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Class 10 nodia social sample paper 3
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1K views10 pages

Cbjesspu 03

Class 10 nodia social sample paper 3
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

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(a) Criminals. (b) Lost citizens of Central Africa.


(c) Photograph of indentured labourers. (d) None of these.

2. Arrange the following options in the correct sequence-


1. Press came to be made out of metal.
2. Offset press was developed.
3. Gutenberg perfected the system by olive press.
4. China first introduced hand- printing technology into Japan.
Option:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Which treaty, signed in 1815, aimed to restore monarchies in Europe after Napoleon’s defeat and
establish a balance of power?
(a) Treaty of Versailles, which ended World War I and reshaped Europe.
(b) Treaty of Vienna, which restored traditional monarchies and balanced European powers.
(c) Treaty of Paris, which concluded the Napoleonic Wars and redrew European borders.
(d) Treaty of Tordesillas, which divided newly discovered lands between Spain and Portugal.

4. The Indian National Congress launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 under the
leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. Which of the following were objectives of the Non-Cooperation
Movement?
1. Boycott of British goods
2. Surrender of government titles
3. Promotion of Hindu-Muslim unity
4. Acceptance of British reforms
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which of the following is a common method used for rainwater harvesting to conserve water in
rural areas of India?
(a) Building large dams to control river flow and generate electricity.
(b) Constructing tanks and ponds to store rainwater for agricultural use.
(c) Deforestation to increase the amount of water available for irrigation.
(d) Draining wetlands to convert them into agricultural land for farming.

6. Agriculture plays a vital role in the Indian economy. Identify the correct statements related to
Indian agriculture.
1. India is the largest producer of rice and wheat in the world.
2. The Green Revolution significantly increased agricultural productivity in the 1960s.
3. Agriculture in India is entirely dependent on monsoon rains.
4. Horticulture contributes minimally to India’s agricultural sector.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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7. Match the following and choose correct option.


Column-I Column-II
A. Terrace farming 1. Different crops grown parallely
B. Strip cropping 2. Hill slopes are used as cultivable land in the form of flat cut
regions of slope
C. Contour ploughing 3. Along the slope of mountain
D. Crop rotation 4. Different crops grown in systematic succession
Option :
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(d) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

8. Which of the following best describes the term Gender Equality?


(a) Treating individuals differently based on their gender to promote fairness.
(b) Ensuring equal rights, responsibilities, and opportunities for all genders.
(c) Giving preferential treatment to women in all aspects of society.
(d) Maintaining traditional gender roles to preserve cultural values.

9. Political parties play a crucial role in the functioning of a democracy. Which of the following are
functions of political parties in a democracy?
1. Contest elections
2. Formulate policies and programs
3. Ensure military control over government
4. Provide a platform for public debate
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

10. How does democracy contribute to the social development of a country like India?
(a) By restricting access to social services and maintaining traditional structures.
(b) By promoting inclusive policies, ensuring equal opportunities, and addressing social inequalities.
(c) By prioritizing economic growth over social welfare and education.
(d) By centralizing decision-making processes and reducing community involvement.

11. Belgium is known for its power-sharing model. Which of the following are key features of the
power-sharing arrangement in Belgium?
1. Equal representation of Dutch and French-speaking communities in the central government.
2. Special laws require the support of the majority of each linguistic group.
3. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority community.
4. Community government exists for cultural, educational, and language-related matters.
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
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12. Consider the following statements:


Statement I: In a federal system, both the central and state governments have their own powers
and responsibilities.
Statement II: In India, the central government can unilaterally abolish state governments without
any constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. The Indian Constitution provides equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on the basis
of _______, caste, religion, or place of birth.
(a) Education (b) Gender
(c) Wealth (d) Profession

14. What is globalization, and how has it impacted the Indian economy?
(a) Globalization refers to the isolation of national economies, reducing trade and investment
opportunities.
(b) Globalization is the integration of national economies through trade, investment, and technology
exchange, boosting economic growth in India.
(c) Globalization involves the strict regulation of international trade, limiting India’s economic
expansion.
(d) Globalization focuses solely on cultural exchange without affecting economic activities in India.

15. Development has different meanings for different people. Which of the following best describes
development for a rural farmer?
1. Access to modern agricultural tools
2. A high salary in an urban job
3. Better education for their children
4. Owning a large piece of farmland
Options :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) Only 2

16. The primary sector in India involves activities such as agriculture, fishing, and _______ that
directly extract or use natural resources.
(a) Transport (b) Mining
(c) Retail (d) Tourism

17. Consider the following statements:


Statement I: Money serves as a medium of exchange, a unit of account, and a store of value.
Statement II: Credit involves lending and borrowing money with interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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18. Match the columns P and column Q and select correct option :
Column P Column Q
A. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers 1. Automobiles machinery hemo.
B. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate 2. Garments, foot wear, sports.
trade items.
C. Indian companies who have invested abroad. 3. Call centres.
D. IT has helped in spreading of production of services. 4. Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
E. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in 5. Trade barriers
India for production.
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 5, E - 1
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 4
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5
(d) A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 3, E - 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 22 percent land under forests?


(a) It provides timber and forest products.
(b) It is mostly used for industrial purposes.
(c) It is reserved for urban development.
(d) It helps in mineral extraction.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Annual Rainfall (in mm) Irrigated Area (% of total cultivated land)
C 1200 40%
D 600 75%
Why does state D have a higher percentage of irrigated area despite lower rainfall?
(a) It has abundant river systems.
(b) It has better water conservation methods.
(c) It has fewer water storage facilities.
(d) It depends solely on rain-fed agriculture.
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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “World War I transformed global political boundaries.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.
 O
“The Treaty of Versailles was a catalyst for World War II.” Discuss the reasons why the Treaty of
Versailles contributed to the outbreak of World War II.

22. “Water scarcity is a growing global concern.” Explain the reasons behind it.

23. “Gender equality is fundamental to a just society.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Money facilitates trade by eliminating the inefficiencies of barter.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past few decades, the number of banking institutions in India has increased, enhancing
financial inclusion. As a result, banking has become a fundamental part of India’s financial system.
Why has the banking sector become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.

26. “The invention of the printing press revolutionized the dissemination of knowledge.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rohit has started organic farming on his land and wants to improve soil fertility naturally. He is
unfamiliar with organic farming techniques.” Assist him in identifying effective organic farming
practices to enhance soil fertility.
 O
“Anjali plans to cultivate multiple crops on her farm to increase productivity. However, she is
unsure about crop rotation and its benefits.” Guide her in understanding and implementing crop
rotation to improve farm productivity.

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28. “Political parties play a crucial role in a democracy.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

29. With the influx of foreign direct investment (FDI), India’s industrial sector has seen substantial
growth and modernization. Consequently, FDI has become a key driver of India’s economic
development. Why has foreign direct investment become so significant in India? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Treaty of Vienna depicted the spirit of conservatism.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features of the treaty.
 O
‘The Industrial Revolution played a crucial role in the rise of nationalism in Europe.’ Explain the
statement with relevant points.

31. Ravi’s village is located near a coal mine, and he is concerned about its environmental impact.
What are the environmental consequences of coal mining, and how can these be mitigated?
 O
Meena observes that the use of renewable energy is increasing in her town. What are the benefits
of renewable energy sources, and why should they be promoted over non-renewable resources?

32. ‘Democracy is expected to produce a responsive and accountable government.’ Explain how
democracy ensures accountability.
 O
‘The outcomes of democracy must be measured in terms of both political and social indicators.’
Analyse the broader outcomes of democracy.

33. Miss X wants to improve the economic condition of her village. She strongly believes that human
development is a key factor for sustained growth. How can investments in education, healthcare, and
social services contribute to the overall development of her region, and how can this improvement
lead to economic progress? Provide examples and reasons to support your answer.
 O
Mr. P, from a well-developed city, moves to a rural area and finds that despite economic growth,
basic amenities like clean water and schools are lacking. How does this reflect the concept of
development? Suggest ways to improve development in such areas, focusing on both economic and
social factors.

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. As you know, he had come from South Africa
where he had successfully fought the racist-regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which
he called satyagaha. It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice,
then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being
aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence.
On l3 April a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to
protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Other had come to attend the annual
Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had
been imposed. Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd killing
hundreds.
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up
their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by the idea of Satyagraha?
2. By which episode most of the people gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh?
3. Which movement was talking about in the paragraph? What does it mean to the people?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :
Challenges faced by the Jute industry include stiff competition in the international market from
synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and
Thailand. However, the internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of
mandatory use of jute packaging. To stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005,
National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality,
ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare. The main markets are
U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia. The growing global concern
for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the opportunity for jute
products.
Questions :
1. Mention any two challenges faced by ‘jute industry’ in India.
2. What was the main objective of National Jute Policy formulated in 2005 ?
3. How has jute industry once again opened the new opportunities for its products ?

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36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought
to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically
elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding
Tamil.
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official
language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But
their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By
1980’s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and
cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The
arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative.
Questions:
1. Which act recognises the Sinhala as the only official language?
2. Who launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language?
3. How many time Belgium amended their constitution?

SECTION-F
Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.
(B) The place where Salt Law was broken by Mahatma Gandhi.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
Symbols:
(i) Paradwip-Major Seaport
(ii) Noida-Software Technology Park
(iii)Salem-Iron and Steel industry
(iv) Kalpakkam-Nuclear Power Plant

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