuel II
d. Garibaldi helping Victor Emmanuel II

60
13. What does the given picture represent?

14. Which of the following events was related to this image of Gandhi ?
a. Non-Cooperation Movement
b. Kheda Satyagraha
c. Dandi March
d. None of these
15. Study the Pie-chart showing production of
Manganese state-wise share in percent, 2016-17.
Answer the question that follows :
Which two states have equal deposits of manganese ?
a) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
b) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
c) Maharashtra and Odisha
d) Karnataka and Odisha

16. Who is represented in the caricature?


a. Napolean
b. Otto von Bismarck
c. Chief Minister Cavour
d. Giuseppe Mazzini
17. Identify the political party using the given picture.
a. Nationalist Congress Party
b. Indian National Congress
c. Bharatiya Janata Party
d. All India Trinamool Congress

61
18. Consider these statements about the image given below
1. The title of this caricature is “The Club of Thinkers”.
2. The plaque on the left bears the inscription: ‘The most important question of today’s
meeting: How long will thinking be allowed to us?”
3. This was a caricature of a meeting called by Napoleon.
4. This caricature dates back to 1820.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?


a. only 1 b. only 2 c. Both 1 and 2 d. 1, 2 and 4

19. Look at the picture given below. Identify what does the elephant and lion represents
here in this image, from the following options.
a. unity and power

b. politeness and anger

c. self-help and eagerness

d. Power and authority

20. Analyse the cartoon and select the right caption from the options given.

What does the cartoon depict?

a. Democracy is an accountable government.

b. Democracy accommodates social diversities.

c. Democracy enhance the dignity of citizens.

d. Democracy helps economic growth and development.

62
21. The picture depicts meeting of congress leaders in 1931. Where did they meet?
a. Lahore b. Allahabad
c. Bombay d. Madras
22. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which French painter painted this?
a. Eugene Delacroix b. Claude Monet
c. Raymond Bonheur d. Constant Troyon
23. Study the picture and name this structure located in the Belgian
capital.

____________________

24. Identify the picture given below:


a. A page from Diamond Sutra
b. A page from Tripitaka
c. A page from Rigveda
d. A page from Ramcharitmanas
25. Look at the picture given below. Identify the name of the
painter of this painting from the following options.
a. Kitagawa Utamaro
b. Shunman Kubo
c. Erasmus
d. Kuroda Kiyotaka,

26. Which of the following options best explains this cartoon?


a. Democracy in action
b. Political parties in the coalition government
c. Coalition tensions
d. Richness of democracy

63
27. Study the given graph and answer the following:
About how much percent of land area is plains?
a. 27% b. 72% c. 30% d. 43%

28. Which of the following information is correct regarding


the figure given below?
a. Slaves for sale
b. The Irish Potato Famine
c. Merchants from Venice
d. Goa Museum

29. India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types. These
have contributed in the development of various types of soils. Identify the types of soils
marked as X, Y and Z in the given map of India.

X
a. Arid Soil
b. Red and Yellow Soil
c. Alluvial Soil
d. Black Soil

Y
a. Laterite Soil
b. Black Soil
c. Red and Yellow Soil
d. Alluvial Soil

Z
a. Alluvial Soil
b. Mountainous Soil
c. Black Soil
d. Arid Soil

64
30. Study the map thoroughly and mention the
languages that are dominantly present in
Belgium.
_________________________________

_________________________________

_________________________________

31. Observe the map given below which was used during the 19th century to display the
power of Britain. Which of the following is the map MOST LIKELY about?
a. different kinds of people who are
found in Britain
b. sea routes from only Britain to
different parts of the world
c. celebrating the British rule over
different parts of the world
d. people of different countries moving
to Britain to lead a better life

32. The message of this comic can be best summarised as __________.


a. we should take from the rich and
give to the poor
b. resources must be distributed equally
amongst all
c. providing equality of opportunity to
all is always a good thing
d. those who are the most
disadvantaged should ideally get the
most help

65
[Link] woodcut painting given below was created during the time when Indians were
beginning to accept the idea of women’s education in the late 19th century. Which of the
following scenarios was the artist MOST LIKELY trying to portray in this art piece?
a. listening to music is the best way to
spend one's free time
b. increasing popularity of western
idea of marriage
c. challenging the conventional gender
roles
d. pleasure being the ultimate goal of
life

34. Look at the image given below. Which of the following goals
of development should be prioritised in this region?
a. reducing income disparities
b. combatting climate change
c. ending gender violence
d. ensuring caste equality

35. Given below is a cartoon created by Neelabh Banerjee, the


renowned Indian cartoonist, illustrator and comics artist. What is
the cartoon trying to depict?
a. the sexual division of labour in India

b. natural and unchangeable gender divisions

c. income generating activities done by women in


rural India

d. the ability of men to contribute equally to


domestic work as women

66
[Link] the picture and answer the question that follows:
The picture of cover page was designed by:
a. Albrecht Durer
b. Van Gogh
c. Andreas Rebmann
d. Otto von Bismarck
37. Study the picture and answer the question that
follows:
Which Indian National movement does the above image depict?
a. Khilafat movement
b. Chauri Chaura movement
c. Civil disobedience movement
d. Salt movement

38. Study the picture and answer the question


that follows:
The procession of women in Bombay
pertains to which Indian National
Movement?
a. Quit India Movement
b. Civil Disobedience Movement
c. Khilafat Movement
d. Non-Cooperation Movement
39. Study the given flowchart and answer the question that follows.
Which is the basic material required for garment manufacturing? __________________

67
40. The following picture talks about the reality of Indian Political System intended for:
a. Political Biasness against
women for more representation
in Parliament.
b. Lesser participation of
women in Parliament.
c. Lack of women movements
for more participation in
Elected bodies.
d. Reluctant Ness in women for
their political right

41. Kiran’s shop shown in the picture is related to which sector.


a. Public Sector
b. Private Sector
c. Primary sector
d. Secondary Sector

68
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a
country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are
regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of
resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For
example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and
coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in
infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind
energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the
rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure
and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state,
regional and local levels.
Questions
Name the states which have coal deposits.

Which regions in India have deficient and abundance of water resources?

” Resources are unequally distributed. “Justify the statement.

Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April
to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Though,
these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and northwestern parts
such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar
Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of
precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success
of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar
Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the

69
abovementioned rabi crops. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different
parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October.
Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong,
urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of the most important rice growing regions
are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu,
Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like
Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus,
Aman and Boro.
Questions
In which months Rabi crops are sown?

Name important rice growing areas.

How do Rabi crops get irrigation during winter?

India stands second as a world producer of sugar but occupies the first place in the production
of gur and khandsari. The raw material used in this industry is bulky, and in haulage its
sucrose content reduces. The mills are located in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra,
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.
Sixty per cent mills are in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. This industry is seasonal in nature so; it is
ideally suited to the cooperative sector. In recent years, there is a tendency for the mills to shift
and concentrate in the southern and western states, especially in Maharashtra, this is because
the cane produced here has a higher sucrose content. The cooler climate also ensures a longer
crushing season. Moreover, the cooperatives are more
successful in these states.
Questions
Why there is a tendency for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and
western states?

70
Mention the state that has the largest concentration of sugar mills.

What is the raw material used in the above mentioned industry?

What type of industry is sugar?

Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through non-
violence. In 1928, the HSRA was founded at a meeting in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.
Amongst its leaders were Bhagat Singh, Jatin Dasand Ajoy Ghosh. In a series of dramatic
actions in different parts of India, the HSRA targeted some of the symbols of British power.
In April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly.
Bhagat Singh was 23 when he was tried and executed by the colonial government. During his
trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but
wanted a revolution in society.
Questions
What did HSRA stand for?

What was the philosophy behind the founding HSRA?

Bhagat Singh and his fellows attempted to blow up a train in 1929. Who was travelling on that
train?

Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas, and introduced a new world of debate
and discussion. Even those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and
circulate their ideas. Through the printed message, they could persuade people to think
differently, and move them to action. This had significance in different spheres of life. Not
everyone welcomed the printed book and those who did also had fears about it. Many were
apprehensive of the effects that the easier access to the printed word and the wider circulation
of books, could have on people’s minds. It was feared that if there was no control over what
was printed and read then rebellious and irreligious thoughts might spread. If that happened
the authority of ‘valuable’ literature would be destroyed. In 1517, the religious reformer

71
Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five Theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of the
Roman Catholic Church. It challenged the Church to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were
immediately reproduced in vast numbers and read widely. This lead to a division within the
Church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation. Deeply grateful to print, Luther
said, ‘Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.
Questions
’Why were Martin Luther’s Theses a challenge to Church in Europe?

Why were people afraid of the newly printed books entering the market?

Enumerate the benefits of prints with respect to dissenters of established authorities.

On 13th April the infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place. On that day a large crowd
gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to protest against the
government’s new repressive measures. Others had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair.
Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.
As the news of Jallianwalla Bagh spread, crowds took to the streets in many north Indian
towns. There were strikes, clashes with the police and attacks on government buildings.
Seeing violence spread, Mahatma Gandhi called off the movement. While the Rowlatt
satyagraha had been a widespread movement, it was still limited mostly to cities and towns.
Mahatma Gandhi now felt the need to launch a more broad-based movement in India.
Questions
How did Mahatma Gandhi react to the Rowlatt Act?

What made Mahatma Gandhi call off Rowlatt Satyagraha?

Why did Rowlatt Act enrage people?

72
The lives and feelings of women began to be written in particularly vivid and intense ways.
Women’s reading, therefore, increased enormously in middle-class homes. Liberal husbands
and fathers began educating their womenfolk at home and sent them to schools when
women’s schools were set up in the cities and towns after the mid-nineteenth century. Many
journals began carrying writings by women and explained why women should be educated.
They also carried a syllabus and attached suitable reading matter which could be used for
home-based schooling. But not all families were liberal. Conservative Hindus believed that a
literate girl would be widowed and Muslims feared that educated women would be corrupted
by reading Urdu romances. Sometimes, rebel women defied such prohibition. We know the
story of a girl in a conservative Muslim family of north India who secretly learnt to read and
write in Urdu. Her family wanted her to read only the Arabic Quran which she did not
understand. So she insisted on learning to read a language that was her own. In East Bengal,
in the early nineteenth century, Rashsundari Debi, a young married girl in a very orthodox
household, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen. Later, she wrote her autobiography
Amar Jiban which was published in 1876. It was the first full-length autobiography published
in the Bengali language.
Questions
Give the contribution of journals in bringing awareness for women’s education?

What was the impact of printed books on women in India in the 19th century?

What were the negative conceptions regarding the education imparted to women?

Shanghai became the hub of the new print culture, catering to the Western-style schools. From
hand printing, there was now a gradual shift to mechanical printing. Buddhist missionaries
from China introduced hand-printing technology into Japan around AD 768-770. The oldest
Japanese book, printed in AD 868, is the Buddhist Diamond Sutra. In the late eighteenth
century, in the flourishing urban circles at Edo, illustrated collections of paintings depicted an
elegant urban culture, involving artists, courtesans, and teahouse gatherings. Libraries and
bookstores were packed with hand-printed material of various types-books on women,

73
musical instruments, calculations, tea ceremony, flower arrangements, proper etiquette,
cooking and famous places.
Questions
Give ancient name of Tokyo.

Name the centre of the new print culture in China and describe it.

What is the name of the oldest printed book of Japan? Mention its feature.

Before 1798, the colonial state under the East India Company was not too concerned with
censorship. Strangely, its early measures to control printed matter were directed against
Englishmen in India who were critical of Company misrule and hated the actions of particular
Company officers. The Company was worried that such criticisms might be used by its critics
in England to attack its trade monopoly in India. By the 1820s, the Calcutta Supreme Court
passed certain regulations to control press freedom and the Company began encouraging
publication of newspapers that would celebrate British rule. In 1835, faced with urgent
petitions by editors of English and vernacular newspapers, Governor-General Bentinck
agreed to revise press laws. Thomas Macaulay, a liberal colonial official, formulated new rules
that restored the earlier freedoms. After the revolt of 1857, the attitude towards freedom of
the press changed. Enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp-down on the ‘native’ press. As
vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began
debating measures of stringent control. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed,
modelled on the Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor
reports and editorials in the vernacular press. From now on the government kept regular track
of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as
seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to
be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.
Questions
How did Governor General William Bentinck react to the petition filed by editors of English
and vernacular newspapers?

74
How did the Vernacular Press Act strengthen the British government in India?

Why did the British government curb the freedom of the Indian press?

For centuries, silk and spices from China flowed into Europe through the silk route. In the
eleventh century, Chinese paper reached Europe via the same route. Paper made possible the
production of manuscripts, carefully written by scribes. Then, in 1295, Marco Polo, a great
explorer, returned to Italy after many years of exploration in China. China already had the
technology of woodblock printing. Marco Polo brought this knowledge back with him. Now
Italians began producing books with woodblocks, and soon the technology spread to other
parts of Europe. Luxury editions were still handwritten on very expensive vellum, meant for
aristocratic circles and rich monastic libraries which scoffed at printed books as cheap
vulgarities. Merchants and students in the university towns bought the cheaper printed
copies. The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing
demand for books. Copying was an expensive, laborious and time-consuming business.
Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and could not be carried around or read easily.
Their circulation, therefore, remained limited. With the growing demand for books,
woodblock printing gradually became more and more popular.
Questions
Despite the introduction of print-culture, why were luxurious edition still handwritten?

Describe any two drawbacks of handwritten manuscripts in comparison to printed material.

What was Marco Polo’s contribution to print culture?

The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers
gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except
Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council
was one way of gaining some power - something that usually only Brahmans had access to.

75
The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were
boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of
foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ₹ 102 crore to ₹ 57 crore.
In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign
trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and
wearing only Indian ones, the production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
Questions
Explain the meaning of picketing liquor shops.

When did the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement begin?

Why did the movement in the cities gradually slow down?

Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity. Floodgate dams are built across inlets.
During high tide water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when the gate is closed. After the
tide falls outside the flood gate, the water retained by the floodgate flows back to the sea via
a pipe that carries it through a power-generating turbine. Shrubs, farm waste, animal and
human waste are used to produce biogas for domestic consumption in rural areas.
Decomposition of organic matter yields gas, which has higher thermal efficiency in
comparison to kerosene, dung cake and charcoal. Biogas plants are set up at municipal,
cooperative and individual levels. The plants using cattle dung are known as ‘Gobar gas
plants’ in rural India. Nuclear or Atomic Energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms.
When such an alteration is made, much energy is released in the form of heat and this is used
to generate electric power. Uranium and Thorium, which are available in Jharkhand and the
Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power. The Monazite
sands of Kerala is also rich in Thorium.
Questions
Name the type of electricity generated by the oceanic tides.

What do Gobar Gas plants use?

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How atomic energy is obtained?

Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal
treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are
important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may be more important than more income or
more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to live. Money or material
things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of our
life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just
think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there
are many things that are not easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often
ignored. For development, people look at a mix of goals. It is true that if women are engaged
in paid work, their dignity in the household and society increases. However, it is also the case
that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and a greater
acceptance of women working outside. A safe and secure environment may allow more
women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. Hence, the developmental goals that
people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life.
Questions
What are the things other than income which people seek for living?

Write any two developmental goals of middle-class woman.

What is the role of other important things than income, in life?

In the first century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad had sophisticated water harvesting
system channelling the flood water of the river Ganga. During the time of Chandragupta
Maurya, dams, lakes and irrigation systems were extensively built. Evidences of sophisticated
irrigation works have also been found in Kalinga (Odisha), Nagarjunakonda (Andhra
Pradesh), Bennur (Karnataka), Kolhapur (Maharashtra), etc. In the 11th Century, Bhopal Lake,

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one of the largest artificial lakes of its time was built. In the 14th Century, the tank in Hauz
Khas, Delhi was constructed by Iltutmish for supplying water to Siri Fort area. Sardar Sarovar
Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water
resource projects of India covering four states–Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and
Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar project would meet the requirement of water in drought-prone
and desert areas of Gujarat (9,490 villages and 173 towns) and Rajasthan (124 villages). Multi-
purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many new environmental
movements like the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’ and the ‘Tehri Dam Andolan’ etc. Resistance
to these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement of local communities.
Local people often had to give up their land, livelihood and their meagre access and control
over resources for the greater good of the nation.
Questions
During earlier time how was irrigation done?

Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim the dams as the temples of modern India?

How do multi-purpose projects face resistance?

The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every ten years. The
person who fills the Census form visits every household and records the religion of each
member of that household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone says she has
‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly how it is recorded. Thus we have reliable
information on the proportion of different religious communities in the country and how it
has changed over the years. The pie chart below presents the population proportion of six
major religious communities in the country. Since Independence, the total population of each
community has increased substantially but their proportion in the country’s population has
not changed much. In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians
has declined marginally since 1961. The proportion of Muslim, Sikh and Buddhist population
has increased slightly. There is a common but mistaken impression that the proportion of the
Muslims in the country’s population is going to overtake other religious communities. Expert
estimates done for the Prime Minister’s High Level Committee (popularly known as Sachar

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Committee) show that the proportion of the Muslims is expected to go up a little, by about 3
to 4 per cent, in the next 50 years. It proves that in overall terms, the population balance of
different religious communities is not likely to change in a big way.
Questions
What do you mean by atheist?

How much growth rate of Muslim population fall in compare to last decadal census?

What did happen in population proportion of six major religious communities in India since
Independence?

A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the
status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language.
But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were
many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages
recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination
conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of
these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work
takes place in the official language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our
country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the
constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-
Hindi speaking states demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this
movement took a violent form. The central Government responded by agreeing to continue
the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution
favoured the English-speaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of
the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose
Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian
political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
Questions

79
How many official languages recognised as scheduled Languages by the constitution?

How does Constitution of India safeguard the other languages?

How does India avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in?

This type of farming is still practised in few pockets of India. Primitive subsistence agriculture
is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging
sticks, and family/community labour. This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural
fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. The
main characteristic of this type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g.,
high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides, in order to
obtain higher productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one
region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in
Orissa, it is a subsistence crop. India’s food security policy has a primary objective to ensure
availability of food grains to the common people at an affordable price. It has enabled the poor
to have access to food. The focus of the policy is on growth in agriculture production and on
fixing the support price for procurement of wheat and rice, to maintain their stocks. Food
Corporation of India (FCI) is responsible for procuring and stocking food grains, whereas
distribution is ensured by public distribution system (PDS).
Questions
Which type of agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive
tools?

What does commercial farming use in order to obtain higher productivity?

What is the primary objective of India’s food security policy?

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The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion.
The processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously and generally there is a
balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like
deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind,
glacier and water lead to soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and
makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad
land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet
over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as
sheet erosion. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion. Soil
erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up
and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is
called contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace
cultivation restricts erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace
farming. Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the
crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting
lines of trees to create shelter also works in a similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter
belts. These shelter belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and
in stabilising the desert in western India.
Questions
Which land is known as bad land? In which basin such lands are known as ravines?

What do you understand by sheet erosion?

How does ploughing leads to the erosion? For what reasons balance between soil erosion and
soil formation is disturbed?

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Chapter wise previous year questions
The rise of nationalism in Europe
Nationalism in India
The making of global world
Print culture and the modern world
Resources and development
Forest and wildlife resources
Water resources
Agriculture
Mineral and energy resources
Manufacturing industries
Power sharing
Federalism
Gender, Religion and Caste
Political Parties
Outcomes of democracy
Development
Sectors of Indian Economy
Money and Credit
Globalisation and Indian Economy

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MAP ACTIVITIES

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Map Syllabus

HISTORY
Nationalism in India I. Congress sessions:
 1920 Calcutta
 1920 Nagpur.
 1927 Madras session
II. Satyagraha movements:
 Kheda
 Champaran.
 Ahmedabad mill workers
III. Jallianwala Bagh
IV. Dandi March
GEOGRAPHY
Resources and Major Soil Types
Development
Water Resources  Salal
 Bhakra Nangal
 Tehri
 Rana Pratap Sagar
 Sardar Sarovar
 Hirakud
 Nagarjuna Sagar
 Tungabhadra
Agriculture  Major areas of Rice and Wheat
Largest/ Major producer states of Sugarcane, Tea, Coffee, Rubber,
Cotton and Jute
Minerals and Energy a. Iron Ore mines c. Oil Fields
Resources  Mayurbhanj  Digboi
 Durg  Naharkatia
 Bailadila  Mumbai High
 Bellary  Bassien
 Kudremukh  Kalol
b. Coal Mines  Ankaleshwar
 Raniganj Nuclear Power Plants
 Bokaro  Narora
 Talcher  Kakrapara
 Neyveli  Tarapur
Thermal Power Plants  Kalpakkam
 Namrup
 Singrauli
 Ramagundam
Manufacturing Cotton Textile Industries: Software Technology Parks:
Industries Mumbai Noida
Indore Gandhinagar
Surat Mumbai
Kanpur Pune
Coimbatore Hyderabad
Iron and Steel Plants Bengaluru
Durgapur Chennai
Bokaro Thiruvananthapuram
Jamshedpur
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Bhilai
Vijayanagar
Salem
Lifelines of National Major sea ports International Airports
Economy  Kandla  Amritsar (Raja Sansi - Sri Guru Ram
 Mumbai Dass jee)
 Marmagao  Delhi (Indira Gandhi)
 New Mangalore  Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji)
 Kochi  Chennai (Meenam Bakkam)
 Tuticorin  Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose)
 Chennai  Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)
 Vishakhapatnam
 Paradip
 Haldia

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India- States and capitals

[Link] State Capital


1
2
3
4
5

6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28

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India – States and Capitals

87
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GEOGRAPHY

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Resources and Development - Major Soil Types

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Resources and Development - Major Soil Types

91
Water Resources – Major Dams of India

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Water Resources – Major Dams of India

93
Agriculture - Major rice growing regions

94
Agriculture - Major rice growing regions

95
Agriculture - Major wheat growing regions

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Agriculture - Major wheat growing regions

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Agriculture - Major crops

[Link] Name of the Climatic conditions Type of soil Leading producers


crop

1. Rice

2. Wheat

3. Sugarcane

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4. Coffee

5. Cotton

6. Tea

7. Rubber

8. Jute
Major producer states of Sugarcane, Tea, Coffee, Rubber, Cotton and Jute
Crop State Crop State
Sugarcane Tea
Coffee Rubber
Cotton Jute

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Minerals and Energy Resources – Iron ore mines

100
Minerals and Energy Resources – Iron ore mines

101
Minerals and Energy Resources – Coal Mines

102
Minerals and Energy Resources – Coal Mines

103
Minerals and Energy Resources – Oil fields

104
Minerals and Energy Resources – Oil fields

105
Minerals and Energy Resources – Thermal power plants

106
Minerals and Energy Resources – Thermal power plants

107
Minerals and Energy Resources – Nuclear power plants

108
Minerals and Energy Resources – Nuclear power plants

109
Manufacturing Industries – Cotton textile industries

110
Manufacturing Industries – Cotton textile industries

111
Manufacturing Industries – Iron and steel industries

112
Manufacturing Industries – Iron and steel industries

113
Manufacturing Industries – Software Technology industries

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Manufacturing Industries – Software Technology industries

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Lifelines of National Economy – Major Sae Ports

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Lifelines of National Economy – Major Sae Ports

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Lifelines of National Economy – International Airports

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Lifelines of National Economy – International Airports

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HISTORY

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Nationalism in India – Centres of National Movement

122
Nationalism in India – Centres of National Movement

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Sample map based questions
1. The place where the session of INC was held in September, 1920.

2. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.

3. The Place where Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred.

4. The place where Mahatma Gandhi started Sathyagraha for Indigo peasants.

5. The place where Non-Cooperation Movement was called off due to violence.

6. Haldia – Major Sae port

7. Naraura – Nuclear Power plant

8. Tehri – Dam

9. Hyderabad – International Airport

10. Vijayanagar – Iron and Steel Plant

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PRACTICE MAPS

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