DOMNICS GROUP EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

Domnics * Daisy * Martins

CHAPTER WISE OBJECTIVE TEST

Class: X Subject: PHYSICS
Name of the Student: ____________________________ Roll No. ________

I. Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the brackets.
1. What is the difference between concave and convex mirrors? Choose the correct statement?
(a) Convex mirror is curved outwards and concave mirror is curved inwards. [ ]
(b) focal point is in front of convex mirror and for a concave mirror, it is behind
(c) Centre of curvature is in front of convex mirror and for a concave mirror, it is behind
(d) None of these
2. The object distance u, image distance v and focal length “f” for a spherical mirror are related as
1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) 𝑓
= 𝑣
− 𝑢
(b) 𝑓
= 𝑣
+ 𝑢
(c) v – u = f (d) v + u = f [ ]

3. What is the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if the magnification produced by
the mirror is +3? [ ]
(a) Virtual (b) Erect (c) Real (d) Both a and b
4. A spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved outwards is called _______. [ ]
(a) Concave mirror (b) convex mirror (c) plane mirror (d) biconvex mirror
5. The magnification is always 1 for the following mirror: [ ]
(a) Concave mirror (b) Plane mirror (c) Convex mirror (d) Any of these

6. The image formed by a concave mirror when an object is placed between the pole and the focus
is [ ]
(a) Virtual, erect and magnified (b) Virtual, erect and diminished
(c) Real, inverted and magnified (d) Real, inverted and diminished
7. For which among the following positions of the object, a concave mirror can form enlarged
images? [ ]
(i) Between F and P (ii) Between F and C (iii) Beyond C
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iii (c) i and ii (d) i, ii, and iii
8. We get a diminished image with a concave mirror when the object is placed [ ]
(a) At F (b) Between the pole and F (c) at C (d) beyond C
9. Name the kind of mirror used to obtain a real and enlarged image. [ ]
(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Plane (d) both b and c
10. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object.
Where should be the position of the object? [ ]
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.

11. Which of the following are correctly matched for the concave mirror? [ ]
Object Image
1. Between P and F at infinity
2. At C at C
3. Beyond C between F and C
4. At infinity at focus
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
(a) 1,3,4 (b) 2,3,4 (c) 1,2,3 (d) 1,2,3,4

12. an object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image is three times the
size of the object. The possible distances of the object from the mirror is . [ ]
−80 −40 −50 −10
(a) 3
(b) 3
(c) 3
(d) 3

13. The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -2. What type of mirror is it? [ ]
(a) Either a convex or a concave mirror (b) A plane mirror
(c) a convex mirror (d) A concave mirror
14. The laws of reflection hold good for : [ ]
(a) plane mirror only (b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only (d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
15. The minimum distance from real object image in a concave mirror is [ ]
(a) 2f (b) f (c) 4f (d) 0
16. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be.
(a) Plane (b) Concave (c) Convex (d) Either plane or convex
17. A 4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 15cm. The location of
the image is [ ]
(a) 6.7 cm (b) 4.5 cm (c) 9.2 cm (d) 5 cm
18. Centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies __________ [ ]
(a) behind it (b) in front of it (c) in its centre (d) none
19. A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water (𝜇 = 4/3). The focal length of the
mirror in water will be. [ ]
4 3 7
(a) f (b) 3
f (c) 4
f (d) 3
f

20. Magnification, m = [ ]
(a) v/u (b) u/v (c) h0/hi (d) hi/h0
21. What chemicals are used in fireworks ? [ ]
(a) Copper chloride (b) Calcium chloride (c) Barium chloride (d) all of these
22. If magnesium is gently heated, it forms [ ]
(a) Magnesium oxide (b) Magnesium sulphide (c) Magnesium nitrite (d) Magnesium carbonate
23. Colour of solid magnesium is [ ]
(a) Dark grey (b) Silver grey (c) Black (d) Whitish silver
24. Select the balanced chemical equation? [ ]
(a) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (b) 2Mg + O2 2MgO
(c) N2 + H2 2NH3 (d) Fe + S Fe2S3
25. Both CO2 and H2 gases are [ ]
(a) Heavier than air (b) Colourless (c) Supporters of combustion (d) Soluble in water
26. Which of the following are correctly matched? [ ]
1. Reactant substance which undergoes change
2. Product new substance
3. Chemical reaction simplest form
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2, and 3
27. In a chemical formula, subscript indicates [ ]
(a) number of atoms (b) number of moles (c) number of compounds (d) number of reactants
28. When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, the ash formed is [ ]
(a) Black (b) White (c) Yellow (d) Pink
29. Reaction of “magnesium” with air is [ ]
(a) Exothermic reaction (b) Endothermic reaction
(c) Reversible reaction (d) substitution reaction
30. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of packed food. [ ]
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen (b) Nitrogen or oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide or Helium (d) Helium or Nitrogen
31. A substance added to food containing fats and oils is called : [ ]
(a) Oxidant (b) Rancid (c) Collant (d) Antioxidant
32. Select the oxidising agent for the following reaction : [ ]
H 2S + l 2 2Hl + S
(a) L2 (b) H2S (c) HI (d) S
33. When Ag is exposed to air it gets a black coating of [ ]
(a) Ag NO3 (b) Ag2 S (c) Ag2O (d) Ag2CO3

34. A substance “X” is used in white – washing and is obtained by heating limestone in the absence
of air. Identify “X”. [ ]
(a) CaOCl2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) CaO (d) CaCO3
35. MnO2 + 4HCl Mn Cl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 [ ]
Identify the substance oxidized in the above question.
(a) Mn Cl2 (b) HCl (c) H2O (d) MnO2
36. The process of reduction involves. [ ]
(a) addition of oxygen (b) addition of water
(c) removal of oxygen (d) removal of hydrogen
37. Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen are present in water by mass. [ ]
(a) 1:2 (b) 8:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:8
38. Which of the following statements is wrong? [ ]
(a) Calcium oxide produces a colourless solution when dissolved in water
(b) Addition of water to quick lime liberates heat energy
(c) Addition of aqueous Na2SO4 to aqueous BaCl2 forms clear solution
(d) Conversion of milk into curd is a chemical change.
39. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed before burning because it has a coating of [ ]
(a) basic magnesium carbonate (b) basic magnesium oxide
(c) basic magnesium sulphide (d) basic magnesium chloride
40. Assertion : Gold and silver corrode in moist air.
Reason : It is because they have low reactivity. [ ]

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true
41. How many water molecules does hydrated calcium sulphate contain? [ ]
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 2
42. Rain is called acid rain when its : [ ]
(a) pH falls below 7 (b) pH falls below 6 (c) pH falls below 5,6 (d) pH is above
43. A strong acid : [ ]
(a) completely gets ionized in water (b) partially gets ionized in water
(c) Do not get ionized in water (d) All of these
44. The pH of 0.1 M NaOH is [ ]
(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10
45. ____________ I a mild non-corrosive base. [ ]
(a) Baking soda (b) Plater of Paris (c) Bleaching powder (d) Gypsum
46. Which of the following statements is correct? [ ]
(i) Normal salgs are neutral to litmus (ii) Acid salts turn blue litmus to red
(iii) An alkali is a base that is soluble in water
(a) i,ii (b) ii, iii (c) only iii (d) i,ii, iii

47. Only of the following solutions reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime –
water milky. The solution is of [ ]
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) Li Cl (d) KCl
48. Plaster of Paris is made from : [ ]
(a) Slaked lime (b) Gypsum (c) Lime stone (d) Quick lime
49. When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid react, colour changes to [ ]
(a) white (b) bluish – green (c) blue – black (d) black
50. Sodium hydroxide is a [ ]
(a) weak base (b) weak acid c) strong base (d) strong acid
51. What is the pH range of our body? [ ]
(a) 7.0 – 7.8 (b) 7.2 – 8.0 (c) 7.0 – 8.4 (d) 7.2 – 8.4
52. Lime water reacts with chlorine to give [ ]
(a) bleaching powder (b) baking powder (c) baking soda (d) Washing soda
53. Which of the following is not an alkali. [ ]
(a) Mg (OH)2 (b) Be (OH)2 (c) Ca(OH)2 (d) NaOH
54. At what temperature is gypsum heated to form Plaster of Paris? [ ]
(a) 900C (b) 1000C (c) 1100C (d) 1200C
55. The base used in soda – acid fire extinguishers is [ ]
(a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) NaOH (d) Na2O
56. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? [ ]
(a) antibiotic (b) analgesic (c) antacid (d) antiseptic
57. Find the odd one. [ ]
(a) Na2O (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) CuO (d) CO2
58. Assertion : Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of the dry litmus paper
Reason : It is because dry HCl does not contain the OH ions. [ ]
(a) If both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(c)If the assertion is true, but the reason is false
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
59. Tooth enamel contains [ ]
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium sulphate hemi hydrate
(c) Calcium sulphate (d) Calcium phosphate
60. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid? [ ]
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Carbondioxide (d) no gas is produced
61. A ray of light passes from a medium X to another medium Y. No refraction of light occurs if the
ray of light hits the boundary of medium Y at an angle of : [ ]
(a) 1200 (b) 900 (c) 450 (d) 00

62. Two lens of powers – 1.5D and +2.75D are kept in contact. Find the focal length of the
combination. [ ]
(a) 0.2m (b) 0.03 m (c) 1.6 m (d) 0.8 m
63. The lens which can form real and virtual images. [ ]
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) glass slab (d) plano concave
64. ____________ lens is used in making a simple camera. [ ]
(a) convex (b) Concave (c) Both A and B (d) Cylindrical
65. A convex lens produced a magnification of +5. The object is placed………… [ ]
(a) at focus (b) between “f” and 2f (c) at less than “f” (d) beyond 2f
66. As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it will have [ ]
(a) increased velocity (b) decreased velocity (c) decreased wave length (d) both (b) & (c)
67. The focal length of a lens depends on which of the following factors? [ ]
(a) Medium in which the lens is placed (b) Material of the lens
(c) Radii of curvature (d) All of these
68. Which of the following will not produce a magnified image of an object? [ ]
(a) Two convex lens in contact (b) convex lens
(c) Concave mirror (d) Concave mirror
69. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens is :
(a) 2/3 f (b) 2 f (c) 5/2 f (d) 4f [ ]
70. Which of the following is true? [ ]
(a) The distance of virtual image is not greater than the object distanced for convex lens
(b) Convex lens always forms a virtual image
(c) The distance of virtual image is always grater than the object distance for convex lens
(d) Convex lens always forms a real image
71. A lens is bound by two spherical surfaces curved inward is called………… [ ]
(a) Double convex lens (b) Plane convex lens
(c) Double concave lens (d) Plane concave lens
72. Convex lens is also known as [ ]
(a) Converging lens (b) diverging lens
(c) radial lens (d) axial lens
73. The deviation of a light ray from its path when it travels from one transparent medium to
another transparent medium is called [ ]
(a) reflection (b) refraction (c) dispersion (d) scattering
74. Two lenses of power +6D and -2D are placed in contact. The power of the combination will be
(a) -12D (b) +4D (c) -4D (d) 3D [ ]
75. Focal length of the plano-convex lens is …………….. when its radius of curvature of the surface
is R and n is the refraction index of the lens. [ ]
(a) f=R (b) f=R/2 (c) f=R/(n-1) (d) f=(n-1)/R
76. Light from the sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called [ ]
(a) Centre of curvature (b) Focus (c) radius of curvature (d) optical centre
77. An image of an object is produced on a screen at about 36cm using a convex lens. The image
produced is about 3 times the size of the object. What is the size of the object? [ ]
(a) 12cm (b) 33 cm (c) 39 cm (d) 108 cm
78. Which of the following is the lens maker’s formula. [ ]
(a) I/f = (n-1) (1/R1 + 1/R2) (b) 1/F = (n+1) (1/R1 – 1/R2)
(c) 1/f = (n-1) (1/R1 - 1/R2) (d) 1/f = (n+1) (1/R1 + 1/R2)
79. A magnified real image is formed by a convex lens when the object is at [ ]
(a) f (b) between F and 2F (c) 2F (d) both (a) and (b)

80. A converging lens has a focal length of 20cm. If an object is placed 40cm away from the lens,
where is the location of the image. [ ]
(a) 40cm (b) 20cm (c) 60cm (d) 80 cm
81. During refraction of light, the character of light which does not change is [ ]
(a) Amplitude (b) Wave length (c) frequency (d) Velocity of light
82. The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than the hot layer behave as optically
(a) denser medium (b) rarer medium [ ]
(c) inactive medium (d) either denser or rarer medium
83. Match the following : [ ]
(i) Scattering P. eye defect
(ii) Dispersion Q. VIBGYOR
(iii) Power of lens R. retina
(iv) Cones and rods S. colour of the sky
(a) i-S, ii-Q, iii- R, iv-P (b) i-Q, ii-S, iii-P, iv-R
(c) i-S, ii-Q, iii-P, iv-R (d) i-Q, ii-S, iii-R, iv-P
84. Which of the following coloured light has the least speed in the glass prism? [ ]
a) violet (b) Yellow (c) Blue (d) Green
85. The stars twinkle, but the planets do not twinkle because [ ]
(a) the stars are small, but the planets are large
(b) the stars are very large, but the planets are small
(c) the stars are much nearer, but the planets are far off
(d) the stars are far off, but the planets are nearer to earth
86. The space between cornea and eye-lens is filled with …………liquid. [ ]
(a) aqueous humour (b) vitreous humour (c) both A and B (d) humour
87. The actual shape of rainbow is [ ]
(a) three dimensional bow (b) circle
(c) three dimensional sphere (d) three dimensional cone
88. Hypermetropia can be corrected by using …………………….. lens. [ ]
(a) Concave lens (b) convex lens (c) bifocal lense (d) cylindrical lense
89. Bifocal lens is used in [ ]
(a) myopia (b) lever (c) Cataract (d) Presbyopia
90. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is [ ]
(a) real and inverted (b) virtual and erect (c) real and erect (d) virtual and inverted
91. During refraction , _______________ will not change. [ ]
(a) wavelength (b) frequency (c) speed of light (d) all the above
92. Myopia may arise due to [ ]
(a) excessive curvature of the eye lens (b) elongation of the eyeball
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
93. Arrange the following in proper order : [ ]
(i) cornea (ii) retina (iii) eyelens (iv) pupil
(a) i,ii,iii, iv (b) i, iv, iii, ii (c) iv, iii, ii, i (d) i,iii, iv, ii
94. At noon the sun appears white as [ ]
(a) light is least scattered (b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most (d) red colour is scattered the most
95. The distance between the eye lens and retina is about……………… [ ]
(a) 25cm (b0 2.5cm (c) 25m (d) Infinite
96. “Refractive index decreases with increase in wavelength.” Based on the given statement, which
of the following is / are correct? [ ]
(i) Refractive index of red is low (ii) Refractive index of violet is low
(iii) Violet colour suffers more deviation
(a) i, ii (b) i, iii (c) ii, iii (d) i,ii, iii
97. The power of lens is 1D then focal length is ……………………… [ ]
(a) 10cm (b) 100 cm (c) 50cm (d) 25cm
98. Rainbow : Dispersion : : Blue colour of sky : ……………………. [ ]
(a) Refraction (b) Total internal reflection (c) Scattering (d) Diffraction
99. Myopia can be corrected by using …………………. Lens. [ ]
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens (c) bifocal lense (d) cylindrical lens
100. The value of least distance of distinct vision is about ………………… [ ]
(a) 25cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 25m (d) Infinite
101. Which of the following is not a fundamental particle? [ ]
(a) Neutron (b) Proton (c) Alpha particle (d) Election
102. The configuration 1s22s22p63p3 represents [ ]
(a) S (b) P (c) Ar (d) Na
103. Planck’s equation is [ ]

(a) E-h𝛿 (b) h=E𝛿 (c) E = 𝛿 (d) None of these

104. Bohr’s theory is valid for [ ]
(a) all molecules (b) all ions (c) any atom or ion having one electron (d) all atoms
105. The lowest energy state of the electron is known as ______________ state. [ ]
(a) Excited (b) Stationary (c) Ground (d) Higher energy
106. The number of electrons in a subshell is as follows : [ ]
(a) s=2 electrons (b) p=6 electrons (c) d=12 electrons (d) f=14 electrons
Pick out the correct statements :
(a) i (b) iii (c) i, iv (d) i, ii, iv
107. Match the following : [ ]
(i) Cupric chloride P. Yellow colour
(ii) Strontium chloride [Link] red
(iii) Sodium vapour R. Green colour
(a) i-R, ii-Q, iii-P (b) i-Q, ii-R, iii-R (c) i-P, ii-Q, iii-R (d) i-Q, ii-P, iii-R
108. Shape of d-orbital is ________________________ [ ]
(a) Dumbell (b) Double dumbbell (c) Spherical (d) No shape
109. Elliptical orbits are introduced by __________________ [ ]
(a) Neils Bohr (b) Heisenberg (c) sommerfeld (d) Planck
110. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 is the electronic configuration of ______________ [ ]
(a) Potassium (b) Phosphorus (c) Sulphur (d) Argon

111. An emission spectrum consists of bright spectral lines on dark background. Which one of the
following does not correspond to the bright spectral lines? [ ]
(a) Frequency of emitted radiation (b) Wave length of the emitted radiation
(c) Energy of emitted radiations (d) Velocity of light
112. Splitting of spectral lines in electric field is known as ________________ [ ]
(a) Zeeman Effect (b) Stark Effect (c) Electric effect (d) Photoelectric Effect
113. Magnetic quantum number (m1) values can be known from ______________ [ ]
1 −1
(a) n (b) n-1 (b) 2l + 1 (d) +2 and 2

114. Hydrogen spectrum is ______________________ [ ]

(a) Lime spectrum (b) Band spectrum (c) Green spectrum (d) Violet spectrum
115. If there are no sharp boundaries between colours, then the spectrum is called as ___________
(a) Line spectrum (b) Band spectrum (c) Continuous spectrum (d) None [ ]
116. If l = 1 for an atom then the number of orbitals in its sub-shell is [ ]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
117. Planck’s constant value is __________________ [ ]
(a) 6.626 x 10-32 Js (b) 6.626 x 10-34 Js (c) 6.626 x 10-27 Js (d) 6.626 x 1039 Js
118. The number of electrons in a shell is limited to ? [ ]
(a) 2l + 1 (b) 2(2l+1) (c) 2n2 (d) n2
119. Quantum theory was proposed by ___________________ [ ]
(a) Bohr (b) Max Planck (c) Sommerfeld (d) Erwin Schrodinger
120. The quantum number which explains about size and energy of the orbit or shell is [ ]
(a) n (b) 1 (c) m1 (d) ms
121. What are the elements that belong to 18th (or) “0” group? [ ]
(a) Helium (b) Neon (c) Fluorine (d) Xenon
(a) a,b (b) a,b,c (c) a,b,d (d) c
122. Match the following : [ ]
1. Halogen a. O
2. chalcogen b. Mg
3. Alkali Metal c. Na
4. alkaline earth metal d. Br
(a) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b (b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b (c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b (d) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c,4-d
123. The number of elements in each of the long period is [ ]
(a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 32 (d) 18
124. Atomic number of chlorine is 17. Its valency is [ ]
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 1
125. The position of noble gases in the long form of periodic table is [ ]
(a) first group (b) eighteenth group (c) seventeenth group (d) second group
126. In the long form of periodic table which element has highest electron affinity value. [ ]
(a) Oxygen (b) Fluorine (c) Cesium (d) Chlorine
127. In the third period of the Periodic Table the element having smallest size is [ ]
(a) Na (b) Ar (c) Cl (d) Si
128. 14 elements after actinium are called [ ]
(a) Lanthanides (b) Actinides (c) d-block elements (d) p-block elements
129. Which is not true about noble gases? [ ]
(a) they are non-metallic in nature (b) They exist in atomic form
(c) They all are radioactive in nature (d) Xenon is the most reactive among these
130. Number of elements present in the period 2 of the long form of periodic table. [ ]
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32
131. Find the odd one [ ]
(a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals (c) halogens (d) noble gases
132. Identify the wrong sequence of the elements in a group. [ ]
(a) Ca, Sr, Ba (b) Cu, Au, Ag (c) N, P, as (d) Cl, Br, I
133. “Atomic number is more fundamental property than atomic weight” was emphasized by[ ]
(a) Luther Mayer (b) Mendeleev (c) Dobereiner (d) Mosley
134. The fundamental property used in modern periodic classification is [ ]
(a) atomic number (b) atomic weight (c) mass number (d) nature of the element

135. Nitrogen (Z = 7) is the element of group V of the periodic table. Which of the following is the
atomic number of the next element in the same group? [ ]
(a) 9 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 17
136. Electronic configuration of AI+3 is [ ]
(a) 2, 8, 3 (b) 2, 8, 8 (c) 2, 8 (d) 2, 8, 8, 3
137. The long form of periodic table is based on [ ]
(a) Molecular mass (b) atomic mass (c) atomic number (d) mass number
138. Which of the following is not a triad? [ ]
(a) Li, Na, K (b) Ca, Sr, Ba (c) Cl, F, Br (d) S, Se, Te
139. Which of the following is the most active metal? [ ]
(a) Lithium (b) Sodium (c) Potassium (d) rubidium
140. Mendeleev’s Eka Silicon is [ ]
(a) Gallium (b) Germanium (c) Aluminium (d) Boron
141. Valency of Noble gases is _____________ [ ]
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5
142. 1 nanometer = _______________ [ ]
(a) 10-9 meter (b) 10-8 meter (c) 10-7 meter (d) 10-6 meter
143. The shape of BeCl2 is ______________ [ ]
(a) V-shape (b) Linear (c) Pyramidal (d) Tetrahedral
144. The formula for methane is [ ]
(a) CH4 (b) C4H4 (c) C2H2 (d) C2H6
145. Which of the following elements exist as atoms but not molecules? [ ]
(a) Halogens (b) Metals (c) Inert gases (d) Alkaline earth metals
146. The bond in H2O is [ ]
(a) Ionic (b) Polar covalent (c) Coordinate covalent (d) Non polar covalent
147. Covalent compounds are soluble in _______________ [ ]
(a) Polar solvents (b) Non-polar solvents (c) Concentrated ions (d) All Solvents
148. Choose the correct statements relating to properties of covalent compound. [ ]
(a) The covalent compounds do not exist as ions but exist as molecules
(b) The melting and boiling points of covalent compounds are generally low.
(c) These are poor conductors of electricity in the fused (or) dissolved state
(d) These are generally insoluble in water and in other polar solvents.
(a) a,b,c (b) b,c,d (c) a,b, d (d) a, b, c,d
149. Which of the following are true according to Lewis’s dot structure? [ ]
(a) AlCl3 (b) Mgcl2 (c) NaCl (d) All
150. In N2 molecule the atoms are bonded by _________________ 𝜎 and 𝜋 bonds. [ ]
(a) 1, 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) 3, 2 (d) 2, 1
151. Which of the following does not obey the Octet rule? [ ]
(a) F2 (b) BCl3 (c) N2 (d) O2
152. If there are 2 bond pairs in the valence shell of the central atom, they must be separated by
(a) 1800 (b) 1070 480 (c) 1090280 (d) 900 [ ]
153. The bond angle in NH3 molecule is ________________ [ ]
(a) 1090281 (b) 900 (c) 1070 481 (d) 1050
154. General electronic configuration (valence shell) of inert gas is _________________ [ ]
(a) ns2np4 (b) ns2np3 (c) ns2np5 (d) ns2np6
155. 1A0 = _____________ [ ]
(a) 10-5 cm (b) 10-6 cm (c) 10-7 cm (d) 10-8 cm
156. Which of the following elements is electronegative ? [ ]
(a) Sodium (b) Oxygen (c) Magnesium (d) Calcium
157. The shape of the water molecule is _________________ [ ]
(a) V-Shape (b) Linear (c0 Pyramidal (d) Tetrahedral
158. Which of the following elements are electronegative? [ ]
(a) fluorine (b) Oxygen (c) Sodium (d) Potassium
(a) a,b (b) c (c) c,d (d) a,b,c,d
159. The chemical formula of common salt is __________________ [ ]
(a) Na2Cl (b) NaCl (c) NaCl2 (d) Na2Cl2
160. Which one of the following is an ionic compound? [ ]
(a) HCl (b) CO2 (c) H2O (d) CaO
161. Electric potential is a : [ ]
(a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity
(c) neither scalar nor vector (d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector
162. Coulomb is the SI unit of : [ ]
(a) charge (b) current (c) potential difference (d) resistance
163. When a 4Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 12V battery. The number of coulumbs
passing through the resistor per second is [ ]
(a) 0.3 (b) 3 (c) 12 (d) 4

164. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire
of [ ]
(a) more length (b) less radius (c) less length (d) more radius

165. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity
that will remain the same between the two points is [ ]
(a) current (b) voltage (c) resistance (d) none of these
166. To get 2Ω resistance using only 6 Ω resistors, the number of them required is [ ]
(a) 2 (b0 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
167. Statement A : Resistivity of insulators is about 1022 times the resistivity of metallic conductors.
Statement B : Metals like silver, copper and aluminium have very high values of resistivity.
(a) Both a and B are true (b) both A and B are false [ ]
(c) a is true, B is false (d) A is false, B is true
168. 1kWh = ________________ J. [ ]
(a) 3.6 x 105 (b) 3.6 x 10-5 (c) 3.6 x 106 (d) 3.6 x 10-6
169. In a metal [ ]
(a) All electrons all free to move (b) There are no electrons
(c) some electrons are free to move (d) All the electrons are bound to their parent atoms
170. An electric heater is rated at 4kW. Electrical energy costs Rs.5 per kWh. What is the cost of
using the heater for 1 hour? [ ]
(a) Rs.0.9 (b) Rs.1.2 (c) Rs.20 (d) Rs.4
171. For making standard resistance, wire of following material is used. [ ]
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Silver (d) Manganin
172. Ohm’s law is a relation between [ ]
(a) current and potential difference (b) Resistance and potential difference
(c) current and resistance (d) potential difference and electric charge
173. If the current through a flood lamp is 2a, what charge passes in 5 seconds? [ ]
(a) 2.5C (b) 0.4C (c) 10C (d) 2C
174. Joule/coulomb is the same as [ ]
(a) 1 watt (b) 1 volt (c) 1 ampere (d) 1 ohm
175. Kirchhoff’s law of junctions is also called the law of conservation of [ ]
(a) energy (b) charge (c) momentum (d) angular momentum
176. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected if they have same. [ ]
(a) capacity (b) potential (c) charge (d) None of these

177. The resistors of values 3 Ω , 6 Ω, 18 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the
circuit is [ ]

(a) 12 Ω (b) 36 Ω (c) 18 Ω (d) 1.8 Ω

178. Match list I with list II [ ]
List I List II
1. Ohm’s law a. conservation of charge
2. Kirchhoff’s I law b. conservation of energy
3. Kirchhoff’s II law c. V = Ri
d. I = VR
(a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b (b) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b (d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a
179. The formula V= IR is applicable to [ ]
(a) ohmic conductor only (b) non ohmic conductors only
(c) both ohmic and non ohmic conductors (d) neither ohmic nor non ohmic conductor
180. The current in the wire depends [ ]
(a) only on the potential difference applied (b) only on the resistance of the wire
(c) on both of them (d) none of them
181. The magnetic flux thrugh a coil is directly proportional to [ ]
(a) number of turns (b) area (c) magnetic induction (d) all the above
182. Inside the magnet, the field lines move [ ]
(a) from north to the south pole (b) from south the north pole
(c) away from south pole (d) away from north pole
183. No force acts on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field, when the angle between the
conductor and magnetic field is [ ]
𝜋 𝜋 3𝜋
(a) zero (b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 2

184. Assertion (A) : when a bar magnet is moved towards a circular coil, the direction of the induced
current opposes the motion of the magnet.
Reason (R) : Lenz law is the application of law of conservation of energy. [ ]

(a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false, R is true (d) A is true, R is false
185. An electron travelling horizontally towards west enters into a magnetic field acting vertically
down wards. It deflect towards [ ]
(a) north (b) north – east (c) north-west (d) south
186. The direction of induced emf is given by [ ]
(a) Lenz’s law (b) Faraday’s law (c) Ampere’s law (d) Diot Savart’ law
187. The magnetic field lines in the middle of the current carrying solenoid are [ ]
(a) parallel to the axis of the tube (b) perpendicular to the axis of the tube
(c) circles (d) spirals
188. Match the following : [ ]
1. Magnetic flux X) weber
2. Magnetic flux density Y) weber/ meter2
3. Induced emf Z) volt
(a) 1-X, 2-Z, 3-Y (b) 1-Z, 2-X, 3-Y (c) 1-X, 2-Y, 3-Z (d) 1-Y, 2-Z, 3-X
189. An electric generator converts [ ]
(a) electrical energy into heat energy (b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy (d) heat energy into chemical energy
190. Magnetic field is [ ]
(a) one dimensional (b) two dimensional (c) three dimensional (d) four dimensional
191. The device used for producing electric current is called a [ ]
(a) galvanometer (b0 generator (c) ammeter (d) motor
192. The force exerted on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle
between the wire and the direction of magnetic field is [ ]
(a) 1800 (b) 1200 (c) 2700 (d) 3600
193. The unit of magnetic flux is [ ]
(a) tesla (b) weber (c) web/m2 (d) weber/m
194. In an electric motor, the direction of current in the coil changes once in each. [ ]
(a) two rotations (b) one rotation (c) half rotation (d) one fourth rotation
195. Identify the wrong statement among the following. [ ]
(a) Magnetic field lines are imaginary
(b) The tangent drawn to the field line at a point gives the direction of the field.
(c) The nature of the field can be defined by its strength of the field.
(d) Magnetic field lines are open loops.

196. A current carrying power line carries current from west to east. The direction of magnetic field
at a short distance, above it is [ ]
(a) east to west (b) north to south (c) east to north (d) west to east
197. The magnetic effect of current was discovered by [ ]
(a) Lenz (b) fleming (c) Faraday (d) Oersted
198. X : A current carrying wire produces magnetic field.
Y : Due to relative motion between coil and a magnetic field, electric current is produced in the
coil. [ ]
(a) X, Y are true (b) X, Y are false (c) X true, Y false (d) X false, Y True
199. Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer. [ ]
p) The flux through the coil is maximum when the magnetic field induction B is perpendicular
to the coil.
q) Faraday from his experiments concluded that, whenever the magnetic flux linked with an
electric circuit (coil) is altered, an emf is induced in the coil. [ ]
(a) p is true, q is false (b) p is false, q is true
(c) both p, q are true (d) both p & q are false
200. One Tesla = [ ]
𝑁𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 𝑁𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛 𝐴𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑁𝑒𝑤𝑡𝑜𝑛
(a) 𝐶𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏
(b) 𝐴𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒−𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟
(c) 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟
(d) 𝐴𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒−𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑