08-09-2024

1015CMD303054240018 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A constant force acting on a body of mass of 5kg change its speed from 5 ms–1 to 10 ms–1 in 10 s
without changing the direction of motion. The force acting on the body is :-

(1) 1.5 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 2.5 N
(4) 5 N

2) On the floor of an elevator, a block of mass 50 kg is placed on which another block of mass 20 kg
is also placed. The elevator is moving up with a constant acceleration 1.5 m/s2. Force exerted by 20
kg block on the 50 kg block is nearly :-

(1) 250 N
(2) 230 N
(3) 170 N
(4) 150 N

3) Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massles spring as shown in the figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut are respectively.

(1)

(2)
(3) g, g

(4)

4) The coefficient of static friction between the block and train floor is 0.2. The maximum
acceleration of the train in which the box is lying on its floor will remain stationary is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

5) Acceleration of the blocks shown in the figure, if all surfaces are

smooth is (g = 10 m/s2) :

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) Zero

6) Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two blocks of 2 kg and 1 kg kept on frictionless floor.
What is the force exerted on 2 kg block by 1 kg block ?

(1) 1N
(2) 2N
(3) 4N
(4) 5N

7) A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is-

(1) 20 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 2 N
8) The pendulum hanging from the ceiling of a railway carriage makes an angle 30° with the vertical
when it is accelerating. The acceleration of the carriage is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed of gases is 800 m/s. To give an initial
upward acceleration of 20 m/s2, the amount of gas ejected will be (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 127.5 kg/s

(2) 187.5 kg/s
(3) 185.5 kg/s
(4) 137.5 kg/s

10)

A block of mass 10 kg is kept over a rough surface and a force F = 4t is applied on it. Then the
minimum value of t for which the block will start moving is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 sec.
(2) 10 sec.
(3) 8 sec.
(4) 5 sec.

11) A mass of 2 kg is dropped from 10 m height. Find out gain in K.E. of the block, when it falls
through 5 m.

(1) 200 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 50 J
(4) 0 J

12) The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown
in the figure.
The body is in stable equilibrium at

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) both x1 and x2
(4) neither x1 nor x2

13) If momentum is increased by 20%, then kinetic energy increases by :

(1) 44%
(2) 55%
(3) 66%
(4) 77%

14) A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain thrice as
much water from the pipe in the same time, power of the motor has to be increased :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 27 times
(4) 81 times

15)

A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure.
Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-

(1) 35J
(2) 25J
(3) 15J
(4) 5J

16) A solenoid of length 1.5 metre and 4.0 cm in diameter possesses 10 turns/cm. A current of 5.0 A
is flowing through it. Calculate the magnetic induction (i) Inside and (ii) At one end on the axis of
solenoid respectively

(1) 2π × 10–3 T, π × 10–3 T

(2) π × 10–3 T, 2π × 10–3 T
(3) 2π × 10–3 T, 2π × 10–3 T
(4) π × 10–3 T, π × 10–3 T
17) Figure shows the cross-sectional view of the hollow cylindrical conductor with inner radius ‘R’
and outer radius ‘2R’, cylinder carrying uniformly distributed current along it’s axis. The magnetic

induction at point ‘P’ at a distance from the axis of the cylinder will be

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at
a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 µT. What will be its value at the centre of the loop ?

(1) 250 µT
(2) 150 µT
(3) 125 µT
(4) 75 µT

19) For given toroid, magnetic field along the axis will be :-

(1) 0.25 mT
(2) 4 mT
(3) 0.5 mT
(4) 2 mT

20) Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry current Ic and Ie, respectively as shown in
figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same plane. The magnetic fields will be zero at the
centre of the loop when the separation H is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Ratio of magnetic field at the centre of current carrying circular coil of radius 4R and at a
distance of 3R on its axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Rank the value of for the closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to largest :

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) a, c, b, d

23) The slope of line on which magnetic field is zero due to system of two perpendicular infinetely
long current carrying straight wire is:-

(1) 1/2
(2) 2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1

24) The magnetic flux density at the axis of a circular coil carrying a current depends on the
distance (x) from the centre in following manner (When x >> R)

(1) proportional to x
(2) inversely proportional to x
(3) inversely proportional to x2
(4) inversely proportional to x3

25) Find the magnetic field at the centre of regular hexagon :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In a Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole
apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3 without disturbing the geometrical
arrangement, the new fringe width will be :-

(1) 0.30 mm
(2) 0.40 mm
(3) 0.53 mm
(4) 450 micron

27) Young's double slit experiment is made in a liquid. The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies where 6th
dark fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index of the liquid is approximately :-
(1) 1.8
(2) 1.54
(3) 1.67
(4) 1.2

28) In Young's double slit experiment when wavelength used is 6000 Å and the screen is 40 cm from
the slits, the fringes are 0.012 cm wide. What is the distance between the slits :-

(1) 0.024 cm
(2) 2.4 cm
(3) 0.24 cm
(4) 0.2 cm

29) In young's double slit experiment with a source of light of wavelength 6320Å, the first maxima
will occur when :-

(1) Path difference is 9480 Å

(2) Phase difference is 3π radian
(3) Path difference is 6320 Å
(4) Phase difference is π radian

30) Four light waves are represented by

(i) y = a1 sin ωt (ii) y = a2 sin (ωt + ε)
(iii) y = a1 sin 2 ωt (iv) y = a2 sin (2ωt + ε)
Interference fringes may be observed due to superposition of :-

(1) (i) and (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i) and (iii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv) only

31)

White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a Young’s double slit experiment. The separation
between slits is b and the screen is at a distance d(>>b) from the slits. At a point on the screen
directly infront of one of the slits , certain wavelengths are missing. Some of these missing
wavelengths are :

(1) λ = b2/d
(2) λ = 2b2/d
(3) λ = 4b2/d
(4) λ = 2b2/3d

32) In young's double-slit experiment, the intensity at a point where path difference is λ/6 is I'. If I0
denotes the maximum intensity, then I'/I0 is equal to :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Interference is possible in _________

(1) Light waves only

(2) Sound waves only
(3) Both light and sound waves
(4) Neither light nor sound

34) Two waves have equations :

y1 = a sin (ωt + ϕ1); y2 = asin(ωt + ϕ2 ). If the amplitude of the resultant wave is equal to the
amplitude of each of superimposing waves, then what will be the phase differences between them?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In Y.D.S.E the 10th bright fringe of wavelength λ1 is at a distance Y1 from its central bright and
5th bright fringe of wavelength λ2 is at a distance Y2 from its central bright. Then ratio Y1/Y2 will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Find velocity of ring B(VB) at the instant shown. The string is taut and inextensible :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 m/s

2)

A chain consisting of 5 links of mass 0.1 kg each is lifted vertically upwards with a constant
acceleration 5 m/s2 as shown in figure. The force of interaction between the top link and the link
immediately below it will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 6 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 2 N

3) If the system is released from rest then find the work done by tension on 10 kg in first 3 seconds.

(1) –1000 J
(2) –1500 J
(3) 1000 J
(4) 2000 J

4) Find work done by friction if block travels to the bottom of wedge with constant velocity :-
(1) –50 J
(2) J
(3) –100 J
(4) –200 J

5) The potential energy function of a particle in the x – y plane is given by U = k (x + y), where k is a
constant. The work done by the conservative force in moving a particle from (1, 1) to (2, 3) is:-

(1) –3 k
(2) +3 k
(3) k
(4) None of these

6) A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z direction. The magnetic
vector field at a point having coordinates (x,y) in the z = 0 plane is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A current carrying wire AB of the length L is turned along a circle, as shown in figure. The

magnetic field at the centre O.

(1)

(2)
(3)
(2π – θ)

(4)
(2π + θ)2

8) Three infinite length vertical wires are placed in such a way that they combine to form an
equilateral triangle of sides 'a' as shown in the figure. Magnetic field at point 'P' will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The magnetic field at point 'P' due to following current distribution will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Current i = 2.5 A flows along the circle x2 + y2 = 9 cm2 (here x & y in cm) as shown

Magnetic field at point (0, 0, 4 cm) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If a thin mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index μ = 5/3 is placed in the path of one of the

interfering beams as shown in figure, then the displacement of the fringe system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The intensity ratio of two coherent sources of light is p. They are interfering in some region and
produce interference patterm. Then the fringe visibility is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

In a double slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen placed 1 m
away. The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the angular width of the fringe if the
entire experiment apparatus is immersed in water? Take refractive index of water to be 4/3.

(1) 1°
(2) 0.15°
(3) 2.6°
(4) 2°
14) In YDSE two coherent sources of same intensity gives a resultant I1 at the centre but two non-
coherent sources of same intensity gives a resultant I2 at centre. Find the ratio I1/I2.

(1) 4/1
(2) 1/4
(3) 2/1
(4) 1/2

15) In Young's double slit experiment, two slits are separated by 3mm distance and illuminated by
light of wavelength 480 nm. The screen is at 2m from the plane of the slits. Calculate the separation
between the 8th bright fringe and the 3rd dark fringe obtained with respect to central Bright fringe.

(1) 1.76 mm
(2) 3.52 mm
(3) 0.88 mm
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) main product of reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Compare rate of NBS with given compound ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) I > III > II
3)
What is “Q” ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

4)
what will be A & B respectively ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

Which reducing agent is used in Clemmensen reduction –

(1) Zn / HCl
(2) LiAlH4
(3) Zn-Hg / HCl
(4) Na / C2H5OH.

6)

The reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom towards halogenation of alkane has the
order :

(1) tertiary > primary > secondary

(2) secondary > primary > tertiary
(3) tertiary > secondary > primary
(4) primary > secondary > tertiary
7)

The thermal decomposition of alkanes in the absence of air is known as :

(1) oxidation
(2) Combustion
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) pyrolysis

8) Major product is :-

(1) Neopentane
(2) Isobutane
(3) Isopentane
(4) Butane

9) The main product of following reaction will be :

Product

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH3
(4) All of these

10) Reactivity order of halogens towards free radical substitution reaction is

(1) Br2 > F2 > Cl2 > I2

(2) F2 > I2 > Br2 > Cl2
(3) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

11)

(1) A & B are same

(2) A & C are same
(3) A,B & C are same
(4) B & C are same

12) Correct order of reactivity for acidic dehydration of following alcohols

I.

II.

III.

(1) I > III > II

(2) III > II > I
(3) I > II > III
(4) II > III > I

13) Identify the product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–C≡C–CH3

14) The pH of pure water at 80°C will be :-

(1) = 7
(2) < 7
(3) > 7
(4) 1

15) Which of the following will show anionic hydrolysis :

(1) KCN
(2) NH4Cl
(3) CuSO4
(4) FeCl3
16) Solubility of an MX2 electrolyte is 0.5 × 10–4 mol/L, Ksp of electrolyte will be :-

(1) 5 × 10–12
(2) 25 × 10–10
(3) 1 × 10–13
(4) 5 × 10–13

17)

Which of following solution does not act as buffer:-

(1) H3PO4 + NaH2PO4

(2) 0.2 mole NH4Cl + 0.1 mole KOH
(3) 2M HCl + 1M NaCl
(4) CH3COONH4

18) The strongest acid is :

(1) H3PO4
(2) H2SO4
(3) CH3COOH
(4) HNO3

19) Which salt shows maximum hydrolysis ?

(1) 0.1 M NH4Cl

(2) 0.01 M NH4Cl
(3) 0.001 M NH4Cl
(4) All will show same hydrolysis

20) Which of the following can act both as bronsted acid as well as bronsted base ?

(1) H2SO4
–
(2) HCO3
(3) O2–
+
(4) NH4

21) How many statements among the following are correct ?

(A) Vapour pressure of water increases with the temperature.
(B) The conjugate acid - base pair differ by only one proton.
(C) Ionic product of water (Kw) does not change with temperature.
(D) KMnO4 can act as self indicator

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

22) The pH values of 1 M solutions of HCl (I), CH3COONa(II), CH3COONH4(III), and KOH(IV) will be
in the order :

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) IV > II > III > I
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) II > I > III > IV

23) In the reaction H2S (aq) ⇌ 2H+ (aq) + S2– (aq); when NaOH is added :

(1) No action takes place

(2) Concentration of S2– decreases
(3) Concentration of S2– increases
(4) S2– is precipitated

24) The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H2A are 1.0 × 10–5 and 5.0 × 10–10
respectively. The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be:-

(1) 5.0 × 1015

(2) 5.0 × 10–15
(3) 0.2 × 105
(4) 5.0 × 10–5

25)

Aqueous solution pH
(A) –2
10 M HCl (i) 12
(B) 10–2 M NaOH (ii) 2
Between
(C) 10–7 M HCl (iii)
7 to 8
Between
(D) 10–8 M NaOH (iv)
6 to 7
(1) (A) – i, (B) –ii, (C) –iii, (D) -iv
(2) (A) – ii, (B) –iii, (C) –i, (D) -iv
(3) (A) – ii, (B) –i, (C) –iv, (D) -iii
(4) (A) – iv, (B) –iii, (C) –i, (D) -ii

26) Let the solubilities of AgCl in pure water, 0.01M CaCl2, 0.01M NaCl & 0.05M AgNO3 be s1, s2, s3
& s4 respectively what is the correct order of these quantities.

(1) s1 > s2 > s3 > s4

(2) s1 > s2 = s3 > s4
(3) s1 > s3 > s2 > s4
(4) s4 > s2 > s3 > s1

27) A sample of ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4, contains 6 moles of hydrogen atoms. The number
of moles of oxygen atoms in the sample is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

28) The formula of an acid is HXO2, The mass of 0.0242 moles of the acid is 1.657 g. What is the
atomic weight of X?

(1) 35.5
(2) 28.1
(3) 128
(4) 19.0

29) Two element X (at. mass = 75) and Y (at. mass = 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8%
wt of X. The formula of the compound is :

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) X2Y2
(4) X2Y3

30) The relation between molarity (M) and molality (m) is given by:
(ρ = density of solution (g/mL),
M1 = molecular weight of solute)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) An aqueous solution of ethanol has density 1.025 g/mL and it is 2 M. What is the molality of this
solution?

(1) 1.79
(2) 2.143
(3) 1.951
(4) 1.57

32) A gaseous mixture of propane and butane of volume 3 litre on complete combustion produces
11.0 litre CO2 under standard conditions of temperature and pressure. The ratio of volume of butane
to propane is :

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 1

33)

Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is approximately
67200. The number of iron atoms (At. mass of Fe = 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin is :

(1) 6
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

34) Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1 g cm–3) is :

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3

35) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C,
38.71% and H, 9.6% and O, 51.62%. The empirical formula of the compound would be :

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

SECTION-B

1) Major product

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

2) Which of the following carboxylic acid undergoes decarboxylation most easily on heating ?

(1) CH3CH2COOH

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

4)
The product of the above reaction is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Reagent used to carry out following alkyne to alkene is

(1) Pd-C/H2
(2) Na/NH3
(3) Pd/H2
(4) Ni/H2

6) Which of the following is not an example of buffer solution ?

CH3COONa + HCl
(1)
0.1 M 0.01 M
HClO4 + NaClO4
(2)
0.02 M 0.1 M
NaCN + HCN
(3)
0.2 M 0.2 M
NH4OH + NH4Cl
(4)
0.1 M 0.1 M

7) The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 × 10–12. The solubility (in mol/L) of Ag2CrO4 in a 0.1 M AgNO3 solution is

(1) 1.1 × 10–11

(2) 1.1 × 10–10
(3) 1.1 × 10–12
(4) 1.1 × 10–9

8) aA ⇌ bB + cC, ΔH = - x kcal.
If high pressure and low temperature are the favourable condition for the formation of product in
above reaction, hence:-

(1) a > b + c
(2) a < b + c
(3) a = b + c
(4) None of them

9) At 60° C and initial pressure of 1 atm, N2O4 is 50% dissociated into NO2 then Kp for following
reaction is :
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g)

(1) 1.33 atm

(2) 2 atm
(3) 2.67 atm
(4) 3 atm

10) For reaction

A + 2B 2C
Initially 2 mole of each A and B are taken in 10 lit flask. At equilibrium 1 mole of C is formed then
calculate KC for given reaction :-

(1) 6.66
(2) 3.33
(3) 2.22
(4) 1.11

11) If Kp for the reaction N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is 0.66 then what is the degree of dissociation of N2O4 (Total
pressure at equilibrium is 0.5 atm)

(1) 0.168
(2) 0.322
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.5

12) 1 M HCl and 2 M HCl are mixed in volume ratio of 4 : 1. What is the final molarity of HCl
solution?

(1) 1.5 M
(2) 1 M
(3) 1.2 M
(4) 1.8 M

13) 10 mL of N-HCl, 20 mL of N/2 H2SO4 and 30 mL of N/3 HNO3 are mixed together and volume
made to one litre. The normality of H+ ion in the resulting solution is :

(1) 3N/100
(2) N/10
(3) N/20
(4) N/40

14) If 0.30 mole of CaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mole of Na3PO4, the maximum number of mole of
Ca3(PO4)2 which can be formed, is :

(1) 0.70
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.10

15) In which case is number of molecules of water maximum?

(1) 18 mL of water
(2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(4) 10–3 mol of water

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Assertion :- Metastasis is the most feared property of malignant tumour.

Reason :- Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2) At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS :-

(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.

(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells.
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper T-Lymphocytes.
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.

3) Smack can be obtained from morphine by a process called

(1) amination
(2) acidification
(3) acetylation
(4) emulsification

4) Which of the following statement is false for AIDS:-

It can only be tackled by the society and medical fraternity acting together, to prevent the
(1)
spread of disease
(2) It has no cure and prevention is best option
(3) More often it spreads through conscious behaviour pattern
(4) Treatment of AIDS with anti retroviral drugs is completely effective

5) Which of the following agranular cell take part in innate immunity ?

(1) NK cell
(2) Neutrophil
(3) Monocyte
(4) Lymphocytes

6) Assertion :- Acidic pH of urine considered under physical barrier of innate immunity.

Reason :- Acidic pH provides protection against pathogen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

7) Diagram showing ringworm affected area of skin. Which is not related with disease ?

(1) Microporum
(2) Microporum
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Wuchereria

8) Assertion :- Passive immunity is of short life span.

Reason :- Because ready made antibodies are given in it and has short life span.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) Which of the following options give correct categorisation of antibody quantity and functions. :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Antibody Quantity (%) Function

Stimulation of mast cells or

1 IgA a 5-10% i
basophils

2 IgE b 1-3% ii Activation of B-cell

3 IgD c 0.5% iii Protects blood stream

4 IgM d 10% iv Protection of body surfaces

(1) 1=a-iii, 2=c-i, 3=b-ii, 4=d-iv
(2) 1=a-i, 2=b-ii, 3=c-iii, 4=d-iv
(3) 1=d-iv, 2=c-i, 3=a-iii, 4=b-ii
(4) 1=d-iv, 2=c-i, 3=b-ii, 4=a-iii

10) MMR vaccine is given against ?

(1) Measles, Mumps and Rubella

(2) Muscle atrophy, rheumatism, measles
(3) Memory loss, myalgia and rabies
(4) Mumps, myodynia and respiratory distress

11) Assersion :- IFNS, are species specific, but not viral specific.
Reason :- Human IFNS, are not utilised into other animals, but same IFNS, can protect us from
different viruses.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

12) Match the following :-

Column-A Column-B

I Allergy i Typhoid fever

II T-helper cells ii Single stranded RNA

III Hallucinogens iii Wuchereria

IV Liver iv IgE

V Widal test v Cirrhosis

VI Filariasis vi Atropa belladona

VII ELISA test vii Activation of B-cells

VIII AIDS virus viii Carcinogens

IX Treatment of cancer ix AIDS

X X-rays x Immunotherapy

(1) I-(iv), II-(vi), III-(viii), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(vii)
(2) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(viii)
(3) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(v), IV-(ii), V-(i), VI-(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(vi), IX-(x), X-(viii)
(4) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(ix), VII-(x), VIII-(ii), IX-(iii), X-(viii)

13) Choose the correct and wrong statements about the artery :-
a. carry deoxygenated blood without any exception
b. carry blood towards heart
c. carry oxygenated blood with exception
d. carry blood from heart towards organs
e. is highly muscular

(1) Correct a, b, c wrong d, e

(2) Correct c, d, e wrong a, b
(3) Correct a, c, e wrong d, b
(4) Correct a, b, d wrong c, e

14) What is true about RBC in human :

(1) They carry about 20-25% of CO2 in form of carbamino Hb.

(2) They transport 99.5% of O2
(3) They transport 80% of O2
(4) They do not carry CO2 at all

15) Identify the wrong differences between inspiration, and expiration :-

Inspiration Expiration

(a) EICM Contract Relax

Size of thoracic
(b) Decreases Increases
cavity

Shape of Dome
(c) Flat
Diaphragm shaped

Movement of Atmosphere Lungs to

(d)
Air to lungs atmosphere
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

16) Given below the graphical representation in which different oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve
(ODC) shows through A, B and C. Select the correct option which includes all the correct

representation of curve with their correct identification ?

A = Foetal ODC, B = Normal ODC,

(1)
C = Myoglobin ODC
A = Normal ODC, B = Foetal ODC,
(2)
C = Myoglobin ODC
 A = Myoglobin ODC, B = Normal ODC,
(3)
C = Foetal ODC
A = Foetal ODC, B = Myoglobin ODC,
(4)
C = Normal ODC

17) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration. This includes :-

(1) ERV, TV and IRV

(2) ERV + RV + TV
(3) TV and RV
(4) ERV + RV

18) The following datas are given:-

Tidal volume = 600ml
Inspiratory capacity = 3700ml
Expiratory capacity = 1700ml
Functional residual capacity = 2300ml
Calculate total lung capacity.

(1) 4800 ml
(2) 6000 ml
(3) 5700 ml
(4) 6200 ml

19) Fill up the blanks.

A functional mammary gland is a characteristic of all female a . The mammary glands are paired
structures (breasts) that contain glandular tissues and variable amount of fats. The glandular tissue
of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called b . The cells
of c secrete milk, which is stored in the cavities (lumens) of alveoli. The alveoli open into
mammary tubules. The tubules of each lobe join to form a d duct. Several e ducts join to form a
wider mammary ampulla which is connected to f duct through which milk is sucked out.

(1) (a)-vertebrates; (b)-alveoli; (c)-alveoli; (d)-mammary; (e)-mammary; (f)-lactiferous

(2) (a)-mammals; (b)-lactogen; (c)-alveoli; (d)-mammary; (e)-mammary; (f)-lactiferous
(3) (a)-mammals; (b)-alveoli; (c)-alveoli; (d)-mammary; (e)-mammary; (f)-lactiferous
(4) (a)-mammals; (b)-alveoli; (c)-alveoli; (d)-mammary;(e)-lactiferous; (f)-mammary

20) Arrange the following steps of respiration in sequence and select the correct option :
(i) Transport of gases by the blood.
(ii) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
(iii) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2
(iv) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar
air is released out.
(v) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
Option :

(1) (iv), (ii), (i), (v), (iii)

(2) (iv), (v), (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv)
(4) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii), (v)

21) Match each area of the heart (column-I) with the structure (column-II) from which it receives
blood :-

Column I Column II
(Area of heart) (Receives blood from)

(A) Right atrium (I) Left atrium

(B) Right ventricle (II) Vena cava

(C) Left atrium (III) Right atrium

(D) Left ventricle (IV) Pulmonary veins

(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

22) Consider the following three statements (A-C) and choose the correct answer to fill the blanks -
A. ........... are the most abundant of all the cells in blood
B. ........... secrete histamine and involved in inflammatory reaction
C. ........... are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organism

A B C
(1) Neutrophils Acidophils Monocyte
(2) Erythrocyte Basophils Monocyte
(3) Lymphocyte Basophils Neutrophils
(4) Leucocyte Acidophils Neutrophil
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) First heart sound (a) DUP (i) Blood pumped per minute by each ventricle.
(2) Cardiac output (b) 5L (ii) Blood pumped by each ventricle in one contraction.
(3) Second heart sound (c) 70 ml (iii) ventricular systole.
(4) Stroke volume (d) LUBB (iv) ventricular diastole.
(1) 1-d-i, 2-b-iii, 3-c-ii, 4-a-iv
(2) 1-d-iii, 2-b-i, 3-a-iv, 4-c-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-i, 3-a-ii, 4-c-iv
(4) 1-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 3-c-i, 4-d-iv

24) Which of the following sequences is truly a systemic circulation pathway?

(1) Right ventricle → pulmonary aorta → tissues → pulmonary veins → left auricle
(2) Left auricle → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → tissues → veins → right atrium
(3) Left auricle → left ventricle → pulmonary aorta → tissues → right auricle
(4) Right auricle → left ventricle → aorta → tissues → veins → right auricle

25) Match the Column-I and Column-II carefully and choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Maximum potential (a) ECG

(ii) Ist Heart sound (b) 0.8 sec.

(iii) Cardiac cycle (c) LUBB

(iv) Electrical activity of heart (d) Pacemaker

(1) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - b, (iv) - a
(2) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - b, (iv) - a
(3) (i) - a, (ii) - b, (iii) - c, (iv) - d
(4) (i) - d, (ii) - b, (iii) - c, (iv) - d

26) Choose the correct statements is given below options.

I. Artery and veins consists of 3 layers.
II. Left ventricle pumps into the aorta.
III. Normal activity of human heart are regulated intrinsically i.e. auto-regulated.
IV. Tunica media is comparatively thick in vein.

(1) I, II, III

(2) I and II only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, III, IV

27) Assertion: Menstruation does not occur during the intense period of lactation.
Reason: Chances of conception are higher after 1–2 months following parturition.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

28) Choose the correct path of milk :-

Mammary alveolus → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous

(1)
duct
Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous
(2)
duct
Mammary alveolus → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Mammary duct → Lactiferous
(3)
duct
 Mammary alveolus → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Mammary
(4)
duct

29) Assertion (A) : Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female.
Reason (R) : Ovaries produce gametes and no hormones.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

30)

Identify the correct sequence of events during reproductive cycle of human:

I. Parturition II. Fertilization
III. Gametogenesis IV. Gestation

V. Implantation
(1) III, IV, V, II, I
(2) II, III, IV, V, I
(3) V, IV, II, I, III
(4) III, II, V, IV, I

31) Match the following and choose the correct answer :-

(A) Spermatogensis (i) Vagina
(B) Capacitation (ii) Ovary
(C) Folliculogenesis (iii) Testis
(D) Fertilisation (iv) Fallopian tube

(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

32) It is a diagrammatic persentation of ovum which is surrounded by few sperms, choose the

correct option about A, B, and C :-

 A B C

Cells of the
Perivitelline Zona
(1) corona
space pellucida
radiata

Zona Perivitelline Cells of the

(2)
pellucida space corona radiata

Plasma Perivitelline Cells of

(3)
membrane space corona radiata

Cells of the Zona Perivitelline

(4)
corona radiata pellucida space
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) Positive feedback by oestrogen cause FSH surge

(2) Relexin is not secreted by corpus luteum of normal menstral cycle
(3) LH surge induce corpus luteum formation
(4) Placenta is complex structure formed by maternal tissue only

34)

How many statements are wrong about corona radiata ?

(a) It is secondary egg membrane
(b) It is present arround secondary oocyte
(c) Hyluronidase is present between cells of corona radiata
(d) It is formed by innermost layer of cells of cummulus oophoricus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Some important events that occurs during the menstrual cycle are given below. Arrange the
events in a proper sequence and select the correct option :
(i) Proliferation of endometrial wall
(ii) LH surge
(iii) Secretion of estrogen
(iv) Secretion of progesterone
(v) Ovulation
(vi) Growth of corpus luteum
(vii) Degeneration of corpus luteum
(viii) Menstruation
(1) ii → iv → iii → i → vii → v → viii → vi
(2) iii → i → ii → v → vi → iv → vii → viii
(3) v → i → vi → viii → iii → iv → vii → vii
(4) ii → v → vi → i → viii → vii → iii → iv

SECTION-B

1) After an organ transplant from an unrelated donor, which of following plays lead role in graft
rejection ?

(1) Passive immunity

(2) Cell mediated immunity
(3) Innate immunity only
(4) Humoral immunity only

2) MMR is example of which type of vaccine ?

(1) live attenuated

(2) Live natural
(3) Toxoid
(4) Killed vaccine

3) In kidney transplantation, the problem of rejection has largely been overcome by using a drug
____:-

(1) LSD
(2) Cyclosporine-A
(3) Amphetamines
(4) Pep pills

4) When pO2 is decrease and pCO2 increase than oxy-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift in –

(1) Left side

(2) No effect on curve
(3) Right side
(4) Curve will be stable

5) Mark the incorrect match for respiratory organs

(1) Moist cuticle – Earthworm

(2) Tracheae – Cockroach
(3) Gills – Crustacean
(4) Buccopharyngeal – Human

6)
The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the ...A..., ventrally by the ...B..., laterally by the ...C...
and on lower side by the dome-shaped ....D... .

Select the right choices for A, B, C and D to complete the given statement.
(1) A-vertebral column, B-sternum, C-ribs, D- diaphragm
(2) A-vertebral column, B-ribs, C-sternum, D-diaphragm
(3) A-diaphragm, B-ribs, C-sternum, D-vertebral column
(4) A-ribs, B-diaphragm, C-sternum, D-vertebral column

7) Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre in medulla is mainly affected by -

+
(1) less CO2 and H ions
+
(2) less O2 and H ions
+
(3) excess CO2 and H ions
+
(4) excess O2 and H ions

8) Total volume of air accomodate in the lungs at the end of forced inspiration :-

(1) TV + IRV
(2) TV + IRV + ERV
(3) TV + ERV
(4) TV + IRV + ERV + RV

9) The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into ventricles by about

(1) 70%
(2) 60%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%

10) During high blood pressure, regulations of heart beat and circulation are controlled by :-

(1) Vasodilator and vasconstrictor centres

(2) Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centres
(3) Cardio-inhibitory and vasconstrictor centres
(4) Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centers

11) Which is correct for lymph?

(1) Lymph is red in colours

(2) It is responsible for the immune responses of the body
(3) WBC present in lymph
(4) Both (2) and (3)

12) Find out correct match of the following :

 Column-I Column-II

(1) Angina Acute chest pain

(2) Cardiac arrest Damaged heart muscle

(3) Atherosclerosis Wider lumen of Artery

(4) Heart failure Heart stop Beating

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) The second meiotic division during oogenesis completes:

(1) Before birth

(2) Just after birth
(3) At the time of puberty
(4) During fertilization

14) Which structure prevents the embryo from ectopic pregnancy?

(1) Corona radiata

(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Graffian follicle

15) Chances of fertilization are very high during the period of menstruation cycle :

(1) First Five days

(2) Last 7 days
(3) 10th to 17th day
(4) 21st day

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) How many seminiferous tubules are present in each testicular lobule ?

(1) 250
(2) 750 - 1000
(3) 1 - 3
(4) 100

2) How many meiosis divisions required to form 132 zygote ?

(1) 150
(2) 165
(3) 132
(4) 100

3) HCG, HPL, Estrogen, Progestrone, Androgen, Relaxin, Thyroxin.

How many of hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy ?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five

4) Find the odd one with respect to number of chromosomes :-

(1) Zygote, spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte

(2) Ovum, polarbody, secondary oocyte
(3) Sperm, spermatid, secondary spermatocyte
(4) Spermatogonia, oogonia, ovum

5) Which one of the following structure of sperm is mismatched?

(1) Acrosome Contain spermlysins that help in fertilisation

(2) Nucleus Contain haploid DNA

Proximal
(3) Starts cleavage in zygote
centriole

Contain numerous mitochondria, which produce

(4) Tail
energy for movement of tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used by females.
(2) Saheli is "once a week" pill.
(3) Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days.
(4) Saheli has high side effect and low contraceptive value.

7) A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by :-

(1) Blocking fallopian tube

(2) Inhibiting release of FSH & LH
(3) Stimulating release of FSH & LH
(4) Causing immedediate degeneration of released ovum

8) Select the correct match from following table ?

(i) Condom Barrier method

Most widely accepted methods of
(ii) IUD
contraception in India
(iii) Saheli Steroidal preparation
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (iii) only

9) Select the correct option regarding the contraceptive methods and one of their property :

(1) Coitus interruptus – is a natural method of contraception with a very low failure rate
Condoms – are made up of latex which also provide protection against sexually transmitted
(2)
diseases
(3) Saheli – is a hormonal contraceptive pill which is taken weekly
(4) IUDs – are generally made up of copper and they prevent ovulation

10) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods :-

(A) Periodic abstience
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) B and D

11) Isogamy is found in :-

(1) Eudorina
(2) Valvox
(3) Fucus
(4) Ulothrix

12) Which of the following is a defining property of all living organism :-

(1) Reproduction
(2) Growth
(3) Consciousness
(4) Self consciousness

13) Order Polymoniales based on the floral characters included which of the following families :
(1) Solanaceae & Poaceae
(2) Convulvulaceae & Rosaceae
(3) Fabaceae & Solanaceae
(4) Solanaceae & Convulvulaceae

14) The number of species that are known and described ranges between

(1) 1.7-1.8 million

(2) 1 million
(3) 50 million
(4) 2 million

15) Toad stool is related to :-

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Oomycetes

16) Plant classification proposed by Bentham and Hooker was natural because it was based on :-

(1) Natural affinities among plants

(2) Economic importance of plants
(3) Only few anatomical characters
(4) Only vegetative characters

17) Potato spindle tuber disease caused by :-

(1) Viroids
(2) Virus
(3) Prions
(4) Mycorrhiza

18) Which pair of the following belongs to ascomycetes?

(1) Puff balls and morels

(2) Mushrooms and shelf fungi
(3) Morels and truffles
(4) Mushrooms and toad stool

19)

Which are commonly used in baking and brewing industry ?

(1) Yeast
(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Cyanobacteria

20) Link between prokaryotes and multicellular eukaryotes :–

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plants

21) Select the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) Chrysophytes are found in fresh water as well as in marine environment.

(2) Dinoflagellates are mostly fresh water organism and photosynthetic.
(3) Majority of euglenoids are fresh water organism.
(4) Slime moulds are saprophytic protist.

22) Select incorrect statement regarding slime mould:-

(i) They are saprophytic protists.
(ii) Spores dispersed by water currents.
(iii) Plasmodium forms fruiting body during favourable conditions.
(iv) Spores possess true walls.
(v) Body of slime mould moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material.

(1) i and iv
(2) i, iv and v
(3) ii and iii
(4) i, ii and iii

23) Multicellular fungi with septate mycelium, in which sexual reproduction is not observed till now,
are included in :-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes and deuteromycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Ascomycetes, baisdiomycetes and deuteromycetes

24) Once the perfect stages of members of deuteromycetes are discovered they are often moved to

(1) Basidiomycetes or Ascomycetes

(2) Oomycetes or Zygomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes or Zygomycetes
(4) Ascomycetes or Oomycetes

25) Match the column-I and column–II :-

Column-I Column-II
 (a) M.W. Beijerinek (i) Viroids

(b) T.O. Diener (ii) TMV

(c) D.J. Ivanowsky (iii) Crystallised virus

(d) W.M. Stanley (iv) Contagium vivium fluidum

(1) a–(i) b–(iii) c–(ii) d–(iv)
(2) a–(iv) b–(i) c–(iii) d–(ii)
(3) a–(iv) b–(i) c–(ii) d–(iii)
(4) a–(ii) b–(iii) c–(iv) d–(i)

26) Read the following statements :-

(A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(B) Viroids have low molecular weight DNA
(C) Virus are inert outside their specific host cell.
(D) Mumps, small pox and influenza disease caused by Bacteria.
Which statements are correct ?

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

27) The successive nucleotides of DNA in a strand are linked together by :

(1) Peptide Bond

(2) Disulphide Bond
(3) Glycosidic Bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

28) Assertion: There is uniform distance between two strands of DNA.

Reason: Purine always comes opposite to pyrimidine and vice-versa.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

29)

Which one is nucleoside ?

(1) Adenine
(2) Adenosine
(3) Adenylic acid
(4) ATP

30) If a DNA molecule is shortened by 25 base pairs, how many helical turns will be reduced from its
structure?

(1) 3
(2) 2.5
(3) 2
(4) 1

31)

Organism No. of nucleotides

ϕ × 174
(i) (A) 4.6 × 106 bp
bacteriophage

Lambda
(ii) (B) 6.6 × 109 bp
bacteriophage

(iii) E.Coli (C) 5386 nucleotides

(iv) Human (D) 48502 bp

Following match is correct :-
(1) i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = A
(2) i = B, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
(3) i = A, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B
(4) i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B

32) Which one confer stability in addition to H bond for double helix :-

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) Base pair stacking over other
(3) Antiparallel nature
(4) Peptide bond

33)

Which of the following is not a feature of DNA molecule ?

(1) Double stranded

(2) Complementarity
(3) Both strands are antiparallel
(4) Both strands are similar

34) Identify A,B & C in given diagram :-

 A B C
Histone
(1) Histone H1 DNA
octamer
Histone
(2) DNA Histone H1
octamer
Histone
(3) Histone H1 DNA
octamer
Histone
(4) DNA Histone H1
octamer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35)

In a E.coli 4.6 × 106 bps are present then how many nucleosome are present in this :-

(1) 2.3 × 104

(2) 2.3 × 108
(3) 1.65 × 107
(4) Zero

SECTION-B

1) How many IInd polar bodies has produced by a 60 year virgin female in her life :-

(1) 120
(2) 480
(3) 0
(4) 60

2) A structure, which form just before spermatozoa is :-

(1) sperms
(2) spermatid
(3) secondary spermatocyte
(4) primary spermatocyte
3) Acrosome of spermatozoa is formed from :

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mitochondria

4) Intensely lactating mother do not generally conceive due to their :-

(1) Supression of Gonadotrophin

(2) Hypersecretion of Gonadotrophin
(3) High level of Progesterone
(4) Hyposecretion of prolactin

5) If male is impotent and female is normal then which of the following technique can be used?

(1) ICSI
(2) ZIFT
(3) GIFT
(4) A.I.

6) Classification of algae is mainly based upon :-

(1) Composition of cell wall

(2) Chemical nature of store food
(3) Type of pigments
(4) Habitat

7) Biochemical analysis of pyrenoids in algae would reveal the presence of :-

(1) sugars and phospholipids

(2) protein & starch
(3) RNA & starch
(4) protein & phosphates

8) As we go from kingdom to species in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics:

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

9) In which of the following sexual reproduction is of oogamous type and accompained by complex
post fertilization development :-
(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Polysiphonia
(4) Ectocarpus

10) Which of the following property is similar in both mesosomes and chromatophores :-

(1) Presence of photosynthetic pigment

(2) N2-fixation
(3) Both are membranous extensions
(4) Respiration

11) Protistans are :-

(1) Always unicellular eukaryotes

(2) Non flagellated always
(3) Only sexually reproducing
(4) Only asexually reproducing

12) In the five Kingdom- classification Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed :-

(1) Protista
(2) Plantae
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi

13) Consider the following structure of ds DNA and identify I, II, III and IV :-

I II III IV

Phosphoester
(1) Sugar Adenine H bond
bond

(2) Guanine Sugar Phosphate Adenine

N-glycosidic
(3) Sugar Guanine H bond
bond

N-glycosidic
(4) Sugar Thymine H bond
bond
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Assertion : If one strand of DNA is known then the sequence in other strand can be predicted.
Reason : Both chains are complementary of each other in DNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.

15)

If a percentage of adenine is 18%, then percentage of 5-methyl uracil is -

(1) 0%
(2) 18%
(3) 36%
(4) 64%
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 3 4 1 4 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 1 3 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 1 2 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 1 2 2 1 4 3 2 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 3 1 4 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 3 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 2 2 1 1 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 2 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 4 4 4 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 2 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 1 1 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Here, m = 5 kg, u = 5 ms–1, v = 10 ms–1,

t = 10s
Using v = u + at

a= = 0.5 ms–2
As F = ma
∴ F = (5 kg) (0.5 ms–2) = 2.5 N

2)

FBD of 20 kg

N–20g = 20(1.5)
N = 230 Newton

3) aA = g/2
aB = g

4)

a = μg = 0.2 × 10 = 2 m/s2

5)

6)
a=

N – 3 = 1(a)
⇒ N=4

7)

mg = µN = µ(10) = 2

8)

T cos θ = mg and T sinθ = ma

From these two equations we get,

a = g tanθ = g tan 30° =

9)

= 187.5 kg/s

10) For minimum value of F for block will start moving F = fS ⇒ 4t = µN ⇒ 4t = µmg

⇒ t= ⇒t= = 10 sec

11)

loss in P.E. = gain in K.E.

mgh = gain in K.E.
2 × 10 × 5 = gain in K.E.
100 J = gain in K.E.

12)

When particle moves away from the origin then at position x = x1 force is zero and at x > x1 force is
positive (repulsive in nature) so particle moves further and does not return back to original position.
i.e. the equilibirum is not stable.
Similarly at position x = x2 = force is zero and at x > x2, force is negative (attractive in nature)
So particle return back to original position i.e., the equilibirum is stable.
 13)

p′ = p + 20% p = p +

∴
∴ % increase in K.E.

= ×100

14)

Since P' = n3P

∵ n=3 ∴ P' = 27P

15) W = (Area)1 – (Area)2

W = × (3 + 1) × 10 – × (2 + 1) × 10
=5J

16) B = μ0nI

Bend =

18)
Baxis = B0sin3θ

54 =
B0 = 250 µT

19)

0
B = µ NI = = 5 cm

=
= 4 × 10–7 × 100 × 100 = 4 × 10–3
= 4mT

20)
Bwire = Bcircle

21)
x = 3R
R = 4R

22)

We shall use where I is the current enclosed by loop

Net current enclosed by path a is zero.
Net current enclosed by path c is 1A.
Net current enclosed by path d is 3A.
Net current enclosed by path b is 5A.

23)
BP = 0
B1 = B2

∴ y= x
Here I1 = 2I I2 = 4I

Slope M =

24) B =
∵ x >> R

∴ B∝

B∝

25)
 tan30° =

∴ x=

∴ B=
Put a = 3 I =

26) Bw =

27) 10 β1 =

∴ μ = 20/11 ≃ 1.8

28) B =

32)

33)

Interference is possible both in light and sound waves.

34) I = I + I + 2I cos Δϕ

cosΔϕ = ⇒ Δϕ =

35)

36)
 VAcos60° = VBcos60° ⇒ VA = VB

37)

F = M(g + a) = 5 × 0.1 (10 + 5) = 7.5 N

for top link F – F1 = m(g + a)
⇒ F1 = 7.5 – 0.1(15) = 6 N

FBD of top link

38)

acc. of system

and T =

and

∴ W.D. by T = – T × S =

39)

Wall = ΔK
Wg + Wf = Kf – Ki As v is constant,
(mg sinθ) (10) + Wf = 0
Wf = –10 (mg sin30)

Wf = –10 × 1 × 10 × = –50 J

40) Work done by external agency = change in potential energy

Work done by conservative force,

W = – Wext = –3 k.

41)

Magnetic field at P is , perpendicular to OP in the direction shown in figure.

So,

Here
 and

∴
[as r2 = x2 + y2]

42)

Let r be the radius of new arc

∴ r (2π – θ) = L or r =
∴ Magnetic field at centre O is

B=

43)

B2 & B3 will cancel out

∵ r = a cos 30° =

Bp = B1 =

44)

Bp = 2B cos30°

=2

45) Point is on axis at distance = 4 cm

radius = 3 cm

B=

46)
(here slit separation is 2d)
 48)

50)

Position of 8th Bright fringe = ,

Position of 3rd dark fringe =

=
Separation between 8 and 3rd fringes
th

= 1.76 × 10–3 m

CHEMISTRY

53)

62)

Rate of dehydration ∝ stability of carbocation.

 63)

In dehydrohalogenation,
Cl, Br, I → gives Saytzeff product
F → gives Hoffman product

64)
At 25°C neutral pH = 7
above 25°C Neutral pH < 7

65) That ion hydrolyse which comes from weak acid or weak base.

66) It is AB2 type salt Ksp = 4s3

67) (1) WA + C.B buffer

(2) NH4Cl + KOH → NH4OH buffer
0.2 0.1
(3) SA + its salt (No buffer)
(4) Salt of WA + WB (buffer)

68) H3PO4, CH3COOH = Weak acid.

69)
70)

71) C is wrong

72)

73) odd ion effect

74) (Ka)over all = Ka1 × Ka2

75) for very dilute solution (10–7, 10–8, 10–9 M) we must add (H+) and (OH–) from water also
so pH of acid between 6 to 7
pH of base between 7 to 8

76) Solubility

77) H : O
12 : 4
12 H ------- 4 oxygen

1 -------

6 ------- =2

78) M.wt = = 1 + x + 32
X = 35.5

79) X : Y

1 :

81)

82) C3H8 → 3CO2

x 3x
 C4H10 → 4CO2
(3-x) 4(3-x)
3x + 4 (3 – x) = 11
∴x=1

83) 0.33 =
x=4

84) Mass of 1 molecule of water =

= 3 × 10–23 g
d = 1g/ml ⇒ mass (g) = volume (ml)
V1molecule = 3 × 10–23 ml

85) C : H : O
wt. 38.71 9.6 51.62
mol. 3.22 9.6 3.22
CH3O

86) Rate of EAR stability of C⊕

87)

β-keto acids are easily decarboxylated

91) [SA + Salt of same acid] no buffer

92) Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CrO42–]

1.1 × 10–12 = (0.1)2 s'
⇒ s' = 1.1 × 10–10

94)

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
At t=0 1 atm 0
At eqm. (1–0.5)atm (2 × 0.5)atm

KP = = 2 atm

95)

A + 2B 2C
t = 0 mole 2 2 0
t = teq 1.5 1 1
 96)

N2O4 2NO2
At t=0 1 mol 0
At eqm. 1–x 2x
Total moles at equilibrium = 1 + x

KP = 0.66
or 0.66 – 0.66x2 = 2x2
2.66 x2 = 0.66

x2 = = 0.25
or x = 0.5

97) M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3

98)

99) 3CaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl

0.30 0.20 - -
x x 0.1

100) = 1g/ml
18ml = 18g = 1 mole

BIOLOGY-I

102)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 156

104)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 156

107)
NCERT (E) Pg. # 149

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270, 271

118)

NCERT Pg.#271/272

120)

NCERT Pg. # 270

121)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 283

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 279, para-2,3

125)

NCERT Pg. # 284, 285

126)

NCERT Pg. # 286, 287 (18.4 & 18.5)

128) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 301

139)

NCERT-XI, Page # 274

142)

NCERT XI, Page # 275, IIIrd para

144)

NCERT (XI) Page No. # 284

147)

NCERT, Pg # 288

BIOLOGY-II

153)

NCERT-P.No. 53
 166) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

167)

NCERT Pg. # 27, Figure-2.6

168)

NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 24

172)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 21, para 2.2.4

173)

NCERT XIth Pg# 24

174) Module No.1, Pg # 52

175)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 26

187) Ref. NCERT XII fig. 3.8 (a) Pg.# 49 (E)

195)

NCERT XI(E) Page No. # 129

196)

NCERT XI Pg. # 20, 2.2

199)

NCERT Pg. # 97