DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY

CELL
1. The study of cells is called 5.Consider the following statements:
________. 1. Chromoplasts are yellow, red and
(a) Serology (b) Cytoplasm orange colours.
(c) Cytology (d) etiology 2. Centrosome was discovered by T.
Boveri in 1888.
2. Which of the following Which of the statements given
statements about the cells of living above is/are NOT correct?
organisms is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a). All are microscopic and cannot (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor
be seen with a naked eye.
(b). All have a cell wall. 6. The term ‘Meiosis’ is coined by-
(c). All have a nuclear membrane. (a) Fleming (b) Robert Hooke
(d). All have a cell membrane. (c) Purkinje (d)Farmer and Moore

3.Consider the following statements: 7. What is the study of birds called?

1. Huxley said that Protoplasm is the (a) Herpetology
physical basis of life. (b) Ophthalmology
2. In the year 1940, Purkinje first (c) Anthropology
used the word protoplasm. (d) Ornithology
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 8.Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. In 1665, the compound
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
microscope was invented by Robert
Hook.
4. Which of the following cellular 2. Robert Brown discovered a
components is not present in most nucleus in 1881.
prokaryotes? Which of the statements given
(a) Cytoplasm (b) nuclear membrane above is/are NOT correct?
(c) cell wall (d) Ribosome (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
CELL
9. Energy currency for most cellular 13. Which component of the cell
processes organelles principally performs the
(a) Pyruvate (b) ATP function of packaging materials, to
(c) ADP (d) Glucose be delivered either to the intra-
cellular targets or secreted outside
10. Choose the correct option: the cell?
Which of the following statements (a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast
about the cells of living organisms (c) Golgi Apparatus (d) Chromosomes
is/are correct?
(a). All are microscopic and cannot 14. Which of the following is NOT
be seen with a naked eye. found in the section of a leaf ?
(b). All have a cell wall. (A) Guard cells (B) Stoma
(c). All have a nuclear membrane. (C) Chlorophyll (D)Pseudopodia
(d). All have a cell membrane. (E) Xylem
(a).(A) and (B) (b).(A) and (D)
Choose the correct option:
(c).(C) and (E) (d).(D)only
(a) Only D (b) A and D
(c) B and C (d) Only A
15. Some characteristics of
prokaryotic cell are mentioned
11. Mitosis is characterized by
below. Select the wrong option from
(a) Reduction division the given options.
(b) Equal division (a) Presence of membrane-bound
(c) Both a & b organelles
(c) None of the above (b) extremely small size
(c) single chromosome
12. Which of the following cell (d) They lacks nucleus
organelles is made up of ribosomal
RNA and protein? 16. What is the subunit structure of
(a) Ribosome (b) Nucleus a prokaryotic ribosome?
(c) Golgi body (d) Lysosome (a) 50S and 40S (b) 60S and 40S
(c) 50S and 30S (d) OS और30S
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
CELL
17. Name the phase of mitosis 20. Which of the following
during which the chromosomes of statements is incorrect regarding the
the dividing cell line up along the fluid mosaic model of the plasma
midline? membrane?
(a) Anaphase (b) Telophase (i) The plasma membrane is
(c) Metaphase (d) Prophase composed of a lipid bilayer of
phospholipids.
18. Lysosomes are called the suicidal (ii)Each phospholipid molecule has
bags of the cell because: two ends, an outer head hydrophilic
1 they digest foreign materials. and an inner hydrophobic tail.
2 when the cells are damaged, the (iii) The protein molecules are
lysosomes burst and the enzymes arranged in two different ways:
digest their own cells. (a) Peripheral proteins or extrinsic
3 lysosomes contain digestive proteins
enzymes. (b) Integral proteins or intrinsic
4 they promote the suicide of the proteins
organism. (iv) The model was proposed by
Robertson (1972).
19. Observe the relationship (a). (iv) only (b). (i) and (ii)
between the first two words and fill (c). (iii) and (iv) (c). (iii) only
in the word at the fourth place.
Chloroplast : photosynthesis :: 21. Part of the chromosome beyond
Leucoplast : ______ the secondary constriction is called
(a) Colouring of the flowers ______.
(b) Digestion of damaged cells (a) Chromonema (b) Centromere
(c) Storage of energy in the form of (c) Satellite (d) Telomere
ATP
(d) Storage of food

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
CELL
22. Which of the following 24. Where are waste products
statements is/are correct? stored inside the plant cell?
I. Amoeba ingests its food with the (a) in Golgi body
help of pseudopodia. (b) in vacuoles
II. Amoeba constantly changes its (c) in lysosome
shape and position. (d) mitochondria
1 Only II
2 Neither I nor II 25. The amount of _______ present
3 Only I in plant cells changes the structure
4 Both I and II of the cells to facilitate functioning.
(a) water
23 Apart from the nucleus in the (b) electrochemical pulses
cell, which two of the following cell (c) Vasuoles
organelles have their own DNA and (d) Protein
ribosomes?
(a) Cell and mitochondria 26. Which of the following plants
(b) vacuole and Golgi body stores starch, protein and oil
(c) Mitochondria and Plastids granules in the cell?
(d) Mitochondria and lysosomes (a) Chlorophyll (b) Plastid
(c) Chromatin (d) protoplasm

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
CELL
27. Where in plant cells does 32. Which one among the following
respiration take place, in which they statements is correct?
take in oxygen and release energy (a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus.
and carbon dioxide from food? (b) Cell membrane is present both in
(a) vacuole plant and animal cells.
(b) Chlorophyll and mitochondria (c) Mitochondria and chromoplasts
(c) Peroxisome are not found in eukaryotic cells.
(d) mitochondria (d) Ribosomes are present in
eukaryotic cell only
28. Which of these words refers to
the scientific study of domestic dogs
33. Which of the following
? statements are correct regarding
(a) Craniology (b) Chrematistics
common differences between plant
(c) Carpology (d) Cynology and animal cells?
I. Plant cells have cellulose cell wall,
29. Mitochondria are able to while animal cells lack it.
produce their own II. Plant cells lack plasma
(a) nucleus membrane, while animal cells have
(b) proteins it.
(c) chloroplasts III. Mature plant cell have a large
(d) digestive enzymes vacuole, while animal cells have
numerous small vacuoles.
30. The study of snakes is known as (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) Serpentology (b) Ornithology (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(c) Herpetology (d) Ichthyology
34. Chlorophyll pigment is present in
31. Nucleolus was discovered by which of the following components
(a) Fontana (b) Schleiden of the cell?
(c) Altmann (d) Robert Brown (a) Plastid (b) Lysosome
(c) Mitochondria (d) ribosome
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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
CELL

ANSWER KEY

1 C 12 A 23 C

2 A 13 C 24 B

3 C 14 D 25 C

4 B 15 A 26 B

5 D 16 C 27 D

6 A 17 C 28 D

7 C 18 B 29 B

8 D 19 D 30 A

9 B 20 A 31 D

10 D 21 C 32 B

11 B 22 33 C

34 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
TISSUE
5. characteristics of permanent
1. What is the location of intercalary
meristem in plants ? tissues?
(a) Base of the leaves or internodes(a)Mature tissues that are
(b) Stems or roots undergoing differentiation
(c) Tips of stems and leaves (b) matured tissues which are already
(d) Base of flower pedicel differentiated
(c)Actively dividing to produce new
2. Which of the following is mainly cells for growth
responsible for the movement of (d)categorised into epidermal tissue,
ground tissue and vascular tissue
the human body?
(a) Combination of nerve and 6. what is the function of xylem
connective tissues tissue?
(b) Combination of nervous and (a)transports water and minerals salt
muscular tissues (b)control the opening and closing of
(c) Combination of nervous and stoma
epithelial tissues (c)carry out photosynthesis
(d) Combination of muscular and (d)provide support for young plant
connective tissues
7. The somatotropic hormone chiefly
3. Bone is an example of which of affects the growth of ________.
the following types of tissues? (a) Bones (b) Muscles
(a) Nervous tissue (c) Hair (d) Connective tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) muscular tissue 8. The outer surface of the animals is
(d) epithelial tissue made up of which of the following
tissues?
4. Which of the following helps in (a) Epithelial tissue
tissue repair? (b) Connective tissue
(c) Adipose tissue
(a) Cartilage (b) tendon
(d) Muscular tissue
(c) Areolar (d) Muscle
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
TISSUE
9. The lining of the mouth is made of 13. Plants which grow on saline soils
_________. are:
(a) Cuboidal epithelium (a) Xerophytes (b) Hydrophytes
(b)Pseudostratified columnar (c) Halophytes (d) Succulents
epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium 14. Which of the following acids is
(d) Columnar epithelium present in the stinging hair of nettle
leaves?
10. The plants tolerant to the desert (a) Methanoic Acid (b) Ethanoic Acid
conditions are called ________. (c) Oxalic Acid (d)Ascorbic Acid
(a) Hydrophytes
(b) Hylophytes 15. The function of leghaemoglobin
(c) Polyphytes in the root nodules of legume plant
(d) Xerophytes is:
(a) Nodule differentiation
11. The presence of which of the (b) Expression of nif gene
following is a distinctive feature of (c) Oxygen removal
complex plants, which has made (d) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
their existence possible in terrestrial
environments? 16. Which of the following is a
(a) sclerotial tissue simple tissue?
(b) meristem tissue (a) Xylem (b)Phloem
(c) Vascular tissue (c) Sclerenchyma (d)None of these
(d) parenchyma tissue
17. Which tissue present in coconut
12. Stomata, present on the leaves peel makes it hard and firm?
are surrounded by (a) Parenchyma
(a)Chlorophyll (b)Guard cells (b) sclerenchyma
(c) Pores (d)Tubes (c) protective cells
(d) Collenchyma
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
TISSUE
18. Which elements of xylem are 22. Which tissue acts as first line of
composed of dead cells, and yet are protection for body from any
responsible for the transport of physical or chemical damage?
water and minerals in plants? (a) Adipose Tissue
(a) Vessel and xylem parenchyma (b) Epithelial Tissue
(b) Vessels and xylem parenchyma (c) Muscular Tissue
(c) tracheids and vessel (d) Areolar Tissue
(d) vessels and xylem fibers
23. Which among the following is
19. The leaves have a green pigment NOT the characteristic feature of
called __________, which helps Smooth Muscle Fibres?
leaves to capture the energy from (a) They bear a central single nucleus
the sunlight. (b) These fibres are cylindrical in
(a) Cladophyll (b) Chlorophyll shape
(c) Xanthophyll (d) Cytoplasm (c) They are present in internal
organs
20. Which of the following (d) They are involuntary in nature
components of xylem does not
function in the transport of water? 24. Which of the following tissue
(a) Xylem parenchyma develops from the ectoderm of the
(b) Xylem vessels embryo?
(c) Sieve tubes (a) Nervous Tissue
(d) xylem vessels (b)Muscular Tissue
(c) Connective Tissue
21. is represented by continuously (d) None of the above
dividing cells of the root apex.
(a) Germination
(b) maturity
(c) hormonal
(d) Merismatic development
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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
TISSUE

ANSWER KEY

1 A 13 C

2 B 14 A

3 B 15 C

4 C 16 C

5 B 17 B

6 A 18 C

7 A 19 B

8 A 20 A

9 C 21 D

10 D 22 B

11 B 23 B

12 B 24 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
1. Which of the following plants is 6. Who was discovered Gibberellins
carnivorous ? plant hormone?
(a) Cypress vine (b) Venus Flytrap
(a) Charles Darwin
(c) Amaryllis (d) Hyacinth (b) William M.Welles
(c) E. Kurosawa
2. Which of the following element is (d) Letham
not a micronutrient for plants ?
(a) Iron (b) Manganese 7. The leaves have a green pigment
(c) Copper (d) Magnesium called __________, which helps
leaves to capture the energy from
3. Which micronutrient is supplied the sunlight.
by soil to plant ? (a) Cladophyll
(a) Phosphorous (b) Calcium (b) Chlorophyll
(c) Zinc (d) Nitroge (c) Xanthophyll
(d) Cytoplasm
4. The macro-nutrients provided by
inorganic fertilisers are 8. Consider the following
(a) carboon, iron and boron. statements.
(b) magnesium, manganese and Assertion (A) Cuscuta (Amarbel) is
sulphur. an example of parasitic angiosperm.
(c) magnesium, zinc and iron Reason (R) It gets its nutrition from
(d) nitrogen, phosphorus and the leaves of the host plant.
potassium [Choose your answer from the codes
given below.
5. The plants tolerant to the desert (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
conditions are called ________. correct explanation of A
(a) Hydrophytes (b) Hylophytes (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
(c) Polyphytes (d) Xerophytes the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false, but R is true
(d) A is true, but R is false
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
9. Which one among the following is 13. Consider the following
a micro-nutrient present in soil forstatements.
various crops ? I. Translocation of food occurs
(a) Calcium (b) Manganese through phloem.
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium II. Translocation via phloem occurs in
the form of sucrose.
10. Which one of the following will III. Loss of bark or girdling harms the
happen if the medium surrounding plant more than loss of leaves, as
the cell has a higher concentration root starves due to stoppage of food
than the cell? conduction.
(a) The cell will gain water. Which of the statements given
(b) The cell will die. above is/are correct about
(c) There will be no change. translocation of food?
(d) The cell will lose water (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
11. Gaseous exchange takes place in
eaves through tiny pores for the 14. Read the statements given
purpose of photosynthesis. What below and choose the correct
are these pores ? option.
(a) Chloroplast (b) Stomata Assertion (A) : Pitcher plant traps
(c) Chlorophyll (d) Vacuole insects.
Reason (R) : Pitcher plant does not
12. Process by which plant prepare have chlorophyll to prepare its food.
their food is (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(a) carbohydrolysis is the correct explanation for (A)
(b) metabolic synthesis (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(c) photosynthesis not the correct explanation for (A)
(d) photorespiration (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d)4 Both (A) and (R) are false
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
15. First step of photosynthesis is 20. Study the following statements.
(a) activation of chlorophyll by I. Excretion of water in the form of
sunlight. liquid droplets from leaves or
(b) oxygen comes out from water. uninjured plant parts is called
(c) formation of carbohydrate. guttation.
(d) fixation of carbon dioxide II. Transpiration help in ascent of
sap.
16. Which one of the following is an III. Small opening in the leaf meant
example of bisexual flower ? for gaseous exchange and
(a) Corn (b) Cucumber transpiration is called stomata.
(c) Papaya (d) Rose Which of the statements given
above are correct ?
17. Amarbel is an example of (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
(a) Saprotroph (b) Parasite (c) II and III (d) None of these
(c) Autotroph (d) Host
21. Why are dark reactions called so
?
18. A nail is inserted in the trunk of
(a) They occur in darkness.
a tree at a height of 1 metre from
(b) They are not light dependent.
the ground level. After 3 years the
(c) They are not directly light driven.
nail will (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) move downwards
(b) move upwards 22. Most of photosynthesis process
(c) remain at the same position occur in
(d) move sideways (a) blue and red region of light.
(b) in the green and yellow region of
19. The oxygen evolved during light.
photosynthesis comes from splitting (c) in the blue and orange region of
of light.
(a) water (b) carbon dioxide (d) in the violet and orange region of
(c) Oxygen (d) light light.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
23. The sunlight energy used by 26. Water soluble pigments found in
green plants in photosynthesis is plant cell vacuoles are
transformed into (a) Chlorophylls (b) carotenoids
(a) chemical energy (c) Anthocyanins (d) xanthophylls
(b) physical energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) 27. Which of these is the energy
(d) None of the above conversion that happens in the
process called photosynthesis?
24. Which one of the following (a) Potential energy to chemical
statements is correct ? energy.
(a) In photosynthesis by green plants, (b) Light energy to chemical energy.
carbon dioxide is used for making (c) Heat energy to light energy.
carbohydrate. (d) Heat energy to light energy
(b) During photosynthesis, plants use
oxygen for making carbohydrate. 28. Consider the following
(c) The carbohydrate generated by statements.
plants comes from soil. I. Carbon dioxide, chlorophyll and
(d) The carbohydrate generated by sunlight all are essential for
plants comes from urea photosynthesis.
II. Rate of photosynthesis is
25. The steps of dark reactions are maximum in red light and minimum
(a) regeneration → carboxylation → in green light.
reduction III. Increase in O2 concentration
(b) reduction → oxidation → decrease photosynthesis.
hydrogenation Which of the statements given
(c) carboxylation → reducation → above is/are correct about
regeneration photosynthesis ?
(d) reduction → carboxylation → (a) I, II and III (b) I and III
regeneration (c) I and II (d) II and III

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
29. Apples are generally wrapped in 33. Which of the following full form
waxed paper to of ATP is correct ?
(a) prevent sunlight for changing its (a) Adenosine Tetraphosphate
colour. (b) Adenine Tetraphosphate
(b) prevent aerobic respiration by (c) Adenosine Triphosphate
checking the entry of O2 (d) None of the above
(c) prevent ethylene formation due
to injury. 34. Which of the following cell
(d) make the apples look attractive organelle is reponsible for cellular
respiration ?
30. Which one of the following is (a) Golgi bodies (b) Mitochondria
not a plant hormone ? (c) Nucleus (d) Lysosomes
(a) Cytokinin (b) Ethylene
(c) Insulin (d) Gibberellin 35. Which edible part is
modification of stem?
31. Which of the following processes (a) Turnip (b) Carrot
makes direct use of oxygen? (c)Sweet Potato (d)Potato
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Fermentation 36. Which of the following
(c) Citic Acid Cycle statements is correct about lichens?
(d) Electron transport (a) Lichens are a symbiotic
partnership of a fungus and a
32. Cell elongation in internodal bryophyte.
regions of the green plants takes (b) Lichens are a symbiotic
place due to partnership of a fungus and an alga.
(a) indole acetic acid Correct Answer
(b) cytokinin (c) Lichens are a parasitic
(c) gibberellins relationship of a fungus and an alga.
(d) Ethylene (d) Lichens are a parasitic
partnership of mosses and an alga.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
37. Assertion (A) Hormones are also 41. The hormone related to drought
called growth adjusters. tolerance is
Reason (R) Hormones promote or (a) Abscisic acid
inhibit plant growth. (b) Gibberellin
Codes (c) Indole acetic acid
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the (d) Cytokinin
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not 42. To increase sugar production in
the correct explanation of A sugarcanes, they are sprayed with
(c) A is true, but R is false (a) IAA (b) Cytokinin
(d) A is false, but R is true (c) Gibberellin (d) Ethylene

38. Plasticity in plant growth means 43. What is the biggest flower in the
that world which produces the largest
(a) plant roots are extensible. single bloom?
(b) plant development is dependent (a) Corpse Flower
on the environment. (b) Talipot Palm
(c) stems can extend (c) Rafflesia Arnoldii
(d) None of the above (d) Queen of Andes

39. Which of the following 44. Plants which grow on saline soils
phytohormone is mainly responsible are:
for fruit ripening ? (a) Xerophytes (b) Hydrophytes
(a) Cytokinin (b) Abscisic acid (c) Halophytes (d) Succulents
(c) Ethylene (d) None of thesE
45. 'Which of the following is a plant
40. Which hormone is found in the hormone?
gaseousform ? (a)Insulin (b) Cytokinin
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Ethylene (c)Thyroxin (d) Oestrogen
(c) Gibberellins (d) Auxins
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
46. Mushroom is- 48. Plasmolysis in a plant cell is
(a) A bryophyte devoid of roots, stem defined as
and leaves (a) break down (lysis ) of plasma
(b) A flowering plant membrane in hypotonic medium
(c) A plant consisting of fine green (b) shrinkage of cytoplasm in
threads hypertonic medium
(d) An edible fungus (c) shrinkage of nucleoplasm
(d) none of them
47. This fungi breaks down cellulose,
lignin and proteins which releases 49. Which of the following
essential carbon used by many hormones help in the blooming of
organisms. Identify the class of the flowers?
fungi. (a) Florigen (b) Cytokinin
(a) Parasites (b) Saprophytes (c) Gibberellin (d) Auxin
(c) Symbionts (d) Predacious

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

ANSWER KEY

1 B 11 B 21 D 31 D 41 A

2 D 12 C 22 A 32 C 42 C

3 C 13 D 23 A 33 C 43 C

4 D 14 C 24 A 34 B 44 C

5 D 15 A 25 C 35 D 45 B

6 C 16 D 26 C 36 B 46 D

7 B 17 B 27 B 37 B 47 B

8 A 18 C 28 A 38 B 48 B

9 B 19 A 29 B 39 C 49 A

10 A 20 A 30 C 40 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS
1. Which of the following statements 3. Which one among the following
is/are correct regarding vegetative produces seeds but not flowers ?
propagation of plants ? (a) Cashewnut (b) Coffee
I. Vegetative propagation produces (c) Groundnut (d) Pine
clonal population.
II. Vegetative propagation helps in 4. Flowering of plants by exposure
eliminating the virus. to low temperature is called
III. Vegetative propagation can be (a) Vernalisation
practiced most of the year. (b) cryobiology
Select the correct answer using the (c) photoperiodism
codes given below. (d) Micrografting
(a) Only I (b) II and III only
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
5. Pollens are produced in
(a) corolla (b) style
2. Match List I (Vegetative (c) stigma (d) anther
Propagation Type) with List II
(Example) and select the correct 6. In some plants, the flower is
answer using the codes given below modified in such a way that it looks
the lists. like a female insect and attracts
List I List II male insect. This modification is
A. Tuber eye 1. Garlic used for the pollination and occurs
B. Bulb 2. Rose commonly in
C. Cutting 3. Potato (a) Orchids (b) wheat
D. Pantiles at 4. Bryophyllum (c) Maize (d) mango
margins of
leaves 7. Transfer of pollen grains from the
Codes anther to stigma of another flower
ABCD ABCD of the same plant is called ?
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 1 2 4 (a) Autogamy (b) Geitonogamy
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 4 3 1 (c) Xenogamy (d) None of the above
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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS

ANSWER KEY

1 C 5 D
2 B 6 A
3 D 7 D
4 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
1. The blood pressure of an 6. Which of the following is not
individual is 140 mm Hg. In this correct regarding hemoglobin ?
statement, ‘Hg’ refers to (a) It has red colour.
(a) Hydrogen (b) Mercury (b) It carries oxygen from lungs to
(c) Hygrometer (d) Heliograph cell.
(c) It is slightly acidic.
2. What function does blood (d) It carries carbon dioxide from
perform in the body? tissues to lungs.
(a) Takes oxygen to all parts
(b) Maintains liquidity 7. Measuring of glycosylated
(c) Helps in digestion hemoglobin (HbA1c) is useful for the
(d) Helps in erection management of
(a) Anemia (b) Hemophilia
3. In which part of the body is blood (c) Diabetes (d) Hypertension
produced?
(a) Bone marrow (b) Lungs 8. Which cells in our body are
(c) Brain (d) Heart popularly called “soldiers of the
human body”?
4. Who performs the task of (a) Eosinophils
capturing oxygen in the blood? (b) White blood cells
(a) Chlorophyll (c) Red blood cells
(b) Hemoglobin (d) Basophils
(c) Red blood cells
(d) White blood cells 9. If the radius of blood vessels
decrease, the blood pressure will
5. The pH of human’s slightly basic (a) Increase
blood is normally around (b) decrease
(a) 1.5-6.5 (b) 5.5-6.5 (c) remain same
(c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.5-9.0 (d) increase in male but decrease in
female
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
10. Neutrophils and lymphocytes 15. With which of the physiological
originate from process, thrombin is associated?
(a) kidney tubule (b) spleen (a) Excretion (b) Blood clotting
(c) bone marrow (d) lymph node (c) Reproduction (d) Growth

11. The total volume of blood in a 16. In a healthy person, rate of heart
normal human being is beat in one minute is
(a) 5-6 litres (a) 58 times (b) 67 times
(b) 3-4 litres (c) 72 times (d) 90 times
(c) 8-10 litres
(d) 10-12 litres 17. Which chamber of human heart
pumps fully oxygenated blood to the
12. Which of the following gases aorta and hence to the body?
reduces the oxygen carrying capacity (a) Right auricle (b) Left auricle
of the blood? (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Carbon dioxide 18.Between which one of the
(c) Carbon monoxide following sets of bloods, in the
(d) Nitrous oxide transfusion possible?
(a) A and O (A donor)
13. Coagulation of blood in the (b) B and A (B donor)
vessel is prevented during normal (c) A and AB (A donor)
condition by (d) AB and O (AB donor)
(a) prothrombin (b) calcium
(c) heparin (d) albumin 19.Person having blood group B can
donate the blood to person having
14. Which blood group is a universal group
recipient? (a) A and O (b) B and O
(a) A (b) B (c) A and AB (d) B and AB
(c) AB (d) O
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
20. In which organ of the human 24. Which one of the following
body are the lymphocytes cells statements regarding hemoglobin is
formed? correct?
[ (a) Liver (b) Long bone (a) Hemoglobin present in RBCs can
(c) Pancreas (d) Spleen carry only oxygen, but not carbon
dioxide.
21. What is the name of the vessel (b) Hemoglobin of RBC can carry
that delivers the nutrient rich blood both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
from the stomach and small (c) Hemoglobin of RBCs can carry
intestine to the liver? only carbon dioxide.
(a) Left hepatic artery (d) Hemoglobin is only used for
(b) Hepatic vein blood clotting and not for carrying
(c) Right hepatic artery gases.
(d) hepatic portal vein
25. Which one of the following
22. Which of the following
statements regarding
substances, if introduced in the
electrocardiogram is correct? [
blood stream, would cause
(a) Electrocardiogram is graphical
coagulation at the site of its
representation of electrical activity
introduction?
of cornea
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Prothrombin
(c) Heparin (d) Thromboplastin (b) Electrocardiogram is graphical
representation of activity of kidney.
23. If father have blood group A and (c) Electrocardiogram is graphical
mother have blood group O, which representation of activity of brain.
one of following blood group may (d) Electrocardiogram is graphical
present in their son? representation of electrical activity
(a) B (b) AB of heart.
(c) O (d) B, AB and O

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
26. The oxygenated blood from the 30. Arteries supplying blood to the
lungs in received by the heart are called
(a) left auricle (b) left ventricle
(a) carotid arteries
(c) right auricle (d) right ventricle
(b) hepatic arteries
(c) coronary arteries
27. Which instrument is used to (d) pulmonary arteries
measure blood pressure?
(a) Lactometer 31. Consider the following
(b) Thermometer statements about haemoglobin
(c) Sphygmomanometer I. It carries oxygen in the blood.
(d) Glucometer II. It is iron-containing compound.
III. It provides a immunity against
28. The snake bite firstly affects certain diseases.
which part of body? IV. It imparts a red colour to the
(a) Nervous system (b) Brain blood.
(c) Blood circulation (d) Lungs The correct statements out of these
are
29. With reference to the blood in a (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
normal person, which one of the (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
following statements is correct?
(a) Compared to arteries, veins are
less numerous and holdless of the
body’s blood at any given time.
(b) Blood cells constitute about 70%
of the total volume of the blood.
(c) White Blood Cells (WBC) are
made by lymphnodes only.
(d) The blood has more platelets
then WBCs.

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

ANSWER KEY

1 B 11 A 21 D

2 A 12 C 22 D

3 A 13 C 23 C

4 B 1 C 24 B

5 C 15 B 25 D

6 C 16 C 26 A

7 C 17 D 27 C

8 B 18 C 28 C

9 A 19 D 29 D

10 C 20 B 30 C

31 D

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
ANIMAL NUTRITION
1. The animal which captures and 6. In Human body which element
feed on other animals is called a has
(a) predator (b) prey highest percentage?
(c) parasite (d) host (a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon (d) Oxygen
2. Animals which are parasites on
plant are 7. Which one of the following is not
(a) nematodes formed in our body?
(b) lac insect (a) Vitamin-A (b) Protein
(c) aphids (c) Enzyme (d) Hormone
(d) All of the above
8. The organisms, which spend their
3. Which one of the following is not life on the body of a living host are
formed in our body? called
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Protein (a) ectoparasites
(c) Enzyme (d) Hormone (b) endoparasites
(c) semi-parasites
4. Which of the following is (d) hyper-parasites
necessary for digestion of food?
(a) Air (b) Water 9. Assertion (A) Consumers are
(c) Enzyme (d) Mineral heterotrophs.
Reason (R) They use only a very little
5. Enzymes are essential for body part of living plants and animals.
because Codes
(a) they provide energy. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(b) they control nervous system. correct explanation of A
(c) these are the structural part of (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
body. the correct explanation of A
(d) these are the catalyst of (c) A is true, but R is false
biochemical activity (d) A is false, but R is true
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
ANIMAL NUTRITION
10. Which one of following vitamins 14. Energy is stored in liver and
has a role in blood clotting? muscles in the form of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (a) carbohydrate (b) fat
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K (c) protein (d) glycogen

11. In which of the following organ, 15. Match List I with List II and select
carbohydrate is stored as glycogen? the correct answer using the codes
(a) Intestine (b) Stomach given below the lists
(c) Liver (d) Pancreas
List I List II (Product of
(Molecule) digestion)
12. Which of the following
A. Proteins 1. Nitrogenous bases
statement regarding vitamin is not
correct? B. 2. atty acids and
(a) Some vitamins can be synthesized Carbohydrates
by intestinal microbes. C. Nucleic acids 3. Monosaccharides
(b) Some vitamins function like D. Lipids 4. Amino acids
hormones.
(c) Some vitamins are stored in body. Codes
(d) vitamin K is a water soluble A B C D
vitamin (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
13. Vitamin C is also known as
…………
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Malic acid (d) Acetic acid

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
ANIMAL NUTRITION

ANSWER KEY

1 A 9 C

2 D 10 D

3 A 11 C

4 C 12 D

5 D 13 A

6 D 14 D

7 A 15 D

8 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1.In human digestive system, the 6. Which one of the following is the
process of digestion starts in correct sequence in the order of
(a) Oesophagus (b) Buccal cavity decreasing length of the structural
(c) Duodenum (d) Stomach parts given below of small intestine
in the human body?
2. The action of pepsin is to (a) Jejunum - Duodenum - lleum
(a) curdle milk. (b) lleum - Duodenum - Jejunum
(b) breakdown proteins to peptones. (c) Jejunum - lleum - Duodenum
(c) break down polypeptide into (d) lleum - Jejunum - Duodenum
amino acids.
(d) breakdown polysaccharides to 7. The acid in gastric jucie is
disaccharides. (a) acetic acid
(b) nitric acid
3. Which of the following is a (c) hydrochloric acid
function of sphincter muscles? (d) sulphuric acid
(a) Control peristalsis.
(b) Grind large food particles. 8. Which among the following is the
(c) Secrete digestive juices into the GI food tube?
tract. (a) Thymus (b) Larynx
(d) Control passage of food through (c) Aorta (d) Oesophagus
the GI tract.
9. Which one of the following is not
4. How many ‘canine teeth’ does an a function of liver?
adult human have (a) Conversion of glucose into
(a) 8 (b) 4 glycogen.
(c) 6 (d) 2 (b) Production of urea.
(c) Destruction of dead and worn-out
5. Bile is stored in red blood cells.
(a) mouth (b) liver (d) Absorption of food and excess
(c) gall bladder (d) stomach water from the undigested food
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
10. The complete digestion of 16. The acidic, semi digested food
carbohydrates, proteins and fats coming out of the stomach is
occurs in neutralised by
(a) stomach (b) liver (a) pancreatic juice
(c) small intestine (d) large intestine
(b) duodenal secretion
11. In human body most of the (c) large intestine secretion
digestive process, takes place in (d) bile juice
(a) Pancreas (b) large intestine
(c) small intestine (d) stomach 17. If by an unknown accident the
acid secreting cells of the stomach
12. In the buccal cavity of human wall of an individual are damaged.
being digestion of which one of the Digestion of which one of the
following get started? following biomolecule will be
(a) Protein (b) Fat affected to a greater extent?
(c) Carbohydrate (d) None of these
(a) Protein only
13. The saliva helps in the digestion (b) Lipid
of (c) Carbohydrate only
(a) Starch (b) proteins (d) Protein and carbohydrate
(c) fibers (d) fat
18. Assertion (A) All the proteins in
14. Which one of the following our food are digested in small
human organs is responsible for intestine only.
detoxification of alcohol? Reasons (R) The protein digesting
(a) Liver (b) Lung
enzyme from pancreas are released
(c) Heart (d) Kidney
into small intestine. Codes
15. Which one of the following is not (a) Both A and R are true and R is
a digestive enzyme in human correct explanation of A
system? (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
(a) Trypsin (b) Gastrin the correct explanation of A
(c) Ptylin (d) Pepsin (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
19. Which is the shortest part of 23. Maximum nutritive element
small intestine? absorbed by blood from which part
(a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum of alimentary canal?
(c) Ileum (d) None of the above (a) Large intestine (b) Mouth
(c) Small intestine (d) Stomach
20. Which one of the following
enzymes convert proteins into 24. Digestion of lipids takes place in
amino acids? the presence of which of the
(a) Pepsin (b) Lactase following?
(c) Urease (d) Zymase I. Bile II. Lipase III. Pepsin
(a) Only I is correct
21. Consider the following (b) Only I and III are correct
statements with reference to human (c) Only I and II are correct
body. (d) I, II and III are correct
I. The common bile duct releases its
contents in stomach. 25. Male mosquitoes usually feed on
II. The pancreatic duct releases its (a) Seawage water (b) Human blood
contents into duodenum. (c) Flower sap (d) Algae
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? 26. Which of the following types of
(a) Only I (b) Only II cell is present in the human gastric
(c) I and II (d) Neither I or II glands?
(a) Mucus neck cells, peptic or chief
22. Deficiency of fluoride leads to cells and parietal or oxyntic cells
which one of the following health (b) Only mucus neck cells and peptic
problems? or chief cells
(A) Tooth caries (c) Only peptic or chief cells and
(B) Mottling of tooth parietal or oxyntic cells
(C) Bending of bones (d) Only mucus neck cells
(D) Stiffening of joints
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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

ANSWER KEY

1 B 11 C 21 B

2 B 12 C 22 A

3 A 13 A 23 C

4 B 14 A 24 C

5 C 15 C 25 C

6 D 16 D 26 A

7 C 17 A

8 D 18 D

9 D 19 A

10 C 20 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. Mammals respire by 5. Larynx is present in between
(a) gills (b) trachea (a) epiglottis and glottis
(c) skin (d) lungs (b) trachea and bronchiole
(c) epiglottis and trachea
2. The amount of which of the (d) bronchus and epiglottis
following component in the air does
not change in the process of 6. Which portion of the human
respiration? respiratory system is called sound
(a) Carbon dioxide ( )CO2 box?
(b) Oxygen (a) Larynx
(c) Water vapours (b) Trachea
(d) Nitrogen (c) Nasopharynx
(d) Glottis
3. Movement of the air into and out
.7. Name the chronic respiratory
of the lungs is carried out by
disorder caused mainly by cigarette
(a) imbibition
smoking
(b) pressure gradient
(a) asthma
(c) osmosis
(b) respiratory acidosis
(d) diffusion
(c) respiratory alkalosis
(d) emphysema
4. Which of the following statement
is incorrect about Nasopharynx? 8. Oxygen transportation in a human
(a) Internal nostrils opens into body takes place through
nasopharynx. I. Blood
(b) It is the common passage for air II. Lungs
only. III. Tissue
(c) It is a portion of pharynx. The correct sequence of
(d) Nasopharynx opens through the transportation is
glottis of the larynx region into the (a) I, II and III (b) III, I and III
trachea (c) II, I and III (d) I, III and II
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
9. Consider the following 12. The air that enters our lungs is
statements. characterised that
I. End product of anaerobic I. it is warm
respiration is lactic acid. II. it is filtered
II. Asthma is caused due to spasm in III. some oxygen is extracted from it
bronchial muscles. IV. some carbon dioxide is added to it
III. Mammalian lung have numerous Codes
alveoli for increasing surface area for (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I and II
gaseous diffusion IV. At the time of (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
inspiration, the diaphragm is
contract. 13. Mark the correct pair of muscles
Which of the statements given above involved in the normal breathing in
is/are correct? humans.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(a) External and internal intercostal
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) None of these
muscles.
(b) Diaphragm and abdominal
10. Which portion of the human muscles.
respiratory system is called sound (c) Diaphragm and external
box? intercostal
(a) Larynx (b) Trachea muscles.
(c) Nasopharynx (d) Glottis (d) Diaphragm and intercostal
muscles
11. Name the chronic respiratory
disorder caused mainly by cigarette 14. Name the chronic respiratory
smoking disorder caused mainly by cigarette
(a) asthma smoking
(b) respiratory acidosis (a) asthma
(c) respiratory alkalosis (b) respiratory acidosis
(d) emphysema (c) respiratory alkalosis
(d) emphysema
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
15. When there is a decrease in the 19. Which of the following glands is
concentration of oxygen in the present between the lungs?
blood, (a) Thymus
the rate of breathing (b) Hypothalamus
(a) decreases (c) Pituitary
(b) increases (d) Pineal
(c) does not change
(d) first decreases, then increases20. Which of the following is known
as energy currency for cellular
16. During the process of process?
respiration, how many molecules of (a) Glucose (b) ATP
oxygen combine with one molecule (c) ADP (d) Pyruvic acid
of glucose?
(a) five 21. Movement of the air into and
(b) seven out of the lungs is carried out by
(c) six (a) imbibition
(d) four (b) pressure gradient
(c) osmosis
17. Which of the following (d) diffusion
membrane covers the lung?
(a) Ciliated Epithelium
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Pleura
(d) Sternum

18. How many lobes are found in

human lungs ?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

ANSWER KEY

1 D 11 D

2 D 12 A

3 B 13 D

4 B 14 D

5 C 15 B

6 A 16 C

8 D 17 C

8 C 18 D

9 C 19 A

10 A 20 B

21 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
EXCERTORY SYSTEM
1. Malpighian tubules are the 5. Water loss through sweating on
excretory structures of body surface is dependent on
(a) insects (b) mammals (a) only temperature of environment
(c) birds (d) reptiles (b) only moisture of environment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
2. The excretory organ in (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
crustaceans, like prawns is
(a) antennal glands 6. Part of kidney through which the
(b) nephridia ureter, blood vessels and nerves
(c) flame cells enters into is
(d) Malpighian tubules (a) renal cortex (b) renal medulla
(c) hilum (d) urethra
3. Which one of the following carries
out the function in human beings 7. Inner to the hilum of the kidney,
similar to the one with Malpighian there is broad funnel-shaped space
tubules perform in cockroaches and called
other insects? (a) renal pelvis (b) medulla
(a) Lungs (c) Cortex (d) adrenal gland
(b) Kidneys
(c) Heart 8. Which of the following is not the
(d) Reproductive organs normal function of the human
kidney?
4. In ureotelic animals, ammonia (a) Regulation of water level in the
produced by metabolism is blood
converted into urea in (b) Regulation of sugar level in the
(a) kidney blood
(b) liver (c) Filter out urea
(c) spleen (d) Secretion of several hormones
(d) lungs

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
EXCERTORY SYSTEM
9. Which one among the following is 13. When kidney fail to function,
the correct pathway for the there is accumulation of
elimination of Urine? (a) fats in the body.
(a) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra (b) proteins in the body.
(b) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters (c) sugar in the blood.
(c) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys (d) nitrogenous waste products in
(d) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra the Blood

10.A healthy human being excretes 14.Absorption of water in the

the following litres of urine in 24
human body can be found in
hours. I. renal tubule in kidney
(a) 1.5 (b) 3.0 II. hepatic cells in liver
(c) 6.0 (d) 9.0 III. large intestine
IV. pancreatic duct
11. What amongst the following is Select the correct answer using the
responsible for the formation of codes given below.
stone in the human kidney? (a) I, II and III (b) I and III
(a) Calcium acetate (c) II and IV (d) Only III
(b) Calcium oxalate
(c) Sodium acetate 15. The yellow colour of human
(d) Sodium benzoate urine is due to a pigment called
(a) cytochrome (b) urochrome
12. Loop of Henle, glomerulus and (c) haemochrome (d) phenolichrome
Bowman’s capsule are related with
(a) excretory system 16. The average blood flow through
(b) reproductive system kidneys per minute is
(c) respiration system (a) 1000 cc (b) 1200 cc
(d) nervous system (c) 200 cc (d) 500 cc

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
EXCERTORY SYSTEM
17.Study the following statements. 19.Study the following statements.
I. Kidney failure is treated with I. Filtration of blood occur in
haemodialysis. Bowman’s capsule.
II. Kidney stones are made of calciumII. Artificial kidney work on the
oxalate. principle of dialysis.
III. Urine is yellow in colour due toIII. Main function of kidney is ultra
urochrome pigment. filtration.
Which of the statements given above IV. In mammals urinary bladder open
is/are correct? into urethra.
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II Which of the statements given above
(c) II and III (d) None of these
is/are correct?
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III
18. With reference to the work of (c) I and II (d) II and III
human kidney, consider the
following 20.Structural and functional unit of
statements. the kidney is
1. After the waste is removed in the (a) Medulla (b) nephridia
kidney, the clean blood is sent back (c) Nephron (d) hilum
through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the 21. Consider the following
filtered liquid passes through tiny statements.
tubes where much of the glucose is I. Right kidney is slightly lower than
reabsorbed and sent back to the left kidney.
blood in the renal vein. II. Structural and functional unit of
Which of the statement(s) given kidney is nephron.
above is/are correct? III. Kidney lies below liver.
(a) Only I Which of the statements given above
(b) Only II is/are correct about kidney?
(c) I and II (a) I, II and III (b) II and III
(d) None of the above (c) I and III (d) None of these
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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
EXCERTORY SYSTEM

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 B

2 A 12 A

3 B 13 D

4 B 14 B

5 C 15 B

6 C 16 A

7 A 17 A

8 B 18 B

9 A 19 A

10 A 20 C

21 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN BRAIN
1. How many pairs of nerves arise 6. The brain is responsible for
from the human spinal cord? (a) Thinking
(a) 13 (b) 31 (b) Regulating the heartbeat
(c) 33 (d) 12 (c) Balancing the body
(d) All of the above
2.Schwann cells, form a myelin
sheath around the 7. Where is the governing centre of
(a) Dendrite (b) cell body reflex action located?
(c) nucleus (d) axon (a) In cerebrum (b) In cerebellum
(c) In spinal cord (d) In nerve cells
3. The gaps between two adjacent
myelin sheaths are called 8.Synaptic vesicles contains
(a) synapse chemicals called
(b) synaptic gap (a) synaptic fluid
(c) nodes of Ranvier (b) neurotransmitters
(d) sheath gap (c) vesicular fluid
(d) All of the above
4. Which of the following are the
properties of neurons? 9.Body temperature is regulated by
(a) Conductivity and elasticity (a) thalamus
(b) Excitability and elasticity (b) hypothalamus
(c) Flexibility and excitability (c) cerebellum
(d) Excitability and conductivity (d) Medulla

5. Which of the following elements 10. ‘Satiety’ and ‘thirst’ centres in

is needed in the human body to humans are located in which of the
transfer electrical signals by nerve following parts of the brains?
cells? (a) Fore-brain (b) Hypothalamus
(a) Lithium (b) Sodium (c) Medulla (d) Optic lobe
(c) Rubidium (d) Caesium
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN BRAIN
11. In an human brain memory 15. Identify the part of brain that
power is found in controls the maintenance of
(a) Medulla oblongata posture, balance and equilibrium.
(b) Cerebrum (a) Diencephalon (b) Brainstem
(c) Brain cavity (c) Cerebrum (d) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebellum
16. Which of the following is not a
12. Which one of the following part of the brain?
organs will not feel any pain on (a) Medulla (b) Thalamus
being pricked by a needle? (c) Pons (d) Pinna
(a) Skin (b) Brain
(c) Heart (d) Eye 17. Which one of the following
depicts the correct circuit of a reflex
13. The temperature of the human arc?
body (a) Effector → sensory neuron →
(a) Decreases in winters spinal cord → motor neuron →
(b) Increases in summers receptor
(c) Neither decreases in winters nor (b) Receptor→ sensory neuron→
increases in summers spinal cord → motor neuron →
(d) Increases in winters effector
(c) Receptor → sensory neuron →
14. Which one of the following parts brain → motor neuron → effector
of the human brain is the regulating (d) Sensory neuron → receptor →
centre for swallowing and vomiting? brain effector → motor neuron
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum 18. Largest part of human brain is
(c) Medulla oblongata (a) cerebellum
(d) Pons (b) cerebrum
(c) medulla oblongata
(d) None of the above
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN BRAIN
19. Hindbrain includes 22. Consider the following
(a) pons statements
(b) cerebellum I. Central nervous system consists of
(c) medulla oblongata brain and spinal cord.
(d) All of the above II. Rabbit has 37 pairs of spinal
nerves.
20. Cerebellum is concerned with III. Humans have 31 pairs of spinal
the nerves.
(a) contraction of voluntary muscles. Which of the statements given are
(b) coordinating and regulation correct?
muscles tone. (a) I, II and III (b) I and III
(c) maintaining posture, orientation (c) II and III (d) I and III
and equilibrium of body
(d) All of the above 23. Consider the following
statements
21. Consider the following I. Nervous tissue is made up of an
statements organised network of nerve cells of
I. Cerebrum of human brain is most neurons.
highly developed as compared to II. Neurons are specialised for
others. conducting
II. Hypothalamus part of brain in information via electrical impulses
centre of thirst hunger and sleep. from one part of the body to
III. The smallest structural and another.
functional unit of nervous system is III. The fore brain is the main thinking
neuron. part of the brain.
IV. The longest cells of human body is Which of the statements given above
neuron cell. are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) I and II (b) II and III
are correct? (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I, II, III and
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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN BRAIN

ANSWER KEY
1 B 12 B

2 D 13 C

3 C 14 C

4 D 15 D

5 B 16 D

6 D 17 B

7 C 18 B

8 B 19 D

9 B 20 D

10 B 21 D

11 B 22 A

23 D

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN EYE
1. Retina of the eye is comparable type of lens will the
to which of the following parts of a ophthalmologist recommend to
traditional camera? correct his vision?
(a) Film (b) Lens (a) Bifocal (b) Concave
(c) Shutter (d) Cover (c) Progressive (d) Convex

2. The amount of light entering into 6. Night Bilndness is caused by the

eye can be controlled and regulated deficiency of Vitamin ………… .
by (a) K (b) A
(a) iris (b) cornea (c) C (d) B12
(c) Pupil (d) retina
7. Which one of the following
3. Light enters the eye through a statements is not correct?
thin membrane called (a) Human eye is a refracting system
(a) Retina (b) Cornea containing a diverging lens.
(c) Pupil (d) Iris (b) The retina of the human eye
contains millions of light sensitive
4. In which medical condition is the cells, called rods and cones, which
eye’s optic nerve damaged and the convert the light into electrical
condition worsens over time? messages.
(a) Cataract (c) Every image that is focussed on
(b) Dry Eye the retina is upside down.
(c) Age-related Macular (d) We need both eyes to judge the
Degeneration (AMD) relative positions of objects
(d) Glaucoma accurately.

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HUMAN EYE

ANSWER KEY

1 A 5 D

2 C 6 B

3 B 7 A

4 D

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HARMONES
1. Which one of following is smallest 7. Thyroid gland produces a
gland of body? hormone called ‘Thyroxine’ which
(a) Liver (b) Thyroid (a) controls blood glucose levels
(c) Pineal (d) Salivary gland (b) controls ovulation
(c) controls metabolic rate
2. Which of the following is known (d) maintains pregnancy
asmaster gland in man?
(a) Pancreas (b) Pituitary 8. Cretinism is a human disorder
(c) Adrenal (d) Thyroid which is due to the under secretin of
(a) adrenaline hormone
3. Name the gland that controls the (b) cortisone hormone
functioning of other endocrine (c) glycogen hormone
glands (d) thyroxine hormone
(a) Pancreas (b) Pituitary gland
(c) Rineal gland (d) Adrenal gland 9. Which one of the following
statements regarding insulin
4. Which of the following gland is hormone is correct?
presentbetween the lungs? (a) Insulin is a protein hormone
(a) Thymus (b) Pituitary which is not produced in human
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Pineal body.
(b) Insulin is a steroid hormone
5. Which one of the following which is produced in human body.
hormones do not contains peptide (c) Insulin is a cholesterol driven
chain? hormone given to human.
(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotropin (d) Insulin is a protein hormone
(c) Insulin (d) Cortisol which is produced in human body

6. Life saving hormone is 10. Which of the following is not a

(a) adrenal (b) pituitary gland?
(c) thyroid (d) All of these (a) Thyroid (b) Gastrin
(c) Liver (d) Pancreas
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HARMONES
11. Insulin is a kind of 16. Insulin is secreted by
(a) salt (b) hormone (a) Spleen (b) gonads
(c) enzyme (d) vitamin (c) liver (d) pancreas

12. Which of the following cell 17. Which of the following control
secrete insulin? blood pressure?
(a) α-cell (b) δ-cell (a) Parathyroid (b) Thyroid
(c) β-cell (d) Nerve cell (c) Thymus (d) Adrenal

13. A surge of which hormone 18. Which of the following hormone

stimulates ovulation in human contain Iodine?
females? (a) Thyroxine
(a) Luteinizing hormone (b) Testosterone
(b) Oestrogen (c) Insulin
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Adrenaline
(d) Progesterone
19. The pituitary gland by virtue of
14. Which of the following hormone its tropic hormones controls the
is called emergency hormone? secretory activity of other endocrine
(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline glands.
(c) Oestrogen (d) Oxytocin Which one of the following
endocrine gland can function
15. Which of the following gland is independently of the pituitary
responsible for the secretion of gland?
insulin? (a) thyroid (b) gonads
(a) Pituitary (b) Pineal (c) adrenal (d) parathyroid
(c) Thymus (d) Pancreas

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HARMONES

ANSWER KEY

1 C 11 B

2 B 12 C

3 B 13 A

4 A 14 B

5 D 15 D

6 A 16 D

7 C 17 D

8 D 18 A

9 D 19 D

10 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
REPRODUCTION
1. Which of the following is not a 6. Assertion (A) Asexual
process of asexual reproductions? reproduction required only female
(a) Budding (b) Syngamy animals.
(c) Gemmulation (d) Fragmentation Reason (R) Male animals are not
capable for asexual reproduction.
2. Sporulation is exhibited by (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(a) multicellular chordates correct explanation of A.
(b) unicellular protists (b) Both A and R are true, but R is
(c) multicellular cnidarian like Hydra not the correct explanation of A.
and Obelia (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) multicellular sponges (d) Both Assertion and Reason are
false
3. In humans, Where does
fertilization occur? 7.After reaching the female genital
(a) In uterus (b) In oviduct tract, human sperms retain their
(c) In ovary (d) In vagina fertilizing capacity for
(a) Two minutes
4.Binary fission is a mode of (b) Twenty minutes
(a) micropropagation (c) Ninety minutes
(b) asexual reproduction (d) One to two day
(c) macropropagation
(d) sexual reproduction 8.Budding is found in
(a) Sycon (b) Hydra
5. Gemmule formation in sponges is (c) Fasciola (d) Obelia
useful in
(a) asexual reproduction 9. The capacity for generating an
(b) sexual reproduction entire new individual form a
(c) parthenogenesis fragment of tissue, is called
(d) parthenocarpy (a) Sporulation (b) budding
(c) Encystation (d) fragmentation
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
REPRODUCTION
10. Which of the following cells 14. In human beings, normally in
secrete androgen? which one of the following parts,
(a) Sartolic cells (b) Leadig cells does the sperm fertilize the ovum?
(c) Germinal cells (d) Mucous cells (a) Cervix
(b) Fallopian tube
11. Which one of the following pair (c) Lower part of uterus
is not correctly matched? (d) Upper part of uterus
(a) Loop of Henle - Kidney
(b) Fallopian tube - Female 15. Which one of the following is the
reproductive system special type of milk produced by a
(c) Epididymis - male reproductive lactating mother, essential for the
system development of immune response
(d) Cowper’s gland- Intestine of newborn body in human?
(a) Breast milk produced after a
12. Which one of the following is a month of childbirth
membrane that protects the (b) Transitional milk
developing embryo from (c) Colostrum
desiccation? (d) Mineralised milk
(a) Amnion (b) Allantois
(c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac 16. Which one of the following is not
a component of human male
13. The heart of human embryo reproductive system?
starts beating? (a) Cervix (b) Urethra
(a) In the first week of development (c) Seminal vesicle (d) Vas deferens
(b) In the third week of its
development
17. Which of the following is the
(c) In the fourth week of its
development primary sex organ in females?
(d) In the sixth week of its (a) Uterus (b) Ovary
development (c) Vagine (d) Fallopian tube

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
REPRODUCTION

ANSWER KEY

1 B 11 D

2 B 12 A

3 B 13 D

4 B 14 B

5 A 15 C

6 D 16 A

7 D 17 B

8 B

9 D

10 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
GENITICS
1. Who is the father of modern 6. Double-helical structure of DNA
genetics? was given by whom?
(a) Gergor Johann Mendel (a) Jacob and Monod
(b) Hugo De Vries (b) Watson and Crick
(c) Charles Darwin (c) H G Khorana
(d) Thomas Hunt Morgan (d) None of the above

2. Mendel worked on 7. Mendel selected pea plant for his

(a) edible pea (b) wild pea experiment because
(c) garden pea (d) pigeon pea (a) they are cheaper.
(b) these are easily available.
3. Gregor Johann Mendel is famous (c) these are of great economic
for importance.
(a) Cell Theory (d) they have contrasting traits.
(b) Mutation Principle
(c) Law of Heredity 8. Consider the following
(d) Heredity of acquired characters statements.
I. Human beings have 23 pairs of
4. The unit of heredity in our body is chromosomes.
called II. Sex chromosome in human male
(a) Chromosome (b) DNA are named XY.
(c) Gene (d) Nucleus III. Chromosomes are best seen in
metaphase.
5. Which of the following is Which of the statements given above
responsible for controlling is/are false about chromosomes?
hereditary characters of the living (a) I and II
cells? (b) II and III
(a) Enzyme (b) Hormone (c) I, II and III
(c) RNA (d) DNA (d) None of the above

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
GENITICS
9. Cancer causing gene is 13. Increase of age decreases
(a) Protooncogene (a) crossing over
(b) oncogene (b) linkage
(c) Transposon (c) Polyploidy
(d) mutable gene (d) mutations

10. Who among the following were 14. Assertion (A) In human beings,
awarded Nobel Prize for artificial the female play a major role in
synthesis of the nucleic acids? determining the sex of the offspring.
(a) Ochoa, Kornberg and HG Khorana Reason (R) Women have two
(b) Jacob and Monod X-chromosomes.
(c) Geier and Schwann Codes
(d) Hershey and Aunt Julia (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
11. Who is responsible for the sex (b) Both A and R are true, but R is
determination of a child? not the correct explanation of A
(a) Father (c) A is true, but R is false
(b) Mother (d) A is false, but R is true
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above 15. Genes are made up of
(a) nucleic acids (b) proteins
12. Chromosomes can be counted (c) carbohydrates (d) lipids
best in
(a) Metaphase
(b) Early prophase
(c) Mid prophase
(d) Late prophase

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
GENITICS

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 A

2 C 12 A

3 C 13 A

4 C 14 D

5 D 15 A

6 B

7 D

8 C

9 B

10 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HEALTH AND DISEASE
1. Which of the following gets
different in the human body due to 6. Which of the following organisms
dengue fever? is responsible for sleeping-sickness?
(a) Platelets (b) Hemoglobin (a) Leishmania
(c) Sugar (d) Water (b) Trypanosoma
(c) Ascaris
2. Who among the following was (d) Helicobacter
the founder of vaccine for smallpox?
(a) Aristotle 7. Which of the following is a
(b) Barry Marshall communicable disease?
(c) Robin Warren I. Malaria
(d) Edward Jenner II. Tuberculosis
III. Measles
3. Disease causing micro-organism (a) Only II (b) Both I and III
are called ……… . (c) Both II and III (d) Only III
(a) Antibiotics (b) carriers
(c) pathogens (d) antigens 8. Assertion (A)Mumps in human
beings leads to swelling of the limbs.
4. There is no vaccine for which of Reason (R) In mumps, virus infects
the following hepatitis viruses? the parotid salivary gland.
(a) Hepatitis A Codes
(b) Hepatitis D (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(c) Hepatitis B correct explanation of A
(d) Hepatitis C (b) Both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A
5. AIDS virus contain (c) A is true, but R is false
(a) single stranded RNA (d) A is false, but R is true
(b) double stranded RNA
(c) single stranded DNA
(d) double stranded DNA
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HEALTH AND DISEASE
9. Which scientist discovered the 13. Which of the following diseases
‘Penicillin’? is caused by protozoa?
(a) Louis Pasteur (a) Cholera (b) Diphtheria
(b) Alexander Fleming (c) Pneumonia (d) Malaria
(c) Robert Koch
(d) Ernst Chain 14. The organ affected by malaria is
(a) heart (b) lungs
10. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease (c) Kidney (d) spleen
caused by
(a) bacteria 15. Which one of the following is
(b) fungus used in the treatment of blood
(c) protozoan cancer?
(d) nematode (a) Iodine-131
(b) Sodium-24
11. Sleeping sickness happens due to (c) Phosphorus-32
(a) Deficiency of Vitamin-A (d) Cobalt-60
(b) Deficiency of calcium in body
(c) Rising of blood pressure 16. What is MRI?
(d) Unicellular animal named (a) Magnetic Record of Intestines
Trypanosoma (b) Magnetic Recording of
Investigations
12. Dengue is a fever caused and (c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
transmitted to another human by (d) Magnetic Resonance in Intestines
(a) virus and female Aedes mosquito.
(b) bacteria and female Culex 17. Which of the following disease is
mosquito. caused by severe deficiency of
(c) fungus and female Aedes proteins?
mosquito. (a) Kwashiorkor (b) Anaemia
(d) protozoan and female Anopheles (c) Osteoporosis (d) Goitre
mosquito
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 DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HEALTH AND DISEASE
18. Which one of the following is 19. In our body, antibodies are
not formed against pathogens in
correctly matched? (a) liver by RBC
Pollutants Disease caused (b) blood by platelets
(a) Mercury – Minamata disease (c) brain by macrophages
(b) Cadmium – Itai-Itai disease (d) thymus by lymphocytes
(c) Nitrate Ion – Blue baby syndrome
(d) Fluoride Ion – Indigestion

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DESIRE TO LEARN BIOLOGY
HEALTH AND DISEASE

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 D

2 D 12 A

3 C 13 D

4 D 14 D

5 A 15 A

6 B 16 C

7 C 17 A

8 D 18 D

9 B 19 D

10 B

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FRONT PAGE
INDEX
 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MEASUREMENT
1. The measurement of physical 5. Light year is a unit for
quantity measurement of
(a) is the process of comparing the (a) very large distances.
quantity with a standard amount of (b) time interval in years.
the physical quantity of the same (c) amount of light received on
kind. earth in a year.
(b) is the process of comparing the (d) mass of atoms.
quantity with its unit
(c) Both (a) and (b) 6. The resistivity of a material may
(d) None of the above be expressed in unit of
(a) Ohm (b) Ohm/cm
2. Which one of the following (c) Ohm-cm (d) Ohm-cm2
physical quantities has the same
unit as that of pressure? 7. Which one of the following is not
(a) Angular momentum (b) Stress the unit of energy?
(c) Strain (d) Work (a) Joule
(b) Watt-hr
(c) Newton-metre
3. Which one of the following is not (d) Kg-metre/Sec2
the unit of heat?
(a) Centigrade (b) Calorie 8. What is the unit of solid angle?
(c) Erg (d) Joule (a) Newton (b)Steradian
(c) Radian (d) Watt

4. Which one of the following 9. Newton-metre (Nm) is the SI unit

quantities does not have unit? of which of the following physical
(a) Stress (b) Force quantity?
(c) Strain (d) Pressure (a) Acceleration (b) Torque
(c) Power (d) Force
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MEASUREMENT
10. Match List I with List II and select 12. Match the columns
the correct answer using codes given
below the lists. Column I (Quantity) Column II
(Unit)
List I (Physical quantity) List II (Unit) A. Luminous 1. Kelvin
A. Distance 1. Mole intensity
B. Amount of 2. Candela
B. Amount of material 2. Coulomb
substance
C. Amount of electrical 3. Light year C. Time 3. Second
charge
D. Temperature 4. Mole
D. Energy 4. Watt-hour

ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD

(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2

11. Match List I with List II and select 13. One parsec is equal to ..... light
the correct answer using codes given year
below the lists (a) 5.26 (b) 4.26
List I List II (c) 6.26 (d) 3.26
A. Acceleration 1. Joule
B. Force 2. Newton second 14. Which one of the following is the
C. Work done 3. Newton correct relation between Å and nm?
(a) 1 nm = 10 -1 Å
D. Impulse 4. Meter per second
(b) 1 nm = 10Å
ABCD ABCD (c) 1 nm = 1Å
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 nm = 10-2 Å
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 4 1 2

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MEASUREMENT
15. Match the columns. 17. Which of the following is the
Column I Column II
smallest unit?
Quantity Dimension (a) Milimetre
(b) Angstrom
A. Velocity 1. [MLT-2]
(c) Fermi
B. Force 2. [LT-1] (d) Meter
C. Work 3. [ML2T-2]
18. The unit of the force constant k
D. Momentum 4. [MLT-1]
of a spring is :
Codes (a) N-m
ABCD ABCD (b) N/m
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) N-m2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 (d) n/m2

16. Angstrom is a unit of

(a) wavelength
(b) energy
(c) Frequency
(d) velocity

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MEASUREMENT
ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 C

2 B 12 A

3 A 13 D

4 C 14 B

5 A 15 A

C 16 A
6

7 D 17 C

8 B 18 B

9 B 19

10 A 20

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MOTION
1. A man is sitting in a train which is 4. Which of the following statements
moving with a velocity of 60 km/h. is false?
His speed with respect to the train is (a) A body can have zero velocity and
(a) 103m/s (b) 60 m/s still be accelerated.
(c) Infinite (d) Zero (b) A body can have a constant
velocity and still have a varying
2. During ............. motion of an speed.
object along a straight line, the (c) A body can have a constant speed
change in velocity of the object for and still have varying velocity.
any time interval is zero. (d) the direction of the velocity of a
(a) linear body can change when its
(b) translational acceleration is constant
(c) equilibrium
(d) uniform 5. Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
3. Match List I with List II and select (a) If the velocity and acceleration
the correct answer using the codes have opposite sign, then the object is
given below the lists. slowing down.
List I List II (b) If the velocity is zero at an instant,
A. Speed 1. The role change of
then the acceleration should also be
displacement with zero at that instant.
time (c) If the velocity is zero for a time
B. Velocity 2. The rate of distance interval, then the acceleration is zero
at any instant within the time
C. Acceleration 3. The time rate of interval.
change of velocity
(d) If the position and velocity have
ABCABC opposite sign, then the object is
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 moving towards the origin
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MOTION
6. For a body moving with uniform 9. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin a,
acceleration its final velocity equals.. feather of sparrow bird and a mango
(a) average velocity − initial velocity are dropped simultaneously from
(b) 2 × average velocity − initial the same height. The time taken by
velocity them to reach the bottom is t1 t2 ,
(c) 2 × average velocity + initial andt3 , respectively. In this situation,
velocity we will observe that
(d) average velocity + initial velocity (a) t1> t2> t3 (b) t1> t3> t2
(c) t3> t1> t2 (d) t1= t2= t3

7. Which of the following is correct? 10. The distance-time graph for the
(a) Displacement cannot be zero. motion of an object moving with a
(b) Magnitude of displacement may constant speed is a
be greater than distance. (a) dot (b) circle
(c) Distance may be greater than or (c) straight line (d) curve
equal to magnitude of displacement.
(d) Distance is always greater than
magnitude of displacement 11. The slope of a distance-time
graph shows .............. .
8. A brick is thrown vertically from (a) Acceleration (b) momentum
an aircraft flying 2 km above the (c) Mass (d) speed
earth. The brick will fall with a
(a) constant speed.
(b) constant velocity. 12. If an object is at rest, then the
(c) constant acceleration. time (X-axis) versus distance (Y-axis)
(d) constant speed for some time graph
then with constant acceleration as it (a) is vertical
means the earth. (b) is horizontal
(c) has 45° positive slope
(d) has 45° negative slope
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MOTION
13. The displacement-time (s-t) 14. A ball P is dropped vertically and
graph of a particle acted upon by a another ball Q is thrown horizontally
constant force is with the same velocities from the
(a) a straight line same height and at the same time. If
(b) a circle air resistance is neglected, then
(c) a parabola (a) ball P reaches the ground first.
(d) any curve depending upon initial (b) ball Q reaches the ground first.
Conditions. (c) both reach the ground at the
same time.
(d) the respective masses of the two
balls will decide the time.

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MOTION
ANSWER KEY

1 D 11 D

2 D 12 B

3 C 13 C

4 C 14 C

5 B

B
6

7 C

8 C

9 D

10 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MOTION - NUMERICALS
1. A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 4. If an object moves at a non-zero
50 km in a straight line towards constant acceleration for a certain
South, immediately turns around interval of time, then the distance it
and returns to Bengaluru. The time covers in that time
taken for this round trip is 2h. The (a) depends on its initial velocity.
magnitude of the average velocity (b) is independent of its initial
of the car for this round trip velocity.
(a) is zero (c) increases linearly with time.
(b) is 50 km/h (d) depends on its initial
(c) is 25km/h displacement.
(d) cannot be calculated without
knowing acceleration 5. A particle moves with uniform
acceleration along a straight line
2. Find the acceleration (in m/s2 from rest. The percentage increase
) of a body which accelerates from in displacement during 6th
10 m/s2 to 20 m/s2 in 4 seconds. compared to that in 5th is about [
(a) 7.5 (b) 5 (a) 11% (b) 22%
(c) 15 (d) 2.5 (c) 33% (d) 44%

3. A racing car accelerates on a 6. A ball is thrown vertically upward

straight line from rest to a speed of from the ground with a speed of
50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform 25.2 m/s. The ball will reach the
acceleration of the throughout, the highest point of its journey in
distance covered in this will be (a) 5.14 s
(a) 625 m (b) 3.57 s
(b) 1250 m (c) 2.57 s
(c) 2500 m (d) 1.29 s
(d) 50 m

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MOTION - NUMERICALS

ANSWER KEY

1 B 4 A
2 D 5 B
3 A 6 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCES AND LAW OF MOTION
1. Which one of the following has 4. Rocket works on the principle of
maximum inertia? (a) Newton’s First Law
(a) An atom (b) Newton’s Second Law
(b) A molecule (c) Newton’s Third Law
(c) A one rupee coin (d) Newton’s Fourth Law
(d) A cricket ball
5. A person is standing on a
2. When a ball bounces off the frictionless horizontal ground. How
ground, which of the following can he move by a certain distance
changes suddenly? (Assume no loss
on this ground?
of energy to the floor)
(a) By sneezing (b) By jumping
(a) Its speed
(b) Its momentum (c) By running (d) By rolling
(c) Its kinetic energy
(d) Its potential energy 6. When a running car stops
suddenly, the passengers tends to
3. Two bodies A and B are moving lean forward because of
with equal velocities. The mass of B (a) centrifugal force
is doubled that of A. In this context, (b) inertia of rest
which one of the following (c) inertia of motion
statement is correct? (d) gravitational force
(a) Momentum of B will be double
that of A. 7. Conservation of momentum in a
(b) Momentum of A will be double collision between particles can be
that of B. understood on the basis of
(c) Momentum of B will be four time (a) Newton’s First Law of Motion
that of A. (b) Newton’s Second Law of Motion
(d) Momentum of both A and B will (c) Both Newton’s Second Law of
be equal. Motion and Newton’s Third Law of
Motion
(d) Conservation of Energy
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCES AND LAW OF MOTION
8. The apparent weight of man in a 12. A ball balanced on a vertical rod
lift is less the real weight when is an example of
(a) the lift is going up with an (a) stable equilibrium
acceleration. (b) unstable equilibrium
(b) the lift is going down with (c) neutral equilibrium
uniform speed. (d) perfect equilibrium
(c) the lift is going up with uniform
speed. 13. The motion of a body around a
(d) the lift is going down with an circular path is an example of
acceleration. (a) uniform velocity, variable
acceleration.
9. Which activity is not based upon (b) uniform speed, uniform velocity.
kinetic friction (c) uniform speed, variable velocity.
(a) writing (b) speaking (d) uniform speed, variable
(c) Hearing (d) walking acceleration.

10. Maximum value of static friction

is called 14. The separation of cream from
(a) limiting friction milk by churning is due to
(b) rolling friciton (a) gravitational force
(c) normal reaction (b) cohesive force
(d) coefficient friction (c) centrifugal force
(d) None of these

11. The moment of inertia of a body 15. The rate of change of

does not depend upon its momentum of a body is equal to the
(a) axis of rotation resultant
(b) angular velocity (a) energy (b) power
(c) form of mass (c) Force (d) impulse
(d) distribution of mass
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCES AND LAW OF MOTION
16. Consider the following 18. A solid disc and a solid sphere
statements. have the same mass and same
I. Centrifugal force is exerted by a radius. Which one has the higher
cream separator machine of the moment of inertia about its centre
milk. of mass?
II. A horse suddenly moves then it is (a) The disc
a fear to fall down the horse rider (b) The sphere
because of inertia of rest. (c) Both have the same moment of
III. The bodies executing free falling inertia.
motion have equal momentum. (d) The information provided is not
Which of the statement given above sufficient to answer the question.
is correct?
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II 19. A brass ball is tied to a thin wire
(c) III and II (d) Only I and swung so as to move uniformly
in a horizontal circle. Which of the
17. Match the columns. following statements in this regard
Column I Column II is/are ture?
I. The ball moves with constant
A. Impulse 1. walking on ground
velocity.
B.Newton’s 2. Bogies of trains are II. The ball moves with constant
Third Law provided with buffers speed.
of Motion
III. The ball moves with constant
C. Inertia 3. An athlete runs some acceleration.
of direction distance before a taking
IV. The magnitude of the
jump
acceleration of the ball is constant.
D. Inertia 4. Mud flying tangentially Select the correct answer using the
of Motion to the tyre of car
codes given below
ABCD ABCD (a) Only I (b) I and III
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) I, II and IV (d) II and IV
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 3 4 1
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCES AND LAW OF MOTION
20. Statement I When a gun is fired, 21. Definition of force can be stated
i.e. it placing pushes back with much from
less velocity than the velocity of the (a) Newton’s First Law of Motion
bullet. (b) Newton’s Second Law of Motion
Statement II Velocity of the recoiling (c) Newton’s Third Law of Motion
gun is less because the gun is much (d) Newton’s Law of Gravitation
heavier than bullet. According to the
Principle of conservation of
momentum when the gun is fired,
momentum of gun and bullet system
remains constant.
Codes
(a) Both the statements are
individually true and statement II is
the correct explanation of statement
I
(b) Both the statements are
individually
true but statement II is not the
correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but statement
II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but statement
II is true

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCES AND LAW MOTION

ANSWER KEY

1 D 11 B

2 B 12 B

3 A 13 C

4 C 14 C

5 A 15 C

C 16 B
6

7 C 17 A

8 D 18 A

9 C 19 D

10 A 20 A

21 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE - NUMERICAL
1. A man weighing 70 kg is coming 4. A body of mass 4 kg accelerates
down in lift. It the cable of the lift from 15 m/s to 25 m/s in 5 seconds
breaks sudden, the weight of the due to the application of a force on
man would become it. Calculate the magnitude of this
(a) 70 kg (b) 35 kg force
(c) 140 kg (d) zero (a) 32 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 64
2. Two persons are holding a rope of
negligible mass horizontally. A 20 kg
mass is attached to the rope at the
mid-point, as a result, the rope
deviates from the horizontal
direction. The tension required to
completely straighten the rope is (g
= 10 m/s2)
(a) 200 N (b) 20 N
(c) 10 N (d) infinitely large

3. A bullet of mass 10 g is fired with

a velocity of 20 m/s from a gun of
mass 2 kg. Find the recoil velocity (in
m/s) of the gun.
(a) 1 (b) 0.2
(c) 0.1 (d) 2

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE - NUMERICALS

ANSWER KEY

1 D 4 B
2 A
3 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
1. A man pushes a wall and fails to 4. The example of the conservative
displace it. He does force is
(a) negative work (a)friction force
(b) positive but not maximum work (b) gravitational force
(c) no work at all (c) viscous fore
(d) maximum work (d) None of these

2. When a body is made to slide 5. Which one of the following force

over a rough horizontal surface, the is non-central and non-conservative?
work done by the frictional force is (a) Frictional force
(a) positive (b) Electric force
(b) negative (c) Gravitational force
(c) zero (d) Mechanical force
(d) may be positive and negative
6. Which one of the following is not
3. Assertion (A) Work done by a form of stored energy?
friction on a body sliding down an (a) Nuclear energy
inclined plane is positive. (b) Potential energy
Reason (R) Work done is greater (c) Electrical energy
than zero it the angle between force (d) Chemical energy
and displacement is acute.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the 7. How is the kinetic energy of a
correct explanation of A moving object affected if the net
work done on it is positive?
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A (a) Decreases
(c) A is true, but R is false (b) Increases
(d) A is false, but R is true (c) Remains constant
(d) Becomes zero

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
8. As an object falls freely its ……… 10. Assertion (A) A spring has
potential energy, both when it is
(a) kinetic energy gets converted into compressed or stretched.
potential energy Reason (R) In compressing or
stretching, work is done on the
(b) potential energy gets converted spring against the restoring force.
into kinetic energy
Codes
(c) momentum gets converted into (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
gravitational force correct explanation of A
(d) gravitational force gets converted (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A
into momentum (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
9. Consider the following
statements. 11. Creation of something from
I. There is no net moment on a body nothing is against the law of
which is in equilibrium.
(a) constant proportions
II. The momentum of a body is
always conserved. (b) conservation of mass-energy

III. The kinetic energy of an object is (c) multiple proportions

always conserved. (d) conservation of momentum
Which of the statements (s) given
above is/are correct? 12. The SI unit of mechanical energy
is
(a) Only I
(a) joule
(b) II and III (b) watt
(c) I and II (c) newton-second
(d) All of the above (d) joule-second
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
13. During the free fall of the 15. Which one of the following
object, the decrease in potential does not convert electrical energy
energy, at any point in its path, into light energy?
appears as an equal amount of
increase in (a) A candle
(a) kinetic energy (b) A light emitting diode
(b) work done (c) A laser
(c) heat energy (d) A television set
(d) gravitational force
16. In wind power, which form of
14. Match the columns. energy is converted into electrical
Column I Column II energy?
A. In an electric 1. Chemical energy is (a) Kinetic energy
heater converted into heat
energy (b) Potential energy
B. In an electric 2. heat energy is (c) Solar energy
bulb converted into
mechanical energy (d) Radiant energy
C. In burning of 3. Electrical energy is
coal converted into light 17. Which of the following devices
energy
converts chemical energy into
D. In steam 4. Electrical energy is
engine converted into heat
electrical energy?
energy (a) Electric heater
ABCD ABCD (b) Electric fan
(a)4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) Hair dryer
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
(d) Electric cell
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
18. Which one among the following 20. Consider the following
happens when a swing rises to a sentences. I. In an inelastic collision,
certain height from its rest only momentum is conserved.
positions? II. In elastic collision, both
(a) Its potential energy decreases momentum and kinetic energy are
while kinetic energy increases. conserved.
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases while
potential energy increase. III. In an inelastic collision, both
(c) Both potential and kinetic energy momentum and kinetic energy are
decreases. Conserved Which of the sentences
given above are correct?
(d) Both potential and kinetic
energy increases. (a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
19. Which one of the following is the (c) III and II
value of 1 kwh of energy converted (d) Only I
into joules?
(a) 1.8 * 10^6 J
21. Which of the following physical
(b) 3.6 * 10^6 J quantity measures the rate of work
(c) 6.0 * 10^6 J done?
(d) 7.2 * 10^6 J (a) Power (b) Momentum
(c) Force (d) Energy

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

ANSWER KEY

1 C 11 B

2 B 12 A

3 D 13 A

4 B 14 A

5 A 15 A

C 16 A
6

7 B 17 D

8 D 18 B

9 C 19 B

10 A 20 A

21 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK - NUMERICALS
1. An object of mass 20 kg is moving 4. A snowboard pulled up by a two
with an uniform velocity of 5ms-1 . rope travels at the rate of 5 m/sec
What is the kinetic energy possessed up a mountain. If 3000 watt of
by it? power is used, what force was
(a) 350 J (b) 150 J applied to it?
(c) 200 J (d) 250 J (a) 50 N (b) 100 N
(c) 600 N (d) 15000 N
2. An object weighing 20 kg is raised
through a height of 2m. What will be
the work done by the force of 5. Mohan, having a mass of 40 kg,
gravity in this process? Take g = 10 runs up a staircase of 50 steps in 10s.
m/s2
If the height of each step is 15 cm,
(a) 400 J (b) 50 J then what is his power?
(c) 40 J (d) 100 J (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 300 W (b) 100 W
3. A body has a free fall from a
height of 20m. After falling through (c) 200 W (d) 400 W
a distance of 5 m, the body would
(a) lose one-fourth of its total energy. 6. How many watts are there in
(b) loss one-fourth of its potential metric horse power?
energy.
(a) 736 (b) 646
(c) gain one-fourth of its potential
energy. (c) 546 (d) 446
(d) gain three-fourth of its total
energy.

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
WORK - NUMERICALS

ANSWER KEY

1 D 4 C
2 A 5 A
3 B 6 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY
1. Which one of the following 3. Which one of the following
statement about gravitational force statement about the mass of a body
is not correct? is correct?
(a) It is experienced by all bodies in (a) It changes from one place to
the universe.
another.
(b) It is a dominant force between
(b) It is same everywhere.
celestial bodies.
(c) It is a negligible force for atoms. (c) It depends on its shape.

(d) It is same for all pairs of bodies in (d) It does not depend on its
our universe. temperature.

2. In respect of the difference of the 4. The free fall acceleration g

gravitational force from electric and increases as one proceeds at sea
magnetic forces, which one of the level, from the equator towards
following statements is true? either pole. The reason is
(a)Gravitational forces is stronger
(a) earth is a sphere with same
than the other two.
density everywhere.
(b)Gravitational force is attractive
only, whereas the electric and the (b) earth is a sphere with different
magnetic forces are attractive as well density at the polar regions than in
as repulsive. the equatorial regions.
(c) Gravitational force has a very (c) earth is approximately an ellipsoid
short range. having its equatorial radius greater
(d) Gravitational force is a long range than its polar radius by 21 km.
force, while the other two are short
range forces (d) earth is approximately an ellipsoid
having its equatorial radius smaller
than its polar radius by 21 km.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY
5. The SI unit of universal gravitation 8. Consider the following
constant (G) is statements. The acceleration due to
(a) Nm2 kg2 earth’s gravity decreases if
(b) Nm2 kg-2 I. we go up from the surface of the
(c) Nm-2 kg-2 earth.
(d) Nm-2 kg2 II. we go from the equator towards
the pole.
6. In which of the following places is III. the rotation speed of the earth is
increased.
the acceleration due to gravity zero?
IV. we go down from the surface of
(a) At the centre of the earth the earth towards its centre.
(b) At the poles Which of these statements are
(c) At the equator correct?
(d) At sea level (a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
7. If the earth rotates faster than its (c) I, II and IV
present speed, the acceleration due (d) I, II, III and IV
to gravity will
(a) Increase at the equator but 9. A person can jump higher on the
remain unchanged at the poles. moon’s surface than on the earth
because
(b) decrease at the equator but (a) the moon’s surface is rough.
remain unchanged at the poles.
(b) the acceleration due to gravity in
(c) remain unchanged at the equator moon is smaller than that on the
but decrease at the poles. earth.
(d) remain unchanged at the equator (c) the moon is cooler than earth.
but increase at the poles. (d) the moon has no atmosphere.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY
10. Assertion (A)There is not effect 12. Which one of the following
of rotation of earth on acceleration statement is correct?
due to gravity at poles. (a) The measurement of mass taken
Reason (R) Rotation of earth is about by a spring weighing balance is
correct at the place where the spring
polar axis.
balance is calibrated for.
Codes
(b) The measurement of mass taken
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the by a spring weighing balance is
correct explanation of A correct at all places.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not (c) The measurement of mass taken
the correct explanation of A by a spring weighing balance is
correct at the places where the
(c) A is true, but R is false acceleration due to gravity is same
(d) A is false, but R is true with the place where the spring
balance is calibrated for.
11. Mass of a particular amount of (d) A spring balance cannot be used
substance to measure mass at any place.
I. is the amount of matter present in
it. 13. Gravitational potential energy of
II. does not vary from place to place. particle
III. changes with change in (a) depends upon the mass of
gravitational force. particle.
Select the correct answer using the (b) does not depends upon the mass
codes given below of particle.
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) is always negative.
(c) II and III (d) Only I (d) Both (a) and (c)

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY
14. Which one of the following 16. If satellite is shifted toward the
statements about a satellite orbiting earth. Then the time period of
around the earth is correct? satellite will be
(a) Satellite is kept in orbit by remote (a) Increase
control from ground station. (b) Decrease
(b) Satellite is kept in orbit by (c) Unchanged
retrorocket and solar energy keeps it (d) Nothing can be said
moving around the earth.
(c) Satellite requires energy from 17. Which one of the following
solar panels and solid fuels for statements regarding artificial
orbiting. satellite of the earth is incorrect?
(d) Satellite does not required any (a) The orbital velocity depends on
energy for orbiting. the mass of the satellite.
(b) A minimum velocity of 8 km/s is
15. A satellite revolves around the required by a satellite to orbit quite
earth in an elliptical orbits. Its speed close to the earth.
(a) is the same at all points in the (c) The period of revolution is large if
orbit. the radius of its orbit is large.
(b) is greatest when it is closest to (d) The height of a geostationary
the earth. satellite is about 36000 km from the
(c) is greatest when it is farthest from earth.
the earth.
(d) None of the above 18. Why is weightlessness
experienced while orbiting the earth
in space ships?
(a) Inertia
(b) Acceleration
(c) Zero gravity
(d) Orbital motion
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY
19. Which one of the following 21. Consider the following
statements is not correct? statements .
(a) Weight of a body is different on The escape velocity depends on
different planets. I. radius of the planet.
(b) Mass of a body on the earth, on II. temperature of the planet.
the moon and in empty space is the
same. III. mass of the planet.

(c) Weightlessness of a body occurs IV. mass of the particles escaping.

when the gravitational forces acting Select the correct answer from the
on it is counter-balanced. codes given below.
(d) Weight and mass of a body are (a) I and II (b) I and III
equal at sea level on the surface of (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
the earth.

22. The Leaning Tower of Pisa does

20. There is no atmosphere on the not fall because
moon because
(a) it is tapered at the top.
(a) it is near to the earth.
(b) it covers a large base area.
(b) it receives light from the sun.
(c) its centre of gravity remains as the
(c) it revolves around the earth.
lowest position.
(d) the escape velocity of gas
molecules on it is less than the root (d) the vertical line through the
mean square velocity here. centre of gravity of the tower falls
within its base

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY
23. In planetary motion, the angular 25. Match the following.
momentum conservation leads to
the law of List I List II
(a) orbits A. Weight of a 1. With increase
body is maximum in height from the
(b) areas surface of earth
(c) periods
(d) Conservation of kinetic energy B. Weight of a 2. Null point
body decreased

24. Consider the following C. Weight of a 3.surface of the

statements. body increases earth

I. According to Kepler’s first law, D. Weight of the 4. When body is

body is zero moved from null
each planet moves in an elliptical point towards
orbit around the sun, the sun being moon
at one of the foci of the ellipse. Codes
II. According to Kepler’s Second Law,
ABCD ABCD
the radius vector of any planet
relative to the sun sweeps out equal (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
areas in equal times, that is the
areal velocity of the radius vector of (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
the planet is constant.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY

ANSWER KEY
1 D 9 B 17 A

2 B 10 A 18 D

3 B 11 B 19 D

4 C 12 C 20 D

5 B 13 A 21 B

6 A 14 D 22 D

7 B 15 B 23 B

8 B 16 B 24 C

25 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
FORCE OF GRAVITY - NUMERICAL
1. If the distance between the earth
and the sun were twice what it is
now, the gravitational force exerted
on the earth by the sun would be ANSWER KEY
(a) twice as large as it is now.
(b) four times as large as it is now. 1 C

(c) one-fourth of what it is now. 2 C

(d) Half of what it is now. 3 C

2. Suppose the force of gravitation

between two bodies of equal masses
is F. If each mass is doubled keeping
the distance of separation between
them unchanged, then the force
would become
(a) F (b) 2F
(c) 4F (d) 1/4F

3. The weight of an object on the

earth is 150 N. Its weight on moon
will be
(a) 150 N (b) 75 N
(c) 25 N (d) 50 N

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
1. The body is called perfectly 4. Which one of the following
plastic body substances possesses the highest
(a) if the body completely gain its elasticity?
original shape after removal of (a) Rubber (b) Glass
deforming force. (c) Steel (d) Copper
(b) if the body remains in deformed
shape even after removal of the
deforming force. 5. Assertion (A) The solids are more
elastic and gases are least elastic.
(c) if weight of the body is equal to
force of buoyancy Reason (R) It is so because for the
given stress applied the gases are
(d) None of the above more compressible than that of
solids.
2. Which of the following is not a Codes
characteristics of a solid? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(a) High compressibility correct explanation of A
(b) High density (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
(c) Regular shape the correct explanation of A

(d) High rigidity (c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

3. The spring constant of a spring

depends on its 6. The spring balance works on the
(a) length only principle of …… .

(b) material only (a) Boyle’s Law

(c) length and its diameter (b) Hooke’s Law
(d) thickness, its diameter and its (c) Bernoulli’s Principle
material (d) Pascal’s Law
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
7. The Hooke’s law is valid for 10. Consider the following
statements.
(a) only proportional region of the
I. The SI unit of young’s modulus of
stress-strain curve. elasticity is N/M2
(b) entire stress-strain curve. II. The reciprocal of the bulk
(c) entire elastic region of the stress- modulus of the material of the body
is called the compressibility of that
strain curve. material.
(d) elastic as well as plastic region of III. Compressibility of gases is very
the stress-strain curve. small.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
8. In an experiment to determine (a) I, II and III (b) I and III
the Young’s modulus of a material
(c) I and II (d) None of these
of a wire, and the suspended mass
are doubled. Then the Young’s
modulus of the wire 11. Which of the following
statement(s) about a fluid at rest in
(a) becomes double. a cup is/are correct?
(b) becomes four times. I. Pressure is same at all the points
in the fluid.
(c) remain unchanged.
II. Pressure is exerted on the walls.
(d) becomes half.
III. Pressure exists everywhere in
the fluid.
9. Calculate the pressure (in Pa) if a (a) I and II
thrust of 1000 N is applied to an (b) II and III
area of 5 m2
(c) Only I
(a)200 (b) 50
(d) I, II and III
(c) 100 (d) 25
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
12. If there were no gravity, which 14. The pressure of the earth’s
of the following will not be there atmosphere at sea level is due to
for a fluid? the
(a) heating of the atmosphere by
(a) Viscosity the sun.
(b) Surface Tension (b) fact that most living things
(c) Pressure constantly breathe air.

(d) Upward Thrust (c) evaporation of water from the

seas and oceans.
(d) gravitational attraction of the
13. A liquid is kept in a glass beaker. earth for the atmosphere.
Which one of the following
statements is correct regarding the 15. A deep sea diver may hurt his
pressure exerted by the liquid ear drum during diving because of
column at the base of the beaker? (a) lack of oxygen
(a) The pressure depends on the (b) high atmospheric pressure
area of the base of the beaker. (c) high water pressure
(b) The pressure depends on the (d) All of the above
height of liquid column.
(c) The pressure does not depend 16. Which one of the following
on the density of the liquid. device is used to measure
atmospheric pressure?
(d) The pressure neither depends on
the area of the base of the beaker (a) Ammeter
nor on the height of liquid column. (b) Barometer
(c) Potentiometer
(d) Lactometer
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
17. Consider the following 19. Density of water is
statements. (a) maximum at 0°C
I. SI unit of atmospheric pressure is (b) minimum at 0°C
Nm−2 or pascal and CGS unit is
dyne/cm2 (c) maximum at 4°C

II. The barometer is a device by (d) minimum at − 4°C

which the atmospheric pressure is
measured. 20. Specific gravity is defined as the
III. The standard atmospheric ratio of
pressure is the pressure required of (a) density of the substance to the
76 cm of Hg column or 760 mm of density of water.
Hg column, which is equivalent to 1
atm. (b) density of the substance to the
density of water at 0°C.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct? (c) density of water at 4°C to the
density
(a) I and II (d) density of the substance to the
(b) Only I density of water at 4°C.
(c) II and III 21. If two miscible liquids of same
(d) I, II and III volume but different densities ρ1 and
ρ2 are mixed, then the density of the
mixture is given by
18. The density of water is 1 g./cc.
This is strictly valid at
(a) 0°C (b) 4°C
(c) 25°C (d) 100°C
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
22. Two identical solid pieces, one of 24. The pressure of a fluid varies
gold and other of silver, when with depth has where
immersed completely in water ρ is the fluid density. This expression
exhibit equal weights. When is associated with
weighed in air (given that, density of (a) Pascal’s Law
gold is greater than that of silver),
(b) Newton’s Law
(a) the gold piece will weigh more.
(c) Bernoulli’s Principle
(b) the silver piece will weigh more.
(d) Archimedes’ Principle
(c) Both silver and gold pieces weigh
equal. 25. Hydraulic brakes used in
(d) weighing will depend on their automatic vehicles is direct virtual
masses. application of which law?
(a) Pascal’s Law
23. Assertion (A) An iron ball floats (b) Archimede’s Principle
on mercury but gets immersed in (c) Newton’s Law
water. (d) Boyle’s Law
Reason (R) The specific gravity of
iron is more than that of mercury. 26. Two pieces of different metals,
when completely immersed in
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the water, experience equal upthrust,
correct explanation of A then
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is (a) both pieces have same density.
not the correct explanation of A (b) both pieces have equal volume.
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) both pieces have equal weight in
air.
(d) A is false, but R is true
(d) None of the above
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
27. Whether an object will float or 30. Which one of the following
sink in a liquid, depends on statement is not correct?
(a) mass of the object only.
(a) In steady flow of a liquid, the
(b) mass of the object and density of
liquid only. velocity of liquid particles reaching at
(c) difference in the densities of the a particular point is the same at all
object and liquid. points.
(d) mass and shape of the object (b) Steady flow is also called
only streamlined flow.

28. Along a streamline flow of fluid, (c) In steady flow, each particle may
not follow the same path as taken by
(a) the velocity of all fluid particles at
a given instant is constant. a previous particle passing through
that point.
(b) the speed of a fluid particle
remains constant. (d) Two streamlines cannot intersect
(c) the velocity of all fluid particles with each other.
crossing a given position is constant.
(d) the velocity of a fluid particle 31. Soap bubble attains spherical
remains constant. shape due to ……… .
(a) inertia (b) pressure
29. With the rise of temperature, (c) surface tension (d) viscosity
the viscosity of liquid
(a) increases
32. Bernoulli’s principle is based on
(b) decreases the law of conservation of
(c) remains unchanged (a) angular momentum
(d) may increase or decrease (b) linear momentum
depending on nature of liquid (c) mass
(d) energy
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS
33. Two cars, passing each other at 36. Writing an black board with a
high speed, are in danger of side piece of chalk is possible by the
swiping because property of
(a) of the increase in air pressure in (a) adhesive force
the space between them. (b) cohesive force
(b) of decrease in the velocity of air (c) surface tension
molecules between them.
(d) viscosity
(c) of decrease in air pressure in the
space between them.
(d) of the increase in the velocity of 37. Consider the following
air molecules between them. statements. The rise of a liquid in a
capillary tube depends on
34. Insects can move on the surface I. The surface tension of liquid
of water without sinking due to II. The length
(a) viscosity of water III. The outer radius
(b) surface tension of water IV. The inner radius of the tube
(c) Both (a) and (b) Which of the following statements
(d) None of the above is/are true?
(a) I, II and IV
35. Which one of the following is (b) I and II
not a result of surface tension? (c) I and IV
(a) Nearly spherical drop of rain (d) II and IV
(b) Capillary rise
(c) Removal of dirt by soap or
detergent
(d) Flow of a liquid
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
SOLID AND FLUIDS

ANSWER KEY
1 B 11 D 21 B 31 C

2 A 12 D 22 B 32 D

3 D 13 B 23 C 33 C

4 C 14 D 24 A 34 B

5 A 15 C 25 A 35 D

B 16 B 26 B 36 A
6

7 A 17 D 27 C 37 A

8 C 18 B 28 C

9 A 19 C 29 B

10 C 20 D 30 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OCSILLATION AND WAVES
1.The total energy of a particle 4. To produce sound it is necessary
executing simple harmonic motion that
is proportional to the (a) the sOurce should execute
(a) amplitude of the motion longitudinal vibrations
(b) square of the amplitude of the (b) the source should execute
motion transverse vibrations
(c) cube of the amplitude of the (c) the Source may execute any type
motion of vibration
(d) square of the acceleration of the (d) the vibrations of source are not
body necessary

2. Which among the following is the 5. When a wire of a sitar is plucked,

necessary condition for simple then the waves produced in air will
harmonic motion? be
(a) Constant period (a) stationary waves
(b) Constant acceleration (b) transverse waves
(c)Displacement and acceleration are (c) longitudinal waves
proportional (d) a combination of transverse and
(d) Displacement and torque are Stationary wave
proportional
6. A body executing simple
3. A slow-running pendulum clock harmonic motion while passing
can be speeded up by through its mean position will have
(a) increasing the length of the rod (a) kinetic energy only
(b) increasing the weight of the bob (b) potential energy only
(c) reducing the length of the rod (c) Both kinetic and potential
(d) reducing the weight of the bob energies
(d) minimum acceleration
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OCSILLATION AND WAVES
7. Bats can ascertain distances, 10. The approximate intensity level
directions, nature and size of the of the sound which can cause
obstacles at night. This is possible damage to the ear drum is
by reflection of the emitted (a) 20 dB (b) 100 dB
(a) ultrasonic waves from the bat. (c) 160 dB (b) 60 db
(b) ultrasonic waves from the distant
objects. 11. Which one of the following
(c) supersonic waves from the bat. statements is not correct?
d) supersonic waves from the distant (a) Ultrasonic waves cannot get
objects. reflected, refracted or absorbed.
(b) Ultrasonic waves are used to
8. The pitch of sound depends upon detect the presence of defects like
(a) frequency and amplitude cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal
(b) frequency alone structure of common structure
(c) amplitude alone materials.
(d) the difference in frequencies from (c) Ultrasonic waves can be used for
two sources making holes in very hard materials
like diamond.
9. A pendulum beats faster than a (d) Ultrasonic waves cannot travel
standard pendulum. In order to through vacuum
bring it to the standard beat, the
length of the pendulum is to be: 12. Sound travels in gases in the
(a) reduced (b) increased form of
(c) reduced and the mass of the bob (a) longitudinal waves only
increased (b) transverse waves only waves
(d) reduced and also the mass of the (c) longitudinal as well as transverse
bob reduced (d) stationary waves only

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OCSILLATION AND WAVES

ANSWER KEY

1 B 7 A
2 C 8 B
3 C 9 A
4 C 10 C
5 B 11 A
6 A 12 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
(HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)
1. The direction of heat flow 4. The absolute zero temperature is
between two body depends on 0°K. In °C unit, which one of the
which of the following? following is the absolute zero
(a) Their specific heat temperature?
(b) Their latent heat (a) 0°C (b) −100 °C
(c) Their temperatures (c) −273.15 °C (d) −173.15 °C
(d) Their area of contact
5. Absolute zero is defined as
2. Which one of the following (a) the temperature at which all
statements is not correct? molecular motion ceases.
(a) The Kelvin scale of temperature is (b) at which water boils at 298 K.
called the absolutes scale. (c) at which liquid Helium boils.
(b) Visible light radiation has (d) at which the volume becomes
wavelength range of 400-700 nm. zero
(c) The capacity to do work is called
power. 6. Which one of the following scales
(d) The wavelength of Gamma rays is of temperature does not have a
less than that of X-rays. negative value?
(a) Celsius (b) Fahrenheit
3. In a pressure cooker food is (c) Kelvin (d) Reaumur
cooked in shorter time because
(a) the boiling point of water 7. The working principle of a
increases. mercury thermometer is
(b) the boiling point of water (a) change in density of matter on
decreases. heating.
(c) the food takes less heat. (b) expansion of matter on heating.
(d) None of the above (c) thermal resistance of matter.
(d) change in mass of matter on
heating

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
(HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)
8. On a cold day when the room 10. When water freezes its density
temperature is 15°C, the metallic (a) decreases
cap of a pen becomes much colder (b) becomes zero
than its plastic body, though both (c) remains constant
are at the same temperature of (d) increases
15°C, because
(a) metals have higher thermal 11. Gases have
capacity than plastics. (a) only aerial expansion
(b) plastics than a lower density than (b) only volume expansion
metals. (c) no definite shape
(c) metals are good conductors of (d) Both (b) and (c)
heat.
(d) plastics have a higher thermal 12. When water is heated from 0°C
Conductivity than metals to 10°C. It’s volume
(a) increases
9. Which one of the following (b) decreases
statement is correct? (c) does not change
(a) Any energy transfer that does not (d) first decrease and then increases
involve temperature difference in
some way is not heat. 13. The amount of heat required to
(b) Any energy transfer always change a liquid to gaseous state
requires a temperature difference. without any change in temperature
(c) On heating, the length and is known as
volume of the object remain exactly (a) specific heat capacity.
the same. (b) mechanical equivalent of heat.
(d) Whenever there is a temperature (c) latent heat of vaporisation.
difference, heat is the only way of (d) quenching..
energy transfer.

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
(HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)
14. Assertion (A) A piece of ice 17. At boiling point of liquids, its
added to drink, cools it. (a) temperature increases.
Reason (R) Ice takes latent heat (b) atmospheric pressure increases.
fromthe drink for melting resulting (c) temperature remains constant.
the cooling of the drink. (d) vapour pressure decreases.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. 18. During the melting of solid, its
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the temperature
correct explanation of A (a) decreases.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not (b) increases.
the correct explanation of A (c) may increase or decrease
(c) A is true, but R is false depending on the nature of solid.
(d) A is false, but R is true (d) does not change.

15. Rate of evaporation increases 19. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

with leads to
(a) an increase of surface area. (a) the concept of temperature.
(b) an increase in humidity. (b) the concept of specific heat.
(c) a decrease in wind speed. (c) the concept of internal energy.
(d) a decrease of temperature. (d) None of the above

20. The first law of thermodynamics

16. We feel cool when we sit near is simply the case of
the fan, this is because (a) Charle’s Law
(a) fan gives cool air.
(b) Newton’s Law of Cooling
(b) fan cools surrounding air.
(c) The Law of Heat Exchange
(c) air vapourises the sweat on our
(d) The Law of Conservation of
body.
Energy
(d) we feel cool when air touches the
body.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
(HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)
21. Statement I While putting 23. If the door of a refrigerator is
clothes for drying up, we spread kept open, than which of the
them out. following is true?
Statement II The rate of evaporation (a) Room is cooled.
increases with an increase in surface (b) Room is heated.
area (c) Room is either cooled or heated.
(a) Both the statements are (d) Room is neither cooled nor
individually heated.
true and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I. 24. Which of the following is the
(b) Both the statements are methods of heat transfer?
individually true, but statement II is (a) Convection
not the correct explanation of (b) Evaporation
statement I. (c) Revolution
(c) Statement I is true, but statement (d) Thermal Expansion
II is false.
(d) Statement I is false, but 25. Which one of the following
statement II is true statements is not correct?
(a) Conduction can occur easily in
22. Assertion (A)The boiling point of solids, less easily in liquids but hardly
water decreases as the altitude at all in gases.
increases. (b) Heat energy is carried by moving
Reason (R) The atmospheric particles in a convection current.
pressure increases with altitude. (c) Heat energy is carried by
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is electromagnetic waves in radiation.
the correct explanation of A (d) The temperature at which a solid
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not changes into a liquid is called the
the correct explanation of A boiling point.
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
(HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)
26. A liquid remains hot or cold for 29. Match the following
a long time in thermos flask
because there is no loss or gain of Process Changes
heat by A. Evaporation Liquid into gas
(a) Conduction
Liquid into gas 2. Solid into gas
(b) convection and radiation
(c) Both (a) and (b) C. Freezing 3. Solid into liquid
(d) None of the above D. Melting 4. Liquid into solid

27. Which of the following does not Codes

require a medium ABCD ABCD
(a) Radiation (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
(b) Convection (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
(c) Conduction
(d) None of the above 30. Match the following.
List I List I
28. Consider the following
A. Zeroth Law of 1. Give us the concept
statements.
Thermodynamics of temperature
Assertion (A) Light coloured clothes
B. First Law of 2. Defines internal
are preferred in summer.
Thermodynamics energy
Reason (R) Light colours are poor
absorbers of heat. C. Second Law of 3. Change in internal
Thermodynamics energy is zero
Select correct answer from the
codes given below. D. In a complete 4. The efficiency of on
cycle of changes engine is always less
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the than
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not A B C D ABCD
the correct explanation A (a)1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
(d) A is false, but R is true
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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
(HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)

ANSWER KEY

1 C 11 D 21 A

2 C 12 D 22 C

3 A 13 C 23 B

4 C 14 A 24 A

5 A 15 A 25 D

C 16 C 26 C
6

7 B 17 C 27 A

8 C 18 D 28 A

9 A 19 A 29 A

10 A 20 D 30 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
HEAT - NUMERICAL
1. A Kelvin thermometer and a 5. If x the temperature of a system in
Fahrenheit thermometer both give Kelvin and y is the temperature of
the same reading for a certain the system in °C, then the correct
sample. What would be the relation between them is
corresponding reading in a Celsius (a) x =y − 273
thermometer? (b) x =y + 273
(a) 574 (b) 301 (c) x =y + 173
(c) 273 (d) 232 (d) x =y - 173

2. The temperature of a place on one

sunny day is 113 in Fahrenheit scale.
The Kelvin scale reading of this
temperature will be
(a) 318 K (b) 45 K
ANSWER KEY
(c) 62.8 K (d) 335.8 K
1 B
3. The value of 40 degrees Celsius in 2 A
Fahrenheit scale is
(a) 104°F 3 A
(b) 100°F 4 B
(c) 102°F 5 B
(d) 75°F

4. Boiling point of water is ....

(a) 210°F
(b) 212°F
(c) 214°F
(d) 208°F

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY
1. When you walk on a woolen 4. Electric field lines
carpet and bring your finger near (a) can never intersect.
the metallic handle of a door, an (b) do not start in mid space.
electric shock is produced. This is (c) are perpendicular to the surface
because of a charged conductor.
(a) charge is transferred from your (d) All of the above
body to the handle.
(b) a chemical reaction occurs when 5. Ohm’s law states the relation
you touch the handle. between……… and ……… .
(c) the temperature of the human (a) potential difference, electric
body is higher than that of the charge
handle. (b) electric current, electric charge
(d) the human body and the handle (c) electric charge, time
arrive at thermal equilibrium by the (d) potential difference, electric
process. current

2. What is the process of 6. Which one of the following is an

transferring of charge from a ohmic conductor?
charged object to the Earth called? (a) Germanium (b) Silicon
(a) Discharging (b) Earthing (c) Carbon (d) Silver
(c) Interaction (d) Lightning
7. A proton and an electron are
3. Which one of the following device located in a uniform electric field.
is non-Ohmic? They will experience
(a) Conducting copper coil (a) equal forces in same direction.
(b) Electric heating coil (b) equal forces in opposite direction.
(c) Semi-conductor diode (c) equal acceleration in opposite
(d) Rheostat direction.
(d) acceleration equal in magnitude
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY
8. Which one of the following 10. The resistance of a metallic wire
statements regarding Ohm’s law is is
not correct? (a) directly proportional to its length
(a) Ohm’s law is an assumption that and inversely proportional to its area
current through a conductor is of cross-section.
always directly proportional to the (b) inversely proportional to the
potential difference applied to it. product of its area of cross-section
(b) A conducting device obeys Ohm’s and length.
law when the resistance of a device (c) inversely proportional to its length
is independent of magnitude and and directly proportional to its area
polarity of applied potential of cross-section.
difference. (d) directly proportional to the
(c) A conducting material obeys product of its area of cross-section
Ohm’s law when the resistance of and length
material is independent of the
magnitude and direction of applied 11. Match the columns.
electric field. Column I Column II
(d) All homogeneous materials obey
A. Smaller 1. reciprocal of
Ohm’s law irrespective of whether resistance conductivity
the field is within range or strong
B. Greater 2. resistances are in
9. The product of conductivity and resistance series
resistivity of a conductor C. Specific 3. resistances are in
(a) depends on pressure applied. resistance parallel
(b) depends on current flowing
through conductor. ABC ABC
(c) is the same for all conductors. (a) 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3
(d) varies from conductor-to- (c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3
conductor
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY
12. Consider the following 14. Which one of the following
statements. physical quantities does not affect
I. Ohm’s law is not applicable at very the resistance of a cylindrical
low and very high temperature. resistor?
II. Ohm’s law is applicable to (a) The current through it.
semiconductor. (b) Its length.
III. Ohm’s law is not applicable to (c) The resistivity of the material used
electron tubes, discharge tubes and in the resistor.
electrolytes. (d) The area of cross-section of the
IV. Conductance is the reciprocal of cylinder.
resistance and is measured in
siemens. 15. A wire bound standard resistor
Which of the statements given uses manganin or constantan. It is
above because
are correct? (a) these alloys are cheap and easily
(a) I, II and III available.
(b) I, II and IV (b) they have high resistivity.
(c) I, III and IV (c) they have low resistivity.
(d) I, II, III and IV (d) they have resistivity which almost
remains unchanged with
13. Flemings “Left hand Rule” is temperature.
associated with the effect of
(a) electric field on current. 16. When two resistors are
(b) magnetic field on magnet. connected in parallel, have ……… .
(c) electric field on magnet. (a) same current
(d) magnetic field on current. (b) same potential difference
. (c) different potential difference
(d) Both same current and different
potential difference
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY
17. “The sum of emf’s and potential 21. A fuse wire must be
differences around a closed loop (a) conducting and of low melting
equals zero” is a consequence of point.
(a) Ohm’s law (b) conducting and of high melting
point.
(b) Conservation of charge
(c) insulator and of high melting
(c) Conservation of momentum point.
(d) Conservation of energy (d) insulator and of low melting
point.
18. The property of electric current
which is applicable in the fuse wire 22. Inactive nitrogen and argon
is gases are usually used in electric
(a) chemical effect of current. bulbs in order to
(b) magnetic effect of current. (a) increase the intensity of light
(c) heating effect of current. emitted.
(d) optical property of current. (b) increase the life of the filament.
(c) make the emitted light coloured.
19. Electricity is produced through (d) make the production of bulb
dry cell from economical.
(a) chemical energy
(b) thermal energy 23. Tungsten is used for the
(c) mechanical energy construction of filament in electric
(d) nuclear energy bulb because of its
(a) high specific resistance
20. A fuse is a (b) low specific resistance
(a) safety device and regulates flow (c) high light emitting power
of current. (d) high melting point
(b) made up of tin and lead alloy.
(c) has low melting point.
(d) All of the above
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY
24. Brightness of the bulb decreases 27. The connecting cable of
gradually with its period of use electrical appliances like electric
because of iron, water heater or room heater
(a) evaporation of metal from contains three insulated copper
filament of bulb. wires of three different colours–
(b) decreases in resistance of bulb. Red, Green and Black. Which one of
(c) decrease in electric supply to thethe following is the correct colour
bulb. code?
(d) None of the above (a) Red-live wire, Green-neutral wire
and Black-ground wire.
25. Water is heated with a coil of (b) Red-neutral wire, Green-ground
resistance R connected to domestic wire and Black-live wire.
supply. The rise of temperature of (c) Red-live wire, Green-ground wire,
water will depend on Black-neutral wire.
I. supply voltage. (d) Red-ground wire, Green-live wire
II. current passing through the coil. and Black-neutral wire.
III. time for which voltage is
supplied. 28. While moving from one end to
Select the correct answer using the another end inside a solenoid, its
codes given below. magnetic field ……… .
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II (a) increases
(c) Only I (d) II and III (b) decreases
(c) remains same
26. What is the name of the device (d) first increases then decreases
used to convert alternating current
into direct current?
(a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer
(c) Rectifier (d) Transformer

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY
29. Two long wires each carrying a statement is not correct?
current in the same direction are (a) The SI unit of charge is ampere
placed close to each other. second.
Which one of the following (b) Debye is the unit of dipole
statement is correct? moment.
(a) The wires will attract with each (c) Resistivity of a wire of length I
other. and
(b) The wires will repel with each area of cross-section A depends
other. upon both I and A.
(c) There will be no force between (d) The kinetic energy of an electron
the wires. of mass m kilogram and charge e
(d) There will be a force between the coulomb, when accelerated through
wires only at the moment when the a potential difference of V volt is eV
Current is switched ON or OFF. joule.

30. Assertion (A)Electric appliances

with metallic body have three
connections, whereas on electric
bulb has a two pin connection.
Reason (R) Three pin connections
reduce heating of connecting wires.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 A 21 A

2 B 12 C 22 B

3 C 13 D 23 D

4 D 14 A 24 A

5 D 15 D 25 A

D 16 B 26 C
6

7 B 17 D 27 C

8 D 18 C 28 C

9 C 19 A 29 B

10 A 20 D 30 C

31 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY- NUMERICAL
1. A charge of 2 C passes from one 4. Let us consider a copper wire
point to the other in a circuit. If the having radius r and length l. Let its
potential difference between the resistance be R. If the radius of
two points is 5V, the amount of another copper wire is 2r and the
work done is length is l/2, then the resistance of
(a) 10 J (b) 0.4 J this wire will be
(c) 2.5 J (d) 5 J (a) R (b)2R
(c) R/4 (d) R/8
2. A parallel plate capacitor, with air
in between the plates, has 5. Two wires are made having same
capacitance C. Now, the space length l and area of cross-section A.
between the two plates of the Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2
capacitor is filled with a dielectric is made of aluminium. It is given
of dielectric constant 7. Then, the that the electrical conductivity of
value of the capacitance will become copper is more than that of
(a) C (b)C /7 aluminium. In this context,
(c) 7C (d) 14C which one of the following
statements is correct?
3. A given conductor carrying a (a) The resistance of wire 1 will be
current of 1 ampere. It produces an higher than that of wire 2.
amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If (b) The resistance of wire 2 will be
the current through the conductor higher than that of wire 1.
is doubled, then the amount of heat (c) The resistance of both the wires
produced will be will be the same.
(a) 2000 J (d) If same current is flown through
(b) 4000 J both the wires, the power dissipated
(c) 8000 J in both the wires will be the same.
(d) 1000 J

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY- NUMERICAL
6. What is the effective resistance (in
10. A circuit has a fuse having a
Ω) of two resistors 20Ω and 30Ω rating of 5A. What is the maximum
connected in parallel? number of 100 W-220 V bulbs that
(a) 50 (b) 12 can be safely connected in parallel in
(c) 24 (d) 25 the circuit?
(a) 20 (b) 15
7. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, (c) 11 (d) 10
4 and 8 Ω are connected in parallel,
then equivalent resistance of the 11. What is the resistance (in Ω) of
system would be an electrical component if a current
(a) less than 2 Ω of 0.2A passes through it on
(b) more than 2 Ω but less than 4 Ω application of 8 V of potential
(c) 4 Ω difference across it?
(d) 14 Ω (a) 40 (b) 1.6
(c) 80 (d) 3.2
8. A simple circuit contains a 12 V
battery and bulb having 24 Ω
resistance. When turn on the switch,
the ammeter connected to the
circuit would read
(a) 0.5A (b) 2A
(c) 4A (d) 5A

9. A 100 W electric bulb is used for

10 h/day. How many units of energy
are consumed in 30 days?
(a) 1 unit (b) 10 units
(c) 30 units (d) 300 units
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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
ELECTRICITY- NUMERICAL

ANSWER KEY

1 A
2 C
3 C
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 C
11 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MAGNETISM
1. What is the net force experienced 4. Assertion (A) It is not necessary
by a bar magnet placed in a uniform that every bar magnet has one
magnetic field? North Pole and one South Pole.
(a) Zero Reason (R) Magnetic poles occur in
(b) Never zero pair.
(c) Depends upon length of the Codes
magnet (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(d) Depends upon temperature correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is
2. Which one of the following not the correct explanation of A
statements about bar magnet is (c) A is true, but R is false
correct? (d) A is false, but R is true
(a) The pole strength of the North
pole of a bar magnet is larger than 5. What is the direction of magnetic
that of the South pole. field lines in a magnet?
(b) When a piece of bar magnet is
(a) East pole to West pole
bisected perpendicular to its axis, the
(b) West pole to East pole
North and South poles get separated.
(c) North pole to South pole
(c) When a piece of bar magnet is
(d) South pole to North pole
bisected perpendicular to its axis,
two new bar magnets are formed.
(d) The poles of a bar magnet are 6. Which one of the following
unequal in magnitude and opposite statement about magnetic field lines
in nature. is not correct?
(a) They can emanate from a point.
3. Magnetic meridian is an (b) They do not cross each other.
imaginary (c) Field lines between two poles
(a) line along North-South cannot be precisely straight lines at
(b) point the ends.
(c) vertical plane (d) There are no field lines within a
(d) horizontal plane bar magnet.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MAGNETISM
7. Which of the following 10. The earth’s magnetic field is due
statements regarding magnetic field to
is not correct? (a) currents circulating inside the
(a) Magnetic field is a quantity that core.
has direction and magnitude. (b) presence of a huge magnet at its
(b) magnetic field lines are closed centre.
curves. (c) moving charges in space outside.
(c) Magnetic field lines are open (d) None of the above
curves.
(d) No two magnetic field lines are 11. The direction of magnetic field at
found to cross each other. any location on the earth’s surface is
commonly specified in terms of
8. Consider the following (a) field declination
statements. (b) field inclination
I. Magnetic lines of force are closed (c) both field declination and field
curves while electric lines are not. inclination
II. Electric lines of force are closed (d) horizontal component of the field
curves while magnetic lines are not.
III. Both electric and magnetic lines
of force are closed curves. 12. The phenomena of
Which of statement(s) given above electromagnetic induction is ………
is/are correct? (a) the process of charging a body
(a) Only II (b) Both I and II (b) the process of generating
(c) Only I (d) I, II and III magnetic field due to a current
passing through a coil
9. Mercury is a (c) induced current in a coil due to
(a) diamagnetic substance relative motion between a magnet
(b) paramagnetic substance and the coil
(c) ferromagnetic substance (d) the process of rotating a coil of an
(d) None of the above coil electric motor
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MAGNETISM
13. A rectangular coil of copper wire 15. Assertion (A) The ferromagnetic
is rotating in a magnetic field. The substances do not obey Curie’s law.
direction of the induced current Reason (R) At Curie point a
changes once in each ? ferromagnetic substance start
(a) Two revolutions behaving as a paramagnetic
(b) One revolution substance.
(c) Half revolution Codes
(d) One fourth revolution (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
14. Statement I A compass needle (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
placed near a current-carrying wire the correct explanation of A
will get deflected. (c) A is true, but R is false
Statement II A current-carrying wire (d) A is false, but R is true
creates magnetic field around it.
Codes 16. A rectangular coil of copper wire
(a) Statement I and statement II are is rotating in a magnetic field. The
correct and statement II is the correct direction of the induced current
explanation of statement I changes once in each?
(b) Statement I and statement II are (a) Two revolutions
correct, but statement II is not the (b) One revolution
correct explanation of statement I (c) Half revolution
(c) Statement I is correct, but (d) One fourth revolution
statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but 17. If the speed of a moving magnet
statement II is correct inside a coil increases, the electric
current in the coil
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) reverses
(d) remains the same
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MAGNETISM
18. Which of the following 21. Alternating current can not be
statements are correct? measured by DC ammeter because
I. Change in magnetic field produces (a) AC cannot pass through DC
induced current. ammeter.
II. Flow of current in a conductor (b) average value of complete cycle is
produces magnetic field. zero.
III. Magnetic field related to coil can (c) AC is virtual.
be produced by motion between (d) AC changes its direction
conductor and coil.
(a) Only I and II 22. Which of the following
(b) Only I and III statements is incorrect?
(c) Only I and III (a) An electric motor converts
(d) All statements are correct electric energy into mechanical
energy.
19. When the direction of motion of b) An electric generator works on the
coil is perpendicular to the principle of electromagnetic
electromagnetic field, then the value induction.
of induced current is ……… . (c) The magnetic field at the centre of
(a) Minimum (b) maximum a long circular coil carrying current
(c) neither minimum nor maximum will be parallel straight lines.
(d) No option is correct (d) A wire with green insulation is
usually the live wire.
20. Mutual inductance of few coils
can be increased by 23. Which one of the following
(a) decreasing the number of turns in devices changes low voltage
the coil. alternating current to high voltage
(b) increasing the number of turns in alternating current and vice-versa?
the coils. (a) Generator (b) Motor
(c) winding the coils on wooden core. (c) Transformer (d) Vibrator
(d) None of the above
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MAGNETISM
24. In step-down transformer, the AC26. Given below are two statements,
output gives the one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
(a) current more than the input other labelled as Reason (R).
current. Assertion (A) Transformer is useful
(b) current less than the input for stepping up or stepping down
current. voltages.
(c) current equal to the input current.
Reason (R) Transformer is a device
(d) voltage more than the input used in DC circuits. In the context of
voltage the above two statements, which
one of the following is correct?
25. After using for some time, big Codes
transformers get heated up. This is (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
due to the fact that correct explanation of A
I. current produces heat in the (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
transformers. the correct explanation of A
II. hysteresis loss occurs in the (c) A is true, but R is false
transformers. (d) A is false, but R is true
III. liquid used for cooling gets
heated.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Only I (b) II and III
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MAGNETISM

ANSWER KEY
1 A 11 D 21 B

2 C 12 C 22 D

3 C 13 C 23 C

4 D 14 A 24 A

5 D 15 A 25 C

C 16 C 26 C
6

7 C 17 A

8 C 18 D

9 A 19 B

10 A 20 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OPTICS
1.If the focal length of the biconvex (4)To obtain the powerful parallel
lens is 25 cm, then the power of the beams of light from a vehicle's
lens will be headlight, one must use
(a) + 4 D (b) - 4 D (a) front surface silvered plane
(c) + 0.04 D (d) + 0.04 D mirror
(b) back surface silvered plane
(2)Two thin convex lenses of focal mirror
lengths 4 cm and 8 cm are separated (c) concave mirror
by a distance of 4 cm in air. The (d) convex mirror
combination will have the focal
length (5)A refracting telescope consists of
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (a) one concave mirror and one
(c) 12 cm (d) 32 cm convex lens
(b) two convex lenses of equal focal
(3)Statement I Convex mirror is used length
as a driver mirror. (c) two concave mirrors of different
Statement II Images formed by focal lengths
convex mirror are diminished in size. (d) two convex lenses of unequal
(a)Both the statements are focal lengths
individually true and Statement 11 is
the correct explanation of Statement (6)An object is placed at the focus of
I a concave mirror. The image will be
(b) Both the statements are (a) real, inverted, same size at the
individually true but Statement II is focus
not the correct explanation of (b) real, upright, same size at the
Statement I focus
(c) Statement I is true but Statement (c) virtual, inverted, highly enlarged
II is false at infinity
(d) Statement I is false but (d) real, inverted, highly enlarged at
Statement II is true infinity
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OPTICS
7. To obtain the powerful parallel 10. The human eye is like a camera
beams of light from a vehicle's and hence it contains a system of
headlight, one must use lens. The eye lens forms
(a) front surface silvered plane (a) a straight or upright, real image
mirror of the object on the retina
(b) back surface silvered plane (b) an inverted, virtual image of the
mirror object on the retina
(c) concave mirror (c) an inverted, real image of the
(d) convex mirror object on the retina
(d) a straight or upright, real image
8. The mirror used for the head of the object on the
light of a car is
(a) spherical concave 11. A refracting telescope consists of
(b) plane (c) cylindrical (a) one concave mirror and one
(d) parabolic concave convex lens
(b) two convex lenses of equal focal
9. Yellow colour light is used as fog length
light because yellow colour (c) two concave mirrors of different
(a) light is most scattered by fog focal lengths
(b) (b) has the longest wavelength (d) two convex lenses of unequal
among all colours focal lengths
(c) has the longest wavelength
among all colours except red and 12. An optician prescribes a power =
orange, but the red colour is already - 0.5D. The corresponding lens must
used for brake light and stop light, be a
whereas orange colour is avoided (a) convex lens of focal length 2 m
due to its similarity with red (b) convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(d) has the shortest wavelength (c) concave lens of focal length 2 m
among all colours not already (d) concave lens of focal length 50
reserved for other purpose cm
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OPTICS
13.An object is placed at the focus 16. During sunrise and sunset, sun
of a concave mirror. The image will appears reddish- orange because
be (a) during that time sun emits only
(a) real, inverted, same size at the reddish-orange light
focus (b) all other colours are absorbed by
(b) real, upright, same size at the the atmosphere
focus (c) reddish-orange light is least
(c) virtual, inverted, highly enlarged scattered by the atmosphere
at infinity (d) all other colours apart from
(d) real, inverted, highly enlarged at
reddish-orange are reflected back by
infinity
the atmosphere
14. The spread in colours in a
rainbow on sky is primarily due to 17. Rays of light get refracted while
(a) dispersion of sunlight passing from air to glass because
(b) refraction of sunlight (a) density of glass is higher than
(c) total internal reflection of that of air
sunlight (b) they cannot be reflected from
(d) All of these glass surface
(c) glass absorbs energy from the
15. A beautiful rainbow on the sky is light rays
due to the (d) speed of light in glass is less than
(a) dispersion of sunlight from a the speed of light in air
water droplet only
(b) reflection of sunlight from a 18. Optical glass used in the
water droplet only construction of spectacles is made
(c) reflection and refraction of by
sunlight from a water droplet only (a) flint glass
(d) refraction, dispersion and (c) quartz glass
reflection of sunlight from a water (b) crooKes glass
droplet only
( d) hard glass
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OPTICS
19. White light while passing 23.While looking at an image
through a glass prism breaks up into formed by a convex lens (one-half of
light of different colours because the lens is covered with a black
(a) refractive index of glass for paper), which one of the following
different colours of light is will happen to the image?
different
(a) Half of the image will be visible
(b) glass prism absorbs white light
and emits lights of several colours in (b) Intensity of the image will be
different directions diminished
(c) of total internal reflection of (c) Image will be inverted now
white light on surfaces of the prism ( d) One can see an image of smaller
(d) of the interference of different size
colours inside the prism
24. Which one of the following
20. In optical instruments, the processes explains the splitting of a
lenses are used to form image by beam of white light into its
the phenomenon of constituent colours?
(a) reflection (c) scattering (a) Dispersion
(b) Refraction (d) diffusion (b) Reflection
(c) Diffraction
21. If speed of light in air is 3 x 108
m/s, then the speed of light in glass (d) Polarisation
(with refractive index 1. 5) would be
(a) 2 x 108 m/s (b) 4.5 x 108 m/s 25. A pencil is placed upright at a
(c) 3 x 108 m/s (d) 1.5 x 108 m/s distance 10 cm from a convex lens of
focal length 15 cm. The nature of
22. Optical glass used in the the image of the pencil will be
construction of spectacles is made (a) real, inverted and magnified
by (b) real, erect and magnified
(a) flint glass (c) quartz glass (c) virtual, erect and reduced
(b) crookes glass ( d) hard glass (d) virtual, erect and magnified
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OPTICS
26. Light waves projected on oil 29. An object is placed 10 cm in
surface show seven colours due to front of a convex lens of focal length
the phenomenon of 15 cm. The image produced will be
(a) polarisation (b) refraction (a) real and magnified
(c) reflection (d) interference (b) virtual and magnified
(c) virtual and reduced in size
27. Light waves are (d) real and reduced in size
(a) electromechanical waves
(b) electromagnetic waves 30. Directions:- The following four
(c) electrooptical waves items consist of two statements,
(d) magnetooptical waves Statement I and Statement Il. You
have to examine these two
28. A ray of light when refracted statements carefully and select the
suffers change in velocity. In this answers to these items using the
context, which one among the codes given below Codes
following statements is correct? (a) Both the statements are
(a) Velocity increases as the ray individually true and Statement
passes from a rarer to a denser II is the correct explanation of
medium Statement I
(b) Velocity decreases as the ray (b) Both the statements are
passes from a denser to a rarer individually true but Statement II is
medium not the correct explanation of
(c) Velocity decreases as the ray Statement I
passes from a rarer to a denser (c) Statement I is true but Statement
medium II is false
(d) Change of velocity does not (d) Statement I is false but
depend on the nature of medium Statement II is true
Statement I Diamond is very bright.
Statement II Diamond has very low
refractive index.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OPTICS
31. Optical fibres, though bent in 33. Which one of the following
any manner, allows light to pass statements is correct?
through. What is the inference that (a)The image formed by a concave
one can draw from it? mirror for an object lying at infinity is
(a) The concept that light travels inat the principal focus, highly
straight path is wrong diminished, real and inverted
(b) Light can flow through the optical(b) A ray of light parallel to the
fibres principal axis after reflection from a
(c) Light can travel through the concave mirror appears to diverge
fibres because from the principal focus of the mirror
of their ductility (c) The focal length of a spherical
(d) Light can travel through the fibres
mirror is double of its radius of
due to multiple total internal curvature
reflection (d) A ray of light travelling from a
rarer medium to a denser medium
32. A lady is standing in front of a bends away from the normal
plane mirror at a distance of 1 m
from it. She walks 60 cm towards 34. The sun is observed to be
the mirror. The distance of her reddish when it is near the horizon,
image now from herself (ignoring i.e. in the morning and the eveninig.
the thickness of the mirror) is This is because
(a) 40 cm (b) 80 cm (a) red light is least scattered by
(c) 60 cm (d) 120 cm atmosphere
(b) red light is most scattered by
atmosphere
(c) it is the colour of the sun in the
morning and evening
(d) the earth's atmosphere emits red
light

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OPTICS
35. In case of a compound 37. Which one of the following
microscope, which of the following statements is not correct?
statements is/are correct? (a) The radius of curvature of a
I.The focal length of the eyepiece is
concave mirror is twice its focal
larger than the focal length of the
objective. length
II. The focal length of the eyepiece (b) Power of a convex lens is negative
is smaller than the focal length of and that of a concave lens is positive
the objective. (c) The radius of curvature of a plane
III. The image produced in a normal mirror is infinity
optical microscope is real. (d) When a ray of light passes from
IV. The image produced in a normal
an optically denser medium to an
optical microscope is virtual.
Select the correct answer using the optically rarer medium, then the
codes given below angle of refraction is greater than the
(a) Only I (b) Both I and IV corresponding angle of incidence.
(c) II and Ill (d) II and IV

36. An object is placed at the centre

of curvature of a concave mirror of
focal length 16 cm. If the object is
shifted by 8 cm towards the focus,
then the nature of the image would
be
(a) real and magnified
(b) virtual and magnified
(c) real and reduced
(d) virtual and reduced .
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
OPTICS

ANSWER KEY
1 A 11 D 21 A 31 D

2 A 12 C 22 A 32 B

3 A 13 D 23 B 33 A

4 C 14 A 24 A 34 A

5 D 15 D 25 D 35 D

D 16 C 26 D 36 A
6

7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B

8 D 18 A 28 C 38

9 C 19 A 29 B 39

10 C 20 B 30 C 40

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MODERN PHYSICS
1. Why was the Thomson’s model of 4. The ionisation energy of hydrogen
an atom failed? atom in the ground state is
(a) It did not give an idea about the (a) 13 6. MeV (b) 13 6. eV
discrete energy level. (c) 13 6. J (d) zero
(b) It explained the atom as a whole
to be electrically neutral. 5. In which region of
(c) It did not tell about the presence electromagnetic spectrum does the
of electrons. Lyman series of hydrogen atom lie?
(d) None of the above (a) Visible (b) Infrared
(c) Ultraviolet (d) X-ray
2. Scattering of α-particles by a thin
gold foil suggests the presence of 6. Which is the most suitable unit for
(a) electron in an atom expressing nuclear radius?
(b) proton in an atom (a) Micron (b) Nanometer
(c) positively charged nucleus at the (c) Fermi (d) Angstrom
centre of an atom
(d) isotopes of gold
7. Atomic mass of an element is
3. Assertion (A) The force of equal to the sum of number of
repulsion between atomic nucleus (a) electrons and protons only
and α-particle varies with distance (b) protons and neutrons only
according to inverse square law. (c) electrons and neutrons only
Reason (R) Rutherford did α-particle (d) electrons, protons and neutrons
scattering experiment.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the 8. Radioactivity is measured by
correct explanation of A (a) GM counter
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not (b) Polarimeter
the correct explanation of A (c) Calorimeter
(c) A is true, but R is false (d) Colorimeter
(d) A is false, but R is true
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MODERN PHYSICS
9. Size of nucleus is of the order of 13. In an observation,α-particles,β-
(a) 10-10m (b) 10-15 m particles and γ-rays have same
(c) 10-12 m (d) 10-19 m energies. Their penetrating power in
a given medium in increasing order
10. Isotopes are atoms having will be
(a) same number of protons but (a) α, β, γ (b) β, γ, α
different number of neutrons. (c) α, γ, β (d) β, α, γ
(b) same number of neutrons but
different number of protons.
(c) same number of protons and 14. Beta rays emitted by a
neutrons. radioactive material are
(d) None of the above (a) the electrons orbiting around the
nucleus.
11. Assertion (A) Amongst alpha, (b) charged particles emitted by
beta and gamma rays, α-particle has nucleus.
maximum penetrating power. (c) neutral particles.
Reason (R) The alpha particle is (d) electromagnetic radiations
heavier than beta and gamma rays.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the 15. Half-life is measured by
correct explanation of A (a) Geiger-Muller counter
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not (b) Carbon-dating
the correct explanation of A (c) Spectroscopic method
(c) A is true, but R is false (d) Wilson-cloud chamber
(d) A is false, but R is true
16. If a U238 nucleus splits into two
12. The material used for safety from identical parts, the two nuclei so
nuclear radiation is produced will be
(a) Copper (b) platinum (a) Radioactive (b) stable
(c) iron (d) lead (c) isotopes (d) isobars
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MODERN PHYSICS
17. Basic scientific principle behind a 19. Which one of the following is not
nuclear reactor is a semiconductor?
(a) nuclear fusion. (a) Silicon (b) Germanium
(b) controlled nuclear fusion. (c) Quart (d) Gallium arsenide
(c) uncontrolled nuclear fission.
(d) controlled nuclear fission.
20. Which of the following is widely
used in making semiconductor
18. Consider the following chips?
statements. (a) Radium (b) Sodium
I. The chain reaction process is used (c) Germanium (d) Sulphur
in nuclear bombs to release a vast
amount of energy, but in nuclear
reactors, there is no chain reaction. 21. When a piece of pure silicon is
II. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction doped with aluminum, then
is controlled, while in nuclear (a) the conductivity of the doped
bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled. silicon piece will remain the same.
III. In a nuclear reactor, all operating (b) the doped silicon piece will
reactors are ‘critical’, while there is become n-type.
no question of ‘critically’ in case of a (c) the doped silicon piece will
nuclear bomb. become p-type.
IV. Nuclear reactors do not use (d) the resistivity of the doped silicon
moderators, while nuclear bombs Piece will increase.
use them.
Which of the above statements 22. Zener diode is used as
about operational principles of a (a) Half wave rectifier
nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb (b) Full wave rectifier
is/are correct? (c) AC voltage stabiliser
(a) I and III (b) II and III (d) DC voltage stabiliser
(c) IV only (d) I and IV
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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MODERN PHYSICS
23. Heavy water is used as a 26. Consider the following
moderator in a nuclear reactor. The statements.
function of the moderator is I. A p n − junction diode is a basic
(a) to control the energy released in semiconductor device.
the reactor. II. A p n − junction diode can work as
(b) to absorb neutrons and stop the excellent rectifier.
chain reaction. III. The p n − junction diode cannot
(c) to cool the reactor. be used as a half-wave rectifier.
(d) to slow down the neutrons to Which of the statements given above
thermal energy is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only III
24. The majority charge carriers in a (c) I and II (d) All of these
p-type semiconductor are
(a) free electrons 27. Assertion (A) An N-type
(b) conduction electrons semiconductor has a large number
(c) ions of electrons but still it is electrically
(d) holes neutral.
Reason (R) An N-type semiconductor
25. In a bi-polar junction transistor, is obtained by doping an intrinsic
(a) all the three regions (the emitter, semiconductor with a pentavalent
the base and the collector) have impurity.
equal concentrations of impurity. Codes
(b) the emitter has the least (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
concentration of impurity. correct explanation of A
(c) the collector has the least (b) Both A and R are true, but R is
concentration of impurity. not the correct explanation of A
(d) the base has the least (c) A is true, but R is false
concentration of impurity. (d) A is false, but R is true

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 DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MODERN PHYSICS
28. The full form of LED is 30. The term LASER stand for
(a) Light Emitting Diode (a) Light Amplification by Stimulated
(b) Light Emitting Device Emission of Radiation
(c) Light Enhancing Device (b) Light Amplification by
(d) Light Enhancing Diode Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
(c) Light Amplification by Stimulated
29. Consider the following Emission of Rays
statements. (d) Light Amplification by Stimulated
I. Zener diode is not used as a Energy of Radiation
voltage stabiliser.
II. A Solar cell is a p n − junction
diode which converts electrical
energy into solar energy.
III. LED is an important light source
used in optical communication.
Which of the statement given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only III
(c) I and II (d) All of these

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DESIRE TO LEARN SUBJECT- PHYSICS
MODERN PHYSICS

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 D 21 C

2 C 12 D 22 C

3 B 13 A 23 D

4 B 14 B 24 D

5 C 15 B 25 D

C 16 B 26 C
6

7 B 17 D 27 B

8 A 18 B 28 A

9 B 19 C 29 B

10 A 20 C 30 A

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ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY
1. Who among the following 4. Which statement(s) is/are correct
proposed that atom is indivisible? regarding Daltons Atomic theory?
(a) Dalto (b) Berzelius I. All matters are made of very tiny
(c) Rutherford (d) Avogadro particles.
II. Atoms of different elements have
2. Consider the following different masses and chemical
statements. properties.
I. The neutron was discovered in III. The relative number of atoms is
1932 by bombarding beryllium with variable in any compound.
α-rays. Codes
II. The electron and proton have (a) Only I and II (b) Only I and III
equal but opposite electron charges. (c) Only II and III (d) All I, II and III
III. The neutron is not charged.
Which of the statement given above 5. When Cathode rays strike a target
is/are correct? of high atomic weight, they give rise
(a) I and II (b) II and III to
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (a) α-rays (b) β and γ rays
(c) X-rays (d) positive rays
3. Consider the following statements
I. The positive charge is essentially 6. Atoms of different elements have
immovable because it contains (a) same atomic number and same
practically all the mass of the atom. electronic configuration.
II. Atom is the smallest indivisible (b) different atomic number and
particles of an element which takes same electronic configuration.
part in a chemical reaction. (c) different atomic number and
Which of the above Statements different number of valence
is/are correct? electrons
(a) Only I (b) Only II (d) same number of electrons and
(c) I and II (d) None of these neutrons.

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY
7. A body is charged negatively. It 10. Which of the following is the
implies that correct statements about proton?
(a) it has lost some of its protons. (a) Proton is nucleus of deuterium.
(b) it has lost some of its electrons. (b) Proton is α-particle.
(c) it has gained some electrons from (c) Proton is ionised hydrogen
outside. molecule.
(d) None of the above (d) Proton is ionised hydrogen

8. Which one among the following 11. Which one of the following has
contains the most neutrons? the longest wavelength?
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) γ-radiation
(c) Visible radiation
(d) Infrared radiation
9. Which of the following are the
properties of an electron? 12. Consider the following
I. Electron is a constituent of statements.
cathode ray. I. JJ Thomson was the first one to
II. Electron is a negatively charged propose a model for the structure of
particle. an atom.
III. The mass of the electron is equal II. Rutherford designed an
to the mass of the proton. experiment for the arrangement of
IV. Electron is deflected by the electrons with in an atom. In this
electric field but not by magnetic experiment, fast moving alpha
field. particles were made to fall on a thin
Select the correct answer using the gold foil.
codes given below. Which of the statement(s) given
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III above is/are correct?
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I and II (d) None of these
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY
13. JJ Thomson’s proposed model of 16. Which one among the following
action is generally called ………… is the most appropriate statement
model. with respect to the atomic weight of
(a) Cream and cake an element?
(b) Plum and pudding (a) The atomic weight of an element
(c) Plum and cake is the sum total of the number of
(d) Cream and pudding protons and neutrons present in the
atom of an element.
14. Match List I and List II. (b) Unlike mass number, the atomic
weight of an element can be a
List I List II fraction.
A. Thomson’s 1. Dual nature of (c) The atomic weight of an element
Model electron is a whole number.
B. Rutherford 2. Nuclear theory (d) The atomic weight of all the
Model atoms in an element is the same.
C. Bohr’s 3. Plum pudding
Model model 17. The atoms of the elements
D. de-Brogile 4. Concept of having same difference between
theory quantisation of mass number and atomic number
energy are called …………… .
Codes (a) Isobar (b) Isotopes
ABCD ABCD (c) Isotones (d) No option is correct
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 2 4 1 18. The atomic weights are
expressed in terms of atomic mass
15. In which of the following pairs unit. Which one of the following is
are the Isoelectronic ions? used as standard?

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY
19. Which of the following 23. Which of the following is the
statements with regard to isotopes maximum number of electrons that
and isobars is/are correct? can be present in M-shell?
I. Isotopes have same mass number. (a) 2 (b)8
II. Isobars have same atomic (c) 18 (d) 32
number.
Select the correct answer using the 24. Match the rule given in List I
codes given below. with the statement given in List II.
(a) Only I (b) Only II
List I List II
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
A. Pauli’s 1. In orbitals of equivalent
20. What are the maximum Exclusion energy electron spins
numbers of electrons that can be Principle remain unpaired if
possible
present in a shell represented by
shell number ‘n’? ans == 2 B. Hund’s 2. Transition from the
Rule higher shell to K-shell
C. Lyman 3. The effect of magnetic
Series field on the atomic spectra
D. Zeeman 4. No two electrons can
Effect have the same four
21. Which one of the following has
quantum numbers
highest frequency?
(a) Cosmic rays (b) X-rays Codes
(c) Radiowaves (d) Microwaves ABCD ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
22. By which one of the following an (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
old written material which cannot
be read easily, can be read?
(a) γ-rays (b) X-rays
(c) IR-rays
(d) Radio frequency waves
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY
25. Which one of the following pairs
28. Consider the following
of rays is electromagnetic in nature?
statements about Visible light, UV
(a) Beta rays and gamma rays light and X-rays.
(b) Cathode rays and X-rays I. The wavelength of visible light is
(c) Alpha rays and beta rays more than that of X-rays.
(d) X-rays and gamma rays II. The energy of X-ray photons is
higher than that of UV light photons.
26. Which of the following has the III. The energy of UV light photons is
least penetrating power? less than that of visible light
(a) Alpha particles photons.
(b) Beta particles Which of the statement(s) given
(c) Gamma rays above is/are correct?
(d) All have the same penetrating (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
power (c) II and III (d) Only I

27. Consider the following 29. The difference between a

statements nuclear reactor and atomic bomb is
X-rays that
I. can pass through aluminium. (a) no chain reaction takes place in
II. can be deflected by magnetic nuclear reactor is not controlled.
field. (b) the chain reaction in nuclear
III. move with a velocity less than reactor is controlled.
the velocity of ultraviolet rays in (c) the chain reaction in nuclear
vacuum. reactor is not controlled.
Which of the statement(s) given (d) no-chain reaction takes place in
above is/are correct? atomic bomb while it takes place in
(a) I, II and III (b) Only I nuclear reactor.
(c) II and III (d) I and II
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY
30. What is the correct ascending 32. Assertion (A) In beta decay, the
order for frequencies of the direction of the recoiling daughter
following radiations? nucleus is opposite to that of the
I. Visible II. X-rays beta particle emitted.
III. Ultraviolet IV. Radio waves
Reason (R) In beta decay, beta
Codes particles are not emitted with a
(a) I, III, II, IV (b) III, II, IV, Ifixed energy.
(c) IV, I, III, II (d) IV, III, I, IICodes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
31. Which one of the following correct explanation of A
types of radiations has the smallest (b) Both A and R are true, but R is
wavelength? not the correct explanation of A
(a) Microwaves (b) Infra-red (c) A is true, but R is false
(c) Visible light (d) X-rays (d) A is false, but R is true

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND RADIOACTIVITY

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 D 21 A

2 D 12 C 22 C

3 C 13 B 23 C

4 D 14 D 24 B

5 C 15 B 25 D

6 C 16 B 26 A

7 C 17 C 27 B

8 A 18 B 28 B

9 A 19 D 29 B

10 D 20 B 30 C

31 D

32 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING
1. What happens when a chemical 5. Examples of ionic bond are
bond is formed?
(a) Energy is always absorbed.
(b) Energy is always released.
(c) More energy is released than it
absorbed. 6. With reference to ionic
(d) Energy is neither released nor compounds, consider the following
absorbed. statements.
I. Ionic compounds are insoluble in
2. If formula of sodium salt of an alcohol.
anion X is Na2X, then the formula of II. Ionic compounds in the solid state
its aluminium salt would be are good conductor of electricity.
Which of the statement given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II
3. Ionic solids (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(a) are hard and brittle.
(b) are generally high melting points. 7. Consider the following
(c) can be melted to form liquids that statements.
are electrical conductors. I. Formation of cations occurs by loss
(d) All of the above of electrons.
II. Formation of anions occurs by
4. The electrovalent compounds is gain of electrons.
made up of Which of the statement given above
(a) electrically charged molecules. is/are correct?
(b) neutral molecules. (a) Only I
(c) neutral atoms. (b) Only II
(d) electrically charged atoms or (c) Both I and II
groups= of atoms. (d) None of these

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING
8. The number of valence electrons 12. Proton play an important role in
in the O-2 ion is which type of bonding?
(a) 4 (b)6 (a) Electrovalent
(b) Hydrogen
(c) 8 ` (d) 10 (c) Covalent
(d) Coordinate
9. How many covalent bonds are
present in a Chloropropane 13. Liquid water is denser than ice
molecule having molecular formula, due to
C H CI 3 2 ? (a) higher surface tension
(a) 6 (b) 8 (b) hydrogen bonding
(c) vander Waals’ force
(c) 9 (d) 10
(d) covalent bonding
10. The methane molecule has 14. Covalent compounds are
(a) double bond generally
(b) triple bond (a) soluble in water
(c) single covalent bond (b) insoluble in water
(d) None of the above (c) ionise in water
(d) hydrolyse in water
11. Assertion (A) Double bond cause
more repulsion than single bonds. 15. Study the following statements.
Reason (R) Triple bonds cause more I. A bond formed by the transfer of
repulsion than a double bond. electrons between atoms of the
Codes element is called ionic bond.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the II. A bond formed by sharing of
correct explanation of A electrons between atoms of the
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not elements is called covalent bond.
the correct explanation of A Which of the statements given
(c) A is true, but R is false above is/are correct?
(d) A is false, but R is true (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I and II (d) None of the above
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DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING

ANSWER KEY

1 B 8 C

2 C 9 D

3 D 10 C

4 D 11 B

5 A 12 D

6 A 13 B

7 C 14 B

15 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
STATE OF MATTER
1. Consider the following statements 3. Iodine can be separated from a
about mixture? mixture of iodine and potassium
I. A substance can be separated into chloride by
other kinds of matter by any (a) sedimentation
physical process. (b) filtration
II. Dissolved sodium chloride can be (c) sublimation
separated from water by the (d) distillation
physical process of evaporation.
Which of the statements given 4. Which one of the following
above is/are correct ? statements is not correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (a) All carbons in diamond are linked
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II by carbon-carbon single bond.
(b) Graphite is layered structure in
2. Statement I All compounds which layers are held together by
contain more than one element. weak Vander Waal’s forces.
Statement II All compounds are (c) Graphite layers are formed by
heterogeneous mixtures hexagonal rings of carbon atoms.
Codes (d) Graphite layers are held together
(a) Both the statements are by carbon-carbon single bond.
individually true and statement II is
the correct explanation of statement 5. Which one of the following is not
I. true for the form of carbon known
(b) Both the statements are as diamond ?
individually true but statement II is (a) It is harder than graphite.
not the correct explanation of (b) It contains the same percentage
statement I. of carbon as graphite.
(c) Statement I is true, but statement (c) It is a better electric conductor
II is false. then graphite.
(d) Statement I is false, but (d) It has different carbon to carbon
statement II is true. distance in all directions.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING
6. Lowering the atmospheric 8. Consider the following
pressure on a liquid statements.
(a) increases the boiling point of theI. The rate of diffusion of liquids is
liquid. higher than that of solids.
(b) lowers the boiling point of the II. In the liquid state, particles move
liquid. freely and have greater space
(c) does not affect the boiling point between each other as compared to
of the liquid. particles in the solid state.
(d) increases the time required for itWhich of the statement(s) given
to boil. above is/are correct.
(a) Only I (b) Only II
7. Statement I Glass is not (c) Both I and II (d) None of these
considered as a true compound.
Statement II Glass does not have a 9. Which one of the following is
definite melting point. called Dry Ice ?
Codes (a) Solid carbon dioxide
(a) Both the statements are (b) Liquid carbon dioxide
individually true and statement II is (c) Liquid nitrogen
the correct explanation of statement (d) Liquid ammonia
I.
(b) Both the statements are 10. Matter around us can exist in
individually true, but statement II is three different states, namely, solid,
not the correct explanation of liquid and gas. The correct order of
statement I. their compressibility is
(c) Statement I is true, but statement (a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
II is false. (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
(d) Statement I is false, but (c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
statement II is true. (d) Solid< Gas < Liquid

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING
11. Assertion (A) All liquids are 12. The gas used in a refrigerator is
conductors of electricity. (a) cooled down on flowing.
Reason (R) Under the condition of (b) heated up on flowing.
low pressure and high voltage, (c) cooled down when compressed.
liquids can be made conducting. (d) cooled down when expanded.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
CHEMICAL BONDING

ANSWER KEY

1 B 7 A

2 C 8 C

3 C 9 A

4 D 10 B

5 C 11 D

6 B 12 A

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ACID, BASE AND SALTS
1. Which is not a Lewis acid? 5. Which one of the following will
(a) AlCl3 not produce carbon dioxide on
(b) BF3 reacting with an aqueous solution of
(c) NH3 hydrochloric acid?
(d) FeCl3 (a) Limestone
(b) Quicklime
2. Which one of the following does (c) Chalk
not contain COOH group? (d) Marble
(a) Citric acid
(b) Lactic acid 6. Match List I with List II and select
(c) Tartaric acid the correct answer using codes given
(d) Ascorbic acid below the lists.
List I (Acid) List II (Source)
3. Acid turns blue litmus red and A. Lactic acid 1. Tamarind
base turns red litmus blue. A student B. Tartaric acid 2. Orange
tested a liquid with a red litmus C. Oxalic acid 3. Tomato
paper which remained red with no D. Citric acid 4. Sour curd
change. This shows that the liquid Codes
(a) is not a base. ABCD ABCD
(b) is not an acid. (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) is neither an acid nor a base. (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
(d) must be pure water or acid.
7. Which chemical was an important
4. Which one of the following gives symbol in our struggle for freedom?
the highest amount of hydrogen ions (a) Glucose
(H+)? (b) Fertiliser
(a) Sodium hydroxide solution (c) Medicine
(b) Milk of magnesia (d) Sodium chloride
(c) Lemon juice
(d) Gastric juice
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ACID, BASE AND SALTS
8. Match List I with List II. 11. Assertion (A) To dilute sulphuric
List I List II acid, acid is added to water and not
A. Tartaric acid 1. Red ants water to acid.
B. Formic acid 2. Grapes Reason (R) Specific heat of water is
C. Uric acid 3. Apples very high.
D. Maleic acid 4. Urine of mammals (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
Codes correct explanation of A
ABCD ABCD (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2 the correct explanation of A
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
9. Farmers are requested to mix lime
with soil while farming their fields. 12. In the reaction between
This is because hydrogen sulphate ion and water
(a) lime is very helpful in maintaining the water acts as
the water content in the soil.
(b) lime decreases the acidity of soil. (a) an acid (b) a base
(c) lime decreases the basicity of soil. (c) a salt (d) an inert medium
(d) high concentration of lime is
necessary for the plant growth. 13. Which of the following gases in
the atmosphere is/are responsible
10. Which one of the following salts for acid rains?
when dissolved in water makes the I. Oxides of sulphur
solution basic? II. Oxides of nitrogen
(a) Sodium chloride III. Oxides of carbon
(b) Copper sulphate Select the correct answer using the
(c) Ferric chloride codes given below.
(d) Sodium acetate (a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) Only II (d) I, II and III

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ACID, BASE AND SALTS
14. Which of the following is not 17. Which of the following
correct about baking soda? statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) It is used in soda-acid fire I. Metallic oxides are said to be basic
extinguisher. oxides.
(b) It is added for faster cooking. II. Non-metallic oxides are basic in
(c) It is a corrosive base. nature.
(d) It neutralises excess acid in the III. All acids have similar chemical
stomach. properties.
Codes
15. Which one of the following (a) Only I and III
statements is correct? (b) Only II and III
(a) All bases are alkali. (c) Only II
(b) None of the bases is alkali. (d) All statements are correct
(c) There are no more bases except
the alkalis. 18. When hard water is evaporated
(d) All alkalis are bases but all bases completely the white solid remains
are not alkalis. in the container. It may be due to
the presence of
16. Which of the following solutions I. Carbonates of Ca and Mg.
will not change the colour of blue II. Sulphates of Ca and Mg.
litmus paper to red? III. Chlorides of Ca and Mg.
I. Acid solution Select the correct answer using the
II. Base solution codes given below.
III. Common salt solution (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
Select the correct answer using the (c) Only III (d) I and III
codes given below.
(a) I and III (b) II and III 19. The solution of which one of the
(c) Only I (d) Only II following will have pH less than 7?
(a) NaOH (b) KCl
(c) FeCl3 (d) NaCl
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ACID, BASE AND SALTS
20. The pH of water at 25° C is 7. 22. Match List I with List II.
When it is heated to 100° C, the pH List I List II
of water
(a) increases A. 1. pH value of neutral
10^−7 solution
(b) decreases
(c) remains same B. >7 2. pH value of acidic solution
(d) decreases up to 50° C and then C. <7 3. pH value of alkaline
increases solution
D. 7 4. In pure water hydrogen
21. Statement I Addition of water to ion concentration
an aqueous solution of HCl Codes
decreases the pH. ABCD ABCD
Statement II Addition of water (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
suppresses the ionisation of HCl. (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
Codes
(a) Both the statements are 23. Consider the following
individually true and statement II is statements.
the correct explanation of statement I. Limestone, chalk and marble are
I. different forms of calcium
(b) Both the statements are carbonate.
individually true but statement II is II. When pH of rain water is less
not the correct explanation of than 5.6, it is called acid rain.
statement I III. Human body works with in the
(c) Statement I is true, but statement pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.
II is false. Which of the statements given
(d) Statement I is false, but above are correct?
statement II is true. (a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ACID, BASE AND SALTS
24. The indicator used in the 26. Consider the following
titration of a strong acid and a statements.
strong basis I. Acids are sour in taste and change
(a) Phenolphthalein the colour of blue litmus to red.
(b) (b) Methyl orange II. Bases are bitter and change the
(c) Alizarin yellow colour of red litmus to blue.
(d) Red litmus III. Litmus is a natural indicator.
Which of the statements given
25. Suppose you have four test above is/are correct?
tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B', ‘C’ and ‘D’. (a) I and II
‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains (b) I and III
solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains (c) II and III
solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains (d) I, II and III
solution of sodium chloride. Which
one of these solution will turn 27. Which of the following is correct
phenophthalein solution pink? regarding buffer solution?
(a) Solution ‘A’ (b) Solution ‘B’ (a) It contains a weak acid and its
(c) Solution ‘C’ (d) Solution ‘D’ conjugate base.
(b) It contains a weak base and its
conjugate acid.
(c) It shows little change in pH on
adding small amount of acid or base.
(d) None of the above

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
ACID, BASE AND SALTS

ANSWER KEY

1 C 11 A 21 C

2 D 12 B 22 D

3 D 13 A 23 D

4 D 14 C 24 A

5 B 15 D 25 B

6 D 16 B 26 D

7 D 17 A 27 C

8 A 18 D

9 B 19 C

10 D 20 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
REDOX REAXTION
1. Which of the following is an 3. Assertion (A) A chemical reaction
example of chemical change? becomes faster at a higher
(a) Dispersion of white light into the temperature.
light of 7 colours when passed Reason (R) At higher temperature,
through a prism. molecular motion becomes more
(b) Softening of vegetables when rapid.
cooked. Codes
(c) Wet soil lump, when dried, gets (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
fragile. correct explanation of A
(d) Dissolving of salt in water. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A
2. Statement I Physical change in (c) A is true, but R is false
matter bring change in its (d) A is false, but R is true
composition and nature.
Statement II Physical change 4. Consider the following
involves statements.
interconversion of states and colour. I. The freezing of water into ice is a
Codes chemical change.
(a) Both the statements are II. The changes occur in the internal
individually true and statement II is molecular composition, is a chemical
the correct explanation of statement change.
I III. A new substance is obtained in a
(b) Both the statements are chemical change.
individually true, but statement II is IV. The change in shape, size and
not the correct explanation of state is chemical change.
statement I Which of the statements given
(c) Statements I is true, but above is/are correct?
statement II is false (a) I and II (b) II and III
(d) Statements I is false, but (c) I, II and III (d) I and IV
statement II is true
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
REDOX REAXTION
5. Which of the following is/are the 6. Consider the following
examples of chemical change? statements.
I. Crystallisation of sodium chloride I. In some reactions, reactants react
II. Melting of ice rapidly in the presence of sunlight.
III. Souring of milk II. Neutralisation reaction is an
Select the correct answer using the example of irreversible reaction.
codes given below. Which of the above statements
(a) I and II only is/are true?
(b) Only III (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I, II and III (c) I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(d) None of the above
7. Date of manufacture of food
5. Consider the following items fried in oil should be checked
statements, in homogeneous before buying because oils become
reactions, the rancid due to
I. reactants found in the same (a) oxidation
physical state. (b) reduction
II. reaction proceeds in forward (c) hydrogenation
direction when concentration of (d) decrease viscosity
reactants is more than products.
III. reaction between ethanol and 8. Which of the following causes the
acetic acid in the presence of usting of iron?
sulphuric acid is an example of slow I. Oxidation
reaction. II. Reduction
Which of the above statements III. Chemical reaction with oxygen
is/are correct? Iv. Chemical reaction with CO2
(a) I and II (b) II and III (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and I (d) I, II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and III

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
REDOX REAXTION
9. Corrosion is the oxidative 13. Which of the following reactions
deterioration of a metal, such as represent(s) redox process?
tarnishing of silver, rusting of iron (a) Electrochemical process for
and development of a green coating extraction of highly reactive metals
on copper and bronze. Corrosion is and nonmetals.
an example of (b) Manufacturing of caustic soda.
(a) fast reaction (c) Corrosion of metals.
(b) slow reaction (d) All of the above
(c) homogeneous reaction
(d) heterogeneous reaction 14. Which of the following about the
reaction given above is/are correct?
10. Which one of the following
reducing agents can also act as an
oxidizing agent? I. Carbon is oxidised
(a) H2 (b) H2S II. Hydrogen is oxidised
(c) SO2 (d) HI III. Hydrogen is reduced
IV. Carbon is reduced
11. The oxidation number of nickel Select the correct answer using the
in codes given below.
K4[Ni(CN)4] is (a) Only I (b) I and II
(a) Zero (b) +4 (c) II and III (d) II and IV
(c) -4 (d) +8

12. Process of gaining electrons is

known as ……… .
(a) oxidation
(b) reduction
(c) radiation
(d) both oxidaion and reduction

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DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
REDOX REAXTION

ANSWER KEY

1 B 8 D

2 D 9 B

3 A 10 C

4 B 11 A

5 B 12 B

6 D 13 D

7 C 14 B

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
SOLUTION AND SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1. A solution which contains the 4. If an unsaturated sugar solution is
maximum amount of the solute that prepared by mixing 100 grams of
can be dissolved in a given amount sugar with half litre of water, which
of solvent at a particular of the following physical quantities
temperature is called will not change?
(a) saturated solution (a) Mass (b) Density
(b) unsaturated solution (c) Concentration (d) Volume
(c) supersaturated solution
(d) None of the above 5. The solubility of a gas in liquid
increases with
2. Blood has been found isotonic (a) increase in temperature.
with (b) reduction in gas pressure.
(a) the saturated solution of NaCl. (c) decrease in temperature and
(b) the saturated solution of KCl. increase in gas pressure.
(c) the saturated solution of 1:1 (d) amount of liquid taken.
mixture of NaCl and KCl.
(d) the normal sodium chloride 6. The process of diffusion in gases
solution. take place due to the
(a) difference in their densities.
3. A hard shell of an egg was (b) difference in their composition.
dissolved in HCl. The egg was then (c) equal in densities.
placed in a concentration solution of (d) All of the above
NaCl. Whatwill happen?
(a) The egg will shrink. 7. Water is a good solvent. This is
(b) The egg will swell. due to high
(c) The egg will become harder. (a) dielectric constant of water.
(d) There will be hardly any visible (b) surface tension of water.
change. (c) specific heat of water.
(d) heat fusion of water.

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
SOLUTION AND SURFACE CHEMISTRY
8. ………… is one of the most 11. Consider the following
important technique for the statements.
separation of a mixture by passing it I. During the pressure of osmosis,
in solution or suspension through a the solvent travels from the
medium in which the components concentrated solution to the dilute
move at different rates.
solution.
(a) Filtration
(b) Distillation II. In the reverse osmosis, external
(c) Evaporation pressure is applied to the dilute
(d) Chromatography solution.
Which of the statement(s) given
9. Which one of the following above is/are correct?
statements is not correct? (a) Only I
(a) The boiling point of an aqueous (b) Only II
solution is highter than that of pure (c) Both I and II
water. (d) Neither I nor II
(b) Addition of solutes to a solution
causes an increase in its water 12. An emulsion is a colloid of a
potential. (a) gas in a liquid.
(c) The vapour pressure of the water
(b) liquid in a liquid.
in a solution is lower than that of
pure water. (c) liquid in a gas.
(d) When a solution is separated (d) gas in a solid.
from water by a semi-permeable
membrane water starts movement. 13. Which one of the following is not
the result of surface tension?
10. Which of the following is an (a) Vapour formation above the
example of colloidal solution of liquid surface.
liquid in solid? (b) Convex shape of liquid meniscus.
(a) Mud (b) Milk (c) Liquid rising in a capillary.
(c) Cheese (d) Rubber (d) Spherical shape of mercury fallen
on the floor.
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
SOLUTION AND SURFACE CHEMISTRY
14. Which type of colloidal system is
17. Match List I (Colloidal Dispersion)
expressed in the fog? with List II (Nature of the Dispersion)
(a) Liquid in a gas and select the correct answer using
(b) Gas in a liquid the codes given below the lists.
(c) Solid in a gas List I List II
(d) Liquid in Liquid A. Milk 1. Solid in liquid
B. Clouds 2. Liquid in gas
15. When oil floats on water, the C. Paints 3. Solids in solids
surface tension of water D. Jellies 4. Liquids in liquids
(a) vanishes immediately. 5. Liquid in Solid
(b) decreases considerably. Codes
(c) increases considerably. ABCD
(d) remains unaffected. (a) 4 2 1 5
(b) 1 5 3 2
16. If detergent is added (c) 4 5 1 2
(a) surface tension decreases. (d) 1 2 3 5
(b) surface tension increases.
(c) surface tension can increase or 18. Physical adsorption becomes
decrease. appreciable at
(d) No effect (a) high temperature
(b) room temperature
(c) low temperature
(d) None of the above

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DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
SOLUTION AND SURFACE CHEMISTRY

ANSWER KEY

1 A 10 C

2 D 11 D

3 A 12 B

4 D 13 A

5 C 14 A

6 A 15 D

7 A 16 A

8 D 17 A

9 B 18 C

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENT
1. Periodic classification of elements 3. Consider the following
can be done on the basis of statements,
electronic configuration and is used I. In Mendeleef’s periodic table,
to examine the position of the isotopes was not
(a) periodic trends in physical fixed.
properties of elements. II. In the 19th century, Mendeleef
(b) periodic trends in chemical propounded periodic law is based
properties of elements. on atomic mass.
(c) Both (a) and (b) Which of the above statement(s)
(d) None of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
2. Match List I with List II. (b) Only II
List I List II (c) Both I and II
(d) Neither of them
A. Most reactive alkali 1. F
metal
4. Match List I with List II
B. Chemically most active 2. Cs
non-metal List I List II
C. Metal with maximum 3. Hg A. Modern Periodic Law 1. Groups
density
B. Father of Periodic Table 2. Moseley
D. Transition metals is in 4. Os
liquid state C. Vertical lines in Modern 3. Periods
Periodic Table
Codes
ABCD ABCD D. Horizontal lines in 4.
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 4 3 2 Modern Periodic Table Mendeleef
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 3 4

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENT
5. Out of the four blocks in which 9. Which one of the following is not
periodic table is divided, helium a periodic property i.e., does not
belongs which block? show any trend on moving from one
(a) s-block (b) p-block side to the other in the Periodic
(c) d-block (d) f-block Table?
(a) Atomic size (b) Valency
6. Which of the following types of (c) Radioactivity
elements show variable valency? (d) Electronegativity
(a) Transition elements
(b) s-block elements 10. The ionisation potential of
(c) f-block elements nitrogen is
(d) Both (a) and (c) (a) same as that of oxygen.
(b) less than that of oxygen.
7. According to IUPAC, total number (c) greater than that of oxygen.
of groups and periods in the periodic (d) None of the above
table respectively are
(a) 16, 9 (b) 18, 7 11. Which one of the following
(c) 18, 9 (d) 13, 7 represents the correct order of
electron releasing tendency of
8. What effect is observed, on the metals?
size of an atom when an electron is (a) Zn > Cu > Ag
removed and in another case an (b) (b) Ag > Cu > Zn
electron is added to the same atom? (c) Cu > Zn > Ag
(a) Size increases and decreases (d) Cu > Ag > Zn
respectively
(b) Size decreases and increases 12. How many elements are there in
respectively the5th Period of Modern Periodic
(c) Size increases in both cases Table?
(d) Size decreases in both cases (a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 36
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENT
13. Match List I with List II 16. Match List I and List II.
List I List II List I List II
A. Element with smallest 1. Cs A. Elements in group I A 1. Inert gas
atomic radius
B. Element with largest 2. F B. Elements in group 2. Alkali metal
atomic radius zero
C. Element with highest 3. Br C. Elements of d-block 3. Inner-transiti
electron affinity on element
D. Element with negative 4. Cl D. Elements of f -block 4. Transition
electron affinity element
Codes
ABCD ABCD Codes
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 1 4 3<<<< ABCD ABCD
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 4 3 2 1 (a) 2 1 4 3<<<< (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
14. In Periodic Table, metallic
elements appear 17. Which of the following
(a) in the left-hand columns.<<<< properties is inversely related to
(b) in the top rows. electronegativity?
(c) in the right-hand columns. (a) Non-metallic properties
(d) in the bottom rows. (b) Metalloid properties
(c) Ionic properties
(d) Metallic properties<<<<
15. In a periodic table, while moving
from left to right in a period,
number of remains same.
(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) shells<<<< (d) neutrons

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENT
18. Consider the following 19. The alkali metals have relatively
statements with reference to the low melting point. Which one of the
Periodic Table of chemical element following alkali metals is expected to
I. Ionisation potential gradually have the highest melting point?
decreases along a period. (a) Li (b)Na
II. In a group of element, electron (b) (c) K (d) Rb
affinity decreases as the atomic
weight increases. 20. Which one among the following
III. In a given period, is the correct order of reactivity of
electronegativity decrease as the the elements?
atomic number increases. (a) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
Which of these statement(s) is/are (b) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
correct? (c) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
a) Only I (b) Only II (d) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
(c) I and III (d) II and III

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DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENT

ANSWER KEY

1 C 11 A

2 C 12 C

3 C 13 B

4 C 14 A

5 B 15 C

6 D 16 A

7 B 17 D

8 B 18 B

9 C 19 D

10 C 20 D

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
1. Which one of the following 5. Which one of the following
materials is very hard and very elements is kept safely in kerosene
ductile? oil?
(a) Carborundum (a) Sodium (b) Copper
(b) Tungsten (c) Mercury (d) Silver
(c) Cast iron
(d) Nichrome 6. Why do alkali metals impart
colour to the flame?
2. Which of the following is the (a) They are electropositive
electron configuration of a metallic elements.
element? (b) They have low ionisation
(a) 2, 8 (b) 2, 8, 7 energies.
(c) 2, 8, 8 (d) 2, 8, 8, 2 (c) They belong to IA group.
(d) They form ionic compounds
3. Consider the following elements.
I. Cobalt 7. Which one of the following is the
II. Phosphorus chemical formula of Washing Soda?
III. Zinc
Which of the above elements are
required for maintaining the healthy
human body? 8. Which one of the following is
(a) I and II (b) II and used for water softening?
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III

4. Which one among the following

chemicals is used as washing soda? 9. Which is the most reactive metal?
(a) Calcium carbonate (a) Sodium (b) Calcium
(b) Calcium bicarbonate (c) Iron (d) Potassium
(c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
10. What is the product formed 14. Which of the following is slaked
when sodium bicarbonate is heated lime?
strongly? (a) Ca(OH)2 (b) CaO
(a) Sodium Carbonate (c) CaCO3 (d) CaCl2
(b) Sodium Hydroxide
(c) Sodium Peroxide 15. What is formed when
(d) Sodium Monoxide Magnesium is burnt?
(a) Baking Soda
11. Which one among the following (b) Calcium Carbonate
chemicals is used as washing soda? (c) Ash
(a) Calcium carbonate (d) Vinegar
(b) Calcium bicarbonate
(c) Sodium carbonate<<<<< 16. What is the chemical name of
(d) Sodium bicarbonate salked lime?
(a) Calcium Nitrate
12. Cement is made hard with (b) Sodium Chloride
(a) dehydration (c) Calcium Chloride
(b) hydration and dissociation of (d) Calcium Hydroxide
water
(c) dissociation of water. 17. Which one of the following is not
(d) polymerisation true for bleaching powder?
(a) It is used as a reducing agent in
13. Which of the following cannot chemical industries.
be beaten into Sheets? (b) It is used for bleaching wood pulp
(a) Gold in paper factories.
(b) Silver (c) It is used for disinfecting drinking
(c) Potassium water.
(d) Aluminium (d) It is used for bleaching linen in
textile industry

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METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
18. ‘Plaster of Paris’ is made up of 23. Iron sheet kept in moist air
(a) marble (b) cement covered with rust. Rust is
(c) Gypsum (d) limestone (a) an element
(b) a compound
19. Which one of the following is the (c) a mixture of iron and dust
number of water molecules that (d) a mixture of iron, oxygen and
share with two formula unit in water
Plaster of Paris?
(a) One (b) Two 24. Which of the following metal
(c) Five (d) Ten (shown by its symbol) is generally
used for making filaments of bulb?
20. Which is the purest form of iron? (a) Fe (b) An
(a) Pig iron (b) Cast iron (c) Ag (d) W
(c) Wrought iron (d) Steel
25. Mercury is a
21. Which of the following metals is (a) solid metal
most ductile in nature? (b) liquid metal
(a) Copper (c) solid non-metal
(b) Silver (d) liquid non-metal
(c) Gold
(d) Aluminium 26. The rusting of iron nail
(a) decreases its weight.
22. Rust needs three components to (b) increases its weight.
occur i.e. ......... (c) does not affect weight but iron is
(a) steel, iron and oxygen oxidised.
(b) iron, oxygen and moisture (d) does not affect weight but iron is
(c) iron, nitrogen and moisture reduced.
(d) helium, hydrogen and nitrogen

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
27. Which one of the following 31. Zinc is used to protect iron form
oxides dissolves in water? corrosion because zinc is
dissolves in water? ans === 4 (a) more electropositive than iron.
(b) cheaper than iron.
(c) a bluish white metal.
(d) a good conductor of heat and
28. Which one of the following electricity.
elements not react with dilute HCl
to produce H2? 32. Which is used in storage
(a) Hg (b) Al batteries?
(c) Mg (d) Fe (a) Cu (b) Lead
(c) Tin (d) Zinc
29. Which one among the following
metals is used in fireworks to make a 33. Consider the following
brilliant white light? statements.
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium I. Gold is the most ductile metal.
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver II. The best conductors of heat are
silver and copper.
30. Which of the following III. Alkali metals (lithium, sodium,
statement is correct? potassium) are so soft that they can
(a) Gold and silver are not ductile. be cut with a knife.
(b) Phophorus and nitrogen are Which of the statements given
ductile. above are correct?
(c) Copper and platinum are ductile (a) I and II (b) I and III
(d) Sulphur and phophorus are (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
sonorous.

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
34. Consider the following 36. Stainless steel does not rust
statements. because
I. Mercury is found in liquid state at (a) chromium and nickel combine
room temperature. with iron.
II. The property of metals by which (b) chromium forms an oxide layer
they can beaten into thin sheets is and protects iron from rusting.
called malleability. (c) nickel present in it, does not rust.
III. The property of metals by which (d) iron forms a hard chemical
it can be drawn into wires is called compound with chromium present in
ductility. it
Which of the statements given
above are correct? 37. Consider the following
(a) I and II (b) I and III statements
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III I. Galvanisation is the method of
protecting steel and iron from
35. German silver’ is used to make rusting by coating them with a thin
decorative articles, coinage metal, layer of zinc.
ornaments etc. The name is given II. Pure iron is very soft but if it is
because mixed with a small amount of
(a) it is an alloy of copper and carbon, it becomes hard and strong.
contains silver as one of its III. When iron is mixed with nickel
components. and chromium, we get stainless
(b) Germans were the first to use steel, which is hard and does not
silver. rust.
(c) its appearance is like silver. Which of the statements given
(d) it is an alloy of silver. above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III
.

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
38. German silver is an alloy of 41. Brass is a mixture of
(a) gold and silver. (a) copper and zinc
(b) copper and silver. (b) copper and tin
(c) copper, zinc and silver. (c) copper, nickel and zinc
(d) copper, zinc and nickel. (d) copper, aluminium and
magnesium.
39. Consider the following
statements 42. Match List I with List II and
I. The carat is a unit of purity for select the correct answer using the
gold alloys. codes given below the lists.
II. 18 carat gold is 24 parts pure gold List I (Alloy) List II (Constituent)
and 6 parts another metal.
A. Solder 1. Iron and carbon
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? B. Brass 2. Copper and zinc
(a) Only I C. Bronze 3. Copper and tin
(b) Only II
D. Steel 4. Lead and tin
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II Codes
ABCD ABCD
40. Consider the following (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1
statements. (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
I. Bronze is an alloy of copper and
tin. 43. Which are the materials
II. White gold is an alloy of gold generally employed as solder in
containing platinum and lead. soldering operation in electronics?
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Iron and tin
above is/are correct? (b) Lead and tin
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Aluminium and lead
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II (d) Aluminium and iron

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS

ANSWER KEY
1 D 12 B 23 D 34 D

2 D 13 C 24 D 35 C

3 D 14 A 25 B 36 B

4 C 15 C 26 B 37 D

5 A 16 D 27 D 38 D

6 B 17 A 28 A 39 A

7 B 18 C 29 D 40 A

8 C 19 A 30 C 41 A

9 D 20 C 31 A 42 B

10 A 21 C 32 B 43 B

11 C 22 B 33 D 44

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
NON-METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
1. Which one of the following is used 4. Which one of the following is not
for writing on glass? an allotrope of carbon?
(a) Silicon (a) Soot (b) Graphite
(b) Graphite (c) Diamond (d) Carborundum
(c) Hydrogen fluoride
(d) Hydrogen iodide 5. Which one of the following is not
true for diamond?
2. Which of the following (a) Each carbon atom is linked to four
statement(s) is/are correct? other carbon atoms.
(a) Oxides of non-metals are basic. (b) Three-dimensional network,
(b) Oxides of non-metals are acidic. structure of carbon atoms is formed.
(c) Oxides of metals are acidic. (c) It is used as an abrasive for
(d) All option are correct. sharpening hard tools.
(d) It can be used as a lubricant.
3. Consider the following statements
I. The non-metals are either solids or 6. Which of the following statements
gases except bromine which is a is not true ?
liquid. (a) Buckminster fullerene is an
II. Iodine is a non-metal but it is allotropic of carbon.
lustrous. (b) Diamond is a good conductor of
III. Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, electricity.
is the hardest natural substance. (c) Graphite is a good conductor of
Which of the statements given electricity.
above (d) Each carbon atom in Graphite
are correct? attached to other three carbon
(a) I and II (b) I and III atoms.
(c) I, II and III (d) None of these

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
NON-METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
7. Which one of the following is the 11. Carbogen is
purest form of Carbon? (a) mixture of CO + CO2.
(a) Charcoal (b) mixture of O2+ CO2.
(b) Coke (c) pure form of carbon.
(c) Fullerene (d) unsaturated organic compound.
(d) Carbon black
12. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous
8. Which among the following is an gas the antidote used for this
element? poisoning is
(a) Alumina (b) Brass (a) pure oxygen (b) carbonic acid
(c) Graphite (d) Silica (c) Carborundum (d) carbogen

9. How is carbon black obtained? 13. Which one of following is water

(a) By heating wood at high gas?
temperature in absence of air. (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and
(b) By heating coal at high hydrogen
temperature in absence of air. (b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and
(c) By burning hydrocarbons in a nitrogen
limited supply of air. (c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and
(d) By heating coal at high water vapour
temperature in presence of air. (d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and
water vapour
10. Dihydrogen can be prepared on a
commercial scale by the action of 14. Which one of the following is the
steam on hydrocarbons, when a purest form of Carbon?
mixture of CO and H2 gas is formed. (a) Charcoal
It is known as (b) Coke
(a) water gas (b) producer gas (c) Fullerene
(c) industrial gas (d) fuel gas (d) Carbon black

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
NON-METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
15. Water softner is 19. Match List I with List II and select
(a) borax (b) zeolite the correct answer.
(c) Both (a) and (b) List I List II
(d) None of these A. Gobar gas 1. CO + H2
B. Coal gas 2. CO + N2
16. Which one of the following gases C. Producer gas 3. CH4
dissolves in water to give acidic D. Water gas 4. H2 4 + CH4 + CO
solution? Codes
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen ABCD ABCD
(c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
17. The gas which turns lime water
milky is 20. Glass is best described as a
(a) carbon dioxide (a) Solid (b) liquid
(b) (b) carbon monoxide (c) supercooled liquid
(c) ammonia (d) colloidal sol
(d) nitrogen dioxide
21. Which among the following is a
18. Following statements are made cation?
in connection with Carbon dioxide (a) Ammonium (b) Iodide
(CO2). (c) Fluoride (d) Chloride
I. CO2 is a poisonous gas.
II. CO2 is an acidic oxide. 22. Fuel used for rocket propulsion is
III. CO2 turns lime water milky. a mixture of
Which of the statement(s) given (a) hydrazine and hydrogen peroxide
above is/are correct? (b) hydrazine and TNT
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) hydroxyl amine and TNT
(c) Only III (d) I and III (d) hydroxyl amine and hydrogen
peroxide

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
NON-METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
23. Yellow colour of usual nitric acid 26. Red phosphorus is used in the
is due to the presence of which one manufacture of safety matches. This
of the following? is due to the fact that
(a) N2O (a) it show phosphorescence.<<<<<
(b) NO (b) at ordinary temperature, it is less
(c) N2O5 reactive than other varieties of
(d) NO2 phosphorus.
(c) it cannot be converted to white
24. Nitrification is the biological phosphorus on heating.
process of converting (d) it does not react with halogen on
(a) N2 into nitrate heating.
(b) N2 into nitrite
(c) Ammonia into nitrite<<<< 27. Consider the following
(d) Ammonia into N2 statements
I. Ozone is used as germicide, air and
25. Consider the following water purifiers, in making artificial,
statements silk etc.
Laughing gas (N2O) II. Bitterness in the onions is due to
I. finds use as a propellant for presence of sulphur compounds.
whipped ice-cream. III. Helium is used in filling the tyres
II. used as an anesthetic. of the aircraft.
III. used for the preparation of N3H. Which of the statements given
IV. used as fuel for rockets. above are correct?
Which of the above is/are correct? (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) Only I (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(b) Only II
(c) I, II and III
(d) All of these

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
NON-METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS
28. Which of the following are some 30. Which one of the following
important pollutants released by noble gases is not found in the
steel industry in India? atmosphere?
I. Oxides of sulphur (a) Argon (b) Krypton
II. Oxides of nitrogen (c) Radon (d) Xenon
III. Carbon monoxide
IV. Carbon dioxide 31. White Phosphorus glows in the
Select the correct answer using the dark due to
codes given below (a) amorphous character
(a) I, III and IV (b) slow oxidation
(b) II and III (c) high ignition temperature
(c) I and IV (d) good conducting property of
(d) I, II, III and IV electricity

29. Study the following statements 32. Silver gets corroded due to ………
I. Bromine is a reactive non-metal. in air.
II. Hydrochloric acid is also called as (a) Oxygen
maratic acid. (b) Hydrogen Sulphide
III. Chlorine is used in the production (c) Carbon dioxide
of phosgine, mustard gas etc. (d) Nitrogen
Which of the statements above are
correct? 33. Which one of the following is
(a) I and II (b) I and III called ‘syngas’?
(c) II and III (d) All of these

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 DESIRE TO LEARN CHEMISTRY
NON-METAL AND ITS COMPOUNDS

ANSWER KEY
1 C 12 D 23 D

2 B 13 A 24 C

3 C 14 D 25 C

4 D 15 C 26 A

5 D 16 A 27 D

6 B 17 A 28 D

7 D 18 B 29 D

8 C 19 D 30 C

9 C 20 C 31 B

10 D 21 C 32 B

11 B 22 C 33 C

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