Meteorology Test-03
Ques1ons:50 Time: 01:30 HRS
Topics: RANDOM MET
1. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing?
a. PE
b. +FZRA
c. GR
d. SHSN
2. Low-level WS is likely to be greatest
a. At the condensation level when there is no night radiation
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b. At the condensation level when there is strong surface friction
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c. At the top of a marked surface-based inversion
d. At the top of friction layer
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3. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an
active cold front is passing?
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a. It will remain unchanged
b. It will first decrease then increase
c. It will fluctuate up and down by ±50 ft.
d. It will first increase then decrease
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4. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -40°C; according to the
tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
a. -54°C
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b. -50°C
c. -56.5°C
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d. -58°C
5. The 0°C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what flight level would you expect a temperature
of -6°C
be
a. FL 20
b. FL 80
c. FL 110
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d. FL 100
6. Which of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather
stand point?
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a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen
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d. Water vapour
7. How would you characterize an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level?
a. Low
b. Within ±5°C of ISA
c. Very low
d. High
8. When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest to
your flight level?
a. 700 hPa
b. 300 hPa
c. 850 hPa
d. 500 hPa
9. What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
a. Position with the same relative pressure heights
b. Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
c. Positions with the same temperature at a given level
d. Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
10. The greater the pressure gradient the
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a. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
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b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
c. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
d. Further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
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11. Super cold water droplets can be encountered
a. Only in winter about 10,000 ft.
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b. Only in winter at high altitude
c. At any time of the year
d. In winter only in high clouds
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12. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is unable to de-ice, nor
land?
a. He descends to the warm air layer below
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b. He returns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
c. He ascends to the cold air layer above
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d. He continues to fly at the same altitude
13. Small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
a. Freeze immediately and create clear ice
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b. Travel back over the wing creating rime ice
c. Freeze immediately and create rime ice
d. Travel bag over the wing creating clear ice
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14. Norwesters are:
a. TS of E and NE India in pre monsoon
b. Warm dry winds coming from NW
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c. TS affecting NW India in pre monsoon
d. Severe dust storm from NW
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15. Will SPECI be issued if
a. Wind changes from 27010 KT to 29018 KT
b. Temperature changes from 15°C to 16°C
c. RVR changes from 1400 m to 1600 m
d. Visibility changes from 6000 m to 4000 m
16. Ice accretion
a. Alters aerodynamics, increases weight and lift
b. Increases drag and weight and stalling speed
c. Alters aerodynamics, reduces weight and decreases lift
d. Increases drag but reduces stalling speed
17. What conditions severe icing is encountered
a. Visible vapour and temperature -5°C
b. Rain and temperature -10°C
c. Temperature 0°C
d. Rain at temperature -20°C
18. Gradient wind
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a. Is due to the balance between pressure gradient force and friction
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b. Blows parallel to straight isobars
c. Is due to balance between pressure gradient, coriolis and centripetal forces
d. Is super geostrophic in a low and sub geostrophic in a high
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19. The two main seasons in India are:
a. Hot season and rainy season
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b. Winters and hot season
c. Pre monsoon and SW monsoon
d. Winters and SW monsoon
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20. The main cause of seasons in India is:
a. Oscillation of sun 23½ N and 23½ S
b. Earth rotating around its own axis
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c. Thermal equator at equator whole year
d. Advection of air from Arabian sea
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21. ITCZ affects weather over India during
a. Pre monsoon only
b. Winters only
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c. Monsoon only
d. All the four seasons
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22. Difference between Airmass TS (AM TS) and Steady State TS (SS TS) is
a. AM TS duration is more
b. SS TS duration is more
c. AM TS occur in fronts
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d. SS TS duration is less
23. An A/C at FL 180 in July from Kolkata to Mumbai will generally experience
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a. Wly wind
b. Nly wind
c. Ely wind
d. Sly wind
24. TAF AMD covers validity period
a. The remaining validity period of original TAF
b. Half the valid ity period of the TAF
c. The validity starting 2 hr prior to the end period of original TAF
d. Full validity period of TAF
25. The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
a. QNE
b. QFF
c. QFE
d. QNH
26. The QFF at an airfield located 400m above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is
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10°C higher than the standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
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a. Less than 1016 hPa
b. More than 1016 hPa
c. 1016 hPa
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d. Not possible to give a definitive answer
27. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
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a. at height of observatory
b. at a determined density altitude
c. reduced to sea level
d. at flight level
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28. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
a. Is heated by compression
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b. Reaches warmer layers
c. Loses water vapour
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d. Is heated by expansion
29. What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
a. Divergence with lifting
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b. Convergence with descending air
c. Divergence with descending air
d. Convergence with lifting
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30. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000m is 13°C. The atmosphere
is
a. Conditionally stable
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b. Stable
c. Unstable
d. Cannot tell
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31. In still air, a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100m refers to
a. DALR
b. SALR
c. ALR
d. ELR
32. The DALR is
a. Fixed
b. Variable with time
c. Variable with latitude
d. Variable with temperature
33. Standing in the Northern hemisphere, north of polar frontal depression travelling west to
east, the wind will
a. Gusts to over 25 kts
b. Gust speeds exceeds mean speed by >15 kts
c. Gusts exceeds mean speed by 10 kts
d. Gusts to over 25 kts
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34. Flying from an area of low pressure in the southern hemisphere at low altitudes, where is
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the wind coming from?
a. Right and slightly on the nose
b. Left and slightly on the tail
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c. Right and slightly on the tail
d. Left and slightly on the nose
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35. The gradient when is more stronger than geostrophic win around an anti cyclone because
the
a. Centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
b. Centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
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c. Effect of coriolis is added to friction
d. Coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
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36. A large pressure gradient is shown by
a. Closely packed isobars - low temperature
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b. Distant space isobars - high temperature
c. Closed space isobars - strong winds
d. Closed space isobars - light winds
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37. Which of the following is an example of Foehn wind?
a. Chinook
b. Harmattan
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c. Ghibli
d. Bora
38. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility
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a. Less than 500m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. Greater than 1000m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. Less than 500m vis, no icing
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d. Greater than 1000m vis, no icing
39. What would be reflected to radar?
a. Fog
b. Cloud
c. Hail
d. Mist
40. Advection fog can be formed when
a. Warm moist air flows over colder surface
b. Cold moist air flows over warmer water
c. Warm moist air flows over warmer surface
d. Cold mois air flows over warmer surface
41. Of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?
a. Warm air moving over cold water
b. Cold air moving over warm water
c. The coastal region of the sea cools at night
d. The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the Sun
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42. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground
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shortly before an active cold front passes?
a. It will be decreasing
b. It will remain unchanged
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c. It will be increasing
d. It will fluctuate up and down by about ±5 feet
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43. In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
a. Polar Continental Air
b. Arctic Maritime Air
c. Polar Maritime Air
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d. Tropical Continental Air
44. On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching
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a. QFE increases and QNH decreases
b. QFE and QNH increases
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c. QFE decreases and QNH increases
d. QFE and QNH decreases
45. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in
be
a. Air with high temperature
b. Dry air
c. Air with low temperature
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d. Moist air
46. During a cross country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds:
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to
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encounter?
a. Decreasing temperatures
b. Strong downdraft
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c. Increasing temperatures
d. Strong gusty, winds
47. Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
a. The air mass ahead of the front is dryer than the air mass behind the front
b. The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
c. The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
d. The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
48. In which main direction does a polar front depression move?
a. Across the front towards the North
b. Across the front towards the South
c. Along the front towards the East
d. Along the front towards the West
49. In a SPECI the lowest layer of clouds, regardless of amount, is reported as
a. FEW, SCT, BKN or OVC
b. FEW, SCT or OVC
c. SCT, BKN or OVC
d. BKN or OVC
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50. In an arid area, the cloud which is capable of causing dust storm is
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a. Ci
b. Cu
c. Cb
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d. Ns
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lp
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