BIOLOGY

STUDY MATERIAL
NC - 2026
Class (XI)
blank
 CONTENTS
BOTANY

1. Biological Classification--------------------------------------------------------------------------05

2. Plant Kingdom----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------12

3. Morphology of Flowering plants---------------------------------------------------------------21

4. Anatomy of Flowering plants--------------------------------------------------------------------29

5. Cell : The unit of Life-------------------------------------------------------------------------------36

6. Cell Cycle and Cell Division---------------------------------------------------------------------45

7. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants---------------------------------------------------------------55

8. Respiration in Plants ------------------------------------------------------------------------------66

9. Plant Growth and Development----------------------------------------------------------------74

ZOOLOGY
1. Living World-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------83

2. Animal Kingdom - Non-chordata---------------------------------------------------------------89

3. Animal Kingdom - Chordata---------------------------------------------------------------------99

4. Structural Organization in Animals ( Animal Tissues)-------------------------------- 110

5. Morphology of Animals (Cockroach, Frog)----------------------------------------------- 117

6. Biomolecules--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 127

7. Breathing and Exchange of Gases---------------------------------------------------------- 133

8. Body Fluids and Circulation------------------------------------------------------------------- 141

9. Excretory Products and Their Elimination------------------------------------------------ 150

10. Locomotion and Movement-------------------------------------------------------------------- 160

11. Neural Control and Co-ordination----------------------------------------------------------- 171

12. Chemical Co-ordination and Integration-------------------------------------------------- 180

blank
 Chapter
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
01

SYNOPSIS

• Introduction to Classification

• Aristotle Classification

• 2 Kingdom Classification

• 5 kingdom Classification

1. Criteria

2. Characteristics of the Five Kingdoms

3. Merits and Demerits of 5 kingdom

• Kingdom Monera

• Archaebacteria

• Eubacteria

• Bacteria

• Cyanobacteria

• Mycoplasma

• Kingdom Protista

• Characteristics of Kingdom Protista

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

Classification

Chrysophytes

• Photosynthetic protists Dinoflagellates

Euglenoids

→
• Consumer / Decomposer protists (Saprophytic protists) Slime moulds

Amoeboid

Flagellated
• Protozoans
Ciliated

Sporozoans

• Kingdom Fungi

• Habit, Habitat, Nutrition, Reproduction

• Fungal classification - Characteristics with examples.

• Phycomycetes

• Ascomycetes

• Basidiomycetes

• Deuteromycetes

• Kingdom Plantae

• Kingdom Animalia

• Virus - Characteristics and Structure

• Viroids

• Prions

• Lichens

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. Specialised cells in some of the

Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric N2 is :
LEVEL - I 1) Heterocyst
1. The first scientific classification of plants 2) Pseudopodia
and animals was proposed by :
3) Plasmodium
1) Linnaeus 4) Conidia
2) Aristotle 6. Read the following statements, select the
correct one.
3) Bentham and Hooker
1) Bacteria reproduce only by fission
4) Whittaker
2) Under favourable condition, they produce
2. Match the following : spores.
3) They adopt primitive type of RNA transfer
A) Two kingdom 1) Whittaker
from bacterium to the other.
B) Simple morphological
2) Aristotle 4)Chemo autotrophic bacteria play a great
characters
role in recycling of nutrients.
C) Five kingdom 3) Linnaeus
7. In Five kingdom classification, which

1) A-1, B-3, C-2 kingdom include multicellular, eukaryotic,
saprotrophic organisms with chitinised cell
2) A-2, B-3, C-1 wall :

3) A-3, B-1, C-2 1) Monera 2) Protista

3) Fungi 4) Plantae
4) A-3, B-2, C-1
8. The fundamental and structural units of
3. Which among the following is not a criteria most of the fungi :
of 5 kingdom classification by Whittaker ?
1) Cell 2) Mycelium
1) Mode of nutrition
3) Hyphae 4) Fruiting body
2) Reproduction 9. Which among the following is not a sexual
3) Nuclear membrane spores of fungi :
1) Basidiospore 2) Zoospore
4) Phylogeny
3) Oospore 4) Ascospore
4. Read the following statements and select
the incorrect one related to Archaebacteria: 10. Which of the following belongs to the same
class of fungi. :
1) They survive in marshy areas and
1) Rhizopus, Alternaria, Neurospora,
produce methane
Claviceps
2) They consist of Halophiles live in hot 2) Agaricus, Mucor, Trichoderma, Yeast
springs
3) Penicillium, Claviceps, Neurospora,
3) They differ from bacteria in having a Aspergillus
different cell wall structure
4) Puccinia, Colletotrichum, Pencillium,
4) They live in most of the harsh habitats Albugo

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. Assertion : Life cycle of plants shows 15. Statement I : Lichen is symbiotic
Alternation of Generations. association of algae and
fungi
Reason : Haploid gametophyte
and diploid sporophyte Statement II : Algal component is
alternates with each other mycobiont and fungal
in the life cycle of plants component is phycobiont

1) If both Assertion and Reason are 1) Both the statements are true
true, the Reason is correct explanation of
2) Both statements are wrong
Assertion
3) Statement I is true and II is wrong
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
but reason is not a correct explanation of 4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
Assertion true
LEVEL II
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
false 1. Select the correct match with respect to
Whittaker’s system of classification :
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
1) Monera : Unicellular, producers and
12. Select the correct statement from the
decomposers, true cellulosic cell wall.
following :
2) Protista : Unicellular, eukaryotic,
1) Capsid of virus is chemically Nucleic
photoautotrophs only
acid
3) Fungi : Multicellular / loose tissue,
2) Plant viruses have generally double
eukaryotic, chitinous cell wall
stranded DNA
4) Animalia : Multicellular, eukaryotic,
3) Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed
saprophytic with pectinised cell wall
by Ivanowsky
2. Statement I : According to five
4) Symptoms of viral disease in plants
kingdom classification
include vein-clearing, mosaic formation,
leaf rolling and curling Chlamydomonas and
Chlorella belongs to
13. Viroids differ from virus in having : kingdom Protista along
1) DNA molecule without protein coat with amoeba and
paramoecium
2) RNA molecule with protein coat
Statement II : Chlamydomonas and
3) RNA molecule without protein coat chlorella are unicellular
4) DNA molecule with protein coat prokaryotic organisms.
14. Which of the following disease is not caused Choose the correct option from the following:
by prion :
1) Both the statements are true
1) CJD
2) Both statements are wrong
2) BSE
3) Statement I is true and II is wrong
3) Mad cow disease
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
4) Potato spindle tuber true

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

3. Assertion : Methanogens live as a 6. Assertion : Viruses did not find a

symbiont in the gut of place in five kingdom
several ruminants. classification.

Reason : They are responsible for Reason : They lack a definite cell
production of biogas . structure ie, they are not
considered truly living.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
but reason is not a correct explanation of
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
Assertion
but reason is not a correct explanation of
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false Assertion

3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false

4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
4. Which of the following processes are
involved in the sexual reproduction of 7. Statement I : In Trichoderma, sexual
protista? forms are absent.

1) Binary fission and fragmentation Statement II : Trichoderma, belongs to

basidiomycetes.
2) Spore formation and fragmentation
1) Both the statements are true
3) Cell fusion and zygote formation
2) Both statements are wrong
4) Budding and spore formation
3) Statement I is true and II is wrong
5. Statement I : Protozoans are primitive
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
relatives of animals.
true

Statement II : All protozoans have silica 8. The fungi form sexual fruiting bodies in
shells on their surface. which _____ division occurs, leading to
formation of _____spores.
1) Both the statements are true
1) Mitotic, diploid
2) Both statements are wrong
2) Reduction, haploid
3) Statement I is true and II is wrong
3) Mitotic, haploid
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
true 4) Reduction, diploid

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

9. Match column I with column II. 13. Assertion : Diatoms are chief
producers of ocean.
Reason : Accumulation of silica rich
Column I Column II cell wall of Diatoms are
i) Low molecular weight known as diatomaceous
1. Capsomere
genetic material earth.
2. Viroid ii) Glycogen or Fat 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
3. Animalia iii) Protein units
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
4. Fungi iv) Partially Heterotrophs but reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion
5. Bladderwort v) Heterotrophs
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
1) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v
14. Match column I with column II
2) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-v, 5-iv Column I Column II
3) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v i) Lactobacillus a) Parasitic
4) 1-v, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-ii, 5-i ii) Albugo b) Insectivorous
iii) Amoeba c) Saprophytic
10. Dikaryotic phase found in : iv) Nostoc d) Holozoic
v) Bladder worts e) Autotrophic
1) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
1) i-e, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b, v-a
2) Basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes 2) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-e, v-b
3) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e
3) Deuteromycetes and Ascomycetes
4) i-b, ii-d, iii-e, iv-c, v-a
4) Phycomycetes and Deuteromycetes 15. Read the following statements.
11. Coprophilous fungi are mostly comes under a) Whittaker proposed 5 kingdom
classification as Monera, Protista, Fungi,
the class :
Plantae and Animalia.
1) Ascomycetes b) Acellular forms like viruses and viroids
2) Basidiomycetes as well as lichens were correctly included in
5-kingdom classification.
3) Phycomycetes
c) Classification of plants and animals was
4) Deuteromycetes first proposed by Linnaeus.
d) Aristotle classified all living organisms
12. Viruses possess all the properties except :
into 2 kingdoms : Plantae and Animalia.
1) They are acellular forms e) Most fungi are saprophytic in their mode
2) Possess both DNA and RNA of nutrition and show asexual and sexual
reproduction.
3) Consist of protein and nucleic acids.
The incorrect statement(s) is/are :
4) Have inert crystalline structure outside 1) a, b, c and d 2) b, c and d
their specific host cell 3) c, d and e 4) a and e

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 2 6. 4 11. 1

2. 4 7. 3 12. 4

3. 3 8. 3 13. 3

4. 2 9. 2 14. 4

5. 1 10. 3 15. 3

LEVEL II
1. 3 6. 1 11. 1

2. 3 7. 3 12. 2

3. 2 8. 2 13. 2

4. 3 9. 2 14. 2

5. 3 10. 1 15. 2

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 Chapter
PLANT KINGDOM
02

SYNOPSIS

1. Systems of classification

1) Artificial

2) Natural

3) Phylogenetic

New systematics

• Numerical Taxonomy

• Cytotaxonomy

• Chemotaxonomy

2. Classification of Plant Kingdom

A) Algae

• General characters and Economic importance

• Classification of Algae

• Chlorophyceae - General characters with examples

• Phaeophyceae - General characters with examples

• Rhodophyceae - General characters with examples

Examples strictly based on NCERT

• Life cycle of Algae - Haplontic life cycle.

Exceptions

Diplontic life cycle - Fucus

Haplo-diplontic life cycle - Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia and kelps

B) Bryophytes

- General characters and Economic importance

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

Classification of Bryophytes

BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
1. Liverworts - General characters. Eg. Marchantia

2. Mosses - General characters. Eg. Funaria

Polytrichum

Sphagnum

Life cycle of Bryophytes - Haplo-diplontic life cycle

C) Pteridophytes

- General characters and Economic importance.

Classification of Pteridophytes

1. Psilopsida - Eg. Psilotum

2. Lycopsida - Eg. Selaginella, Lycopodium

3. Sphenopsida - Eg. Equisetum

4. Pteropsida - Eg. Pteris, Dryopteris, Adiantum, Salvinia

- Heterospory and seed habit.

Life Cycle of Pteridophytes

- Haplo-diplontic Life cycle

D) Gymnosperms

- General characters

- Examples - Cycas, Pinus, Ginkgo, Cedrus etc.

Life Cycle of Gymnosperms - Diplontic Life Cycle

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. The thallus of Laminaria is differentiated

into :
LEVEL I
1) Foot, Seta, Capsule
1. Classification for flowering plants, given
by George Bentham and Joseph Dalton 2) Rhizoid, Stem, Leaves
Hooker is :
3) Rhizome, Sporophyll
1) Artificial system
4) Holdfast, Stipe, Frond
2) Natural system

3) Phylogenetic system 6. Which of the following algae belong to the

same class?
4) Numerical Taxonomy
1) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
2. Main plant body of algae is :

1) Haploid, gametophytic thallus 2) Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix

2) Diploid, sporophytic thallus 3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix

3) Haploid, sporophytic thallus 4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria
4) Diploid gametophytic thallus
7. The male and female sex organs in
3. Match the following suitably and select the Bryophytes are respectively :
correct option.
1) Biflagellate antherozoid and egg

a) Motile isogamy 1) Spirogyra 2) Oogonium and antheridium

b) Non-motile isogamy 2) Ulothrix
3) Antheridium and archegonium
c) Anisogamy 3) Volvox, Fucus
d) Oogamy 4) Eudorina 4) Gametophyte and sporophyte

1) a-(2), b-(1), c-(4), d-(3) 8. Choose the correct statement/s from the
following :
2) a-(1), b-(2), c-(3), d-(4)
1) In Bryophytes, the main plant body
3) a-(2), b-(3), c-(1), d-(3)
is gametophyte, which is multicellular,
4) a-(3), b-(1), c-(4), d-(2) photosynthetic and independent.
4. Cell wall of green algae is composed of : 2) During sexual reproduction, male and
1) Inner cellulose and outer algin female sex organs are produced on different
thalli in Marchantia.
2) Inner pectose and outer cellulose
3) In mosses, sporophyte is partially
3) Inner cellulose and outer pectose
dependent on gametophyte.
4) Inner cellulose and outer pectin and
polysulphate esters 4) All statements are correct

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

9. Select the one which is not a moss : 14. Observe and identify the rootless
Pteridophyte from the following.
1) Marchantia

2) Funaria

3) Sphagnum
1)
4) Polytrichum

10. Mature stage of gametophyte in Mosses :

1) Protonema stage

2) Leafy stage

3) Both 1 and 2

4) Prothallus
2)
11. Which of the following feature is not related
to Pteridophytes?

1) First terrestrial plants to possess vascular

tissues - xylem and phloem.

2) Used for medicinal purposes and as soil

binders.

3) Main plant body is sporophyte which is

differentiated into true root, stem and leaves

4) Majority members are heterosporous.

12. Select the Pteridophytes which possess

strobili or cones :

1) Selaginella and Salvinia

3)
2) Selaginella and Equisetum

3) Selaginella and Lycopodium

4) Psilotum and Adiantum

13. In homosporous Pteridophytes, sex organs

are present in :

1) Sporophyte 4)

2) Gametophyte

3) Prothallus

4) Both 2 and 3

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

15. Select the group of plants which produce 20. Assertion (A) : Gymnosperms are called
seeds but lacks fruits and flowers : naked seeded plants.
1) Algae Reason (R) : In Gymnosperms, the
2) Bryophytes ovules are not enclosed
by any ovary wall and
3) Pteridophytes remain exposed, before
4) Gymnosperms and after fertilization.

16. Select the mismatched pair : 1) If (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
1) Sequoia - Tallest Gymnosperm correct explanation of (A).

2) Ginkgo - Dwarf and long shoot 2) If both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
a correct explanation of (A)
3) Pinus - Mycorrhizal root
4) Cedrus - Unbranched Gymnosperm 3) If (A)is true but the (R) is false
17. Which of the following is not true about 4) If both (A) and (R) are false
Cycas ?
1) Possess tap root system and coralloid LEVEL II
roots
1. Consider the following statements regarding
2) Have pinnately compound leaves
Numerical taxonomy and select the correct
3) Male cones and megasporophylls are option.
developed on the same tree
4) Stems are unbranched a) Numerical taxonomy is now easily carried
out using computers.
18. Pollination in Gymnosperm is by :
b) It is based on all observable characters
1) Wind 2) Water
3) Insect 4) Bats c) It considers evolutionary relationship
among organisms.
Assertion Reason Type
19. Assertion (A) : Sphagnum, a moss is d) In numerical taxonomy, number and
used as packing material codes are assigned to all the characters
for trans-shipment of and the data are then processed.
living material.
e) Each character is given equal importance
Reason (R) : Sphagnum that provide
peat, which have the
f) Fewer number of characters can be
capacity to hold water.
considered.
1) If (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). 1) a, b, c are true and d, e, f are wrong
2) If both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not 2) a, b, d and e are true and c, f are wrong
a correct explanation of (A)
3) All statements are correct
3) If (A) is true but the (R) is false
4) If both (A) and (R) are false 4) a, b, c, d are true and e, f are wrong

16
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

2. Read the following statements and select 5. Which group of Algae can produce
the correct option. carrageen and can reproduce asexually
I. Artificial system of classification is mainly by non-motile spores and sexually by non-
based on vegetative characters or on the motile gametes:
androecium structure.
1) Rhodophyceae
II. Natural system of classification were
based on natural affinities among organisms 2) Phaeophyceae
and considered not only the external
features but also internal features. 3) Cyanophyceae
III. Phylogenetic system of classification
is based on evolutionary relationships 4) Chlorophyceae
between various organisms.
6. The multicellular plant body formed from
1) I and II only diploid zygote by mitotic division in mosses
2) II and III only is :
3) I and III only 1) Haploid gametophyte with leaf like, stem
4) I, II and III like and root like structures.
3. Identify the mismatched pairs with respect 2) Diploid sporophyte with foot, seta and
to algae : capsule
3) Diploid sporophyte with true root, stem
Number and
and leaves
Algae Pigment nature of
flagella 4) Haploid thalloid gametophyte with
2-8, unequal, gemma cup
a) Chara Chl. a, b
apical
Chl. a, c 2, unequal, 7. The first stage of gametophyte of Mosses :
b) Laminaria
Fucoxanthin lateral
1) Develops directly from the spore
Chl. a, d
c) Porphyra No flagella
Phycoerythrin 2) Is called primary protonema
Chl. a, c
d) Fucus 2, equal, lateral 3) Is the creeping, green, branched,
Fucoxanthin
filamentous stage
1) a and b
4) All the above
2) a and c
8. Identify the incorrectly matched pair :
3) b and c
4) a and d
Class Example Feature
4. Find out the mismatched pair :
Hetero-
1) Psilopsida Psilotum
1) Volvox - Colonial, motile green alga sporous
2) Spirogyra - Filamentous, green alga Precursor
which possess pyrenoids 2) Lycopsida Selaginella to seed
habit
3) Ectocarpus - Filamentous red alga with
Mannitol / Laminarin as stored food. 3) Sphenopsida Equisetum Strobili

4) Gracilaria and Gelidium - Agar obtaining Macro-

4) Pteropsida Dryopteris
red algae with floridean starch as stored phyllous
food.

17
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

9. Which among the following statements 12. Select the plant group in which the male
are correct regarding gametophyte of and female gametophytes do not have an
Pteridophytes? independent free-living existence.
I) They bear antheridia and archegonia. 1) Algae
II) They require cool, damp and shady
2) Bryophytes
places to grow.
III) The gametophyte is dorsiventrally 3) Homosporous Pteridophytes
flattened without vascular tissue.
4) Gymnosperms
1) I and II only
2) I only 13. Gymnosperms are A ; they produce B
microspore and megaspores.
3) II only
4) All statements are correct A B
10. Read the following statements and select 1) Homosporous Haploid
the correct option.
2) Homosporous Diploid
Statement I : In heterosporous Pterido-
phytes, the megaspores 3) Heterosporous Haploid
and microspores germi-
nate and give rise to female 4) Heterosporous Diploid
and male gametophytes,
respectively. 14. The adaptation/s in conifers to reduce water
loss is/are the presence of :
Statement II : In plant kingdom, all
divisions except algae 1) Needle like leaves
possess embryo.
2) Thick cuticle
1) Statement I is incorrect
2) Statement II is incorrect 3) Sunken stomata
3) Both statements are correct 4) All of the above
4) Both statement are incorrect
15. Which of the following statements are true
11. Read the following statements and choose regarding gymnosperms.
the correct one.
Statement I : The sporophytic plant body i) Stems are branched in Cycas and
of Pteridophytes do not unbranched in Pinus
produce sex organs. ii) Gymnosperms are heterosporous
Statement II : Male gametes are
flagellated and motile iii) Endosperm is 3n in gymnosperm
in Pteridophytes and
iv) The ploidy of pollen grain and
do not require water for
archegonium is 2n
fertilization.
1) Both the statements are true 1) ii and iii
2) Both statements are wrong 2) ii, iii, iv
3) Statement I is true and II is wrong
3) ii only
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
true 4) All statements are true

18
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

16. In Pinus, the ovules are borne on A , which 18. Assertion (A) : Algae are non-vascular
may be clustered to form B . non embryophyte.

Reason (R) : Meiosis never occur in

A B the life cycle of algae.
Compact
1) Microsporophyll 19. Assertion (A) : Bryophytes are also
male strobili
called “Amphibians of
Compact
2) Megasporophyll the plant kingdom”.
female strobili
3) Megasporophyll Lax female strobili Reason (R) : These plants can live in
4) Microsporophyll Lax male strobili soil but are dependent
on water for sexual
Assertion Reason Type
reproduction.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true
20. Assertion (A) : Heterospory in Pterido-
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion. phytes is an event which
is precursor to the seed
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
habit.
but reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion. Reason (R) : In heterosporous Pteri-
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false dophytes, the develop-
ment of the zygotes into
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
young embryos take-
17. Assertion (A) : Rhodophycean algae place within the female
are found in great depths
gametophytes and this
in ocean where relatively
little light penetrates. female gametophyte is
retained on the parent
Reason (R) : Rhodophycean algae
sporophyte.
possess phycoerythrin.

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 2 6. 2 11. 4 16. 4
2. 1 7. 3 12. 2 17. 3
3. 1 8. 4 13. 4 18. 1
4. 3 9. 1 14. 4 19. 1
5. 4 10. 2 15. 4 20. 1

LEVEL II

1. 2 6. 2 11. 3 16. 2

2. 4 7. 4 12. 4 17. 1

3. 4 8. 1 13. 3 18. 3

4. 3 9. 4 14. 4 19. 1

5. 1 10. 3 15. 3 20. 1

20
 Chapter
MORPHOLOGY OF
03 FLOWERING PLANTS

SYNOPSIS
• Parts of Flowering Plant
• Underground parts - Root system
• Aerial parts - Shoot system
• The Root
• Types of root system
1) Tap root system
2) Fibrous root system
3) Adventitious root system
• Regions of the Root
• Functions of Root
• Modifications of Root

Tap root

• Storage

Adventitious root

• To provide additional support

• Prop roots
• Stilt roots
• Respiration
• Pneumatophores
• The stem
• Characteristics and functions
• Modifications of stem
• Underground stems for storage and perennation
• Aerial stems
• Tendrils
• Thorns
• Photosynthetic
• Sub-aerial stems : Creepers
• Runner eg. Grass, Strawberry
• Sucker eg. Banana, Chrysanthemum, Pineapple
• Stolon eg. Mint, Jasmine
• Offset eg. Pistia, Eichhornia

21
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

• The Leaf
• Parts of a leaf
• Venation
• Types of leaves
• Phyllotaxy
• Modifications of leaves
• Tendrils eg. Peas
• Spines eg. Cacti
• Fleshy scale leaves eg. Onion, Garlic
• Phyllode eg. Australian acacia
• Insectivorous plants eg. Pitcher plant and Venus fly trap
• The Inflorescence
• Types of inflorescence
• Racemose
• Cymose
• The Flower
• Terms used to describe flowers
• Parts of a flower
1. Calyx
2. Corolla
• Aestivation
3. Androecium
4. Gynoecium
•Placentation
• The Fruit
• True and false fruit
• Fleshy and Dry fruit
• Parthenocarpic fruit
• The Seed
• Structure of a Dicotyledonous seed
• Structure of Monocotyledonous seed
• Floral formula and floral diagram
eg. Brassicaceae
Description of some important families
1. Malvaceae
2. Brassicaceae / Cruciferae
3. Leguminosae
4. Asteraceae / Compositae
5. Solanaceae
6. Poaceae / Gramineae

22
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. A slender lateral branch arises from the

base of the main axis and after growing
LEVEL - I aerially for some time, arch downwards to
1. Which among the following statement is touch the ground found in :
correct about the description of root system 1) Grass and Strawberry
1) In majority of the monocotyledonous 2) Mint and Jasmine
plants, the direct elongation of radicle leads
to the formation of a long lived primary root 3) Pistia and Eichhornia
2) Root system found in Wheat plant is 4) Banana, Pineapple and Chrysanthemum
fibrous while in Mustard it is tap root system
6. Which of the following part allow leaf blades
3) Tap root system is found in dicot and to flutter in wind, there by cooling the leaf
monocot. and bringing fresh air to leaf surface :
4) All regions of root is involved in absorption 1) Lamina/Leaf blade
2. Find out the mis-matched pair :
2) Stipule
1) Tap root - Carrot
3) Petiole
2) Adventitious root - Sweet Potato
3) Prop root - Banyan tree 4) Leaf base
4) Stilt root - Rhizophora 7. Select the incorrect statement from the
following :
3. The main function/s of stem is/are :
1) Spreading out branches 1) The arrangement of veins and the veinlets
in the lamina of leaf is termed as venation.
2) Conducts water, minerals and
photosynthates 2) Generally dicotyledonous plants possess
3) Storage of food, support, protection and parallel venation
vegetative propagation 3) Pinnately compound leaf is found in
4) All the above Neem
4. Read the following statements and select 4) Palmately compound leaves is found in
the correct option Silk cotton
Statement-I : In Bougainvillea and 8. Which of the following is not a modification
Citrus, thorns are the of leaf :
modification of axillary
bud/stem 1) Pitcher in Nepenthes
Statement-II : In Opuntia, the aerial 2) Tendril of Pea
stem is modified into 3) Thorns in Citrus
green fleshy cylindrical
structure to carry out 4) Spines in Cacti
photosynthesis 9. Common axis on which the flowers are
1) Statement-I and II are correct produced in an inflorescence?
2) Statement I an II are incorrect 1) Pedicel
3) Statement-I is correct, and statement-II is
2) Peduncle
wrong
4) Statement-I is wrong and statement-II is 3) Rachis
correct 4) Petiole

23
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

10. Read the following statements and select 14. Fruit developed from monocarpellary
the correct option : superior ovaries and are one seeded is
found in :
Statement I : The reduced leaf found at
the base of the pedicel is 1) Drupe 2) Berry
called bract.
3) Capsule 4) Legume
Statement II : In some flowers like 15. Assertion : In most of the Dicots, the
Lily, the calyx and corolla seeds are non-endospermic.
are not distinct and are Reason : In such seeds, the endo-
termed as perianth. sperm is completely con-
sumed by the developing
1) Statement I and II are incorrect embryo.
2) Statement I and II are correct 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
wrong 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
but reason is not a correct explanation of
4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II Assertion
is correct 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
11. Choose the set of plants in which the ovary 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
is superior : 16. Which among the following character of
flower cannot be expressed in the floral
1) Plum, Rose, Peach formula :
2) Mustard, Brinjal, China rose 1) Aestivation and Placentation
2) Position of ovary
3) Guava, Cucumber, Ray florets of
Sunflower 3) Fusion of floral leaves
4) Symmetry
4) Plum, Guava, Mustard
17. Which among the following is not a
12. Find out the mis-matched pair : distinguishing character of Brassicaceae/
Cruciferae
1) Apocarpous - Rose and Lotus
1) Presence of four sepals in two whorls
2) Syncarpous - Mustard and Tomato 2) Tetradynamous androecium with dithe-
cous and tetrasporangiate anther
3) Axile placentation - China rose, Lemon
3) Monocarpellary gynoecium with marginal
4) Parietal Placentation - Pea and Dianthus placentation
4) Bisexual, hypogynous and actinomorphic
13. Vexillary or Papilionaceous aestivation is flower
found in :
18. Identify the common character shared by
1) Pea and bean flowers the flower of Poaceae and Asteraceae
1) Tricarpellary gynoecium
2) Calotropis
2) Inferior ovary
3) Lady’s finger and Cotton 3) Pentamerous flower
4) Cassia and Gulmohur 4) Basal placentation

24
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

19. Persistent calyx and oblique ovary with 3. In which of the following plants, stem is
swollen placenta are characteristic of the modified for storage and perennation and is
family : found below the soil :
1) Fabaceae 2) Solanaceae 1) Ginger, Turmeric, Potato
3) Malvaceae 4) Brassicaceae 2) Grass, Strawberry, Mint
20. The similarity of floral or vegetative 3) Acacia, Pea, Onion
characters shared by three families : -
4) Sugarcane, Maize, Wheat
Fabaceae, Solanaceae and Malvaceae:
4. Subaerial stem of some plants spread to
a) Alternate phyllotaxy
new niches and when older parts die new
b) Axile placentation plants are formed in :
c) Tap root system 1) Grass 2) Strawberry
d) Bisexual flower 3) Rhizophora 4) Both 1 & 2
e) Actinomorphic symmetry 5. Eliminate, which is not applicable to stem :
1) a, c and d only 1) The main function of the stem is
spreading out branches bearing leaves,
2) b, c and e only flowers and fruit, conducts water, minerals
3) a, d and e only and photosynthates.

4) b and e only 2) Some stems perform the function of

storage of food like Potato
LEVEL II
3) Some stems provide support like, tendril
1. Which of the following statements are true : of cucumber and protection like, thorns of
a) The cells of the meristematic region Citrus
are very small, thin walled and with dense 4) Absorption of water and minerals
protoplasm.
6. In some leguminous plants, the leaf base
b) Root hairs develop from the region of may become swollen which is called :
maturation.
1) Pulvinus 2) Stipule
c) Roots are modified for storage in Carrot,
Turnip and Sweet potato 3) Lamina 4) Leaf blade

d) Adventitious roots found in Sugarcane 7. Which of the following statement is wrong :

and Banyan tree provide additional support. 1) A leaf is said to be simple, when its lamina
1) a and b only 2) b and c only is entire or when incised, the incisions do
not touch the midrib.
3) b and d only 4) a, b, c and d
2) When the incisions of the lamina reach
2. In some plants like Rhizophora, growing in upto the midrib breaking it into a number of
swampy areas, many roots come out of the leaflets, the leaf is called compound
ground and grow vertically upwards, which
helps to get oxygen for respiration is known 3) A bud is present in the axil of petiole in
as : simple and compound leaves and also in
the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf
1) Prop root 2) Stilt root
4) The stalk of the compound leaf is called
3) Pneumatophores 4) Tuberous root Rachis

25
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. Which one of the following is a mismatched 12. Statement-I : There may be variation
pair : in the length of filaments
within a flower as in Salvia
1) Alternate phyllotaxy - China rose, Mustard and Mustard.
2) Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis, Guava
Statement-II : The stamens in a flower
3) Whorled phyllotaxy - Alstonia may either remain free
(Polyandrous) or may be
4) Pinnately compound leaf - Silk cotton,
united in varying degrees.
Neem
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic 1) Statement I and II are correct
of Racemose inflorescence :
2) Statement I and II are incorrect
1) Indefinite growth of Peduncle
2) Flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal 3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
succession wrong

3) Peduncle always terminate in a flower 4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is

correct
4) Older flowers are at the base and younger
ones are at the tip
13. The ovary is inferior in :
10. Which one of the following is a wrong
statement : 1) Hypogynous flower - Mustard, China rose
and Brinjal
1) A flower having either stamen or carpel is
unisexual
2) Perigynous flower - Plum, Rose, Peach
2) Examples of zygomorphic flowers are
Pea, Gulmohar, Bean, Cassia 3) Epigynous flower - Guava, Cucumber

3) Examples of perigynous flowers are 4) Both 2 and 3

Chinarose, Guava, Cucumber
4) The shape of corolla may be tubular, 14. Scrutinize the diagram and point out the
funnel shaped, wheel shaped, bell shaped placentation found in China rose, Tomato
11. Aestivation seen in China rose, Lady’s and Lemon :
finger and Cotton are :

1) 2)

1) 2)

3) 4)
3) 4)

26
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

15. Which of the following statement is not true? 18. Sheathing leaf base, actinomorphic flower,
presence of sterile and fertile bracts on the
1) Fruit is a mature or ripened ovary, inflorescence axis etc are the characteristic
features of the family
developed after fertilization
1) Poaceae/Gramineae
2) If a fruit is formed without fertilization of 2) Malvaceae
the ovary, it is called parthenocarpic fruit
3) Caesalpiniaceae

3) In Mango the pericarp is well differentiated 4) Mimosaceae

into outer endocarp, middle fleshy edible 19. Read the following statement an select the
mesocarp and inner stony hard epicarp. correct option
Statement-I : Unilocular ovary with mar-
4) In Coconut, fruit is Drupe and mesocarp ginal placentation is com-
is fibrous mon character of all the sub
families of Leguminosae
16. Proteinaceous layer which separates Statement-II : Different type of pulses
endosperm from embryo in Monocot is : and cereals belongs to the
1) Aleurone layer families, Fabaceae and
Poaceae (Gramineae)
2) Scutellum respectively
3) Coleorhiza 1) Statement-I and II are correct
4) Coleoptile
2) Statement-I and II are incorrect
17. Compare column I with column II and
3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
choose the correct option.
wrong
Column-I Column-II 4) Statement-I is wrong and Staement-II is
correct.
a) Gram, Arhar, Sem,
1) Fabaceae
Moong 20. Assertion : The fruits in the families;
Asteraceae and Gramineae
b) Belladona,
are one seeded.
Ashwagandha, 2) Malvaceae
Petunia Reason : Their fruits are developed
c) China rose, Cotton, from the ovary with basal
3) Solanaceae placentation
Lady’s finger
1) Assertion and reason are true, the reason
d) Mustard, Brassica 4) Brassicaceae
is the correct explanation of assertion
1) a-1 ; b-3 ; c-2 ; d-4 2) Assertion and reason are true, reason is
2) a-3 ; b-1 ; c-2 ; d-4 not the correct explanation of assertion

3) a-2 ; b-1 ; c-3 ; d-4 3) Assertion is true, Reason is false

4) a-4 ; b-2 ; c-3 ; d-1 4) Both assertion and reason are false

27
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL-I
1. 2 6. 3 11. 2 16. 1
2. 4 7. 2 12. 4 17. 3
3. 4 8. 3 13. 1 18. 4
4. 3 9. 2 14. 1 19. 2
5. 2 10. 2 15. 1 20. 1

LEVEL-II

1. 4 6. 1 11. 2 16. 1
2. 3 7. 3 12. 1 17. 1
3. 1 8. 4 13. 3 18. 1
4. 4 9. 3 14. 2 19. 1
5. 4 10. 3 15. 3 20. 1

28
 Chapter
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
04

SYNOPSIS
The Tissues:
1. Meristematic 2. Permanent
Meristematic tissues : Classification based on origin and position
Permanent tissues :
1. Simple - Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma
2. Complex - Xylem and phloem
The tissue systems:
i) Epidermal tissue system ii) Ground tissue system iii) Vascular tissue system
Anatomy of Dicotyledonous and monocotyledonous plants.
1. Dicotyledonous root 2. Monocotyledonous root
3. Dicotyledonous stem 4. Monocotyledonous stem
5. Dorsiventral (Dicotyledonous) leaf 6. Isobilateral (Monocotyledonous) leaf
Secondary growth
1. Secondary growth in Dicot stem 2. Secondary growth in Dicot root
Spring wood and autumn wood
Heart wood and sap wood
Periderm formation

29
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

30
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. Read the following statements and select

the correct one(s).
LEVEL - I
i) In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels
1. Tissues are : are the main water transporting elements.
ii) The presence of vessels is a characteristic
1) Groups of cells which are similar in origin
and function feature of angiosperms
iii) Xylem fibres have thin walls and their
2) Group of organs which are similar in
cell walls are made up of cellulose.
origin and function
iv) Xylem parenchyma store food materials
3) Cells which are similar in function but not in the form of starch or fat and other
in origin
substances like tannins.
4) Groups of cells which are not similar in 1) Only (i)
origin and function
2) Both (ii) and (iii)
2. Identify the meristem which is secondary in
3) Both (iii) and (iv)
origin and function from the following
4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
1) Intrafascicular cambium
6. Which among the following is wrong about
2) Interfascicular cambium the components of phloem

3) Intercalary meristem 1) Companion cells and sievetubes are

connected by pit fields between their
4) Apical meristem common longitudinal walls

3. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in : 2) Phloem parenchyma is absent in dicots

3) Phloem parenchyma store substances
1) Possessing unevenly thickened cell wall
like resins, muscilage, latex etc
2) Lacking protoplasm 4) Phloem fibre is generally absent in
primary phloem
3) Containing chloroplasts usually
7. Select correct features with respect to
4) Being meristematic trichomes in shoot system :
4. Which is not correct about sclereids? a) Usually unicellular

1) These are parenchyma cells with b) Branched or unbranched

thickened lignified walls c) May be secretory
2) These are dead cells with very narrow d) Enhance transpiration
lumen
1) a, b, c and d
3) These are commonly found in the shells
2) All except c and d
of nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear etc.
3) All except a and d
4) These are spherical, oval or cylindrical in
shape 4) a, b and c

31
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. The vascular bundles in the stem of most of 11. Derivatives of the secondary meristem in
dicots are conjoint, collateral and open. In the stelar region are :
each of these bundles : 1) Phellem and phelloderm
1) Xylem and phloem are on the same
2) Secondary phloem and primary phloem
radius with phloem towards the pith and
xylem towards the pericycle without a strip 3) Secondary xylem and secondary
of cambium in between them. phloem

2) Xylem and phloem are on the same 4) Primary xylem and secondary phloem
radius with xylem situated towards the pith 12. Read the following statements and choose
and phloem situated towards the pericycle the correct option :
and a strip of cambium in between them
A) Heart wood is durable, dark and central
3) Xylem and phloem are on the different in position
radii
B) Sap wood is the functional part of
4) Xylem and phloem are on the different secondary xylem and is near to vascular
radii with cambium in between them cambium
9. Select a set having correct match : C) Late wood is formed during spring
season.
Dicot stem Monocot stem
1) All are correct
Sclerenchymatous Collenchymatous
1)
hypodermis hypodermis 2) Only A is correct
Parenchymatous Sclerenchymatous 3) Only C is correct
2)
pericycle pericycle
4) Only C is incorrect
Water containing
Epidermis with 13. Lenticels are formed due to rupture in
3) cavities in
trichomes epidermis because of pressure exerted by :
vascular bundles
Closed Vascular Open Vascular 1) Phellem only
4)
Bundles bundles 2) Phelloderm only
10. During water stress, the bulliform cells : 3) Complementary cells only

a) Become turgid 4) All the above

b) Become flaccid 14. Assertion : Bark include all the tissue

outer to vascular cambium.
c) Make the leaves curl inwards
Reason : Bark is formed due to the
d) Make the leaf surface exposed activity of phellogen only
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
The correct options are :
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
1) (a) and (c) 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
2) (b) and (d) but reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion
3) (a) and (d)
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
4) (b) and (c) 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

32
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

15. Match the following columns I and II and 2. In some plants such as sugarcane, the
choose the correct option. length of the internode is variable due to :
1) Activity of apical meristem
Column I Column II 2) Position of axillary buds
Fascicular
vascular 3) Vascular cambial activity
Lateral cambium, 4) Activity of intercalary meristem
A) I.
meristem interfascicular
cambium and 3. Match the following.
cork cambium
Produces dermal Column A Column B
tissue, ground
Apical Primary
B) II tissues and a) Xylem fibre 1)
meristem phloem
vascular tissue
Exarch
b) 2) Roots
xylem
Generally absent
Ray Radial
in primary phloem c) 3)
C) Bast fibres III. parenchyma conduction
but found in
secondary phloem Obliterated
d) Metaphloem 4)
central lumen
Involved in the
conduction 1) (a) - 3; (b) - 1; (c) - 4; (d) - 2
D) Sap wood IV. of water and
minerals from the 2) (a) - 1; (b) - 2; (c) - 3; (d) - 4
root to leaf 3) (a) - 4; (b) - 2; (c) - 1; (d) - 3
1) A-I ; B-II ; C-III ; D-IV 4) (a) - 4; (b) - 2; (c) - 3; (d) - 1
2) A-III ; B-I ; C-II ; D-IV 4. Read the following statements and identify
3) A-I ; B-IV ; C-III ; D-II the correct option
4) A-II ; B-IV ; C-III ; D-I Statement-I: Epidermal tissue system
comprises of epidermis
LEVEL II
and its accessary parts like
1. Select the incorrect statement/s regarding trichome cuticle, stomata
primary meristem from the following : and epidermal hairs.
a) It causes increase in length of the plant
Statement II: Ground tissue system
body
comprises all the different
b) Protoxylem arises from primary meristem, types of simple and complex
but metaxylem arises from secondary tissue.
meristem
1) Statement I and II are correct
c) The regeneration of lost part in grasses is
due to the activity of primary meristem 2) Statement I and statement II is incorrect
d) An axillary bud formation is a lateral 3) Statement I is correct, statement II is
meristem activity. incorrect
1) b and c 2) a and c 4) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) b and d 4) All except a correct

33
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

5. Select the correct pair? 9. Which among the following description is

wrong about Spring wood or Early wood,
1) Conjoint vascular bundles - Leaves
1) They are formed during spring / early
2) Closed vascular bundles - Dicot stem
summer
3) Conjuctive tissue - Monocot stem
2) They are formed due to the differential
4) Endarch xylem - Dicot root activity of vascular cambium
6. Which among the following is not a 3) They are of high density
distinguishing character of dicot stem
4) Vessels formed are having broader
1) Collenchymatous hypodermis lumen.
2) Endodermis represented as starch 10. A monocot leaf differs from dicot leaf in :
sheath
1) Bundle sheath cells around vascular
3) Collateral closed vascular bundles bundles
arranged in a ring
2) Xylem towards adaxial side
4) Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
3) Absence of palisade parenchyma
7. A dicot root can be differentiated from a
monocot root in possessing: 4) Cambium in vascular bundles

i) Usually 2-4 xylem and phloem 11. Vascular cambium in dicot stem is :
patches 1) Partially primary and partially
ii) Collenchymatous hypodermis secondary

iii) Polyarch vascular bundles 2) Completely primary

iv) Radial arrangement of vascular tissue 3) Completely secondary

v) Formation of vascular cambium 4) In some plants completely primary and in

some other completely secondary
1) i, iii and iv 2) ii and v
12. Match list I with list II
3) i and v 4) iii, iv and v
8. How many of the following are characteristics
of monocot stem? List I List II
A) Cork cambium i) Phellem
a) Vascular bundles conjoint and open with
water containing cavity Secondary
B) ii) Phelloderm
cortex
b) Equal sized vascular bundles Complementary
C) iii) Phellogen
c) Presence of sclerenchymatous bundle cells
sheath. D) Cork iv) Lenticels
d) Undifferentiated ground tissue with Choose the correct answer from the option
scattered vascular bundles. given below.
1) a, b and c 1) A- ii; B-iii; C-i; D-iv
2) a and c 2) A- i; B-ii; C-iv; D-i
3) c and d 3) A- iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i
4) All except c 4) A- iii; B-iv; C-ii; D-i

34
 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

13. Which one of the following is correct with 15. Assertion : Spring wood and autumn
respect to secondary growth in Roots? wood appears as alternate
1) Both cork cambium and vascular
concentric rings, constitute
cambium are secondary in origin
annual ring.
2) Vascular cambium is partially primary in
origin Reason : By counting the number of
3) Vascular cambium is initially circular,
annual rings it is possible to
later becomes wavy
determine the age of a tree.
4) All of these
14. How many of the following structures are 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
redifferentiated?
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
a) Interfascicular cambium
b) Secondary xylem 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
c) Primary phloem but reason is not a correct explanation of
d) Complementary cells Assertion
e) Cork
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 1 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I
1. 1 6. 2 11. 3
2. 2 7. 3 12. 4
3. 1 8. 2 13. 3
4. 1 9. 3 14. 3
5. 4 10. 4 15. 1

LEVEL II

1. 3 6. 3 11. 1

2. 4 7. 3 12. 3

3. 4 8. 3 13. 1

4. 3 9. 3 14. 2

5. 1 10. 3 15. 2

35
 Chapter
CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE
05

SYNOPSIS
• Cell-discovered by Robert Hooke (1665) in thin slices of cork (dead cells)
• Leeuwenhoek - discovered the first living cell
• Robert Brown - discovered Nucleus (1831) from orchid root cells.
• Schleiden and Schwann (1839) - Proposed cell theory
• Rudolf Virchow - proposed modified cell theory (1855)
Prokaryotic cell
- consists of the following parts.
• Cell envelope - glycocalyx, Cell wall, cell membrane
• Mesosome
• Ribosome (70s)
• Nucleoid
• Inclusion bodies
• Plasmid
• Flagella, Fimbriae and pili
Structure of Eukaryotic cell
1. Cell membrane - Fluid mosaic model,
2. Cell wall
3. Endomembrane system
- Endoplasmic reticulum
• RER
• SER

- Golgi apparatus
- Lysosome
- Vacuole
36
 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

4. Mitochondria Power house of the cell

5. Plastid - Generally absent in animal cells;

i) Leucoplast colourless plastids stores substances other than pigments.

Subdivided into 3-

a) Amyloplast store starch

b) Elaioplast Store oils and fat

c) Aleuroplast Store proteins

ii) Chloroplast Contain chlorophyll and other pigments

iii) Chromoplast Contain pigments other than chlorophyll

6. Ribosomes - 80s

7. Cytoskeleton - 3 types of proteinaceous structures

a) Microtubules

b) Microfilaments

c) Intermediate filaments

8. Cilia and flagella

- It has 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules

- Consist of an axoneme which is covered by plasma membrane

9. Centrosome and centrioles

- It has 9 + 0 (cart wheel) arrangement of microtubules

10. Nucleus

- It has a nuclear membrane, nucleoplasm, chromatin and nucleolus

- Chromosome :- types of chromosome according to the position of centromere

- Metacentric

- submetacentric

- Acrocentric

- Telocentric

37
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 3. Consider the following statements and

select the correct option:
LEVEL - I Statement-I : Unicellular organisms are
capable of independent
1. Find the matching column-A with column-B existence and performing
with respect to the discovery and contribution the essential functions of
of scientist to cytology: life.

Statement-II : Anything less than a

complete structure of
Column-A Column-B a cell does not ensure
1) Anton Von Lee- A) First proposed independent living.
wenhoek cell theory
1) Only statement-I is true
B) Modified cell
2) Robert Brown theory (Omnis 2) Only statement-II is true
cellula-e-cellula)
3) Both statement I and II are false
C) First observed
3) Robert Hooke 4) Both statement I and II are true
living cell

4) Schleiden & D) First discovered 4. Consider the following statements and select
Schwann nucleus the correct option:

E) First discovered Statement-I : The cytoplasm is the main

5) Rudolf Virchow
cell in cork tissue arena of cellular activities
in both plants and animal
1) 1-C; 2-E; 3-B; 4-D; 5-A cells.

Statement-II : Various chemical reactions

2) 1-D; 2-E; 3-C; 4-B; 5-A occur in cytoplasm to keep
the cell in living state.
3) 1-C; 2-D; 3-E; 4-A; 5-B
1) Statement-I is false
4) 1-B; 2-C; 3-D; 4-A; 5-E 2) Statement-II is false

2. Who proposed the hypothesis that the 3) Only statement I is true

bodies of plants and animals are composed 4) Both statement I & II are true
of cells and products of cells:
5. Identify the length of mycoplasma and
1) Schleiden bacteria respectively

1) 0.1 mm & 1-2 mm

2) Schwann
2) 0.3 mm & 3-5 mm
3) Virchow
3) 0.02 mm & 0.2 mm
4) Schleiden and Schwann 4) 0.2 mm & 10-20 mm

38
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Find the matching pair: 9. How many of the following statements are
false regarding bacterial cell?
Round and biconcave
A) RBC and above 7mm in A) Glycocalyx, the outermost membraneous
diameter structure which is either thick (slime layer)
or thin (capsule) that provide protection
B) WBC Amoeboid
Longest and B) Plasma membrane is selectively
C) Nerve cell permeable
branched human cell
Smallest cell/ C) Possess extrachromosomal circular
D) Mycoplasma
prokaryote double stranded DNA
Largest isolated D) Chromatophore and gas vacuoles
E) Egg of ostrich
single cell are present only in the cytoplasm of
photosynthetic bacteria
1) All matches are correct
E) Cell wall made up of polysaccharides
2) A, B, C, E and amino acids
3) B, C, D only 1) One 2) Two
4) All except A 3) Three 4) Four
7. How many of the following statements are 10. Which of the following is true regarding
true: mesosome:

A) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic A) Formed by the extension of plasma
materials membrane in the form of lamellae, tubules
and vesicles
B) All living cells possess nucleus and
plasma membrane B) Functional analogous to mitochondria
C) Helps to increase surface area of cell
C) In prokaryotes and eukaryotes a semifluid
matrix cytoplasm occupies the volume of D) Involved in DNA replication, cell wall
the cell formation, respiration and secretion of
enzymes
D) Compartmentalisation is present in the
cell of all living organisms 1) A & D only 2) A, B & C

1) One 2) Two 3) A, B & D 4) A, B, C & D

11. Which of the following is true regarding
3) Three 4) Four
inclusion bodies?
8. Which of the following character is not A) Number and type depends on bacterial
related to prokaryotic cell species
A) No membrane bound organelles B) Glycogen granules, phosphate granules,
B) Presence of self replicating linear DNA in cyanophycean granules and gas vacuoles
the cytoplasm are inclusion bodies
C) Membrane bounded and present in all
C) Protein synthesis do not occur
prokayotes
1) A only 2) A & B 1) A only 2) B only
3) B only 4) B & C 3) A & B 4) A, B & C

39
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12. Consider the following statements and 16. Which of the following statement is/are true
select the correct option: regarding middle lamellae?
Statement I : Bacterial flagellum consist A) Ca and Mg pectates are present in equal
of filament, hook and basal amount
body
B) Ca is more prominent
Statement II : Filament is the extension
of cell wall but basal body C) Mg is more prominent
originated from plasma
D) Found in between primary wall of
membrane
adjacent cells, which hold the adjacent cells
1) Only statement-I is true together
2) Only statement-II is true
1) A & D 2) B & D
3) Both statement-I and II are true
3) C & D 4) B only
4) Both statement I and II are false
13. Identify the percentage of lipids and proteins 17. Which of the following is true regarding golgi
in the plasma membrane of human RBC: complex?
1) 52% proteins and 40% lipids A) Play a major role in post-translational
2) 42% lipids and 50% proteins modifications of proteins
3) 40% proteins and 52% lipids B) Packaging of materials
4) 30% lipids and 70% proteins C) Involved in the formation of glycoproteins
14. In plasma membrane, the lateral movement and glycolipids
of proteins occur due to D) Cisternae possess cis face and trans
1) Quasi fluid nature of phospholipids face
2) Cholesterol 1) A only 2) B only
3) Presence of carbohydrates
3) B & D only 4) A, B, C & D
4) All the above
18. Hydrolases, the digestive enzymes formed
15. Consider the following statements and
in lysosomal vesicles are optimally active
select the correct option?
at:
Statement - I : Plasma membrane is
involved in cell growth, 1) Acidic pH 2) Neutral pH
cell division, secretion 3) Alkaline pH 4) Both 1 & 2
and formation of
intercellular junctions. 19. Transport of ions into the vacuole across
tonoplast is:
Statement - II : Cellulosic cell wall is
permeable and non- 1) Passive transport
living rigid structure,
2) Active transport
provide shape to
the cell and act as a 3) Simple diffusion
barrier to undesirable
4) Facilitated diffusion
macromolecules.
1) Statement-I is false 20. The arm ratio in a metacentric chromosome
is
2) Statement-II is true
3) Statement-I & II are true 1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
4) Statement-II is false 3) 1 : 3 4) 2 : 3

40
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

LEVEL-II 4. Which of the following statements is true

regarding plasma membrane?
1. Consider the following statements:
A) Both endocytosis and pumping process
A) Pili is a long tubular protein structure
are active transport
formed in between the adjacent bacteria
during conjugation B) All channel proteins and carrier proteins
are involved in active transport
B) Fimbriae are bristle like proteinaceous
structure C) Neutral solutes and polar molecules move
across the membrane without expenditure
C) In all living organisms, genetic material is
of energy
organised into chromosomes
1) A only 2) A & C
Of the above statements:-
3) B & C 4) A, B & C
1) Only A is true
5. Which of the following statement is false
2) Only B is true
regarding plant cell wall?
3) Only A & C are false
1) Possess cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin
4) A & B are true and proteins

2. Which of the following statements are false 2) The primary wall is capable of growth,
regarding endoplasmic reticulum:- which diminishes as the cell matures

1) Endoplasmic reticulum divides the 3) Galactans, Mannans and Calcium

intracellular space into two distinct carbonate are present in the cell wall of all
compartment plant cells

2) SER is continuous with RER 4) All the above

3) RER consists of cisternae and tubules 6. Which of the following statement is false?\

4) SER is extensive and continuous with the 1) ATP synthase complex present only in
outer membrane of nucleus mitochondria

3. Consider the following statements and 2) Both mitochondria and chloroplast exhibit
select the correct option: endosymbiotic origin by bacteria

Statement-I : The number of mitochondria 3) Chloroplast possess triple membrane

per cell is variable system
depending on the
4) All the above
physiological activity of the
cell. 7. Identify the similarities between mitochondria
and chloroplast:
Statement-II : Mitochondria are essential
for aerobic respiration in all I) Semiautonomous
organisms
II) Replicate by fission
1) Statement-I is false
III) Possess circular ds DNA, 70S ribosomes
2) Statement-II is true and enzymes for phosphorylation
3) Statement-I is true 1) I only 2) III only
4) Statement-I & II are true 3) I & III only 4) I, II & III

41
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. Identify the double membrane bounded 12. Cytoskeletons are

organelle having 70S type of ribosome
present in all eukaryotes: A) Microtubules, microfilaments and
intermediate filaments
1) Chloroplast 2) RER
B) Involved in mechanical support, motility
3) Mitochondria 4) Both 1 & 2 and maintenance of the shape of the cell
9. Protein synthesis occur in
C) Protein structures
A) Cytoplasm of prokaryotes
1) A, B and C
B) Cytoplasm of eukaryotes
2) C only
C) Matrix of mitochondria
D) Stroma of chloroplast 3) A only

1) All except B 2) A only 4) B & C only

3) A & B only 4) A, B, C & D 13. Consider the following statements and
10. Consider the following statements regarding select the correct option:
ribosome: Statement-I : Cart wheel structure present
A) The ribosome of a polysome translate in centriole, axoneme of
the mRNA into proteins in all living organism eukaryotic cilia and basal
body of eukaryotic cilia.
B) 70S type of ribosomes present in the
cytoplasm of prokaryotes. Statement-II : Centrosome present in all
C) 80S type of ribosomes present in eukaryotic cell.
cytoplasm, inside and on the surface of
1) Statement-I is true
organellae.
Of the above statements 2) Statement-II is true

1) All statements are false 3) Both statement-I & II are false

2) All statements are true 4) Both statement-I & II are true
3) Statement B is true 14. Assertion : Cells differ greatly in size,
4) Statement A is false but Statement B & C shape and activities.
are true
Reason : The shape of the cell may
11. Find the matching series vary with the function they
perform

George 1) If both assertion and reason are correct

A) Ribosome 1953
Palade and reason is a correct explanation of
Camillo assertion
B) Golgi apparatus 1988
Golgi
2) If both assertion and reason are correct
Fluid-mosaic and reason is not a correct explanation of
Singer &
C) model of plasma 1971 assertion
Nicolson
membrane
3) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
1) A only 2) A & B
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
3) B & C 4) C only

42
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

15. Assertion : Plasmid DNA is used 18. Which of the following statement is/are true
to monitor bacterial
transformation with foreign I) The interphase nucleus has highly
DNA extended and elaborate nucleoprotein
fibres called chromatin
Reason : Plasmid DNA contains
II) The nuclear matrix called karyolymph/
genes that is responsible for
Nucleoplasm, that contains nucleotides,
resistance to antibiotics
enzymes, RNA etc
1) If both assertion and reason are correct
III) Larger and more numerous nucleoli are
and reason is a correct explanation of
present in cells actively carrying out protein
assertion
synthesis
2) If both assertion and reason are correct
IV) Nucleus is the largest structure in the
and reason is not a correct explanation of
eukaryotic cell
assertion
1) I & II only
3) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
2) All except IV
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
3) II & III only
16. Assertion : Lipids are arranged within
the cell membrane with the 4) I, II, III & IV
hydrophobic tail towards the
inner part. 19. How many of the following statements are
true:
Reason : This ensures that non-polar
tail of saturated hydrocarbon A) Chromosome is a nucleoprotein structure
is protected from the B) Every chromosome has a primary
aqueous environment. constriction but some chromosomes have
1) If both assertion and reason are correct secondary constriction also.
and reason is a correct explanation of C) Satellite chromosomes are present in
assertion human cell.
2) If both assertion and reason are correct D) Kinetochore is a disc shaped protein
and reason is not a correct explanation of found on either side of the centromere.
assertion
1) One 2) Two
3) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
3) Three 4) Four
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
20. Identify the two unit membrane bounded,
17. Identify the arrangement of microtubules in single membrane bounded and non-
the centriole and axoneme region of cilia membraneous organelles respectivley.
respectively
(Cisternae, Golgibodies, Lysosomes,
1) 9 + 2 and 9 + 0 Centrioles, Nucleus, Plastids, Ribosome,
Nucleolus, Mitochondria)
2) 9 + 0 an 9 + 2
1) 3 : 4 : 2 2) 4 : 3 : 2
3) 9 + 1 and 9 + 0
4) 9 + 0 and 9 + 1 3) 2 : 4 : 3 4) 3 : 3 : 3

43
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL-I
1. 3 6. 4 11. 3 16. 2
2. 2 7. 1 12. 3 17. 4
3. 4 8. 4 13. 1 18. 1
4. 4 9. 1 14. 1 19. 2
5. 2 10. 3 15. 3 20. 1

LEVEL-II

1. 4 6. 1 11. 1 16. 1

2. 4 7. 4 12. 1 17. 2

3. 3 8. 3 13. 3 18. 4

4. 2 9. 4 14. 1 19. 4

5. 3 10. 3 15. 1 20. 4

44
 Chapter
CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
06

SYNOPSIS
• The orderly sequence of events by which duplication and division of cell contents occurs
is called cell cycle.

• Cell cycle consists of

i) Interphase (preparatory phase)

ii) M phase (phase of division) / Mitotic phase

Interphase is the period of intense biosynthetic activity

Interphase is divided into three stages:-

i) G1 phase

ii) S phase

iii) G2 phase

• G0 phase

M phase (Cell division)

Two types of cell division

i) Mitosis

ii) Meiosis

Mitosis/Equational Division:

Involve two main segments:

i) Karyokinesis : Division of nucleus

It consists of four stages.

i) Prophase

ii) Metaphase

iii) Anaphase

iv) Telophase

45
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

ii. Cytokinesis : Division of cytoplasm

In animals, cytokinesis by cell furrowing method
In plants, it takesplace by cell plate formation method
Significance of Mitosis
Meiosis/Reduction Division :
Involve two major sequences:-
i. Meiosis I
It involves karyokinesis and cytokinesis
Karyokinesis consists of four main stages:
• Prophase - I
• Metaphase - I
• Anaphase -I
• Telophase-I
Prophase-I is sub divided into five stages:
• Leptotene
• Zygotene
• Pachytene
• Diplotene
• Diakinesis
Cytokinesis I
Interkinesis
ii. Meiosis -II
Involves karyokinesis and cytokinesis
Karyokinesis involves 4 stages
• Prophase - II
• Metaphase - II
• Anaphase -II
• Telophase-II
Cytokinesis II
Significance of Meiosis

46
 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

MITOSIS

(Transition to Metaphase)

47
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

MEIOSIS I

MEIOSIS II

48
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 4. Which of the following statement is/are true

regarding mitosis
LEVEL - I
i) Mitosis takesplace in both diploid and
1. The correct sequence of cell cycle involves : haploid cells
1) G1 G2 S M ii) It occur in somatic / vegetative and
reproductive cells
2) G1 S G2 M
iii) Two daughter cells are formed during
3) M Karyokinesis Cytokinesis mitosis, which are similar to their parental
cell - equational division.
4) G1 S G2 Cytokinesis
Karyokinesis iv) In male honey bee, mitosis takes place
in haploid cells
2. Which of the following statements are false
regarding interphase? 1) i and ii only

a) Interphase lasts for more than 95% of 2) ii only

duration of cell cycle. 3) ii and iii only
b) DNA replication and centrosome 4) All the above
duplication occur in ‘S’ phase 5. Which of the following is true regarding
c) RNA and protein synthesis occurs during prophase :
G1 and G2 phase I. Longest phase in karyokinesis
d) In ‘S’ phase DNA content is doubled II. Centriole moves towards opposite poles
but there is no change in the number of
III. Chromosome condensation is completed
chromosomes
IV. Chromosomal material become
e) In G2 stage DNA content is double the untangled
amount than G1
V. Nucleolus and Nuclear membrane
1) c and d only 2) b and e disintegrates
3) d and e 4) All are correct 1) II and V 2) II, IV and V

3. Statement I : M phase represents the 3) I, II, IV and V 4) All the above

phase when the actual 6. Which of the following events are correct
cell division occurs. regarding metaphase of mitosis :
Statement II : Interphase represents a) Condensation of chromatin material
the phase between two starts
successive M phase.
b) Chromatid separate and move towards
1) Statement I and II are correct opposite poles

2) Statement I and II are incorrect c) Chromosomes are arranged along the

equator
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
d) Two daughter nuclei are found in a cell
wrong
1) c and d 2) c only
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
correct 3) b and c 4) All are correct

49
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

7. Identify the stages : 10. Assertion : Cytokinesis in animal

and plant cell occurs by
cell furrowing and cell
plate formation method
respectively.

Reason : Karyokinesis is not

followed by cytokinesis
leads to syncytium as
in liquid endosperm of
coconut.
1) Anaphase - Telophase
1) If both Assertion and Reason are
2) Anaphase - Metaphase true, the Reason is correct explanation of
3) Late prophase - Late anaphase Assertion

4) Prophase - Anaphase 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,

8. Which of the following options gives the but reason is not a correct explanation of
correct sequence of events during mitosis : Assertion

1) Condensation → Nuclear membrane 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is

dis-assembly → arrangement at equator false
→ centromere division → segregation →
Telophase 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

2) Condensation → Crossing over → 11. Statement I : Exchange of

arrangement at equator →segregation → chromosome segment
Telophase between non sister
3) Condensation → Nuclear membrane dis- chromatids of
assembly → crossing over →segregation homologous pair occur
→ Telophase during pachytene stage
of prophase I.
4) Condensation → arrangement at equator
→bivalent disjunction → segregation → Statement II : In meiosis, division of
Telophase nucleus takesplace
9. Which of the following pair is incorrectly twice but DNA replication
matched : occurs only once.
1) Interphase - Longest phase of cell cycle 1) Statement I and II are correct
2) Metaphase - Chromosomes are aligned 2) Statement I and II are incorrect
on the spindle equator
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
3) Anaphase - Daughter chromosomes
wrong
move towards opposite poles
4) Telophase - Nucleolus and nuclear 4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
membrane disintegrates correct

50
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12. Find the mismatched pair : LEVEL - II

1. The events of cell cycle includes :
1) Terminalisation
- Diakinesis A) Duplication of genome
of chiasmata
2) Synapsis or B) Synthesis of cell constituents
- Zygotene
Bivalent C) Division of duplicated genome
3) Crossing over - Pachytene
D) Division of cytoplasm into daughter cells
Paired duplicated
4) Metaphase II - 1) A and B only
chromosome
13. The diploid phase in the life cycle of sexually 2) B and C only
reproducing organism is restored through : 3) A, B and C only
1) Mitosis
4) A, B, C and D
2) Meiosis only
3) Meiosis and fertilization 2. The phase which marks the period during
which DNA synthesis occurs :
4) Mitosis and fertilization
14. Meiotic metaphase I differ from mitotic 1) S phase 2) M phase
metaphase is :
3) G1 phase 4) G2 phase
1) Chromosomes arranged at equator are
in pairs. 3. Find the mismatched pairs
2) Spindle fibres are not connected to the a) G1 - Interval between mitosis and
kinetochore distribution of DNA
3) Centromere divided longitudinally in b) G2 - DNA replicate in the cytoplasm and
metaphase itself. centriole duplicate
4) Chromosome condensation completed
c) G2 - Protein synthesis and cell growth
15. Match the following column I and column II.
continues
d) G0 - Cells which exit from pre mitotic
Column I Column II
phase
Recombinase
a) 1. Meiosis I 1) b and d
enzyme activated
The genetic 2) b and c
b) nature of gametes 2. Pachytene
determined 3) a, c and d
Chiasmata become 4) a, b and d
c) 3. Diplotene
more visible
Segregation of 4. Metaphase is marked by :
d) Homologous 4. Meiosis II 1) Alignment of chromosomes at the
chromosome equatorial plate

1) a - 3 ; b - 4 ; c - 2 ; d - 1 2) Replication of DNA
2) a - 2 ; b - 4 ; c - 3 ; d - 1 3) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal
3) a - 2 ; b - 4 ; c - 1 ; d - 3 material
4) a - 4 ; b - 2 ; c - 1 ; d - 3 4) Chromatids move to opposite poles

51
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

5. Which of the following event takes place 7. Among the following identify the significance
during anaphase stage of mitosis : of mitosis
I. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochore of a) Leads to growth and involved in cell
chromosomes repair mechanism

II. Centromere split and chromatids b) Maintains nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio

separate c) Maintain constancy of chromosome
III. Chromatids move towards opposite number between parent and daughter
poles cell
d) Involved in asexual reproduction and
IV. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
multicellularity
1) I & II only e) Involved in regeneration and cell
2) II and III only differentiation
1) a, b and e
3) III and IV only
2) c and d only
4) I and IV only
3) d only
6. The events shown below occur during
different phases : 4) All the above

A) Centromere splits, chromatids separate 8. Assertion : Synthesis of DNA

and move to opposite poles, chromatids takesplace in S-phase of
are now called as daughter chromosome interphase
Reason : Centriole duplicates in the
B) Chromosomes cluster at opposite
cytoplasm in animal cell.
poles, decondensation of chromosome,
reappearance of nuclear membrane, Golgi 1) If both Assertion and Reason are
bodies and ER true, the Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion
C) DNA replication
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) Condensation of chromosome complete, but reason is not a correct explanation of
spindle fibres attach to kinetochore and Assertion
chromosome are arranged at equatorial
plate 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is
false
E) Condensation of chromosomal materials
begins. 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
9. The diploid chromosome number of Onion
Which of the following correctly identifies
root tip cells are 16. Then how many
each of the phases described.
chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after
I n t e r - Pro- Meta- Ana- T e l o - S and after M respectively.
phase phase phase phase phase
1) 16, 32, 16
1) C E D A B
2) C D E A B
2) 16, 16, 8
3) C E D B A 3) 16, 16, 16
4) C A D E B 4) 8, 16, 16

52
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

10. How many of the following statements are 12. Find the correct statement from the
true : following :
A) A diploid cell at the completion of meiosis
A) Leptotene and zygotene are short lived have half the number of chromosome and
stages in prophase I DNA content.
B) Chiasmata become more visible in B) A tetrad formed during meiosis consist of
pachytene four chromatids and two centromere.
C) Bivalent disjunction takesplace in
C) Recombination nodule is appears at Anaphase I
zygotene stage
D) After telophase I dyad of haploid cells
D) Tetrad chromosomes are clearly visible are formed.
in zygotene 1) A and B only correct

E) In Meiosis I complete condensation of 2) A and C only correct

chromosomes occurs at diakinesis 3) A and D only correct
4) A, B, C and D correct
1) Two
13. The amount of DNA in each chromosome in
2) One Telophase I is :
1) Half of normal chromosome at G1 phase
3) Four
2) Double of the normal chromosome at G1
4) Three phase
3) 1/4 of the normal chromosome at G1
11. Arrange the following events of meiosis in phase
the correct sequence :
4) Equal to the normal chromosome at G1
A) Terminalisation of chiasmata phase
14. Which is correct about anaphase I of
B) Crossing over Meiosis I :

C) Synapsis 1) Homologous chromosome move towards

the equator.
D) Disjunction of chromosomes 2) There is no division of centromere
3) Each chromosome with one chromatid
E) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
move towards the opposite pole.
The correct sequence is : 4) Crossing over occurs at this stage
15. Consider a diploid cell having 200
1) A B C D E chromosomes. What will be the number
of chromosomes and chromatids in
2) E D C B A metaphase of mitosis and metaphase I of
meiosis.
3) C B D E A
1) 200, 400 2) 200, 200
4) C B E A D 3) 400, 400 4) 200, 800

53
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 2 6. 2 11. 1
2. 4 7. 1 12. 4
3. 1 8. 1 13. 3
4. 4 9. 4 14. 1
5. 3 10. 2 15. 2

LEVEL II
1. 4 6. 1 11. 4
2. 1 7. 4 12. 4
3. 4 8. 2 13. 2
4. 1 9. 3 14. 2
5. 2 10. 1 (A&E) 15. 1

54
 Chapter
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN
07 HIGHER PLANTS

SYNOPSIS

1. Significance

2. Early experiments

• Two leaf / variegated leaf experiment

• Half-leaf experiment

• Bell-Jar experiment

• Hydrilla experiment

• Jan Ingenhousz - Proposed the importance of sunlight in photosynthesis

• Julius Von Sachs - Proposed that starch is the first visible and storage product of
photosynthesis

• Cornelius Van Niel - Proposed that H2S is the hydrogen donor of photosynthesis in
photosynthetic bacteria.

3. Photosynthetic apparatus - Chloroplast

4. Pigments involved in photosynthesis

Chlorophyll a – Major pigment

}
Chlorophyll b
Carotene Accessory pigments
Xanthophyll

55
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

5. Pigment systems:

• Pigment system I - P700

• Pigment system II – P680

• LHC

• LHS

6. Absorption spectrum

7. Action spectrum

8. Mechanism of photosynthesis - Two phases

1. Light reaction/photochemical phase

2. Dark reaction/Biosynthetic phase

Light reaction

a. Photolysis of water

b. Photophosphorylation - Two types, cyclic and noncyclic

c. Chemiosmotic hypothesis

Dark reaction - Light independent phase

Various pathways of carbondioxide fixation:

1. C3 pathway/Calvin cycle

2. C4 pathway/Hatch and Slack cycle

10. Photorespiration - A metabolically adjunct to Calvin cycle in C3 plants

Three cell organelles are involved

♦ Chloroplast

♦ Peroxisome

♦ Mitochondria

11. Factors affecting photosynthesis (Blackmann’s law of limiting factor)

56
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 4. Find the mis-matching series :

LEVEL - I Essential
A) Joseph Bell jar role of air in
1. Select the true statements regarding Priestly experiment the growth
of plants
significance of photosynthesis :
B) Jan
i) Photosynthesis provide food to organisms Hydrilla Importance
Ingenhousz experiment of sunlight
directly or indirectly.
ii) Photosynthesis has great role in purifying Reserve
1854
C) Julius Von food
air by consuming CO2 and releasing O2; Sachs material is
helpful in maintaining percentage of O2 and starch
CO2 constantly in the atmosphere.
Action
iii) Major/most abundant plant pigment is Cladophora spectrum
chlorophyll a D) T.W and aerobic and
Engelman bacteria absorption
iv) Chlorophyll b, carotene and xanthophyll spectrum
are accessory pigments.
Green and H2S is the
v) Photosynthesis occur in green parts of E) Cornelius purple hydrogen
Van Niel
the plant mainly in leaves, phylloclade, bacteria donor
cladode, phyllode and assimilatory roots of Law of
certain plants. F) F.F limiting 1905
Blackmann factor
1) i, ii, iii and iv 2) i, ii and iv
1) A & C 2) B & E
3) i and ii only 4) All of these
3) All except C 4) D only
2. Carbohydrates, the most abundant
biomolecule on earth, are produced by : 5. Consider the following statements :
1) Some bacteria, fungi and few algae A) All the chlorophyll a pigments present
2) Fungi, algae and all plants in PS I absorb light in the region of same
wavelength.
3) All bacteria, green plant cells and algae
4) Algae, green plant cells, some bacteria B) Two different photosystems exist with
and few protista same forms of chlorophyll a as the reaction
centre.
3. Consider the following statements and
select the correct option. C) All photoautotrophs which evolve
Statement I : Two leaf/ variegated leaf oxygen during photosynthesis possess
experiments prove that chlorophyll a
photosynthesis occur in D) Chlorophyll a present in both the reaction
chlorophyll containing green centre and antenna region, but chlorophyll
parts of the plant body. b and carotenoid present in antenna
Statement II : Half-leaf experiment pro- region only.
posed the importance of Of the above statements ;
CO2 in photosynthesis.
1) All except B are true
1) Statement I is false
2) Statement II is false 2) All statements are true
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false 3) A and B are false
4) Both statement I and II are true 4) C and D are false

57
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Identify the number of photosystem I and 10. Consider the following statements and
photosystem II in the membrane of grana select the correct option :
thylakoid respectively :
Statement I : In chloroplast, number of
1) One and one protons found maximum in
both stroma and lumen.
2) Two and two
Statement II : The enzymes for light
3) One and two
dependent reactions are
4) Indefinite present in both thylakoid
membrane and stroma.
7. Light harvesting system (LHS) consists of
1) Statement I and statement II are false
1) Chlorophyll a and carotenoids only
2) Statement I and statement II are true
2) Chlorophyll b and carotenoids only
3) Statement I is true
3) Carotenoids, chlorophyll b and reaction
4) Statement II is true
centre
11. How many number of reaction centre
4) All the pigments except chlorophyll a in
present in a single photosystem:
the reaction centre
1) One
8. Identify the function of accessory pigments
in a photosystem : 2) Three

A) Absorption of light 3) Two

B) Provide electrons to electron trans- 4) Four

port chain
12. How many of the following statements are
C) Provide protection to chlorophyll a from false :
photo-oxidation
A) Photoexcitation of chlorophyll pigments
1) A only is the first step of photosynthesis

2) A and B B) The main objective of light phase

reaction during photosynthesis is the
3) B only
synthesis of ATP and NADPH2, high energy
4) A and C intermediate and evolution of oxygen.

9. What happens, if a plant has high C) Photophosphorylation occur on the

concentration of chlorophyll b, but lacks basis of chemi-osmotic hypothesis.
chlorophyll a :
D) ATP synthase complex present in the
1) Photosynthesis occurs membrane of grana thylakoid only.
2) Photosynthesis does not occur 1) One

3) Photosynthesis occurs, but rate of pho- 2) Two

tosynthesis decreases
3) Three
4) Photosynthesis occurs, but rate of pho-
4) Four
tosynthesis increase

58
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

13. Identify the source of electron of cyclic 16. During Calvin cycle, the consumption of
electron transport and non-cyclic electron ATP occur in :
transport respectively : 1) Carboxylation
1) LHS and PS II 2) Reduction
2) Reaction centre (P680) and LHS 3) Regeneration

3) Reaction centre (P700) and Reaction 4) Both 2 and 3

centre (P680) 17. Identify the total number of ATP, NADPH2
4) LHS and H2O consumed and number of glucose
synthesized during a single calvin cycle
14. Photo-oxidation of water occur during : respectively :
1) Non-cyclic electron transport; occur in 1) One, two , one
association with PS II; present in lumen
2) Three, two, zero
of grana thylakoid; proton released into
lumen. 3) One, three, one

2) Cyclic electron transport occur in 4) Three, three, zero

association with P680; present in lumen of 18. Which of the following statement is true
grana and stroma thylakoid regarding C4 plants :

3) Non-cyclic electron transport occur in A) Found only in dry tropical region

association with PS II; present in luminal B) Involve certain dicots and monocots
surface of grana thylakoid; protons and
C) Respond to higher temperature
oxygen are released into lumen and
atmosphere respectively. D) Exhibit chloroplast dimorphism /Kranz
anatomy
4) Cyclic electron transport in association
with PS I; present in luminal surface of 1) A, B, C and D
grana thylakoid; oxygen released into 2) A, C and D
atmosphere.
3) B, C and D
15. With regard to photosynthesis occuring in 4) C and D only
chloroplast, chemiosmotic hypothesis is
19. Identify the number of ATP, NADPH2 and
applicable to :
glucose synthesized in photorespiration
1) Only cyclic photophosphorylation respectively :

2) Only non-cyclic photophosphorylation 1) One, one, one

3) Both light reaction and dark reaction 2) One, two , zero

4) Both cyclic and non-cyclic electron 3) Two, two, one

transport 4) Zero, zero, zero

59
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

20. Consider the following statements and 2. Consider the following graph given below
select the correct option : and select the correct option

Statement I : Both internal and

external factors
affecting photosynthesis
are dependent on the
genetic predisposition
and growth of the plant.
Statement II : If a chemical process is
affected by more than
one factor, then its rate
will be determined by the
factor which is nearest
to its minimal value, it is
the factor which directly
affect the process if its
quantity is changed

1) Statement I is false

2) Statement II is false

3) Both statement I and II are true

4) Both statement I and II are false

A) There is a complete one to one overlap
LEVEL -II
between absorption spectrum of chlorophyll
1. Consider the following data with respect to
a and action spectrum of photosynthesis.
chromatogram and select the correct option :
1) Orange Carotene
Yellow Xanthophyll
B) No complete one to one overlap between
Yellow-green Chlorophyll b absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a and
Blue-green Chlorophyll a action spectrum of photosynthesis
2) Yellow Xanthophyll
Orange Carotene C) Rate of absorption maximum in blue light
Yellow-green Chlorophyll b and rate of photosynthesis occur maximum
Blue-green Chlorophyll a
in red light.
3) Orange Carotene
Yellow Xanthophyll 1) A and C are true
Blue-green Chlorophyll a
Yellow-green Chlorophyll b 2) B and C are true
4) Blue-green Chlorophyll a
3) B is false
Yellow-green Chlorophyll b
Orange Carotene
4) A and C are false
Yellow Xanthophyll

60
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

3. Consider the following statements ; 4. Observe and identify the part (A, B, C, D) in
the figure.

I. Flow of electrons from donor to acceptor

molecule in electron transport chain
occurs along increasing redox potential
values

II. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

results in the formation of ATP, NADPH2
and O2

III. Cyclic photophophorylation results in

the formation of ATP only
1) A Strong reductant
B Mobile carrier
IV. During photosynthetic electron
C Copper containing protein
transport, ATP synthesis occur in
accordance with downhill movement of D Proton pump
electron and redox potential scale. 2) A Strong oxidant
B Mobile carrier
V. In Cyclic photophosphorylation, the C Copper containing protein
electron released by reaction centre
D Proton pump
(P700) is ultimately returned back to the
3) A Strong oxidant
original reaction centre.
B Proton pump
C Connecting plug between PS II
Of the above statements ;
and PS I
D Facilitated diffusion channel/
1) All statements are correct
Transmembrane channel
4) A Strong reductant
2) All statements are false
B Proton pump
C Connecting plug between PS II
3) Only IV is false
and PS I
D Facilitated diffusion channel/
4) Only II and III are true Transmembrane channel

61
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

5. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis,che- 8. How many CO2 molecules are used up by

miosmosis occur through : maize and sorghum in one C4 cycle and
one C3 cycle respectively :
1) CF0 of ATP synthase complex : Protons
and electrons 1) 12 and 6

2) CF0 and CF1 of ATP synthase complex : 2) 6 and 6

Protons
3) 1 and 1
3) CF0 of ATP synthase complex : Protons

4) PQ and CF0 : Protons and electrons 4) 2 and 3

6. Primary carboxylation enzyme of calvin 9. As compared to C3 plants, how many

cycle is present in : additional molecules of ATP are needed for
A) Stroma of chloroplast of mesophyll - net production of one molecule of hexose
C3 plants sugar by C4 plants :

B) Stroma of chloroplast of bundle sheath - 1) Two

C4 plants
2) Six
C) C3 plants only
D) All photosynthesizing plants 3) Five
1) A & B only 2) A, B & C
4) Twelve
3) A, B & D 4) A& C
10. Consider the following statements and
7. How many of the following statements are select the correct option :
true regarding C4 photosynthesis :
A) The objective of the pathway is to build Statement I : RubisCO has much greater
up high concentration of CO2 in vicinity of affinity for CO2 when the
RuBisCO in the bundle sheath and to avoid CO2 and O2 is nearly equal
photorespiration. to the atmosphere.
B) Light reactions and primary
Statement II : Binding of CO2 or O2 is
carboxylation reaction occur in mesophyll
competitive and relative
and carbohydrate synthesis occur in bundle
sheath. concentration of O2 and CO2
determine which will bind to
C) No synthesis of glucose occur in C4 cycle; the enzyme.
it is a way to concentrate CO2 in bundle
sheath for C3 cycle 1) Statement I is false
D) Involve both C4 cycle and C3 cycle ; every
C4 cycle consume 2 ATP and every C3 cycle 2) Statement II is false
consume 3 ATP
3) Both statement I and II are false
1) One 2) Two
4) Both statement I and II are true
3) Three 4) Four

62
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. Which of the following is true regarding 14. Observe and identify A, B, C, D, E in the
photorespiration ? given graph :
I) Occur in all green cells of C3 and C4
plants
II) Occur when concentration of O2
increases and CO2 decreases.
III) More than one cell organells are
involved.
1) I is true
2) I and II are true
3) II and III are true
4) I, II and III are true
12. Find the mismatching pair

Column A Column B
Plants/ Pathway Function of RubisCo
Column I Column II
Both carboxylation &
A C3 plants Some factor other
oxygenation
B C2 cycle Only oxygenation than light intensity
I A represents A
is becoming the
C C3 cycle Only carboxylation limiting factor
D C4 plants Only carboxylation
Both carboxylation & Light is no longer
E C4 cycle II B represents B
oxygenation limiting factor

1) Both A & C 2) Both C & E

III C represents C Light intensity
3) Both D & E 4) E only
13. Consider the following statements and Maximum rate of
IV D represents D
photosynthesis
select the correct option :
Statement I : Photosynthesis is an oxidore- Saturation point
V E represents E
duction, endergonic and for light intensity
physicochemical process.
Statement II : Two types of enzymes are
1) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV - D, V - E
involved in carbondioxide
fixation in all plants that
undergo photosynthesis. 2) I - C, II - A, III - B, IV - E, V - D

1) Statement I is true
3) I - D, II - B, III - E, IV - C, V - A
2) Statement II is true
3) Both the statements are true
4) Both the statements are false 4) I - E, II - D, III - C, IV - B, V - A

63
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

15. Consider the following statements and Assertion - Reason Type Questions
select the correct option. 1) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of as-
A) Carbondioxide fixation rate increases in
sertion.
both C3 and C4 plants under high CO2 and
high light conditions. 2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct explanation of
B) C3 plants respond to increased assertion.
temperature and carbondioxide saturation 3) If assertion is true but reason is false
−1
is seen only below 360 µ / L 4) If both assertion and reason are false
C) Tropical plants have higher temperature 16. Assertion : Dark reaction is a
optimum than the plants adapted to misnomer.
temperate climate Reason : The chemical reactions
of Calvin cycle is light
D) PEPcase is the most efficient enzyme independent but it occur only
for carboxylation if the carbondioxide in day time and dependent
concentration is limiting in the atmosphere; on product of light reaction.
PEPcase present in both C3 and C4 plants
but photosynthetically involved in C4 17. Assertion : Plants in which Hatch and
plants. Slack’s cycle is operated is

E) Water is the least limiting factor of called C4 plants.

photosynthesis ; water stress causes Reason : First stable product formed
stomata to close and also make leaf wilt during this cycle is 4 carbon,
thus reducing surface area of leaf and their
metabolic activity as well. oxaloacetic acid.
18. Assertion : Except for plants in shade
1) A and B are false or in dense forest, light is
rarely a limiting factor in
2) B is false nature.
3) A, B and C are true Reason : Increase in incident light
4) C, D and E only are true beyond a point causes the
breakdown of chlorophyll
and decrease in photosyn-
thesis.

64
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL-I

1. 3 6. 4 11. 1 16. 4
2. 4 7. 4 12. 2 17. 2
3. 4 8. 4 13. 3 18. 3
4. 4 9. 2 14. 3 19. 4
5. 3 10. 1 15. 4 20. 1

LEVEL-II

1. 3 6. 3 11. 3 16. 1
2. 2 7. 4 12. 4 17. 1
3. 1 8. 3 13. 1 18. 2
4. 3 9. 4 14. 2
5. 3 10. 4 15. 2

65
 Chapter
RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
08

SYNOPSIS
• Respiratory Substrates :
• Carbohydrates
• Fats
• Proteins
• Organic acids
• Respiratory quotient/Respiratory ratio :
Volume of CO2 evolved
• RQ =
Volume of O2 consumed
• RQ value varies depending upon the substrate
• Carbohydrates - RQ value is one
• Fats - RQ value is less than one
• Proteins - RQ value is less than one
• Organic acids - RQ value is greater than one
• Anaerobic respiration - RQ value is infinity
• Different types of respiration :
• Anaerobic respiration
• Aerobic respiration
• Phases of anaerobic respiration
• Glycolysis

• Fermentation
• Phases of Aerobic respiration
• Glycolysis
• Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
• Electron Transport System(ETS) and Oxidative Phosphorylation

66
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 4. How many oxidations, decarboxylations

and substrate level phosphorylations are
LEVEL - I there in a Krebs cycle :
1. Energy released by oxidation of respiratory 1) 5, 3, 1 2) 4, 2, 1
substrates :
3) 3, 2, 1 4) 8, 4, 2
1) Comes out in a single step to increase
the possibility of maximum ATP production. 5. Read the following statments and select the
correct option.
2) Is not used directly.
Statement I : The TCA cycle starts with
3) Is trapped as chemical energy in the the condensation of acetyl
energy currency of the cell. group with OAA and water to
yield citric acid, catalysed by
4) Both 2 and 3 the enzyme citrate synthase.

2. Read the following statements with respect Statement II : There is a net gain of 38 ATP
to glycolysis and select the true statements molecules during aerobic
respiration of one molecule
i) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to of glucose
form one molecule of pyruvic acid.
1) Statement I and II are correct
ii) Four ATP are produced through substrate
level phosphorylation and 2 ATP used 2) Statement I and II are incorrect
up. 3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
iii) No oxidation occur during glycolysis. wrong
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
iv) Reactions are common to both aerobic
correct
and anaerobic respiration.
6. Match the items in column I with that of
v) It occurs in the cytoplasm of cells of both column II and select the correct option.
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Column I Column II
1) (i) and (iii) only 2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
A) Krebs cycle 1) Ethanol and CO2
3) (ii), (iii) and (v) 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Anaerobic
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect B) 2) Pyruvic acid
respiration
about the given reaction?
Mitochondrial
C) Glycolysis 3)
(A) + Co.A + NAD 
(B)
→(C) + CO 2 + NADH + H
+ + matrix
Inner
1) A is a 3C compound (pyruvic acid) and C D) ETS 4) mitochondrial
is a 2C compound (Acetyl Co. A). membrane
2) B is pyruvate decarboxylase, which is 1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
the catalyst in this reaction.
2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3) Mg++ is the activator in the process
3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
4) The process is oxidative decarboxylation
of pyruvate in mitochondrial matrix. 4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

67
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

7. Which among the following stages of 11. Net gain of ATP during anaerobic respiration
aerobic respiration takesplace in the matrix is _______ and are formed through ______
of the cell organelle, that is referred to as
“Power house of the cell”. 1) 2; Oxidative phosphorylation
i) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
2) 2; Substrate level phosphorylation
ii) Glycolysis
iii) Krebs cycle 3) 4; Oxidative phosphorylation
iv) Oxidative phosphorylation 4) 4; Substrate level phosphorylation
1) i and ii 2) iii and iv
12. Common pathway of aerobic respiration
3) i and iii 4) i and iv
and fermentation is :
8. Arrange the following intermediates of
the TCA cycle in the correct order of their 1) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
formation.
2) Formation of pyruvic acid in cytoplasm
A) Citric acid
B) Malic acid 3) Complete oxidation of Acetyl Co. A

C) Alpha-ketoglutaric acid 4) Oxidative phosphorylation

D) Succinic acid
13. Assertion (A) : There are three major
1) A, D, C, B 2) A, C, D, B ways in which different
3) A, C, B,D 4) A, B, D, C cells handle pyruvic acid
9. Which of the following is not required for the produced by glycolysis,
mitochondrial ETS? they are lactic acid
1) NADH + H+ and FADH2 fermentation, alcoholic
2) ATP and H2O fermentation and aerobic
respiration.
3) FMN and Ubiquinone
4) Cytochromes Reason (R) : Fermentation is different
10. Which among the following sentence is from aerobic respiration in
wrong about the structure / arrangement of having partial breakdown
enzyme complexes in ETC. of glucose and in
1) Complex IV refers to cytochrome c producing less ATP per
oxidase complex containing cytochromes a glucose.
and a3 and two copper centres.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
2) The number of ATP molecule synthesised
depends on the nature of the electron donor. Reason is correct explanation of Assertion

3) Cytochrome c is a small protein attached 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
to the inner surface of outer membrane and but reason is not a correct explanation of
act as a mobile carrier.
Assertion
4) Oxidation of one molecule of NADH2
gives rise to 3 molecules of ATP and while 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
that of one molecule of FADH2 produces 2
ATP 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

68
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

14. Which among the following are assumptions LEVEL II

to make calculations of the net gain of ATP
1. Glycolysis occurs in the X and
from one molecule of glucose? produces Y , which in the presence of
O2 enters the Z . Identify X, Y and Z.
a) NADH synthesised in glycolysis is
transferred into the mitochondria and X Y Z
undergoes oxidative phosphorylation. Mitochon-
1) Pyruvate Cytoplasm
b) None of the intermediates in the pathway drion

are utilised to synthesise any other 2) Peroxisome Pyruvate Chloroplast

compound.
3) Cytoplasm Pyruvate Mitochondrion
c) Glucose, fat, protein or organic acids are
4) Cytoplasm Glucose Mitochondrion
respired.

d) There is a linear pathway where substrate 2. Read the following statements with respect
is oxidised in one step only. to EMP pathway and state whether it is

e) In living organisms, respiratory substrates True (T) or False (F), and select the correct

are often more than one, pure proteins or option.

fats are used as respiratory substrates. A) Trioses formed during glycolysis are
1) c and d only DHAP and PGAL.

2) a and b only B) There are two decarboxylation steps in

3) a and e only glycolysis.

4) b and e only C) NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ between

PGAL and BPGA.
15. Which among the following respiratory
substrate can have R.Q. value less than D) Glucose is phosphorylated to give rise
one ? Glucose-6-phosphate by the activity of the

a) Carbohydrate enzyme hexokinase.

b) Fat E) Two redox equivalents are removed in

EMP pathway during the formation of one
c) Protein
BPGA from one PGAL.
d) Organic acid

1) b only
A B C D E
2) b and c 1) T F T T T
2) T F T F F
3) c only
3) F F T F T
4) d only 4) T T T F F

69
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

3. The energy yielding steps in Glycolysis 6. Find out the correct statement/s associated
are:- with alcoholic fermentation :
A) Glucose Glucose - 6 - phosphate a) Oxidation of NADH2 to NAD+
b) Net gain of 2ATP.
B) Fructose - 6 - phosphate
c) Less than 7% of energy in glucose is
Fructose - 1, 6 - Bisphosphate released.
C) BPGA 3PGA d) NADH2, the product of glycolysis is
consumed in fermentation.
D) PEP Pyruvic acid
e) The enzymes, pyruvic acid decarboxylase
1) A and B 2) B and C and alcohol dehydrogenase catalyses the
reactions.
3) A and D 4) C and D
1) a, b and d only
4. How many molecules of CO2, NADH2,
2) b, c and d only
FADH2 and GTP are produced from one
glucose molecule: 3) c, d and e only
4) All statements are correct
1) 6 CO2, 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP 7. The following diagram shows major
2) 3 CO2, 4 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP pathways of anaerobic respiration. Identify
A, B & C and select the correct option.
3) 2 CO2, 3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 GTP
4) 4 CO2, 6 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP
5. Match the following suitably :

Column I Column II
a) Complex I 1) ATP synthase
Cytochrome
c oxidase
b) Complex II 2) complex
[Cyt. a, a3 & 2
copper centres]
Cytochrome bc1
c) Complex III 3)
complex

Succinate
d) Complex IV 4)
dehydrogenase

NADH
e) Complex V 5) A B C
dehydrogenase
1) PGAL Lactic acid Ethanol
1) (a)-5; (b)-4; (c)-3, (d)-2; (e)-1
2) (a)-5; (b)-2; (c)-3, (d)-4; (e)-1 2) Lactic acid PGAL Ethanol

3) (a)-1; (b)-2; (c)-3, (d)-4; (e)-5 3) Ethanol PGAL Lactic acid

4) (a)-1; (b)-4; (c)-3, (d)-2; (e)-5 4) PGAL Ethanol Lactic acid

70
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. Which of the following step lack 10. Which of the following statement/s is/are
decarboxylation : false with regards to respiratory electron
transport system :
i) Pyruvate Acetyl Co. A
A) When electron transport occur in
ii) Oxalosuccinic acid α- ketoglutaric
acid mitochondrial inner membrane, ubiquinone
receives electrons of both NADH2 and
iii) Pyruvic acid Ethanol FADH2.

iv) Pyruvic acid Lactic acid B) Ubiquinone and Cytochrome c are seen
independently in the inner membrane and
v) α-ketoglutaric acid Succinyl Co. A
receive electrons from complex II only.
1) i and ii only C) During cellular respiration, the energy
2) iv only of oxidation - reduction reactions are
utilised for the production of proton gradient
3) ii and v only required for phosphorylation.
4) v only D) Although the aerobic process of
9. Given below are two statements respiration takes place only in the presence
of oxygen, the role of oxygen is limited to
Statement I : The NAD+ in cellular the terminal stage of the process.
respiration functions as an
1) A only 2) B & C
electron carrier.
3) C & D 4) B only
Statement II : The metabolite which is
11. Consider the following statements and
common to respiration
select the correct option :
mediated breakdown of fats,
carbohydrates and proteins Statement I : Active transport of protons
occur through F0 part of
is acetyl Co.A.
oxysome during respiratory
In the light of the above statements choose electron transport in
the most appropriate answer from the mitochondria.
options given below.
Statement II : Reduced coenzymes
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (NADH2 & FADH2 ) are the
correct
electron donor of respiratory
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are electron transport system.
incorrect
1) Statement I is true
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect 2) Statement II is true

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II 3) Both the statement I and II are false
is correct
4) Both the statement I and II are true

71
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

12. Read the following statements and select Assertion - Reason Type Questions
the correct option about the crucial events
in aerobic respiration : 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Statement I : The complete oxidation of the Reason is the correct explanation of
pyruvate by the stepwise Assertion
removal of all the hydrogen
atoms, leaving three 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
molecules of CO2. but reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
Statement II : The passing on of the
electrons removed as part
of the hydrogen atoms 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
to molecular O2 with
simultaneous synthesis of 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
ATP.
1) Only statement I is true 14. Assertion : 3 molecules of ATP are
produced from one molecule
2) Only statement II is true
of pyruvic acid during the
3) Both the statement I and II are true conversion of it into Acetyl
4) Both the statement I and II are false Co. A.

13. The three boxes in this diagram represent

the three major biosynthesis pathways in Reason : The NADH2 produced during
aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net this conversion can release
reactants or products. 3 ATP molecules through
oxidative phosphorylation.

15. Assertion : The continued oxidation of

acetyl Co.A via TCA cycle
requires the continued
Arrows numbered 2, 6 and 11 can be replenishment of oxaloacetic
1) 2 - Acetyl Co. A; 6 - NADH2; 11 - Water acid.
2) 2 - Pyruvic acid; 6 - FADH2; 11 - Oxygen
Reason : Oxalo acetic acid is the first
3) 2 - Acetyl Co. A; 6 - OAA; 11 - ATP
member of TCA cycle.
4) 2 - Pyruvic acid; 6 - Acetyl Co. A; 11 - ATP

72
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL I

1. 4 6. 3 11. 2

2. 2 7. 3 12. 2

3. 2 8. 2 13. 2

4. 2 9. 2 14. 2

5. 1 10. 3 15. 2

LEVEL II
1. 3 6. 4 11. 2

2. 1 7. 1 12. 3

3. 4 8. 2 13. 1

4. 1 9. 1 14. 1

5. 1 10. 4 15. 1

73
 Chapter
PLANT GROWTH AND
09 DEVELOPMENT

SYNOPSIS

I. Growth - definition

1. Characteristics of plant growth

Indeterminate, open form of growth

Primary growth, secondary growth

2. Growth is measurable - parameters for measurement of growth

3. Growth phases - meristematic, elongation and maturation

4. Growth rates - Arithmetic growth and geometric growth

Absolute growth rate and relative growth rate

5. Conditions for growth

II. Differentiation, dedifferentiation and redifferentiation - definitions and examples

III. Development - definition - diagrammatic representation

Plasticity - definition and examples

IV. Plant growth regulators

1. Definition, characteristics and classification

2. Discovery of PGRs - Scientists and contributions

3. Physiological effects of PGRs

a) Auxins

b) Gibberellins

c) Cytokinins

d) Ethylene

e) Abscisic acid

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 4. Statement I : Growth is accompanied

by both anabolism and
LEVEL - I catabolism.

1. Which of the following statements are Statement II : Growth is an energy

correct ? expensive process.

a) Trees continue to increase in height or 1) Both statement I and statement II are

girth over a period of time. correct

b) All plant organs are made up of a variety 2) Both statement I and statement II are
of tissues incorrect
c) All cells of a plant are descendents of 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
zygote incorrect
d) Development of a mature plant from 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
a zygote follow a precise and highly correct
succession of events.
5. Find the correct matching from the following:
1) a, b & d 2) a & b
3) b & d 4) All the above
1) Total growth per
2. Match the following : A) Turgidity of cells
unit time
2) Percentile growth
B) Nutrients
1. Dicots and of system
a) Primary growth
Gymnosperms
3) Water status of C) Absolute growth
2. Growth and plant body rate
b) Open growth
differentiation
4) Protoplasm
c) Secondary D) Relative growth
3. Meristem synthesis and
growth rate
energy source
d) Development 4. Apical meristem
1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
1) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 2) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
2) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
3) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
3) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
4) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
6. Which of the following character is present
3. Increased vacuolation and new cell wall in meristem ?
deposition is a characteristic feature of :
1) Plasmatic growth
1) meristematic region
2) Secondary wall
2) region of elongation
3) region of maturation 3) Dedifferentiation

4) 1 & 2 4) Protoplasm modification

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

7. Identify the wrong statement from the 12. Which of the following is synthetic plant
following. hormone :
1) During differentiation cells attain maturity 1) IAA 2) IBA
by undergoing few to major structural 3) Zeatin 4) 2,4-D
changes in their protoplasm and cell wall.
13. Hormone responsible for horizontal growth
2) In tissue culture technique, the of seedlings, swelling of the axis and apical
parenchyma cells that are made to divide hook formation is :
under controlled laboratory condition,
undergo dedifferentiation. 1) Auxin 2) Cytokinin
3) Secondary xylem, phellogen and 3) Gibberellin 4) Ethylene
phelloderm formed in plants are the product
of redifferentiation. 14. Match the following :

4) The specific location of cells within plant a) Rooting 1. Ethephone

body determine the final structure of cell or b) Ripening 2. Cytokinin
tissue at maturity.
c) New leaves 3. Auxin
8. Which among the following shows
developmental or habitual heterophylly : d) Seed dormancy 4. ABA
1) Cotton 1) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
2) Coriander
2) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
3) Larkspur
3) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
4) All the above
4) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
9. N6 furfuryl aminopurine is :
1) Auxin 15. Assertion : Most plant growth
2) Cytokinin regulators can affect more
than one event in the life of
3) Gibberellin
plant.
4) ABA
Reason : Genomic and extrinsic
10. Hormone helps in lateral shoot growth and
mobilization of nutrient is : factors can also play
major role in plant growth
1) Auxin
along with plant growth
2) Gibberellin
regulation.
3) Cytokinin
4) 1 & 3 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
11. Hormone promoting rapid internodal Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
elongation in deep water rice plant :
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
1) Auxin but reason is not a correct explanation of
2) Gibberellin Assertion
3) Ethylene 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
4) Cytokinin 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

LEVEL - II 4. List some of the tissues in a woody

dicotyledonous plant that are the products
1. All changes that an organism goes of dedifferentiation.
through during its life cycle from 1) Cortex, pith and medullary rays
germination of the seed to senescence is
called : 2) Interfascicular cambium and cork
cambium
1) Differentiation
3) Secondary xylem and secondary phloem
2) Development
3) Plasticity 4) Phellem and phelloderm

4) Redifferentiation 5. The process of growth is maximum during:

2. Assertion : Plant growth is indefinite 1) Lag phase
and open form.
2) Senescence
Reason : Plants retain the capacity of
3) Dormancy
continuous growth through
out their life due to the 4) Log phase
activity of meristems.
6. Given below are two statements.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are
Statement I : Phellem and phelloderm
true, the Reason is correct explanation of
are redifferentiated
Assertion
permanent tissues.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
Statement II : Differentiation is the
but reason is not a correct explanation of
formation of mature
Assertion
permanent tissues from
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is secondary meristem.
false
1) Both statement I and statement II are
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false correct
3. Which of the following statement/s is/are 2) Both statement I and statement II are
correct? incorrect
A) In Arithmetic growth, one cell out of the
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
two only undergoes division
incorrect
B) Geometric growth is exhibited by
embryonic cell 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
C) A sigmoid growth curve is a
characteristics of living organism growing 7. Which of the following is not an external
in a natural environment factor that influence plant growth?
D) Trees showing seasonal activity exhibits
sigmoid growth 1) Plant hormones
1) A and B only 2) Water
2) B and C only
3) Nutrients
3) A and C only
4) A, B, C and D 4) Oxygen

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. Match column I with column II : 10. The hormone which promote the apical
dominance and used as a herbicides:

Column I Column II 1) Gibberellin

1) Human urine a) Cytokinin 2) Cytokinin

2) Gibberella fujikuroi b) Auxin 3) Auxin

3) Herring sperm DNA c) Ethylene 4) Both 1 and 3

4) Ripening of fruits d) Abscisic acid 11. Which one of the following is not the function
of Gibberellin :
5) Ageing of leaves e) Gibberellins
1) Internode elongation and thereby
1) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d increases length of stem in sugarcane.

2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a 2) Extended market period by promoting

senescence.
3) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c
3) Promote malting process in brewing
4) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a industry

4) Promote bolting and overcome rosette

9. Match column I with column II
habit.

Column I Column II 12. Assertion : Fruit and leaf drop at early

stages can be prevented by
1. Gibberellic the application of auxin.
A) Indole compound
acid

B) Terpenes 2.Auxin Reason : Abscission of leaf and fruit

is determined by the relative
C) Adenine derivatives 3. Abscisic acid concentration of auxin in
them.
D) Carotenoids 4. Ethephone
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
E) Source of Ethylene 5. Kinetin
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion

1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1, E-5 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
but reason is not a correct explanation of
2) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-3, E-4 Assertion

3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false

4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

4) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-2

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

13. Skoog and co-workers observed that 15. Read the following statements and find
tobacco stem callus proliferates by the correct regarding Abscisic acid.
addition of which one of the following along
with Auxin. A) It is known as stress hormone

1) Extract of vascular tissue B) Regulate abscission and dormancy

2) Yeast extract C) It act as plant growth inhibitor and an

inhibitor of plant metabolism.
3) Coconut milk or DNA
D) It stimulate closure of stomata and play
4) All of these a role in seed development maturation and
dormancy.
14. Which of the following is not a function of
Ethephone? 1) A and D only

1) Promote production of female flower in 2) A, B and D only correct

cucumber
3) A, B and C only correct
2) It accelerate thinning of flower and fruit in
Walnut and Cherry. 4) A, B, C and D are correct

3) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and

apples

4) It promote nutrient mobilisation and delay

leaf senescence.

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 4 6. 1 11. 3

2. 2 7. 3 12. 4

3. 2 8. 4 13. 4

4. 1 9. 2 14. 4

5. 2 10. 3 15. 2
LEVEL II

1. 2 6. 3 11. 2

2. 1 7. 1 12. 1

3. 4 8. 1 13. 4

4. 2 9. 2 14. 4

5. 4 10. 3 15. 4

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ZOOLOGY
blank
 Chapter
LIVING WORLD
01

SYNOPSIS

• Characteristics of living organism

• Biodiversity

• Taxonomy

• Binomial Nomenclature

• Systematics

• Taxonomic Hierarchy

• Taxonomic categories

- Species

- Genus

- Family

- Order

- Class

- Phylum / Division

- Kingdom

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 8. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to :

LEVEL - I 1) Step-wise arrangement of all categories

for classification of plants and animals.
1. Who is known as Darwin of 20th century ?
2) Grouping into convenient categories
1) Carolous Linnaeus 2) Aristotle
based on observable characters
3) R. H. Whittaker 4) Ernst Mayr
3) Systematic arrangement of different
2. Which of the following is/are the organisms
characteristic feature/s of organism.
1) Growth 2) Reproduction 4) Evolutionary relationship between
organisms
3) Metabolism 4) All of these
3. Total Biodiversity on Biosphere ranging 9. Find the correct statement from the following:
between : 1) A Taxonomic group of any rank is called
1) 17 - 18 million taxon
2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion 2) In taxonomic hierarchy maximum number
3) 1.7 - 1.8 million of common characters present in lower
taxon.
4) 1.7 - 18 million
4. Which one of the following is an international 3) Taxonomic categories are distinct
code of Biological Nomenclature : biological entities and not merely
morphological aggregates.
1) ICBN 2) ICZN
3) IUB 4) Both 1 & 2 4) All are correct
5. Binomial Nomenclature was introduced by : 10. Select the wrong match with regard to
1) Ernst Mayr wheat:

2) R.H. Whittaker 1) Family : Poaceae

3) Aristotle 2) Order : Sapindales
4) Carolus Linnaeus 3) Genus : Triticum
6. Basic steps of Taxonomic process are :
4) Class : Monocotyledonae
1) Characterisation and identification
11. Basic unit of biological classification is :
2) Classification
3) Nomenclature 1) Species
4) All the above 2) Genus
7. Find the correct order from the following : 3) Kingdom
1) Kingdom - division - class - order - family
- genus - species 4) Order

2) Kingdom - class - division - order - family 12. “Systema Naturae” is the publication of :
- species - genus
1) Ernst Mayr
3) Kingdom - order - class - division - family
- genus - species 2) Aristotle
4) Kingdom - division - order - class - family 3) Bentham and Hooker
- genus - species
4) Carolous Linnaeus

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

13. Which one is not belongs to Panthera : 3. Assertion : Metabolism is sum total
1) Leo of all chemical reactions
occuring in the body of
2) Pardus an organism.
3) Felis Reason : Consciousness is the
ability to sence their
4) Tigris
surroundings and
14. Solanaceae are included in order respond to that stimuli.
Polymoniales mainly based on : 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
1) Vegetative characters Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
2) Habitat 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
but reason is not a correct explanation of
3) Stem shape Assertion
4) Floral characters 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
15. In the case of plants classes with a few 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
similar characters are assigned to a higher 4. Biodiversity refers to :
category known as: 1) Total number and type of plants only
1) Phylum 2) Variety of single species
2) Kingdom 3) The total number and types of organisms
present on earth
3) Division
4) The total number of non-living things
4) Order found on earth
5. Match the following correctly.
LEVEL II
1. Which of the following are defining features 1. Place into
A) Characterisation
of living organisms? proper group
1) Reproduction and metabolism 2. Provide proper
B) Identification name to the
2) Growth and Consciousness
organisms
3) Growth and Reproduction
3. Process of
4) Metabolism and Consciousness C) Classification recognition of
2. Match the following correctly: organism
4. Collection
of complete
Column I Column II D) Nomenclature
data about
a) Protonema i) Regeneration organisms
b) Fungi ii) Fragmentation
c) Planaria iii) Spores
A B C D
d) Yeast iv) Budding
1) 3 2 1 4
1) a - i ; b - ii ; c - iii ; d - iv
2) a - ii ; b - iii ; c - i ; d - iv 2) 4 3 1 2

3) a - iii ; b - ii ; c - i ; d - iv 3) 2 4 3 1
4) a - iv ; b - iii ; c - ii ; d - i 4) 1 3 4 2

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Which among the following obeys the rule of 9. Select the correct matching from the
binomial nomenclature ? following :
1) Mangifera Indica Linn.
Biological
2) Mangifera indica Linn. Family Class
Name
3) Mangifera indica linn
1) Homo
Felidae Insecta
4) mangifera indica L sapiens

2) Triticum
7. Which of the following is wrong regarding Anacardiaceae Dicots
aestivum
the rule of binomial nomenclature :
3) Musca
Muscidae Insecta
1) Biological names are generally in latin domestica
and printed in Italics
4) Mangifera
Poaceae Monocots
2) The first word in biological name indica
represents genus while second name
10.. Assertion : An order is a group of
denotes specific epithet.
related classes.
3) When hand written, biological names are
Reason : All the classes of an order
jointly underlined have some common
characters and so they
4) Genus name starts with capital letter aggregate together.
while specific epithet starts with small letter
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
8. Read the following statements and select Reason is correct explanation of Assertion

the correct option. 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,

but reason is not a correct explanation of
Statement I : Family is one of Assertion
the categories of
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
taxonomic hierarchial
system 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

Statement II : Mammalia is a taxon 11. Class in which Monkey, Gorilla and Gibbon
comes under :
1) Both the statements are true
1) Carnivora
2) Both statements are wrong
2) Mammalia
3) Statement I is true and II is wrong
3) Insecta
4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
true 4) Primata

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

12. Study the following statements and select 13. Find the incorrect statement.
the correct option below. 1) Genus comprises a group of related
species which has more characters in
A) Definition of biological concept of species common in comparison to species of other
genera.
was given by Ernst Mayr.
2) Petunia and Datura are placed in family
B) Species are reproductively isolated. Solanaceae based on their similarity in
vegetative and reproductive features
C) Taxon Solanaceae comes under the 3) Being a higher category order comprise
many class
category Family
4) Higher is the category more is its diversity
D) Step wise arrangement of all categories 14. Among the following, organism having
for classification of plants and animals are maximum similarity is in :
referred to as taxonomic hierarchy. 1) Genus 2) Family
3) Order 4) Class
1) A, C and D only
15. Select the group of taxons representing
same category of taxonomic hierarchy :
2) A and D only
1) Hominidae, Primata, Mammalia
3) A, B and C only 2) sapian, indica, aestivum
3) Mammalia, Arthropoda, Mangifera
4) A, B, C and D are correct
4) Tritium, Poales and Monocotyledonae

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 4 6. 4 11. 1

2. 4 7. 1 12. 4

3. 3 8. 1 13. 3

4. 4 9. 4 14. 4

5. 4 10. 2 15. 3

LEVEL II

1. 4 6. 2 11. 2

2. 2 7. 3 12. 4

3. 2 8. 1 13. 3

4. 3 9. 3 14. 1

5. 2 10. 4 15. 2

88
 Chapter
ANIMAL KINGDOM -
02 NON-CHORDATA

SYNOPSIS

BASIS OF CLASSIFICATION

Different criteria for classification

1) Presence or absence of notochord

2) Levels of organisation : with examples

1) Cellular level

2) Tissue level

3) Organ level

4) Organ system level

A) Asymmetry B) Symmetry

Examples i) Radial symmetry : examples

ii) Bilateral symmetry : examples

4) Number of germ layers:

1) Diploblastic animals : examples

2) Triploblastic animals : examples

5) Nature of coelom:

Acoelom examples

Pseudocoelom example

Coelom [Eucoelom / True coelom] - examples

6) Segmentation : [Metamerism]

No metamerism Examples

Pseudometamerism Examples

True metamerism Examples

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

7) Type of body plan with examples

Cell aggregate body plan
Blind sac body plan
Tube within a tube body plan
8) PATTERNS OF ORGAN SYSTEMS
1. Digestive system
A) Incomplete digestive system with example
B) Complete digestive system with example
2. Circulatory system
a) Open circulatory system with examples
b) Closed circulatory system with examples
3. Reproduction
Classification of Animals
1. PHYLUM : PORIFERA
Examples : Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (fresh water sponge) Euspongia (bath sponge)
2. PHYLUM : COELENTERATA [CNIDARIA]
Examples : Physalia (Portuguese man of war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Pennatula (sea-
pen) Gorgonia (sea-fan), Meandrina (Brain coral)
3. PHYLUM : CTENOPHORA
Examples: Pleurobrachia and ctenoplana
4. PHYLUM : PLATYHELMINTHES
Examples : Planaria, Fasciola (Liver fluke), Taenia (Tapeworm)
5. PHYLUM : ASCHELMINTHES [Nemathelminthes]
Examples : Ascaris (Round worm), Wuchereria – Filarial worm, Ancylostoma (Hook worm)
6. PHYLUM : ANNELIDA
Examples : Nereis (Sand worm), Pheretima [Earthworm], Hirudinaria [Leech]
7. PHYLUM : ARTHROPODA
Examples : Apis (Honey bee), Bombyx (Silk worm), Laccifer (Lac insect)
8. PHYLUM : MOLLUSCA
Examples : Pila (Apple snail), Pinctada (Pearl oyster), Sepia (Cuttle fish), Loligo (Squid),
Octopus (Devil fish), Aplysia (Sea hare), Dentalium (Tusk shell), Chaetopleura (Chiton
9. PHYLUM : ECHINODERMATA
Examples : Asterias (star fish), Ophiura (Brittle star), Echinus (Sea urchin), Antedon (Sea lily/
Feather star), Cucumaria (Sea cucumber).
10. PHYLUM : HEMICHORDATA
Examples : Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 4. The phenomenon by which body is externally

and internally divided into segments with a
serial repetition of atleast some organs, is
LEVEL - I
called;
1. Which of the following features are related 1) Metamorphosis
to kingdom animalia?
2) Metamerism
i) All animals exhibit eukaryotic and
multicellular condition without any exception 3) Metagenesis
ii) Fundamental features are used as the
basis of animal classification 4) Bioluminescence

iii) In flatworms, tissues are grouped 5. Select the incorrectly matched option
together to form organs, each specialised related to the following animals
for a particular function
i) Sycon
iv) In open circulation, blood is circulated
through a series of vessels of varying ii) Euspongia
diameters
iii) Spongilla
v) Platyhelminthes are the only animals
with incomplete digestive system
Collar cells line
1) ii, iii, iv 2) i, ii, iii 1) Choanocytes the spongocoel
and the canals
3) iii, iv 4) iv, v
Spicules or
2. In radial symmetry, 2) Skeletal elements
spongin fibres
1) Body of organism can be divided into two Central cavity in
halves only in one plane 3) Spongocoel
body
2) Body cannot be divided into identical Reproduction
halves through any plane passing through 4) Fragmentation by formation of
central axis gametes
3) Cells are arranged as three embryonic
layers 6. Which of the following is the most diagnostic
4) Any plane passing through the central feature of Pennatula, Physalia, and
axis of the body divides the organism into Gorgonia with respect to their functions?
identical halves
1) Water canal system - Food gathering,
3. In some animals, the body cavity is not respiratory exchange and removal of
lined by mesoderm, instead the mesoderm wastes
is present as scattered pouches in between
the ectoderm and endoderm. Which of 2) Presence of hypostome - Helps for
the following phylum comes under this ingestion of food and egestion of undigested
category? wastes
1) Platyhelminthes 3) Cnidoblasts or Cnidocytes - Anchorage,
2) Aschelminthes defence and capture of prey
3) Annelida 4) Skeleton composed of CaCO3- provides
4) Ctenophora support to the body wall

91
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

7. Which one is incorrect about sea walnuts 10. Which of the following is an irrelevant
or comb jellies? feature related to roundworms?

1) Exclusively marine, sexual reproduction 1) Body is elongated and circular in cross

only and indirect development section
2) They may be aquatic, terrestrial, free
2) Ability to emit light from their body living or parasitic in plants and animals
3) Comb plates are eight pairs of cilia for 3) External fertilisation and direct
locomotion development
4) They have an excretory tube removes
4) Radially symmetrical and diploblastic
body wastes from body cavity through
organisation
excretory pore
8. Identify the correct set of animals which 11. Which of the following feature is not correct
exemplify bilateral symmetry, triploblastic about segmented worms?
and acoelomate condition
1) First coelomates with closed circulation
1) Fasciola, Taenia, Ancylostoma 2) Neural system consists of paired ganglia
and double ventral nerve cords
2) Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana, Planaria
3) All of them are monoecious without any
3) Fasciola, Taenia, Planaria exception
4) Exhibits sexual reproduction
4) Roundworm, Hookworm, Filarial worm
12. Following are some of the characteristics
9. Match column I with column II and select about largest phylum under animal kingdom.
the correct option from the following Identify the irrelevant feature
1) Contributes over two- thirds of all named
animal species on earth
Column-I Column-II
A) Osmoregulation i) Little ring 2) Body is covered by calcareous
and excretion exoskeleton

B) Muscular pharynx ii) Flatworms 3) Sensory organs like antennae, eyes and
statocysts are present
C) Flat body and iii) Swimming
4) Fertilisation is usually internal
suckers
13. Which one of the following features is
D) Annulus iv) Flame cells
irrelevant to unsegmented, soft bodied
E) Parapodia v) Roundworms animals?
1) Soft spongy layer of skin forms a mantle
over the visceral hump
1) A-v; B-ii; C-iv; D-i; E-iii 2) Mouth contains a file like rasping organ
for feeding
2) A-iv; B-v; C-ii; D-i; E-iii
3) Feather like gills have respiratory and
3) A-iv; B-v; C-i; D-ii; E-iii locomotory functions

4) A-v; B-iv; C-ii; D-i; E-iii 4) Most of them have a calcareous shell
covering the body

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

14. Identify the correct set of animal group 17. Find the incorrect pair of animals with
from the following options with respect to respect to their locomotory structures:
the characteristics given below

i) Indirect development with free swimming 1) Pleurobrachia,

Comb plates
larva Ctenoplana
2) Apple snail,
Muscular foot
ii) Complete digestive system with ventral Sea hare
mouth and dorsal anus 3) Brittle star, Sea
Calcareous ossicles
urchin
iii) All are marine with organ system level of
Parapodia, Circular
organisation 4) Nereis,
and longitudinal
Pheretima
muscles
1) Sea hare, Squid, Tusk shell, Chiton
18. Match the following
2) Star fish, Pearl oyster, Devil fish, Brittle
star
A) Pinctada P) Feather star
3) Sea urchin, Sea lily, Brittle star, Sea B) Antedon Q) Lac insect
cucumber C) Fasciola R) Pearl oyster
4) Cuttle fish, Squid, Fresh water mussel,
D) Limulus S) Liver fluke
Pearl oyster E) Laccifer T) King crab

15. From the given features below, identify the 1) A-R; B-P; C-S; D-Q; E-T
incorrect one related with the organisms
2) A-R; B-P; C-S; D-T; E-Q
included in hemichordata.
3) A-R; B-P; C-T; D-S; E-Q
1) Exclusively marine, triploblastic and 4) A-R; B-T; C-P; D-Q; E-S
coelomates
19. Given below are two statements one is
2) Placed as a separate subphylum under labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
non-chordata labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Those Cnidarians which
3) Proboscis gland helps for excretion exist in polyp and
medusae forms exhibit
4) External fertilisation and indirect alternation of generation
development (Metagenesis)
Reason (R) : In Obelia polyp produce
16. In Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus, their
medusae asexually and
body is divisible into;
medusae form the polyp
sexually
1) head, visceral hump and muscular foot
1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2) head, thorax and abdomen 2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
3) proboscis, collar and trunk
the correct explanation of (A)
4) head, trunk, visceral hump and muscular 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
foot the correct explanation of (A)

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

20. Given below are two statements 3. How many of the following are true regarded
with pore bearing animals?
Statement I : In molluscs, certain
feather like gills present i) All are sessile without any exception
in space between
calcareous shell and ii) All are marine and asymmetrical animals
mantle
iii) Fertilisation is external and development
Statement II : All molluscs have a is indirect
calcareous shell without
even a single exception iv) Eggs and sperms are produced by the
same individual
1) Statement I and statement II are correct

2) Statement I and statement II are incorrect v) Choanocytes/ collar cells line the
spongocoel and the canals
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect 1) 2 2) 4

4) Statement I is incorrect bit statement II is 3) 5 4) 3

correct
LEVEL - II 4. In scypha and spongilla, water enter the
.....(i)..... through minute pores called
1. Which of the following character is found in .....(ii)..... and the water goes out through the
non-chordates ? .....(iii)..... Here i, ii, iii are respectively as;

1) Presence of post anal tail 1) i - Coelenteron; ii - Ostia, iii - Osculum

2) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
2) i - Spongocoel; ii - Hypostome; iii - Anus
3) Dorsal heart
3) i - Spongocoel; ii - Mouth ; iii - Osculums
4) Ventral heart
4) i - Spongocoel, ii - Ostia, iii - Osculum
2. Following are some of the fundamental
features which are used as the basis of 5. Which one of the following is incorrect
animal classification. Select the correct about the charateristics of cnidarians?
option with respect to the term used.
1) Nematocytes are stinging capsules
1) Body can be divided into identical left
present in cnidoblasts
and right halves in only one plane - Radial
symmetry 2) Corals have a skeleton composed of
2) Mesoderm present as scattered pouches calcium carbonate
between ectoderm and endoderm -
3) Alternation of generation (Metagenesis)
Pseudocoelom
is exhibited by all cnidarians without any
3) Presence of mesoglea between ectoderm exception
and endoderm - Triploblasty.
4) In Obelia, polyp produce medusae
4) Distinct body divisions with serial repetition asexually, while medusae forms the polyp
of atleast some organs - Metamorphosis sexually

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. i) Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates 8. Which of the following structure in
for ......(a)....... segmented worms is correct with respect
to their function?
ii) Central gastrovascular cavity with a 1) Circular and longitudinal muscles aid in
single opening on .......(b)....... locomotion

iii) Property of a living organism to emit light 2) Nephridia in most segments for swimming
is called .....(c)........ 3) Parapodia in nereis which helps in
excretion
iv) Some members of flatworms like ...(d)... 4) Double ventral nerve cord helps in
possess high power of regeneration. osmoregulation
Select the correct option with respect to 9. Consider the following features
a,b,c,d a) Body consists of head, thorax and
abdomen
a b c d
b) Circulatory system is of open type
Meta- Pleuro-
1) Anchorage Mouth c) Excretion takes place through Malpighian
genesis brachia
tubules
Biolu- d) Presence of antennae, simple or
Hypos- Ancy-
2) Locomotion mines-
tome
cence
lostoma compound eyes
e) Usually internal fertilisation and indirect
Meta- development
3) Feeding Osculum Spongilla
genesis Identify the correct group of animals which
exemplify the above features
Biolu-
Hypos- 1) Apis, Bombyx, Spider, Sepia
4) Locomotion mines- Planaria
tome
cence
2) Laccifer, Silkworm, Devil fish, Cuttle fish
3) Honey bee, Silkworm, Lac insect, Locust
7. Which of the following features are common 4) Locusta, Limulus, Unio, Pinctada
to flatworms and round worms? 10. Match column I with column II and choose
the correct option
a) Triploblasty and absence of true coelom. Column-I Column-II
P) Living fossil a) Excretion
b) Bilateral symmetry and endoparasitism.
Q) Malpighian tubules b) Mosaic vision
c) Internal fertilisation and development R) Book gills and c) Locusta
through many larval stages book lungs
S) Compound eyes d) Limulus
d) Presence of hooks and suckers in T) Gregareous pest e) Respiratory
parasitic forms function

e) Often females are longer than males 1) P-d; Q-a; R-b; S-e; T-c
2) P-d; Q-a; R-e; S-b; T-c
1) a,b,c 2) a,b
3) P-b; Q-a; R-e; S-c; T-d
3) c,d,e 4) c,e 4) P-d; Q-a; R-b; S-c; T-e

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. How many of the following features are true 14. Given below are two statements one is
regarded with the phylum Mollusca ? labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is
i) All have a calcareous shell labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All coelomates are
ii) Mantle formed as a spongy layer covering
triploblastic animals but
the visceral hump
all triploblastic animals
iii) Triploblasty , bilateral symmetry, are not coelomates
unsegmented body
Reason (R) : In all coelomates
iv) Mouth contain file like rasping organ a mesodermally
v) Feather like gills present in space lined cavity present
between shell and mantle between ectoderm
and endoderm but
1) 4 2) 3 such a cavity is absent
3) 2 4) 1 in some triploblastic
animals.
12. Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Brittle star and
Sea urchin are grouped under phylum In the light of the above statements, choose
echinodermata because they have; the most appropriate answer from the
option given below.
1) Calcareous ossicles as endoskeleton
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
2) Spiny bodied nature the correct explanation of (A)
3) Water canal system with tube feet 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
4) All except 3 the correct explanation of (A)
13. Given below are two statements one is 3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
labelled as Reason (R): 15. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Hemichordata was Statements I : Hemichordates are marine
earlier considered as a worm like animals have
subphylum under phylum a rudimentary structure
chordata in the collar region called
Reason (R) : Hollow outgrowth arising stomochord.
from the roof of buccal Statements II : In Echinoderms, water
cavity called stomochord, vascular system helps in
a structure similar to locomotion, respiration,
notochord. capture and transport of
In the light of the above statements, choose food.
the most appropriate answer from the In the light of the above statement choose
options given below: the most appropriate answer from the
following
1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 1) Statement I and statement II are correct
2) Statement I and statement II are incorrect
2) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
the correct explanation of (A) incorrect

4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
the correct explanation of (A) is correct

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

16. Identify the correct set of animals with their 19. Following are some characteristics related
respective diagnostic features to non-chordates

i) Segmented body with true coelom

1) Gorgonia,
Pennatula, Bioluminescence ii) Triploblastic condition and bilateral
Adamsia symmetry
2) Ophiura,
Water canal iii) Double, ventral, solid central nervous
Antedon,
system system
Cucumaria
3) Locust, Jointed Identify the correct set of phyla exhibit
Limulus, Apis appendages above features

4) Octopus, 1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

Chitinous
Dentalium,
exoskeleton
Loligo 2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Chordata

17. Bilateral symmetry in larval stage and 3) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

radial symmetry in their adult stage are the
characteristics of some animals. 4) Annelida and Arthropoda only
i) Pleurobrachia
20. Following are some of the features exhibited
ii) Ophiura either by phylum mollusca or by arthropoda.
iii) Asterias
i) Mantle cavity present between visceral
iv) Unio hump and mantle
v) Cucumaria
Find the animals which do not come under ii) Chitinous exoskeleton
in response to the above features
iii) Usually internal fertilisation
1) iv, v 2) i, iv
3) ii, iii, v 4) i, ii, iv, v iv) Segmented body and eucoelom
18. Which one of the following phyla is
v) Paired antennae and oviparous
correctly matched with its two general
characteristics?
Select the correct set of animal group from
1) Arthropoda : Body is divided into head, the following options with respect to the
thorax and abdomen and have calcareous features iii, iv, v mentioned above
exoskeleton
2) Mollusca : Anterior head region has 1) Periplaneta, Aedes, Aplysia
sensory tentacles to detect sensations
2) Dentalium, Chiton, Pila
3) Platyhelminthes : All have hooks and
suckers for absorbing nutrients from the
3) Laccifer, Pila, Prawn
host body
4) Cnidaria : Presence of Cnidoblasts on 4) Anopheles, Culex, Aedes
body wall and tentacles, for respiration

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ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I
1. 2 6. 3 11. 3 16. 3

2. 4 7. 3 12. 2 17. 3

3. 2 8. 3 13. 3 18. 2

4. 2 9. 2 14. 3 19. 3

5. 4 10. 3 15. 2 20. 2

LEVEL II

1. 3 6. 4 11. 2 16. 3

2. 2 7. 2 12. 4 17. 2

3. 4 8. 1 13. 3 18. 2

4. 4 9. 3 14. 1 19. 4

5. 3 10. 2 15. 1 20. 4

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 Chapter
ANIMAL KINGDOM - CHORDATA
03

SYNOPSIS
• Basic features of Chordates
1) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
2) Notochord
3) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
4) Post anal tail
• Basic pattern of chordata - Classification

Classification
Phylum Chordata

Protochordata (Acraniata) Vertebrata

(Craniata)

Subphylum : Cephalochordata Subphylum : Urochordata [Tunicata] Sub Phylum:Vertebrata

Ex. Amphioxus Tunicata
(Branchiostoma) or Lancelet Ex. Ascidia
Salpa Division : Agnatha Division:
Doliolum (Jawless) Gnathostomata
(with jaws)
Class: Cyclostomata
Ex. Lamprey(Petromyzon)
Hag fish (Myxine)

Superclass: Pisces (Bear fins) Superclass:Tetrapoda

(Bear 4 limbs)

Class:Osteichthyes Class:Chondrichthyes
(Bony fishes) (Cartilaginous fishes) Class: Class: Class : Class :
Amphibia Reptilia Aves Mammalia

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

1. Subphylum Urochordata (Tunicata)

Notochord is present only in the larval tail
Exhibits retrogressive metamorphosis
Eg. Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum
2. Subphylum - Cephalochordata
Notochord is present throughout the life.
Notochord extends from head to tail and is persistent throughout life.
Excretion by protonephridia / solenocytes.
Eg. Branchiostoma [Amphioxus or Lancelet]
3. Subphylum - Vertebrata
Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adults.
Division - Agnatha - Class Cyclostomata
Jawless vertebrates with circular mouth.
Endoskeleton is cartilaginous
Presence of 6-15 pairs of gills for respiration
Exhibits anadromous migration for spawning
Eg. Petromyzon [Lamprey], Myxine [Hag fish]
Division - Gnathostomata
Super Class - Pisces
• Presence of 2 pairs of fins
• Exoskeleton consists of scales - placoid, cycloid, ctenoid
• Two chambered heart
• Excretion by a pair of mesonephric kidneys
Comparison between class chondrichthyes and class osteichthyes.
Class Chondrichthyes Class Osteichthyes
1) Exclusively Marine • Fresh water and Marine
2) Persistent notochord • Notochord - only in embryonic stage
3) Placoid scales • Ctenoid and cycloid scales
4) 5 pairs of gills • 4 pairs of gills with operculum
5) Mouth ventral • Mouth terminal
6) Ureotelic • Ammonotelic

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

Eg.Scoliodon - Dog fish Eg. Exocoetus - flying fish

Pristis - Saw fish Hippocampus - Sea horse

Carcharodon - Great white shark Clarias - Magur

Trygon - Sting ray Pterophyllum - Angel fish

Super class - Tetrapoda

Class - Amphibia

• Body is divisible into head and trunk

• Skin is moist, glandular and without scales

• Tympanum represents the ear

• Heart 3 chambered

• Mesonephric kidneys

• Presence of cloaca

• External fertilization and indirect development

Eg. Rana, Bufo, Hyla

Salamander

Ichthyophis

Class - Reptilia

• Creeping and crawling animals

• Exoskeleton consists of epidermal scales, scutes and plates

• Pulmonary respiration

• Heart 3 chambered except crocodile

• Kidneys are metanephric

• Fertilization internal and direct development

Eg. Chelone - turtle - Marine

101
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

Testudo - Tortiose - Fresh water and terrestrial

Chameleon - Tree lizard

Hemidactylus - Wall lizard

Calotes - Garden lizard

Snakes

Naja - Cobra, Bangarus - Krait, Vipera - Viper

Class Aves

• Presence of feathers

• Beak without teeth

• Forelimbs are modified into wings

• Presence of crop and gizzard

• Presence of pneumatic bones

• Lungs with airsacs

Eg. Corvus - Crow

Columba - Pigeon

Psittacula - Parrot

Pavo - Peacock

Aptenodytes - Penguin

Neophron - Vulture

Struthio - Ostrich

Class - Mammalia

Presence of mammary glands, hairs on skin, pinnae, diaphragm

Homeothermic, viviparous with few exceptions

Eg. Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Pteropus, Balaenoptera, Delphinus, Camelus, Panthera etc.

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. ‘Teeth are modified placoid scales which are

backwardly directed”. This is a characteristic
LEVEL - I present in:
1. Which of the following statements are true 1) Class - Cyclostomata
for phylum Chordata? 2) Class - Osteichthyes
i) In urochordates, notochord extends from 3) Class - Amphibia
head to tail and persists throughout their life
time 4) Class - Chondrichthyes
6. Choose the odd one out from the following.
ii) Nerve cord is ventral, solid and single
1) Angel fish 2) Dog fish
iii) In chordates, notochord is present during
the embryonic period 3) Flying fish 4) Fighting fish
iv) Chordata is divided into four different 7. What is common among Labeo, Catla and
subphyla. Pterophyllum?

1) ii only 1) Operculum absent

2) Terminal mouth
2) iii and i only
3) Absence of air bladder
3) iii and iv only
4) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
4) iii only
8. Match the following and select the correct
2. Which among the following is not an example option.
for subphylum Urochordata?
Common name Genus name
1) Salpa 2) Amphioxus
a) Limbless amphibian i) Ichthyophis
3) Doliolum 4) Ascidia
b) Tailed amphibian ii) Rana
3. In which of the following animal, notochord
c) Tailless amphibian iii) Salamandra
is persisted througout their life time?
1) a - i ; b - iii ; c - ii
1) Labeo
2) a - i ; b - ii ; c - iii
2) Hyla
3) a - iii ; b - i ; c - ii
3) Doliolum
4) a - ii ; b - iii ; c - i
4) Branchiostoma
9. Which of the following statements are true
4. Read the following characteristics : about class amphibia?
i) Skin is smooth without scales i) Tympanum represents the ear
ii) Paired fins absent ii) Respiration by gills, lungs and skin
iii) Cartilaginous endoskeleton iii) The sexes are separate and have internal
fertilisation
iv) Exclusively marine
iv) Development is direct
Identify the correct animal from the following
in response to the above mentioned 1) ii and iv are correct
features? 2) i and ii are correct
1) Bufo 2) Hyla 3) i and iv are correct
3) Petromyzon 4) Clarias 4) i, ii, iii, iv are incorrect

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10. Which among the following shed their scales 14. Identify the aquatic mammals from the
as skin cast? following :
1) Snakes and Crocodiles i) Balaenoptera ii) Pteropus
iii) Macropus iv) Delphinus
2) Lizards and Turtles
v) Aptenodytes
3) Snakes and Lizards
1) i and v only 2) iii and iv only
4) Crocodiles and Turtles 3) i, iii and v only 4) i and iv only
11. Which of the following classes exhibits only 15. Which of the following is the respiratory
internal fertilization? mechanism in aquatic mammals?
i) Osteichthyes ii) Chondrichthyes 1) Cutaneous respiration
2) Pulmonary respiration
iii) Aves iv) Reptilia
3) Branchial respiration
v) Mammalia vi) Amphibia
4) Tracheal respiration
1) i, iii, iv and v only 16. Match column I with column II
2) i, ii, iv, vi only
3) iii and iv only Column I Column II
Flippers for swim-
4) ii, iii, iv and v only P) Chameleon a)
ming
12. How many of the following statements are Q) Aptenodytes b) Presence of pinna
correct about class aves?
Four chambered
i) Forelimbs are modified into wings R) Struthio c)
heart
ii) They are poikilothermous
Epidermal scales or
S) Macropus d)
iii) They posses beak with teeth scutes
iv) They are oviparous and development is T) Crocodilus e) Flightless bird
direct
PQRST PQRST
v) Skin with numerous glands 1) 2)
da bce da ebc
1) Only one
2) Only two PQRST
3) 4) PQRST
3) Only three dea bc ea bdc

4) All are correct 17. Which of the following is not related to

Pteropus, Rattus, Elephas and Equus?
13. Homeothermy / warm blooded nature is
1) Endoskeleton is fully ossified with
mainly found in :
pneumatic bones
1) Reptiles and Mammals 2) Body possess hairs and external ear or
2) Aves and Reptiles pinna
3) All are viviparous without exception
3) Mammals and Aves
4) Internal fertilisation and direct
4) Reptiles and Amphibians development

104
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

18. How many of the following animals exhibit LEVEL - II

internal fertilization, direct development and
viviparity? 1. Identify the correct statements from the
following related to the phylum chordata :
[Carcharodon, Pterophyllum,
Ornythorhyncus, Hemidactylus, i) Notochord is present
Balaenoptera, Ichthyophis, Canis] ii) Heart and CNS is dorsal
1) 4 2) 3
iii) Post anal tail is present
3) 2 4) 5
iv) Paired gill slits are absent
19. Given below are two statements one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 1) i and iv 2) i and iii
labelled as Reason (R). 3) iii and iv 4) ii and iv
Assertion : All vertebrates are chordates 2. Which of the following statements is not
but all chordates are not applicable to Amphioxus ?
vertebrates.
1) Amphioxus belongs to the subphylum
Reason : In all vertebrates, the
Cephalochordata
notochord is replaced by
the vertebral column but the 2) In Amphioxus, the notochord extends from
vertebral column is absent in head to tail and it is persistent throughout
some chordates. life.
In the light of the above statements, choose 3) Amphioxus is a typical chordate with
the most appropriate answer from the vertebral column
options given below.
4) In Amphioxus, excretion is carried out by
1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct protonephridia
2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3. Which of the following set includes jawless
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is vertebrates?
the correct explanation of (A)
1) Ascidia and Amphioxus
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) 2) Tunicates and Lancelets
20. Given below are two statements. 3) Salpa and Myxine
Statement I : Cyclostomes are marine 4) Hag fish and Lamprey
but migrate for spawning
to fresh water. 4. How many statements are false about
chondrichthyes?
Statement II : Larvae of cyclostomes
return to ocean after their i) Gills are separate without operculum
metamorphosis. ii) Presence of heterocercal caudal fin
In the light of the above statements choose iii) Teeth are modified cycloid / ctenoid
the most appropriate answer from the scales
following.
iv) Due to the absence of air bladder, they
1) Statement I and statement II are correct
have to swim constantly to avoid sinking
2) Statement I and statement II are incorrect
v) Males have a pair of claspers on the
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
pectoral fin
incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II 1) Two 2) Three
is correct 3) Four 4) One

105
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

5. Which one is the common feature shared by 9. Which of the following feature is common in
class osteichthyes and class amphibia? class reptilia and class aves?
1) Internal fertilization 1) Internal fertilisation and direct
development
2) External fertilization
2) Both are warm blooded
3) Direct development
3) Presence of pneumatic bones
4) Three chambered heart
4) Presence of crop and gizzard
6. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
10. Select the characteristic features not
electric current for prey capturing is :
applicable to reptiles :
1) Pristis 2) Torpedo 1) They exhibit creeping and crawling mode
3) Trygon 4) Scoliodon of locomotion
2) Their body is covered by dry and cornified
7. Match the following and select the correct
scales
option.
3) They are homoiotherms
Column I Column II
4) Tympanum, represent the ear externaly
a) Pterophyllum 1) Limbless amphibian
11. Which of the following classes exclusively
b) Hemidactylus 2) Dolphin exhibits complete double circulation ?
c) Ichthyophis 3) Angel fish i) Osteichthyes
d) Aptenodytes 4) Penguin ii) Chondrichthyes
e) Delphinus 5) Wall lizard iii) Aves

1) a-2 ; b-1 ; c-3 ; d-4 ; e-5 iv) Reptilia

2) a-1 ; b-2 ; c-3 ; d-4 ; e-5 v) Mammalia

3) a-3 ; b-5 ; c-1 ; d-4 ; e-2 vi) Amphibia

1) I, III, IV and V only
4) a-5 ; b-4 ; c-3 ; d-2 ; e-1
2) I, II, IV and VI only
8. Which of the following features are applicable
to class amphibia? 3) III and V only

a) Eyes without eyelids 4) II, III, IV and V only

b) Body covered by moist skin without scales 12. Choose the correct statement from the
following :
c) Alimentary canal opens into anus
1) Both birds and reptiles have ten pairs of
d) Development is direct, without larval cranial nerves.
stages
2) All tetrapods have four chambered heart
e) Constant body temperature 3) Cyclostomes are jawless vertebrates with
1) b only 2) c only cartilaginous endoskeleton
4) Mammals have well developed hepatic
3) a and d 4) a, c and d
and renal portal systems.

106
 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

13. How many of the following statements are 16. Which of the following is true regarded
true about class mammalia?
with class aves but not true about class
i) Some of them are adapted to fly mammalia?
ii) Presence of mammary glands to nourish
young ones a) Air sacs associated with lungs supplement
iii) Skin has hairs and presence of pinnae in respiration
most of the mammals
iv) Heart is four chambered and poikilothermic b) Different types of teeth are present in the
1) ii and iii jaw
2) iii and iv
3) ii, iii and iv c) Presence of scales in hindlimbs and oil

4) i, ii and iii gland at the base of tail.

14. Assertion : Osteichthyes need not swim

constantly in water to avoid d) Internal fertilisation and direct
sinking. development
Reason : In Osteichthyes, the air
bladder is present e) Homoiothermy and bony endoskeleton
1) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of 1) a, b, c
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true 2) a, c
and reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
3) d, e
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false 4) a, d, e
15. Statement I : Air sacs connected to
the lungs supplement 17. Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive
respiration in birds.
tract opens into a common chamber called
Statement II : Pneumatic bones in birds
cloaca. It is found in all the following group
help to reduce body
weight. of animals except :
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct 1) Rana, Hyla, Salamandra
2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
incorrect 2) Toad, Frog, Tree frog
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect 3) Bufo, Hyla, Ichthyophis
4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
is correct 4) Macropus, Pteropus, Camelus

107
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

18. Match column I (Animals) with column II 20. Given below are two statements one is
(Characteristics) and column III (Class) and
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
choose the right option :
labelled as Reason (R).
Column I Column II Column III
Tympanum Assertion : Birds exhibit pulmonary
i)
a) Exocoetus represents p) Aves
respiration and they are
ear
able to maintian a constant
Crop and
b) Ichthyophis ii) q) Reptilia
gizzard body temperature.
Hairs in
c) Bangarus iii) body and r) Mammalia Reason : In birds, air sacs connected
ear pinna to lungs which supplement
Cycloid/
d) Pavo iv) ctenoid s) Amphibia respiration.
scales
Epidermal In the light of the above statements, choose
e) Equus v) t) Osteichthyes
scales the most appropriate answer from the
1) a-v-t ; b-iv-q ; c-ii-r ; d-i-p ; e-iii-s options given below.
2) a-iv-t ; b-i-s ; c-v-q ; d-ii-p ; e-iii-r
1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) a-iv-t ; b-i-s ; c-v-p ; d-ii-q ; e-iii-r
4) a-iv-t ; b-v-s ; c-i-q ; d-ii-p ; e-iii-r 2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
19. Tetralocular heart, homoiothermy,
internal fertilization, oviparity and direct 3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
development are the features related to :
the correct explanation of (A)
1) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus, Crocodile
2) Calotes, Aptenodytes, Corvus, 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Ornithorhynchus
the correct explanation of (A)
3) Neophron, Ornithorhynchus, Spiny ant
eater, Pavo
4) Bufo, Crocodile, Alligator, Naja

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ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 4 6. 2 11. 4 16. 2

2. 2 7. 2 12. 2 17. 1

3. 4 8. 1 13. 3 18. 2

4. 3 9. 2 14. 4 19. 3

5. 4 10. 3 15. 2 20. 1

LEVEL II

1. 2 6. 2 11. 3 16. 2

2. 3 7. 3 12. 3 17. 4

3. 4 8. 1 13. 4 18. 2

4. 1 9. 1 14. 1 19. 3

5. 2 10. 3 15. 1 20. 4

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 Chapter
STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN
04 ANIMALS (ANIMAL TISSUES)

SYNOPSIS

Definitions : - Histology, Cytology, Tissue

Basic types of tissues - Epithelial tissue, Connective tissue, Muscular tissue and Neural tissue, their
mode of origin (ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm)

Classification of epithelial tissue as

I) Covering Epithelium

II) Glandular Epithelium

• Sub divisions of covering epithelium as

I) Simple epithelium

II) Compound epithelium

• Functions and peculiarities such as cell junctions,avascular nature, inter cellular materials etc

Different types of simple epithelium on the basis of structural modification of cells, their location
and functions such as

1) Squamous epithelium

2) Cuboidal epithelium

3) Columnar epithelium

4) Ciliated epithelium

5) Pseudostratified epithelium

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

• Mention brush bordered columnar epithelium and brush bordered cuboidal epithelium, their
sites and functions.

• Mention the modification of simple epithelium such as

1) Germinal epithelium

2) Sensory epithelium

3) Glandular Epithelium

i) Unicellular glands

ii) Multicellular glands and examples

• Briefly mention endocrine glands, exocrine glands, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, mixocrine
glands/ heterocrine glands.

Compound epithelium → sites and functions

• Different types of cell junctions, their functions (gap junction, tight junction and adhering
jucntion etc.)

II. Connective tissue : -

Classified as Loose connective tissue, Dense connective tissue- [Regular and Irregular] and
specialised connective tissue.

• Loose connective tissue - Areolar tissue and Adipose tissue, their locations and functions,
components, nature of matrix etc

• Dense connective tissue - 1) Regular - Examples - Tendon and Ligaments

2) Irregular- examples - skin, periosteum, renal capsule etc.

• Specialised connective tissue - Blood, Bone, cartilage

III. Muscular tissue:

1) Skeletal muscles/ voluntary muscle

2) Smooth muscle/ visceral muscles/ Involuntary muscles

3) Cardiac muscles

IV. Neural tissue - Neurons, neuroglial cells

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. Which of the following serves as a support

framework for epithelium?
LEVEL - I 1) Adipose tissue
1. Out of the four basic types of tissues, which 2) Areolar tissue
one is an exception?
3) Specialised connective tissue
1) Muscular tissue
4) Dense connective tissue
2) Skeletal tissue
6. Dermis of skin has:
3) Neural tissue
1) Loose connective tissue
4) Epithelial tissue
2) Dense regular connective tissue
2. The inner surface of hollow tubes, like
bronchioles and fallopian tubes have: 3) Dense irregular connective tissue
1) Brush bordered epithelium 4) Epithelial tissue
2) Stratified squamous epithelium 7. Which of the following statement is false
3) Ciliated epithelium about muscles?

4) Simple cuboidal epithelium 1) Wall of blood vessels, stomach and

intestine contain striated muscles
3. Which of the following is not associated
with epithelium? 2) The smooth muscle fibres are fusiform

1) Cells are compactly packed with little 3) Cell junctions hold smooth muscle fibres
intercellular space together and they are bundled together in a
connective tissue sheath
2) It is highly vascularised
4) Both (1) and (3)
3) It forms covering or lining of external and
internal surfaces 8. Muscles of stomach, intestine and blood
vessels are:
4) It helps in protection, secretion,
absorption, respiration etc 1) Involuntary and smooth

4. The epithelium which is composed of a 2) Voluntary and smooth

single layer of tall and slender cells with
3) Involuntary and striated
nuclei located at the base and sometimes
their free surface may have microvilli, are 4) Voluntary and striated
commonly found in:
9. Which of the following structures have
1) Ducts of glands and tubular parts of cartilage?
nephrons in kidneys
1) Tip of nose and ear pinna
2) Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of
lungs 2) Between adjacent bones of the vertebral
column
3) Lining of stomach and intestine
3) Limbs and hands in adults
4) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of
nephrons in the kidneys 4) All of the above

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

10. Neuroglia are: 4. How many of the following characters for

epithelial tissue are correct?
1) Excitable cells of neural tissue
2) More than one half the volume of neural i) The squamous epithelium is found in the
tissue in our body walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs

3) Two to three times in volume of neural ii) Squamous epithelium is involved in

tissue in our body functions like forming a diffusion boundary

4) Protective and excitable cells of neural iii) The cuboidal epithelium is commonly
tissue found in ducts of glands and tubular parts
of nephrons in kidneys
LEVEL - II
1. “When one cell receives a signal to iv) Functions of cuboidal epithelium are
contract, its neighbours are also stimulated secretion and absorption
to contract”. This phenomenon is seen in
cardiac tissue due to the presence of v) The epithelium of proximal convoluted
tubule (PCT) of nephron in the kidney has
1) Tight junctions microvilli.
2) Adhering junctions 1) i, ii and iii only
3) Neuromuscular junctions
2) i, iv and v only
4) Gap junctions
3) iv and v only
2. The epithelium which is composed of a
single layer of cube-like cells are commonly 4) All of the above
found in:
5. Which of the following characters of cell
1) Ducts of glands and tubular parts of junctions are correct?
nephrons in kidneys
i) Three types of cell junctions found in
2) Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of
the epithelium and other tissues, are tight,
lungs
adhering and gap junctions
3) Lining of stomach and intestine
ii) Tight junctions help to stop substances
4) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes from leaking across a tissue
3. Which of the following statements is false
iii) Adhering junctions perform cementing to
about glands?
keep neighbouring cells together
1) Goblet cells secrete mucus
iv) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to
2) Exocrine glands possess ducts for communicate with each other
secretion of mucus, milk, saliva, earwax,
digestive enzymes, oil and other cell v) Rapid transfer of ions, small molecules
products. and sometimes big molecules takes place
through adhering junctions
3) Glandular epithelium consists of
specialized columnar or cuboidal cells 1) i, iii, iv and v 2) iii, iv and v
4) Endocrine glands secrete a variety of
3) i, ii, iii and iv 4) ii, iii, iv and v
enzymes

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Given diagram represents areolar 8. Match the figures in column II with

connective tissue. Identify A,B,C,D,E and characters given in column I and choose
choose correct option for them: the correct option:

Column I Column II

i) Unicellular

Multicellular
ii)
gland
1) A - Collagen fibre, B-Fibroblast, Compound
C-Macrophage, D-Mast cell iii)
epithelium
2) A- Mast cell, B-Macrophage, C-Fibroblast, Inner lining
D-Collagen fibre of ducts
3) A-Collagen fibre, B-Fibroblast, C-Mast of salivary
cell, D-Macrophage iv)
glands and
4) A-Macrophage, B-Mast cell, C-Collagen of pancreatic
fibre, D- Fibroblast ducts
7. Given four figures (I, II, III and IV) represent Provide
four different type of epithelial tissues. protection
Which option correctly identifies these against
v)
figures along with its correct location and chemical and
mechanical
function ?
stresses
Goblet
cells of the
vi)
alimentary
canal
Consisting
of isolated
vii)
glandular
cells
Consisting
viii) of cluster of
cells
Tissue Location Function
Walls of
Secretion and 1) (A) -(ii), (viii), (B) - (i), (vi), (viii),
1) I.Squamous blood
absorption
vessels (C)-(iii), (iv), (v)
Lining of
2) II. Cuboidal Diffusion 2) (A) -(iii), (iv), (v), (B) - (ii),
stomach
Ducts of Secretion and (C)-(i), (vi), (viii)
3) III. Columnar
glands absorption
move 3) (A) -(i), (vi), (vii), (B) - (ii), (viii),
particles or
IV. Ciliated (C)-(iii), (iv), (v)
4) Bronchioles mucus in
columnar
a specific 4) (A) -(i), (vii), (viii), (B) - (ii), (vi),
direction
(C)-(iii), (iv), (v)

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

9. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is 12. Given below are two statements one is
found in labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R):
1) PCT of nephrons in kidneys
Assertion (A): Walls of blood vessels and
2) Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of air sacs of lungs is made
up of simple squamous
lungs
epithelium
3) Lining of stomach and intestine Reason (R): Squamous epithelium involved
in functions like secretion
4) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
and absorption.
10. Which of the following statement is wrong? In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from
1) Dendrites contain Nissl’s granules the options given below:

2) Dendrites transmit impulse away from 1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
the cell body
2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3) The distal end of axon is branched 3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
4) Synaptic knob possesses synaptic
vesicles containing neurotransmitters 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
11. Choose the correct option for the blanks
13. Given below are two statements
marked as I, II and III
Statement I: Cartilages have a hard
(i).............help to stop substances from and non-pliable ground
leaking across a tissue (ii) .....perform substance rich in calcium
cementing to keep neighbouring cells salts and collagen fibres
together (iii).....facilitate the cells to which give its strength.
communicate with each other by connecting Statement II: Blood is a loose connective
the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. tissue rich in collagen fibres.

1) (i) Gap junctions (ii) Adhering junctions In the light of the above statements choose
(iii) Tight junctions the most appropriate answer from the
following
2) (i) Tight junctions (ii) Adhering junctions
1) Statement I and statement II are correct
(iii) Gap junctions
2) Statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) (i) Adhering junction (ii) Gap junctions (iii)
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Tight junctions
incorrect
4) (i) Tight junctions (ii) Gap junctions (iii) 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
Adhering junctions is correct

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 2 6. 3
2. 3 7. 1
3. 2 8. 1
4. 3 9. 4
5. 2 10. 2

LEVEL II

1. 3 6. 2 11. 2

2. 1 7. 4 12. 1

3. 4 8. 3 13. 2

4. 4 9. 1

5. 3 10. 2

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 Chapter
MORPHOLOGY OF ANIMALS
05 (COCKROACH, FROG)

SYNOPSIS

COCKROACH (Periplaneta americana)

Taxonomical position,

Habit and habitat

Body divisions, metamerism

Legs, podomeres, wings, their function, location etc

Mouth parts, function.

Chitinous exoskeleton, Sclerites and their names

Alimentary canal and associated glands

Open circulation - Dorsal heart, Haemocoel, Haemolymph

Tracheal respiration

Excretory system - Malpighian tubules, Location, Uricotelism, Additional excretory structures

Nervous system - Compound eyes, Mosaic vision, Antennae etc.

Sense organs

Male reproductive system, structure and function

Female reproductive system, structure and function

Paurometabolous metamorphosis

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 3. In cockroach mouth parts consist of a

labrum,a pair of mandibles, a pair of
LEVEL - I maxillae and a labium. Labrum and labium
act as:
1. How many statements are true for
Periplaneta americana ? 1) Upper and lower jaws respectively
2) Lower and upper jaws respectively
(i) They are nocturnal omnivores that live in
damp places in America only 3) Lower and upper lips respectively
4) Upper and lower lips respectively
(ii) Dorsal sclerites are called sternites and
ventral sclerites are called tergites which 4. Which of the following statements are
are joined to each other by thin and flexible correct about the forewings in cockroach?
arthrodial membrane 1) They are mesothoracic
(iii) Head is triangular in shape and allows 2) They are opaque, dark and leathery and
limited mobility. cover hind wings when at rest

(iv) In females, the 7th sternum is boat 3) They are not used in flight
shaped and together with the 8th and 9th 4) All of the above
sterna forms a brood or genital pouch.
5. The given figure represents the digestive
1) One 2) Two system of cockroach. Choose the correct
labelling :
3) Three 4) Four
2. The given figure represents head region
of cockroach, choose correct options for
labelled parts of head

1) 1- Salivary gland, 2- Oesophagus,

3- Gizzard, 4- Crop, 5- Hepatic caeca, 6-
Mesenteron, 7 - Malpighian tubules
2) 1- Salivary gland, 2 - Oesophagus, 3 -
Crop, 4 - Gizzard , 5 - Hepatic caeca, 6 -
Midgut, 7 - Malpighian tubules
3) 1 - Salivary gland, 2- Oesophagus, 3-
Crop, 4 - Gizzard, 5 - Malpighian tubules,
6 - Mesenteron, 7 - Hepatic caeca
4) 1- Salivary gland, 2 - Oesophagus, 3 -
Gizzard, 4 - Crop, 5 - Malpighian tubules,
6 - Midgut, 7 - Hepatic caeca

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. The nervous system in cockroach : 9. The given figure represent circulatory

system of cockroach, choose correct option
1) Is spread throughout the body for labelled part of circulatory system:

2) Is represented by segmentally arranged

ganglia and double ventral nerve cord

3) Consists of supra-oesopharyngeal
ganglia in head and dorsal nerve cord

4) Both (1) and (2) are correct

7. Which of the following is correct about

mosaic vision in cockroach?

1) With the help of several ommatida, a

cockroach receives several images of an 1 2 3
object Alary Chambers
1) Head sinus
muscles of heart
2) It gives more sensitivity but has less Anterior Alary Chambers
2)
resolution aorta mucles of heart
Anterior Chambers Alary
3)
3) Being common during night, it is called aorta of heart muscles
nocturnal vision also Alary Body
4) Head sinus
muscles sinus
4) All of the above 10. Given below are two statements one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
8. Which of the following is not a character of labelled as Reason (R):
cockroach? Assertion (A) : Cockroach is uricotelic.
Reason (R) : Malpighian tubules
1) Their fertilised eggs are encased in absorb nitrogenous waste
products and convert
capsules called ootheca them into uric acid which
is excerted out through
2) On an average, females produce 9-10 the hindgut.
oothecae, each containing 14-16 fertilized In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from
eggs the options given below:
1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) The nymph grows by moulting about 13
2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
times to reach the adult form
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
4) The nymphal stage has wings but adult
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
cockroaches have wing pads the correct explanation of (A)

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. Given below are two statements 3. Digestive juice in cockroach is secreted by:
Statement I : In male cockroach genital 1) Malpighian tubules
pouch lies at the hind end of
abdomen bounded dorsally 2) Hepatic caecae/ gastric caecae
by 9th and 10th terga and 3) Proventriculus
ventrally by the 9th sternum.
4) Phallomeres
Statement II : Male genital pouch contains
dorsal anus, ventral 4. Which of the following is known as tegmina
male genital pore and in cockroach?
gonapophysis.
1) Forewings
In the light of the above statement choose
2) Hindwings
the most appropriate answer from the
following 3) Forelegs
1) Statement I and statement II are correct 4) Metathoracic wings
2) Statement I and statement II are incorrect 5. The blood of cockroach contains no
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is respiratory pigment. It means that:
incorrect 1) Respiration is anaerobic
4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II 2) Cockroach has no respiratory system
is correct
LEVEL - II 3) Oxygen goes into tissues with H2O from
outside
1. Forewings in cockroach arise from: 4) Oxygen goes directly into tissue through
1) Mesothorax and are dark and leathery tracheal system
2) Prothorax and are called tegmina 6. In cockroach, the sense organs are:
3) Mesothorax and are transparent and 1) Antennae and eyes
membranous
2) Maxillary palps and labial palps
4) Prothorax and are transparent and
membranous 3) Anal cerci
2. Consider the following statements regarding 4) All of these
cockroach and mark the correct option
7. Select the correct statement about
a) Head is formed by the fusion of six cockroach
segments
1) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are
b) Mouth parts are biting and chewing type
present in male
c) Crop is the part of mid gut
2) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are
d) Proventriculus is an excretory organ present in female
1) Only b is correct 3) Anal styles are present but anal cerci are
2) Only b and c are correct absent in female
3) Only a and b are correct 4) Anal styles are absent but anal cerci are
present in female
4) Only d is correct

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. Phallic gland, phallomeres and caudal MORPHOLOGY OF ANIMALS - FROG

style/anal styles are found in:
LEVEL I
1) Male cockroach
2) Female cockroach 1. Which of the following is not applicable for
frog?
3) Both 1 & 2
1) The colour of dorsal side is generally
4) Frog olive green
9. Testes in cockroaches are present in: 2) Skin is always moist
1) 4th- 6th abdominal segments 3) Ventral side is uniformly olive green
2) 2nd-6th abdominal segments 4) Neck and tail are absent
3) 6 -8 abdominal segments
th th
2. Male frogs can croak louder than females
4) 2 -8 abdominal segments
nd th because of
10. Mark the incorrect statement about 1) large body
cockroach:
2) nuptial pad
1) Nymph differs from the adult in many
aspects 3) broad thorax

2) Spermatophore is the bundle of sperms 4) vocal sacs

discharged during copulation
3. Frog has
3) Each ootheca has 14 to 16 eggs
1) five fingers and four toes
4) Its development is paurometabolous
2) four fingers and five toes
11. The sperms are stored in the seminal 3) five fingers and five toes
vesicles and are glued together to form as
bundles called: 4) four fingers and four toes

1) Phallomere 4. When a frog is transferred from 26oC to

30oC, its body temperature :
2) Spermatheca 1) Remains same
3) Spermatophores 2) Sometimes change

4) Ootheca 3) Changes to 30oC

12. Genital or brood pouch in female cockroach 4) Changes to 28oC

is formed by: 5. Structure present in man but absent in frog
is
1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna
1) Salivary gland
2) 9th and 10th terga, 9th sterna
2) Pancreas
3) 9 to 10 terga only
th th
3) Adrenal glands
4) 9th and 10th sterna only 4) Thyroid gland

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9. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated

mainly as

6. 1) Urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog

2) Urea in adult frog and ammonia in tadpole
3) Urea in tadpole as well as in adult frog
4) Urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult
frog
10. Read the following statements about
frog
i) Adult frog is ureotelic
Diagrammatic representation of internal
organs of frog is given above. Label the ii) Tadpole is ammonotelic
parts 6,9,12, and 13
iii) On dry land it would die due to asphyxia,
1) 6 - Lung, 9 - Rectum, 12 - Ureter, 13 - if its mouth and external nostrils are forcibly
Urinary bladder kept closed for a few days.
2) 6 - Liver, 9 - Stomach, 12 - Kidney, 13 -
Rectum iv) External ear is absent, only tympanum
can be seen externally
3) 6 - Fat bodies, 9 - Intestine, 12 - Ureter,
13 - Cloaca v) Frog shows a pair of spherical compound
4) 6 - Lung, 9 - Cloaca, 12 - Ureter, 13 - eyes
Rectum Of the above statements
7. Read the following statement about frog?
1) Two are false
1) Copulatory pad is seen on the base of the
index finger of male frog 2) Only one is false
2) Nutritionally frog is a carnivore 3) Three are false
3) Truncus arteriosus in frog is seen on the
4) Four are false
ventral side of heart and it is also called as
conus arteriosus. 11. Mesorchium refers to
4) In frog the precaval and post caval are 1) Capsule in testes of frog
open into the left auricle
2) Capsule in ovaries of frog
Of the above statements
1) Two are false 3) A peritonial fold that connects ovary and
2) Only one is false kidney in frog
3) Three are false 4) A peritonial fold that connects testis and
4) Four are false kidney in frog
8. Frog shows 12. The cloaca in frog is a common chamber for
1) Hepatic portal system only the urinary tract, reproductive tract and
2) Hypophysial portal system only 1) Alimentary canal
3) Both renal portal system and hypophysial
2) Notochord
portal system
4) Both hepatic portal system and renal 3) Portal system
portal system. 4) Lymphatic system

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

13. How many ova are laid at a time by a mature LEVEL II

female frog?
1. Select the correct order of classification of
1) 500 to 1000 Rana tigrina upto genus.
1) Chordata, Craniata, Amphibia,
2) 1000 to 1500
Gnathostomata, Rana tigrina
3) 2500 to 3000 2) Chordata, Craniata, Gnathostomata,
Amphibia, Rana tigrina
4) 3500 to 4500
3) Chordata, Amphibia, Gnathostomata,
14. Read the following statements about frog. Craniata, Rana tigrina
Which of the statement (s) is/ are correct 4) Chordata, Craniata, Amphibia,
and incorrect? Gnathostomata, Rana tigrina
a) The medulla oblongata passes out 2. How many of the following statements are
through foramen Magnum and continues not true about Indian bull frog?
into spinal cord i) The skin is moist and slimy
b) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that ii) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end
arise from testes in five digits
c) Ovaries have no functional connection iii) Hepatic portal system and renal portal
with kidneys system are present
iv) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the
d) Frogs are uricotelic respiratory organs
1) a,b and c are correct but d is v) Heart is three chambered
incorrect 1) Three 2) Two
2) a and b are correct while c and d are 3) Four 4) One
incorrect 3. Which of the following is not applicable to
3) b and c are correct while a and d are Rana?
incorrect 1) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
2) Presence of kidneys
4) b , c and d are correct while a is incorrect
3) Two pairs of limbs
15. Select the correct route for the passage of
4) Presence of notochord in adult
sperms in male frogs?
4. Which one of the following characteristics is
1) Testes →Vasa efferentia → Kidney → common to both in humans and adult frogs?
Seminal vesicles → Urinogenital duct →
1) Four chambers of heart
Cloaca
2) Internal fertilization
2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s
3) Nucleated RBCs
canal →Ureter → Cloaca
4) Ureotelic mode of excretion
3) Testes →Vasa efferentia → Kidney → 5. During hibernation, frog shows :
Bidder’s canal → Urinogenital duct →
Cloaca 1) Pulmonary respiration only
2) Cutaneous respiration only
4) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney →
Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → 3) Branchial respiration only
Cloaca 4) Buccopharyngeal respiration only

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Read the following statements about frog 8. How many of the following statements are
not applicable to Rana?
a) The triangular sac like structure which
A) In frog teeth are homodont, acrodont and
receives blood through the vena cava is
polyphyodont
called sinus venosus and spread over the
dorsal surface of the heart B) RBC of frog is oval, biconvex and
nucleated
b) It shows dicondylic skull
C) Frog shows 12 pairs of cranial nerves
c) It shows both hibernation and aestivation and 9 pairs of spinal nerves
D) Frog never drinks water but absorbs it
d) It is poikilothermic through skin
e) Bidder’s canal is present in the 1) Three 2) One
urinogenital system of male frog 3) Two 4) Four
Of the above statements 9. Pick out the correct statements :

1) Only 3 are true a) In frog the ear acts as statoacoustic

receptors
2) Only 2 are true b) The ovaries of frog are situated near
3) Only 4 are true to the kidneys and there is no functional
connection with kidneys
4) 5 are true c) Frog’s skin is not a tango - receptor
7. How many of the following options are d) In female frog the ureters act as
correct? urinogenital ducts and open into the cloaca

a) In frog circulatory system is closed with 1) a, b and c only 2) a and b only

incomplete double circulation 3) a, c and d only 4) b and c only

b) The alimentary canal consists of 10. How many of the following statements are
oesophagus, stomach, short duodenum, applicable to frog?
intestine and rectum which opens into the i) Frog shows central nervous system
anus. (CNS), Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
and an Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
c) In frog, the testes are attached to the
upper part of kidney by a double fold of ii) Brain is divided into fore brain, mid brain
peritoneum called mesorchium. and hind brain
iii) Fore brain shows olfactory lobes,
d) Male frog crocks louder than the female
paired cerebral hemispheres and unpaired
because of vocal sacs and crocking is a sex
diencephalon
call.
iv) A pair of optic lobes are seen in fore
1) two are correct brain.
2) all are correct v) Hind brain shows cerebellum and medulla
oblongata
3) three are correct
1) Two 2) One
4) only one is correct 3) Three 4) Four

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. Choose the correct combination of labelling 13. In addition to eyes, Rana tigrina shows :
from the options given below
1) Sensory papillae as organs of touch

2) Nasal epithelium for smell

3) Tympanum with internal ears for

hearing

4) All the above

Assertion - Reason Type Questions

1) a = Testis, b = Kidney, c = Fat bodies, 1) If both are true with reason being a correct
d = Vasa efferentia, e = Adrenal gland, explanation
f = Cloaca
2) If both are true but reason is not a correct
2) a = kidney, b = Fat bodies, c = Vasa
efferentia, d = Adrenal gland, e = Cloaca, explanation
f = testis
3) If assertion is true and reason is wrong
3) a = Testis, b = Fat bodies, c = Kidney,
d = Adrenal gland, e - Cloaca, f - Vasa 4) If both are wrong
efferentia
14. Assertion : Frog shows renal portal
4) a = Kidney, b = Testes, c = Fat bodies, system
d = Adrenal gland, e = Vasa efferentia,
f = Cloaca Reason : It is a special venous
12. Choose the correct combination of labelling connection between the
from the options given kidneys and posterior parts of
the body.

15. Assertion : Frog changes its colour,

according to its surroundings.

1) a - Ovary, b - Oviduct, c - Cloaca, Reason : It is a way of mimicry to capture
d - Urinary bladder, e - Ureter, f - Cloacal
aperture preys.
2) a - Ovary, b - Oviduct, c - Cloaca,
d - Ureter, e - Cloacal aperture, f - Urinary
bladder
3) a - Ovary, b - Ova, c - Cloacal aperture,
d - Urinary bladder, e - Cloaca, f - Oviduct
4) a - Ova, b - Ovary, c - Oviduct, d - Cloaca,
e - Ureter, f - Urinary bladder, g - Cloacal
aperture

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

Morphology of animals - Cockroach

LEVEL I

1. 1 5. 2 9. 2
2. 2 6. 4 10. 3
3. 4 7. 4 11. 1
4. 4 8. 4

LEVEL II

1. 1 5. 4 9. 1
2. 3 6. 4 10. 1
3. 2 7. 4 11. 3
4. 1 8. 1 12. 1

Morphology of animals - Frog

LEVEL I
1. 3 6. 1 11. 4
2. 4 7. 2 12. 1
3. 2 8. 4 13. 3
4. 3 9. 2 14. 1
5. 1 10. 2 15. 3

LEVEL II

1. 2 6. 4 11. 2
2. 4 7. 3 12. 2
3. 4 8. 2 13. 4
4. 4 9. 2 14. 1
5. 2 10. 4 15. 3

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 Chapter
BIOMOLECULES
06

SYNOPSIS
06
• Cellular pool
• Major elements present in nonliving and living matter Eg: C,H,O,N,S,Na,Ca,Mg.
• Inorganic components
• Organic components
• Biomolecules (Macro & Micro)
• Micromolecules :Eg; water, minerals, simple sugars, amino acids, nucleotides, fatty acids etc.
• Macromolecules :Eg; carbohydrates, proteins and nucleic acids
• Chemical analysis of inorganic components (Ash test)
• Acid solubility test
• Average composition of cell
• Metabolites : (2 types)
w Primary Metabolites
w Secondary Metabolites
Major Biomolecules
1) Carbohydrates :-
2) Lipids : -
3) Proteins :-
4) Nucleic Acids :- (Nucleotides and brief structure of DNA)
• Enzymes : Biological catalysts
• Structure of enzymes (co-factors)
• Nature of enzyme action
• Factors affecting enzyme activity
• Enzyme inhibition
• Classification and Nomenclature of enzymes

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 5. Which of the following is a nitrogen

containing biomolecule?
LEVEL I
1) Enzyme
1. Find out the ascending order of percentage 2) Chitin
mass of biomolecules in a cell, from the
3) Lecithin
following :
1) Carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, 4) All of the above
proteins 6. Read the following statements
2) Proteins, nucleic acid, carbohydrates, on lipid and find out correct set of
lipids statements:
3) Nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids, a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is
proteins a glycolipid
4) Lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acids, b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or
proteins more C=C bonds
2. Match column I with column II and choose c) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
the correct option given below. d) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon including
the carboxyl carbon.
Column I Column II e) When one fatty acid is esterified with
a) Vinblastin i) Alkaloid glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the options
b) Morphine ii) Protein given below.
c) Ricin iii) Drug 1) a, b and d only 2) a, b and c only
d) Tyrosine iv) Toxin 3) a, d and e only 4) c, d and e only
e) Keratin v) Amino acid 7. Identify the aromatic aminoacid from the
following
a b c d e 1) Tyrosine 2) Lysine
a b c d e
1) 2) 3) Valine 4) Serine
ii,iii,iv, v,i iii,i,iv, v,ii
8. Which one of the proteins has quarternary
a b c d e a b c d e structure?
3) 4)
iv,iii, v,i,ii i,iv,ii,iii, v 1) Trypsin 2) Haemoglobin
3) Collagen 4) Keratin
3. Inulin is a polymer of
1) Amino acids 2) Glucose 9. Statement I : In amino acids four
substituent group
3) Fructose 4) Ribose
occupying the four valency
4. Read the statements about polysaccharides of carbon
and choose the correct one
Statement II : The chemical and physical
1) Cellulose is an insoluble, branched properties of amino acid
homopolymer of glucose based on the R-group only.
2) Starch forms helical secondary structure, 1) Statement I is true, whereas statement II
which can hold iodine is false
3) Complex polysaccharide like chitin is 2) Statement I is false, whereas statement II
heteropolymer is true
4) In glycogen, the left end is the reducing
3) Statement I and II are false
end and the right end is the non- reducing
end 4) Statement I and II are true

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

10. Find out mis-matched pair from the following 15. Statement I : In peroxidase and
catalase, heam is the co-
1) Structural protein - Keratin enzyme, which is loosely
bound to the protein part.
2) Regulatory protein - GLUT-4
Statement II : Holoenzyme has a
3) Catalytic protein - Trypsin
protein part, free from the
4) Tertiary protein - Enzyme co-factor.

11. The enzymes that catalyse removal of 1) Statement I and II are correct
groups form substrates by mechanisms 2) Statement I and II are incorrect
other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
1) Lyases wrong
2) Ligase 4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
correct
3) Dehydrogenase

4) Hydrolase LEVEL - II
12. Which of the following organic compound is 1. Find out the incorrect statement about acid
not a nucleoside? solubility test

1) Adenosine 1) The acid soluble pool represents roughly

the cytoplasmic composition
2) Guanosine
2) The macromolecules from cytoplasm
3) Cytosine and organelles become the acid insoluble
fraction
4) Uridine
3) Lipids, whose molecular weight do not
13. Find out the incorrect statement from the exceed 800Da, comes in the acid insoluble
following. fraction
1) Aminoacid is a substituted methane 4) Lipid vesicles formed from broken
membranes are soluble in Cl3COOH
2) Phospholipid has amphipathic nature
2. Which of the following is not a secondary
3) DNA is a homopolymer of ribonucleotides metabolite?
4) In chitin the monomers are of same type 1) Antibiotics 2) Antibodies

14. Which one of the following flow charts, is 3) Alkaloids 4) Flavonoid

correct about an enzyme action?
3. Which of the following set contains
1) E + S  ES → EP → E + P monosaccharides?
1) Ribose, glucose, lactose
2) E + S → ES  EP → E + P
2) Fructose, maltose, cellulose
3) E + S → ES → EP  E + P
3) Glucose, galactose, ribose
4) E + S  ES  EP  E + P 4) Sucrose, glucose, fructose

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

4. The homopolymer of sugars, which present 8. Match the columns with respect to the
as the store house of energy is/are : structural levels of protein and choose the
correct option.
1) Starch
Column I Column II
2) Glycogen Folded thread
a) Primary i) similar to revolving
3) Inulin staircase
Linear string of
4) All of the above spheres, spheres
b) Secondary ii) arranged one upon
5. Find out the correct statement about lipid each other in the
form of a cube.
1) Fatty acid has a carbonyl group attached Positional
to methyl, ethyl or higher number CH2 groups c) Tertiary iii) information of
amino acids
2) Fatty acid could be unsaturated without
d) Quarternary iv) Hollow woolen ball
double bonds or triple bonds
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
3) Palmitic acid has 18 carbons including 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
carboxyl carbon
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
4) Many lipids have fatty acids, which are
found esterified with glycerol 9. The heterocyclic compounds in nucleic acid
are
6. A lipid derivative, which has tetracyclic 1) Ribose
structure 2) Deoxiribose
3) Nitrogen base
1) Lecithin 4) Phosphoric acid
10. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
2) Cholesterol bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched
with the category mentioned against it?
3) Animal fat 1) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
2) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
4) Wax
3) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
7. The protein which fight against infectious 4) Adenine, Thymine - Purines
organisms? 11. Find out the correctly matched pair
1) Collagen - most abundant protein on
1) Trypsin earth
2) Sucrose - disaccharide of glucose and
2) Insulin fructose
3) Abrin - secondary metabolite belongs to
3) Antibody the group lectin
4) Arachidonic acid - 20 carbon saturated
4) GLUT-4 fatty acid

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12. Identify the biomolecules and choose the 13. Enzymes catalyse removal of hydrogen
correct option from substrates :
1) Oxido-reductases
A. NH2 CH COOH 2) Isomerases
3) Transferases
CH3 4) Lyases
14. Statement I : The difference in
average energy
O content of substrate
from that of transition
B. CH3 (CH2)14 C OH state is called activation
energy.
O
Statement II : Enzymes bring down
the activation energy
CH2 O C R1
O barrier, making the
transition of substrate
C. R2 C O CH O to product more easy.
1) Statement I and II are correct
CH2 O C R3 2) Statement I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
wrong
A 4) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
D. CH2OH O correct
15. Assertion : Vmax of a reaction is not
exceeded by any further
rise in the concentration
OH of substrate.
OH
Reason : There are no free active
A B C D sites to bind with the
additional substrate
Stearic Triglycer- Adenylic molecules.
1) Alanine
acid ide acid 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, the
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
Palmiti Triglycer- Adenos-
2) Seine
acid ide ine 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
but reason is not a correct explanation of
Palmit- Triglycer- Adenos- Assertion
3) Alanine
ic acid ide ine
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
Stearic Adenos- 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
4) Serine Lecithin
acid ine

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL I
1. 4 6. 4 11. 1
2. 2 7. 1 12. 3
3. 3 8. 2 13. 3
4. 2 9. 1 14. 1
5. 4 10. 2 15. 2

LEVEL II

1. 4 6. 2 11. 2
2. 2 7. 3 12. 3
3. 3 8. 4 13. 1
4. 4 9. 3 14. 1
5. 4 10. 4 15. 1

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 Chapter
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE
07 OF GASES

SYNOPSIS

Introduction

Need for respiration

Anaerobic and aerobic respiration

Types of respiration :- Cutaneous, Branchial, Pulmonary, Tracheal, Buccopharyngeal respiration

etc.

Human respiratory system :-

Structure : -

External nostrils

Nasal canal

Nasopharynx

Pharynx

Glottis, Adam's apple, Vocal cords

Trachea

Lungs : - Lobes, Pleura, Mediastinum, Cardiac notch, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli etc.

Mechanism of breathing

Inspiration and expiration

Role of diaphragm, intercostal muscles, abdominal muscles.

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

Lung volumes and capacities

TV, IRV, ERV, RV, IC, EC, FRC, VC, TLC

Pulmonary and alveolar ventilation rates.

Exchange of gases

Partial pressure of O2 and CO2

Diffusion membrane.

Transport of gases

Oxygen transport : - As oxyhaemoglobin. As dissolved form in plasma. Oxygen dissociation curve,

role of Hb. Factors affecting O2 transport, Bohr effect.

CO2 transport in blood :

As carbonic acid

As carbaminohaemoglobin

As bicarbonates

Mention - Carbonic anhydrase, chloride shift, (Hamburger phenomenon).

Control of breathing : -

Respiratory rhythm centre

Pneumotaxic centre

Chemosensitive areas - Aortic and Carotid bodies

Lung disorders :-

Asthma

Emphysema

Occupational lung disorders - Silicosis

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 6. The structure which doesnot contribute to

the breathing movements in mammals is
LEVEL - I
1) Ribs
1. The process of exchange of oxygen from
the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the 2) Larynx
cell is called 3) Diaphragm
1) Ventilation 2) Breathing
4) Intercostal muscles
3) Metabolism 4) Both 1 and 2
7. Which is not a function of the conducting
2. Match column I and column II and choose part of the respiratory system?
the correct option from the given choices
1) Transports air to the alveoli

2) Clears the air from the foreign particles

Column I Column II
i) Molluscs a) Moist cuticle 3) Brings the air to body temperature
ii) Pheretima b) Lungs 4) Act as the site of diffusion of oxygen and
iii) Locust c) Feathery gills carbondioxide
iv) Rana d) Tracheal tubes
8. The contraction of abdominal and internal
1) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b intercostal muscles in man causes

2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b 1) Forcible expiration

3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a 2) Inspiration
4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d 3) Normal expiration
3. The trachea and bronchi are provided with 4) Forcible inspiration
C- shaped cartilaginous rings which
1) Are responsible for sound production 9. pO2 - 104 mmHg and 95 mmHg in humans
are found respectively in:
2) Give them support and prevent their
collapse 1) Alveoli and tissues
3) Divide trachea and bronchi 2) Oxygenated blood and deoxygenated
4) Give support to lungs blood

4. Number of lobes in right and left lungs of 3) Alveoli and oxygenated blood
human are:
4) Alveoli and deoxygenated blood
1) 1 and 4 2) 3 and 2
10. CO2 dissociates from carbamino-
3) 4 and 2 4) 6 and 3
haemoglobin in alveoli, when
5. Alveoli of the lungs are lined by
1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
1) Ciliated epithelium
2) Columnar epithelium 2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low

3) Cuboidal epithelium 3) Both pCO2 and pO2 is high

4) Squamous epithelium 4) pCO2 and pO2 are same

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. Diffusion membrane is formed of all the 16. Which of the following gases makes most
following except stable combination with haemoglobin of
RBC?
1) Endothelial lining
2) Basement membrane 1) Oxygen

3) Cuboidal epithelium 2) Carbon monoxide

4) Squamous epithelium 3) Nitrogen

12. Which of the following is the primary 4) Carbon dioxide
inspiratory muscle?
1) External intercostal muscles 17. Select the favourable condition for the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
2) Internal intercostal muscles
1) High pO2 and low pCO2, less H+, lower
3) Diaphragm/ phrenic muscles temperature
4) Abdominal muscles
2) Low pO2 and high pCO2, more H+, higher
13. Breathing rate is lowered during eating temperature
because
3) High pO2 and high pCO2, less H+, higher
1) Our lungs donot get enough supply of temperature
blood
4) Low pO2 and low pCO2, more H+, higher
2) Swallowing and breathing cannot go temperature
together at the same time
3) Lungs are compressed as stomach 18. Carbon dioxide released from body tissues
enlarges is transported mainly as

4) More energy is required during eating 1) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs

14. Lungs are made up of air filled sacs called 2) Carboxyhaemoglobin

alveoli, and do not collapse even after
forceful expiration because of: 3) Dissolved CO2 in blood plasma

1) Inspiratory reserve volume 4) Bicarbonate in blood plasma

2) Tidal volume 19. Read the following statements carefully
3) Expiratory reserve volume and choose the wrong statement

4) Residual volume 1) Respiratory rhythm is maintained by the

respiratory centre in the medulla
15. The average amount of oxygen carried by
100ml of arterial blood is 2) Shifting of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation
1) 15ml curve to the right by increase of pCO2 is
called Bohr effect
2) 20 ml
3) Penumotaxic centre controls the switch
3) 5 ml off point of inspiratory ramp
4) 4 ml
4) Oxyhaemoglobin is alkaline

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

20. Match the diseases in column I with their 3. Which of the following structures are
symptoms in column 2 and choose the supported by incomplete cartilaginous
correct option rings?

a) Trachea
Column I Column II
b) 1O bronchi
A) Asthma i) Lung fibrosis
c) 2O bronchi
ii) Spasm of smooth
B) Bronchitis muscle around d) 3O bronchi
bronchioles
e) Initial bronchioles
iii) Damaged alveolar
C) Silicosis
wall f) terminal bronchioles
iv) Inflammation of
D) Emphysema g) duct of alveoli
bronchi
h) alveoli
1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 1) a, b, c, d and e

3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv 2) a, b, c, d, e and f

4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 3) a, b, c, d, e, f and g

LEVEL - II 4) a, b, c, d, e, f, g and h

1. Gaseous exchange by simple diffusion over 4. Read the statements regarding human
the entire body surface occurs in respiratory system.
1) Cnidaria p) conducting part constitutes of external
2) Osteichthyes nostrils, and the parts upto the terminal
bronchioles.
3) Reptilia
q) respiratory part constitutes of alveoli and
4) Arthropoda their ducts.
2. Find the mismatch
r) primary site for gas exchange is alveoli

s) respiratory part transports the

Respiratiory Types of
organs respiration
Examples atmospheric air to the alveoli and brings the
air to body temperature.
Cutaneous
1) Skin Frog
respiration Of the above statements,
Branchial
2) Gills Balaenoptera 1) p, q & s are correct, r is incorrect
respiration
Pulmonary 2) q & r are correct, p & s incorrect
3) Lungs Mammals
respiration
3) p & s are correct, q & r incorrect
Tracheal Insects
4) Tracheoles
respiration
4) p, q & r are correct, s is incorrect

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

5. Select the correct events that occur during 8. Contraction of primary inspiratory muscle :
inspiration.
1) increases thoracic volume in antero-
(a) Contraction of diaphragm posterior axis

(b) Contraction of external intercostal 2) increases thoracic volume in dorso-

muscles ventral axis
3) decreases thoracic volume in antero-
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
posterior axis
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases 4) decreases thoracic volume in dorso-
1) a and b ventral axis

2) c and d 9. In man, normal inspiration occurs by the

contraction of
3) a, b and d
1) External intercostal muscles and muscles
4) only d of diaphragm

6. Read the following statements; 2) Internal intercostal muscles and muscles

of diaphragm
i) We cannot directly alter the pulmonary
volume 3) External intercostal muscles only
4) Muscles of diaphragm only
ii) With the help of additional muscles in
the abdomen, humans have the ability to 10. Which is the correct sequence of steps in
increase the strength of inspiration and respiration?
expiration a) Transport of gases by the blood
iii) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax b) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
is such that any change in the volume of
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung c) Cellular respiration
cavity d) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood
and tissues
iv) We can directly alter the volume of the
pulmonary cavity e) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across the
alveolar membrane
Of the above statements
1) b → e → a → d→ c
1) Only two are correct
2) b → a → e → c → d
2) Only one is correct 3) b → d → a → e →c
3) Three are correct 4) b → e → d → a → c
4) All are correct 11. For efficient gaseous exchange, the
respiratory membrane should have the
7. Which of the following prevent collapsing of
following characters except.
trachea?
1) It should be easily permeable for O2 and
1) Intercostal muscles CO2
2) Diaphragm 2) It should be thick and highly vascular
3) Complete cartilaginous rings 3) Its surface area should be broad
4) Incomplete cartilaginous rings 4) It should be moist

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12. Match the column I and II and choose the 15. Which of the following factors affect the rate
correct combination from the options given of diffusion?

a) Pressure gradient
Column I Column II b) Concentration gradient
a) IC 1) EC + IRV
c) Solubility of gases
b) EC 2) RV + VC
d) Reactivity of gases
c) FRC 3) VC - ERV
e) Thickness of the membranes involved in
d) VC 4) ERV + RV
diffusion
e) TLC 5) TV + ERV
1) a,b and c

1) a→3, b→5, c→4, d→1, e→2 2) a,c,d and e

2) a→5, b→2, c→3, d→5, e→4 3) a,b,c and e

4) a,b,c,d and e
3) a→4, b→3, c→1, d→5, e→2
16. A large portion of oxygen remains unused
4) a→3, b→5, c→2, d→4, e→1
in the human blood even after its uptake by
the body tissues. This O2
13. What is the pO2 and pCO2 in the systemic
arteries? 1) Acts as a reserve during muscular
exercises
1) pO2 40 mmHg : pCO2 45 mmHg
2) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm Hg
2) pO2 95 mmHg: pCO2 104 mmHg
3) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin
3) pO2 95 mmHg : pCO2 40 mmHg saturation at 96%

4) pO2 45 mmHg : pCO2 40 mmHg 4) It helps in releasing more O2 to the

epithelial tissues
14. When diaphragm of man is completely
dome shaped, it shows 17. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by:

1) Oxygen concentration in venous blood

1) begining of expiration and end of
inspiration 2) Carbon dioxide concentration in venous
blood
2) end of expiration and begining of
inspiration 3) CO2 and H+ concentration in venous
blood.
3) increased rate of breathing
4) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion
4) decreased rate of breathing concentration in arterial blood

139
CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

18. Asthma is caused due to 19. Assertion : Respiratory rhythm centre is

1) Damage of the alveolar wall moderated by pneumotaxic
centre, located in the
2) Infection and bleeding of pleura
medulla region of the brain.
3) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
Reason : Signals of pneumotaxic
4) Bacterial infection causing fluid
accumulation in alveoli centre increases the
inspiratory duration.
Assertion - Reason and Statement Type
Questions
20. Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic
1) If both A and R are true and R is the
disorder in which alveolar
correct explanation of A.
walls are damaged.
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A Reason : Respiratory surface is
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false increased due to cigarette
smoking.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 4 6. 2 11. 3 16. 2
2. 1 7. 4 12. 3 17. 1
3. 2 8. 1 13. 2 18. 4
4. 2 9. 3 14. 4 19. 4
5. 4 10. 2 15. 2 20. 4

LEVEL II

1. 1 6. 3 11. 2 16. 1
2. 2 7. 4 12. 1 17. 4
3. 1 8. 1 13. 3 18. 3
4. 4 9. 1 14. 2 19. 4
5. 1 10. 1 15. 3 20. 3

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 Chapter
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION
08

SYNOPSIS
I. Blood
• Plasma
• Formed elements
II. Blood grouping
• ABO grouping
• Rh grouping
III. Coagulation of blood
IV. Blood vessels - Arteries, Veins and Capillaries
V. Lymph
VI. Circulatory pathways
• Open circulatory system with examples
• Closed circulatory system with examples
VII. Human circulatory system
• Heart - structure
• Cardiac cycle
• ECG
VIII. Double circulation
• Pulmonary circulation
• Systemic circulation
IX. Portal circulation
• Hepatic portal circulation
• Hypophyseal portal circulation
X. Regulation of cardiac activity
XI. Disorders of circulation
• Hypertension and Hypotension
• Coronary artery disease / Atherosclerosis
• Angina pectoris
• Heart failure, heart attack, cardiac arrest etc.

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

4. Given below is the table of blood groups

QUESTIONS and donor compatibility

LEVEL - I Blood Antigen Antibod- Donor’s

Group on RBC ies in group
1. Select the odd one regarding the type of
plasma
circulatory system in animals
A A Anti.B I
1) Hemichordates 2) Molluscs
B B II B, O
3) Annelids 4) Arthropods
2. How many of the following statements are A, B,AB,
AB III nil
O
true?
a. Plasma is a straw coloured viscous fluid O Nil Anti. A, B IV
and is nearly 55% of blood by volume
b. 90–92% of plasma is water and 6–8% Which of the following correctly matches
plasma proteins. the numbers I to IV ?
c. Fibrinogen and prothrombin are inactive
clotting factors in plasma. I II III IV
d. Globulins maintain osmotic pressure of
1) B, O Anti. B A, B A, O
blood
e. Albumins are responsible for defense 2) A, O Anti. A A, B O
mechanism of the body. 3) A, O Anti. B O A, B, AB, O
1) Two 2) Three
4) A, O Anti. A Nil O
3) Four 4) Five
3. Select the option that has all the correct
5. What is correct about safe blood
characteristics of various leucocytes transfusion?
1) Recipient’s RBC should not contain
Structure Per- Function Nucleus antigens against donor’s serum
centage
2) Recipient’s serum should not contain
antigens against donor’s antibodies
Multilobed 3) Recipient’s serum should not contain
1) 20 - 25 Phagocytic
(beaded)
antibodies against donor’s antigen
4) Recipient’s RBC should not contain
antibodies against donor’s antigen
Humoral S’ - 6. A mother starts preparing antibodies against
2) 0.5 - 1.0
immunity shaped
Rh antigen in her blood when
1) Rh negative mother exposed to the same
blood
Cell mediated Kidney
3) 60 - 65
immunity shaped 2) Rh positive mother exposed to Rh
negative blood
3) Rh negative mother exposed to Rh
positive blood
Bean
4) 6-8 Phagocytosis
shaped 4) Rh positive mother exposed to Rh
positive blood

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7. The exposure of foetal and maternal blood 12. Which of the following statements is true or
occurs : false about the human heart?
1) at third month of pregnancy
a) Heart is situated in the mediastinum,
2) at fifth month of pregnancy slightly tilted to the left
3) just before the birth
4) during the delivery of a child b) It is protected by a double walled
membranous bag, enclosing pleural fluid
8. Arrange the following components in the
sequence of activation of the blood clotting c) The atrium and the ventricle of the same
mechanism. side are separated by thin and muscular AV
a. Thrombokinase septum
b. Fibrinogen
d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves prevent
c. Platelets factors the backward flow of blood
d. Thrombin
1) c, a, b, d 2) c, b, d, a 1) All are true
3) a, b, c, d 4) c, a, d, b 2) a and d are true, b and c are false
9. How many of the following statements are
3) a and b are true, c and d are false
correct about lymphatic system?
A. lymphatic system collect tissue fluid and 4) a and c are true, b and d are false
drains it back to the major arteries.
13. Match items in column I and II and select
B. lymph contain larger proteins and most
the correct option.
of the formed elements
C. fats are absorbed through lymph in
lacteals present in the intestinal villi
Column I Column II
D. lymph has the same mineral distribution
as that in plasma Bicuspid At the mouth of
a) p)
1) one 2) two valve great arteries
3) three 4) four Between left
Tricuspid
10. Choose the correct statement b) q) atrium and left
valve
1) Fishes have two chambered heart with ventricle
two ventricles Between right
Semilunar
2) Amphibians have 3 chambered heart c) r) atrium and right
valves
with a single atria and two ventricles ventricle
3) Single circulation is found in fishes Left lower corner
d) SA node s)
4) Birds possess incomplete double of right atrium
circulation Right upper
11. Which of the following terms are applicable e) AV node t) corner of right
to human heart? atrium
a. Myogenic heart
b. Tetralocular heart
c. Venous heart a b c d e
d. Arteriovenous heart 1) q r p s t
e. Complete double circulation 2) q r p t s
1) a, b, d & e 2) b, c & d 3) p r q t s
3) a, b & e 4) a & b only 4) r q p s t

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14. Find the option showing correct sequence 18. How many of them are false about a
of the given events in cardiac cycle? standard electrocardiogram :
1. SAN activation
2. Flow of blood into aorta and pulmonary
artery
3.Lub sound
4. Dup sound
a) P wave - Atrial depolarisation
5. Joint diastole
b) QRS complex - Ventricular repolarisation
6. Atrial systole
c) T wave - Ventricular depolarisation
1) 1 → 6 → 3 → 2 → 5 → 4
2) 3 →6 → 2 → 3 → 5 → 4 d) End of T wave - End of ventricular systole

3) 1 → 6 → 3 → 2 → 4 → 5 1) Only one 2) Two

4) 1 → 6 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 3) Three 4) All

15. During joint diastole, 19. Read the following statements and select
the correct option.
1) blood from the left ventricles flows
through aorta i) Normal cardiac activities are regulated
intrinsically
2) blood from the pulmonary veins and vena
cava flows into the left and right ventricle ii) ‘Lub’ is heard at the beginning of atrial
respectively systole
3) blood flow into the ventricles from the iii) Pulse rate is equal to that of heart beat
atria increases by about 30% rate
4) blood flows into the lungs through iv) Angina pectoris is occurs due to
pulmonary artery insufficient O2 supply to the heart muscle
16. Which of the following does not occur in v) A special neural centre moderate cardiac
ventricular systole? functions, located in the hypothalamus
1) Cardiac impulses spread through 1) ii, v are correct, while i, iii, iv are incorrect
ventricular myocardium
2) ii, v, iii are correct while i, iv are incorrect
2) Closing of atrio ventricular valves
3) i, iii, iv are correct, but ii, v are incorrect
3) Opening of semilunar valves
4) i, iii are correct but ii, iv, v are incorrect
4) Flow of blood from great arteries to
ventricles 20. The state of heart when it is not pumping
blood effectively enough to meet the needs
17. Which of the following is the flow chart of of the body, is;
systemic circulation?
1) Heart attack
Aorta
1)LV  cavalveins
→ body tisues → RA 2) Cardiac arrest
Pulmonary artery Pulmonary veins
2)RV 
→ lungs 
→ LA
3) Angina pectoris
Coronary arteries coronary veins
3)LV  → cardiac muscles → RA
Hepatic portal vein
4)Digestive tract → Liver 4) Heart failure

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

4. How many of the following are true about

LEVEL - II
erythroblastosis foetalis?
1. Which of the following statements is 1) It is the haemolytic disease of Rh+ foetus
incorrect regarding blood ? of an Rh- mother
2) Foetal RBC cannot cross placenta
1) Blood is a fluid connective tissue of 3) Foetal Rh antigens enter maternal blood
mesodermal origin during delivery
2) Nutrients in the plasma are always in 4) ‘Anti-Rh’ antibody injection to the
transit in the body mother just after the first delivery is its
prevention
3) Serum is blood without clotting factors 1) one 2) two
4) Plasma contains inactive form of clotting 3) three 4) four
factors
5.
2. Select the correctly matching option
regarding formed elements and their
features.

Formed
Characters
Elements
Neutrophils and
1) a) Agranulocytes
monocytes
Lymphocytes Allergic
2) b)
and monocytes reactions
Erythrocytes and Phagocytic
3) c) The valve labelled 2 and 3 are respectively
thrombocytes cells
Blood cells 1) Bishop’s valve and tricuspid valve
Basophils and
4) d) without
Eosinophils 2) Tricuspid valve and mitral valve
nucleus
3) Aortic valve and pulmonary valve
4) Pulmonary valve and aortic valve
1234 1234
1) 2) 6. How many of the following statements are
cabd cadb correct regarding human heart
1234 1234 a) A thin fibrous wall called inter-atrial
3) 4) septum separates the right and the left
dacb bcad
atria.
3. In a blood group testing, the blood b) A thick muscular tissue called atrio-
agglutinated with Anti A and Anti B but not ventricular septum seperates the atrium
and ventricle of the same side
with Anti Rh. The blood group is :
c) The valves in the heart allows the flow of
1) A positive blood only in one direction
2) B negative d) The walls of ventricles are much thicker
than that of atria
3) AB negative
1) 2 2) 1
4) AB positive 3) 4 4) 3

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

7. Read the following statements and choose 9. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
the correct option. cardiac cycle?

a) The nodal musculature has the ability 1) At the end of joint diastole, ventricles are
to generate action potentials without any filled to 30% by volume
external stimuli 2) During ventricular systole, the auricles
are under diastole
b) The SAN can generate maximum
number of action potentials 3) Semilunar valves remain closed in
ventricular diastole
c) Many cardiac cycles are performed per
4) AVN, AV bundle and purkinje fibres
minute
conduct action potentials to ventricular
d) Our heart normally beats 70 – 75 times musculature
in a minute 10. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
atrial systole
1) a is true and others are false
1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open
2) b and d are true, a and c are false
2) Semilunar valves are closed
3) a,b and d are true, c is false
3) Blood flow from atria to the ventricles
4) all are true decreases

8. The given diagram shows various events 4) Action potential from SAN depolarise
in cardiac cycle atria
11. Match the following
Column I Column II
1) Heart beat a) 72/ minutes
2) Blood pressure b) 40 mm Hg
3) Pulse pressure c) 120/80 mm Hg
4) Stroke volume d) 0.8 sec
5) Cardiac cycle e) 70 ml/ beat

12345
1)
abcde

Which of these events coincide with 12345

2)
ventricular systole? acbed

1) Joint diastole
12345
3)
2) Ventricular diastole acbde
3) Atrial diastole
12345
4) Atrial systole 4)
acdbe

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12. Which one of the following statement is 15. Systemic circulation refers to
correct?
1) the flow of deoxygenated blood into
1) The atrio ventricular node (AVN) the lungs through pulmonary artery and
generates an action potential to stimulate oxygenated blood into atria through
atrial contraction
pulmonary vein
2) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves
open due to the pressure exerted by the 2) the flow of oxygenated blood from the left
simultaneous contraction of the atria ventricle to tissues through arterial system
and deoxygenated blood from the tissues to
3) Blood moves freely from atrium to the
the atria through venous system
ventricle during joint diastole
4) Increased ventricular pressure causes 3) the flow of deoxygenated blood from
the closure of the semilunar valves the lungs through pulmonary artery and
deoxygenated blood from the tissue to the
13. A well trained athlete has 50 ml blood at the
atria
end of ventricular systole and 140 ml blood
at the end of its diastole and his heart beats 4) the flow of oxygenated blood from
60 times/min. His cardiac output is ventricles to tissue through aorta and
1) 7000 ml oxygenated blood into the atria through
2) 3000 ml pulmonary vein

3) 5000 ml 16. Tunica intima of blood vessels is made up

of
4) 5400 ml
14. Which of the following statement is/are 1) Smooth muscles
incorrect?
2) Elastic fibrous connective tissue
a) By counting the number of ‘QRS’
complexes that occur in a given time period, 3) Collagen fibres
one can determine the heart beat rate of an 4) Squamous epithelium
individual
17. Find out the incorrect statement about the
b) P-wave represents the depolarisation of
regulation of cardiac activity
the atria, which leads to the relaxation of
both the atria 1) Normal activities of the heart are
c) The end of the T wave marks the end of regulated by specialised muscles called
atrial systole nodal tissue
d) The stroke volume multiplied by the heart 2) Adrenal medullary hormone increases
rate gives the cardiac output cardiac output
e) The heart sound ‘lub’ is associated with
3) Neural signals through the sympathetic
the closure of semilunar valves
nerve decreases the strength of ventricular
1) b and c are incorrect contraction
2) b and e are incorrect
4) Parasympathetic neural signals
3) e only is incorrect decreases the speed of conduction of
4) b,c and e are incorrect action potentials

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

Assertion (A) - Reason (R) and Statement 20. Statement I : Heart failure is a state of
Type Questions acute chest pain appears
when no enough oxygen
1) If both A and R are true and R is the
is reaching the heart
correct explanation of A.
muscle.
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A Statement II : Angina pectoris is a
disorder of the heart,
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
when it is not pumping
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false blood effectively enough
18. Assertion : Normal cardiac activities to meet the needs of the
are regulated intrinsically body.

Reason : Nodal musculature has In the light of the above statements choose
the ability to generate the most appropriate answer from the
action potentials without options given below:
any external stimuli
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
19. Assertion : During each cardiac
correct
cycle, two prominent
sounds are produced
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
which can be easily heard
incorrect
through a stethoscope
Reason : The first heart sound is 3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
associated with closure incorrect
of semilunar valves
whereas the second 4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
heart sound is associated is correct
with the closure of the AV
valves

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 3 6. 3 11. 1 16. 4

2. 2 7. 4 12. 2 17. 1

3. 4 8. 4 13. 2 18. 2

4. 2 9. 2 14. 3 19. 3

5. 3 10. 3 15. 2 20. 4

LEVEL II

1. 3 6. 1 11. 2 16. 4
2. 2 7. 4 12. 3 17. 3
3. 3 8. 3 13. 4 18. 1
4. 4 9. 1 14. 4 19. 3
5. 3 10. 3 15. 2 20. 2

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 Chapter
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND
09 THEIR ELIMINATION

SYNOPSIS

1) Mode of excretion in animals

• Ammonotelism - Aquatic organisms Eg. Bony fishes

• Uricotelism - Terrestrial organisms Eg. Birds, Lizards

• Ureotelism - Terrestrial and marine organisms eg : Mammals

2) Different types of excretory organs in animals

3) Human excretory system

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

1. Nephron

4) Urine formation
1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion
5) Functions of renal tubule
1. PCT
2. Henle’s Loop
3. DCT
4. Collecting duct
6) Mechanism of concentration of the filtrate
7) Regulation of Kidney functions
1. ADH
2. RAAS
3. ANF
8) Micturition
9) Composition of urine
10) Abnormal constituents of urine
11) Accessory excretory organs
1. Skin
2. Liver
3. Lungs
12) Disorders
1. Uremia
2. Renal Calculi
3. Glomerulonephritis
13) Haemodialysis

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 6. Identify the correct terms used to designate

following letters a , b, c, d respectively

LEVEL - I a) The double walled cup of a nephron along

1. Which of the following set contains group of with glomerulus
Ureotelic animals?
b) A tuft of capillaries formed by the afferent
1) Marine fishes, amphibians, mammals arteriole
2) Bony fishes, mammals, terrestrial insects
c) The efferent arteriole emerging from the
3) Aquatic insects, amphibians, land snails glomerulus forms a fine capillary network
around the renal tubule.
4) Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians,
mammals
d) A blood vessel that runs parallel to the
2. Correct order of excretory organs loop of Henle
in cockroach, earthworm and rabbit
respectively 1) Renal corpuscle, Glomerulus, Vasa recta,
Peritubular capillary
1) Skin, Malpighian tubules , kidneys
2) Malpighian tubules, nephridia, kidneys 2) Renal corpuscle, Glomerulus, Peritubular
capillaries, Vasa recta
3) Nephridia, Malpighian tubule, kidneys
3) Malpighian body, Efferent arteriole,
4) Kidneys , nephridia , Malpighian tubule.
Henle’s loop, Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Human kidneys are present on either side of
the vertebral column at the level of 4) Renal corpuscle, Renal calyx, Ureter,
Pyramids
1) 10th thoracic to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
2) 12th thoracic to 5th lumbar vertebrae 7. Which of the following are correct about
juxta medullary nephrons?
3) Last thoracic to 3rd lumbar vertebrae
i) Short loop of Henle
4) Last thoracic to 5th lumbar vertebrae
4. A notch present on the medial side of kidney ii) Long loop of Henle
is known as
iii) 85% of total nephrons
1) Ureter 2) Pelvis
iv) 15% of total nephrons
3) Hilum 4) Pyramid
5. Columns of Bertini in the kidney of man are v) Vasa recta reduced
formed as the extension of
1) i, iii, and iv
1) Medulla into cortex
2) i, iii and v
2) Cortex into medulla
3) Medulla into pelvis 3) ii and iv

4) Pelvis into ureter 4) i, ii and iii

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

8. The given figure represents the malpighian 10. The filtration membrane of a nephron
body. Identify the labelled parts A to D and contains :
select the correct option
1) Epithelium of Bowman's capsule
2) Endothelium of glomeruli
3) Basement membrane of endothelium and
Bowman's capsule
4) All of these
11. In which part of the nephron of mammals
you can first use the term urine for the fluid
it contains ?
1) Bowman’s capsule
A B C D 2) Loop of Henle
Proximal
Efferent Afferent Bowman’s 3) Collecting tubule
1) convoluted
arteriole arteriole capsule
tubule
4) Ureter
Proximal
Afferent Efferent Renal
2) convoluted 12. The increase in osmolarity from outer to
arteriole arteriole corpuscle
tubule
inner medullary interstitium is maintained
Proximal
Afferent Efferent Bowman’s due to:
3) convoluted
arteriole arteriole capsule
tubule a) close proximity between Henle’s loop and
Distal vasa recta
Afferent Efferent Bowman’s
4) convoluted
arteriole arteriole capsule
tubule b) counter current mechanism
c) selective reabsorption of HCO3- and
hydrogen ions in PCT
9. How many of the following statements are
correct about peritubular capillaries? d) higher blood pressure in glomerular
capillaries
i) The afferent arteriole modified to become
a thin blood capillary network called as 1) 'a' and 'b'
peritubular capillaries 2) only 'b'
ii) Peritubular capillaries can be observed at 3) 'c' and 'd'
renal medulla
4) 'a', 'b' and 'c'
iii) During tubular reabsorption, electrolytes
from peritubular capillaries enter the DCT 13. In RAAS mechanism the function of
angiotensin II is:
iv) Peritubular capillaries combined to form
1) Stimulation of adrenal medulla.
renal vein
2) To enhance the water and sodium
1) One
reabsorption from renal tubule.
2) Two
3) To decrease the heart beat and dilate
3) Three arterioles.
4) Four 4) All of the above

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

14. Which of the following groups of hormones 17. Which of the following organs/ structures
are participated in the regulation of the renal other than kidneys, also help in the
function ? elimination of excretory wastes?
1) ADH , TSH and ANF a) Lungs

2) ACTH , TSH and ANF b) Liver

3) ADH , STH and ANF c) Sweat glands

4) ADH , ANF and Aldosterone d) Sebaceous gland

15. Which of the following statements are 1) a only 2) a and b only

correct ? 3) a, b and c only 4) a,b,c and d
(i) Glucose has high threshold value. 18. Match the items in column I and column II
(ii) Urine gets concentrated due to counter and select the correct option.
current mechanism.
(iii) Haemodialyser removes urea , uric acid, Column I Column II
glucose and proteins.
1) Juxtaglomerular
a) Erythropoietin
(iv) In glomerulus , urea , uric acid ,water , cells
glucose and proteins are filtered out.
2) Stimulate the
b) Vasopressin
Options : release of aldosterone

1) (i), (ii) & (iii) 2) ( ii),(iii) & (iv) c) ANF 3) RBC production

3) (i) & (ii) 4) (ii) & (iv). d) Renin 4) Act as vasodilator

16. The outline of main events during micturition e) Angiotensin II 5) Hypothalamus

is given below in a random manner.
1) a - 3 , b - 5, c - 4 , d - 1 , e - 2
i) CNS passes motor messages to initiate the
contraction of smooth muscles of bladder and 2) a - 3 , b - 5 , c - 4 , d - 2 ,e - 1
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
3) a - 3 , b - 5 , c - 2, d - 1 , e – 4
ii) The bladder fills with urine and become
4) a - 5 , b - 4 , c - 2, d - 3, e - 1
distended
19. Which of the following is correct with
iii) Micturition
reference to haemodialysis?
iv) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary
1) Blood is taken out from the vein of the
bladder send signals to CNS
patient
The correct sequence of events is :
2) The dialysing fluid contains large amount
1) (iv) → (i) → (iii) → (ii) of nitrogenous waste products

2) (ii) → (iv) → (i) → (iii) 3) Blood is pumped back through a suitable

artery after haemodialysis
3) (ii) → (i) → (iv) → (iii)
4) Nitrogenous wastes are removed by
4) (iv) → (ii) → (i) → (iii) diffusion

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

20. Given below are two statements 2. Refer the following diagram and identify the
parts of kidney indicated
Statement I : Deficiency of the hormone
insulin results in diabetes
insipidus

Statement II : Glycosuria is an indication

of diabetes mellitus.

In light of the above statements choose the

most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are

correct

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are 1) A - Cortex, B - Renal column, C - Medullary

incorrect pyramid, D - Renal vein, E - Ureter

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 2) A - Cortex, B - Medulla, C - Medullary

incorrect pyramid, D - Renal artery, E - Ureter

4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II 3) A - Cortex, B - Renal column, C - Medullary

is correct
pyramid, D - Renal artery, E - Ureter

4) A - Cortex, B - Renal column, C - Nephron, D
LEVEL - II
- Renal vein, E - Ureter
1. Which one of the following statements is
3. Find the incorrect match :
incorrect?

1) In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of

waste material occurs through Malpighian 1) Inner layer of Squamous
tubules. Bowman’s capsule epithelium

2) In Echinoderms ,the excretory system is 2) Proximal Brush bordered

absent. convoluted tubule cuboidal epithelium

3) In Fasciola, flame cells take part in 3) Ureter and Transitional

urinary bladder epithelium
excretion.
4) The descending
Pseudostratified
4) In Balanoglossus , the proboscis glands limb of Henle’s
epithelium
act as excretory organs. loop

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

4. In kidney, the juxtaglomerular 8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

apparatus (JGA) is a special
1) Medullary zone of kidney is differentiated
sensitive region formed by cellular
to form medullary pyramids.
modifications at the location of contact
between: 2) Inside kidney cortical regions extends in
between medullary pyramids as columns of
1) Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent
Bellini.
arteriole
3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule
2) Distal convoluted tubule and efferent is called Malpighian body.
arteriole
4) Renal corpuscles, PCT and DCT of the
3) Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent nephrons are situated in the cortex.
arteriole
9. The proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
4) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent is lined by
arteriole
1) Brush bordered columnar epithelium
5. The blood vessel taking blood towards the
2) Ciliated squamous epithelium
Bowman’s capsule is
3) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
1) Afferent arteriole
4) Simple columnar epithelium
2) Efferent arteriole
10. Which of the following is the site of conditional
3) Renal vein reabsorption of water and sodium ions?
4) Vasa recta. 1) Descending limb of loop of Henle

6. The glomerular filtration rate in a healthy 2) Proximal convoluted tubule

person is approximately
3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
1) 125 ml/minute
4) Distal convoluted tubule.
2) 125 ml/ day
11. Identify the correct statement regarding
3) 180 ml/ minute urine formation.

4) 180 ml/ day 1) To prevent diuresis, ADH facilitates water

reabsorption from the latter parts of the renal
7. Which of the following is not a part of renal tubule.
pyramid ?
2) Maximum reabsorption of electrolytes
1) Peritubular capillaries occurs in the Henle’s loop.

2) Convoluted tubules 3) Counter current mechanism works around

the glomerulus and PCT.
3) Collecting duct
4) A decrease in blood pressure can increase
4) Loop of Henle the glomerular blood flow.

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12. Study the figure and answer the following. 14. Identify [a,b,c & d] in the following diagram

i) Which part carries out first step of urine

formation?
1) 1 2) 2 1) a - Glomerulus, b - Renal artery,
c - Tubular reabsorption, d - Tubular
3) 3 4) 4 secretion
ii) Which of the following part extends from 2) a - Bowman’s capsule, b - Afferent
the cortex of kidney to the inner parts of arteriole, c - Tubular reabsorption,
medulla? d - Tubular secretion
1) 4 2) 6 3) a - Bowman’s capsule, b - Afferent
3) 8 4) 10 arteriole, c - Tubular secretion,
d - Tubular reabsorption
iii) Which of the following part has brush
bordered cuboidal epithelium? 4) a - Bowman’s capsule, b - Dorsal aorta,
c - Glomerular filtration, d - Tubular
1) 2 2) 4 secretion
3) 7 4) 8 15. Match column I with column II and select the
13. Read the following four statements A-D correct answer from the following

A) Nephrons are the functional units of

kidney Column I Column II
B) Each human kidney has two million Electrolytes
1 A 120 - 170 gm
nephrons. absorbed in PCT
C) Calyces are the projections of renal Urea eliminated/
2 B 70 - 80%
pelvis. day

D) Each kidney in an adult human is 10-12 Blood filtered

cm in width, 5-7 cm in thickness, 2 – 3 cm in 3 by the kidneys/ C 25 - 30gm
length. minute

How many of the above statements are Average weight

4 D 1100 - 1200 ml
right? of a kidney
1) Four 1) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
2) Two 2) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
3) One 3) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
4) Three 4) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

16. The least amount of urea is found in the 18. Match the following and select the correct
option :-
blood of

1) Hepatic vein A B
1) Uric acid crystals in
2) Renal vein A) Nephritis
joints
2) Presence of
3) Renal artery B) Renal calculi
glucose in urine

4) Inferior vena cava 3) Calcium oxalate

C) Gouty arthritis
crystals
17. Which of the following statements are True D) Podocytes 4) Bright’s disease
E) Glycosuria 5) Bowman’s capsule
or False ?
1) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 5; E – 2
a) Glomerular filtrate is hypertonic solution. 2) A – 4; B – 2; C – 1; D – 3; E – 5
3) A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 5; E – 1
b) Normal urine is two times more 4) A – 3; B – 4; C – 5; D – 2; E – 1
concentrated than initial filtrate. Assertion - Reason and Statement Type
Questions
c) The normal blood urea level of man is 1) If both A and R are true and R is the
about 17 – 38 mg /100ml of blood correct explanation of A.
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
d) The filtrate gets diluted as it moves down correct explanation of A
in the descending limb of loop of Henle but 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
it gets more concentrated in the ascending
19. Assertion : In PCT all of the essential
limb. nutrients and 70-80 % of
electrolytes and water are
e) The filtrate in the DCT is hypertonic to reabsorbed.
blood. Reason : PCT is lined by simple brush
bordered cuboidal epithelium
1) b , e , True, a ,c , d , False which increases the surface
area for reabsorption.
2) c , d , e True , a , b , False
20. Assertion : NaCl and urea play a
3) b , c , e ,True , a , d , False significant role in the
formation of hypertonic urine
4) All except c are False.
Reason : Increasing osmolarity towards
the medullary interstitium is
caused by NaCl and urea.

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ANSWER KEY
LEVEL I

1. 1 6. 2 11. 3 16. 2
2. 2 7. 3 12. 1 17. 4
3. 3 8. 3 13. 2 18. 1
4. 3 9. 2 14. 4 19. 4
5. 2 10. 4 15. 3 20. 4

LEVEL II

1. 1 6. 1 11. 1 15. 3

2. 3 7. 2 12. i) 2 16. 2

3. 4 8. 2 ii) 4 17. 4

4. 4 9. 3 iii) 4 18. 1

5. 1 10. 4 13. 2 19. 1

14. 3 20. 1

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 Chapter
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
10

SYNOPSIS

Introduction

• Comparison and examples of ‘locomotion’ and ‘movement’.

Types of movements

• Amoeboid, Ciliary and Muscular movements with examples.

MUSCULAR SYSTEM

• Properties of muscles
Types of muscles

• Comparison of Skeletal, Visceral and Cardiac muscles

Structure of skeletal muscle

• Fascicle, Fascia, Muscle fibre, Sarcolemma, Sarcoplasm, Sarcosome, Sarcoplasmic reticulum

[SR], Myofibril, Myofilaments, Sarcomere

Structure of Sarcomere

• A-band, I-band, H-zone, Z-line, M-line etc.

Structure of Contractile proteins

• Actin - F-actin, Tropomyosin, Troponin

• Myosin - Meromyosin, LMM, HMM

Muscle Contraction

• Sliding filament theory

• Motor unit, Neuro Muscular Junction [Motor end plate], Neurotransmitter - Acetyl choline, sarco-
plasmic cisternae

Major events in muscle contraction

Types of skeletal muscle

• Comparison of Red muscle fibre and White muscle fibre

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

SKELETAL SYSTEM

Axial skeleton - 80 Bones

• Skull--- cranium, facial bones, hyoid, ear ossicles

• Vertebral column---cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

• Sternum / Breast bone

• Ribs - true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs

Appendicular skeleton - 126 bones

• Limb bones (4 × 30 = 120)

Forelimb bones - Humerus, Radius, Ulna, Carpals, Metacarpals, phalanges

Hindlimb bones - Femur, Tibia, Fibula, Patella, Tarsals, Metatarsals, Phalanges

• Girdle bones - pectoral & pelvic bones

Pectoral girdle - Scapula / shoulder blade → spine, acromion process, glenoid cavity

clavicle / collar bone

Pelvic girdle - Coxal bone → ilium, ischium, pubis, pubic symphysis, acetabulum
JOINTS

• Fibrous joint - immovable joint or fixed joints. eg:- cranial joint

• Cartilaginous joint - slightly movable joints eg:-intervertebral joints, pubic symphysis

• Synovial joints - freely movable joints

(i) Ball & socket joint - shoulder joint, hip joint

(ii) Hinge joint - elbow joint, knee joint, inter phalangial joints.

(iii) Pivot joint - atlas-axis joint

(iv) Gliding joint - intercarpal joint and intertarsal joint

(v) Saddle joint - carpo-metacarpal joint of thumb

DISORDERS

(i) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune disorder

(ii) Muscular dystrophy - (genetic disorder)

(iii) Tetany - Rapid spasm of muscle

(iv) Osteoporosis - Calcium depletion [Demineralisation]

(v) Arthritis------ (a) Osteo arthritis (b) Gouty arthritis (c) Rheumatoid arthritis

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QUESTIONS 4. Identify the type of muscle from the features

given below.
LEVEL I
i) Striped appearance under microscope
1. Which one of the following condition does
not justify the statement “Locomotory ii) Activities are under the voluntary control
structures need not be different from those of nervous system
affecting other types of movements”? iii) Primarily involved in locomotory actions
1) Hydra can use its tentacles for capturing and changes of body postures
its prey and also use them for locomotion 1) Cylindrical, striated, syncitial, branched
muscles
2) Obelia can use their nematocysts for an-
chorage and swimming 2) Spindle shaped, uninucleated, unstriped
muscles
3) In paramecium, cilia helps in the move-
ment of food through cytopharynx and in 3) Cylindrical, striated, syncitial, unbranched
locomotion as well muscles

4) Humans use limbs for changes in body 4) Cylindrical, striated, uninucleated,

postures and locomotion as well branched muscles

2. Pick out the correct statement with respect 5. Diagrammatic cross sectional view of a
to skeletal muscles muscle showing muscle bundles and mus-
cle fibres.
1) Each organised skeletal muscle in our
Identify the labelled parts.
body is made of a number of fascia

2) Fascicles in a muscle are held together

by a collagenous connective tissue layer

3) Each sarcomere is formed of repeated

myofibrils

4) A motor nerve along with the muscle

fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit

3. Which of the following is incorrect regarding

muscular tissue ?

1) Mesodermal origin, 40-50% of body

weight of adult human being. 1) a - Fascicle, b - Muscle fibre, c - Blood
2) Exhibits excitability, elasticity, extensibility capillary, d - Sarcolemma
and contractility. 2) a - Blood capillary, b - Fascicle, c - Sar-
colemma, d - Muscle fibre
3) Muscles can be classified only on the
basis of their location 3) a - Muscle fibre, b - Sarcolemma, c -
Blood capillary, d - Fascicle
4) Three types of muscles are identified in
4) a - Sarcolemma, b - Fascicle, c - Muscle
human body. fibre, d - Blood capillary

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Which of the following are incorrectly 9. Select the correct statements from the
matched regarding a skeletal muscle cell? following
Cylindrical, i) Myosin is primary myofilament formed of
Muscle
1) Muscle fibres elongated, several number of myosin monomers.
cell
unbranched
Provides the ii) In the resting state a sub unit of troponin
Myofila-
2) Actin, Myosin property of masks the active binding sites on myosin.
ments
contractility
Cylindrical iii) ATP hydrolysis is done by myosin head
Bundles of bundles to make cross arm.
3) actin and Myofibrils arranged
myosin in parallel iv) Globular head of myosin molecule has
pattern binding sites for ATP and active sites for
Sacroplasmic Mitochon- Reservoir of actin.
4)
reticulum dria calcium ions
v) HMM component of meromyosin is
7. Given below is a diagram of contractile
element of a muscle fibre. Identify parts formed of short arm with tail.
labelled b,d,e and f 1) ii, iii, v

2) i, iv

3) i, iv, v

4) i, ii, iv, v

10. Find the mismatch

1) Meromyosin - Monomeric protein of

myosin
1) b = sarcomere, b = A - band, d = myosin
filament, e = Z-line 2) Sarcosome - Mitochondria of muscle
2) b = A - band, d = thick filament, e = thin cell
filament, f = M - line
3) Troponin C - Calcium binding site
3) b = sarcomere, d = Actin filament, e =
myosin filament, f = Z - line 4) Myosin head - Binding sites for
4) b = H - zone, d = Myosin filament, e = acetylcholine
Z-line, f = M -line
11. During muscle contraction, which of the
8. Select the correct option regarding a,b, and c
following events occur?

1) Length of thick and thin myofilaments

has changed
1) a – Troponin – possess myosin binding 2) Length of I-bands get reduced and A
site -bands retain the length
2) b – Tropomyosin – possess calcium
binding site 3) Z– lines move closer and H-zone
3) c – F actin – possess ATP binding site unaffected

4) a and b lies along the grooves of F–actin 4) A-bands and sarcomeres shorten

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

12 How many of the following statements are 14. Diagrammatic view of human skull is given
true regarding red muscle? below. Select the option with correct identi-
fication of bones.
i) Abundant myoglobin and rich blood
supply

ii) Plenty of mitochondria and sarcoplasmic

reticulum

iii) High SR and fast rate of contraction

iv) Depends aerobic process and are not

easily fatigued

v) Low SR and slow rate of contraction

1) One
1) A-Sphenoid, F-Temporal, H-Zygomatic,
2) Two E-Frontal

3) Three 2) E-Frontal, F-Temporal, B- Parietal,

H-Maxilla
4) Four
3) G-Maxilla, D-Parietal, G-Mandible, A-Zy-
13. Find out the number of incorrect matches gomatic
about human skeleton
4) B-Occipital, J- Lacrymal, F-Temporal,
i) Axial skeleton – 80 L-Nasal

ii) Appendicular skeleton – 120 15. How many of the following are ‘True’ re-
garded with vertebral column in mammals?
iii) Limb bones – 126
a) Constitutes the main frame work of trunk
iv) Skull bones – 26
b) Axis vertebra is articulated with occipital
v) Vertebral column –29 condyles

vi) Facial bones – 12 c) Serves as the point of attachment for the

ribs and musculature of the back.
vii) Ribs – 14
d) Almost all mammals have seven cervical
viii) Girdle bones – 2 vertebrae except in humans.
1) Five e) Lumbar and sacral vertebrae are fused
vertebra in vertebral column.
2) Four
1) 2 2) 3
3) Six

4) Seven 4) 4 4) 5

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16. Find the mismatch 19. Which is incorrect regarding each joint
and its two examples?
True ribs 1st to 7th pair, directly
1) (vertebro- articulates with sternum
sternal) through costal cartilage between atlas and
a.
False ribs 8th, 9th and 10th pair, Pivot axis
1)
2) (vertebro- articulate with the costal joint between radius and
b.
chondral) cartilage of 7th ribs ulna
Floating ribs Hinge a. elbow joint, knee joint
3) They are free dorsally 2)
(Renal ribs) joint b. interphalangeal joint
includes thoracic
Rib cage (37 between carpals in the
4) vertebrae, ribs and Gliding/ a.
bones) wrist
sternum 3) Sliding
joint between tarsals in the
17. Given diagram shows bones of the right b.
ankle
human hindlimb as seen from front. It has
certain mistakes in labelling. Two of the metacarpophalangeal
a.
wrongly labelled bones are Saddle joint
4)
joint carpometacarpal joint
b.
of thumb

20. Match the following

Column I Column II
Decrease the
density of bone
a) Gout 1
after menopause in
females

Progressive
b) Tetany 2 degeneration of
skeletal muscle

Myasthenia Accumulation of uric

1) Pubis and tarsals c) 3
gravis acid crystals in joints
2) Femur and fibula
Wild contraction of
Muscular
3) Fibula and phalanges d) 4 muscle due to low
dystrophy
blood calcium
4) Tarsal and femur
18. Select the incorrect statement regarded An autoimmune
disorder, affects
with pelvic girdle in humans e) Osteoporosis 5
neuro muscular
1) Each half of pelvic girdle consists of a junction
calvicle and scapula.
2) Each coxal bones in pelvic girdle is 1) a-3; b-4; c-5; d-2; e-1
formed by the fusion of three bones.
2) a-4; b-5; c-1; d-3; e-2
3) Two halves of pelvic girdle meet ventrally
to form pubic symphysis. 3) a-1; b-5; c-4; d-3; e-2
4) Acetabulum is a cavity formed in each
coxal bones. 4) a-2; b-4; c-3; d-5; e-1

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LEVEL - II 4. Which of the following options are not

applicable to actin filament?
1. Which of the following statement is
incorrect ? i) Each actin filament is a polymerised
1) All movements are locomotions but all protein consisting of F-actins, Tropomyosins
locomotions are not movements and Troponins

2) Structures involved in general movements ii) G-actins are polymers of F-actins

can also act as locomotory structures
iii) An actin filament has two F-actins
3) Removal of dust from trachea is an
example of ciliary movement. iv) Two filamentous protein, troponins runs
4) Sponges perform certain flagellar close to F- actin
movements with the help of choanocytes
v) In the resting state, a subunit of troponin
2. All of the following statements are true masks the active sites of actin filament
regarded with muscle, except ;
1) ii, iii and iv
1) Smooth muscles are found in urinary
bladder 2) iv and v
2) Skeletal muscle fibre is a syncytium
3) ii and iii
3) The mitochondria of striated muscle fibre
is sarcomere 4) ii and iv

4) The plasma membrane and ER of stri- 5. i) An elastic fibre bisects actin filaments in
ated muscles are called sarcolemma and ‘I-band’ is (a)
sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively.
ii) Thin fibrous membrane in the middle of
3. Select the correct statements
‘A-band’ is (b)
(i) Sarcoplasm of myocyte contains paral-
lelly arranged myofibrils iii) Portion of myofibril between two succes-
sive ‘Z’ lines is (c)
(ii) Myofibrils show alternate arrangement
of actin and myosin filaments iv) Central part of thick filament, not over-
lapped by thin filaments is (d)
(iii) Isotropic band contains only primary fil-
ament Select the correct option from the following
with respect to a, b, c, d from the above
(iv) Anisotropic band contains both primary statements.
and secondary filaments
a b c d
(v) Z-line bisects I-band
1) Z-line M-line Sarcosome H- zone
(vi) M-line holds thin filaments at the middle
2) M-line Z-line Sarcomere H- zone
of A-band
3) H-zone M-line Sarcomere Z- line
1) i, ii,iii,iv 2) i, ii, iv, v
4) Z-line M-line Sarcomere H- zone
3) i, iii, v, vi 4 ) i, ii, v, vi

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

6. Find the incorrectly matched pair 8. Select the correct order of events in muscle
contraction.

a motor neuron 1) Threshold stimulus → Release of Ach →

along with the Release of Ca2+ → Cross bridge formation
1) Motor unit -
muscle fibres → Excitation of SR → Sliding of actin
conneted to it filament

the site where a 2) Threshold stimulus → Release of Ach

Motor end motor neuron ends → Excitation of SR → Release of Ca2+ →
2) -
plate on the sarcolemma Cross bridge formation → Sliding of actin
of a muscle fibre filament → ‘H’ band diminishes

3) Threshold stimulus → Excitation of SR →

neurotransmitter
Release of Ach → Cross bridge formation
released by motor
→ Sliding of actin filament → 'H' - band
3) Acetylcholine - neurons in the
neuro muscular diminishes
junction
4) Threshold stimulus → Release of Ach
→ Cross bridge formation → Excitation of
present on the SR → Sliding of actin filament
plasma membrane
Ach 9. Cycle of cross bridge formation and
4) - of motor neuron
receptors
at the motor end breakage, and sliding of actin over myosin
plate will continues till the;

1) depletion of ATP in meromyosin head

7. 2) masking of myosin filaments by troponin

3) return back of ca++ into the sarcoplasmic

reticulum

4) ATP - hydrolysis occurs in meromyosin.

10. Repeated activation of muscles, anaerobic

Which of the following option is true regard- breakdown of glycogen in muscles and
accumulation of lactic acid in them leading
ing events in muscle contraction?
to;
1) b - sliding and rotation
1) Muscle relaxation
2) b - formation of cross bridge
2) muscle fatigue
3) d - breaking of cross bridge 3) Muscle contraction

4) d - sliding / rotation 4) Muscle twitch

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. What is the advantage of plenty of 14. Which one of the following is the correct
mitochondria present in red muscle fibres? description of a certain part of a normal
human skeleton?
1) Helps for the storage of large amount of
1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of
oxygen. the skull are joined by fibrous joint.
2) Utilisation of oxygen for ATP production. 2) Hyoid is the only movable bone in skull
3) Spinal cord has a central hollow portion
3) It gave reddish appearance to the
known as neural canal
muscles.
4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which
4) Release of more amount of Ca ++
for the thigh bone articulates.
faster contraction. 15. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
girdles
12. Paired bones of our cranium are
1) Scapula has a slightly elevated ridge
1) parietal and frontal bones called spine
2) Collar bone articulates with acromion
2) occipital bone only process and manubrium of sternum
3) temporal bone only 3) Acetabulum of coxal bone provides place
for articulation of thigh bone
4) parietal and temporal bones
4) Coxal bones of hip girdle meet dorsally to
form pubic symphysis
13. Which of the following statements are
incorrect regarding human skeleton? 16. Which is incorrect regarding joints?

(i) The skull is dicondylic and ribs are

bicephalic Ball and socket joint,
Shoulder between glenoid
(ii) Metacarpals are 8 in numbers but 1)
joint cavity of scapula and
metatarsals are 7 head of humerus

(iii) Patella is a cup-shaped bone, covering Synovial joint,

the knee ventrally between acetabulum
2) Hip joint
of coxal bone and
iv) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone, head of femur
situated on the ventral side of the thorax
Cartilaginous joint,
Inter-
v) The pelvic girdle has two coxal bones, between two adjacent
3) vertebral
vertebrae of vertebral
discs
1) i and v column

2) i and ii Fibrous joint,

Pubic between right and
4)
3) ii and v symphysis left pubic bones of
vertebral column
4) ii and iv

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

17. How many of the following statements are

correct?

i) Muscle bundles are held together by a

white fibrous connective tissue layer called 19. Assertion : During muscle contraction
fascicle
myosin head binds to the
ii) Hyoid bone lies at the roof of buccal cav- exposed active sites on actin
ity is also included in the skull to form a cross bridge.

iii) Mandible is the movable bone in the

skull Reason : ATP is essential for the
breaking of cross bridge
iv) Each sarcomere has a central ‘A’ band between actin and myosin
and two half ‘I’ bands.

v) Hypocalcemia leads to hyperexcitation / 20. Given below are two statements

rapid spasm of muscle.
Statement I : Force generated by the mus-
1) One 2) Two cle is used to carryout move-

3) Three 4) Four ment through joints where

the joint acts as fulcrum.
Assertion - Reason and Statement Type
Questions Statement II: Cartilaginous joints allow

1) If both A and R are true and R is the cor- considerable movements

rect explanation of A. and therefore, play a sig-
nificant role in locomotion.
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
1) Both statements I and statement II are
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false correct

4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

2) Both statement I and statement II are in-
18. Assertion : Specialised defensive correct
cells like macrophages
and leucocytes exhibit 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
amoeboid movement.
incorrect
Reason : It is effected by pseudopodia
formation due to 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
protoplasmic streaming. is correct

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL I

1. 2 6. 4 11. 2 16. 3

2. 2 7. 2 12. 3 17. 3

3. 3 8. 4 13. 4 18. 1

4. 3 9. 2 14. 4 19. 4

5. 3 10. 4 15. 1 20. 1

LEVEL II

1. 1 6. 4 11. 2 16. 4

2. 3 7. 4 12. 4 17. 3

3. 2 8. 2 13. 4 18. 1

4. 4 9. 3 14. 1 19. 2

5. 4 10. 2 15. 4 20. 3

170
 Chapter
NEURAL CONTROL AND
11 CO-ORDINATION

SYNOPSIS
CONCEPTS OF THE CHAPTER
• Neural system and endocrine system jointly coordinate and integrate the functions in a synchronised
fashion to maintain homeostasis.
• Neural system provides an organised network of point to point connections for a quick
coordination
• Neural system : Neurons are the structural and functions units of neural system.
• Neural tissue is made of neurons and neuroglial cells. The neuroglial cells are cells which surrounds
the neurons and provide structural and physical support to the neurons.
• Neural systems in various phyla. A brief account of neural system in Coelenterata, Arthropoda
etc.
• Human neural system
System Components
Human neural system CNS and PNS
PNS Afferent fibres and efferent fibres
Efferent pathway Somatic NS and Autonomous NS
ANS Sympathetic and parasympathetic NS
• Visceral NS is a part of PNS.
• Structure of a neuron

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

Types of Neurons
Location
(Based on polarity)
Unipolar neurons embryos
Bipolar neurons retina
Multipolar neurons cerebral cortex
Pseudounipolar
dorsal ganglia
neurons

Types of Neurons (Based on function)

1. Sensory/ afferent neuron Sense organ CNS
2. Motor / efferent neuron CNS tissues / organs
3. Interneuron / association neuron Sensory neuron motor neuron
• Myelinated nerve fibres enveloped by Schwann cells are found in cranial and spinal nerves
• Unmyelinated nerve fibres are found in ANS and somatic neural system.
Generation and conduction of nerve impulse
• Impulse is transmitted as Na+ - K+ movement / as a wave of depolarisation and repolarisation.
• Resting potential = -70mV. Action potential = +30mV.
• Influx of Na+ is the main event in depolarisation.
• Efflux of K+ is the main event in repolarisation.
• Repolarisation restores resting potential
Transmission of impulse through synapses
A synapse is formed of pre synaptic membrane, post synaptic membrane and a synaptic cleft seperat-
ing the above membrane.
Chemical synapses

Chemical synapses employ neurotransmitters (eg : Acetyl choline, Adrenaline, Histamine, Dopamine
etc.). A new action potential is generated at post synaptic membrane.
Electrical synapses : Do not need neurotransmitters. Impulse conduction is same as that along an
axon. It is much speedier. The conduction is axon dendrite.

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

CNS :
Meninges - Pia mater, Arachnoid and dura mater. Their position and functions.
BRAIN

Forebrain
Cerebrum - cerebral hemispheres, Corpus callosum
Cerebral cortex - gyri, sulci, grey matter, Thalamus and hypothalamus
Functional areas - sensory, association and motor areas.
Cerebral medulla - White matter
Limbic system
Midbrain
Dorsal part has corpora quadrigemina
Hindbrain
Cerebellum, Pons varolii and medulla oblongata and their functions, Purkinje cells.
SPINAL CORD

Neural canal, Central canal

Cranial and spinal nerves
ANS - Sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system.

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 4. The gap between two adjacent myelin

sheaths is
LEVEL - I
1) Synaptic cleft
1. Neurons are absent in phylum
2) Neurilemma
1) Echinodermata 3) Sulcus
2) Urochordata 4) Node of Ranvier
3) Porifera 5. Bipolar neurons are found in
4) Hemichordata 1) Cerebral cortex 2) Retina
2. Which of the following is not true? 3) Embryos 4) Dorsal ganglia

1) Neural system and endocrine system 6. The major parts of a neuron are
jointly coordinate all the activities of organs
1) Cell body/ Cyton
2) The neural system provides an organ-
2) Axon/Nerve fibre
ised network of point-to-point connections
for a quick coordination 3) Dendrite
3) Brain and spinal cord are parts of CNS 4) All the above
4) Afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses 7. Nissl bodies are modified
from CNS to tissues
1) Ribosomes and RER
3. Match the following and find the correctly
matching option 2) SER and Myelin sheath

3) Dendrites and Axonites

Column I Column II 4) Schwann cells and RER

a Visceral NS p CNS
Impulses 8. The correct path of impulse flow through a
skeletal muscles neuron is given by

afferent and efferent 1) Axon Cyton Dendrite

b Somatic NS q
fibres
2) Axon Dendrite Cell body
CNS involuntary
c Autonomous NS r 3) Dendrite Cyton Axon
organs

Impulses 4) Cyton Axon Dendron

d Peripheral NS s CNS
visceral organs 9. Using an ATP, Na+ / K+ pump

1) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r 1) 3Na+ into for every 2K+ out

2) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s 2) 3Na+ outside for every 2K+ into axoplasm

3) 3Na+ outside for 3K+ inside

3) a-s, b-p, c-r, d-q
4) 3 Ca2+ into ECF for 2Na+ into axoplasm
4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r

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10. In impulse production, what happens 14. How many of the following statements
immediately after the application of a about Pons Varolii is true?
stimulus is
I) It has pneumotaxic centre
1) opening of K+ channels
II) It is located ventral to cerebellum
2) influx of K +
III) It interconnects different regions of brain
3) eflux of Na +
IV) It has different tracts of myelinated fi-
4) opening of Na channels+ bres
1) one 2) two
11. The receptors, ie neurotransmitter binding
sites, are 3) three 4) four
1) on presynaptic membrane 15. Cerebral cortex is greyish due to the pres-
ence of
2) on post synaptic membrane
1) Cell bodies and Dendrites
3) in synaptic cleft
2) Dendrites and Myelinated axons
4) on synaptic vesicles
3) Myelinated axons
12. Electrical synaptic conduction
4) Schwann cells
1) is by employing neurotransmitters
16. Find the mismatch
2) is as Na+ - K+ movement
1) Corpus callosum - connects cerebellar
3) is not from dendron to axon hemispheres

4) is slower than chemical synapses 2) Hippocampus - serves as memory cen-

tre
13. Match the following and find the matching
set 3) Cerebral aqueduct - is filled with CSF
4) Amygdala - develops feeling of fear on
Column I Column II
seeing a snake
Sensory,motor and
a Forebrain p
mixed nerves 17. Damage to cerebral cortex
Amygdala,
b Hind brain q 1) causes unconsciousness
hippoacampus
Cerebrum, 2) stops heart beat
c Cerebral medulla r thalamus and
hypothalamus 3) develops breathlessness
Cerebellum, pons 4) stops sweating and thermoregulation
d Cranial nerves s and medulla
oblongata 18. Corpora quadrigemina is located

1) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q 1) above thalamus

2) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p 2) below hypothalamus

3) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p 3) on dorsal part of midbrain

4) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r 4) between pons and medulla oblongata

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19. Mark the wrong statement 3. Which of the following is not true of neu-
rons?
1) All spinal nerves are mixed nerves
1) Neurons are the structural and functional
2) Medulla controls heart beat
units of neural system
3) Parasympathetic NS is stimulated in
stress 2) They are ectodermal cells

4) A part of cerebral cortex functions as 3) Neurons are highly regenerative

“seat of intelligence”.
4) Neurons have usually very long nerve fi-
20. Find the correctly matching set bres

4. Match and select the matching set

Column I Column II
a Hypothalamus p Little brain
Neural system Component parts
Gateway to Action potentials
b Cerebellum q a CNS p CNS
cerebral cortex
tissues
c Thalamus r Emotional brain Sympathtic and parasym-
b PNS q
Master clock of pathetic NS
d LImbic sytem s
CNS c ANS r Brain and spinal cord

1) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q Somatic and Autono-

d Efferent fibres s
mous NS
2) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
1) a-r, b-s, c-p, d- q
3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
2) a-s, b-r, c-p, d - q
4) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
3) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r
LEVEL - II
4) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
1. Which of the following statement is wrong?
1) Neurons are absent in phylum protozoa 5. Neurons with one axon and many dendrons
and phylum porifera are called

2) Peristalsis is accelerated in vigorus exer- 1) Unipolar neurons

cise
2) Bipolar neurons
3) Ladder-like nervous system is seen in
platyhelminthes 3) Multipolar neurons

4) Cnidaria is the first phylum to develop 4) Pseudounipolar neurons

neural system.
6. Nissl granules are not found in
2. Neuron clusters found in PNS are called
1) Cell bodies
1) Nuclei
2) Dendrites
2) Ganglia
3) Axons
3) Plexuses
4) Cell bodies 4) Dendrons

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7. Schwann cells are found around the axons 12. Select the correctly matching set
of
1) Peripheral neural system Column I Column II
2) Myelinated neurons a Action potential p -70mV
3) Non-myelinated neurons b Depolarization q Influx of Na+
4) All the above c Repolarisation r Nerve impulse
8. Neurotransmitters are produced in (a) d Resting potential s Efflux of K+
and stored in (b) . (a) and (b) are re-
spectively 1) a-q, b-r, c-q, d-p
1)Synaptic cleft and presynaptic membrane 2) a-r, b-q, c-s, d-p
2) Nissl granules and synaptic vesicles 3) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
3) Synaptic knob and axon hillock 4) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
4) Cell bodies and receptors 13. The events in production of nerve impulse
is given below.
9. Axons transmit action potentials from
a) efflux of K+
1) post synaptic membrane to cyton
b) influx of Na+
2) cyton to synaptic knob
c) application of stimulus
3) axons to dendron
4) presynaptic membrane to cell body d) closing of Na+ channels

10. Which of the following is not true of a rest- e) opening of Na+ channels
ing neuronal membrane? The correct order is given by
1) Inner surface of axoloemma has high 1) c e a d b
concentration of K+
2) c b a d e
2) Na+ - K+ pumps are active
3) c e b a d
3) Inner surface of axolemma has a high
concentration of Na+ 4) c d b e a
4) Myelin sheath serves as an insulatory 14. Find the wrong statement
covering
1) A new action potential is generated
11. Which of the following statements is not on post synaptic membrane of chemical
true? synapses
1) Nodes of Ranvier are electrically active
2) The new potential developed may be
2) Axolemma is nearly impermeable to Na + either excitatory or inhibitary
and more permeable to K+
3) Dura mater is close to brain cortex
3) Resting potential is due to influx of Na+
4) Subarachnoid space is between
4) Axolemma is polarised at resting state arachnoid and pia mater

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15. Mark the incorrect option 18.

Neural system Functions
Cerebral Grey Cell bodies and controls respira-
1)
cortex matter dendrites
tion, cardiovascular
a Limbic system p
Cerebral White Myelinated reflexes and gastric
2) secretions
medulla matter axons
regulates sexual
Middle
Spongy, webby Association behaviour, emotional
3) Arachnoid layer of b q
layer areas reactions and moti-
meninges
vation
Cerebral Canal of Filled with peri- for intersensory
4)
aqueduct midbrain lymph
c Cerebellum r association, memory
and communication
16. How many of the following statements are integrates visual,
true? Medulla oblon-
d s tactile and auditory
gata
inputs
a) Brain acts as command and control
system integrates informa-
e Midbrain t tions from semicircu-
b) Thalamus wraps around cerebrum lar canal of ear

c) Pons consists of fibre tracts that inter-

connect different regions of brain 1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-t, e-s

d) Hippocampus is located in cerebral 2) a-t, b-q, c-r, d-p, e-s

cortex 3) a-q, b-r, c-t, d-p, e-s
1) one 2) two 4) a-q, b-t, c-p, d-r, e-s
3) three 4) four 19. All the following statements are true except

17. Find the correctly matching set 1) Hypothalamus and medulla oblongata
are involuntary in function
2) Thalamus is the major coordinating
Column I Column II
centre for sensory and motor signalling
Amygdala, hippo- 3) For cerebrum and cerebellum, the cortex
p Brain stem k campus and hypo-
is formed of grey matter
thalamus
4) Midbrain is located between pons and
Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata
q Limbic system l
medulla oblongata
20. Statement I : Myelinated axons have
Dura mater, arach- nodes of Ranvier
r Cerebral cortex m
noid and pia mater
Statement II : Schwann cells produce
Sensory, associ- myelin sheath in PNS
s Meninges n ation and motor
areas 1) Statement I is true, whereas statement II
is false
1) p-k, q-l, r-m, s-n
2) Statement I is false, whereas statement
2) p-l, q-k, r-n, s-m II is true
3) p-m, q-n, r-t, s-k 3) Statement I and II are false
4) p-k, q-m, r-n, s-t 4) Statement I and II are true

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ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I
1. 3 6. 4 11. 2 16. 1

2. 4 7. 1 12. 2 17. 1

3. 3 8. 3 13. 3 18. 3

4. 4 9. 2 14. 4 19. 3

5. 2 10. 4 15. 1 20. 2

LEVEL - II

1. 2 6. 3 11. 3 16. 2

2. 2 7. 4 12. 2 17. 2

3. 3 8. 2 13. 3 18. 3

4. 4 9. 2 14. 3 19. 4

5. 3 10. 3 15. 4 20. 4

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 Chapter
CHEMICAL CO-ORDINATION
12 AND INTEGRATION

SYNOPSIS

1. Comparison of neural and chemical coordination.

2. Introduction of Endocrine glands and hormones - General functions and properties of hormones.

3. Human endocrine system

Structure, location, hormones - their functions, disorders, synergistic and antagonistic effect,
feed back control. etc.

a) Hypothalamus

b) Pituitary gland

c) Pineal gland

d) Thyroid gland

e) Parathyroid gland

f) Thymus gland

g) Adrenal gland

h) Pancreas - cells of Islets of Langerhans

Testes

i) Gonads
Ovaries
j) Placenta

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 CLASS (XI)
CLASS [NC
(XI) [NC2026
2026-- BIOLOGY]
BIOLOGY]

4. Other hormones

a) Heart - ANF

b) Kidney - Erythropoietin

c) GIT hormones - gastrin, secretin, CCK, GIP

5. Classification of hormones based on solubility

a) Lipid soluble hormones

b) Water soluble hormones

6. Chemical nature of hormones with example.

a) Aminoacid derivatives

b) Peptide hormones

c) Protein hormones

d) Steroid hormones

7. Mechanism of hormone action with

a) Intracellular receptor

b) Extracellular receptor

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

QUESTIONS 7. Follicular cells of thyroid gland secrete

1) FSH and LH
LEVEL - I
2) PTH and PCT
1. Hormonal co-ordination is important
because 3) T3 and T4
1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals 4) OT and ADH
2) Nerve fibres do not innervate all cells of
the body 8. PTH and TCT
3) Endocrine glands lack ducts 1) Regulate blood Ca2+ levels
4) Hormones are transported through blood 2) Causes protrusion of eyeballs
2. Which of the following is incorrect?
3) Lead to water loss and dehydration
1) Hypothalamus is the basal part of mesen-
cephalon 4) Stimulate the secretion of steroid hor-
2) Secretion of pituitary hormones is stimu- mones
lated by hypothalamic releasing hormones
9. Match the following items in column I and
3) GnRH stimulates the release of Gonado- column II
trophins from adenohypophysis Column I Column II
4) Posterior pituitary is under the direct neu- a) Vasopressin p) Diurnal rhythm
ral regulation by hypothalamus
Graves’
3. The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity b) q) Hypothyroidism
disease
called; Antidiuretic
c) Melatonin r)
1) Acetabulum hormone
2) Frontal bone d) Cretinism s) Exopthalmic goitre
3) Sella tursica
1) a -p, b - r, c- q, d- s
4) Foramen magnum
4. A peptide hormone secreted by pars 2) a-s, b - r, c-q, d- p
intermedia is
3) a - r, b - s, c-p, d - q
1) ACTH 2) FSH
4) a -r, b - p, c- q, d -s
3) LH 4) MSH
5. Acromegaly is due to hypersecretion of 10. Pick the incorrect statement with regards to
thymus gland
1) GnRH 2) GH
3) PRL 4) TSH 1) It is a lobular structure located on the
ventral side of the heart, dorsal to the aorta
6. Mark the incorrect statement
1) FSH and androgens regulate spermato- 2) Plays a major role in the development of
genesis the immune system
2) LH induces ovulation 3) The gland degenerates in old aged
3) ADH stimulates diuresis individuals
4) Diurnal rhythm is regulated by melatonin 4) It secretes a peptide hormone

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. Chemically the "fight or flight” hormones 17. Which of the following hormones interact
can be termed as with intracellular receptors?
1) Emergency hormones 1) Peptide hormones
2) Peptide hormones
2) Steroid hormones
3) Catecholamines
3) Polypeptide hormones
4) Steroid hormones
12. Name a peptide hormone that acts mainly 4) Protein hormones
on liver cells, adipose cells and enhances 18. Find the correct statement from the following
cellular uptake of glucose
1) Glucagon 1) Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted by liver

2) Adrenaline 2) Atrial natriuretic factor helps to increase

blood pressure
3) Insulin
4) Both 1 and 3 3) Gastro-intestinal tract secrets major
protein hormones
13. Decrease of which of the following will cause
immediate menstruation? 4) Growth factors are essential for the
1) Cortisol normal growth of tissues.
2) FSH 19. Which of the following hormone binds
3) LH to nuclear receptors and regulates gene
expression?
4) Progesterone
1) Oxytocin
14. Spermatogenesis is promoted by
1) hCG 2) Epinephrine
2) Prolactin 3) Melatonin
3) Testosterone 4) Thyroxine
4) Adrenaline
Assertion - Reason and Statement Type
15. Which among the following gastro-intestinal Questions
hormone stimulates the secretion of
pancreatic juice and bile juice? 1) If both A and R are true and R is the cor-
rect explanation of A.
1) GIP
2) Erythropoietin 2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
3) Gastrin
4) Cholecystokinin 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

16. Which hormone acts on the exocrine 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
pancreas and stimulates the secretion of
water and bicarbonate ions? 20. Assertion : The immune response is very
weak in elderly people .
1) Insulin
Reason : Thymus degenerates during
2) Secretin
old age resulting in a de-
3) Gastrin creased production of thymo-
4) GIP sin.

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CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

LEVEL - II 5. Which of the following is not a pituitary

hormone?
1. Which of the following is incorrect about
hormones? 1) GnRH 2) FSH
1) They are non-nutrient chemicals
3) ACTH 4) TSH
2) They act as intercellular messengers
6. Diabetes Insipidus is due to the deficiency
3) They provide point-to-point rapid coordi- of
nation
1) Insulin 2) Vasopressin
4) They are chemical messengers secreted
by endocrine glands 3) Oxytocin 4) Gonadotrophins
2. Match the pituitary hormones secreted in
7. Damage of thymus may lead to
response to the releasing hormones from
the hypothalamus 1) Loss of cell mediated immunity only
Hypothalmic Pituitary 2) Loss of humoral immunity only
hormones homones
3) Death
A) GHRH k) ACTH
4) Loss of cell mediated and antibody medi-
ated immunity
B) GnRH l) GH
8. When you face a very important interview,
C) CRH m) FSH your heart beat increases, you may breathe
heavily, sweat and even be more alert.
D) TRH n) TSH
These change are brought about by

A B C D 1) Thymosine
1) m l n k 2) Epinephrine
2) l m k n
3) l n m k 3) Melatonin
4) n m k 1 4) Calcitonin
3. Hypothalamic hormones reach anterior
9. Fall in Na+ and rise in K+ in the plasma is
pituitary through
because of hyposecretion of the hormone
1) Coronary circulation
1) Insulin 2) Glucagon
2) Hepatic portal circulation
3) Aldosterone 4) Thymosine
3) Hypophyseal portal circulation
4) Renal portal circulation 10. A tumour in which of the following regions
can enhance male characteristics in a
4. Damage to neurohypophysis female?
1) Inhibits the secretion of melatonin 1) Zona glomerulosa

2) Inhibits the secretion of sex corticoids 2) Zona pellucida

3) Reduce the secretion of gonadotrophins 3) Zona reticularis

4) Reduce reabsorption of water from DCT 4) Zona fasciculata

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

11. If β cells of pancreas is destroyed, the 15. From the following statements regarding
process that will not be affected is mechanism of hormone action. Find the
incorrect one
1) glycogenolysis
1) Cyclic AMP is an example for second
2) glycogenesis messenger
3) lipogenesis 2) Hormone receptors are present on the cell
4) cellular uptake of glucose and amino membrane in case of lipophilic hormones
acids 3) Thyroid hormones can directly interact
12. Which of the following is true regarding with intracellular receptors
estrogen? 4) Hormones are specific due to the pres-
1) It is a peptide hormone ence of signal receiving receptors only in
the respective target tissue
2) Low levels can cause osteoporosis
16. Arrange the following steps in correct
3) Secreted by the growing follicles under sequence found during the mechanism of
the influence of LH lipid insoluble hormone function.

4) Secreted only by the primary female sex A) Second messenger formation

organs
B) Binding to the surface receptor
13. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding steroid hormones? C) Physiological response

1) Receptors are present in the cytosol and D) Biochemical responses

nucleus
1) C,A,B,D 2) D,B,A,C
2) They are lipophobic
3) B,A,C,D 4) B,A,D,C
3) Act through altering the activity of proteins
in the target cell 17. Match the following

4) Bind to the lipophilic receptors on the cell A) Kidney i) Protein

surface
Trophic Second
B) ii)
14. If receptor molecule is removed from target hormones messenger
organ for hormone action, the target organ Amino acid
C) iii) Erythropoietin
will derivatives

1) Continue to respond but in opposite way D) IP3 iv) Epinephrine

2) Continue to respond without any differ- 1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

ence
2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
3) Not respond to hormone
3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
4) Continue to respond but require higher
concentration of hormone 4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

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CLASS (XI)[NC
CLASS (XI) [NC 2026
2026 - BIOLOGY]
- BIOLOGY]

Assertion - Reason and Statement Type 20. Given below are two statements
Questions
Statement I : Follicular cells of thyroid
1) If both A and R are true and R is the cor- gland produce iodothy-
rect explanation of A.
ronines
2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
Statement II : Parafollicular cells of thyroid
correct explanation of A
gland produce steroid
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false hormones

4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

In the light of the above statements choose
18. Assertion : The pituitary gland is the most appropriate answer from the
anatomically divided into options given below:
adenohypophysis and
neurohypophysis. 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
Reason : Axons of hypothalamic nuclei
elongates and enter only to 2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
neurohypophysis. incorrect

19. Assertion: Thyroid gland is a bilobed

3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
gland connected by a thin flap
incorrect
of muscle tissue.

Reason : Fusiform muscle fibres 4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II

are abundantly present in is correct

isthmus.

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 CLASS (XI) [NC 2026 - BIOLOGY]

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL I

1. 2 6. 3 11. 3 16. 2

2. 1 7. 3 12. 3 17. 2

3. 3 8. 1 13. 4 18. 4

4. 4 9. 3 14. 3 19. 4

5. 2 10. 1 15. 4 20. 1

LEVEL II

1. 3 6. 2 11. 1 16. 4
2. 2 7. 4 12. 2 17. 4
3. 3 8. 2 13. 1 18. 2
4. 4 9. 3 14. 3 19. 4
5. 1 10. 3 15. 2 20. 3

187