CHAPTER 1

(A) NCERT QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS

1. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophyte take place.
Ans. Development of male and female gametophytes takes place in anther and ovary Respectively.
2. Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division
occurs during these events? Name the structures formed at the end of these two events.
Ans. S.No Microsporogenesis Megasporogenesis
1 In this process, haploid microspore are In this process, haploid megaspore are
formed from diploid mother cell or pollen formed from diploid mother cell
mother cells (MMC or PMC). (MMC).
2 It occurs inside the microsporangium or It occurs inside the nucellus of ovule or
pollen sac of an anther. megasporangium.
3 There are many microspore mother cells in a There are generally a single megaspore
microsporangium. mother cell in a megasporangium.
4 The four microspore formed from a single The four megaspore formed from a
microspore mother cell are generally megaspore mother cells are arranged in
arranged in a tetrahedral structure. the form of a linear tetrad.
5 All the four mircrospore arranged in a Only one megaspore remains functional
tetrahedral tetrad are functional. while the other three degenerates.
6 The microspores give rise to male The functional megaspore gives rise to
gametophytes. female gametophytes.
Meiosis occurs during micro and megasporogenesis. Microspores (pollen grains) are formed at
the end of microsporogenesis and female gametophyte (embryo sac) are formed at the end of
megasporogenesis.
3. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence: pollen grain,
sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Ans. Sporogenous tissue - Pollen mother cell - Microspore tetrad - Pollen grain - Male gametes
4. With a neat, Labelled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule.
Ans. Structure of megasporangium.

Raphe Chalaza
Nucellus
Outer integument
Inner integument
Antipodals
Polar nuclei
Egg apparatus
Nucellus
Micropyle
Funicle
Fig:- Structure of megasporangium
5. What is meant by monosporic development of a female gametophyte?
Ans. Out of the four megaspores, three degenerate and only one remains functional which develops
into a female gametophyte or embryo sac. This is called monosporic development i.e. when
embryo sac develops from one single megaspore it is called monosporic embryo sac.
6. With a neat diagram and explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate nature of the female
gametophyte. [IMP.]
Ans. Female gametophyte or embryo sac is a small oval structure that contains a 3-celled egg
apparatus, 3 antipodal cells and one binucleate central cell hence it is 7 - celled and 8 - nucleate
structure.
(a) Egg apparatus: It consists of two synergids and an egg cell towards the micropylar end. The
cells of egg apparatus are uninucleate. Synergids towards its micropylar end have cellular
thickenings called filiform apparatus that helps in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergids
(b) Antipodal cells: Chalazal end of embryo sac contain three cells of various shapes and sizes
called antipodal cells.
(c) Central cell: It is the single and largest cell which is bounded by a membrane of embryo sac.
It contains two polar nuclei which later fuse to form diploid secondary nucleus. After
fertilisation the central cell gets converted into triploid primary endosperm cell (PEC) which
forms endosperm.

Chalazal end
Antipodals

Polar nuclei
Central cell
Egg
nuclei

Synergids

Filiform
apparatus
Micropylar end
A Mature Embryo-Sac

7. What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers?

Give reasons in your answer.
Ans. Chasmogamous flowers are open flowers with exposed stamens and stigma which facilitate
cross pollination.
No cross-pollination occurs in cleistogamous flowers as these flowers are closed and never
open and thus no transfer of pollen from outside to stigma of the flower is possible.
8. Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
Ans. (i) Maturation of anthers and stigma at different time periods in a bisexual flower prevents self
pollination (dichogamy).
(ii) Production of unisexual flowers.
9. What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in
self-incompatible species?
Ans. Self-incompatibility or self sterility is the inability of an intersexual or bisexual plant to produce
viable seeds on self-pollination in spite of producing functional male and female gametes. Since
fertilization does not take place, no seeds are produced. It is a genetic mechanism that prevents
self pollen from fertilizing ovules by inhibiting pollen tube growth in pistil.
10. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant breeding Programme.
Ans. It is the covering of female plant with butter paper germ to avoid their contamination from
foreign pollens during breeding programme.
11. What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in triple
fusion.
Ans. Triple fusion is fusion of one male gamete and two polar nuclei (or secondary nucleus if the two
have already fused) in the central cell of embryo sac to form primary endosperm nucleus. It takes
place in the central cell of an embryo sac. Three nuclei are involved in triple fusion i.e. nuclei in
the central cell one male nucleus and two polar nuclei in the central cell.
12. Why do you think the zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilised ovule?
Ans. The zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilised ovule because the embryo which is developed
from zygote may obtain from endosperm.
13. Differentiate between: [IMP.]
(a) hypocotyl and epicotyl; (b) coleoptile and (Coleorhiza)
(c) integument and testa; (d) perisperm and pericarp
Ans. (a) hypocotyl and epicotyl
S.No. Hypocotyl Epicotyle
1. The region of the embryonal axis that The region of the embryonal axis that lies
lies between the radical and the point of between the plumule and cotyledons is
attachment of cotyledons is called as called as epicotyle.
hypocotyle.
2. Hypocotyle pushes the seed above the Epicotyle pushes the plumule above the
soil in epigeal germination. soil in hypogeal germination.
3. It is an important component of It is an important component of embryonic
embryonic root system. shoot system.
(b) coleoptile and coleorhiza
S.No. Coleoptile Coleorhiza
1. The shoot apex and few leaf Primordia The radical and root cap are sitiated at the
are enclosed in a hollow foliar structure lower end of embryonal axis are enclosed
in epicotyl region in monocots and is by undifferentiated sheath called
called coleoptiles. coleorhiza.
2. It emerges from the soil turns green It remains in the soil and is non green in
and carries out photosynthesis. colour.
 (c) integument and testa
S.No. Integument Testa
1. It is part of pre-fertilization events. It is part of post-fertilization events.
2. It is the protective covering of the ovule It is the protective outer covering of the
may differentiate into inner and outer seed formed from outer integument.
integument.
3. It is thin and living in nature. It is thick and dead in nature.
(d) perisperm and pericarp
S.No. Perisperm Pericarp
1. It represent persistent remains of nucellus in It represent the wall of fruit formed
the seed. by the ovarian wall.
2. It is a part that belongs to seed. It is a part that belongs to fruit.
3. It is usually dry. It can be dry or fleshy.
14. Why is apple called a false fruit? Which part (s) of the flower forms the fruit?
Ans. False fruits are those fruits in which accessory floral parts also contribute to fruit formation. In
apple, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. Therefore, it is called a false fruit. The
fruit develops from the ovary of the flower.
15. What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ this
technique? [IMP.]
Ans. Emasculation is a practice of removal of stamens/anthers before the anther dehiscence from
bisexual flowers in female parent. A plant breeder employs this technique in the immature bud
condition before the anthers begin to differentiate. It is required to prevent self-pollination.
Uses in plant breeding :
(i) Prevention of contamination and pollination of stigma of female flowers with foreign
undesirable pollens.
(ii) Prevention of damage by animals.
16. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits
would you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Ans. Only fleshy fruits like orange watermelon, lemon, etc. should be selected as parthenocarpic fruit.
Here seeds of fruits are irritant during consumption of seeds the fruits even more valuable. It is
easy to make fruit juices, jams, etc. with seedless fruits.
17. Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen-grain wall.
Ans. Tapetum is the innermost wall layer of a microsporangium. It nourishes the developing pollen
grains and also help in the formation of wall of pollen grains. The cells of tapetum secrete Ubisch
granules that provide sporopollenin and other materials for exine formation.
18. What is apomixis and what is its importance?
Ans. Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction to form seeds
without fertilisation. In apomictic seeds parental characters are maintained in the
progeny/offspring as there is no meiosis or segregation of characters. If desired hybrid seeds are
made apomictics the farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds to rise new crops year after year.
 (B) PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. Select the option that shows the correctly identified 'U', 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' in a developing dicot
embryo. [CBSE 2023]

X
Z

Y
U

(1) X-Plumule (2n), Y-Suspensor (n), Z-Cotyledon (2n), U-Radicle (2n).

(2) X-Plumule (2n), Y-Suspensor (2n), Z-Radicle (2n), U-Cotyledon (2n).
(3) X-Suspensor (2n), Y-Cotyledon (2n), Z-Radicle (2n), U-Plumule (2n).
(4) X-Cotyledon (2n), Y-Radicle (n), Z-Plumule (n), U-Suspensor (n).
Ans. (3) X-Suspensor (2n), Y-Cotyledon (2n), Z-Radicle (2n), U-Plumule (2n).
2. (i) Explain the monosporic development of embryo sac in the ovule of an angiosperm.
(ii) Draw a diagram of the mature embryo sac of an angiospermic ovule and label any
four parts in it. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (i) The process of formation of megaspores from megaspore mother cell (MMC) is called
megasporogenesis.
 The four haploid megaspores are generally arranged in linear tetrad.
 In a majority of flowering plants the lower most or chalazal megaspore remains functional
out of four megaspores and the other three which lie towards the micropyle degenerate.
 The functional megaspore produces female gametophyte (embryo sac).
 This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic
development.
(ii)
Chalazal end
Antipodals

Polar nuclei
Central cell
Egg

Synergids

Filiform
apparatus
Micropylar end
A Mature Embryo-Sac
3. One of the major approaches of crop improvement programme is Artific .
Explain the steps involved in making sure that only the desired pollen grain pollinate the
stigma of a bisexual flower by a plant breeder. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme. In such
crossing experiments it is important to make sure that only the desired pollen grains are used for
pollination and the stigma is protected from contamination (from unwanted pollen).
This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques.
 If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before
the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as
emasculation.
 Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size, generally made up of
butter paper, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is
called bagging.
 When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from
anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and the
fruits allowed to develop.
4. The hilum in a typical angiospermic ovule represents the junction between:-
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Integuments and the embryo sac. (2) Embryo sac and the nucellus
(3) Body of the ovule and the funicle (4) Nucellus and the fumicle
Ans. (3) Body of the ovule and the funicle
5. In the given diagram of a transverse section of a young anther. Choose the labellings showing the
correct placement of the wall layers from the table given below. [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(iii)
(ii)

(iv)

(i)

(i) (ii) (ii) (iii)

(1) Epidermis Middle layers Tapetum Endothecium
(2) Tapetum Endothecium Epidermis Middle layers
(3) Endothecium Tapetum Middle layers Epidermis
(4) Middle layers Epidermis Endothecium Tapetum
Ans. (2) (i) Tapetum (ii)Endothecium (iii)Epidermis (iv) Middle layers
6. The term used for the embryo entering into the state of inactivity as the seed mature is:-
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Quiescent (2) Parthenogenesis (3) Parthenocarpy (4) Dormancy
Ans. (4) Dormancy
7. The ploidy of the apomictic embryo developed from the integument cells and megaspore mother
cell without reduction division respectively will be:– [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 2 n and 2n (2) n and n (3) 2n and n (4) 3n and 2n
Ans. (1) 2 n and 2n
8. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a mature embryo sac of a t
plant. [CBSE Term-I 2022]
Choose the option showing the correct labellings for the parts W, X, Y and Z from the table
given below.
(X)

(Z)

(Y)

(W)

W X Y Z
(1) Micropylar end Antipodals Synergids Central cell
(2) Chalazal end Antipodals Central cell Synergids
(3) Micropylar end Synergids Central cell Antipodals
(4) Chalazal end Synergids Central cell Antipodals
Ans. (1) (W) Micropylar end (X) Antipodals (Y) Synergids (Z) Central cell
9. Given below is a figure of an angiosperm plant showing two different types of flowers 'X' and 'Y'
and the possible type of pollination in them: [CBSE Term-I 2022]

(X)

(Y)

Select the correct option for the flower (X) and flower (Y) and the possible type of pollination
from the given table:
Flower X Flower Y
(1) Chasmogamous, assured seed set Cleistogamous, cross pollination
(2) Cleistogamous self/cross pollination Chasmogamous, assured seed set
(3) Chasmogamous self/cross pollination Cleistogamous, self-pollination
(4) Cleistogamous self-pollination only Chasmogamous, cross pollination only
Ans. (3) Flower X - Chasmogamous self/cross pollination
Flower Y - Cleistogamous, self-pollination
10. An undifferentiated sheath covering the root cap of a monocotyledonous embryo is:
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Scutellum (2) Coleorhiza (3) Coleoptile (4) Epiblast
Ans. (2) Coleorhiza
11. Why does endosperm development precede embryo development? [CBS ]
Ans. The cells of endosperm are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the
developing embryo.
12. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 76 seeds in a Guava fruit?
[CBSE IMP-Question]
Ans. 95
13. How does pollination take place in water hyacinth and water lily? [CBSE IMP-Question]
Ans. In water hyacinth and water lily, the flowers emerge above the level of water and are pollinated
by insects or wind as in most of the land plants.
14. Self-pollination is fully ensured if [CBSE 2020]
(1) The flower is bisexual. (2) The style is longer that the filament.
(3) The flower is cleistogamous. (4) The time of pistil and anther maturity is different.
Ans. (3)
15. Draw a schematic transverse section of a mature anther of an angiosperm. Label its
epidermis, middle layers, tapetum, endothecium, sporogenous tissue and the connective.
[CBSE 2018,20]
Ans.
Epidermis

Endothecium
Connective Middle layers
Epidermis
Endothecium Microspore
Sporogenous mother cells
tissue
Tapetum
Middle layers Tapetum

(A) T.S of young anther (B) Enlarged view of one microsporangium

16. Differentiate between wind pollinated and insect pollinated flowers. [CBSE 2020]
Ans.
Wind Pollinated Insect Pollinated
Wind Pollinated flowers do not Insect Pollinated flowers are rich in nectar
have nectar. to attract insects.
The petals are dull and does not The petals of these flowers are very
attract the insects. colourful and attractive.
They do not have any scent. The scent of these flowers are another factor
that attracts insects.
The pollen grains are non-sticky, The pollen grains are sticky.
light.
Stigma is feathery, to catch the Stigma is non-feathery and sticky.
pollen grain.
17. Some flowers, selected for artificial hybridization, do not require emasculation b
essential for them. Give a reason. [CBSE 2019]
Ans. As some flowers are unisexual, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen
grains.
18. Write any two ways by which apomictic seeds may be developed in angiosperms.
[CBSE 2019]
Ans. Develops from a diploid egg cell (formed without reduction division) which grows into an
embryo without fertilization.
Develops from nuclear cell which divides and protrudes into the embryo sac and develops
into an embryo
19. Draw a labeled diagram of a mature male gametophyte of an angiosperm. [CBSE 2019]
Ans.

Exine
Intine Nucleus
Nucleus
Vegetative
cell Germ Pore

Generative
cell
Mature male gametophyte

20. Draw a diagram of L.S. of an embryo of grass and label any six parts. [CBSE 2019]
Ans.

Scutellum

Coleoptile

Shoot apex

Epiblast

Radicle
Root cap
Coleorhiza

L.S. of an embryo of grass

21. (a) Draw a diagram of Pistil showing pollen tube growth in angiosperm and label
(i) Stigma (ii) male gametes (iii) micropyle and (iv) Ovule.
(b) Write the function of micropyle. [CBSE 2018]
Ans. (a)
 STIGMA

OVULE

MICROPYLE
MALE GAMETES

(b) The pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle, it facilitates the entry of oxygen and
water for seed germination.

22. State one difference and one similarity between geitonogamy and xenogamy. [CBSE 2018]

Ans. Difference - In geitonogamy pollen grains from one flower are transferred to the stigma of anther
flower on the same plant whereas in xenogamy the pollen grains are transferred to the stigma of a
flower on another plant (of the same species) genetically similar, genetically different.

Similarity - In both types of pollination pollen grains from the anther are transferred to the
stigma of another flower of the same species.

23. Explain any three devices developed in flowering plants to discourage self pollination and
encourage cross pollination. [CBSE 2018]

Ans. Pollen release & stigma receptivity not synchronised / hence the maturity of stigma and pollen
are different /Protandry / Protogyny- Anther and Stigma are placed at different positions so that
pollen cannot come in contact with stigma of the same flower.

Self incompatibility/ Self sterility.

Production of unisexual flowers.

24. Write one advantage and one disadvantage of cleistogamy to flowering plants. [CBSE 2018]

Ans. Advantage - Assured seed set / maintain purelines.

Disadvantage - No variation / only parental characters are preserved / it can lead to inbreeding
depression

25. If the meiocyte of a maize plant contains 20 chromosomes, write the number of
chromosomes in the endosperm and embryo of the maize grain and give reasons in support
of your answer. [CBSE 2018]
Ans. Endosperm = 30, Embryo = 20

Diploid meiocyte (20 chromosomes) form haploid gametes (10 chromosomes) Two haploid
gametes fuse to form diploid (20) zygote which develops into a (diploid = 20) embryo / syngamy
of two haploid gametes to form a diploid zygote.

One haploid gamete (chromosome 10) fuses with two polar nuclei (chromosome 10 + 10) to form
(triploid - 30) endosperm nuclei (which divides to form endosperm) / Triple fusion of three
haploid nuclei (1 gamete + 2 polar nuclei) to form a triploid endosperm.

26. (a) Describe the process of microsporogenesis upto the formation of a microspore.

(b) Write the function of 'germ pore' in a pollen grain of an angiosperm. [CBSE 2018]

Ans. (a) The process of formation of microspore from a pollen mother cell by meiosis is called
micro sporogenesis.

Each cell of the sprogenous tissue in microsporangium acts as potential PMC (Pollen mother
cell/ or micro sporemother cell.)

PMC under goes meiotic divisions to form cluster of four cells called microspore tetrad.

On maturity, the anther dehydrates and the microspores separate from each other to form
pollen grains.

Sporogenous tissue Microspore mother cell microspore tetrad

(b) Germ pores allow the germinating / growing pollen tube with contents of the pollen grain/
male gametes + vegetative cell to come out of the pollen grains
 (C) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A typical angiosperm anther is _________ and _________.
(1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate (2) Bilobed, monosporangiate
(3) Bilobed, bisporangiate (4) Tetralobed, monosporangiate
Ans. (1) Bilobed, Tetrasporangiate
2. The innermost wall layer of anther
(1) Is nutritive in function (2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(3) Is haploid and protective in function (4) Forms microspores
Ans. (1) Is nutritive in function
3. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell is called
(1) Megasporogenesis (2) Microsporogenesis
(3) Megagametogenesis (4) Microgametogenesis
Ans. (2) Microsporogenesis
4. The pollen grain represents
(1) Male gamete (2) Male gametophyte
(3) Microsporophyll (4) Microsporangium
Ans. (2) Male gametophyte
5. The most resistant organic material known which makes up the outermost layer of pollen wall is
(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose (3) Sporopollenin (4) Lignin
Ans. (3) Sporopollenin
6. The ploidy level of nucellus and female gametophyte respectively is
(1) n, n (2) n, 2n (3) 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n
Ans. (3) 2n,n
7. The number of nuclei in a mature embryo sac are
(1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Six (4) Four
Ans. (1) Eight
8. The largest cell of the mature embryo sac is
(1) Antipodal cells (2) Synergids (3) Central cell (4) Egg cell
Ans. (3) Central cell
9. The structures which guide the pollen tube into synergid is
(1) Antipodals (2) Germ pore (3) Aril (4) Filiform apparatus
Ans. (4) Filiform apparatus
10. Geitonogamy is
(1) Genetically autogamous (2) Ecologically autogamous
(3) Genetically allogamous (4) Functionally autogamous
A lly autogamous
11. Which of the following plant provides safe place to insect for laying eggs?
(1) Sage plant (2) Amorphophallus (3) Ophrys (4) Mango
Ans. (2) Amorphophallus
12. Production of seed without fertilization is called
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Parthenogenesis (3) Apomixis (4) Apogamy
Ans. (3) Apomixis
13. Examples of water pollinated flowers are
(1) Zostera, Lotus, Water lily (2) Lotus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(3) Potamogeton, Vallisneria, Lotus (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
Ans. (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
14. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the
(1) PEC (2) PEN (3) Endosperm (4) Embryo
Ans. (1) PEC
15. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the function of the germ pore.
(1) It allows growth of pollen tube (2) It allows water absorption in seed
(3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain (4) More than one option is correct
Ans. (1) It allows growth of pollen tube
16. The thin and continuous wall layer of pollen is
(1) Exine (2) Intine (3) Germ pore (4) Endothecium
Ans. (2) Intine
17. The two-celled stage of mature pollen grain consists of
(1) Vegetative cell, generative cell (2) Vegetative cell, one male gamete
(3) Two male gametes (4) Generative cell, one male gamete
Ans. (1) Vegetative cell, generative cell
18. In 40% angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at
(1) Four-celled stage (2) Three-celled stage (3) Two-celled stage (4) Five-celled stage
Ans. (2) Three-celled stage
19. Pollen allergy is caused by pollens of
(1) Rose (2) Clematis (3) Parthenium (4) Sunflower
Ans. (3) Parthenium
20. The pollen viability period of rice and pea respectively, is
(1) 30 minutes and several months (2) Several months and 30 minutes
(3) Few days and few months (4) Few days in both the cases
Ans. (1) 30 minutes and several months
 (D) ASSERTION – REASON QUESITONS
 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophytic cells.
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens.
Ans (4)
2. Assertion: Gynoecium consists of pistil.
Reason: It represents the male reproductive part in flowering plants.
Ans (3)
3. Assertion: Flowers are the structures related to sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Reason: Various embryological processes of plants occur in a flower.
Ans (1)
4. Assertion: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is generally surrounded by four wall
layers.
Reason: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of
anther to release the pollen.
Ans (2)
5. Assertion: Exine of a pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin which are resistant to high
temperatures, strong acids or alkali as well as enzymatic degradation.
Reason: Sporopollenins are absent in the region of germ pores.
Ans (2)
6. Assertion: An angiospermous flower represents the modified condensed shoot which performs
the functions of sexual reproduction.
Reason: The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophylls and
magasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers respectively.
Ans (3)
7. Assertion: In angiosperms, the male gametophyte is the pollen grain.
Reason: Pollen grain contains stigma, style and ovary.
Ans (3)
8. Assertion: Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of microspores from tetrad.
Reason: It shows callose activity.
Ans (1)
9. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid gametes.
Reason: Megaspore mother cell is 2n, meiosis gives haploid structure.
Ans (1)
10. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic division.
Reason: All four megaspores form female gametophyte.
A
 (E) VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. The diploid number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 16. What will be the
number of chromosomes in its endosperm and antipodal cells ?

Ans. Endosperm - 24 chromosomes, Antipodals - 8 chromosomes.

2. State the reason why pollen grains lose their viability when the tapetum in the anther
malfunctioning.

Ans. Lack of nourishment for the developing pollen grain due to malfunctional tapetum.

3. Can a plant flowering in Mumbai be pollinated by pollen grains of the same species
growing in New Delhi ? Provide explanations to your answer.

Ans. Yes, By artificial means (any relevant explanation)

4. How many microsporangia are present in a typical anther of an angiosperm?

Ans. Four

5. Name the part of the flower which the tassels of the corn-cob represent.

Ans. Style and stigma.

6. Write the function of coleoptile.

Ans. It protects the plumule of the monocot embryo.

7. Name the part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen grain.

Ans. Stigma

8. What is shield-shaped single cotyledon of monocots called?

Ans. Scutellum

9. Who discovered double fertilisation in agiosperms?

Ans. S.G. Nawaschin (1897) discovered double fertilisation in angiosperms.

10. Name a plant is which dichogamy is found.

Ans. Magnolia
 (F) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. How do plants produce seeds through apomixis?
Ans.
Megaspore mother Free nuclear division
Nucellus (2n) Mitosis cell (2n) Embryo sac (2n)

Seed (2n) Embryo (2n) Without fertilization Egg cell (2n)

2. Why do moss plants produce very large numbers of male gametes? Provide one reason.
What are these gametes called?
Ans. To ensure the fertilization of egg cell, because it depend on water. High numbers of male
gametes confirm the continuity of life. These gametes are called as antherozoid.
3. Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen –grain wall.
Ans. The tapetum forms ubsich bodies sporollenin, which participate in the formation of outer hard
layer of pollen grain, called exine. Tapetum also deposits compatibility proteins in exine as well
as pollen –kitt in insect pollinated pollen grains.
4. Geitonogamous flowering plants are genetically autogamous but functionally pollinated.
Justify.
Ans. In these plants male and female flowers are present on same plant but different branches.
Pollination occur in between these male and female flowers by medium. So, functionally cross
pollination. Genetically pollen grain belongs to the same plant so it is genetically autogamous.
5. Differentiate between Parthenocarpy and Parthenogenesis. Give one example of each.
Ans. S.No. Parthenocarpy Parthenogenesis
1 Formation of fruit without fertilization New organism develops without fertilization
2 -e.g. banana / grapes / any other e.g. Drones /rotifers/male honey bee / turkey
6. A single pea plant in your kitchen garden produces pods with viable seeds, but the
individual papaya plant does not. Explain.
Ans. Pea- flowers of pea plants are bisexual, monoecious / self pollinated (to produce pods with
viable seeds)
Papaya- Dioecious plant / unisexual plant bearing male and female flowers on separate plants,
unable to produce viable seeds as there is no cross pollination / it could be a male plant which is
unable to produce fruit and seeds
 (G) LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. As a senior biology student you have been asked to demonstrate to the students of
secondary level in you school, the procedure(s) that shall ensure cross-pollination in a
hermaphrodite flower. List the different steps that you would suggest and provide reasons
for each one of them.

Ans. The following steps would be followed :

(i) Emasculation or removal of anthers from the flower bud, before the anther dehisce, to avoid
self pollination.
(ii) Bagging, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen grains.
(iii)Rebagging, the stigma of the mature ovary are dustred with desired pollen grains and
rebagged to allow the fruit to develop.
2. (a) Why both wind water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce
nector.
(b) How do flowers reward their insect pollinators? Explain.
(c) Write the characteristics feature of anther, pollen and stigma of wind pollinated flowers.
Ans. (a) Because there pollinator are abiotic (water and wind) so that do not required any substrate
for attraction of water and wind.
(b) Insect pollinators are rewarded in following ways:
• The flowers offer floral reward like nector and pollen grain.
• In some species floral reward provided safe place to laying egg.
(c) The characteristics of wind pollinated flowers are:
• Pollen grains are light in weight, non sticky, dry and winged, so that they can be easily
transported.
• Well –exposed stamens for easy dispersal of pollen grains in the wind.
• The stigma is sticky, large, feathery to trap the pollen grains in air.
• Numerous flower are packed together to form inflorescence.
• The flowers are small and inconspicuous.
3. A flower of brinjal plant following the process of sexual reproduction procedure 360 viable
seeds. Answer the following questions giving a reasons :
(a) How many ovule minimally involved?
(b) How many megaspore mother cells are involved?
(c) What is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land on stigma for
pollination?
(d) How many male gametes are involves in the above case?
(e) How many microspore mother cells must have undergone reduction division prior to
dehiscence of anther in the above case?
Ans. (a) 360 ovules are involved. One ovule after fertilization forms one seed.

(b) 360 MMC. Each MMC form four megaspore out of which only one remains functional.
(c) 360 pollen grains .One pollen grains participate in fertilization of one ovule.
(d) 720 male gametes are involved. Each pollen grains carries two male gametes (which
participate in double fertilization) (360 × 2 = 720)
(e) 90 MMC undergoes reduction division. Each microspore mother cells meiotically divided to
form four pollen grains. (360 / 4 = 90)
4. Describe the process of megasporogenesis upto fully developed embryo sac formation in an
angiosperm.
Ans. A single large cell of nucellus with dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus differentiated as
megaspore mother cell (MMC), in the micropylar region, the megaspore mother cell undergoes
meiosis to form 4 megaspores, 3 cells degenerates and one is functional. Functional megaspore
undergoes three successive mitotic divisions, to develop 8 nucleated (7 celled) embryo sac,
(3 antipodals, one egg cell (female gamete), 2 synergids, two polar nuclei.)

For the above explanation the following diagram can be considered

Micropylar end Micropylar end Micropylar end

Nucellus Nucellus

Megaspore
Megaspore Megasporedyad tetrad
mother cell

(a)
Micropylar end Chalazal end
Antipodals

Synergids
Eggs
Central
cell Polar nuclei
2 polar Central cell
nuclei Egg
Antipodals
Synergids
(a)
Filiform
Micropylar end apparatus
(c)

(a) - Parts of the ovule showing a large megaspore mother cell to tetrad

(b) - 2, 4 and 8 nucleate of embryo sac and mature embryo sac

(c) A diagrammatic representation of the mature embryo sac

 (H) CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
1. Study the following and answer the questions given below :
Study the given case carefully related to the gametogenesis in angiosperm plants and given the
answer of asked questions.

"Y" "Z"
v v
"X" Cell

(i) Out the right labelling for X, Y and Z into given process of gametogenesis.

Ans. (i) X - megaspore mother cell

Y - Megaspore tetrad

Z - Polar nuclei

(ii) How many meiotic and mitotic division are required for complete given gametogenesis

process?

Ans. Meiotic and 3 Mitotic division

(iii) How many nucleus and cells are present in a typical mature angiosperm endosperm?

Ans. 8 nucleus, 7 cells

(iv) State the function of filiform apparatus found in mature embryo sac of an angiosperm.

Ans. Guiding the entry of pollen tubes up to the synergids.

2. Study the following and answer the questions given below:

The given below are types of pollination, study it and given the answer of asked question.
Subject-1 Subject-2
Method-"X" Method-"Y"

Plant-A Plant-B
Plant-A
(i) What are appropriate terms for method X and Y of subject-1 and subject-2 re
Ans. (i) X  Geitonogamy, Y Xenogamy,
(ii) Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy.
Ans.
Geitonogamy Xenogamy
Transfer of pollen grains Transfer of pollen grains from
from anther of one flower anther of one flower to stigma
to the stigma of another of another flower of
flower on "Same Plant". a. different plant.
(iii) Out of many Papaya plants growing in your garden, any a few bear fruits. Give reason.
Ans. The individual papaya plant is prevented from both autogamy and geitonogamy. In this plants
male and female flowers are present on different plants, eg.,  each plants is either male or
female.
(iv) If the plant - A and plant - B are belong from the grass family, than which of the following
will be work as pollination agent?
Ans. Wind
3. Read the following and answer the questions given below:
The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower. The gynoecium may
consist of a single or more than one pistil. They may be fused or may be free. The placenta is
located inside the ovarian cavity. Megasporangium (ovule) consists of a small structure attached
to the placenta by a stalk called a funicle. The body of the ovules fuses with a funicle in the
region called hilum. The nucleus is located in the embryo sac. The process of formation of,
megaspore from the megaspore mother cell is called Megasporogenesis. Meiosis result in the
formation of four megaspore.
(i) Define the term monocarpellary and Multicarpellary.
Ans. Monocarpellary - Occurrence of single pistil.
Multicarpellary - Occurrence of more than one pistil
(ii) Write the appropriate term for fused and free conditions of pistil.
Ans. Fused Pistil- Syncarpous, Free Pistil- Apocarpous
(iii) Write the name of parts of pistil.
Ans. Stigma, Style and Ovary
(iv) How many microspore mother cells must have undergone reductional division to produce
400 microspore.
Ans. 100 Microspore Mother Cells
(v) What do you means by monosporic development of female gametophytes?
Ans. Out of megaspore tetrad, one of the megaspore is functional while the other three degenerated.
The functional megaspore develops into female gametophyte this is called as monosporic
development.
4. Read the following and answer the questions given below:-

In angiosperm, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction. It is described as a fertilized
ovule. The seeds are formed inside the fruit. The seed consists of a seed coat, cotyledon, and the
embryo axis. A mature seed is usually non - albuminous or albuminous. Integument of ovules
harder as tough protective seed coat. Sometimes due to reduced water content, the general
metabolic activity of the seed slows down and the seed enters a state of inactivity. In the mature
plant, the fruit develops from the ovary they are called true fruit. The fruit is the result of
fertilization. There are a few species in which fruit develop without fertilization banana is such
an example.

(i) What are non-albuminous and albuminous seeds?

Ans. Non- albuminous- Do not have residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during embryo
development. Albuminous- The seeds retains a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up
during embryo development.
(ii) What is perisperm ?
Ans. In some seeds such as black pepper and beet, remnants of nucellus are persistent called as
perisperm.
(iii) What is the fate of integument of ovule ?
Ans. After fertilization the integuments of ovule converted into seeds coat testa and tagmen.
(iv) What are false and parthenocarpic fruits?
Ans. False fruit- The fruits which develops rather than ovary.e.g.; Apple
Parthenocarpic fruit- The fruits which develops without fertilization.e.g.; Banana
(v) Write the appropriate term for condition of seeds where water content reduced, metabolic
activity slow down and seeds enters a state of inactivity.
Ans. Dormancy
CHAPTER 2
(A) NCERT QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS
1. Fill in the blanks :
(a) Humans reproduce ----------------. (asexually/sexually)
Ans. Sexually
(b) Human are -------------------. (oviparous, viviparous, ovoviviparous)
Ans. Viviparous
(c) Fertilization is------------------in human. (external/internal)
Ans. Internal
(d) Male and female gametes are--------.(diploid/haploid)
Ans. Haploid
(e) Zygote is--------------------------. (diploid/haploid).
Ans. Diploid
(f) The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called --------------------------.
Ans. Ovulation
(g) Ovulation is induced by a hormone called --------------------------.
Ans. Luteinising hormone (LH)
(h) The fusion of male and female gametes is called --------------------------.
Ans. Fertilisation
(i) Fertilisation takes place in --------------------------.
Ans. Ampulla of the oviduct
(j) Zygote divides to form -------------------------- which is implanted in uterus.
Ans. Blastocyst
(k) The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is called
--------------------------.
Ans. Placenta
2. Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Ans.
Ureter Urinary
bladder
Vas deferens Seminal
vesicle
Prostate
Bulbourethral
gland
Epididymis
Vasa efferentia Urethra
Rete testis

Testicular lobules Testis

Foreskin
Glans penis

Diagrammatic view of male reproductive system

3. Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Ans.
Uterine fundus
Uterine cavity
Isthmus
Fallopian
Ampulla tube
Infundibulum

Endometrium Ovary
Myometrium
Body of Fimbriae
Perimetrium uterus
Cervix

Cervical canal

Vagina

Diagrammatic view of female reproductive system

4. Write two major functions each of testis and ovary.

Ans. (1) Functions of the Testis :
They produce male gametes (sperm) by the process of called spermatogenesis.
The leydig cells of the seminiferous tubules secrete the male sex hormone called
testosterone.
(2) unctions of the ovary :
They produce female gametes (ovum) by the process of oogenesis.
The growing Graafian follicles secrete the female sex hormone called estrogen.
5. Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule. [IMP.]
Ans. A seminiferous tubule is made up of layer of male germ cells and large Sertoli cells
(nurse cell).
The male germ cells undergo spermatogenesis to produce spermatocytes, spermatids and
sperms.
The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces have connective tissue
which included blood vessels and leydig cell.
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete the male sex hormones called androgens, of which
testosterone is the principle one.
Spermatozoa

Spermatid

Secondary
spermatocyte
Primary
Spermatocyte

Sertoli cell

Spermatogonium

Diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule

6. What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Ans. It is the process of formation of haploid sperms in seminiferous tubules of testes.
Primordial germ cells with
2n diploid chromosome

Multiplication phase
2n 2n Spermatogonia

Spermatocytogenesis
2n 2n 2n 2n

Growth
Primary
phase
spermatocytes
2n Meiosis-I
Secondary
n n spermatocytes
Maturation

Meiosis-II
phase

n n n n
Spermiogenesis

Spermatid

Sperm

Process of spermatogenesis

7. Name the hormones involves in regulation of spermatogenesis.

Ans. GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone), LH (Luteinising hormone), FSH (Follicle stimulating
hormone), androgens.
8. Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Ans. (1) Spermiogenesis : The process of transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa in
seminiferous tubules, is called spermiogenesis.
(2) Spermiation : Sperm are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process
called spermiation.
9. Draw a labelled diagram of sperm. [IMP.]
Ans.
Plasma
membrane
Acrosome
Head Nucleus containing
chromosomal material
Centriole
Neck
Manchette
Middle
piece Mitochondria (Nebenkern Sheath)
energy source for swimming)

Tail (Longest part)

Axonema
(Axial filament)

Structure of a sperm
10. What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Ans. The major components of seminal plasma are :
Secretions of the accessory sex glands of males – prostate gland, seminal vesicles, bulbourethral
glands.
Mainly composed of – calcium, fructose, and other enzymes
11. What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Ans. The major functions of the male accessory ducts and glands are as follows:
Male accessory ducts
(a) Vasa efferentia : Conducts sperms from the rete testis to the epididymis.
(b) Rete testis : Stores sperms that are produced by seminiferous tubules.
(c) Epididymis : Physiological maturation of sperms, storage and nourishment.
(d) Vas deferens : Conducts sperms from epididymis to the urethra.
Male accessory glands
(a) Seminal vesicles : Activates and provides energy to facilitate sperm motility after
ejaculation.
(b) Prostate gland : Nourishes and activates sperms, enhances sperm motility.
(c) Cowper’s gland : It enhances mobility & survival potentiality of sperms in the genital tract
of female reproductive system and neutralizes the activity of acidic female vaginal
secretions.
12. What is oogenesis? give a brief account of oogenesis. [IMP.]
Ans. Oogenesis is the phenomenon of formation of haploid female gametes known as ova from diploid
oogonia in the ovary is called as oogenesis. Oogenesis can be explain through following flow
chart.
13. Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
CHROMOSOME
NUMBER
PER CELL
Oogonia
46
Mitosis
differentiation
Fetal life
Primary oocyte
Ist meiotic
division
Birth (completed
Childhood prior to
Puberty
23 ovulation)
First Secondary
Adult polar body oocyte
Reproductive
life Ovum
Second
23 polar body

Schematic representation of Oogenesis

Ans. The diagram of a section of an ovary is as follows -
Primary Tertiary follicle
Blood follicle Showing antrum
Vessels Graafian
follicle

Ovum

Corpus
luteum

Diagrammatic section view of ovary

14. Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle.

Ans. The diagram of a Graafian follicle is as follows :
Granulosa cells
Cumulus oophorus

Theca externa
Theca interna

Antrum
(filled with liquor folliculi) Secondary oocyte

Blood vessels

Discus proligerous

Mature Graafian follicle

15. Name the functions of the following :

(a) Corpus luteum (b) Endometrium (c) Acrosome
(d) Sperm tail (e) Fimbriae
Ans. The functions of each are as follows :
(a) Corpus luteum – The corpus luteum secretes the hormone progesterone during the luteal
phase of the menstrual cycle.
(b) Endometrium –The endometrium is the innermost layer of the uterus comprising of glands
that undergoes cyclic changes during different stages of the menstrual cycle in order to
prepare itself for the embryo-implantation process.
(c) Acrosome - It consists of the sperm lysin enzyme that helps in penetration of the outer
membrane of the egg by sperm which facilitates the sperm to perforate through the egg
during fertilization.
 (d) Sperm tail – The sperm tail makes up for the longest part of the sp e

movement of the sperm, once it has entered the female reproductive tract.

(e) Fimbriae – Towards the ovarian end of the fallopian tube, finger-like projections emerge,

these are the fimbriae which assist in collection of the ovum after the ovulation.

16. Identify True/False statements. Correct each false statement to make it true.

(a) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells. (True/False)

Ans. False, Correct statement : Androgens are produced by the Leydig cells.

(b) Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells. (True/False)

Ans. True

(c) Leydig cells are found in ovary. (True/False)

Ans. False, Correct statement : Leydig cells are found in testes.

(d) Leydig cells synthesise androgens. (True/False)

Ans. True

(e) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum. (True/False)

Ans. False, Correct statement : Oogenesis takes place in ovary.

(f) Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. (True/False)

Ans. True

(g) Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.

(True/False)

Ans. True

17. What is menstrual cycle ? Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?

Ans. It is a reproductive cycle in the female primates (e.g. monkeys, apes and human beings), in

females menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days, the cycle of events

starting from one menstruation till the next one is called the menstrual cycle.

The different hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle are LH – Luteinising hormone,

FSH – Follicle stimulating hormone, progesterone, estrogen.

18. What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in induction of partur

Ans. Parturition is the process wherein a fully developed foetus from the mother’s womb is expelled

out after the completion of the gestation period. The two critical hormones are involved in the

induction of parturition are :

Oxytocin – It directs the full-term foetus towards the birth canal, as it causes the contraction of

the smooth muscles of the myometrium of the uterus leading the baby to be expelled out.

Relaxin – It relaxes the pelvic ligaments, widening the pelvis to assist in an easier child birth.

19. In our society the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain

why this is not correct? [IMP.]

Ans. This is not correct to blame women for giving birth to daughter.

The male sperm contain either X or Y chromosome whereas the female egg contain only

X chromosome.

At the time of fertilization, sperm with Y chromosome combine with egg containing

X chromosome formed which would be male.

Thus scientifically sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother as

blamed in our society.

20. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month? How many eggs do you think

would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins? Would your answer

change if the twins born were fraternal?

Ans. Typically in a month, human ovaries release only one egg, rarely two. In case of identical twins

or monozygotic twins one egg is released by the ovary which splits into two post fertilization.

This is why identical twins exhibit the same genetic features.

On the other hand in fraternal twins or dizygotic twins, two eggs are released which are fertilized

by two different sperms causing the fraternal twins to exhibit different genetic characters.

21. How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth

to 6 puppies?

Ans. In order to have given birth to six puppies, the ovary of the female dog released six eggs. Hence,

six zygotes were formed for each to develop into a puppy.

 (B) PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. Given below are structural details of a human mammary gland : [CBSE 2023]
(i) The glandular tissue in the breast has 15-20 clusters of cells called alveoli.
(ii) The milk is stored in the lumen of alveoli.
(iii) The alveoli join to form the mammary ducts.
(iv) Mammary ampulla is connected to lactiferous ducts.
Choose the option that gives the correct detail of human mammary gland.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
Ans. (3) (ii) and (iv)
2. The graph given below shows the number of primordial follicles per ovary in women at different
ages. Study. the graph and answer the questions that follow. [CBSE 2023]
Primordial follicles/ovary

100,000 Premenopausal Women (regular menses)

10,000
Perimenopausal Women
1000
(irregular menses for atleast one year)
100
Post menopausal Women
10 (No menses for atleast one year)
1

0
10 20 30 40 50 60

Age (y)
(a) What is the average age of the women at the onset of menopause?
(b) At what age are maximum primordial follicles present in the ovary, according to the given
graph?
Ans. (a) 45-50 year (b) 0-10 year
3. (i) Explain the formation of placenta after the implantation in a human female.

(ii) Draw a diagram showing human foetus within the uterus and label any four parts in
its. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (i) After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi
which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
 The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly
form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal
body called placenta
man foetus within the uterus.
 The human foetus within the uterus
4. Breast-feeding the baby acts as a natural contraceptive for the mother because it prevents:
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(i) Ovulation (ii) Menstruation (iii) Insemination (iv) Fertilisation
(1) (ii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (ii)
Ans. (4) (i) and (ii)
5. The given figure shows the different stages of human embryo [CBSE Term-I 2022]

(Y) (Z) (X) (W)

Identify the correct labelings for W, X, Y and Z and choose the correct option from the table
below.
W X Y Z
(1) Cleavage Blastocyst Morula Fertilisation
(2) Blastocyst Morula Cleavage Fertilisation
(3) Morula Cleavage Blastocyst Fertilisation
(4) Morula Blastocyst Cleavage Fertilisation
Ans. (3)
W-Morula X-Cleavage Y-Blastocyst Z-Fertilisation
6. During human embryonic development the external genital organs are well developed in the
foetus by the end of – [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 6 weeks of pregnancy (2) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(3) 18 weeks of pregnancy (4) 24 weeks of pregnancy
Ans. (2) 12 weeks of pregnancy
7. The accessory ducts in the human male reproductive system consists of [CBSE Term – I 2022]
(1) Epididymis, Prostate, Rete testis (2) Rete testis, Vas efferentia, Seminal vesicles
(3) Vas efferentia, Bulbourethral, Epididymis (4) Rete testis, epididymis, Vas deferens
Ans. (4) Rete testis, epididymis, Vas deferens
8. The source of gonadotropin LH and its corresponding function is: [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Anterior pituitary, ovulation (2) Anterior pituitary, Graafian follicle formation
(3) Hypothalamus, Ovulation (4) Hypothalamus, Graafian follicle formation
Ans. (1) Anterior pituitary, ovulation

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

9. A women of 35 years age with a married life of eight years and having normal reproductive
cycles visits a doctor along with her husband for consultation for infertility. They were not using
any contraceptive methods. They have no child. The doctor advises them after a detailed physical
examination of both of them to undergo following investigations:
– Seminal analysis of the husband.
– Follicular study of the wife.
– Blood test for follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) estimation for both
With your basic knowledge of human embryology and the case given above, answer the
following questions:
(i) Seminal analysis of the husband was done for determining [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(i) Sperm morphology
(ii) Quantity and pH of semen
(iii) Rate of sperm release into the Vagina
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) only
Ans. (2) (i) and (ii)
(ii) An ultrasound – guided follicular study was done for the wife for determining the size and
physical appearance of the [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Ovary (2) Oogonia (3) Antral follicles (4) Corpus Luteum
Ans. (1) Ovary
(iii) The blood test report of the wife showed low FSH value, which is indicative of –
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) low rate of formation of ovarian follicles (2) high rate of formation of ovarian follicles
(3) low rate maturation of ovarian follicles (4) high rate of maturation of ovarian follicles
Ans. (1) low rate of formation of ovarian follicles
(iv) In the above case if the husband is found to have sperm count of less than 20 million/mL and the
wife is diagnosed with blockage in the oviduct, the couple would be advised for:
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(i) ZIFT (ii) AI (iii) IVF (iv) ICSI
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
Ans. (1) (i) and (iii)
(v) The high level of which gonadotropin/ovarian hormone in the blood sample of the wife taken on
day 20 of her reproductive (menstrual) cycle would indicate the letual phase of the ovarian cycle?
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Estrogens (4) Progesterone
Ans. (4) Progesterone
(vi) In which phase of the menstrual cycle is the blood sample of a women take it
shows high levels of L.H. and estrogen? [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Ovulatory phase (2) Menstrual phase (3) Secretory phase (4) Follicular phase
Ans. (1) Ovulatory phase
10. Name the glands that contribute to human seminal plasma. [CBSE IMP-Question]
Ans. Prostate, Seminal vesicle and Bulbourethral gland. (any two)
11. A fully developed foetus initiates its delivery from the mother’s womb. Justify the
statement. [CBSE IMP-Question]
Ans.  The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which
induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
 This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
 Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions, which in turn
stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
 The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues
resulting in stronger and stronger contractions.
 Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism involving cortisol,
oestrogens and oxytocin.
 This leads to expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal – parturition.
12. Study the graph given below related with menstrual cycle in females:[CBSE IMP-Question]
a. Identify ovarian hormones X and Y mentioned in the graph and specify their source.

Ovulation
Hormone levels
Ovarian

X
Y
Day
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1

b. Correlate and describe the uterine events that take place according to the ovarian
hormone levels X and Y mentioned in the graph on -
i. 6 – 15 days
ii. 16 – 25 days
iii. 26 – 28 days (when ovum is not fertilized)
Ans. a. X- Estrogen secreted by growing follicles;
Y – Progesterone secreted by corpus luteum
b. Uterine events that take place according to the ovarian hormone levels X and Y on -
(i) 6 – 15 days: Endometrium of the uterus regenerates by proliferation under the influence of estrogen.
(ii) 16 – 25 days: Under the influence of Progesterone the endometrium of the uterus is maintained
for implantation of fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy.
(iii) 26 – 28 days (when ovum is not fertilized): in the absence of fertilisation, corpus luteum
degenerates which causes disintegration of endometrium leading to menstruation, marking a
new cycle.
13. The following figure shows a foetus within the uterus. On the basis of the given figure,
answer the questions that follow: [CBSE IMP-Question]

(a) In the above figure, choose and name the correct part (A, B, C or D) that act as a
temporary endocrine gland and substantiate your answer. Why is it also called the
functional junction?
(b) Mention the role of B in the development of the embryo.
(c) Name the fluid surrounding the developing embryo. How is it misused for sex-
determination?
Ans. (a) Part labeled A -Placenta. It acts as an endocrine tissue as it produces several hormones like
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL),estrogens,
progestogens, etc. It is also called the functional junction because it facilitates the supply of
oxygen and nutrients to the embryo and removes carbon dioxide and excretory/waste materials
produced by the embryo.
(b)The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the
transport of substances to the embryo.
(c) Amniotic fluid; a foetal sex determination test is based on the chromosomal pattern of the
cells in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo.
14. Study the given diagram where A is an embryonic stage that gets transformed into B, which
in turn gets implanted in the endometrium in human females. [CBSE 2020]

Transform into
 

(a) Identify A, B and its parts C and D.

(b) Write the name of cavity present in the stage B.
e fate of C and D in the course of embryonic development in human.
Ans. (a) A - Morula,
B - Blastocyst,
C - Inner cell mass,
D - Trophoblast
(b) Blastocoel
(c) C-It differentiated as the embryo.
D-It helps in implantation and further develop into placenta.
15. Given below is the diagram of a human ovum surrounded by a few sperms. Study the
diagram and answer the following questions: [CBSE 2019]

B
C
A

D
Ovum

E
(a) Which one of the sperms would reach the ovum earlier?
(b) Identify ‘D’ and ‘E’.
(c) Mention what helps the entry of sperm into the ovum and write the changes occurring
in the ovum during the process.
(d) Name the specific region in the female reproductive system where the event
represented in the diagram takes place.
Ans. (a) Sperm ‘A’
(b) D = Cells of corona radiata, E = zona pellucida,
(c) The secretion of acrosome (enzymes) helps the entry of sperm into the ovum, induces the
completion of meiotic division of secondary oocyte.
(d) Ampulla /ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
16. Medically it is advised to all young mothers that breast feeding is the best for their newborn
babies. Do you agree ? Give reasons in support of your answer. [CBSE 2018]
Ans. Yes, The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum.
The colostrum contains several antibodies (IgA) absolutely essential to develop resistance for the
new-born babies. Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by
doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
17. State from where do the signals for parturition originate in human females. [CBSE 2017]
Ans Fully developed foetus, and the placenta.
 (C) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Semen is constituted of –
(1) Sperm (2) Spermatogonia (3) Seminal Plasma (4) Both (1) & (3)
Ans. (4) Both (1) & (3)
2. Seminiferous tubules are composed of
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Sensory epithelium (4) Germinal epithelium
Ans. (4) Germinal epithelium
3. Cells of Leydig occur in
(1) Liver (2) Ovary (3) Testis (4) Spleen
Ans. (3) Testis
4. Which piece of a sperm is called power house ?
(1) Head piece (2) Neck piece (3) Middle piece (4) Tail piece
Ans. (3) Middle piece
5. Which is not a secondary sex organ ?
(1) Vagina (2) Penis (3) Prostate (4) Mammary gland
Ans. (4) Mammary gland
6. At puberty woman start producing
(1) Sperms (2) Urine (3) Young ones (4) Ovum
Ans. (4) Ovum
7. Release of sperm from testes is called :-
(1) Spermiation (2) Semination (3) In semination (4) Ejaculation
Ans. (2) Semination
8. Which part of the spermatid forms acrosome of sperm?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi body (3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome
Ans. (2) Golgi body
9. Polar body is produced during the formation of :
(1) Sperm (2) Secondary oocyte (3) Oogonium (4) Spermatocyte
Ans. (2) Secondary oocyte
10. First meiotic division during oogenesis occurs in :
(1) First polar body (2) Second polar body (3) Primary oocytes (4) Secondary polar
Ans. (3) Primary oocyte
11. Humans are ____ and ____ organisms.
(1) Sexually reproducing, oviparous (2) Asexually reproducing, ovoviviparous
(3) Asexually reproducing, viviparous (4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous
Ans. (4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous
12. The formation of gametes is termed as
(1) Gametogamy (2) Syngamy (3) Gametogenesis (4) Gestation
Ans. (3) Gametogenesis
13. The transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is called
(1) Insemination (2) Gametogenesis (3) Fertilization (4) Gestation
Ans. (1) Insemination
14. The fusion of male and female gametes is known as
(1) Insemination (2) Fertilization (3) Implantation (4) Parturition
Ans. (2) Fertilization
15. The following statements are true except
(1) In an individual, reproductive changes occur after puberty.
(2) Sperm formation occurs even in old men.
(3) Formation of ovum continues in women after fifty years.
(4) Humans are sexually producing and viviparous
Ans. (3) Formation of ovum continues in women after fifty years.
16. The testes are situated ____ the abdominal cavity within a pouch called ____.
(1) inside, testicular lobules (2) outside, scrotum
(3) outside, vas deferens (4) inside, scrotum
Ans. (2) outside, scrotum
17. The scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature ____ lower than the internal body temperature.
(1) 1 to 1.5°C (2) 2 to 2.5°C (3) 3 to 3.5°C (4) 4 to 4.5°C
Ans. (2) 2 to 2.5°C
18. Male germ cells are known as
(1) Sperms (2) Spermatogonia (3) Spermatid (4) Sertoli cells
Ans. (2) Spermatogonia
19. Seminiferous tubules contain ____ for providing nutrition to sperm cells.
(1) Leydig cells (2) Interstitial cells (3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells
Ans. (3) Sertoli cells
20. The cells which secrete androgens are
(1) Spermatozoa (2) Interstitial cells (3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells
Ans. (2) Interstitial cells
 (D) ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS
 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : In human male, testes are extra abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs.
Reason : Scrotum acts as thermo regulator and keeps testicular temperature lower by 2-2.5°C for
normal spermatogenesis.
Ans (1)
2. Assertion : Testicular lobules are the compartments present in testes.
Reason : These lobules are involved in the process of fertilization.
Ans (3)
3. Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule called
interstitial spaces.
Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli cells.
Ans. (3)
4. Assertion: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum.
Reason: Muscles in scrotum helps to maintain low temperature of testes, necessary for
spermatogenesis.
Ans (1)
5. Assertion: The bulbourethral gland is a male accessory gland.
Reason: Its secretion helps in the lubrication of the penis, thereby facilitating reproduction.
Ans (1)
6. Assertion: Human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during coitus.
Reason: Only few reach the isthmus ampullary junction for process of fertilisation.
Ans (1)
7. Assertion: Epididymis is divided into three parts.
Reason: Epididymis is the organ that stores spermatozoa
Ans (2)
8. Assertion: Graafian follicle ruptures at the mid of menstrual cycle releasing the ovum.
Reason: Both LH and FSH attain a peak level at the middle of cycle.
Ans (1)
9. Assertion: Progesterone is required for maintenance of the endometrium.
Reason: Endometrium is essential for implanation of embryo.
Ans (2)
10. Assertion: The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
Reason: The myometrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of the baby.
Ans (2)
 (E) VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Write the function of FSH.

Ans FSH acts on sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors like ABP = androgen

binding protein which helps in spermatogenesis.

2. Write names of enzymes present in the secretion of prostate gland.

Ans Fibrinolysin, spermin, fibrinogenase.

3. How is 'oogenesis' markedly different from 'spermatogenesis' with respect to the growth till

puberty in the humans?

Ans. Oogenesis is initiated at the embryonic stage.

Spermatogenesis begins only at puberty.

4. Where is acrosome present in humans? Write its function?

Ans It is present at the tip or head of the sperm. It helps to penetrate through the zona pellucida in

human ovum.

5. Write the function of each one of the following:

(a) (Oviducal) Fimbriae

(b) Oxytocin

Ans (a) Collection of ovum released by ovary.

(b) Causes uterine contraction for parturition/promotes milk ejection.

6. What is the number of chromosomes in the following cells? Primary oocyte, secondary

oocyte, ootid and follicle.

Ans. The number of chromosome in the cells is as follows:

Primary oocyte: 23 pairs. Secondary oocyte: 23. Ootid: 23. Follicle: 23 pairs.

7. What is corpus luteum. How dose it functions as endocrine gland ?

Ans. After ovulation, the Graafian follicle ruptures & forms corpus luteum. Corpus luteum functions

as endocrine glands as they secrete progesterone & estrogen in large quantities.

 (F) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Give the function of
(a) Corpus luteum (b) Endometrium
Ans. Corpus luteum : It secretes progesterone which prepares endometrium of uterus for implantation
and normal development of foetus.
Endometrium : It undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle and prepares itself for
implantation of blastocyst.
2. Give reason for the following :
(a) The first half of the menstrual cycle is called follicular phase as well as proliferative phase.
(b) The second half of the menstrual cycle is called luteal phase as well as secretory phase.
Ans. (a) During this phase, primary follicles transform into Graafian follicle under FSH stimulation.
Graafian follicles secrete estrogens with stimulate enlargement of Endometrium of uterus.
(b) During this phase, Corpus luteum is fully formed and secretes large quantity of Progesterone.
3. What is meant by L.H. Surge ? Write the role of L.H.
Ans. LH surge refers to maximum level of luteinising hormone middle of menstrual cycle.
LH cause ovulation.
4. Explain significance of the condition in which the testes remain suspended in scrotum
outside the abdomen.
Ans. Human sperm cells cannot develop at body temperature. Spermatogenesis and maintenance of
the seminiferous tubules requires a temperature slightly lower than that of the body. This is
provided by the scrotum, which lies outside the abdominal cavity.
5. Describe the structure of a sperm with a diagram.
Ans. The human sperm is a microscopic structure with a head, middle piece and a tail. The head has
the haploid nucleus and an anterior acrosome that contains the enzymes required for the
fertilization of the egg. The middle piece has numerous mitochondria to produce the energy for
the mobility of the tail of the sperm.
6. Enlist any two functions of a female placenta.
Ans. The structural and the functional unit between the developing embryo and the mother called
placenta facilitates the supply of nutrients, oxygen to the embryo and also the removal of carbon
dioxide and other excretory products produced by the embryo. It also acts as endocrine tissue and
produces several hormones.
 (G) LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. (a) Explain the menstrual phase in a human female. State the levels of ovarian and

pituitary hormones during this phase.

(b) Why is follicular phase in the menstrual cycle also referred as proliferative phase?

Explain.

(c) Explain the events that occur in a Graafian follicle at the time of ovulation and there

after.

Ans. (a) Menstrual phase occurs when released ovum not fertilized, break down of endometrial lining

(of the uterus) and its blood vessel form the liquid that comes out through the vagina, lasts

for 3 to 5 days,

Note - Low level of ovarian and pituitary hormones.

(b) In the ovary follicular development takes place and in the same phase the regeneration of

endometrium through proliferation takes place inside uterus.

(c) Graafian follicle ruptures to release the ovum (secondary oocyte), remaining parts of the

Graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum.

2. Mention the name and role of hormones which are involved in regulation of gamete

formation in human male.

Ans. GnRH : Stimulates adenohypophysis to secrete gonadotropins.

GSH : Stimulates Sertoli cells to secrete factors while help in spermatogenesis.

ICSH : Stimulates interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.

3. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis.

Ans. Spermatogenesis :

1. It occurs inside the testes.

2. All the stages are completed inside the testes.

3. Spermatogonia develop from the germinal epithelium lining in the seminiferous tubules.

4. All spermatogonia give rise to spermatocytes.

5. Primary spermatocytes divide by meiosis I to give rise to two secondary spermatocytes.

6. Secondary spermatocyte divides by meiosis

 Oogenesis :
1. It occurs inside the ovary.
2. Majority occurs inside the ovary but last stages occur in the oviduct.
3. Oogonia develop from the germinal epithelium overlying the ovary.
4. Only few oogonia give rise to oocytes.
5. Primary oocyte undergoes meiosis I to give rise to one secondary oocyte and a polar body.
4. Answer the following questions.
(i) State the levels of FSH, LH and Progesterone simply by mentioning high or low around
13th and 14th day and 21st to 23rd day.
(ii) In which of the above mentioned phases does egg travel to fallopian tube ?
(iii) Why there is no mensuration after fertilisation ?
Ans. (i) 13-14th day 21st -23rd day
FSH - High Low
LH - High Low
Progesterone - Low High
(ii) End of follicular or proliferative phase.
(iii) Menstruation does not occur during pregnancy upon fertilization due to high level of
progesterone secreted by persisting corpus luteum and Placenta.
5. (a) Read the graph given below. Correlate the ovarian events that take place in the human
female according to the level of the pituitary hormone during the following day.
(i) 10th - 14th days (ii) 14th -15th days
(iii) 16th - 23th days (iv) 25th - 29th days
If the ovum is not fertilised)
(b) What are the uterine events that follow beyond 29th day if the ovum is not fertilised ?
Ans. (a) (i) Gonadotropins and FSH increases
(ii) LH attains peak level but FSH decreases
(iii) LH and FSH level decreases
(iv) LH remains low and FSH increases.
(b) After 29th day there is a menstrual flow involving discharge of blood and cast off
endometrium lining.
6. T.S. of mammalian testis revealing seminiferous tubules show different ty

(i) Name the two types of cells of germinal epithelium.

(ii) Name of cells scattered in connective tissue and lying between seminiferous tubules.

Differentiate between them on the basis of their functions.

Ans. (i) Germinal epithelium have two types of cell. (1) Spermatogonium (2) Sertoli cells

(ii) Leydig cells or Interstitial cells.

Functions

Spermatogonium undergoes meiotic division leading to sperm formation.

Sertoli cell : Nourishes germ cells

Leydig cell : Synthesise and Secrete hormone androgen.

7. What are the various male accessory glands ? Give their function.

Ans. The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostrate gland and paired

bulbourethral glands.

These glands secrete seminal plasma rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. Secretions of

bulbourethral glands help in lubrication of the penis.

8. Explain the menstrual cycle with a diagram.

Ans. Menstrual cycle has three phases: menstrual, proliferative and secretory.

(a) Menstrual Phase: The phase lasts for 3-5 days in human females and during this period the

endometrial lining of the uterus is cast off and is slowly passed out from vagina as a mixture

of blood.

(b) Proliferative or Follicular Phase: It lasts for 11 days between 6th to 16th day of the cycle.

During this phase one ovarian follicle is changed into Graafian follicle and the endometrial

layer is rebuilt along with repair of the ruptured blood vessels. Estrogen increases. It ends

with ovulation.

(c) Secretory Phase: It lasts for 12 days between 17-28 days. The Graafian follicle is converted

to Corpus Luteum. The endometrium grows and thickens further. Progesterone increases. It

end with the conversion of corpus luteum to corpus albicans.

 (H) CASE BASED QUESTIONS
1. Study the following and answer the questions given below:
The following us the illustration of sequence of ovarian events during menstrual cycle in human
female. Observe it and give the answer of question that follow:
Subject-1 Subject-2

Ovarian events
Ovarian events

Ovulation Ovulation

Menstrual Cycle Days Menstrual Cycle Days

(i) Which structure in subject-1 and subject-2 form corpus luteum?

Ans. Graafian Follicle
(ii) Ovulation takes place on which day of menstrual cycle?
Ans. About the 14th day
(iii) In subject-1 structure ‘C’ is?
Ans. Corpus albicans
(iv) Withdrawal of which hormone causes degeneration of corpus luteum in subject-1?
Ans. LH
2. To answer the questions, study the diagram below for Subject 1 and 2 showing different
types of structure.

(i) At the end of first meiotic division in subject-1 the structure A differentiate into?
Ans. Secondary spermatocytes
(ii) Structure-A in subject-2 is produced during the formation of?
Ans. Secondary oocyte
(iii) What is the correct sequence of structure-E formation in subject-1?
Ans. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(iv) Polar bodies are formed during in which subject?
Ans. Subject-2
3. Read the following and answer the questions given below:

The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries along with a pair of oviducts, uterus,

cervix, vagina and the external genitalia located in the pelvic region. These parts of the system

along with a pair of the mammary glands are integrated structurally and functionally to support

the processes of ovulation, fertilisation, pregnancy, birth and child care. Each ovary is about 2 to

4 cm in length and is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments. The oviducts which

consist of 3 parts, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts. The uterus is single

and it is also called the womb. The shape of the uterus is like an inverted pear. The wall of the

uterus has three layers of tissue.

(i) Why ovaries consider as primary sex organs of FRS ?

Ans. They produce the female gametes (Ovum) and several steroid hormone.

(ii) Write the name of parts of fallopian tube .

Ans. Infundibulum, Ampulla, Isthmus

(iii) Write the name of external genitilia of FRS.

Ans. Mons pubis, Labia majora, Labia minora, Hymen and Clitoris.

(iv) Write the name of layers of uterus.

Ans. Perimetrium, Myometrium and Endometrium.

(v) “The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicators of virginity or sexual

experience’’. Explain.

Ans. The hymen can also be broken by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of a vaginal tampon, active

participation in some sports like horseback riding, cycling, etc. In some women the hymen

persists even after coitus.

4. Read the following and answer the questions given below:

The process of formation of a mature female gamete is called oogenesis which is markedly

different from spermatogenesis. Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage

when a couple of million gamete mother cells (oogonia) are formed within each fetal ovary; no

more oogonia are formed and added after birth. These cells start division and enter into

prophase-I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary

oocytes. Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and then called

the primary follicle A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to

puberty. Therefore, at puberty only 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary. The

primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca and called

secondary follicles.

(i) Differentiate between primary oocytes and primary follicle.

Ans. Primary oocytes: - These cells start division and enter into prophase-I of the meiotic division

and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocytes.

Primary follicle: - Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and

then called the primary follicle.

(ii) Where and when the oogenesis initiated in female.

Ans. In the fetal ovary during embryonic development stage.

(iii) Name the ovarian hormone that induced the oogenesis process.

Ans. Estrogen

(iv) Write the name of stage in which the gametes mother cell get temporarily arrested?

Ans. Dictyotene of prophase-I of meiosis- I.

(v) How many primary follicles there are left in ovaries at puberty?

Ans. At puberty only 120,000-1600,000 primary follicles are left in ovaries.

CHAPTER 3
(A) NCERT QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS
1. What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?
Ans. In a society if the people are aware of birth control methods to avoid sexually transmitted
diseases and the importance of breast-feeding and post-natal care of the mother and baby then the
society can have healthy children who are the future citizens of a nation.
2. Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention in the
present scenario?
Ans. Important aspects :
 Counselling and creating awareness among people especially the youth about various aspects
of reproductive health such as sexually transmitted diseases, available contraceptive methods,
case of pregnant mothers, adolescence etc.
 Providing support and facilities such as medical assistance to people during pregnancy, STIs,
abortions, contraceptives, infertility, etc. for building a reproductively healthy society.
3. Is sex education necessary in schools? Why? [IMP.]
Ans. Yes, sex education is necessary in schools because
• It will provide proper information about reproductive organs, adolescence, safe, hygienic
sexual practices and sexually transmitted infection (STIs).
• It will provide right information to avoid myths and misconceptions about sex related queries.
4. Do you think that reproductive health in our country has improved in the past 50 years? If
yes, mention some such areas of improvement.
Ans. Yes, the reproductive health has tremendously improved in India in the last 50 years. The areas
of improvement are as follows.
• Batter awareness about sex related matters.
• Increase number of medically assisted deliveries and better post natal care of child and mother
leading to decrease maternal and infant mortality rate.
• Increase numbers of couples with small families.
• Better detection and cure of STIs and overall increased medical facilities for all sex related
problems.
5. What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?
Ans. The suggested reasons of population explosion are :
(a) rapid decline in death rate.
(b) decline in maternal mortality rate (MMR)
(c) decline in infant mortality rate (IMR) and
(d) increase in number of people in reproducible Age
6. Is the use of contraceptives justified? Give reasons.
Ans. Yes, the use of contraceptives is absolutely justified. The human population is increasing
tremendously. Therefore to regulate the population growth by regulating reproduction has
become a necessary demand in the present times. Various contraceptive devices have been
devised to reduce unwanted pregnancies which help in bringing down the increased birth rate and
hence, in checking population explosion.
7. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Why?
Ans. The removal of gonads not only stops the production of gametes but will also stop the secretion
of various important hormone which required for body functions. This method is irreversible and
thus, cannot be considered as a contraceptive method.
8. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country. Is this ban necessary?
Comment. [IMP.]
Ans. Yes, the ban is necessary because amniocentesis is misused for determining the sex of the foetus
and then aborting the child if it is a female.
9. Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Ans. The reasons of infertility could be physical, congenital diseases, drugs, immunological and even
psychological. Specialized health care units called infertility clinics could help in diagnosis and
corrective treatment of some of these disorders. Through special techniques called assisted
reproductive technologies (ART), infertile couple could be assisted to have children.
ART includes:
(i) In vitro fertilisation,
(ii) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT),
(iii) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), and
(iv) Artificial insemination (AI).
10. What are the measures one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs? [IMP.]
Ans. Sexually transmitted Infection (STIs) get transferred from one individual to the other through
sexual contact. Adolescents and young adults are at the greatest risk of acquiring these sexually
transmitted diseases. Hence,
• Creating awareness among the adolescents regarding its after-effects can prevent them from
contracting STIs.
• The use of contraceptives such as condoms etc. while intercourse can prev f
these diseases.
• Sex with unknown partners or multiple partners should be avoided as they may have such
diseases.
• Specialists should be consulted immediately in case of doubt so as to assure early detection and
cure of the disease.
11. State True / False with explanation.
(a) Abortions could happen spontaneously too. (True / False)
(b) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to
abnormalities/ defects in the female partner. (True / False)
(c) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception. (True / False)
(d) Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive
health of the people. (True / False)
Ans. (a) True - Due to internal factors like incompatibility, abortion could happen spontaneously.
(b) False - Infertility may also be caused sue to male partner when sperm count is low or their
mobility is less.
(c) True - Lactational amenorrhea is a method of contraception as ovulation does not occur
during the period of intense lactation following parturition.
(d) True - Creating awareness about sex related aspects removes the myths and misconceptions
about these problems.
12. Correct the following statements:
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(b) All sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
(d) In E. T. techniques, embryos are always transferred into the uterus.
Ans. (a) Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete motility.
(b) All sexually transmitted diseases are curable if they are detected early and treated properly.
AIDS is still an incurable disease.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among urban women.
(d) In embryo transfer technique, 8 celled embryos are transferred into the fallopian tube while
more than 8 celled embryos are transferred into the uterus.
 (B) PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. Given below are four aspects of Reproductie Health in Column A and their related information in
Column B : [CBSE 2023]
Column - A Column - B
S. Terms used in Reproductive S. Significant information
No. Heath No.
(A) MTP (i) Analysing fetal cells from amniotic
fluid of the foetus
(B) Amniocentesis (ii) Legalised in 1971
(C) Saheli (iii) Programme initiated in 1951
(D) Family Planning (iv) Non - steroidal oral contraceptive
Select the correct match from the following options :
(1) (A) - (iv), B - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i) (2) (A) - (ii), B - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)
(3) (A) - (i), B - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv) (4) (A) - (ii), B - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
Ans. (2) (A) - (ii), B - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)
2. Given below are Column - A with a list of certain Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)
and in Column - B the procedures followed during ART : [CBSE 2023]
Column - A Column - B
S.No. Names of ART S.No. Procedures
(A) GIFT (i) Transfer of ovum from a donor into
the fallopian tube of another
female.
(B) ICSI (ii) Transfer of semen from the donor
into the vagina of the female.
(C) ZIFT (iii) Injecting sperms directly into the
ovum.
(D) IUI (iv) Transfer of early embroys into the
fallopian tube.
Choose the option where ART correctly matches with the procedure.
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv) (2) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii)
(3) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii) (4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
Ans. (4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)
3. Assertion (A): Through Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programmes in India ; we could
bring down the population growth rate.
Reason (R): A rapid increase MMR and IMP were the reasons, along other reasons for this.
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
A is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion (A): Sterilisation methods are generally advised for male/female pa l
method to prevent any more pregnancies.
Reason (R): These techniques are less effective and have high reversibility. [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Ans. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
5. Select the correct option for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) released during embryonic
development in humans. [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(i) Helps in maintenance of pregnancy.
(ii) Leads to rupture of Graafian follicle.
(iii) Cause strong uterine contraction during childbirth.
(iv) Brings metabolic changes in the mother.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (2) (i) and (iv)
6. A specialized procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which sperm is directly, injected
into the ovum is : [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) IUT (2) IUI (3) ICSI (4) ZIFT
Ans. (3) ICSI
7. Listed below are all reproductive tract infections except [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Genital herpes (2) Filariasis (3) Trichomoniasis (4) Syphilis
Ans. (2) Filariasis
8. Assertion (A) : Determining the sex of an unborn child followed by MTP is an illegal practice.
Reason (R) : Amniocentesis is a practice to test the presence of genetic disorders also.
[CBSE 2023]
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Ans. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
9. Name and explain a surgical contraceptive method that can be adopted by the male partner
of a couple. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. Vasectomy. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small
incision on the scrotum.
10. State the composition and principle of oral pills as a contraceptive measure taking the
example of Saheli. [CBSE-IMP Question]
Ans. The composition of oral pills comprises: Either progestogens alone or progestogen – estrogen
combination. Saheli is a Non-steroidal preparation. It inhibits ovulation and implantation. It also
alters the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/ retard the entry of sperms.
11. (a) IUDs are said to be effective contraceptives. Name any two common d
write the mode of their actions.
(b) When is sterilisation advised to married couples? How is it carried out in a human male
and a female, respectively? [CBSE 2020]
Ans. (a) Hormone releasing IUDs- It makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
hostile to the sperms.
Copper releasing IUDs – Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity
of sperms.
(b) When a desired family size is attained, and couple don’t need any more child then only
sterilisation methods are advised.
Sterilisation procedure
(i) Male- in male it is called ‘vasectomy’- In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is
removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum.
(ii) Female- in female it is called ‘tubectomy’- In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube
is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
12. Explain one application of each one of the following :
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) ZIFT
(d) Prepare a poster for the school programme depicting the objectives of : “Reproductive
and Child Health Care Programme”. [CBSE 2019]
Ans. (a) To detect chromosomal disorders / sex determination (legally banned) / detect genetic disorder.
(b) To prevent pregnancy / means of natural contraception.
(c) To assist an infertile couple to have children by tranferring the zygote / early embryo / embryo
at eight blastomere stage into fallopian tube.
(d) A poster made on RCH - Any relevant slogan or sketch made should be awarded like
e.g. - Hum Do Hamare Do,
- Gender selection and detection is punishable, or (Any other relevant theme)
 (C) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the full form of WHO?
(1) Ware House Organization (2) War and Health Organization
(3) World Health Office (4) World Health Organization
Ans. (4) World Health Organization
2. What are the various aspects of reproduction covered by WHO?
(1) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural (2) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Social
(3) Physical, Emotional, Gestational, Social (4) Physical, Emotional, Social
Ans. (2) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Social.
3. Which was the first country in the world to initiate a nationwide programme for reproductive
health?
(1) China (2) USA (3) India (4) Russia
Ans. (3) India
4. The figure indicates which contraceptive device?

(1) Condom for female (2) Condom for male

(3) Diaphragm (4) Cervical cap
Ans. (2) Condom for male
5. The programme of ‘Family Planning’ was initiated in the year ________.
(1) 1950 (2) 1947 (3) 1949 (4) 1951
Ans. (4) 1951
6. The reproductive program RCH stands for
(1) Reproductive and Community Health Care
(2) Restorative and Communal Health Care
(3) Reproductive and Child Health Care
(4) Reproductive and Congenital Health Care
Ans. (3) Reproductive and Child Health Care
7. In context of reproductive health, STIs stands for
(1) Sexually Terminal Infections (2) Sexually Transmitted Infections
(3) Sexually Transformed Infections (4) Sexually Transducted Infections
Ans. (2) Sexually Transmitted Infections
8. The fluid which envelops the developing foetus is called
(1) Chorionic fluid (2) Placental fluid (3) Amniotic fluid (4) Uterine fluid
Ans. (3) Amniotic fluid
9. Statutory ban has been laid on ________ to check female foeticide.
(1) Choriocentesis (2) Amniocentesis (3) Uterocentesis (4) Embryocentesis
Ans. (2) Amniocentesis
10. The amniocentesis test is based on ________ to determine the sex of developing foetus.
(1) External genitalia (2) Secondary sexual characters
(3) Chromosomal pattern (4) Embryonic enzymes
Ans. (3) Chromosomal pattern
11. CDRI, Lucknow developed which new female contraceptive?
(1) ‘Sakhi’ (2) ‘Saheli’ (3) ‘Saloni’ (4) ‘Smiti’
Ans. (2) ‘Saheli’
12. CDRI stands for
(1) Contraceptive Drug Research Institute (2) Central District Research Institute
(3) Central Drug Research Institute (4) Central Dermatologic Research Institute
Ans. (3) Central Drug Research Institute
13. The world population was 2000 million in the year
(1) 1980 (2) 1970 (3) 1960 (4) 1900
Ans. (4) 1900
14. Which IUD is shown in the given figure?

(1) Lippes loop (2) Progestasert (3) Copper T (4) Multiload-375

Ans. (3) Copper T
15. Coitus interrupts/withdrawal method concerns with
(1) Withdrawal of penis from vagina before ejaculation
(2) Withdrawal of penis from vagina after ejaculation
(3) Prevention of coitus
(4) Alternate prevention of coitus
Ans. (1) Withdrawal of penis from vagina before ejaculation
16. After parturition, which natural contraception way can be utilized?
(1) Lactational menorrhea (2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Lactational deficiency (4) Lactational prevention
Ans. (2) Lactational amenorrhea
17. In lactational amenorrhea, which event does not occur in menstrual cycle?
(1) Menstrual flow (2) Ovulation (3) Funicular phase (4) Luteal phase
Ans. (2) Ovulation
18. Lactational amenorrhea is effective only up to a maximum of ________ months.
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
Ans. (3) Six
19. ________ is a popular brand of condom for males.
(1) ‘Nishodh’ (2) ‘Nirodh’ (3) ‘Nidosh’ (4) ‘Nirdosh’
Ans. (2) ‘Nirodh’
20. Which of the following is not applicable to females for contraception?
(1) Diaphragms (2) Vasectomy (3) Condoms (4) Cervical caps
A y
 (D) ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS

 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of

reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: A person should be considered reproductively healthy if they have healthy
reproductive organs but are emotionally imbalanced.
Reason: This statement about reproductive health was given by WHO.
Ans (4)
2. Assertion: Family planning is an action plan to attain reproductive health among people.
Reason: Improved programmes covering reproduction related areas were propagated by RCH to
create awareness among people.
Ans (2)
3. Assertion: Reproductive and Child Healthcare Programmes is for reproduction related areas.
Reason: It deals with creating awareness among various reproduction related aspects.
Ans (1)
4. Assertion : Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason : This will encourage children to believe in myths about sex related aspects.
Ans (3)
5. Assertion: Natality increases both population density and population size.
Reason: Natality increases the number of individuals in an area by births.
Ans (1)
6. Assertion: Zero population growth should be achieved as early as possible to control human
population.
Reason: This as requires not two children per couple but a lilttle more.
Ans (1)
7. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a method in which couples avoid from coitus from day 17 to
27 of menstrual cycle.
Reason: It is a very effective method and 100% sure of birth control.
Ans (4)
8. Assertion: Syphilis, gonorrhea and AIDS are STIs.
Reason: These diseases are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Ans (1)
9. Assertion : HIV infection can be avoided by use of condoms.
Reason : Condoms secrete anti-viral interferon's.
Ans (3)
10. Assertion: STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Reason: STIs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.
Ans (1)
 (E) VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Ideal contraceptives for the females who wants to delay pregnancy.

Ans. IUDs

2. Oral pills for females causes

Ans. Inhibit ovulation and implantation

3. Once a-week oral pill is :

Ans. Saheli

4. In emergency which contraceptive methods may be used within 72 hours of coitus.

Ans. IUD & progestogen or progestogen estrogen combination pills.

5. Which contraceptive method are also known as sterilisation?

Ans. Surgical method

6. Sterilisation in male is known as :

Ans. Vasectomy

7. Government of India legalised MTP in.

Ans. 1971

8. MTP is considered relatively safe during.

Ans. First trimester

9. In ZIFT-early embryo is transferred in (upto 8 blastomeres)

Ans. Fallopian tube

10. Full form of ZIFT

Ans. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer

11. In IUT, embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred in

Ans. Uterus

12. Full form of GIFT

Ans. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer

13. Procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into

the cytoplasm of ovum

Ans. ICSI-Intracytoplasmic sperm injection.

 (F) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. How does 'Saheli' Work like a contraceptive?
Ans. 'Saheli' is a non-steroid oral contraceptive. It contains hormone. It shows following effects -
1. Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperms into uterus.
2. It prevents implantation.
2. What is copper –T?
Ans. It is an intra uterine device. It is implanted into uterus through vagina by expert doctor or trained
nurse. It is T shaped, made of copper. It releases Cu++ which decrease the mortality and
fertilizing ability of sperms.
3. Name the physical methods of contraceptives.
Ans. They are barriers. They prevent physical association of sperm and ovum. Example are-
1. Condoms
2. Others - Diaphragm, Vaults, Cervical caps.
4. What is infertility? Suggest the methods used for curing the infertility.
Ans. Infertility - When couples are unable to produce children inspite of un protected sexual co-
habitation for at least two or more years duration.
- ART = Assisted Reproductive Technologies are used to cure infertility.
- These technologies are-
1. In-vitro fertilisation = IVF
(a) ZIFT (b) IUT
2. In vivo fertilization 3. GIFT 4. ICSI
5. What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?
Ans. The suggested reasons of population explosion are:
(a) Rapid decline in death rate.
Decline in maternal mortality rate (MMR)
Decline in infant mortality rate (IMR) and
(b) Increase in number of people in reproducible age.
6. Our government has intentionally imposed strict conditions for M.T.P. in our country.
Justify giving a reason.
Ans. (i) To prevent female foeticide
(ii) To maintain sex ratio
(iii) To avoid any danger for (young) mother (and foetus)
 (G) LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes are currently in operation. One of
the major tasks of these programmes is to create awareness amongst people about the wide
range of reproduction related aspects. As this is important and essential for building a
reproductively healthy society.
(a) “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal.” Give four
points in support of your opinion regarding this statement.
(b) List any two ‘indicators’ that indicate a reproductively healthy society.
Ans. (a) Provide right information to the young so as to discourage children from believing in myths
and misconception about sex related aspects. Proper information about reproductive organs-
Proper information about adolescence and related changes-Safe hygienic practices
STDs/AIDS - Available birth control options – Care of pregnant mothers-Post natal care-
Importance of breast feeding - Equal opportunities for male and female child awareness of
problems due uncontrolled population growth - Sex abuse - Sex related crimes (Any four)
(b) Better awareness about sex related matters / increase number of assisted deliveries/better post
natal care/decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate)/decrease MMR(Maternal Mortality
Rate)/increase number of couples with small families/better detection and cure of STDs/
overall increased medical facilities for sex related problems / total well being in all aspects of
reproduction/physical - behavioural - social / physically and functionally normal reproductive
organs/normal emotional and behavioural interaction among all sex related aspects.
2. (a) Name and explain the mode of action of any two types of IUDs.
(b) List the advantages of using 'Saheli' as a contraceptive.
Ans. (a)
 Non- medicated (e.g. lippes loop), phagocytosis of sperms
 Copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375), suppress sperm motility/reduces
fertilizing capacity of sperm.
Hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG – 20), makes uterus unsuitable for
implantation/cervix hostile to sperms.
(b) Advantages of Saheli-
(i) Non -steroidal (ii) Once a week (iii) High contraceptive value (iv) Less side effects
3. Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have high and
effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.
Ans. Progestogen-estrogen combination, Progestogen or progesterone are present in contraceptive
pills. They inhibit ovulation, implantation and alter quality of cervical mucus to retard entry of
sperm. Saheli is a commonly prescribed oral pill.
4. (a) Mention the problems that are taken care of by Reproduction and Child Health Care
programme.
(b) What is amniocentesis and why there is a statutory ban on it?
Ans. (a) (i) Uncontrolled population growth (ii) social evil like sex abuse
(iii) sex related crime (iv) STDs.
(b) Foetal sex determination test based on chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid/to study
chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus, banned to legally check female foeticide.
 (H) CASE-STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. Study the following and answer the questions given below:
The following us the illustration of male reproductive system. Observe it and give the answer of
question that follow:

Subject-1 Subject-2

(i) In subject-1 a small portion of which duct is removed and tied up?
Ans. Vas deferens
(ii) Which subject needs barrier?
Ans. Subject-2
(iii) Subject-1 shows infertility due to?
Ans. Vasectomy
(iv) What are the permanent method of family planning?
Ans. Vasectomy, Tubectomy

2. Study the following and answer the questions given below:

The following us the illustration of female reproductive system. Observe it and give the answer
of question that follow:

Subject-1 Subject-2
(i) Which part is removed in a subject-1?
Ans. Fallopian tube
(ii) Ovulation occur in which subject?
Ans. Both subject-1 and subject-2
(iii) In which subject does not show menstruation cycle?
Ans. Subject-1
(iv) In which subject fertilization does occurs?
Ans. Subject-2 Only

3. Read the following and answer the questions given below:

Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called MTP or induced
abortion. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world which
accounts to 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year. Obviously, MTP has a
significant role in decreasing the population though it is not meant for that purpose. Whether to
accept /legalise MTP or not is being debated upon in many countries due to emotional, ethical,
religious and social issues involved in it. Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some
strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Such restrictions are all the more important to check
indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides which are reported to be high in India.

(i) Expand MTP.

Ans. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(ii) What is relatively safe duration for MTPs ?
Ans. First trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
(iii) When Government of India legalised MTP with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse?
Ans. 1971

(iv) What is disturbing trend observed related to MTPs?

Ans. The MTPs are performed illegally by unqualified quacks which are not only unsafe but could
be fatal too.
(v) Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country. Is this ban necessary?
Comment.
Ans. Yes, the ban is necessary because amniocentesis is misused for determining the sex of the
foetus and then aborting the child if it is a female.
4. Read the following and answer the questions given below:

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a

national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family

planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved

programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation under the

popular name RCH programmes’. Creating awareness among people about various reproduction

related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy

society are the major tasks under these programmes. With the help of audio-visual and the print-

media governmental and non-governmental agencies have taken various steps to create awareness

among the people about reproduction-related aspects.

(i) Expand RCH.

Ans. Reproductive and Child Health Care

(ii) Mention the problems that are taken care of by RCH.

Ans. The uncontrolled population growth, social evil like sex abuse , sex related crime and STDs.

(iii) Prepare a slogan for poster for the school programme depicting the objectives of :

“Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme”.

Ans. A poster made on RCH - Any relevant slogan or sketch made should be awarded marks e.g. Hum

Do Hamare Do, Gender selection and detection is punishable.

(iv) “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet the goal of RCH ”. Give a

points in support of your opinion regarding this statement.

Ans. Provide right information to the young so as to discourage children from believing in myths

and misconception about sex related aspects.

(v) What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?

Ans. In a society if the people are aware of birth control methods to avoid sexually transmitted

diseases and the importance of breast-feeding and post-natal care of the mother and baby, then

the society can have healthy children who are the future citizens of a nation.
CHAPTER 4
(A) NCERT QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS
1. Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel.
Ans. • Annual plant with short life cycle of 2-3 months.
• It has many contrasting trait.
• Pea seeds are large.
• Easy to cultivate.
• Pea plant is naturally self pollinating.
• Artificial cross pollination can be easily performed.
2. Differentiate between the following – [IMP.]
(A) Dominance and Recessive (B) Homozygous and Heterozygous
(C) Monohybrid and Dihybrid
Ans. (A) Dominance and Recessive
Dominance Recessive

Allele which can express itself both in Allele which can express itself only in
homozygous and heterozygous condition homozygous condition is known as
is known as dominant allele. recessive allele.

(B) Homozygous and Heterozygous

Homozygous Heterozygous

In diploid individual, if similar alleles of In diploid individual, if dissimilar

a gene is present then it is said to be alleles of a gene is present then it is said
homozygous. to be heterozygous.
Also termed as Pure /true breeding. Also termed as Impure/Hybrid.
(C) Monohybrid and Dihybrid.

Monohybrid Dihybrid

Monohybrid involves cross between Dihybrid involves cross between parents

parents which differs in only one pair of differs in two pairs of contrasting
contrasting characters. characters.

For example The cross between tall and For example The cross between pea
dwarf pea plant is a monohybrid cross. plants having yellow round seed with
those having green wrinkled seeds is a
dihybrid cross.
3. A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how many types of gametes ?
Ans. A diploid organism heterozygous for 4 loci, will have four different contrasting characters at four
different loci.
For example if an organism is heterozygous at four loci with four characters say AaBbCcDd then
during meiosis it will segregate to form 16 separate gametes.
Type of gamete = 2n where n is no of heterozygous pair
So n = 4 so 24 so 16 gametes.
4. Explain the Law of Dominance using a monohybrid cross.
Ans. When two different factors (genes) or a pair of contrasting forms of a character are present in an
organism, only one expresses itself in the F1 generation and is termed as dominant while the
other remains unexpressed and called recessive factors (gene).
5. Define a test - cross?
Ans. When an individual is crossed with the homozygous recessive parent. It is called test cross.
6. Using a Punnett Square, workout the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial
generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single
locus.
Ans.

Parents  Tt tt

T t t t

Gametes  t t

Tt Tt
F1 generation T
Tall Tall
tt tt
t
Dwarf Dwarf
Phenotypic Ratio:- 1:1
Genotypic Ratio:- 1:1
7. When a cross in made between tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and tall plant with green
seed (Ttyy), what proportions of phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be [IMP.]
(a) Tall and green. (b) Dwarf and green.
Ans.
Tall & Yellow Seeds Tall & Green Seeds

TtYy Ttyy

Ty ty

TY TTYy (Tall & Yellow) TtYy (Tall & Yellow)

Ty Ttyy (Tall & Green) Ttyy (Tall & Green)

tY TtYy (Tall & Yellow) ttYy (Dwarf & Yellow)

ty Ttyy (Tall & Green) ttyy (Dwarf & Green)

Phenotype ratio 
(a) Tall and green : 3 (b) Dwarf and green : 1
8. Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the two loci are linked w e
distribution of phenotypic features in F1 generation for a dihybrid cross?
Ans. The co-existence of two or more genes in the same chromosome is termed as linkage. If the
genes are located close to each other and on the same chromosome, they are inherited together
and are referred to as linked genes. If two heterozygous parents exhibit linkage, then the outcome
is as follows:
BbLl x BbLl
Blue long Blue long
So in F1 generation the parental combination will comparatively be more than the newer
combinations which are less in number.
9. Briefly mention the contribution of T.H. Morgan in genetics.
Ans. Thomas Hunt Morgan is called father of experimental genetics.
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by Thomas Hunt
Morgan and his colleagues, led to discovering the basis for the variation that sexual reproduction
produced.
Morgan worked with the tiny fruit files, Drosophila melanogaster, which were found very
suitable for such studies.
Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked.
He stated and established that genes are located on the chromosome.
He established the principle of linkage, crossing over, sex linked inheritance and discovered the
relationship between gene and chromosome.
He established the technique of chromosome mapping.
He observed and worked on mutation.
10. What is pedigree analysis? Suggest how such an analysis, can be useful.
Ans. A pedigree is a record of inheritance of a specific genetic trait for two or more generations which
is presented in the form of a diagram or family tree. Pedigree analysis is an analysis of several
generations of a family which is used on human beings.
Usefulness of pedigree analysis:
Serves as a powerful tool which can be used to trace the inheritance of a particular trait, disease
or an abnormality
It is helpful for genetic counsellors to suggest couples about the possibility of having children
with genetic abnormalities such as colour blindness, haemophilia, thalassaemia, sickle-cell
anaemia etc
Helpful in reasoning why marriage between close relatives is harmful.
11. How is sex determined in human beings?
Ans. Sex determination in human is done by XX-XY type method. In humans, females have
XX chromosomes and males have two different type sex chromosomes (XY).
Female is homogametic Male is heterogametic
AA + XX (female) AA + XY (male)

A+X A+X A+X A+Y

A+X A+Y
+ A+X AA + XX AA + XY
A+X AA + XX AA + XY

Male progeny 50% female progeny - 50%

12. A child has blood group O. If the father has blood group A and mother blood group B, work
out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other offsprings. [IMP.]
Ans. IA Io × IBIO

A O
Father (I I ) B O
Mother (I I )

B O
I
A
I
O
+ I I

IB IO
IA I AI B IAIO
IO IBIO IOIO

Possible genotype of other offsprings - IAIB, IAIO, IBIO, IOIO

13. Explain the following terms with example.
(a) Co-dominance (b) Incomplete dominance
Ans. (a) Co-dominance: In this phenomenon both the alleles are able to express themselves
independently when found together in a heterozygote. They are termed as co-dominant
alleles.
E.g., - ABO blood group
(b) Incomplete dominance: Incomplete dominance may be defined as the partial /expression of
both alleles in a heterozygote so that the phenotype is intermediate between those of two
homozygotes.
E.g., - (i) Flower colours of Mirabilis jalapa (4 o'clock plant) (ii) Snapdragon
14. What is point mutation? Give one example.
Ans. Mutations arising due to change in single base pair of DNA is called point mutation. Eg: sickle
cell anaemia.
15. Who had proposed the chromosomal theory of the inheritance?
Ans. In 1902 the chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by Theodore Boveri and Walter
Sutton.
16. Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders with their symptoms. [IMP.]
Ans. Sickle cell anemia -
Symptoms:-
Shape of RBCs change from biconcave to sickle-shaped(curved) under the influence of low
oxygen tension.
These sickle-shaped RBCs are more rapidly destructed than the normal ones causing anaemia
Phenylketonuria:-
This inborn error of metabolism is also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait. The affected
individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine. As a result
of this phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenylpyruvic acid and other
derivatives.
Symptoms:-
Accumulation of these in brain results in mental retardation. These are also excreted through
urine because of its poor absorption by kidney.
 (B) PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. Assertion (A) : In Thalassemia an abnormal myoglobin chain is synthesized due to a gene defect.
Reason (R) : Thalassemia is controlled by genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 16.
[CBSE 2023]
Ans. (4) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is also true.
2. By using Punnett square depict the genotypes and phenotypes of test crosses (where green
pod colour (G) is dominant over yellow pod colour (g) in Garden pea with unknown
genotype. [CBSE 2023]
Ans.

Homozygous Homozygous
recessive recessive
(gg) (gg)

(g) (g) (g) (g)

Gg Gg (G) (G) Gg Gg
GG Gg
Gg Gg (G) (g) gg gg
Dominant phenotype
[Genotype unknown]
Result Pod colour is green Half of the pods are green
of all pods and half pods are yellow
Interpretation Unknown pod colour is Unknown pods is
homozygous dominant heterozygous

Diagrammatic representation of a test cross

3. It is sometimes observed that the F1 progency has a phenotype that does not resemble either
of the two parents and has intermediate phenotype. Explain by taking a suitable example
and working out the cross upto F2 progeny. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. When in heterozygous condition, dominant allele cannot express completely over recessive allele
this is known as Incomplete dominance.
It is the exception of law of dominance.
In case of incomplete dominance the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two
parents and was in between the two.

In heterozygous condition intermediate form appears.

The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (snapdragon or Antirrhinum majus) is a good
example to understand incomplete dominance.
 Incomplete dominance was first discovered by Correns for flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa.
Incomplete dominance is found in Snapdragon is similar to Mirabilis.
Intermediate starch grain size in pea plant is also example of incomplete dominance.
4. "It is sometimes observed that the F1 progeny shows a phenotype that resembles both the
parents." Explain this type of inheritance using the example of A,B,O blood groups in
human. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. When both the alleles of a gene express themselves simultaneously in a heterozygote, this
condition is known as Co-dominance.
In case of co-dominance the F1 generation resembles both the parents.
ABO blood group in humans beings comprises of four blood groups i.e. A,B,AB,O
These blood groups are due to the presence of special antigens on the surface of RBC.
Antigens are controlled by gene I.
Gene I has three alleles.
A
I Dominant
Gene I B
Chromosome I Dominant
no 9 O
I or i Recessive
Gene- I

A O
I I
B I or i
A antigen B antigen No antigen
ABO BLOOD GROUP
 Human is diploid organism so each person possesses any two of the three I gen

Genotype Blood group

IAIA
A
A O
I I

IBIB
B
B O
I I

IAIB AB (Codominance)

IOIO O

6 Genotypes 4 Phenotypes
5. The chromosome number is fixed for all normal organisms leading to species specification
whereas any abnormality in the chromosome number of an organism results into abnormal
individuals. For example, in humans 46 is the fixed number of chromosomes both in male and
female. In male it is '44 + XY' and in female it is '44 + XX'. Thus the human male is
heterogametic, in other words produce two different types of gametes one with '22 + X'
chromosomes and the other with '22 + Y' chromosomes respectively. Human female, on the other
hand is homogametic i.e. produces only on type of gamete with '22 + X' chromosomes only.
Sometimes an error may occur during meiosis of cell cycle, where the sister chromatids fail to
segregate called nondisjunction, leading to the production of abnormal gametes with altered
chromosome number. On fertilisation such gametes develop into abnormal individuals.
(a) State what is aneuploidy.

(b) If during spermatogenesis, the chromatids of sex chromosomes fail to the segregate during

meiosis, write only the different types of gametes with altered chromosome number that

could possibly be produced.

(c) A normal human sperm (22 + Y) fertilises an ovum with karyotype '22 + XX'. Name the

disorder the offspring thus produced would suffer from and write any two symptoms of the

disorder. [CBSE 2023]

OR

(c) Name a best known and most common autosomal aneuploid abnormality in human and
write any two symptoms.
Ans. (a) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in t a
chromosome(s), called aneuploidy.
(b) 22+XY and 22 + 0
(c) 44+XXYKlinefelter’s Syndrome - This genetic disorder is also caused due to the presence of
an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY. Such an
individual has overall masculine development, however, the feminine development
(development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also expressed such individuals are sterile.
OR
(c) Down’s Syndrome : The cause of this genetic disorder is the presence of an additional copy
of the chromosome number 21 (trisomy of 21). The affected individual is short statured with
small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth. Palm is broad with
characteristic palm crease. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
6. The case of Down's syndrome in humans is: [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Extra copy of an autosome (2) Extra copy of a sex chromosome
(3) Absence of an autosome (4) Absence of a sex chromosome
Ans. (1) Extra copy of an autosome
7. Which of the following features show the mechanism of sex determination in honey-bee?
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a male.
(2) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female.
(3) The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes.
(4) Males have father and can produce sons.
Ans. (2) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female.
8. Select the pair that is incorrect: [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Sickle-cell anaemia : Autosome liked recessive
(2) Haemophilia : Autosome linked recessive trait
(3) Colour blindness : Sex linked recessive trait
(4)Thalassemia : Autosome linked recessive trait
Ans. (2) Haemophilia : Autosome linked recessive trait
9. An example of a human trait where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expression is :-
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Phenylketonuria (2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Thalassemia (4) Haemophilia
Ans. (1) Phenylketonuria
10. Life cycle of Drosophila melanogaster is completed in :- [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 7 days (2) 14 days (3) 21 days (4) 28 days
Ans. (2) 14 days
11. How many types of gametes would develop by an organism with genotype AaBBCcDD?
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. (4) 4
12. In Pisum sativum the flower colour may be Violet (V) or White (v). What e
offsprings in a cross of VV × vv would be expected to be violet? [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
Ans. (4) 100%
13. Which one of the gene pair is expected to give a ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 in the progeny of a
Mendelian Dihybrid cross? [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) AaBb × AbBb (2) AABB × AaBb
(3) AaBb × aabb (4) AABB × aabb
Ans. (3) AaBb × aabb
14. The progeny of a cross between two snapdragon plants heterozygous for flower colour, bearing
different coloured flower would be: [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 50% pink, 50% white (2) 25% red, 50% pink, 25% white
(3) 50% red, 50% white (4) 75% red, 25% white
Ans. (2) 25% red, 50% pink, 25% white
15. Study the given pedigree of a family and select the trait that shows this pattern of inheritance
[CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Autosomal recessive, Phenylketonuria
(2) Sex-linked recessive, Colour blindness
(3) Autosomal dominant, Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Sex-linked dominant, Vitamin D resistant rickets
Ans. (1) Autosomal recessive, Phenylketonuria

16. A child with blood group A has father with blood group B and mother with blood group AB.
What would be the possible genotypes of parents and the child? Choose the correct option:

[CBSE Term-I 2022]

Father Mother Child

(1) IAi IBi IAi

(2) IAIB IAi IAIA

(3) IBi IAIB IAi

(4) IBIB IAIB IAIA

Ans. (3) IB i IAIB IAi

17. In a dihybrid Mendelian cross, garden pea plants heterozygous for violet flowe s
are crossed with homozygous white flowers and wrinkled seeds. The genotypic and phenotypic
ratio of F1 progeny would be: [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
Ans. (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
18. Colour blindness is a sex linked recessive trait in humans. A man with normal colour vision
marries a women who is colourblind. What would be the possible genotypes of the parents, the
son and the daughter of this couple? [CBSE Term-I 2022]
Mother Father Daughter Son
C C
(1) XX X Y X X XY
(2) XCXC XCY XCXC XCY
(3) XCX XCY XCX XY
C C C C
(4) X X X Y X X XCY
Ans. (4) XCXC XCY XCX XCY
19. How many types of gametes can be produced in a diploid organism which is heterozygous for 4
loci? [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
Ans. (3) 16
20. The recombinant Frequency between the four linked genes is as follows:
(i) between X and Y is 40%. (ii) between Y and Z is 30%.
(iii) between Z and W is 10%. (iv) between W and X is 20%.
Select the option that shows the correct order of the position of W, X, Y and Z genes on the
chromosome: [CBSE Term-I 2022]
(1) Y – X – Z – W (2) Y – W – Z – X (3) X – Y – Z – W (4) Z – X – Y – W
Ans. (2) Y– W – Z – X
21. A snapdragon plant with violet flowers was crossed with another such plant with white
flowers. The F1 progeny obtained had pink flowers. Explain, in brief, the inheritance
pattern seen in offsprings of F1 generation? [CBSE IMP Question]
Ans. The inheritance is incomplete dominance. In this, a new intermediate phenotype between the two
original phenotypes is obtained. One allele for a specific trait is not completely expressed over
the other allele for the same trait.
22. Karyotype of a child shows trisomy of chromosome number 21. Identify the disorder and
state the symptoms which are likely to be exhibited in this case. [CBSE IMP Question]
Ans. Disorder - Down’s Syndrome
Symptoms: The affected individual is short statured with small round head, has furrowed tongue,
partially open mouth, Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease, Physical, psychomotor and
mental development is retarded (any three symptoms)
23. How would you find out the genotype of a pea plant with violet flowers? e
help of Punnets’ square showing crosses. [CBSE IMP Question]
Ans.

W W
W W

W W

W w

Diagrammatic representation of a test cross

24. What is aneuploidy? Name a chromosomal disorder in humans caused due to (a) gain of an
autosome, and (b) loss of a sex chromosome in females. [CBSE 2020]
Ans. Aneuploidy is Failure of segregation of chromatids (during cell division), resulting in gain or loss
of a chromosome (s)
(a) Gain of an autosome - Down’s syndrome
(b) Loss of a sex chromosome - Turner’s syndrome
25. A normal couple has their first child, who is haemophilic. Work out a cross to show how it
is possible. State the possibility of the normal and the haemophilic children, along with
their sexes, that can be born to them. [CBSE 2020]
Ans.
XXh XY
Carrier Female Normal Male

Gametes X Xh X Y

XX XY XXh XhY
Normal daughter Normal Son Carrier daughter Haemophilic Son
25% 25% 25% 25%
26. State Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment.

Ans. When two pairs of traits (characters) are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of

characters is independent of the other pair of characters.

27. Write one example each of organisms exhibiting (i) male heterogamety, and (ii) female

heterogamety. [CBSE 2019]

Ans. (i) Human / Drosophila / Grasshopper (ii) Birds / Chicken

28. Why is the frequency of red-green colour blindness more in human males than in females?

Explain. [CBSE 2019]

Ans. Gene for colour blindness is located on X chromosome in human, it is a recessive gene, since

human males have single X chromosome the recessive gene always expresses when present,

where as in human females as they have two X chromosomes the trait is expressed only if both

the sex chromosomes have this recessive gene.

29. How is polygenic inheritance different from pleiotropy ? Give one example of each.

[CBSE 2019]

Ans.
Polygenic inheritance Pleiotropy

a) A single trait influenced by many a) A single gene can exhibit multiple

genes phenotypic expression

b) e.g human height/ skin colour in b) e.g phenylketonuria , characterised

humans controlled by three or by mental retardation / reduction
more genes. in hairs and / skin pigmentation

30. Write the sex of a human having XXY chromosomes with 22 pairs of autosomes. Name the

disorder this human suffers from. [CBSE 2018]

Ans. Male, Klinefelter’s syndrome

 (C) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. An organism’s genetic constitution is called its
(1) Genotype (2) Phenotype (3) Holotype (4) None of these
Ans. (1) Genotype
2. An organism with two identical alleles for a given trait is
(1) Homozygous (2) Segregating (3) Dominant (4) A hermaphrodite
Ans. (1) Homozygous
3. What type of gametes will be formed by genotype RrYy?
(1) RY, Ry, YY, ry (2) RY, Ry, ry, ry (3) RY, Ry, rY, ry (4) Rr, RR, Yy, YY
Ans. (3) RY, Ry, rY, ry
4. Which genotype characterizes an organism that is heterozygous for two genes?
(1) RRYy (2) RrYY (3) RRYY (4) RrYy
Ans. (4) RrYy
5. Which of the following is the dominant character according to Mendel?
(1) Dwarf plant and yellow fruit (2) Terminal fruit and wrinkled seed
(3) White testa and yellow pericarp (4) Green coloured pod and rounded seed
Ans. (4) Green coloured pod and rounded seed
6. Self-pollination between Tt and Tt plants results into the genotype ratio of
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 0
Ans. (2) 1 : 2 : 1
7. Mendel’s law of heredity can be explained with the help of
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
(3) Both mitosis and meiosis (4) None of these
Ans. (2) Meiosis
8. Genes do not occur in pair in :-
(1) Gametes (2) Embryo (3) Zygote (4) Somatic Cell
Ans. (1) Gametes
9. When heterozygous tall plants are self-pollinated, then tall and dwarf plants are obtained. This
explains
(1) Law of purity of gamete (2) Law of segregation
(3) Division in spores (4) Independent assortment
Ans. (2) Law of segregation
10. Mendel’s principle of segregation was based on the separation of alleles in the
(1) Pollination (2) Embryonic development
(3) Seed formation (4) Gamete formation
Ans. (4) Gamete formation
11. A cross between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous plant is called
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) Test cross (4) Back cross
Ans. (3) Test cross
12. Cross between F1 plant and recessive female plant is called
(1) Back cross (2) Test cross (3) Out cross (4) Mutation
Ans. (2) Test cross
13. In F2 generation, a phenotypic ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 exhibits
(1) Back cross (2) Monohybrid test cross
(3) Lethality (4) Dihybrid test cross
Ans. (4) Dihybrid test cross
14. Which of the following depicts the Mendel’s dihybrid ratio?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 9 : 7 (4) 15 : 1
Ans. (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
15. Inheritance of ABO blood group system is an example of
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Partial dominance (3) Epistasis (4) Dominance
Ans. (1) Multiple allelism
16. Genotype of blood group ‘A’ will be
(1) IAIA (2) IBIB (3) IAIA or IAIO (4) IAIO
Ans. (3) IAIA or IAIO
17. Blood group ‘B’ will have alleles
(1) ii (2) IAIA (3) IBIB (4) IAIB
Ans. (3) IBIB
18. Identify A to E in this figure.

A
B
C
D
E

(1) A: Petal; B: Stigma; C: Anther; D: Stamen; E: Carpel

(2) A: Anther; B: Petal; C: Stigma; D: Carpel; E: Stamen
(3) A: Carpel; B: Stamen; C: Anther; D: Stigma; E: Petal
(4) A: Stigma; B: Petal; C: Stamen; D: Anther; E: Carpel
Ans. (1) A: Petal; B: Stigma; C: Anther; D: Stamen; E: Carpel
19. The below diagram represents

(1) Back cross (2) Out cross (3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid cross

Ans. (3) Test cross

20. If in a dihybrid cross, Mendel had used two such characters which have linked, he would have

faced difficulty in explaining the results on the basis of

(1) Law of segregation (2) Law of multiple factor hypothesis

(3) Law of independent assortment (4) Law of dominance

Ans. (3) Law of independent assortment

 (D) ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS
 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood group system.
Reason: When IA and IB alleles are present together in ABO blood group system, they both
express their own types of sugar.
Ans. (2)
2. Assertion : In Mirabilis, selfing of F1 pink flower plants produces same phenotypic & genotypic
ratio.
Reason : Flower colour gene shows incomplete dominance.
Ans. (1)
3. Assertion: By means of dihybrid cross, the law of independent assortment can be studied.
Reason: The law of independent assortment is applicable only to linked genes.
Ans. (3)
4. Assertion : In case of incomplete linkage, linked gene show new combination along with
parental combination.
Reason : In case of incomplete linkage, linked genes are separated by crossing over.
Ans. (1)
5. Assertion: When white eyed, yellow bodied Drosophila females were hybridized with red eyed,
brown-bodied males; and F1 progeny was intercrossed, F2 ratio deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Reason: When two genes in a dihybrid are on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental
gene combinations are much higher than the non parental type.
Ans. (1)
6. Assertion: The maximum frequency of recombination, that can result from crossing over
between linked genes, is 50 percent.
Reason: Higher frequency of crossing over is shown in linked genes if distance between them is
longer.
Ans. (2)
7. Assertion : The linked genes tend to get inherited together.
Reason : The link between them fails to break.
Ans. (1)
8. Assertion : The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes in honeybee.
Reason : The male are haploid having 16 chromosomes in honeybee.
Ans. (2)
9. Assertion : Most of experiments regarding sex determination were done on Drosophila.
Reason : It is fruit fly.
Ans. (2)
10. Assertion : In birds, the chromosome composition of the egg determines the sex.
Reason : Female birds are heterogametic.
Ans. (1)
 (E) VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. How many type of gametes produced by the individual with genotype AABBCCDD and
AaBbCcDd?
Ans. One type of gamete by individual AABBCCDD and sixteen (24 = 16) type of gametes by
individual AaBbCcDd.
2. Mention the type of allele that expresses itself only in homozygous state in an organism.
Ans. Recessive allele.
3. Write the percentage of F2 homozygous and heterozygous populations in a typical
monohybrid cross.
Ans. The ratio of a typical monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1 where 50% are homozygous and 50% are
heterozygous populations. (25% homozygous dominant, 25% homozygous recessive).
4. Name the type of cross that would help to find the genotype of a pea plant bearing violet
flowers.
Ans. Test cross.
5. A cross was carried out between two pea plants showing the contrasting traits of height of
the plant. The result of the cross showed 50% of parental characters. Name the type of
cross.
Ans. Test cross
6. Why, in a test cross, did Mendel cross a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant only?
Ans. To determine the genotype of the tall plant, whether it is homozygous dominant or heterozygous,
as dwarfness is a recessive trait which is expressed only in homozygous condition and he was
sure of genotype of dwarf plant.
7. Name the stage of cell division where segregation of an independent pair of chromosomes
occurs.
Ans. Anaphase-I of Meiosis-I.
8. In a dihybrid cross, when would the proportion of parental gene combinations be much
higher than non-parental types, as experimentally shown by Morgan and his group?
Ans. When the genes are linked.
9. If the frequency of a parental form is higher than 25% in dihybrid test cross, what does
that indicate about the two genes involved?
Ans. It shows that the two genes are linked.
10. If two genes are located far apart from each other on a chromosome, how the frequency of
recombination will get affected?
Ans. Frequency of recombination will be higher.
 (F) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Name the base change and the amino acid change, responsible for sickle cell anaemia.
Ans. AG changes as GUG, Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine.
2. Name any one plant that shows the phenomenon of incomplete dominance during the
inheritance of its flower colour.
Ans. Snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.
3. What is point mutation and frame shift mutation ?
Ans. Point Mutation : Arises due to change in a single base pair of DNA e.g., sickle cell anaemia.
Frame shift mutation : Deletion or insertion/ duplication/addition of one or two bases in DNA.
4. What is pedigree analysis?
Ans. A pedigree is a record of inheritance of a specific genetic trait for two or more generations which
is presented in the form of a diagram or family tree. Pedigree analysis is an analysis of several
generations of a family which is used on human beings.
5. Write the sex of a human having XXY chromosomes with 22 pairs of autosomes. Name the
disorder this human suffers from.
Ans. Male, Klinefelter’s syndrome
6. A haemophilic father can never pass the gene for haemophilia to his son. Explain.
Ans. It is a sex linked recessive disorder in which X-chromosome has the haemophilic gene.
 Son inherits a Y chromosome from father and gene for haemophilia is not present on Y
chromosome
7. A colour blind boy is born to a couple with a normal colour vision. Write the genotype of
the parents.
Ans. Father - XY, Mother -XXC
8. What is a test cross ? How can it decipher the heterozygosity of a plant?
Ans. A cross to analyse whether genotype of dominant individual is homozygous or heterozygous
On crossing with a recessive parent, if 50% of progeny have dominant trait and 50% have
recessive trait then the plant is said to be heterozygous
9. What happens when chromatids fail to segregate during cell division cycle? Explain your
answer with an example.
Ans. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of
chromosome called aneuploidy.
E.g. (i) Down' syndrome results in the gain of extra copy of chromosome 21
(ii) Turner's syndrome results due to loss of an X-chromosome in human female.
10. ABO blood groups is a good example of co-dominance. Justify.
Ans. – ABO blood group in humans is contributed by gene 'I' that has 3 alleles 'IA' 'IB' and 'i'.
 Because human beings are diploid each person has two of the three alleles.
 IA and IB produce two different types of sugar while allele i does not produce sugar on the plasma
membrane of RBC.
 When IA and IB are present they both express their own type of sugar- this is codominance
 (G) LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Given below is the representation of a relevant part of amino acid composition of the
-chain of haemoglobin, related to the shape of human red blood cells.
GTG
CAC

GUG

Hbs peptide
(a) Is this representation of the sequence of amino acids indicating a normal human or a sufferer
from a certain blood related genetic disease? Give reason in Support of your answer.
(b) Why is the disease referred to as a Mendelian disorder? Explain.
Ans. (a) Suffered human, because at 6th position of the chain Valine is present.
(b) Alteration / mutation occurs in a single gene, at 6th position Glutamic acid replaces Valine.
2. (a) How would you find out whether a given tall garden pea plant is homozygous or
heterozygous?
Substantiate your answer with the help of Punnett squares.
(b) Given below are the F2-phenotypic ratios of two independently carried Monohybrid crosses:
(i) 1 : 2 : 1 (ii) 3 : 1
Mention what does each ratio suggest.
Ans. (a) By Test Cross / crossing the organism with dominant phenotype (but unknown genotype) with
the recessive individual.

(b) (i) Incomplete Dominance (ii) Dominance

3. Give the answer of following questions.
(a) Why are thalassemia and haemophilia categorized as Mendelian disorders ? Write the
symptoms of these diseases. Explain their pattern of inheritance in humans.
(b) Write the genotypes of the normal parents producing a haemophilic son.
Ans. (a) The thalassemia and haemophilia categorized as Mendelian disorder becau d
due to alteration or mutation in single gene.
S.No. Haemophilia Thalassemia
1 Single protein involve in the clotting of Defects in the synthesis of globin leading to
blood is affected formation of abnormal haemoglobin
2 Sex linked recessive disorder Autosomal recessive disorder
3 Blood does not clot Results in anaemia
Inheritance pattern:
• The thalassemia is autosomal recessive disorder which inheritate like non criss-cross form
both heterozygous parents to any progeny or both recessive parents to all progeny.
• The haemophilia is Sex linked recessive disorder so that inheritate like criss-cross, from
carrier mother to affected son to carrier daughter. In haemophilia the the female are carrier
while male are patient, female may be patient in case of their parents (both male and
female) carry gene for haemophilia
(b) The genotype of parents of haemophilic son is that father is normal (XY) and mother is
carrier( ).
4. (a) Compare in any three ways the chromosomal theory of inheritance as proposed by
Sutton and Bovery with that of experimental results on pea plant presented by
Mendel.
(b) Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865 but it remained
unrecognized till 1900. What are the reasons behind this.
Ans. (a)
S.No. Sutton And Bovery Mendel
1 Chromosomes occur in pairs Factors occur in pairs
2 Chromosomes segregate at the time of Factors segregate at gamete formation
gamete formation such that only one of stage and only one of each pair is
each pair is transmitted to a gametes transmitted to a gamete
3 Independent pairs of chromosomes One pair of factors segregate
segregate independently of each other independently of another pairs

(b) There are following reasons behind unrecognization of Mendel work.

(i) The communication was not easy in those days and his work could not be widely published.

(ii) His concept of genes or factor as stable and discrete unit that control the expression of traits and,
of the pair of allele which did not blend each other, was not accepted by his contemporaries as an
explanation for the apparently continuous variations seen in nature.
(iii) Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was totally new and
unacceptable to many of the biologists of his time.
(iv) Finally, though Mendel’s work suggested that factors (genes) were discrete units, he could not
provide any physical proof for the existence of factor.
5. The given below is the figure of sex determination into three l
(A ,B and C). Observe it and give the answer of question that follow.

(a) Which of the animal show male heterogamety?

(b) Is the sperm or egg responsible for the sex of the chicks?
(c) In our society the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain
why this is not correct?
Ans. (a) The male parent of both A and B show male haterogamety that they formed two type of
gametes.
(b) The egg is responsible for the sex of chicks because the female is heterogametic which
formed two different type of gametes with sex chromosome ( Z and W) while male
formed only one type of gametes (Z).The combination of W from female with Z of male
formed the female progeny.
(c) This is not correct to blame women for giving birth to daughter. The male sperm contain
either X or Y chromosome whereas the female egg contain only X chromosome. At the
time of fertilization, sperm with Y chromosome combine with egg containing X
chromosome formed which would be male. Thus scientifically sex of the baby is
determined by the father and not by the mother as blamed in our society.
 (H) CASE-STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. Study the following and answer the questions given below :

During a study of inheritance of two genes, teacher asked students to perform an experiment. The

students crossed white eyed, yellow bodied female Drosophila with a red eyed, brown bodied

male Drosophila (i.e., wild). They observed that progenies in F2 generation had 1.3 percent

recombinants and 98.7 percent parental type combinations. The experimental cross with results is

shown in the given figure.

Cross A Cross B

Parental

F1 generation

Gametes

F2 generation
(i) Identify in which of the crosses, the strength of linkage between the ge e
reasons in support of your Answer?
Ans. The strength of linkage is higher in the cross A than in cross B because linkage is higher when
two genes are present closely on the same chromosome than those gene which are far a part. In
cross B the chance of crossing over or recombination are higher because the genes are lossely
linked.
(ii) Write the scientific name of fruitfly?
Ans. Drosophila melanogaster
(iii) Why did morgan prefer to work with fruit flies for his experiments? State any two reasons.
Ans. (i) It complete its life cycle in about two weeks. (ii) a single mating could produce a large
number of progeny flies.
(iv) How did morgan show the deviation in inheritance - Pattern in Drosophila with respect to
this law.
Ans. Morgan found that linkage is an exception to the law of Independent assortment.
2. Study the following and answer the questions given below:
The given below is inheritance pattern of plant height (Subject-1) and flower colour in
snapdragon plant (Subject-2) study it give the answer of asked questions.
Subject-1 Subject-2

P generation
Red (RR) White (rr)

Gametes
Tall Dwarf
TT tt
Gametes T t Gametes F1 generation

T t All pink (Rr)

Tt
F1 generation Gametes Gametes
Tt Tt

Tt F2 generation

Tall Selfing Tall

Tt Tt
Gametes T T Gametes

t t
TT
F2 generation
Tt Tt

tt
A punnett square
(i) What type of cross represented by subject - 1 and subject - 2 respectively?
Ans. Subject-1  Monohybrid cross
Subject-2 Incomplete Dominance
(ii) What are genotype and phenotype ratio of F2 generation of subject - 1?
Ans. Genotype = 1 : 2 : 1
Phenotype = 3 : 1
(iii) The appearance of pink flowers is not known as blending why? (Subject-2)
Ans. Blending is the mixing of two colours but in this example red and white colours appear
indepently at cellular level. Thus no blending occurs. The red and white colours reappear in F 2
generation.
(iv) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of -
Ans. Incomplete dominance (Subject-2)
3. Read the following and answer the questions given below:
Haemophilia is a sex linked disease which is also known as bleeder's disease as the patient will
continue to bleed even from a minor cut since he or she does not possess the natural phenomenon
of blood clotting due to absence of anti-haemophilic globulin or factor VIII and plasma
thromboplastin factor IX essential for it. As a result of continuous bleeding the patient may die of
blood loss. Colour blindness is another type of sex linked trait in which the eye fails to
distinguish red and green colours. Vision is however, not affected and the colour blind can, lead a
normal life, reading, writing and driving (distinguishing traffic lights by their position).
(i) Which of the blood clotting factors are absent in the patient who suffered from
haemophilia?
Ans. Anti-haemophilic globulin or factor VIII and plasma thromboplastin factor IX essential for it.
(ii) A man whose father was colour blind and mother was normal marries a woman whose
father was haemophilic and mother was normal . Write the ration of possible progenies.
Ans. 25% male progenies and 25% female progenies carry the gene of haemophilia.
(iii) If a haemophilic man marries a woman whose father was haemophilic and mother was
normal then what will be normal, carrier and haemphilic in female progenies.?
Ans. Of the total number of daughters,0% daughter are normal 50% daughters are carriers and 50%
are haemophilic.
(iv) A hemophilic father can never pass the gene for hemophilia to his son. Explain.
Ans. The hemophilia is X-linked recessive disorder where female is carrier while male is patient in
case of present of single X chromosome. The X chromosome of male only passed to daughter and
Y to son. So that the son of hemophilic father is never be a patient.
(v) About 8% male the human population are colourblind whereas only 0.4 e
colour – blind. Write an explanation to show how it is possible.
Ans. Colour blind is a X linked recessive disorder. Male have higher chances of getting affected in
comparison to females because male have only one X with Y chromosome and female have XX
chromosome Thus for a female to get affected by colour blindness,she has to have the mutate
gene on both the X chromosome while male can be affected, if they carry it on the single X
chromosome.

4. Read the following and answer the questions given below:

Turner's syndrome is an example of monosomy. It is formed by the union of an allosome free egg
and a normal 'X' containing sperm or a normal egg and an allosome free sperm. The individual
has 2n = 45 chromosomes = (44 + X0) instead of 46. Such individuals are sterile females who
have rudimentary ovaries, under developed breasts, small uterus, short stature, webbed neck and
abnormal intelligence. They may not menstruate or ovulate . This disorder can be treated by
giving female sex hormone to the women from the age of puberty to make them develop breasts
and have menstruation. This makes them feel more normal.

(i) Write the karyotype of Turner's syndrome.

Ans. 44+ XO

(ii) Write the number of Bar body present in a female with Turner's syndrome.

Ans. 0 Bar Body.

(iii) What is the reason behind a person to be Turner's syndrome?

Ans. It is due to the union of an allosome free egg and a normal 'X' containing sperm or a normal egg
and an allosome free sperm.

(iv) Write the symptoms of Turner's syndrome.

Ans. Such individuals are sterile females who have rudimentary ovaries, under developed breasts,
small uterus, short stature, webbed neck and abnormal intelligence. They may not menstruate or
ovulate.

(v) Write the treatment for Turner's syndrome.

Ans. This disorder can be treated by giving female sex hormone to the women from the age of puberty
to make them develop breasts and have menstruation. This makes them feel more normal.
CHAPTER 9
(A) NCERT QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS
1. Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where
they are used as therapeutics (use the internet).
Ans.
S.No. Recombinant Proteins Therapeutic uses
1. Human Insulin (Humulin) Treatment of diabetes type-1
2. Human growth hormone Replacement of missing hormone in
short stature people.
3. Platelet Growth factor Stimulation of wound healing
4. Calcitonin Treatment of rickets
5. Blood clotting factor Replacement of clotting factor
VIII/IX missing in patients with
Haemophilla A/B.
6. Hirudin Used as an anticoagulant
7. Interferon Treatment of viral infection and
cancer
8. Chorionic Gonadotropin Treatment of infertility
9. Interleukins Enhancing activity of immune
system
10. Tissue Plasminogen Treatment for acute myocardial
Activator infarction, dissolves blood clot after
heat attack and stroke.
2. Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the
substrate the DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it
produces. [IMP.]
Ans.
EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases
The enzyme cuts both DNA strands G and A only when the sequence
at the same site GAATTC is present in the DNA

Vector DNA Foreign DNA

EcoRI
Sticky end

Sticky end
DNA fragments join at sticky ends

Recombinant DNA

Step in formation of recombinant DNA by action of

restriction endonuclease enzyme - EcoRI
3. From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or n
molecular size? How did you know? [IMP.]
Ans. DNA is bigger in molecular size. DNA is made up of sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases. An
enzyme is made up of only one or few polypeptides.
Enzyme is synthesized from a portion of DNA.
4. What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell? Consult your
teacher.
Ans. The molar concentration of human DNA in a human diploid cell as follow:
 Total number of chromosomes × 6.023 × 1023
 46 × 6.023 × 1023

 277.06 × 1023 Moles.

Hence, the molar concentration of DNA in each diploid cell in human is 277.06 × 1023 moles.
5. Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer. [IMP.]
Ans. Eukaryotic cells have no restriction enzymes as the DNA molecules of eukaryotes are heavily
methylated.
It is present in prokaryotic cell (like bacteria) where these act as defense mechanism to restrict
the growth of bacteriophages.
6. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred-tank
bioreactors have over shake flasks?
Ans. Shake flask is used for a small–scale production but the stirred-tank bioreactors are used for large
scale production of biotechnological products.
Advantages of stirred - tank bioreactors over shake flasks are that these facilitate –
 Temperature control system,
 pH control system,
 Foam control system and
 Sampling ports from where small, volume of the cultures can be obtained and tested time to time.
7. Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by consulting your teacher. better try to
create a palindromic sequence by following base - pair rules.
Ans. (i) 5' GAATTC 3' (ii) 5' GGATCC 3'
3' CTTAAG 5' 3' CCTAGG 5‘
(iii) 5' ACTAGT 3' (iv) 5' AAGCTT 3'
3' TGATCA 5' 3' TTCGAA 5'
(v) 5' AGGCCT 3'
3' TCCGGA 5'
8. Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is
Ans. Meiosis is the cell division process of gamete formation. It occurs in two steps –
Meiosis-I and Meiosis-II
During pachytene stage of prophase–I of meiosis-I, crossing over takes place between non-sister
chromatids of homologous chromosomes and a recombinant DNA is made.
9. Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation
of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker? [IMP.]
Ans. A reporter gene is used to monitor the transformation of host cells by foreign DNA. They act as a
selectable marker to determine whether the host cell has taken up the foreign DNA or the foreign
gene gets expressed in the cell.
Here, the reporter gene is used as a selectable marker to find out the successful uptake of gene of
interest.
An example of reporter gene includes lac Z gene which encodes β- galactosidase enzyme.
10. Describe briefly the following:
(a) Origin of replication (b) Bioreactors (c) Downstream processing
Ans. (a) Origin of replication:- It is a DNA sequence that initiates any piece of linked DNA to
replicate and is also called ori site. It controls the copy numbers of the linked DNA.
(b) Bioreactors:-Bioreactors are vessels of large volumes (100-1000 liters) in which raw
materials are biologically converted into specific products.
- It provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimal
growth conditions like temperature, pH, substrates, salts vitamins and oxygen.
Stirred tank bioreactors are commonly used bioreactors.
A bioreactor has the following components.
(i) An agitator system
(ii) An oxygen delivery system
(iii) Foam control system
(iv) Temperature control system
(v) pH control system
(vi) Sampling ports to withdraw cultures periodically
(c) Downstream processing - All the process to which a product has to be subjected through a
series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product called downstream
processing.
 It includes separation of the product from the reactor.
 Purification of the product.
 Formulation of the product with suitable preservatives.
 Quality control testing and trials in case of drugs.
11. Explain briefly.
(a) PCR (b) Restriction enzymes and DNA (c) Chitinase
Ans. (a) PCR - PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction, which is a method for amplification of
small segments of DNA.
(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA- Restriction enzymes are called ‘molecular scissors’
because they cut the helix of DNA at a specific site. DNA is the genetics material, which
carries and pass the genetic characters or information from one generation to other.
(c) Chitinase - Chitinase is an enzyme which is used to degrade the cell wall of fungi to release
its cellular components.
12. Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between. [IMP.]
(A) Plasmid DNA and chromosomal DNA (B) DNA and RNA
(C) Exonuclease and endonuclease
Ans. (A) Plasmid DNA and chromosomal DNA

S.No. Plasmid DNA Chromosomal DNA

1. This is present in prokaryotic cells. This is present in both prokaryotic and
eg -bacteria eukaryotic cells.
2. This is the circular extra-chromosomal It is linear and associated with histones
DNA not associated with histone proteins. proteins in eukaryotes, but it is double
stranded and circular in prokaryotes.
3. It gives extra characters to prokaryotes like It contains genes for characters
antibiotic resistance. essential for life of organism.
(B) DNA and RNA
S.No. DNA RNA
1. It has deoxyribose sugar . It has ribose sugar.
2. It has A, G, C, T nitrogen base in its It has A, G, C, U nitrogen base in its
nucleotide. nucleotide.
3. It is double stranded. It is mostly single stranded.
4. It acts as a genetic material in almost all It acts as genetic material in only some
organism. viruses.
5. DNA can’t be catalytic. It can be catalytic.(Ribozyme)
(C) Exonuclease and Endonuclease

S.No. Exonuclease Endonuclease

1. Remove nucleotides from ends of the DNA Cut at specific positions within the
DNA
2. They are end specific. They are site specific.
3. e.g : Exonuclease - I e.g. EcoRI
 (B) PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1. Assertion (A) : Synthetic oligonueleotide polymers are used during Annealing in a PCR.
[CBSE 2023]
Reason (R) : The primere bind to the double stranded DNA at their complementary regions.
Ans. (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
2. (a) Write the scientific name of the source organism of the thermostable DNA polymerase
used in PCR. [CBSE 2023]
(b) State the advantage of using Thermostable DNA polymerase.
Ans. (a) Thermus aquaticus
(b) Thermostable polymerase (Taq polymerase) is used in the PCR due to their advantage to
remain active at very high temperatures. Unlike other polymerases. Taq polymerase do not
get denature in the process of PCR thus, effectively perform the task of DNA strand
polymeriozation even at 94 - 95ºC temperature.
3. (a) State the principle involved in separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis.
(b) How are DNA fragments visuaised once they are separated by gel electrophoresis?
[CBSE 2023]
Ans. (a) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to
move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.
(b) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a
compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation .You can see
bright orange coloured bands of DNA in a ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to UV
light.
4. (a) Given below is the stepwise schematic representation of the process of
electrophoresis.
P Q R

4
end 3 end
U S
2
1

T
Identify the 'alphabets' representing
(i) Anode end
(ii) Smallest/lightest DNA strand in the matrix
(iii) Agarose gel
(b) What is elution? State the importance of elution in this process.
[CBSE Term-II 2022]
Ans. (a) (i) Anode- S end (ii) R (iii) T
(b) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece. This step is known as elution.
Importance:- The DNA fragments purified in this way are used in constructing recombinant
DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.
5. (a) Read the paragraph given below and answer the questions that follow:
Enzyme Taq polymerase, is extracted from a eubacterial microorganism Thermus
aquaticus from Yellowstone National Park in Montana, USA and isolated by Chien at
al. (1976). Taq polymerase successfully replaced the DNA polymerase from E.coli that
was being used in PCR earlier and this shift revolutionised the PCR technique.
(i) Taq polymerase after its discovery replaced E.coli DNA polymerase in PCR
technique. Explain giving reasons why was the need felt for the change?
(ii) What is a primer and its importance in PCR?
(ii) What the importance of PCR as a diagnostic tool. [CBSE Term-II 2022]
Ans. (a) (i) Thermostable DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which
remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA.
(ii) primer is a small segment of DNA that binds to a complementary strand of DNA. Primers
are necessary to start the functioning of DNA polymerase enzyme and therefore are
necessary in polymerase chain reaction.
(iii) PCR is important because it can generate several copies of a DNA sequence in a very
short time period. It is also important in forensic science as a tool for genetic engineering.
It helps in analyzing the gene expression
6. Name the commonly used vector for cloning genes into higher organisms.
[CBSE IMP Questions]
Ans. Retrovirus/ Adenoviruses/Papilloma virus/Cauliflower mosaic virus/Tobacco mosaic virus
7. Assertion: E. coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamHI site cannot grow in medium
containing tetracycline. [CBSE IMP Questions]
R
Reason: Recognition site for Bam HI is present in tet region of pBR322.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false
Ans. (A) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
8. What are sticky ends? State their significance in recombination DNA technology.
[CBSE IMP Questions]
Ans.  Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome
sites, but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves single stranded
portions at the ends. These overhanging stretches on each strand are called sticky ends.
 They form hydrogen bonds with their complementary counterparts and facilitate the action
of DNA ligase enzyme.
9. (a) Identify step A and B in a cycle of polymerase chain reaction given bel

5' 3'
3' 5'
Primers
(A)
5' 3'
3' 5'

DNA polymerase
(Taq polymerase)
+ deoxynucleotides
5' 3'
3' 5'
(B)
5' 3'
3' 5'

(b) State the specific characteristic feature of the enzyme in carrying step B. [CBSE 2020]

Ans. (a) Step A- Annealing, B- Extension

(b) Thermostable DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which
remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of ds DNA. It is known as
Taq DNA Polymerase.

10. How is a continuous culture system maintained in bioreactors and why? [CBSE 2019]

Ans. Used medium is drained out from one side of the bioreactor and fresh medium is added from the
other side.

- This type of culturing method produces a larger biomass leading to higher yields of desired
protein.

11. How are DNA fragments visualized during gel electrophoresis? What is elution?

[CBSE 2019]

Ans. Separated DNA fragments by agarose gel electrophoresis are stained with ethidium bromide,
followed by exposure to UV radiations and bright orange coloured DNA bands are visualized.
- The removal of DNA band by cutting a piece of gel with knife from agarose gel, this step is
called as elution.

12. Diagrammatically represent the process of amplification of “gene of interest” using PCR
technique. [CBSE 2018]
Ans. The process of amplification of “gene of interest” using PCR technique explain through
following structure.
 5' 3'
ds DNA
3' 5'

Heat Denaturation(94°C)

5' 3'
3' 5'
Primers Annealing (54°C)
5' 3'
3' 5'

DNA polymerase
(Taq polymerase)
+ deoxynucleotides
5' 3'
3' 5'
Extension(72°C)
5' 3'
3' 5'

13. Briefly explain the roles of the following with the help of an example each in recombinant
DNA technology.
(a) Restriction Enzymes
(b) Plasmids [CBSE 2017]
Ans. (a) Restriction Enzymes - It recognizes a specific sequence of base pairs / palindromes, and
cuts the DNA strand at a specific site. eg. EcoRI
(b) Plasmids - Plasmids are extra-chromosomal and autonomously replicating circular ds
DNA in bacteria. They act as vector to transfer desired gene into the host cell.
eg. -pBR322, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium.
14. Briefly explain the role (s) of the following in Biotechnology :
1. Restriction endonuclease
2. Gel – electrophoresis
3. Selectable markers in pBR322 [CBSE 2017]
Ans. (1) Restriction endonuclease - The enzyme which cuts at specific position within the DNA
known as restriction enzyme.
(2) Gel – electrophoresis-Separation of DNA fragments under the influence of electric field.
Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction
enzyme digestion.
(3) Selectable markers in pBR322- Helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
from transformants or selection of transformants .
Eg- (i) Ampicillin resistance gene
(ii) Tetracycline resistance gene
 (C) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The term “Biotechnology” was given by –
(1) Karl Ereky (2) Stanley Cohen (3) Herbert Boyer (4) Paul Berg
Ans. (1) Karl Ereky
2. Genetic engineering is:-
(1) Study of extra nuclear gene (2) Manipulation of genes by artificial method
(3) Manipulation of RNA (4) Manipulation of enzymes
Ans. (2) Manipulation of genes by artificial method
3. Who transferred gene of SV-40 virus into E.coli by –bacteriophage?
(1) Karl Ereky (2) Stanley Cohen (3) Herbert Boyer (4) Paul Berg
Ans. (4) Paul Berg
4. First Recombinant DNA produced by linking an antibiotic resistance gene with native plasmid of
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Haemophilus influenzae
Ans. (1) Salmonella typhimurium
5. Which of the following enzyme are known as molecular scissors?
(1) DNA Ligase (2) DNA Polymerase
(3) Reverse Transcriptase (4) Restriction endonuclease
Ans. (4) Restriction endonuclease
6. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering because :-
(1) They can degrade harmful proteins (2) They can join DNA fragments
(3) They can cut DNA at variable site (4) They can cut DNA at specific base sequences
Ans. (4) They can cut DNA at specific base sequences
7. According to EFB, "The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and
molecular analogues for products and services," is known as–
(1) Biochemistry (2) Bioinformatics (3) Biotechnology (4) Biology
Ans. (3) Biotechnology
8. Which of the following lytic enzyme used to isolation of DNA from fungal cell?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulose (3) Pectinase (4) Chitinase
Ans. (4) Chitinase
9. The enzyme which remove nucleotides from ends of the DNA are known as
(1) Exonuclease (2) Endonuclease (3) Polymerase (4) Ligase
Ans. (1) Exonuclease
10. Which of the bond of DNA molecules cut by Restriction endonuclease?
(1) Phosphodiester bond (2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Glycosidic bond (4) Phosphoanhydride bond
Ans. (1) Phosphodiester bond
11. In enzyme EcoRI, the letter R indicate –
(1) Indicates species of bacteria
(2) Indicates genus of bacteria
(3) Indicates strain of bacteria
(4) Order in which the enzymes were isolated from bacteria
Ans. (3) Indicates strain of bacteria
12. The first isolated restriction endonuclease is-
(1) EcoR I (2) BamH I (3) Hind II (4) Hind III
Ans. (3) Hind II
13. The technique to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion is-
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) PCR-technique
(3) Centrifugation (4) Southern blotting
Ans. (1) Gel electrophoresis
14. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their
(1) charge only (2) size only (3) charge to size ratio (4) all of the above
Ans. (4) all of the above
15. The separated bands of desired DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece is known as
(1) Southern blotting (2) Centrifugation
(3) Elution (4) Gel electrophoresis
Ans. (3) Elution
16. Which of the given statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose
gel electrophoresis?
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
Ans. (4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
17. Which of the following is the example of molecular scissors.
(1) EcoRI (2) Hind - III (3) Bam – I (4) All the above
Ans. (4) All the above
18. Which of the following is the example of direct gene transfer?
(1) Microinjection (2) Electroporation (3) Particle gun (4) All the above
Ans. (4) All the above
19. Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains a large plasmid, which induces tumour in the plants it is
termed as -
(1) Ti plasmid (2) Ri plasmid
(3) Recombinant plasmid (4) pBR322
Ans. (1) Ti plasmid
20. The DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment into the host cell is known as
(1) Cloning vector (2) Selectable marker
(3) Recombinant DNA (4) Foreign DNA
A vector
 (D) ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS
 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of a
divalent cation.
Reason: Treatment of bacterial cell with a divalent cation increases the efficiency with which
DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
Ans. (1)
2. Assertion: Both the passenger and vehicle DNAs are treated separately with separate restriction
endonuclease.
Reason: Ligation is done by the use of alkaline phosphatase and DNA ligase.
Ans. (4)
3. Assertion : Vector DNA and foreign DNA are cut by same restriction endonuclease.
Reason: Digestion of vector DNA and foreign DNA with same enzyme produces complementary
sticky ends.
Ans. (1)
4. Assertion: Selectable marker is meant for distinguishing a recombinant from non-recombinant.
Reason: Every recombinant can flourish in medium having both ampicillin and tetracycline,
while the non- recombinants cannot.
Ans. (3)
5. Assertion: Restriction endonuclease recognises palindromic sequence in DNA and cuts them.
Reason: Palindromic sequence has two unique recognition sites Pst I and Pvu I recognised by
restriction endonuclease.
Ans. (3)
6. Assertion: Bacteriophage vectors are more advantageous than plasmid vectors.
Reason: Bacteriophage vectors can be easily detected at the time of cloning experiments.
Ans. (1)
7. Assertion : The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with
ethidium bromide in gel electrophoresis.
Reason: We can see pure DNA fragments in the visible light without staining.
Ans. (3)
8. Assertion: The ori site of vector responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
Reason: Ori is a sequence from where replication starts.
Ans. (2)
9. Assertion: Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
Reason: The retrovirus should have been disarmed whenever it used to deliver desirable genes
into animal cells.
Ans. (2)
10. Assertion: Amplification of a gene of interest can be done by polymerase chain reaction.
Reason: It is possible to amplify DNA segment approximately 1 billion times within a span of 30 cycles.
Ans. (2)
 (E) VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Mention the type of host cells suitable for the gene guns to introduce an alien DNA.

Ans. The host cells suitable for the gene guns to introduce an alien DNA are plant cells.

2. Name the host cells in which microinjection technique is used to introduce an alien DNA.

Ans. The microinjection technique to introduce alien DNA is usually carried out in animal cell, i.e.

directly into the nucleus.

3. Why is it essential to have a selectable marker in a cloning vector?

Ans. Selectable marker in cloning vector helps in identifying and selecting the recombinants and

eliminating the non-recombinants.

4. Why do DNA fragments move towards the anode during gel electrophoresis?

Ans. DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules and hence, moves toward the anode during gel

electrophoresis.

5. How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease.

Ans. Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA, while endonuclease cuts the DNA at

specific positions.

6. Mention the role of molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology.

Ans. Molecular scissors or restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific site, thus allowing to extract

desired gene and like it with DNA of host.

7. Name the technique used for separating DNA fragments in the laboratory.

Ans. Gel electrophoresis is used for separating DNA fragments in the laboratory.

8. What is the role of ethidium bromide during agarose gel electrophoresis?

Ans. The separated DNA fragments during agarose gel electrophoresis are visualised after staining the

DNA with ethidium bromide, in UV light. This staining imparts DNA a bright orange colour.

9. Why it is not possible for an alien DNA to become part of a chromosome anywhere along its

length and replicate normally ?

Ans. Alien DNA must be linked to ori / origin of replication / site to start replication.

10. Which main technique and instrument is used to isolate DNA from a plant cell ?

Ans. Centrifugation and centrifuge.

 (F) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Describe a palindrome with the help of an example.
Ans. A DNA sequence that reads the same, on the two strands from 5’– 3’ direction or 3' – 5' direction.
5’–GAATTC–3’
3’–CTTAAG–5’
2. List the key tools used in recombinant DNA technology.
Ans. Restriction enzymes / Polymerase enzymes / Ligase enzymes / Vectors / Host organisims/ E.coli/
Agrobacterium.
3. Name two commonly used vectors in genetic engineering.
Ans. Plasmid and Bacteriophage.
4. Name the bacterium that yields thermostable DNA polymerase.
Ans. Thermus aquaticus.
5. Write any two biochemical / molecular diagnostic procedures for early detection of viral
infection. Explain the principle of any one of them.
Ans. ELISA
ELISA – antigen antibody interaction / PCR – amplification of nucleic acid for its identification
6. Retroviruses have no DNA. However, the DNA of the infected host cell does possess viral
DNA. How is it possible?
Ans. Retrovirus have RNA as genetic material whenever it enter into host cell formed cDNA through
process of reverse transcription so that host cell possess viral DNA.
7. Why is 'plasmid' an important tool in biotechnology experiments?
Ans. Plasmids are commonly used to multiply or express particular genes and act as vectors to transfer
piece of foreign DNA attached to them.
8. Why is it essential to have 'selectable marker' in cloning vector ?
Ans. Selected marker helps in the identification and elimination of non-transformants and permitting
the growth of the transformants. Therefore, they are considered. Therefore, they are considered
essential in cloning vacter.
9. Why are molecular scissors so called? Write their use in biotechnology.
Ans. The restriction enzymes are known as molecular scissors as they cut the DNA at specific sites or
locations.
They help (in genetic engineering) to form recombinant molecules of DNA, which are composed
of DNA from different genomes.
10. What if EcoRI? How does EcoRI differ from an exonuclease?
Ans. EcoRI is restriction endonuclease enzyme.
Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA.
EcoRI makes cuts at specific position within the DNA.
 (G) LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Briefly explain the roles of the following with the help of an example each in recombinant
DNA technology.
(a) Restriction Enzymes
(b) Plasmids
Ans. (a) Restriction Enzymes - It recognizes a specific sequence of base pairs / palindromes, and
cuts the DNA strand at a specific site. eg. EcoRI
(b) Plasmids - Plasmids are extra-chromosomal and autonomously replicating circular ds
DNA in bacteria. They act as vector to transfer desired gene into the host cell.
e.g., -pBR322, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium.
2. Briefly explain the role (s) of the following in Biotechnology:
1. Restriction endonuclease
2. Gel – electrophoresis
3. Selectable markers in pBR322
Ans. (a) Restriction endonuclease The enzyme which cuts at specific position within the DNA
known as restriction enzyme.
(b) Gel-electrophoresis-Separation of DNA fragments under the influence of electric field.
Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction
enzyme digestion.
(c) Selectable markers in pBR322- Helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
from transformants or selection of transformants .
Eg- (i) Ampicillin resistance gene
(ii) Tetracycline resistance gene
3. (a) Why must a cell be made 'competent’ in biotechnology experiments? How does calcium
ion help in doing so?
(b) State the role of ‘biolistic gun’ in biotechnology experiments.
Ans. (a) To take up the (hydrophilic) DNA from the external medium.
• Divalent calcium ions increase the efficiency of DNA entering the cell through pores in the
cell wall.
(b) Biolistic gun helps to introduce alien DNA into the plant cell by bombarding high velocity
microprojectile (gold or tungsten) coated with DNA.
4. (a) How has the development of bioreactor helped in biotechnology ?
(b) Name the most commonly used bioreactor and describe its working.
Ans. (a) Larger biomass / large volume of culture can be processed leading to higher yields of
desired specific products (protein / enzymes),under controlled condition.
(b) Stirring type
• Mixing of reactor contents evenly (with agitator system or a stirrer)
• Facilitates oxygen availability
• Temperature / pH / foam control/under optimum conditions
5. Study the figure of vector pBR322 given below. Identify A, B and C and s
in cloning a vector.
EcorR I Cla I Hind III

Pvu I BamH I
A D
pBR322
B
C

Pvu II
Ans. A - antibiotic resistance genes, the ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site on this
gene / acts as selectable marker present in this antibiotic resistance gene.
B - ori, the sequence where replication starts
C - rop, codes for proteins involved in the replication of the plasmids
6. With the help of diagrammatic representation only, show the steps of recombinant DNA
technology.
Ans. Recombinant DNA technology involve the following steps:
(a) Isolation of DNA.
(b) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease.
(c) Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(d) Amplification of the gene of interest.
(e) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector.
(f) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host.
(g) Culturing the host cells on a suitable medium at a large scale.
(h) Extraction of the desired gene product.
(i) Downstream processing of the products as finished product, ready for marketing.
Foreign DNA Vector
DNA
(Plasmid)
Same restriction enzyme cutting both foreign
DNA and vector DNA at specific point

Ligases join foreign

DNA to plasmid

Recombinant
DNA Molecule

Transformation

E. coli
Cloning Host Cells divide

Diagrammatic representation of recombinant DNA technology

7. A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of DNA fragme it

and give the answer of question that follow.

(a) How are the separated DNA fragments visualised?

(b) What are the criteria for separation of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis.

(c) What is elution?

Ans. (a) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with ethidium

bromide followed by exposure of UV radiation.

(b) The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to size and length along with charge

through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel.

(c) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel

piece called as elution.

8. (a) Why should a bacterium be made 'competent' ?

(b) Explain the role of `microinjection' and 'gene gun' in biotechnology.

Ans. (a) The bacterial cells must first be made competent in order to receive the hydrophilic rDNA/

plasmid which cannot otherwise pass through the cell membrane.

(b) Microinjection - rDNA is directly injected into the animal cell nucleus

Biolistics (gene gun) - Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold

/tungsten coated with DNA.

 (H) CASE-STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer the questions given below:
The first restriction endonuclease–Hind II, whose functioning depended on a specific DNA
nucleotide sequence was isolated and characterised five years later. It was found that Hind II
always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base
pairs. This specific base sequence is known as the recognition sequence for Hind II. Besides
Hind II, today we know more than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from over 230
strains of bacteria each of which recognise different recognition sequences.
(i) What distinguish exonuclease activity from Endonuclease?
Ans. Exonuclease remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at
specific positions within the DNA.
(ii) When a restriction enzyme discovers its recognition sequence, what happens?
Ans. Once restriction enzyme finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut
each of the two strands of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar -
phosphate backbone.
(iii) Why are molecular scissors so called? write their use in biotechnology.
Ans. The restriction enzymes are as molecular scissors as, They cut the DNA at specific sites or
locations. They Help (in genetic engineering) to from recombinant molecules of DNA, which are
composed of DNA from different genomes.
(iv) In accordance with restriction enzyme naming conventions, expand Hind II.
Ans. In Hind II enzyme, H stands for Haemophilus, in stands for influenzae, d stands for strain, II
stands for type II restriction ezymes.
2. Read the following and answer the questions given below:
Rajat is a student of biotechnology. His professor tells him that for transformation with
recombinant DNA the bacterial cells must be made capable of taking up DNA as DNA do not
pass through membrane. While doing experiment in the lab, Rajat noticed that bacterial cells
were not taking up the foreign DNA even after treating it with sodium ion. He asked his
professor, the Reason behind this. His professor explained that he should check the valency and
charge of the ion that he is using for the treatment.

(i) Mention the type of host cells suitable for the gene guns to introduce an alien/foreign DNA.
Ans. Plant host cells are suitable for the gene guns to introduce an alien/foreign DNA.
(ii) Why DNA cannot pass through the cell membrane? Explain.
Ans. Since, DNA molecules are hydrophilic, they cannot pass through cell membranes. For
recombinant DNA to be Integrated into vector or host genome, it is necessary for the DNA to be
inserted in the cell.
(iii) How is a bacterial cell made competent to take up recombinant DNA from

Ans. The two ways by which cells can be made competent to take up DNA are

(1) Chemical action :- The host cell is treated with a specific concentration of Divalent cation,
i.e., calcium Increases the pore size in the cell membrane.

(2) Heat-shock treatment :- Incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by
brief Treatment of heat at 42ºC and again putting them back on ice.

(iv) Write any four ways used to introduce a desired DNA segment into a bacterial cell in
recombinant technology experiments.

Ans. (i) Microinjection

(ii) Disarmed Pathogen vectors

(iii) Biolistic or gene gun

(iv) Treatment of host cell by bivalent cation such as calcium.

3. Read the following and answer the questions given below:

The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These
fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments
are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the
anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix. The separated DNA fragments can be
visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by
exposure to UV radiation (you cannot see pure DNA fragments in the visible light and without
staining). You can see bright orange coloured bands of DNA in a ethidium bromide stained gel
exposed to UV light.

(i) In Gel-electrophoresis the separation of DNA fragments take place upon the basis of.
Ans. Charge and length of fragments.
(ii) The Agarose gel which used as a medium is electrophoresis obtained from.
Ans. See weeds.
(iii) What is the role of ethidium bromide during agarose gel-electrophoresis?
Ans. The separated DNA fragments during agarose gel-electrophoresis are visualised after staining the
DNA with ethidium bromide, in UV light, this staining imparts DNA a bright orange colour.
(iv) The separation of DNA fragments into electrophoresis take plane by which effect?
Ans. Sieving effect.
(v) Why do DNA fragments move towards the anode during gel electrophoresis?
Ans. Because DNA is negatively charged.
4. Read the following and answer the questions given below :
Small volume cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of products. To produce in large
quantities, the development of bioreactors, where large volumes (100-1000 litres) of culture can
be processed, was required. Thus, bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials
are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant,
animal or human cells. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired
product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins,
oxygen). The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type,which include simple stirred-
tank bioreactor and sparged stirred - tank bioreactor.
(i) Which of the apparatus used in large scale production of recombinant product?
Ans. Bioreactor
(ii) Which of the factors affect the quality of obtained product in a bioreactor?
Ans. These are (i) Temperature (ii) pH (iii) Oxygen supply
(iii) Write the name of most commonly used bioreactor.
Ans. Stirred type
(iv) The sparged stirred-tank bioreactor is well suited for large scale production why?
Ans. In sparged stirred tank bioreactor surface area for oxygen transfer is increased.
(v) Define bioreactor
Ans. A large vessel with stirring arrangement in which organic raw material are biologically
converted into specific product under optimum condition.