MAVERICK

AVIATION

To have Wings is to have Confidence

Radio Aids
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INDEX

RADIO AIDS

1. Basic Radio Theory 01

2. VDF Direction Finding 20
3. NDB & ADF 21
4. VOR 38
5. ILS 54
6. Radar Theory 66
7. DME 71
8. SSR 79
9. Weather Radar 83
10. Radio Altimeters 91
11. RNAV 95
12. GPS 99
13. GPWS 105

Annex A Sample Exams 111

Annex B Answers to Questions 139

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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CHAPTER 1

BASIC RADIO THEORY

PROPAGATION OF RADIO WAVES

If an alternating current is fed to an aerial some of the power will be radiated outwards from the
aerial in the form of ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIO WAVES. A similar aerial, parallel to, but at some
distance from the first will intercept the electromagnetic radio wave and an alternating current will
be induced in the aerial which is identical to the alternating current fed to the transmitting aerial.
This is the basis of all radio systems.

SPEED OF PROPAGATION

Radio waves travel approximately at the speed of light :-

162 000 Nautical Miles per Second 300 000 000 Metres per Second
186 000 Statute Miles per Second 300 000 Kilometres per Second

TERMINOLOGY

CYCLE A cycle is one complete series of values

HERTZ One hertz is one cycle per second

FREQUENCY (f) The number of cycles per second expressed in Hertz

1 Cycle per Second = 1 Hz
1000 Hz = 1 Khz (Kilohertz)
1000 Khz = 1 Mhz (Megahertz)
1000 Mhz = 1 Ghz (Gigahertz)

AMPLITUDE The maximum displacement from the mean value

WAVELENGTH (h) The distance travelled by a radio wave in one cycle

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FREQUENCY WAVELENGTH RELATIONSHIP

A radio wave travels at 300 000 000 metres per second.

If the transmission frequency is 1 Hertz, then the physical space covered by 1 cycle is 300 000 000
metres.

If the transmission frequency is 2 Hertz, then the physical space covered by 2 cycles is 300 000
000 metres or the space covered by 1 cycle is 150 000 000 metres.

FREQUENCY = 300 000 000 Metres /Sec Or 162 000 Nautical Miles/ Sec
in HERTZ WAVELENGTH in Metres WAVELENGTH in Nautical Miles

WAVELENGTH = 300 000 000 Metres / Sec Or 162 000 Nautical Miles /Sec
FREQUENCY in HERTZ FREQUENCY in HERTZ

Example 1 A VOR transmits on a frequency of 116.1 Mhz, the wavelength in

metres is :-

Wavelength = 300 000 000 Metres / Sec = 2.584 metres

116.1 Mhz x 1000 x 1000

Example 2 A transmission frequency is 13.6 Khz, the wavelength in nautical

miles is :-

Wavelength 162 000 nm per second = 11.9118nm

13.6 Khz x 1000

Example 3 A Weather Radar has a wavelength of 3.2 centimetres, the

transmission frequency is :-

Frequency = 300 000 000 metres per second x 100 = 9 375 000 000 Hz
3.2 cms 9 375 000 Khz
9 375 Mhz
9.375 Ghz
(1GHZ = 1 000 000 000Hz)

PHASE

Phase refers to a particular point in one cycle. The start of the cycle is referred to as phase 0, the
mid point of the cycle as phase 180 and the end of the cycle as phase 360 which is the start of
the second cycle.

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PHASE DIFFERENCE

If two signals are transmitted on the same frequency the two wave forms would superimpose each
other and their phase can be compared. If they reach the same value at the same time they are in
phase, otherwise they will be out of phase and the phase difference can be measured. Phase
comparison is used by VOR. The amplitude of the two transmissions need not be the same.

POLARISATION

When a alternating current is fed to an aerial ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIO WAVES are radiated
from the aerial. These waves alternate at the same frequency as the AC fed to the aerial and have
two components. An ELECTRICAL (E) FIELD and a MAGNETIC (H or M) FIELD. They are at right
angles to each other and to the direction of propagation.

If the transmission is from a VERTICAL AERIAL the transmission is said to be VERTICALLY

POLARISED. The ELECTRICAL FIELD will be in the VERTICAL and the MAGNETIC FIELD in the
HORIZONTAL. For optimum reception the receiving aerial should be vertical.

If the transmission is from a HORIZONTAL AERIAL the transmission is said to be HORIZONTALLY

POLARISED and the ELECTRICAL FIELD is in the HORIZONTAL and the MAGNETIC FIELD will
be in the VERTICAL.

NDB transmissions are Vertically polarised while VOR transmissions are Horizontally
polarised.

POLAR DIAGRAM

A polar diagram represents the field strength or the power radiated from an aerial. The polar
diagram of an NDB (Non Directional Beacon) is a circle, while the polar diagram of an ILS is a lobe,
it transmits along the approach path to a runway. All points on the polar diagram are equal signal
strength.

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AUDIO FREQUENCIES AF

The human hearing range is in the order of 50 Hz to 15 Khz, frequencies outside this range cannot
be heard. The human voice has a frequency range of 100 Hz to 5 Khz. To transmit and receive
such low frequencies demands very large aerials and high transmission power.

RADIO FREQUENCIES RF

Radio Frequencies are outside the human hearing range. To transmit a frequency of 400 Khz is
relatively simple but cannot be heard by the human ear. To make the signal audible a Beat
Frequency Oscillator is used. The BFO in the receiver produces internally a frequency (398 Khz)
similar to that being received (400 Khz). It then takes the difference between the two frequencies
(2 Khz) which is an Audio Frequency and is fed to the headphones, thus a steady tone is heard.
This is the principle of ADF/NDB reception.

FREQUENCY BAND RANGE

Listed is a table of frequency bands that concern us:

BAND FREQUENCY RANGE

VLF 3-30 KHz
Very Low Frequency
LF 30-300 KHz
Low Frequency
MF 300 KHz-3 MHz
Medium Frequency
HF 3-30 MHz
High Frequency
VHF 30-300 MHz
Very High Frequency
UHF 300 MHz-3 GHz
Ultra High Frequency
SHF 3-30 GHz
Super High Frequency
EHF 30-300 GHz
Extremely High Frequency

MODULATION

The process of impressing intelligence or information onto a radio wave is termed modulation. As
mentioned above the transmission from an NDB can be heard by the use of a BFO, but the NDB
has to be identified before any bearings can be used. The 400 Khz transmission is called the
Carrier Wave and the IDENT can be transmitted by starting and stopping the CW so as to form the
dots and dashes of the Morse code. This is called KEYED CW.

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AMPLITUDE MODULATION

This method may be used in one or two ways to transmit coded messages at audio frequencies
(AF) or to radiate speech, music etc.

As the name suggests in this method the amplitude of the carrier is varied in conformation with the
amplitude of the audio modulating signal, keeping the carriers frequency constant.

With amplitude modulation, the audio frequency (AF) is impressed on the carrier frequency, the
amplitude of the carrier wave (RF) is varied by the amplitude of the audio frequency (AF) keeping
the carrier frequency constant. When transmitting complex information such as speech, we have
the problem of transmitting an extremely large number of sine waves. Since the effect of each
modulating sine wave on the radio frequency (RF) carrier is similar, only a single sine wave
modulating frequency (AF) is shown below.

Simple
Modulating
Waveform

Unmodulated
Carrier Wave

Modulated
Carrier Wave
for
Transmission

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DEPTH OF MODULATION

Depth of modulation is expressed as a percentage. It is the ratio of

Amplitude of the Audio Frequency x 100

Amplitude of the Radio Frequency

Over modulation causes distortion of the Audio Frequency. The ideal depth of modulation is slightly
less than 100 %.

FREQUENCY MODULATION

This technique of conveying information was developed in the USA after the shortcomings of AM
transmission due to external unwanted noise became apparent during the 1st World War. It is
achieved by varying the frequency of the carrier in accordance with the change in amplitude of the
carrier of the audio, keeping the amplitude of the carrier constant.

The amplitude of the Radio Frequency is kept constant but the frequency varies as the amplitude of
the Audio Frequency varies. When the amplitude of the AF is positive the RF frequency increases
and when the amplitude of the AF is negative the RF frequency decreases. In the receiver a
frequency discriminator unit detects the frequency deviations and converts them to useful
information.

SIDEBANDS

Sidebands are additional frequencies which occur when a carrier frequency is amplitude modulated
by a lower audio frequency. The three frequencies are :-

Carrier frequency
Carrier frequency + Audio frequency
Carrier frequency - Audio frequency

Bandwidth

398 Khz 400 Khz 402 Khz

Lower Sideband Carrier frequency Upper Sideband

A carrier wave of 400 Khz is amplitude modulated by an audio frequency of 2 Khz resulting in a
lower sideband of 398 Khz and an upper sideband of 402 Khz and a bandwidth of 4 Khz. Each
sideband is a mirror image of the other and carries the same information. If one sideband is
transmitted there is a saving of transmission power and a narrower bandwidth. With SSB
transmissions the carrier frequency has to be reinserted by a BFO at the receiver to resolve the
incoming signals.

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DESIGNATION OF EMISSIONS

BANDWIDTH

The bandwidth is expressed by three numerals and one letter. The letter occupies the position of
the decimal place and represents the unit of bandwidth.

300H = 300Hz 2K70 = 2.7Khz 1K15 = 1.15Khz 3M00 = 3Mhz

CLASS OF EMISSION

The three basic characteristics are indicated by three symbols

FIRST SYMBOL = TYPE OF MODULATION OF THE MAIN CARRIER

A Double Sideband
H Single Sideband full carrier
J Single Sideband suppressed carrier
P Unmodulated pulse transmission

SECOND SYMBOL = NATURE OF SIGNALS MODULATING THE MAIN CARRIER

1. Single channel containing information without the use of a modulating subcarrier

2. Single channel containing information with the use of a modulating subcarrier
3. Single channel containing analogue information (voice)
7. Two or more channels containing quantised or digital information.
8. Two or more channels containing analogue information.
9. Composite system comprising 1, 2 or 7 above, with 3 or 8 above.
X. Cases not otherwise covered.

THIRD SYMBOL = TYPE OF INFORMATION TRANSMITTED

A Telegraphy for aural reception (IDENT)

B Telegraphy for automatic reception
E Telephony including sound broadcasting
D Data transmission
W Combination of above

Examples A1A NDB A2A NDB A9W VOR A3E VHFR/T J3E SSBHFR/T

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PROPERTIES OF RADIO WAVES

1. In a given medium radio waves travel at a constant speed

2. When passing from one medium to another the velocity and direction changes
3. When uninterrupted, radio waves travel in a straight line
4. Radio waves are reflected by objects proportional to their wavelength

FREQUENCY BAND FREQUENCY WAVELENGTH USES

VLF VERY LOW 3 to 30 Khz 100 to 10 KM Loran
LF LOW 30 to 300 Khz 10 to 1 KM NDB
MF MEDIUM 300 to 3000 KHz 1000 to 100 Metres NDB
HF HIGH 3 to 30 Mhz 100 to 10 Metres HF R/T
VHF VERY HIGH 30 to 300 Mhz 10 to 1 Metres VOR ILS LOC.R/T
UHF ULTRA HIGH 300 to 3000 Mhz 100 to 10 CMS DME ILS GP GPS
SHF SUPER HIGH 3 to 30 Ghz 10 to 1 CM ASR DOPPLER
EHF EXTREMELY HIGH 30 to 300 Ghz 10 to 1 MM SURFACE RADAR

PROPAGATION OF RADIO WAVES

Radio waves fall into one or two of the following three categories. Direct waves, ground waves and
sky waves.

DIRECT WAVES

Direct waves follow a straight line path, they do not follow the Earth's curvature or are refracted by
the ionosphere

DIRECT WAVES (VHF UHF SHF EHF)

Frequencies in the VHF, UHF, SHF and EHF bands are DIRECT WAVES. Due to their high
frequencies they pass through the ionosphere and escape into space. They do not bend with the
surface of the earth thus their range is limited to 'line of sight'. There is a slight improvement in
range due to atmospheric refraction and the range of VHF in nautical miles is calculated by :-

Range in nms = 1.25 x ( Transmitter height in feet +  Receiver height in feet)

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GROUND OR SURFACE WAVES (VLF LF MF HF)

Electromagnetic radio waves radiating from an Omni-directional aerial travel in a straight line.
Under certain conditions these waves will bend and follow the surface of the Earth giving increased
ranges. The two primary factors that cause radio waves to bend are diffraction and attenuation.

Ground waves follow the curvature of the Earth's surface (diffraction).

DIFFRACTION AND ATTENUATION

Diffraction causes the radio waves to bend and go over obstacles in their path. Diffraction can be
considered as the obstacle creating ‘friction’ in the part of the wave close to it, causing the wave to
curve towards it as it passes it. The extent of diffraction depends on the frequency, being maximum
at very low frequencies, reducing as frequency is increased. This downward bending is assisted by
surface attenuation.

The lower part of the radio wave comes into contact with the surface and induces currents in it,
losing some of its energy and slowing down. This slowing down of the bottom gives the radio wave
a forward and downward tilt encouraging it to follow the curvature of the Earth. Surface attenuation
varies on two factors - Frequency and the type of surface. The higher the frequency the greater the
attenuation. Surface attenuation is least over water and greatest over the Polar icecaps and
deserts.

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SKY WAVES (VLF LF MF HF)

Sky waves are radio transmissions that are refracted by the ionosphere and returned to earth.
They were the principle method of long range communication before satellites.

IONOSPHERE

The ionosphere completely surrounds the earth. Ultra-violet radiation from the sun striking the gas
molecules of the ionosphere causes electrons to be discharged. These free electrons form a
refractive layer which will refract certain frequencies and they will return to earth. Absorption of
solar radiation is uneven at various levels of the atmosphere and three separate layers (D, E and
F1 may be formed).

D Layer Average altitude 75 Kms Reflects frequencies up to 500 Khz

Disappears at night

E layer Average altitude 125 Kms Reflects frequencies up to 2 Mhz

Electron density higher than the d layer
Known as the Kennelly-Heaviside layer

F layer Average altitude 225 Kms Reflects frequencies up to 30 Khz

Electron density higher than the E layer
Known as the Appleton layer
May split into F1 and F2 layers during day

As solar radiation is the cause, the maximum electron density of the ionosphere occurs at midday
in the summer. As the D layer disappears at night the apparent altitude of the ionosphere
increases at night.

ELECTRON DENSITY ALTITUDE

DAY HIGH LOW

NIGHT LOW HIGH

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IONOSPHERE ATTENUATION

Radio energy is absorbed by the ionosphere. The amount of attenuation depends on:-

1. The electron density of the layer. The greater the electron density the greater the
attenuation.
2. Penetration depth - The deeper the signal penetrates into the layer the greater the
attenuation.
3. Frequency - The lower the frequency, the greater the penetration and attenuation and the
less the diffraction, therefore lower frequencies are used at night.

CONDITIONS FOR REFRACTION - CRITICAL ANGLE

The angle at which the radio wave enters the ionosphere is one of the factors which determines
whether the radio wave will pass through the ionosphere or be refracted and return to earth. If it
strikes the layer at a small angle to the vertical it may bend, but not enough to be returned to earth.
As the angle is increased bending increases until an angle is reached where the radio wave will
return to earth - this is the first sky wave return and the angle is called the critical angle. At greater
angles there will be an uninterrupted flow of sky waves.

CRITICAL ANGLE INCREASES WITH FREQUENCY

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DEAD SPACE

Dead space occurs mainly in the HF frequency band where the ground wave is very limited (in the
order of 80 to 100 nm) and the first sky wave return occurs at some distance from the transmitter
being refracted from the upper layers of the ionosphere. With VLF, LF and MF the ground wave
increases and the sky wave returns from the lower layers of the ionosphere. Usually there is no
dead space at these low frequencies.

9 MHz = Dotted Line 18 MHz = Solid Line

At night the ionosphere is higher and weaker than during the day, thus at night, the 18 MHz
frequency penetrates further into the ionosphere before refraction and returns from a higher layer,
the dead space increases and the first sky wave returns at a much greater distance from the
transmitter. To restore communications the day frequency (18 MHz) is halved (9 MHz), the critical
angle reduces and the distance to the first sky wave return also reduces restoring communications.

NIGHT FREQUENCIES ARE USUALLY HALF THE DAY FREQUENCIES

FADING

Due to fluctuations of the ionosphere, relative phases of skywaves arriving at the receiver vary in
random fashion affecting the amplitude of the receiver output. It is also possible to receive two sky
waves from different heights in the ionosphere. Since the distance travelled is different, the two
signals could be out of phase thus their amplitudes will cancel giving a weak signal. If they are in
phase the signal is stronger.

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WAVE SUMMARY TABLES

GROUND WAVES

FREQUENCY RANGE ATTENUATION BENDING STATIC

VLF 4000 NM + LEAST MAXIMUM SEVERE
LF 1500 NM SLIGHT HIGH REDUCING
MF 500 – 100 NM INCREASING MEDIUM REDUCING
HF 80 – 100 NM SEVERE SLIGHT REDUCING
VHF NIL NIL NIL NIL

SKY WAVES

FREQUENCY ATTENUATION REFRACTION STATIC

VLF VERY LARGE LOW SEVERE
LF LESS THAN VLF LOW REDUCING
MF LESS THAN LF MEDIUM REDUCING
HF SLIGHT HIGH REDUCING
VHF NIL NIL NIL

NOTE: Refraction changes from day to night.

VHF COMMUNICATIONS

Frequencies 118 to 136 Mhz 720 Channels 25 Khz apart

Transmission A3E Amplitude Modulated Vertically Polarised

Direct wave Range Line of Sight

Range in Nms = 1.25 x ( Transmitter height in feet  Receiver Height in feet)

VHF receivers in aircraft incorporate a SQUELCH CONTROL which disables the receiver output
when no signals are being received to prevent noise being fed to the crew headphones.

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HF COMMUNICATIONS

Frequencies 2 to 22 Mhz

Transmission A3E Double Sideband J3E Single Sideband (SSB) Amplitude Modulated

SELCAL SELECTIVE CALLING SYSTEM

Selcal allows a ground station to call an aircraft using HF or VHF without the flight crew having to
wear headphones continuously to monitor the station frequency. A coded signal is transmitted
from the ground station and received at the aircraft. The Selcal decoder in the aircraft activates
aural and visual alerts on the flight deck if the received code corresponds to the aircraft Selcal
code.

Each Selcal transmitted code consists of two radio frequency pulses. During each pulse the carrier
wave is 90% modulated with two tones, giving four tones per code, the frequencies of the tones
determine the code. An individual code is assigned to each aircraft e.g. FJ-AC which is entered on
the ATC flight plan.

MAXIMUM USEABLE FREQUENCY (MUF)

The MUF Maximum Useable Frequency is the highest frequency at which radio waves are
refracted and returned to earth. At higher frequencies the radio waves are not refracted and
escape into space. The MUF changes from day to day and even from hour to hour. It depends on
the state of the ionosphere and at times can drop as low as 5 MHz.

EMERGENCY FREQUENCIES

Aeronautical Emergency 121.5 Mhz 243.0 Mhz 406Khz

International Distress 500 Khz 2182 Khz
Survival Craft 8364 Khz

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QUESTIONS

1. Weather radar has a 3.2 cm wavelength. The transmission frequency is :-

(a) 93.75 Mhz

(b) 937.5 Mhz
(c) 9.375 Ghz

2. If a radio wave is horizontally polarized the:-

(a) Electrical component is in the vertical plane and the magnetic component is
horizontal.
(b) Electrical component is in the horizontal plane and the magnetic component is
vertical
(c) Magnetic component is horizontal with the electrical component 180" out of phase

3. A disadvantage of a VLF (Very Low Frequency) is:-

(a) High surface attenuation

(b) Frequency instability
(c) High static interference

4. The propagation of sky waves is largely influenced by :

(a) The time of day

(b) Atmospheric attenuation
(c) The earth's rotation

5. With HF sky waves skip distance

(a) Increases with an increase in frequency

(b) Increases with a decrease in frequency
(c) Is constant for any frequency

6. A radio wave usually increases in speed when crossing a coast line leaving the land and
passing over the sea resulting in :-

(a) A change in frequency

(b) A change in wavelength
(c) No change in frequency or wavelength

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7. The degree of refraction of a HF transmission by the ionosphere :-

(a) Decreases as the frequency increases

(b) Increases as the frequency increases
(c) Greater by night than by day

8. Surface attenuation of a ground wave :-

(a) Decreases as frequency increases

(b) Increases as frequency increases
(c) Increases as frequency decreases

9. Ground waves in the VLF and LF frequency bands follow the curvature of the earth. This is
due mainly to :-

(a) Diffraction and surface attenuation

(b) Refraction and surface attenuation
(c) Diffraction and refraction

10. Ground wave attenuation is greatest in the :-

(a) LF frequency band

(b) MF frequency band
(c) HF frequency band

11. With Amplitude Modulated transmissions

(a) The frequency is constant and the amplitude varies

(b) Both the frequency and amplitude vary
(c) The amplitude is constant and the frequency varies

12. With Frequency Modulated transmissions

(a) The frequency is constant and the amplitude varies

(b) Both the frequency and amplitude vary
(c) The amplitude is constant and the frequency varies

13. Static interference is most severe in the :-

(a) VHF frequency band

(b) MF frequency band
(c) VLF frequency band

14. Changing a HF/RT frequency from 13315 Khz to 6559 Khz would result in :-

(a) An increase of the dead space

(b) An increase of the critical angle
(c) A decrease of the skip distance

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15. A carrier wave with an amplitude of 5 V is amplitude modulated by an audio frequency with
a 4 V amplitude. The resultant depth of modulation is :-

(a) 48 %
(b) 80 %
(c) 125 %

16. The HF R/T frequency that would most likely result in communication with Johannesburg at
2200 Z is :-

(a) 6559 Khz

(b) 17955Khz
(c) 21926Khz

17. If a frequency of 4 Hertz was transmitted for one second the physical space occupied by the
signal would be :-

(a) 75 000 000 metres

(b) 150 000 000 metres
(c) 300 000 000 metres

18. A SELCAL transmitted code consists of two RF pulses. The aircraft receiver is activated by
:-

(a) The spacing between the two pulses

(b) The modulating tones of the pulses
(c) The length of the pulses

19. VHF R/T receivers usually incorporate a squelch control which :-

(a) Narrows the bandwidth and extends the range

(b) Prevents feedback if hand held microphones are used
(c) Disables the receiver output when no signals are being received so preventing noise
being fed to the crew headsets

20. Sidebands are additional frequencies which occur when a carrier wave is :-

(a) Modulated by a frequency lower than itself

(b) Frequency modulated
(c) Pulse modulated

21. Advantages of single side band transmissions are :-

(a) Broader band width and a power saving as one or two frequencies are transmitted
instead of three
(b) Narrower band width and greater range as the power output is concentrated in one
or two frequencies instead of three
(c) Broader band width and better signal quality as three frequencies are used

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22. During the night the HF R/T frequencies used are approximately half the day time
frequencies because :-

(a) At night the height of the reflecting layer increases and a lower frequency produces a
smaller critical angle thus reducing the dead space
(b) A lower frequency increases the range of the ground wave thus balancing the
increased distance of the first sky wave return
(c) The density of the ionosphere reduces and the higher frequencies are not reflected

23. Skip distance is the distance between:

(a) Successive skywave touch down points.

(b) The distance between the end of the ground wave and the first skywave return.
(c) The distance between a transmitter and the first skywave return.

24. A radio wave modulated at a single audible frequency (keyed CW) is classified:

(a) AIA
(b) A2A
(c) A3E

25. Reception of HF communications by night is affected by:

(a) The lower ionospheric density.

(b) The height of the reflective layer is reduced.
(c) HF communications are not affected.

26. The HF frequencies used at night for communication are:

(a) Twice the day frequency.

(b) Half the day frequency.
(c) The same as the day frequency.

27. The wavelength of a radio wave is:

(a) The number of complete cycles transmitted in one second.

(b) The distance travelled by a radio wave in one second.
(c) The distance travelled by a radio wave in one cycle.

28. The ionospheric density of the E layer of the ionosphere is at it greatest at:

(a) Midday in summer.

(b) Midday in winter.
(c) Midnight in summer.

29. The maximum theoretical VHF communication range between an aircraft flying at FL 200
and a control tower 255 feet AMSL is :-

(a) 197 SM
(b) 226 NM
(c) 364 KM

30. A horizontally polarised radio wave has its:

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(a) Electrical field in the horizontal plane.

(b) Electrical field in the vertical plane.
(c) Magnetic field in the horizontal plane.

31. The F layer of the ionosphere:

(a) May split into two layers.

(b) Is weaker than the other layers.
(c) Is the lowest layer of the ionosphere.

32. The critical angle of a radio wave:

(a) Varies with frequency.

(b) Varies with phase angle.
(c) Is constant for all frequencies.

33. International distress frequencies are:

(a) 500 KHz 121.5 MHz 243 MHz 8364 MHz

(b) 243 KHz 121.5 MHz 500 KHz 8364 KHz
(c) 500KHz 121.5 MHz 243 MHz 8364 KHz

34. Ground wave attenuation is greatest on:

(a) VLF
(b) MF
(c) HF

35. Bending of a radio wave by the Earth's surface is greatest on:

(a) VLF
(b) MF
(c) HF

36. The F layer of the ionosphere is called the:

(a) Kenelly - Heaviside layer.

(b) Appleton layer.
(c) Gauss layer.

37. VHF voice communication frequencies are:

(a) 108 to 112 MHz

(b) 108 to 117.9 MHz
(c) 118 to 136 Mhz

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CHAPTER 2

VERY HIGH FREQUENCY

VDF - DIRECTION FINDING

Major airports in South Africa have a VDF service, it is usually on the Approach frequency and will
provide radio bearings to aircraft on request. The aircraft transmits on the appropriate frequency
and direction finding equipment at the airport will sense the direction of the incoming radio wave.
The bearing will be passed to the aircraft in Q-code form.

Q CODE QTE TRUE bearing FROM the VDF station

QDR MAGNETIC bearing FROM the VDF station
QUJ TRUE track TO the VDF station
QDM MAGNETIC track TO the VDF station

QDM ± Variation QUJ

± 180º ± 180º

QDR ± Variation QTE

Take the shortest route to change one bearing to another

As the VDF operator does not know the magnetic variation at the aircraft the magnetic variation at
the station is used for magnetic bearings (QDM and QDR).

ACCURACY Class A bearings accurate to within ±2°

Class B bearings accurate to within ±5°
Class C bearings accurate to within ±10°

RANGE Line of sight

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CHAPTER 3
NON DIRECTIONAL BEACON (NDB)

AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDING (ADF)

FREQUENCY BAND 200 to 1750 Khz (ICAO) Upper LF and MF

EMISSION DESIGNATION A1A Long Range NDB’s and A2A Short Range NDB’s

TRANSMISSION Omni-directional Vertically Polarised

TYPE OF EMISSION A1A CW with IDENT by on/off keying of the carrier wave
ADF needle wanders during transmission of IDENT
BFO on to make IDENT audible

A2A ICAO recommended. IDENT Amplitude Modulated.

No ADF needle wander during IDENT
BFO off to hear IDENT as it is Amplitude Modulated

RANGE Varies as power available. To double the range the power must
be increased by a factor of four. Long range NDB's use A1A as
the range is greater than A2A for a given power

ADF ROTATABLE LOOP THEORY

The two vertical arms of the loop aerial intercept the vertical electrical field of an incoming radio
wave from a NDB and a voltage is induced in each arm. The induced voltage will be proportional to
the angle between the loop and the direction of the radio wave.

PLANE OF LOOP PARALLEL TO INCOMING RADIO WAVE (right sketch on next page)

When the plane of the loop is parallel to the incoming signal one vertical arm will be closer to the
NDB than the other. There will be a phase difference between the signals arriving in the two arms.
The current flow in the two arms will be in opposition and difference between the two will be fed to
the receiver. The distance between the two vertical members of the loop is maximum therefore the
phase difference and current flow will also be maximum. This maximum position is not clearly
defined and errors can result.

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PLANE OF LOOP PERPENDICULAR TO INCOMING RADIO WAVE (LEFT SKETCH)

When the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the incoming signal the two vertical arms of the loop
will be the same distance from the NDB, thus the incoming signal will arrive at both arms at the
same instant and at the same phase and the resultant current flow is nil. The zero position is
clearly defined and is far more accurate than the maximum position and is used for bearing
measurement. However there is a 180 ambiguity.

180 AMBIGUITY

The 180 ambiguity is resolved by a sense aerial which is omni-directional and its polar diagram is
a circle. The polar diagram of the loop aerial is a figure of eight. The radius of the sense aerial
polar diagram is electronically adjusted to fit the figure of eight polar diagram. When the two fields
are mixed the resultant polar diagram is a CARDIOID and has only one null resolving the 180
problem.

ADF AERIALS

LOOP AERIAL ONLY Figure of eight polar diagram, -180 ambiguity

SENSE AERIAL ONLY Omni-directional Circular polar diagram

USED FOR TUNING NDB

LOOP + SENSE CARDIOID polar diagram Resolves 180 ambiguity of Loop

USED FOR BEARINGS

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FIXED LOOP THEORY

With the modern ADF the loop antenna consists of an orthogonal pair of coils wound on a single
ferrite core mounted in the horizontal plane which intercepts the magnetic (H) component of an
electro-magnetic radio wave from a NDB. One coil is aligned with the fore and aft axis of the
aircraft and the other with the athwartships axis. The radio wave imparts magnetism to the ferrite
core which in turn induces a current in each coil which depends on the direction of the magnetic
field or the direction of the incoming radio wave. The induced currents in the coils are transmitted
to two starter coils of a goniometer where the magnetic field detected by the loop will be recreated.
If the rotor or search coil is turned through 360° there will be two maximum and two null positions
exactly as in the rotating loop (a figure of eight polar diagram). The output from a sense aerial is
combined with the figure of eight polar diagram to give a cardioid. A motor drives the rotor coil and
the ADF needle to the null position of the cardioid thus the ADF relative bearing is shown at all
times.

ADF ERRORS

Night Effect

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During the day sky waves from NDB transmissions are absorbed or fully attenuated by the D layer
of the ionosphere, thus there are no sky waves and no error by day. At night the D layer
disappears and NDB transmissions are refracted by the E layer of the ionosphere.
\
An aircraft may receive both ground and sky waves, the sky waves entering the horizontal
members of the loop. The ground and sky waves mix and give a false null. As the sky wave is
unstable, the null will vary rapidly and the ADF needle will oscillate and become difficult to
determine an accurate bearing. If the aircraft is receiving sky waves only, the null may be sharp,
but the bearing incorrect as the reflecting plane of the ionosphere may not be parallel to the earth's
surface.

Night effect may be minimised by:-

1. Using a lower frequency NDB. Lower frequencies have stronger ground waves.
2. Avoid operation at dusk and dawn, the times of greatest ionospheric instability.
3. Use a high powered NDB.
4. Use NDB's near the aircraft.

Quadrantal Error

Incoming radio waves are reflected by the fuselage and wings of an aircraft. Signals arriving from
the nose, tail, 090ْ relative and 270° relative are not affected. Signals from the quadrantal points
(045°, 135°, 225° and 315° relative) can give large errors. Many years ago aircraft ADF
installations were calibrated by an airborne swing, similar to a compass swing and a quadrantal
correction card was prepared. With modern techniques the aircraft is mapped electronically and
corrections are made to the ADF receiver.

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Terrain Or Mountain Error

High ground may reflect a NDB transmission resulting in multi-path reception. The ADF needle will
indicate the mean bearing between the two signals, thus an error. The error can be minimised by
climbing.

Static Interference

Static can affect ADF readings. Operation in the vicinity of thunderstorms can produce large errors,
even to the extent of the ADF pointing to the Cb instead of the NDB. Precipitation static caused by
flying in rain causes errors.

Coastal Refraction

As a radio wave passes from land to sea its velocity increases and the radio wave bends towards
the medium with the higher density (land). The error is zero if the radio wave crosses the coast at
90° and increases as the angle becomes more acute.

A running fix from a NDB or a fix from three NDB's shown above will give a position towards the
coast from the correct position.

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Coastal refraction may be minimised by :-

1. Use a NDB near the coast rather than inland.

2. Use signals that cross the coast at 90"
3. Flying at higher altitudes will reduce the error.

Question 1

The coast line lies in a North/South direction. An aircraft over the sea receives an ADF bearing of
225° Relative. The true bearing of the aircraft from the NDB is :-

(a) Greater than 045°

(b) 045°
(c) less than 045°

Station Interference

If two NDBs are on similar frequencies large errors may result. The ADF needle will take up a
position which is the resultant of the field strengths of the two transmissions.

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FACTORS AFFECTING RANGE

Transmission Power

The greater the power output the greater the range. To double the range the power must be
increased by a factor of four.

Frequency

The lower the frequency the greater the ground wave and thus the range.

Terrain

Due to the better conductivity of the sea longer ranges are obtained over water than over land.

Type Of Emission

For a given transmission power the A1A NDB will give a greater range than the A2A NDB as the
former does not require power to transmit the ident. Long range NDB's are normally of the AIA
type.

ADF BEARINGS

ADF bearings are presented to the pilot by either a RELATIVE BEARING INDICATOR (RBI) or by a
RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR (RMI).

Relative Bearing Indicator (RBI)

ADF bearings are measured clockwise from the fore and aft axis of the aircraft and are termed
RELATIVE BEARINGS, that is relative to the aircraft's fore and aft axis.

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Tracking Inbound To A NDB Or Tracking Outbound From A NDB (with a RBI)

With zero drift maintain ADF 360 Relative INBOUND to the NDB
With zero drift maintain ADF 180 Relative OUTBOUND from the NDB

Question

An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from a NDB with a constant relative bearing of 185°. To
return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is :-

Answer

355˚ Relative.

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PLOTTING ADF BEARINGS

ADF Relative bearings must be converted into True Bearings (QTE) before they can be plotted on a
chart.

RELATIVE BEARING + TRUE HEADING = QUJ ±180° = QTE

MAGNETIC VARIATION AT THE AIRCRAFT IS ALWAYS USED WITH ADF BEARINGS

Q CODE QTE TRUE bearing FROM the NDB

QDR MAGNETIC bearing FROM the NDB
QUJ TRUE track TO the NDB
QDM MAGNETIC track TO the NDB

QDM ± Variation QUJ

±180° ±180°

QDR ± Variation QTE

Take the shortest route to change one bearing to another

ADF bearing 095° Relative ADF bearing 200° Relative

Heading(T) + 057° Heading (T) 318°
QUJ 152° (T) TO NDB QUJ 518°
± 180° Subtract 360°
QTE 332°(T) FROM NDB QUJ 158° (T) TO NDB
± 180°
QTE 338° (T) FROM NDB

Question

An aircraft heading 157(T), Variation 15W has a relative bearing of 193 from NDB CD. The QDM
to NDB CD is :-

RELATIVE BEARING + MAGNETIC HEADING = QDM (MAGNETIC TRACK TO THE NDB)

Answer

193° Relative + Heading 172°(M) = QDM 005°

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RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR (RMI)

The RMI is a remote gyro compass on which radio bearings (both ADF and VOR) are shown. As it
is a compass, the heading index is heading compass and it may suffer from deviation, for which a
correction must be made to ADF bearings. The sharp end of the pointers are referred to as RMI
readings or QDM. The opposite or blunt end of the needle will be a QDR.

The RMI usually has two needles for aircraft fitted with twin ADF receivers. VOR Radials or
bearings can also be shown, or one needle tuned at a NDB and the other a VOR.

AIRCRAFT FLYING ABEAM OF A NDB (1 in 60 Rule)

If an aircraft is flying abeam of a NDB a simple calculation will give the approximate distance to the
NDB or the time to fly to the NDB.

TIME TO THE NDB = 60 x minutes flown between bearings

degrees of bearing change

DISTANCE TO THE NDB = TAS or GS x minutes flown between bearings

degrees of bearing change

Example: 0900 Z NDB RM bears 055° Relative TAS 180 Kts

0915 Z NDB RM bears 125° Relative

Time to RM = 60 x 15 = 13 minutes Distance to RM = 180 x 15 = 38.6nm

70 70

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INTERCEPTING A QDM INBOUND TO A NDB

These questions can also be found at the end of the chapter (24,25,26)

An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative.

The heading to steer to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50 is:-

(a) 050(M)
(b) 060(M)
(c) 070(M)

The alteration of heading required to intercept the 120° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:-

(a) 20° Right

(b) 30° Right
(c) 40° Right

The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is :-

(a) 050° Relative

(b) 060° Relative
(c) 080° Relative

METHOD

1. Calculate the bearing of the aircraft from the NDB.

2. Draw the required track inbound to the NDB and the intercept angle.
3. Position the aircraft at the moment of interception
4. Answer question

Heading 040 + ADF 060 Relative = QDM 100 + 180 = QDR 280

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ADF - NDB QUESTIONS

1. Variations of signal strength in NDB receivers known as fading indicates the presence of.-

(a) Mountain or terrain effect

(b) Reflection from thunderstorms
(c) Night effect

2. The accuracy of ADF bearings is affected by precipitation static because :-

(a) The NDB transmission refracts as it passes through rain

(b) Static produced by thunderstorms giving heavy rain attracts the ADF needle
(c) Electro-magnetic fields produced when rain strikes an aircraft reduce the signal to
noise ratio giving a broad null

3. To hear the ident of an A1A NDB signal it is necessary to select :-

(a) BFO ON
(b) BFO OFF
(c) ADF or BRG

4. The ident signal of an A2A NDB is transmitted by ON/OFF keying of the :-

(a) Carrier wave

(b) Amplitude modulated tone
(c) Frequency modulated tone

5. To double the range of an NDB the power must be increased by a factor of.

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8

6. The ICAO NDB frequency band is :-

(a) 200 Khz to 500 Khz

(b) 200 Khz to 800 Khz
(c) 200 Khz to 1750 Khz

7. To determine the ADF bearing the aerial/aerials used are :-

(a) The loop aerial only

(b) The sense aerial only
(c) Both the loop and sense aerials

8. To tune the ADF receiver to an NDB the aerials used are :-

(a) The sense aerial only

(b) The loop aerial only
(c) Both the loop and sense aerials

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9. The locator NDB type of emission recommended by ICAO is A2A because :-

(a) The signal is more stable than A1A

(b) The signal is less affected by night effect
(c) The ADF needle does not wander during transmission of the ident

10. A coast line lies in a north/south direction. An aircraft over the sea heading 360(T) receives
an ADF bearing of 230 relative.
The true bearing of the aircraft will be :-

(a) Less than 050

(b) 050
(c) Greater than 050

11. Aircraft heading 225(M), ADF RMI reading 090 the quadrantal error of this bearing is :-

(a) Maximum
(b) Zero
(c) Proportional to sine heading times the signal strength

12. An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from an NDB with a constant relative bearing of
184.
To return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is :-

(a) 356
(b) 000
(c) 004

13. At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NB PE enroute to NDB CN, Track 075(M), Heading
082(M) At 1029 Z NDB PE bears 176 Relative and NDB CN bears 353 Relative.
The heading to steer at 1029 Z to reach NDB CN is :-

(a) 078(M)
(b) 079(M)
(c) 081(M)

14. The result of flying towards a NDB maintaining a 000 relative bearing with a crosswind is :-

(a) The heading remains constant.

(b) The aircraft's track curves to the downwind of the NDB.
(c) The aircraft's track curves to the upwind side of the NDB

15. A radio wave increases speed when crossing the coast, leaving the land and passing over
the sea. When this happens:

(a) The frequency changes.

(b) The wavelength changes.
(c) No change in either.

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16. At 1600 GMT, NDB SL bears 091 Relative by ADF.

At 1604 GMT, NDB SL bears 103 Relative by ADF.
If heading is altered at 1604 GMT to fly direct to SL, the ETA at TAS 150 Kts will be:-

(a) 1616 GMT

(b) 1620 GMT
(c) 1624 GMT

17. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075(T), Variation 10 W, drift 7 Right.
The relative bearing to maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is :-

(a) 353 Relative

(b) 000 Relative
(c) 007 Relative

18. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075(T), Variation 10 W, drift 7 Right.
The magnetic heading to steer to reach GDV is :-

(a) 078(M)
(b) 085(M)
(c) 092(M)

19. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075(T), Variation 10 W, drift 7 Right.
The RMI ADF bearing to maintain to reach GDV is :-

(a) 085
(b) 078
(c) 092

20. An aircraft leaves NDB ABC, track 075(M), drift 6 Left. NDB XYZ bears 235 relative from
the aircraft. What bearings from both NDBs would be shown on the RMI?

(a) 255& 316

(b) 261& 316
(c) 255& 136

21. An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from an NDB with a constant relative bearing of
174 to return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is :-

(a) 354
(b) 000
(c) 006

22. At 1800 Z an aircraft is overhead NDB AB enroute to NDB RK,

Track 315(M), Heading 307(M)
At 1829 Z NDB AB bears 183 Relative and NDB RK bears 006 Relative
The heading to steer at 1829 Z to reach NDB RK is :-

(a) 310(M)
(b) 313(M)
(c) 316(M)

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23. The modern ADF uses :-

(a) A horizontal crossed loop aerial with an orthogonal pair of coils wound on a ferrite
core fed to a goniometer
(b) A horizontal crossed loop aerial with an orthogonal pair of coils wound on a ferrite
core fed to a goniometer and combined with a signal from a sense aerial
(c) A pair of coils which rotate about a ferrite core combined with a signal from a sense
aerial

24. An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative.
The heading to steer to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50 is :-

(a) 050(M)
(b) 060(M)
(c) 070(M)

25. An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative.
The alteration of heading required to intercept the 120 track inbound to the NDB at 50 is :-

(a) 020Right
(b) 030Right
(c) 040Right

26. An aircraft heading 040(M) has an ADF reading of 060Relative is to intercept the 120 (M)
track inbound to an NDB at 50.
The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is :-

(a) 050 Relative

(b) 060 Relative
(c) 080 Relative

27. An aircraft heading 325 (M) has an ADF reading of 330 Relative.
The heading to steer to intercept the 280 track inbound to the NDB at 50 is :-

(a) 310(M)
(b) 320(M)
(c) 330(M)

28. An aircraft heading 100 (M) has an ADF reading of 210 Relative.
The alteration of heading required to intercept the 340 track inbound to the NDB at 60 is :-

(a) 170 Right

(b) 170 Left
(c) 180 Left or Right

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29. An aircraft heading 200 (M) has an ADF reading of 160 Relative.
The heading to steer to intercept the 150 track outbound from the NDB at 30 is :

(a) 110 (M)

(b) 120 (M)
(c) 130 (M)

30. An aircraft heading 200 (M) has an ADF reading of 160 Relative is to intercept the 150
(M) track outbound from an NDB at 30.
The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is :-

(a) 210 Relative

(b) 220 Relative
(c) 230 Relative

31. An aircraft heading 130 (M) has an ADF reading of 190 Relative.
The heading to steer to intercept the 170 track outbound from the NDB at 30º is

(a) 190 (M)

(b) 200 (M)
(c) 210 (M)

32. An aircraft heading 130 (M) has an ADF reading of 190 Relative.
The alteration of heading required to intercept the 170 track outbound from the NDB at 30
is :-

(a) 50Right
(b) 60Right
(c) 70Right

33. An aircraft heading 130 (M) has an ADF reading of 190 Relative is to intercept the
170(M) track outbound from an NDB at 30.
The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is :-

(a) 140Relative
(b) 150Relative
(c) 160 Relative

34. An aircraft heading 135 (M) with 13 Right drift intercepts the 082 (M) track outbound from
an NDB. The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is :-

(a) 122 Relative

(b) 127 Relative
(c) 132 Relative

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35. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8 right drift and is making good a track parallel
to the centre line of an airway but 5 nm off to the left of the centreline. The ADF reading of a
NDB on the airway centreline 42 nm ahead of the aircraft is :-

(a) 015 Relative

(b) 011Relative
(c) 002 Relative

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CHAPTER 4

VOR - VERY HIGH FREQUENCY OMNIRANGE

FREQUENCY BAND 108MHz to 117.95MHz VHF

EMISSION DESIGNATION A9W

TRANSMISSION Omnidirectional Horizontally Polarised

The VOR is the primary ICAO navigation facility for civil aviation. It is a VHF facility and eliminates
atmospheric static interference and other errors of the NDB/ADF.

PRINCIPLE OF OPERATION

VOR operation is based on the principle that the phase difference between two AC voltages may
be used to determine the direction of an aircraft from a transmitter. Imagine two light signals at the
same position. The first is an omnidirectional flashing white light which can be seen by all aircraft
and flashes once in 60 seconds. It is the reference signal. The second is a narrow red beam
which rotates through 360° in 60 seconds. It is the: directional signal. When the red directional light
passes through magnetic north the white reference light flashes, the two lights are in phase and the
bearing is 360°. At any other position the bearing is determined by the time interval between
seeing the flashing white reference light and the red rotating directional light. If the time difference
is 20 seconds the bearing is 120° and if the time difference is 40 seconds the bearing is 240°. The
VOR transmitter uses the same principle, and transmits carrier wave modulated with a reference
phase signal (the white light) and a variable phase signal (the red light). The phase difference
between the two signals determines the aircraft's bearing or radial (the time interval between the
white and red lights).

REFERENCE SIGNAL

The reference signal is an omni-directional CW transmission on the stations allocated frequency. It

carries a 9960 Hz sub-carrier frequency modulated at 30 Hz. The polar diagram is a circle and all
aircraft at the same distance from the VOR will receive the signal at the same time and phase. The
reference signal is the datum from which to measure the phase difference between it and the
directional signal.

DIRECTIONAL OR VARIABLE SIGNAL

Also transmitted on the stations allocated frequency. It is a rotating signal at 1800 RPM or 30
revolutions per second which gives an apparent amplitude modulation of 30 Hz. The signal rises to
a maximum and falls to zero 30 times a second. The polar diagram is that of a rotating figure, of
eight. When combined with the circular polar diagram of the reference signal the result is rotating
cardioid or limacon.

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CALIBRATION

The VOR is calibrated so that zero phase difference occurs on magnetic north. Phase difference
equals magnetic bearing out (QDR) or radial.

VOR STATION MAGNETIC VARIATION USED WITH ALL BEARINGS OR RADIALS

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FREQUENCIES 108 Mhz to

117.95 Mhz

VHF 108 Mhz to TVOR Even Decimals (108.2 108.25)

112 Mhz ILS Odd Decimals (108.1 108.15)

112 Mhz to En- Route Navigational VOR Range

117.95 Mhz 200 nm

PRINCIPLE Bearing determination by phase comparison

Transmission horizontally polarised - not affected by static

REFERENCE SIGNAL 9960 Hz sub carrier FM at 30 Hz

VARIABLE SIGNAL Rotating signal 1800 RPM Apparent AM at 30Hz

COMBINED SIGNAL Limacon

(Similar to NDB cardioid but a minimum instead of a nil
position)

TRANSMISSION POWER & RANGE

Terminal VOR (TVOR) Power 50 Watts Range 100nm

Navigational VOR Power 200 Watts Range 200nm

Range in = 1.25  VOR Height in feet AMSL + Aircraft Altitude in feet

Nautical Miles

ACCURACY TRANSMITTER ± 1° RECEIVER ± 3° TOTAL ± 4°

VOR MONITOR

All VOR transmissions are monitored for accuracy. Accuracy of VOR radials at the transmitter are
better than 1°. If the transmission error is greater than 1° the monitor will remove the IDENT or the
navigation components.

IDENT 3 letter morse code at least once every 10 seconds

IDENT WITHDRAWN When VOR undergoing maintenance or bearing error in excess of 1°

VOT (TEST VOR)

At certain airports a test VOR is available for testing the aircraft's VOR receivers during pre-flight
checks. They transmit zero phase difference so that regardless of the aircraft's position relative to
the VOR the indication in the aircraft will be radial 360°. If a CDI is used to check the equipment
the indications will be :

Left/Right needle central FROM OBS 356 to 004 or TO OBS 176 to 184
VOR receivers usually have a self test circuit independent of a VOT. During a self test the RMI
needle should indicate radial 360° or 180° RMI reading.

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VOR ERRORS

Site Error

Caused by buildings, obstacles, trees or uneven ground in the vicinity of the transmitter.

Propagation Error

The signals leave the transmitter with an accuracy better than 1° but they may be affected by
uneven terrain enroute to the aircraft (Scalloping).

Interference Error

Interference from a second VOR on the same frequency may produce errors for high flying aircraft.
If a VOR is at sea level, an aircraft at FL 250 should receive bearings at 198 nm. A second VOR on
the same frequency should not be positioned closer than 198 nm x 2 + 100 nm = 496 nm from the
first VOR.

AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT ERROR

Accuracy of VOR radials at the transmitter is better than 1°. Errors in the aircraft equipment should
not exceed 3° giving a maximum error of 4°. If the accuracy of VOR readings in an aircraft exceed
4° IFR flights should not be attempted. If there is a twin VOR installation in an aircraft and both
VOR receivers are tuned to the same VOR the spread between the two readings should not
exceed 6°. Fluctuations of 6° may occur at certain propeller or helicopter rotor RPM.

CONE OF AMBIGUITY OR CONFUSION

A VOR transmits in the horizontal plane but the signals radiate up to 70° in elevation. Overhead the
VOR weak erratic signals may be received and the indicators will oscillate and the bearings are
unreliable.

DOPPLER VOR

VOR transmitter aerials should be sited on flat terrain to minimise site errors. If such a site is not
available, a complex aerial system may be employed to transmit the VOR signal. This type of
station is known as a Doppler VOR (DVOR) beacon and produces a signal which is reasonably free
of site errors even when the transmitter is sited in hilly terrain.

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The way in which the bearing signal is produced is quite different from conventional VOR, the
received signals are indistinguishable from each other and the airborne receiver will operate on
either with equal facility. In Doppler VOR the reference signal is amplitude modulated at 30Hz,
whilst the bearing signal is frequency modulated at 30Hz. Because this is the reverse of CVOR,
the bearing (or variable) modulation is made to lead the reference signal by a phase angle equal to
the aircraft magnetic bearing FROM the VOR ground station.

COURSE DEVIATION INDICATOR (CDI)

Course is the American term for Track. The CDI is a command instrument. It gives steering
commands to the pilot to maintain a selected course/track/radial TO or FROM the VOR.

OMNI BEARING SELECTOR (OBS)

By turning the OBS the desired course/track is selected. This may appear in a window or under an
index.

COURSE DEVIATION NEEDLE

The LEFT/RIGHT needle moves laterally across the dial. The needle is central when the aircraft is
on the selected radial or its reciprocal. Full needle deflection from the centre (left or right) indicates
that the aircraft is 10˚ or more from the selected radial or its reciprocal.

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TO/FROM INDICATOR

The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the selected course will take the aircraft TO or FROM the
VOR. IT DOES NOT INDICATE WHETHER THE AIRCRAFT IS HEADING TO or FROM THE
VOR.

ORIENTATION

Rotate the OBS knob until the Left/Right deviation needle is central. Assuming the needle centres
with 090 and FROM indicated. This means the aircraft is on the 090 Radial, all three aircraft shown
on the right side of the sketch below will have the same indication. The CDI presentation is totally
independent of aircraft heading.

Assuming the needle centres with 090 and TO indicated. This shows that the aircraft is on the
reciprocal of the OBS 090 SETTING that is Radial 270. All three aircraft shown on the left of the
sketch will have the same indication.

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1. Draw the OBS SETTING (090) given in a question.

2. Label the reciprocal of the OBS setting (Radial 270) and the two Radials at 90°.
3. Position 4 aircraft, one in each quadrant, with the aircraft heading similar to the OBS setting.
4. Determine whether the aircraft are flying TO or FROM the VOR.
5. Determine whether the aircraft have to FLY RIGHT or FLY LEFT to intercept the 090 Radial.
6. OUTBOUND or the 270 Radial INBOUND.

The TO or FROM indication and the LEFT / RIGHT needle displacement are correct for any aircraft
in each quadrant REGARDLESS OF THE AIRCRAFT HEADING.

RMI INDICATIONS

VOR information can be presented on the RMI in a similar manner to ADF bearings.

ADF RMI READING = QDM

APPLY AIRCRAFT VARIATION AND COMPASS DEVIATION

The ADF measures Relative bearings which are passed to the RMI. If the bearing is 045 relative
the ADF RMI needle is positioned 45 clockwise from the heading index. Thus aircraft variation
and deviation must be applied.

VOR APPLY VOR STATION VARIATION ONLY

The RMI cannot accept VOR Radials from the VOR receiver, only Relative bearings. Therefore
Radials have to be changed into Relative bearings by a differential synchro.

Assume that an aircraft is on Radial 090, heading 155(C), deviation 5W, heading 150(M)

If RELATIVE BEARING + AIRCRAFT MAGNETIC HEADING = QDM

Then RELATIVE BEARING = QDM - AIRCRAFT MAGNETIC HEADING

Case 1 (0° Dev) Case 2, (5°W Dev)

Radial 090 QDR 090 QDR 090

QDM 270 QDM 270
Minus aircraft heading 150 (M) 155 (C)
Relative bearing 120 115
RMI pointer positioned clockwise from datum +150 (M) +155 (C)
RMI reading (QDM) 270 270

In case 2 aircraft heading 155 (C) which includes deviation has been subtracted from the QDM
and then added to the relative bearing to give the RMI reading, thus deviation cancels and is not
applied.

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QUESTIONS

1. The operational principle of VOR is bearing determination by :-

(a) Frequency comparison,

(b) Wavelength comparison,
(c) Phase comparison.

2. The accuracy of VOR radials is better than :-

(a) ±1°
(b) ±4°
(c) ±6°

3. The accuracy of VOR radials as determined by the aircraft's equipment if serviceable is:-

(a) ±1°
(b) ±4°
(c) ±6°

4. A twin pointer RMI shows radials from a single VOR transmitter. The difference between the
readings should not be greater than :-

(a) 4°
(b) 6°
(C) 8°

5. The principle factors affecting the accuracy of VOR radials as indicated by the aircraft's
equipment are :-

(a) Aircraft equipment error, site error, refraction error and propagation error,
(b) Propagation error, site error, aircraft equipment error and night effect,
(c) Site error, interference error, propagation error and aircraft equipment error.

6. VOR CDI indications in an aircraft may fluctuate by as much as ±6° may be caused by :-

(a) Certain propeller RPM or helicopter rotor speeds,

(b) Co-located DME transmissions,
(c) Quadrantal error.

7. A VOR ground station transmits a reference signal and a variable signal, the characteristics
of which are: -

(a) An omni-directional reference signal amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and a rotating

9960 Hz sub-carrier variable signal,
(b) An omni-directional reference signal which carries a 9960 Hz sub-carrier frequency
modulated at 30 Hz and a rotating variable signal at 1800 RPM which gives an
apparent 30 Hz amplitude modulation,
(c) A 9960 sub-carrier reference signal amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and a rotating
cardioid variable signal frequency modulated at 30 Hz.

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8. The VOR frequency band is :-

(a) 118 Mhz to 136 Mhz,

(b) 108 Mhz to 112 Mhz,
(c) 108 Mhz to 117.95 Mhz.

9. The datum of a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) is :-

(a) True north.

(b) Magnetic north.
(c) Compass north.

10. If the variable phase of a VOR transmission lags the reference signal by 40° the bearing to
the VOR is :-

(a) 220°
(b) 040°
(c) 320°

11. If a malfunction of the main VOR transmitter occurs and is shut down, a standby transmitter
may be brought into operation. It takes time for the signals to stabilize and the bearings may
be inaccurate. Aircraft are warned of possible inaccuracies by :-

(a) The VOR not transmitting the reference signal,

(b) The VOR not transmitting the ident signal,
(c) A voice warning that the VOR is not to be used.

12. An aeroplane is inbound to a VOR on radial 065°. VOR variation is 3°W, variation at the
aeroplanes position is 5°W. If drift is 4° left the initial heading to maintain the radial is :-

(a) 247° (M)

(b) 249° (M)
(c) 251° (M)

13. An aircraft is on a true bearing of 090° from a VOR. Variation at the VOR is 10°W and at the
aircraft 8°W. The CDI left/right needle will be central when the OBS is set at :-

(a) 100 with FROM indicated,

(b) 098 with FROM indicated,
(c) 100 with TO indicated.

14. VOR B is situated on radial 233°, 120 nm from VOR A. An aeroplane, GS 300 kts, is
approaching VOR A on radial 143°. At 0900 Z the aeroplane is on radial 098° from B. If the
aeroplane alters heading at 0900 Z for VOR B the ETA at B will be :-

(a) 0928Z
(b) 0934Z
(c) 0940Z

15. To prevent inaccurate bearings being transmitted during maintenance a VOR station will:-

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(a) Not transmit the variable signal,

(b) Transmit a voice warning,
(c) Remove the ident signal.

16. Full scale deflection of the left/right needle on a VOR CDI means an aircraft is more than:-

(a) 2½° from the selected radial or its reciprocal,

(b) 5° from the selected radial or its reciprocal,
(c) 10° from the selected radial or its reciprocal.

17. An aircraft heading 065°(M) has the VOR CDI OBS set at 095. The left/right needle of a 5
dot CDI is 3 dots left of centre with TO indicated. The aircraft is on radial :-

(a) 101°
(b) 269°
(c) 281°

18. A VOR and a NDB are co-located on an aerodrome where the variation is 17°W. An aircraft
is flying where the variation is 19°W on a true bearing of 315° from the aerodrome. The
VOR and ADF readings on a twin pointer RMI would be :-

(a) VOR 152° ADF 154°

(b) VOR 152° ADF 152°
(c) VOR 154° ADF 152°

19. A VOR and a NDB are co-located on an aerodrome where the variation is 12°W. An aircraft
is flying where the variation is 10°W on a true bearing of 215° from the aerodrome. If
compass deviation is 2°W, the VOR and ADF readings on a twin pointer RMI would be :-

(a) VOR 047° ADF 045°

(b) VOR 047° ADF 047°
(c) VOR 045° ADF 045°

20. An aircraft heading 045° (M), is on a true bearing of 135° from a VOR, variation 8°E. If the
OBS is set at 315 the indication on a 5 dot CDI would be :-

(a) TO 4 dots left of centre,

(b) TO needle central,
(c) TO 4 dots right of centre.

21. The maximum allowable tolerance of the OBS (CDI left/right deviation needle centred) when
checking a VOR receiver by use of a VOT is :-

(a) 178 to 182 FROM

(b) 176 to 184 TO
(c) 356 to 004 TO
(d) 350 to 002 FROM

360
22 Four aircraft A, B, C & D have their OBS set
to 360 The aircraft that would have FROM
indicated and the LEFT/RIGHT needle left A B

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of centre is :

C D

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

23. When the VOR OBS meter indicates TO and the LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle of the CDI
is central, the aircraft will be:

(a) Inbound to the VOR.

(b) Outbound from the VOR.
(c) On the radial shown by the course selector.
(d) On the reciprocal of the radial shown by the course selector.

24. When the course selector is set to 105 the LEFT/RIGHT is centred and the TO/FROM
indicator shows TO. This means:

(a) The aircraft bears 105° (M) from the VOR.

(b) The magnetic track to the VOR is 105°.
(c) The true bearing of the aircraft from the VOR is 105°.
(d) The true track to the VOR is 105°.

25. The VOR reference signal is:

(a) A rotating signal Amplitude Modulated at 30 Hz.

(b) A Limacon.
(c) A 9960 Hz sub - carrier Frequency Modulated at 30 Hz.

26. The VOR directional signal is:

(a) A rotating signal Frequency Modulated at 30 Hz.

(b) A Limacon.
(c) A 9960 Hz sub-carrier Amplitude Modulated at 30 Hz.

27. VOR GGV and VOR PEV are 161 nm apart. Both VORs are 200 feet AMSL. The minimum
altitude that an aircraft would be able to receive both VOR's is :-

(a) 4176 feet

(b) 3289 feet
(c) 2526 feet

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28. An aircraft bears 045°(T) from a VOR (variation 13°E). The OBS settings that would centre
the LEFT/RIGHT needle of a CDI would be :-

(a) 045 and 225

(b) 058 and 238
(c) 032 and 212

29. No. 1 pointer of a RMI is tuned to a VOR. No. 2 pointer is tuned to a co-located NDB. The
pointers will:

(a) Point exactly in the same direction.

(b) Point in different directions due to the difference in variation between the aircraft and
the transmitters.
(c) Point in different directions because VOR uses the VHF band and the NDB uses
LF/MF.

30. An aircraft heading 280° (M) is on a bearing of 090° (M) from a VOR. The OBS setting that
should be selected in order to centralise LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle with TO indicated is
:-

(a) 280°
(b) 270°
(c) 100°
(d) 090°

31. An aircraft heading 220° (M) has the OBS set at 030. A 5 DOT CDI shows the LEFT/RIGHT
needle 4.5 DOTS RIGHT of centre with FROM indicated. The aircraft is on Radial:

(a) 021°
(b) 039°
(c) 201°
(d) 219°

32. An aircraft is maintaining Radial 090 outbound from VOR XYZ. After flying for 35 minutes
the aircraft returns to NDB XYZ which is co-located with VOR XYZ. Aircraft variation 22° W,
VOR variation 20° W. The QDM to the NDB is:

(a) 268°
(b) 270°
(c) 272°

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33. An aircraft heading 320° (M) is 45 nm from VOR/DME NEV on Radial 136. If 140 is selected
by the OBS and FROM appears in the window the LEFT/IGHT indication on a 5 DOT CDI
would be :-

(a) LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle 2 DOTS RIGHT of centre.

(b) LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle 2 DOTS LEFT of centre.
(c) LEFT/RIGHT deviation needle central.

34. An aircraft is established on Radial 135 inbound to VOR ABC. VOR CPL is 120nm from
VOR ABC on Radial 225. At 1015 Z the aircraft receives QDM 270° from VOR CPL. TAS
300 kts, Zero wind conditions. What is the ETA at CPL if heading is altered at 1015 Z?

(a) 1039 Z
(b) 1049 Z
(c) 1059 Z

35. An aircraft passes overhead VOR/DME EPS at 0913 Z maintaining Radial 252, heading
244°(M), TAS 230 kts, variation 15° W. At 0928 Z VOR/DME EPS indicates DME 63 nm.
The W/V is:

(a) 080/40
(b) 095/40
(c) 110/40

36. Two VOR stations are to be sited on the centre line of an airway 10 nm wide. If the bearing
accuracy of ± 5° is required from the two VORs, the maximum distance apart that the two
transmitters could be sited is :-

(a) 120 nm
(b) 180 nm
(c) 240 nm

37. The maximum range that an aircraft flying at FL 210 would receive a VOR (800 feet AMSL)
is :-

(a) 216 SM
(b) 228 NM
(c) 400 KM

38. A VOR/DME defines the centre line of a 10 nm wide airway. An aircraft at DME 180 nm has
a 2 dot fly left indication on a 5 dot CDI with the airway centre line radial correctly set. The
distance of the aircraft from the boundary of the airway is:-

(a) 2 nm
(b) 7 nm
(c) 12 nm
(d) 17 nm

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39. The VOR CDI OBS is set at 050 with the Left/Right needle central but the TO/FROM
indicator is inoperative. If the OBS is changed to 060 and the Left/Right needle deflects to
the Right the aircraft is on the :-

(a) 050 Radial flying away from or towards the VOR

(b) 230 Radial flying towards or away from the VOR
(c) 230 Radial flying any heading

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Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

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CHAPTER 5

ILS INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM

FREQUENCY BAND 108 to 111.95 MHz VHF

EMISSION DESINGATION A8W

An ILS installation at an airfield consists of the following three components :-

LOCALISER TRANSMITTER GLIDE SLOPE TRANSMITTER MARKER BEACONS

Localiser Transmitter (VHF)

Provides guidance in azimuth and is located about 300 metres from the upwind end of the runway
in line with the runway centreline. It transmits a horizontally polarised carrier wave on the stations
allocated frequency. The carrier wave is modulated by two tones of 90 Hz and 150 Hz.

If the aircraft is to the left of the extended centre line of the runway during an approach it will be in
an area (Yellow sector) where the 90Hz modulation predominates and will have a fly right
command. If the aircraft is to the right of the extended runway centre line it will be in an area (Blue
sector) where the 150 Hz modulation predominates and will have a fly left command. The receiver
in an aircraft on the extended centre line will receive the carrier modulated to a depth of 20% by
both the 90 Hz and 150 Hz notes. Deviation from the centre line is given in DDM (Difference in
Depth of Modulation) which controls the
Left/Right vertical command bar of the ILS indicator.

Glide Slope Transmitter (UHF)

The Glide Slope or Glide Path transmitter is located about 150 metres to the left or right of the
runway centre line and 300 metres upwind from the landing threshold. The carrier wave is
transmitted in the vertical plane and is modulated by a lower lobe of 150 Hz and an upper lobe of
90 Hz. The line along which the two modulations are equal in depth is the centre line of the glide
slope.

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For an aircraft below the glide slope the 150 Hz note will predominate and a fly up command will be
shown. For an aircraft above the glide slope the 90 Hz note will predominate and a fly down
command will be shown. An aircraft on the glide slope will receive equal amounts of the 90 Hz and
150 Hz notes and the horizontal command bar will be central.

Marker Beacons

Two or three marker beacons are positioned along the approach path provide range to runway
threshold check points.

FREQUENCIES

LOCALISER VHF 108.1 to 111.95 Mhz (Odd-decimals)

GLIDE SLOPE UHF 329.3 to 335 Mhz

The Localiser and Glide Slope are frequency paired. Each localiser frequency has a glide path
frequency allocated to it.

Johannesburg Intl. RWY 03L LOC 110.3 Mhz GP 335.0 Mhz

RWY 03R LOC 109.1 Mhz GP 331.4 Mhz

The pilot selects the localiser frequency only, the glide path receiver automatically selects the
appropriate glide path frequency.

LOCALISER COVERAGE 25 nm 10 either side of the localiser centre line

17 nm 35 either side of the localiser centre line

GLIDE PATH COVERAGE 8 either side of the centre line in azimuth to 10 nm

0.45 x GP angle to 1.75 x GP angle in elevation

ACCURACY Checked for accuracy up to 18 nm (ICAO)

PROTECTION Protected from interference up to 25 nm and 6250 ft.

IDENT Transmitted every 10 seconds on the localiser

frequency only

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ILS REFERENCE DATUM

The ILS reference datum is a point at a specified height (usually 50 feet or 15 metres) located
vertically above the intersection of the runway centre line and the ILS landing threshold through
which the downward extended path portion of the ILS glide path extends.

ILS FACILITY PERFORMANCE CATEGORIES (ILS Ground Installation)

CAT 1 Accurate guidance down to 200 feet above the ILS reference point
CAT 2 Accurate guidance down to 50 feet above the ILS reference point
CAT 3 Accurate guidance down to and along the surface of the runway

ILS OPERATIONAL APPROACH CATEGORIES (Aircraft and Crew)

CAT 1 Decision Height 200 feet RVR 550 metres VIS 800 metres

CAT 2 Decision Height 100 feet RVR 350 metres

CAT 3a No Decision Height RVR 200 metres

ILS MONITOR

Both localiser and glide path transmissions are automatically monitored by equipment located in the
guaranteed reception area. The monitor will provide a warning in any one of the following
circumstances:

1. A localiser shift of more than 35 feet from the centre line.

2. A glide slope angle change of more than 0.075 x basic glide path angle
(0.075 x 3° =0.225°)
3. A reduction in power output of 50% or more of the localiser or glide path transmitters.
ILS information may be presented on the VOR indicator. The vertical LEFT/RIGHT needle

operates in a similar manner to the VOR and gives commands to intercept and maintain the
localiser centre line. if an ILS localiser frequency is selected the VOR OBS setting control becomes
inoperative. If the aircraft is on the localiser centre line the needle will be central regardless of the
OBS setting. The horizontal needle gives commands to intercept and maintain the glide path. The
centre of the instrument is the aircraft and the needles give the commands. In the above sketch the
command is fly up and left.

Full Scale Deflection for the localiser is 2.5 .

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GLIDE PATH

Full Scale Deflection 0.7

MAXIMUM SAFE DEFLECTION 0. 35 FLY UP or 2. 5 DOTS on a 5 DOT INDICATOR

After passing the Outer Marker, half full scale fly up indication is considered to be the maximum
safe deviation below the glide path. At this indication an immediate climb must be initiated and the
approach abandoned.

WARNING FLAGS

Warning flags operate if a malfunction of the ILS ground installation or the aircraft equipment
occurs. They also operate if the aircraft is out of range.

MARKER BEACONS

Marker beacons, transmitting on 75 Mhz, are installed along the approach path centre line. They
radiate a fan pattern up to 3000 feet and their distance from the runway threshold is published, also
the aircraft height overhead the marker if on the glide path.

MARKER CODING LIGHT DISTANCE MODULATION

OUTER (OM) 2 dashes/sec BLUE ±4 nm 400 Hz
MIDDLE (MM) Alternate dot dash AMBER ±3500 feet 1300 Hz
INNER (IM) 6 dots/sec White 250 - 1500 feet 3000 Hz

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LOCATOR BEACONS

Low powered NDB's are often sited at the middle and inner markers.

FALSE GLIDE PATHS

False glide paths may be produced above the true glide path. The first of these is encountered at
about 6°. They are not considered a danger to the aircraft for the following reasons:

1. The glide path is intercepted from below.

2. If an aircraft is descending on a false glide path of 6° its rate of descent would be excessive.
3. The aircraft height crossing the marker beacons on the glide path is published and cross
checked.
4. False glide paths signals are weak and warning flags should operate.

ILS BACK BEAM

Some ILS installations radiate a Back Beam. When an aircraft passes the localiser transmitter
during a missed approach, signals will be received to enable the aircraft to maintain the extended
centre line. If the aircraft strays to the left, a fly right command will be indicated (needle right of
centre). If the aircraft strays to the right, a fly left command will be indicated (needle left of centre).

ILS BACK BEAM APPROACH

If runway 09 has an ILS, an approach may be made to runway 27 using the back beam of runway
09. The back beam is less accurate than a front beam and there are no marker beacons or glide
path, only localiser signals. The Left/Right needle commands do not apply, if the needle is to the
left (indicating fly left on the front beam) then, as the needle sense is reversed, the aircraft must fly
right.

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RATE OF DESCENT

The 1 in 60 rule may be used to calculate the rate of descent on the glide path.

RATE OF DESCENT = GLIDE PATH ANGLE x GROUNDSPEED x 100

60

For example:

An aircraft is inbound on a 3˚ ILS at a groundspeed of 140 knots. Using the 1:60 rule, what should
the rate of descent be?

Working: 3˚ x 140 knots x 100

60

Answer: 700 feet per minute.

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QUESTIONS

1. The type of emission used by ILS is :-

(a) A1A,
(b) A8W,
(c) A3E.

2. ICAO recommends that an ILS localiser should be calibrated for accuracy up to a distance
of.-

(a) 18nm,
(b) 25nm,
(c) 35nm.

3. An aeroplane is established on an ILS localiser approaching the outer marker inbound. The
ILS CDI shows a 2 dot fly up command. To intercept the glide slope the pilot should :-

(a) Cimb,
(b) Descend
(c) Maintain level flight.

4. Assuming that an ILS has a backbeam, an aircraft overshooting after a missed approach
and has passed the localiser transmitter and is to the left on the extended line of the runway
would have an ILS CDI indication of.-

(a) Fly left,

(b) On centre line,
(c) Fly right.

5. During the ILS approach, after passing the outer marker, a glide slope warning flag appears.
The CDI needle shows on the glide slope and all indications appear normal. The
appropriate action would be:-

(a) Initiate the missed approach procedure,

(b) Continue the approach to the decision height,
(c) Continue the approach but apply a higher minima.

6. The approximate height of an aeroplane maintaining a 2.7° glide slope during an ILS
approach when over the outer marker, 4 nm from the runway threshold is :-

(a) 930 feet,

(b) 1090 feet,
(c) 1240 feet,

7. Transmission of the ILS IDENT occurs on the :-

(a) Localiser transmission,

(b) Glide slope transmission.
(c) Both localiser and glide slope transmissions.

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8. During an ILS approach to runway 03 (QDM 033), if the OBS is set to 030 and the aircraft is
on the centre line the ILS CDI will indicate :-

(a) Fly left,

(b) On localiser centre line,
(c) Fly right.

9. An ILS glide slope is intercepted from below so as to :-

(a) Reduce the initial approach speed,

(b) Avoid departing traffic,
(c) Avoid false glide paths.

10. The ICAO standard height of the ILS reference point is :-

(a) I0 metres,
(b) 15 metres.
(c) 20 metres.

11. Full scale deflection of the ILS CDI localiser needle occurs when the aircraft is more than :-

(a) 2.5° from the centre line,

(b) 5° from the centre line,
(c) 10° from the centre line.

12. Full scale deflection of the ILS CDI glide slope needle occurs when the aircraft is above or
below the glide path by more than :-

(a) 0.35°
(b) 0.7°
(c) 1.25°

13. The ILS inner, middle and outer marker frequencies are :-

(a) Found in various flight guides,

(b) Found on ILS approach plates,
(c) 75Mhz.

14. The maximum safe deviation from the ILS glide path during an approach using a 5 dot CDI
is :-

(a) 2 dots fly up,

(b) 2½ dots fly up,
(c) 3 dots fly up.

15. ILS middle marker indications are :-

(a) 3 dots fly up.

(b) Amber light coding alternate dots and dashes,
(c) White light coding six dots per second,
(d) Blue light coding two dashes per second.

16. If the 150 Hz tone predominates in the ILS localiser receiver the CDI indication will be :-

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(a) Fly left,

(b) On centre line,
(c) Fly right.

17. The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide path:

(a) Must be increased if the groundspeed decreases.

(b) Remains constant for a given IAS.
(c) Decreases if the groundspeed decreases.

18. When making an ILS approach, the localiser needle will always be deflected in the colour
area in which the aircraft is flying, regardless of the position or heading of the aircraft.

(a) The above statement is true.

(b) If the needle indicates that the aircraft is in the BLUE sector before reaching the
localiser transmitter it will give an opposite indication when the station is passed.
(c) The above statement is false.
(d) The YELLOW sector is always on the right when inbound to a runway.

19. Given: ILS GP 2.7 degrees, IAS 117, TAS 130, G/S 120. The rate of descent required to
maintain the glide path is :-

(a) 585 ft /min.

(b) 525 ft/min.
(c) 540 ft/min.

20. An aircraft passes the outer marker which is 4 nm from the threshold of a runway. The CDI
shows a 3 DOT fly left indication on a 4 DOT scale. Using the 1:60 rule, the distance of the
aircraft from the localiser centre line is :-

(a) 760 feet

(b) 780 feet
(c) 795 feet

21. An ILS has a 3° glide slope. The outer marker is 4 nm from the runway threshold. If an
aircraft passes the outer marker at 1500 feet above airfield elevation, the glide slope
indication that would be shown on a 5 DOT indicator is :-

(a) On glide path

(b) 2 dot fly down
(c) 4 dot fly down

22. The approximate height of an aircraft above airfield elevation when on a 3° glide path and
3.8 nm from the ILS reference point is :-

(a) 1200 feet

(b) 1500 feet
(c) 1800 feet

23. The height above the ILS reference point that a CAT 1 ILS ceases to give accurate
guidance is :-

(a) 100 feet

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(b) 150 feet

(c) 200 feet

24. An ILS Glide Path can be between:

(a) 2 to 4 degrees
(b) 2.3 to 3.7 degrees
(c) Above 6 degrees

25. ILS localiser transmissions are protected from interference up to :-

(a) 10 nm
(b) 18 nm
(c) 25 nm

26. A Cat 1 ILS has a glide path angle of 3.3.

What will its coverage be?

(a) 1.65 to 5.77

(b) 1.49 to 5.77
(c) 1.65 to 5.94

27. You are about to begin an ILS approach for RWY 35, and have selected the ILS frequency
109,45 on the receiver. When monitoring the audio the ident signal “DFV” is heard. The
localiser needle gives you the expected command indication, but the glide slope warning
flag remains on. The most likely reason for this is that:

(a) The glide slope transmitter is not operational

(b) The aircraft is out of the glide slope area of coverage
(c) The selected frequency is incorrect

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Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

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CHAPTER 6
RADAR THEORY
RADAR is the transmission of radio energy in short bursts or pulses. Radar frequencies are VHF
and higher.

TIME & SPEED

1 second = 1000 milli-seconds (ms)

1 second = 1 000 000 micro-seconds (s)
1 second = 1 000 000 000 nano-seconds (ns)

A radar pulse travels at 300 000 000 metres per second or 162 000 nm per second

A radar pulse travels at 300 metres per micro-second (s)

A radar pulse travels at 0.162 nm per micro-second (s)

PULSE RECURRENCE PERIOD (PRP)

The distance between the transmission of two pulses in time.

PRP 2000 s. The second pulse is transmitted 2000 s after the first pulse.

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PULSE RECURRENCE FREQUENCY (PRF)

The number of pulses transmitted per second. 500 pps (pulses per second)

PULSE WIDTH

The length of the pulse in time, 2 s x 300 metres per s = 600 metres pulse length

PRIMARY RADAR

1 TRANSMITTER 1 RECEIVER 1 FREQUENCY

A radar pulse is transmitted and is reflected by a target and returns to its point of transmission. The
direction from which it returns can be measured. The time taken for its journey out and return is
measured and knowing the speed of propagation the range of the target can be calculated. Thus
the position of the target is known.

SECONDARY RADAR

2 TRANSMITTERS 2 RECEIVERS 2 FREQUENCIES

A radar pulse is transmitted by station A and received by station B. Station B replies by transmitting
a second pulse on a second frequency which is received by station A. The bearing and distance of
station B from station A can be measured or calculated similar to primary radar.

PRIMARY RADAR RANGE

The range of primary radar depends on the power output. As primary radar is an out and return trip,
to double the range the power must be increased by a factor of 16. Other important factors which
govern range are Pulse Recurrence Frequency, Pulse Recurrence Period and Pulse Width.

PULSE RECURRENCE FREQUENCY (PRF) DETERMINES MAXIMUM RANGE

if the PRF is 500 pps (pulses per second) then PRP = 1 = 0.002 sec = 2000s
PRF 500

The pulse has 2000 s to travel out and return before the next pulse is transmitted

Distance = Speed x Time = 0.162 nm/s x 2000 s = 162 nm maximum range

2 2

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PULSE WIDTH DETERMINES MINIMUM RANGE

Minimum range is important in the design of airport surveillance radar.

Pulse width 3 s x 300 metres per s = 900 metres pulse length

If a target is 450 metres from the transmitter, the first cycle of the returning pulse or echo would be
received as the last cycle of the transmitted pulse leaves the transmitter. Echoes from targets
closer than 450 metres would not be received as the transmitter is still transmitting. To receive
echoes from targets closer than 450 metres the pulse width would have to be reduced.

CATHODE RAY TUBE (CRT)

The Cathode Ray Tube produces electrons in the form of a stream from a cathode. The stream of
electrons can be controlled in such a way that radar derived information and other data can be
displayed on the CRT screen. To give a clear and accurate presentation the electron stream must
be focused into a narrow beam. This beam will appear as a dot on the screen of the tube. The dot
can be moved rapid by actuating the X and Y deflection plates. There is sufficient afterglow to allow
the most recent position of the dot to persist for a short time, so instead of seeing a dot on the
screen, a line or "timebase" is seen. The time base can be linear (vertical of horizontal), radiating
from the centre to the edge of the screen or circular.

CATHODE

The cathode is a small cylinder coated with barium oxide. When heated the barium oxide emits
electrons.

GRID

The grid is cylindrical in shape and has a hole in the centre through which the beam of electrons
passes. Voltages applied to the grid, which is always negative with respect to the cathode, control
the number of electrons passing through it and hence the brilliance of the display. The grid is the
brilliance control.

ANODES

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The first and third anodes have a positive potential which attracts the electrons and accelerates the
electron beam towards the screen. As the beam passes through the centre of the first anode the
beam tends to diverge. This tendency to diverge is controlled by the second anode, and by varying
its negative potential the electrons are focused into a narrow beam. The second anode is the
focusing control.

X and Y DEFLECTOR PLATES

The Y plates control the beam in the vertical and the X plates in the horizontal. To produce a
horizontal linear timebase, initially the left X plate would be positive and the right X plate negative.
This will position the beam at the left hand side of the screen. The potential of both plates is rapidly
reversed, the left plate becoming negative and the right plate positive. The beam moves rapidly
across the screen giving a horizontal time base. By repeating this process many times a second a
steady time base appears on the screen. A radar pulse travels at 162 000 nm per second or 162
nm in 1000 s If the electron beam moves across the screen in 1000 s the length of the time base
is 162 nm. A returning echo from a target is fed to the Y plates and a blip will appear and the range
is measured against a suitable scale.

GRAPHITE COATING

The inner wall of the tube is coated with graphite which is connected to the third anode. This serves
to attract slow moving secondary electrons emitted from the screen as a result of the impact of the
beam. Otherwise they would tend to build up a negative charge sufficiently strong to repel the
beam.

GAIN CONTROL

Interference from other electrical equipment or atmospheric static may appear on the screen.
These tiny signals travel to the CRT via the Y plates and show up on the screen as small blips in
the vertical. They appear as "grass" hence their name. They appear when the gain control is
increased and indicate that the CRT is serviceable, reduce the gain and they should disappear.

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QUESTIONS

1. In primary radar installations, the pulse width determines the :-

(a) maximum range,

(b) minimum range,
(c) pulse recurrence frequency.

2. In primary radar installations, the pulse recurrence frequency determines the :-

(a) maximum range,

(b) minimum range,
(c) pulse width.

3. The anode system of the Cathode Ray Tube :-

(a) controls the brilliance of the display,

(b) controls the number of electrons reaching the screen and leads stray electrons to
earth,
(c) accelerates the electron beam towards the screen and acts as a focus control.

4. The inner wall of the Cathode Ray Tube is coated with graphite :-

(a) to provide protection to the operator,

(b) to attract stray electrons and leads them to an earth,
(c) to screen the CRT from outside interference.

5. Basic radar is the transmission of pulses of radio energy. The time interval between two
consecutive pulses in time is the :-

(a) Pulse Recurrence Frequency,

(b) Pulse Recurrence Period,
(c) Pulse Recurrence Sequence.

6. The brilliance of a CRT display is controlled by :-

(a) the second anode,

(b) the first and third anodes.
(c) The grid.

7. Unwanted echoes or "grass" can be reduced or removed from a horizontal time base on a
CRT by :-

(a) X plates,
(b) Y plates,
(c) the gain control.

8. To double the range of primary radar the transmission power must be increased by a factor
of.-

(a) 4,
(b) 8,
(c) 16.

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CHAPTER 7

DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT (DME)

FREQUENCY BAND 962 MHz to 1213 MHz UHF

EMISSION DESIGNATION P0N

DME is secondary radar, that is 2 transmitters, 2 receivers and 2 frequencies.

AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT

An interrogator, which is a combined transmitter and receiver.

An indicator

An omnidirectional blade aerial, able to receive vertically polarised signals.

GROUND EQUIPMENT - TRANSPONDER

A transmitter, receiver and aerial system. The word transponder means that it is a transmitter
which responds.

PRINCIPLE OF OPERATION

An aircraft transmits an interrogation pulse which is received by the DME. The DME transponder
will reply to the interrogation pulse received from the aircraft and will transmit a reply pulse. Range
is calculated from the time interval between the aircraft transmitting a pulse and receiving the reply.
As the DME transponder replies to every interrogation by all aircraft, each aircraft must isolate the
reply pulse to its own interrogation and reject reply pulses to interrogations by other aircraft.

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RANDOM PRF

The aircraft transmits pairs of pulses 12 s apart. The time between the pairs of pulses is varied at
random

40000s 40150s 39650s 38950s 40820s 39275s

At the instant that a pair of pulses is transmitted the receiver starts timing and commences a search
for the transponder replies. The transponder replies to the interrogations by transmitting pairs of
pulses on a frequency 63 Mhz removed from the interrogation frequency. The aircraft's receiver
searches for pairs of pulses that match the time intervals of its own transmitted pairs of pulses, its;
own random PRF, and rejects pulses meant for other aircraft. Once the aircraft's unique random
PRF has been recognized the receiver "locks on" and tracking commences and slant range to the
DME is indicated.

During the search period the aircraft's interrogator transmits at a high rate of 150 pairs of pulses
per second. If "lock on" is not achieved in 100 seconds (15 000 pairs of pulses) the PRF is lowered
to 60 pairs of pulses per second until "lock on". At "lock on" the transmission rate is reduced
further to 25 - 30 pairs of pulses per second.

MEMORY

If the signals are lost, memory circuits are activated, which will continue to display range
information at the last known rate of change of range. After 10 seconds of memory operation the
equipment will revert to the search mode.

AUTOMATIC STANDBY

The aircraft VOR and DME equipment is frequency paired (similar to ILS Localiser and Glide Path).
A VOR frequency is selected and the appropriate DME frequency is automatically selected and the
DME starts interrogating. It is pointless for the DME to transmit if the VOR has no DME or the
aircraft is out of range. The automatic standby circuits prevent the interrogator operating until it
receives reply pulses from the transponder meant for other aircraft, or "squitter or filler pulses"
which are transmitted at random by the DME.

FREQUENCIES UHF 962 Mhz to 1213 Mhz

The DME frequency band is divided into a low band and an upper band.

LOW BAND CHANNELS 1 to 63

Aircraft Interrogator Ground Transponder

1025 MHz to 1087 Mhz Minus 63 MHz 962 MHz to 1024 MHz

HIGH BAND CHANNELS 64 to 126

Aircraft Interrogator Ground Transponder

1088 MHz to 1150 Mhz Plus 63 MHz 1151 MHz to 1213 Mhz

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As the ground transponder reply frequency is 63 Mhz different from the interrogation frequency the
aircraft receiver will not accept replies to its interrogation that are reflected from the ground .

The 126 Channels listed above are X channels and there is 12 s spacing between the two pulses
of the interrogation and transponder pulses. There are a further 126 Y channels but the spacing
between the two interrogation and transponder pulses is 36s.

DME BEACON SATURATION

The DME transponder can only transmit 2700 pairs of pulses per second. Assuming the average
transmission rate of an interrogator is ,5 pairs of pulses per second, then the DME can reply to 100
aircraft. This is the saturation level. If more than 100 aircraft interrogate a DME it is said to be
saturated and the DME receiver gain is lowered and the transponder will ignore the weakest
interrogations, that is aircraft at the greatest range.

VOR/ DME FREQUENCY PAIRING

The aircraft VOR and DME equipment is frequency paired (similar to ILS Localiser and Glide Path).
A VOR frequency is selected and the appropriate DME frequency is automatically selected and the
DME starts interrogating.

CO-LOCATED VOR / DME

The aerials are a maximum of 100 feet apart and the facilities are used in terminal areas for
approach purposes. Both facilities have the same IDENT (VOR JSV / DME JSV) . A VOR co-
located with a TACAN is known as a VORTAC.

ASSOCIATED VOR / DME

En route navigational VOR/DME and the aerials are not more than 2000 feet apart. Both facilities
have the same IDENT (VOR CPL / DME CPL).

VOR / DME SERVING THE SAME LOCATION

VOR and DME transmitters that are more than 2000 feet apart but serve the same area. They are
identified by their different IDENT. The first two letters will be the same but the third letter of one
facility will be a Z (VOR STN / DME STZ).

Where VOR and DME stations are at entirely different locations their IDENT will be completely
different and they are not to used in conjunction. Where a VOR is frequency paired with a military
TACAN the system is called a VORTAC.

VOR/ DME IDENT

The IDENT is transmitted 4 times every 30 seconds.

The VOR will transmit 3 times in 30 seconds and the DME once.

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ACCURACY and ERRORS

DME accuracy is better than 0.5 nm and there are no errors.

RANGE

Maximum range of DME is 200 nm, but being UHF it is line of sight and will depend on aircraft
altitude.

The range is slant range, an aircraft overhead a DME at 18 000 feet will have a range of 3 nm.

To calculate ground range :-

SLANT RANGE2 = GROUND RANGE2 + AIRCRAFT ALTITUDE in NAUTICAL MILES2

RANGE CALCULATIONS

Question 1

An aircraft receives a reply a pulse from a DME 1730s after transmission of the interrogation
pulse. The DME has a fixed delay of 50s. The range of the aircraft from the DME station is:-

SPEED x TIME 0.162 nm/s x (1730/s - 50/s)

DISTANCE = 2 = 2 = 136 nm

Question 2

A DME with a fixed delay of 50s receives an interrogation pulse from an aircraft 425s after
transmission. The slant range of the aircraft From the DME station is :-

DISTANCE = SPEED x TIME = 0.162 nm/s x 425 s = 68.55 nm

(ONE WAY TRIP ONLY)

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QUESTIONS

1. The DME indication when an aircraft is overhead a VOR/DME station at 6000’ is :-

(a) 0 nm
(b) 1 nm
(c) 1.3 nm

2. The distance displayed by the DME indicator is :-

(a) Slant range in nautical miles.

(b) Slant range in statute miles.
(c) Correct ground range.

3. The greatest error between ground distance to the DME station and the indicated distance
is :-

(a) High altitudes at maximum range.

(b) High altitudes close to the DME station.
(c) Low altitudes at maximum range.
(d) Low altitudes close to the DME station.

4. The DME frequency band is:

(a) VLF
(b) VHF
(c) UHF

5. A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
appropriate indicators. The VOR ident is CPL and the DME CPZ. This indicates that VOR
and DME transmitters are :-

(a) Co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position,
(b) Serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two positions
(c) At two independent positions and are not related.

6. A DME transponder becomes saturated if interrogated by a excessive number of aircraft. It

will reply to the nearest :

(a) 80 aircraft,
(b) 100 aircraft,
(c) 120 aircraft.

7. An aircraft DME receiver rejects pulses meant for other aircraft because:

(a) The transmission and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.

(b) The random PRF is unique to each aircraft.
(c) The pulses are transmitted in pairs.

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8. An aircraft receives a reply pulse from a DME 1200 s after transmission of the interrogation
pulse. The DME has a fixed delay of 50 s. The range of the aircraft from the DME station
is:-

(a) 47 nm
(b) 72 nm
(c) 93 nm

9. A DME with a fixed delay of 50 s receives an interrogation pulse from an aircraft 285 s
after transmission. The slant range of the aircraft from the DME station is:

(a) 29 nm
(b) 46 nm
(c) 63 nm

10. The DME automatic standby will activate the DME interrogator when :-

(a) Random filler pulses from the transponder are received,

(b) A VOR frequency that has a frequency paired DME is selected,
(c) The DME ident signal is received.

11. If an ident signal is received once in 30 seconds ~on a frequency paired VOR/DME, then :-

(a) The VOR only is operational,

(b) The DME only is operational,
(c) Both facilities are operational.

12. An aircraft's DME receiver will accept replies to its own interrogations from a DME
transponder and ignore replies to interrogations from other aircraft because the :-

(a) Interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 Mhz apart,

(b) Random PRF which is unique to each transmitter,
(c) Pulses are transmitted in pairs.

13. An aircraft will not accept replies from its own transmissions that are reflected from the
ground because the :-

(a) Interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 Mhz apart,

(b) Random PRF which is unique to each transmitter,
(c) Pulses are transmitted in pairs.

14. A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
appropriate indicators. The VOR ident is GDV and the DME MFT. This indicates that VOR
and DME transmitters are :-

(a) Co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position,
(b) Serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two positions
(c) At two independent positions and are not related.

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15. An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pair of pulses for limited periods at switch on. The
transmission pattern is :-

(a) 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
(b) 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps,
(c) 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps.

16. An aircraft receives a reply from a DME (fixed delay 50s) 995s after transmission of the
interrogation pulse. The slant range of the aircraft is :-

(a) 76.54nm
(b) 82.59nm
(c) 88.34nm

17. An aircraft receives a reply from a DME 1.5 milli-seconds after transmission of the
interrogation pulse. If the DME has a fixed delay of 50s the range of the aircraft is :-

(a) 112.85nm
(b) 117.45nm
(c) 121.83nm

18. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation, because :-

(a) The interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 Mhz apart,
(b) The Y channel accepts three pulse interrogations only,
(c) The spacing between the X and Y interrogation pulses is different.

19. An aircraft at FL 410 has a DME range of 14 nm. The ground range from the DME is :-

(a) 11.68nm
(b) 12.27nm
(c) 12.85nm

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Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

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CHAPTER 8

SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR SSR

FREQUENCY BAND 1030 Mhz and 1090 Mhz UHF

PRIMARY RADAR

Primary radar transmits pulses from a rotating scanner, the pulses are reflected by aircraft and
return to the scanner. The bearing and distance of aircraft are portrayed on a PPI (Plan Position
Indicator). The major disadvantage of primary radar is that there is no positive identification of each
aircraft. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is used in conjunction with primary radar to provide
the necessary identification

SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR SSR

RANGE 200 nm

The ground SSR interrogator transmits a pair of pulses on 1030 Mhz. The aircraft receives the
interrogation and replies on 1090 Mhz (TRANSPONDER CODE). The SSR interrogator is
directional and the aircraft transponder is omni-directional.

GROUND INTERROGATION MODES

MODE A IDENTIFICATION REQUEST TWO PULSES 8s apart

MODE B IDENTIFICATION REQUEST TWO PULSES 17s apart

MODE C ALTITUDE REPORTING REQUEST TWO PULSES 21s apart

MODE D EXPERIMENTAL TWO PULSES 25s apart

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AIRCRAFT TRANSPONDER CODES 1090 Mhz

The aircraft replies to the interrogation by transmitting a pair of pulses 20.3 s apart called the
framing pulses. Between the two framing pulses will be the aircraft's allocated code (a binary code)
which is formed by the inclusion or omission of 12 coding pulses.

l = Inclusion 0 = Omission

0 = 000 1 = 001 2 = 010 3 = 011 Numbers 8 and 9

4 = 100 5 = 101 6 = 110 7 = 111 are not used

Example SQUAWK 3624

20.3 s Frame 4.35 s

011 110 010 100 INDENT PULSE

IDENT

A Special Identification Pulse (SIP) can be transmitted 4.35 s after the framing pulse by pressing
the IDENT button on the aircraft's SSR control unit. This is activated by the crew on ATC request
only and highlights the aircraft's position on the ATC PPI display.

There are 4096 codes available. When selecting or changing a code, care must be taken not to
select one of the emergency codes below. It is advisable to change codes on the standby position.

EMERGENCY CODES

7500 INTERFERENCE - HIJACK

7600 RADIO FAILURE
7700 EMERGENCY - SOS

ALTITUDE REPORTING

On receiving a mode C interrogation the aircraft transponder will automatically transmit the aircraft's
altitude. The height is referenced to standard pressure of 1013.2 hPa regardless of the altitude
setting on the encoding altimeter.

SIDE LOBE SUPPRESSION

The interrogator transmits a narrow beam in azimuth for bearing accuracy. Unfortunately the
azimuth beam has side lobes that may interrogate a nearby aircraft and an incorrect reply would
result. The pair of pulses of the interrogation are termed P1 and P3, A third omnidirectional pulse
P2 is transmitted 2 s after the P1 pulse, whose signal strength is greater than the side lobes but
less than the P1 and P3 pulses. Circuits in the transponder receiver compare the amplitudes of the
P1, P2 and P3 pulses and the transponder will only reply if the amplitude of the P1 and P3 pulses is
greater than the amplitude of the P2 pulse.

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DEFRUITING

If an aircraft is within range of two SSR stations, the aircraft reply to a station A interrogation may
be received by station B and vice versa. The unwanted replies are called 'fruit' and to combat this
the Pulse Recurrence Periods of adjacent SSR stations are slightly different and 'defruiting' circuits
filter the replies with different PRP's.

GARBLING

If two aircraft are less that 1 nm apart in azimuth, the replies from the two aircraft would appear as
one wide blip on the PPI display. Special 'killer' circuits are incorporated to prevent this and two
blips would appear.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

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QUESTIONS
1. Side lobe suppression in SSR is accomplished by :-

(a) defruiting, which removes unwanted replies from aircraft by the use of killer circuits,
(b) aircraft close to the transmitter selecting LO sense on the receiver,
(c) transmission of a third omni-directional pulse weaker than the main pulses but
stronger than the side lobe pulses.

2. An aircraft using a SSR transponder will transmit an IDENT pulse :-

(a) when requested by ATC only,

(b) when changing codes,
(c) on initial contact with ATC.

3. The range of SSR is :-

(a) 100nm,
(b) 200nm,
(c) 400nm

4. The airborne SSR transponder reply to a ground interrogation with a 8 micro-second time
interval between the P1 and P3 pulses is the aircraft's :-

(a) allocated code,

(b) allocated mode,
(c) altitude.

5. An airborne SSR transponder recognises an invalid interrogation by a side lobe of the main
beam transmission by comparing the :-

(a) time intervals between the P1, P2 and P3 pulses,

(b) time interval between the P1 and P3 pulses,
(c) relative amplitude of the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.

6. An airborne SSR transponder recognises an altitude reporting request by the ground

transmitter by comparing the :-

(a) time intervals between the P1, P2 and P3 pulses,

(b) time interval between the P1 and P3 pulses,
(c) relative amplitude of the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.

7. The airborne SSR transponder reply to a Mode A interrogation is :-

(a) two framing pulses 20.3 us apart,

(b) 12 pulses transmitted between two framing pulses,
(c) between 0 and 12 pulses transmitted between two fraiming pulses.

8. Two radio/radar facilities that share a common frequency band are :-

(a) DME and SSR,

(b) GPS and VDF,
(c) VOR and DME.

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CHAPTER 9

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR (AWR)

FREQUENCY BAND 9375 Mhz SHF

WAVELENGTH 3.2cms

PRINCIPLE

The SHF 9375 Mhz is used because of the short wavelength of 3.2 cms. At this wavelength mist,
fog and clouds composed of tiny water droplets do not reflect the 3.2 cm wavelength, and as these
clouds and fog are harmless to aircraft regarding turbulence, need not be shown on the radar
screen. Clouds such as large Cumulus and Cumulo-nimbus are composed of large water drops
and hail due to the strong vertical currents in the clouds and are dangerous to aircraft. Radar
pulses of 3.2 cm wavelength are reflected from such large water drops and give excellent echoes.
Weather radar is a primary radar (1 transmitter/receiver and 1 frequency) and uses the searchlight
principle.

OPERATION

A short pulse is transmitted and the receiver detects the returning echo on the same frequency.
Receiver sensitivity is reduced immediately after transmission of the pulse and slowly increased
with time. The echoes from clouds close to the aircraft will be strong whilst echoes from distant
clouds will be weak. Varying receiver sensitivity will paint clouds with a similar brightness on the
radar screen. This is the sensitive time control (STC).

RANGE

Range depends on transmission power and Pulse Recurrence Frequency / Period. The pulse must
be given enough time to travel out to the cloud and return as an echo, before the next pulse is
transmitted.

PRF 400 pulses per second = range 202 nm

PRF 500 pulses per second = range 162 nm

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POWER

STBY STANDBY Normally selected after starting engines, radar ready for instant
use.

ON Radar operating, scanner gyro stabilized. May be used on the ground using
extreme caution on runway just prior to take-off if bad weather in take-off
flight path).

STAB OFF Aerial locked to aircraft pitch and roll axes.

RANGE SWITCH 30 nm with range circles every 5 nm varies from radar

60 nm with range circles every 10 nm to radar
180 nm with range circles every 30 nm

TILT CONTROL

Permits aerial tilt 30 up when estimating the height of cloud tops or 30 down when ground
mapping at long range.

GAIN CONTROL

To brighten or dim the picture.

ERASE RATE

To increase or reduce the rate that clouds on the screen fade. The time base sweeps from left to
right painting clouds. At the second sweep from left to right, the clouds painted by the first sweep
should be fading just as they are repainted by the second sweep a little closer to the aircraft.

FUNCTION SWITCHES

WEA (sometimes shown as WX)

The normal position for observing clouds using a narrow conical pencil beam.

CONTOUR

To examine the most turbulent areas in clouds by using an iso-echo display.

MAP

Ground mapping by the use of a cosecant beam which is a very wide beam in the vertical (85).
The power output of the beam varies as the cosecant of the angle of depression. Minimum power
is directed vertically to objects at close range and the power increases to the maximum for objects
at long range so as to paint similar ground features with equal brightness. The maximum range of
the cosecant beam is in the order of 65 nm.

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MAN

A narrow conical pencil beam used in conjunction with the tilt control for ground mapping at long
range. Small islands can usually be painted at the maximum range of the radar. The sensitive time
control is inoperative in this position and the manual gain control is used.

ISO-ECHO DISPLAY

The iso-echo display examines clouds in detail. Although the pilot can see clouds ahead of the
aircraft, it needs experience to determine very dangerous clouds from less dangerous ones on a
monochrome display. Strong turbulent clouds produce stronger echoes than inactive clouds.
When the contour position is selected the iso-echo system inhibits echoes above a predetermined
level and the area will not be seen on the screen. About the turbulent area there is the remainder
of the cloud whose activity is below the predetermined level and will be shown. A cloud shown on
the screen with black holes is extremely dangerous and should be avoided at all costs.

DISPLAY DISTORTION

The conical pencil beam is narrow, in the region of 4 in azimuth and 5 in the vertical. At long
range two clouds less than the beam width apart will appear as one cloud. As the aircraft
approaches the clouds and the beam narrows they will appear as separate clouds.

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EFFECT OF BEAM WIDTH

The beam adds one half of the beam width distance on either side of the cloud. This is due to the
fact that the echo returns from the time that the leading edge of the beam comes in contact with the
cloud until the time that the trailing edge of the beam leaves the cloud.

EFFECT OF PULSE LENGTH

The cloud reflects the pulse for the same time duration as the length of the pulse. It is presented on
the screen against a time base, measuring range. The time scale is halved in order to display cloud
ranges. On the time base the pulse length extends the image in range by a distance equal to half
the pulse length.

CLOUD HEIGHT DETERMINATION

Using the tilt control the beam is raised until the cloud just begins to disappear. The bottom of the
beam is directly on top of the cloud. This gives the angular measurement of the cloud tops above
aircraft altitude. Knowing the range of the cloud the height of the cloud tops can be calculated.

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Example 3

Beam width 3
Tilt 2 down
Stab on
Fl 350
Cloud range 17nms

3.5

17 Tan 3.5 = Ht of cloud

= 6322 ft

35000 – 6322 = 28650 ft tops of cloud

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QUESTIONS

1. Weather radar operates in the SHF band because :-

(a) Narrow beams can be transmitted only on SHF,

(b) The short wavelengths produced by SHF give excellent reflections from large water
drops in clouds,
(c) The scanner dish required by SHF is small and can fit into the nose of an aircraft.

2. When using weather radar to map a coastline the conical pencil beam should be used in
preference to the cosecant beam :-

(a) At ranges of less than 50 nautical miles,

(b) At ranges greater than 60 nautical miles,
(c) Over a calm sea.

3. Operation of weather radar (ASR) on the ground :-

(a) Prohibited,
(b) May be used in maintenance areas only,
(c) May be used with extreme caution.

4. The iso-echo contour system of the weather radar (ASR) :-

(a) Indicates the areas in a cloud where severe turbulence may be encountered,
(b) Reduces the receiver sensitivity as the aircraft approaches a cloud,
(c) Indicates the areas where cloud penetration is advisable.

5. An aircraft is climbing through 6500 feet.

Attitude director 4 pitch up

Weather radar stabilizer off
Cloud range 27 nautical miles
Tilt control 3 up
Beam width 5

The height of the top of the cloud is :-

(a) 15000 feet,

(b) 17000 feet,
(c) 19000 feet

6. Airborne weather radar displays suffer from distortion due to :-

(a) As the beam width increases with range a cloud appears to be twice its size,
(b) A cloud reflects an echo for the time duration of the pulse, and as the CRT timebase
is halved the cloud appears half its size.
(c) On the CRT the beam adds one half of the beam width on either side of the cloud.

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7. Airborne weather radar displays suffer from distortion due to the length of the timebase on
the CRT being half the pulse travel time:

(a) Making a cloud appear smaller than its actual size,

(b) Thus extending the cloud size by one half of the pulse length,
(c) Reducing the range of the cloud by one half of the pulse length.

8. Super High Frequency (SHF) is used by :-

(a) Weather Radar

(b) DME
(c) SSR

9. The function of the weather radar iso-echo display is :-

(a) To indicate areas where cloud penetration is advisable

(b) To indicate areas in cloud where extreme turbulence exists
(c) For ground mapping

10. An aircraft is cruising at FL 390.

Attitude director 1º pitch up

Weather radar stabilizer off
Cloud range 51 nautical miles
Tilt control 3 down
Beam width 3

The height of the top of the cloud is :-

(a) 18500 feet

(b) 20500 feet
(c) 22500 feet
(d) 23300 feet

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CHAPTER 10

Radio Altimeters

PRINCIPLE

A radio wave is transmitted vertically and the time taken for the radio wave to reach the ground and
return to the aircraft is measured. Knowing the speed of propagation multiplied by time will give the
height of the aircraft landing gear above the ground.

FREQUENCY MODULATED RADIO ALTIMETER 4300 Mhz ± 50 Mhz

The radio altimeter's frequency modulated at 20 Hz per nano-second. If the-transmission starts at

4250 Mhz, the 4250 Mhz will travel to the ground and will be received as 4250 Mhz after 't' nano-
seconds. At the instant the 4250 Mhz signal is being received the transmitter is transmitting
4250.0234 Mhz. The frequency having been increased by 20 Hz per nano-second (ns).

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CHANGE OF FREQUENCY = TIME

RATE OF CHANGE OF FREQUENCY

Transmitting Frequency 4250.0234 Mhz

Received Frequency 4250.0000 Mhz

Frequency Difference 0.0234 Mhz x 1000 x 1000 = 23400 Hz = 1170ns

20 Hz/ns

Distance = Speed x Time = 0.984 feet / ns x 1170 ns = Aircraft Height 575.64 feet
2 2

RANGE 0 to 2500 feet

ACCURACY 5 feet or 3% of height.

Half needle increment is error for the indicator.

DECISION HEIGHT

A decision height control knob positions the DH bug for use during an ILS approach.

ERRORS

Fixed Error

This error is caused by the method of converting frequency difference into height and feeding the
current to the indicator. The radio altimeter pointer moves in 5 feet steps (similar to the second
hand of a watch) so an error of 2½ feet may be present at any time.

Mushing Error

When the transmitting aerial is at a different height to the receiving aerial due to aircraft attitude.

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QUESTIONS

1. The principle of operation of the Radio Altimeter is :-

(a) Frequency modulation

(b) Amplitude modulation
(c) Pulse modulation

2. A frequency modulated continuous wave radio altimeter operates at a mean frequency of

4300 Mhz. The limit of the modulation is :-

(a) 50 to 60 Mhz
(b) 1100 to 120 Mhz
(c) 1200 to 250 Mhz

3. Frequency modulated continuous wave radio altimeter errors are :-

(a) Instrument and mushing errors

(b) Instrument and fixed/step errors
(c) Mushing and fixed/step errors

4. A radio altimeter indicates the height above the ground of the :-

(a) Aerials
(b) Main landing gear
(c) Pressure altimeter static vent

5. A radio altimeter measures the height of the aircraft above the ground by :-

(a) Time difference between the transmitted and received signals

(b) Frequency difference between the transmitted and received signals
(c) Phase difference between the transmitted and received signals

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CHAPTER 11
AREA NAVIGATION

RNAV

Area navigation equipment includes INS, LORAN, and recently GPS. The first three are expensive
and with the advent of cheap computers an area navigation system based on VOR and DME was
designed. This system is known as a RHO - THETA system. RHO being the distance from a DME
and THETA the bearing from the VOR.

WAYPOINT (WPT). A geographical position expressed in Latitude and Longitude. It can also be
expressed as a bearing and distance from a VOR /DME.

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COURSE LINE COMPUTER (CLC)

The Course Line Computer solves the triangle.

Side c is the aircraft DME distance

Side b is the distance of the waypoint from the DME
Angle A is the difference between the aircraft's Radial and the waypoint Radial from the VOR

The two unknowns, side a (distance to the waypoint) and angle B (magnetic track to the waypoint)
are solved and can be presented on a CDI as steering commands similar to the VOR CDI.

In effect the position of the VOR /DME has been offset to the waypoint.

RNAV CDI INDICATIONS

VOR Full scale deflection 10°

RNAV CLC Less than 100 nm from the waypoint Full scale deflection 5nm

RNAV CLC More than 100 nm from the waypoint Full scale deflection 10°

RNAV CLC Approach Mode (up to 25 nm) Full scale deflection 1.25nm

APPROACH MODE

A non-precision approach to an airfield may be made with the CLC in the approach mode. The
airfield must be within 25 nm of a VOR/DME station.

CLC COMPUTER

CLC computers vary greatly. A simple installation may not correct for DME slant range. With a basic
CLC the VOR/DME frequency is selected on the nav receiver. On the CLC waypoint selector the
radial and DME distance of the waypoint is selected. The CDI presents left/right steering commands
in conjunction with an OBS. With more sophisticated systems the computer may be programmed
with 10 waypoints, VOR/DME positions and frequencies, elevation of VOR/DME stations and inputs
from an encoding altimeter (to calculate ground range instead of slant range).

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QUESTIONS
Use 5 dot CDI for all RNAV questions

1. The RNAV CDI shows the left /right needle 3 dots left of centre with 30 nm to go to the
waypoint. The distance that the aircraft is right of track is :-

(a) 6.0 nm
(b) 3.0 nm
(c) 1.5 nm

2. Full scale deviation of a RNAV CDI in the approach mode is :-

(a) 1.25 nm
(b) 2.50 nm
(c) 5.00 nm

3. When using RNAV in the approach mode the distance from the airfield to the parent
VOR/DME should not be greater than :-

(a) 15 nm
(b) 20 nm
(c) 25 nm

4. An aircraft is approaching a RNAV waypoint and is maintaining a 4 dot to left·command with

72 nm to go. The aircraft is :-

(a) Slowly closing the distance to the preset track

(b) Mmaintaining a constant distance from the track
(c) Slowly increasing the distance from the track

5. An aircraft is flying from WPT 4 (Radial 218, DME 116 nm) track 063°(M) to WPT 5 (Radial
132, DME 52.5 nm). At 0915 Z the aircraft is on Radial 153 at DME 52 nm.

The indication on a 5 Dot CDI would be :-

(a) 3 Dots left of centre

(b) 4 Dots left of centre
(c) 5 Dots left of centre

6. An aircraft is flying from WPT 6 (Radial 144, DME 63 nm) track 277°(M) to WPT 7 (Radial
229, DME 62 nm). At 0945 Z the aircraft is on Radial 187 at DME 42 nm.

The indication on a 5 Dot CDI would be :-

(a) 3 Dots left of centre

(b) 4 Dots left of centre
(c) 5 Dots left of centre

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CHAPTER 12
GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM GPS
GPS is a satellite based radio navigation system that provides continuous global coverage to an
unlimited number of users.

PRINCIPLE

The time interval between the time of transmission of the signal by the satellite and reception of the
signal by an aircraft is measured. The time interval multiplied by the speed of propagation of radio
waves gives the range of the aircraft from the satellite.

The system consists of three major segments:-

THE SPACE SEGMENT - THE USER SEGMENT THE CONTROL SEGMENT

THE SPACE SEGMENT

21 satellites plus 3 active in orbit spares arranged in six orbital planes inclined at 55ْ to the Equator.

The orbit is slightly elliptical at 10 898 NM ( 288 NM) altitude. 1 orbit every 12 hours.

Each satellite transmits a precisely timed binary pulse train together with a set of ephemeris
constants (astronomical position) defining its current orbit.

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THE USER SEGMENT

The user segment consists of receivers on board surface transport vehicles, aircraft and ships. The
receiver picks up signals from four or more satellites and a computer calculates the position.

THE CONTROL SEGMENT

The control segment consists of 5 unmanned monitor stations that track each satellite in its orbit.
Each satellite's orbit and the timing of the onboard atomic clock is monitored. Any necessary
corrections are then sent to one of four ground stations and transmitted to each satellite to update
the ephemeris co-ordinates and clock correction factors.

OPERATION

GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies.

L1 1575.42 Mhz modulated with two pseudo-random codes.

P (precise) for military use only and C/A (coarse acquisition) for civil use.

L2 1227.6 Mhz, P (precise code only) for military use with an accuracy of  3 metres.

Each satellite is assigned its own unique C/A and P codes for identification.

SELECTIVE AVAILABILITY (SA)

The United States military will not permit unlimited use of the highest accuracy levels ( 3 metres)
that GPS provides. The P code signal for military use only is encoded in such a way that civil users
cannot make use of it. The accuracy of the civil C/A code is as from 02 May 2000  20 metres.
When SA was on, a GPS degradation of  100 metres was achieved by jittering the satellite timing
in an unpredictable fashion and by drifting the broadcast satellite ephemeris. The effect of SA was
that the indicated position for a stationary user wandered around the true position in an
unpredictable fashion. The US DoD can still degrade the accuracy in selected areas, but will give
advanced warning of this.

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THREE SATELLITE FIXING

Three satellites will give three spheres of range which provides an unambiguous fix in two
dimensions without the geocentric height input. Actually there will be two fixes but one will be far
out in space which is an impractical position for an aircraft.

FOUR SATELLITE FIXING

Four satellites will give a three dimensional fix that is independent of any other input. The fix is
related to three satellites and the mass centre of the Earth. The accuracy of the fix will vary and
depends on the angles of intersection of the three range spheres which in turn depends on the
relative positions of three satellites. The fourth satellite is used to eliminate timing errors.

PSEUDO RANGING

Each satellite transmits its unique pulse train towards a receiver, the pulse train contains the ident
code, the satellite position and the exact time it was transmitted. The signal will take about one-
eleventh of a second to reach the receiver. The receiver generates an identical C/A code pulse
train but it is not synchronized with the transmission. The receiver automatically slews the pulse
train it is generating in order to match the two signals. When they are matched the receiver "locks
on" and the receiver can measure the signal travel time plus or minus the timing error of the quartz
crystal oscillator in the receiver. This error is the "clock bias error'' and is the same for each
satellite. The signal travel time multiplied by 162 000 nm per second gives a pseudo range which
has to be corrected for the receiver clock bias error.

By measuring the time delays from four or more satellites the computer can set up four equations
and mathematically eliminate the clock bias error and calculate the position of the receiver.

S Lat = Satellite Latitude S Long = Satellite Longitude S Alt = Satellite Altitude

R Lat = Receiver Latitude R Long = Receiver Longitude R Alt = Receiver Altitude
TT = Signal Travel Time CB = Clock Bias Error

The receiver Latitude, Longitude, Altitude and Clock Bias Error are unknown but can be calculated
by the following equations.

By geometry:

(S1 Lat - R Lat)2 + (S1 Long - R Long) 2 + (S1 Alt – R Alt) 2 = (TTCB) 2
(S2 Lat - R Lat) 2 + (S2 Long - R Long) 2 + (S2 Alt - R Alt) 2 = (TT CB) 2
(S3 Lat - R Lat) 2 + (S3 Long - R Long) 2 + (S3 Alt - R Alt) 2 = (TT CB) 2
(S4 Lat - R Lat) 2 + (S4 Long - R Long) 2 + (S4 Alt - R Alt) 2 = (TT CB) 2

The corrected signal travel time multiplied by the speed of light equals the slant range from the
satellite to the receiver (similar to DME).

The velocity of the aircraft is calculated by the instantaneous Doppler frequency shift at the
receiver.

Note: The Cartesian Go-ordinate System is used by GPS (X, Y and Z axes) but the units used in
the above equations are immaterial.

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TIMING ERRORS

Relativistic Time Delay

Relativistic time delay is in accordance with Einstein's theories of relativity.. The clock on board the
satellite ( 10 898 nm altitude, velocity 12 000 feet/sec) ticks at a different rate to the clock on
board an aircraft ( 6 nm altitude, velocity 1000 feet/sec) because the clocks are in different
gravitational fields. The magnitude of the error is predictable and the satellite clock can be offset to
correct for this error.

Ionospheric Delay

Radio signals from the satellites passing through the ionosphere are bent and are slowed down.
The resulting time delay is inversely proportional to the square of the transmission frequency and
two frequencies (L1 and L2) can be used to compensate. Each frequency has a slightly different
time delay. The P code receivers can be programmed for the majority of this error. The C/A
receivers use the L1 signal only and can be programmed to reduce the error by about 50 %.

Tropospheric Delay

The tropospheric delay occurs when the radio signals are slowed down when passing through the
troposphere. The error is a function of aircraft altitude and satellite elevation above the horizon, the
error is maximum when the aircraft altitude is low and the satellite is on the horizon. The correction
factor is mathematical.

DIFFERENTIAL GPS

The position accuracy of C/A is deliberately degraded to  100 metres by the US military. To
improve accuracy the position of a monitor station is accurately surveyed, usually by using GPS.
This may appear strange but several hundreds of thousand GPS positions can be taken in a few
days and the receiver position is averaged and refined to a few centimetres. Originally a
geographical correction was transmitted to aircraft by data link (correction 015 (T) 55 metres). This
was not satisfactory as the aircraft may have used different satellites than the monitor and the
correction factor was not valid, and the method was abandoned . Many GPS receivers now use
every satellite above the horizon instead of just four. The monitor station also uses every satellite in
view instead of the original four. Corrections are calculated by first calculating the pseudo range
assuming the receiver and satellite positions are correct. The difference between the calculated and
measured pseudo ranges is the correction transmitted to aircraft by data link.

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POSITION DILUTION OF PRECISION (PDOP)

The ideal GPS fix will be obtained when the ranges are from three satellites which are 120ْ apart in
azimuth and the fourth satellite is overhead.

Assuming that the ranges from three satellites are under reading by 50 metres, then the centre of
the cocked hat will be the correct position due to excellent geometry. If the three satellites are only
50 apart in azimuth then the centre of the cocked hat may be in error. The problem is overcome
by using as many satellites as possible but bear in mind possible errors when geometry is poor.
The errors could increase from 30 metres with ideal geometry to 300 metres with poor geometry.

RECEIVER AUTONOMOUS INTEGRITY MONITORING (RAIM)

There is always a possibility that a satellite maybe transmitting faulty information, either in its
position or time. This will be detected by the five stations of the control segment or by the monitor
station of DGPS and action will be taken. Nevertheless this will take time and the pilot of an aircraft
needs to be warned of a satellite malfunction when it occurs, thus RAIM.

Integrity monitoring relies on the fact that only four satellites are required to obtain a fix. The fix is
three dimensional, three ranges gives a triangle and the fourth produces a tetrahedron or pyramid.
Usually more than four satellites are in view and the extra satellites can be used to form different
combinations of four satellites that can be compared for consistency. With five satellites, there are
five possible combinations of four satellite fixes and provided all of the combinations have the same
or similar PDOP one will produce a smaller tetrahedral volume than the others. This is the one fix
that does not include the faulty satellite, all the others do and the faulty satellite can be identified
and isolated.

Unfortunately five fixes with similar PDOP rarely occur which makes comparisons difficult if not
impossible. Six satellites improves the situation significantly and seven satellites even better. Eight
satellites which is the average maximum in view at any time with a 24 satellite system gives a 65%
certainty of a satellite malfunction being detected which is way below the 99.9% required for
precision approaches. To ensure that RAIM will be 100% foolproof at any position and at anytime
between 36 and 42 satellites are required. Combined GPS/GLONASS receivers are being
developed which will increase the number of satellites available from 24 to 48.

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QUESTIONS

1. The navigation processor of a GPS determines the aeroplanes track and groundspeed by :-

(a) Doppler frequency shift measurements,

(b) Computing the distance between fixes over a 10 second period,
(c) Computing the distance travelled from the last waypoint.

2. A GPS receiver identifies individual satellites by their :

(a) Group repetition interval,

(b) Unique Coarse Acquisition (C/A) code,
(c) Unique frequency.

3. GPS receivers require corrections for three major types of timing errors between
transmission and reception of the signal. They are :-

(a) Relativistic time delay, ionospheric and tropospheric distortions,

(b) Relativistic time delay, earth's magnetic field and ionospheric distortions,
(c) Earth's magnetic field, ionospheric and tropospheric distortions.

4. A major error of GPS is the relativistic time delay, which is caused by :-

(a) The difficulty in synchronizing the receiver quartz clock with the satellite atomic
clock,
(b) The elliptical orbit of the satellite passing through different gravitational fields
affecting the time kept by the atomic clock,
(c) Errors of the receiver clock or oscillator.

5. The timing error due to tropospheric distortion of GPS signals is maximum when the
receiver is

(a) A high altitude and the elevation angle of the satellite is high,
(b) At low altitude and the elevation angle of the satellite is high,
(c) At low altitude and the elevation angle of the satellite is low.

6. The GPS Control Segment :-

(a) Selects the four best satellites to use for navigation with respect to their geometry
and altitude,
(b) Calculates and controls the clock bias error of the aeroplanes receiver,
(c) Accurately tracks the GPS satellites and provides them with periodic updates
correcting their ephemeris co-ordinates and their clock bias factors.

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CHAPTER 13

GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM GPWS

The GPWS is a digital computer or central processing unit (CPU) which accepts inputs from:-

 Radio altimeter with a failure signal

 Vertical speed sensor or a barometric altitude rate computer with failure signal
 ILS glide path receiver
 Switch activated when the landing gear is down
 Switch activated when the flaps are in the landing position

The GPWS monitors six basic modes of aircraft operation and issues warnings if a hazardous
situation is arising.

Mode 3 is automatically selected for take-off or overshoot below 500 ft.

Mode 4 is automatically selected for landing

Crew action in response to GPWS alerts or warnings are given in the Operations Manual.

Sample of profile from B737-300 manual

ALERT

A caution generated by the GPWS equipment.

The crew must respond immediately by correcting the flight path or aircraft
configuration (gear or flaps) so that the alert ceases.

See table on next page

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MODE FLIGHT HAZARD WARNING ENVELOPE ALERT WARNING

1 Excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain 50ft-2450ft SINK RATE WHOOP WHOOP-PULL UP
+ flashing lamp

2a Excessive rate of terrain closure 50ft-1800ft TERRAIN TERRAIN As Mode 1

(Aircraft not in landing configuration)

2b Excessive rate of terrain closure 220ft-790ft TERRAIN TERRAIN As Mode 1

(Aircraft not in landing configuration

3 Negative rate of climb after take-off or go-around 50ft-700ft DON’T SINK -

4a Unsafe terrain clearance 50ft-500ft TOO LOW - GEAR As Mode 1

(Aircraft not in landing configuration – Gear up)

4b Unsafe terrain clearance 50ft-500ft TOO LOW - FLAPS ‘TOO LOW – TERRAIN’
(Aircraft not in landing configuration – Flap up)

5 Excessive downward departure from ILS 100ft-500ft GLIDESLOPE -

glideslope

6 Descent below minimums - MINIMUMS -

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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QUESTIONS

1. Mode 4 of the Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) will give a warning if the landing
gear is not down and locked if the aeroplane is below :-

(a). 500 ft above ground level.

(b) 1000 ft above ground level.
(c) 1500 ft above ground level.

2. The Ground Proximity Warning System accepts inputs from :-

(a) Landing gear position. Altimeter, ILS glide path and Vertical speed sensor, landing
gear position and radio altimeter.
(b) ILS glide path, vertical speed sensor, landing gear position and radio altimeter.
(c) VSI, ILS glide path, altimeter and landing gear position.

3. With GPWS the “TERRAIN TERRAIN” alert can occur :-

(a) Only when descending

(b) Between 50 ft and 1800 ft,
(c) Only when the landing gear is up.

4. The GPWS operates in a height range above ground level of :

(a) 50 ft to 1500 ft
(b) 50 ft to 1800 ft
(c) 50 ft to 2450 ft

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
109 MAVERICK AVIATION

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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ANNEX A

SAMPLE EXAMS

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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Paper 1

1. When using HF for communications over a specified distance, transmissions at night should
be made on frequencies almost half of the optimum day frequency because:

a) The ionosphere is lower at night requiring a higher critical angle which occurs at a
lower frequency;
b) At night the reflection height increases and layer density decreases, using lower
frequencies reduces the skip distance;
c) A lower frequency reduces the attenuation allowing the ground wave to have a
greater range, so reducing the dead space.

2. The magnetic component of a radio wave emitted from a vertical aerial, travels in the:

a) Vertical plane;
b) The horizontal plane;
c) Vertical plane with the electrical component but ninety degrees out of phase.

3. Super High Frequency (SHF) is used for:

a) RADAR;
b) Communication;
c) ILS

4. If the wavelength is 3 cm, the frequency is:

a) 74 MHz;
b) 100 GHz;
c) 10000MHz.

5. The E layer in the ionosphere is also known as the:

a) Appleton layer;
b) Kennelly-Heavyside layer;
c) Barrett layer.

6. The following emergency frequencies are available for the use of aircraft in distress:

a) 8 364 KHz 500 MHz 121,5 MHz and 243 MHz;

b) 8 364 KHz 500 KHz 121,5 MHz and 243 MHz;
c) 2 182 MHz 500 MHz 121,5 MHz and 243 MHz.

7. The following relative bearings are obtained from an NDB. Rel. Bearings No. 1 : 075°.
Rel. Bearing No. 2 : 090°. The time between bearings is 7.75 minutes, and the G/S is 130
KTS. The time and distance to the beacon is.

a) 31 MIN 67 NM;
b) 25 MIN 54 NM;
c) 20 MIN 43 NM.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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8. An ICAO NDB frequency band is:

a) 200 KHz - 455 KHz;

b) 200 KHz - 800 MHz;
c) 200 KHz - 1750 KHz.

9. The frequency band which is affected most by static, is:

a) VHF;
b) VLF;
c) UHF.

10. The wavelength of a radio wave transmission is:

a) The number of cycles in one second;

b) The distance travelled during the transmission of one cycle;
c) The complete change of direction current.

11. The Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) indicates:

a) Compass heading;
b) Magnetic heading;
c) True heading.

12. Fading of low frequency and medium frequency at night may be due to:

a) Poor receiver sensitivity and ionospheric attenuation;

b) Simultaneous reception of sky and surface waves;
c) Reception of space waves and atmospheric attenuation.

13. When flying towards an NDB with a 000° relative bearing in a left crosswind, the result is
that :

a) The ground track curves to the downwind side of the NDB;

b) The ground track curves to the upwind side of the NDB;
c) The aircraft makes a slow but continuous turn to the right.

14. The frequency of 10.2 KHz has a wavelength of:

a) 15.88 nm;
b) 16.12 nm;
c) 17.05 nm.

15. The frequency band of VOR equipment is from:

a) 112 to 117.95 MHz;

b) 108 to 117.95 MHz;
c) 109 to 121 MHz.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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16. The locator NDB type of emission recommended by ICAO is A2A because:

a) The signal is more stable than A1A;

b) The signal is less affected by night effect;
c) The ADF needle does not wander during transmission of the indent.

17. When the aircraft heading agrees approximately with the Omni-bearing selector setting on a
VOR indicator:

a) Fly toward the deviation needle provided FROM is indicated;

b) Fly toward the deviation needle regardless of the TO-FROM indication;
c) Fly away from the needle provided FROM is indicated.

18. The VOR selector in an aircraft, heading 150 (M), is tuned to a facility. With 170 on the
OBS and TO indicated, the left/right needle is displaced very close to the maximum
deflection right, indicating that the aircraft’s magnetic orientation is approximately:

a) South of the station;

b) On radial 340 from the facility;
c) North of the VOR.

19. The reference signal of a VOR has a sub-carrier wave. The purpose of the sub-carrier wave
modulations is to:

a) Provide for a facility identification;

b) Provide datum to determine phase difference;
c) Modulate the directional signal.

20. An aircraft is maintaining the 140 radial inbound to a VOR station with a drift of 8 degrees
port. Variation at the aircraft’s position is 20W and at the VOR position 18W. The
aircraft’s magnetic heading is:

a) 330 (M)
b) 328 (M)
c) 314 (M)

21. The characteristics of the reference signal of a VOR transmitter are:

a) Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and a rotating figure of eight radiation;

b) Frequency modulation at 30 Hz and an omni-directional radiation;
c) Frequency modulated at 150 Hz and a conical radiation.

22. Two VOR’s, both at 200 feet and 161 NM apart, are positioned on the centre line of an
airway. The minimum altitude at maximum range that guarantees positive reception from
both VOR’s simultaneously is:

a) 5 052 feet
b) 2 526 feet
c) 3 157 feet

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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23. An aircraft is on a heading of 280 (M) and on a bearing of 090 (M) from the VOR. The
bearing that should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the
VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO on the TO/FROM indicator, is:

a) 280
b) 270
c) 090

24. Aircraft heading 315 (M), ADF RMI reading 090°. The quadrantal error of this
bearing is:

a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Proportional to sine heading times the signal strength

25 An aircraft is maintaining track outbound form an NDB with a constant relative bearing
of 184°.

To return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is:

a) 356°
b) 000°
c) 004°

26. At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NDB PE enroute to NDB CN.

Track 075° (M), heading 082° (M)

At 1029 Z NDB PE bears 176° Relative and NDB CN bears 352° Relative.

The heading to steer at 1029 Z to reach NDB CN is:

a) 078° (M)
b) 079° (M)
c) 081° (M)

27. The VOR monitor will warn the control point and possibly switch off the station radiation with
an occurrence of:

a) A change in bearing information in excess of 10 degrees

b) A reduction of 15 percent in bearing information
c) A change in bearing information in excess of 1 degree

28. ILS transmission identification takes place on:

a) Glide path
b) Localiser
c) Both the glide path and localiser

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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29. The approximate height of an aeroplane maintaining a 3 degree glideslope when over the
outer marker sited 4,3 NM from the landing threshold, calculated by using the 1:60 rule is:

a) 1 370 feet
b) 1 307.2 feet
c) 3 186.4 feet

30. An ILS category 1 localiser coverage extends from the transmitter at 10 either side of the
centre line to a distance of:

a) 25 NM
b) 35 NM
c) 45 NM

31. With reference to Airborne Weather Radar, the object of the iso-echo contour system is to:

a) Progressively reduce the radar gain as the aircraft approaches a cloud

b) Indicate the areas in which cloud penetration is advisable
c) Indicate the areas in a cloud where severe turbulence is present.

32. For good target resolution the Weather radar beam width must be kept as:

a) Constant as possible
b) Wide as possible
c) Narrow as possible.

33. An aircraft receives a reply from a DME (fixed delay 50 µs) 995 µs after transmission of the
interrogation pulse. The slant range of the aircraft is:

a) 76.54 nm
b) 82.59 nm
c) 88.34 nm

34. If single coded identification is received only once every thirty seconds form a VOR/DME
station, it means:

a) VOR / DME components are both operative but voice identification is inoperative
b) The DME component is operative
c) The VOR component is operative.

35. VOR ‘B’ is situated at a distance of 120 NM from VOR ‘A’ on radial 233. An aircraft at G/S
300 knots, is approaching VOR ‘A’ on a track of 323 (M) in zero wind, and the VOR at B
indicates 278 on the aircraft’s RMI. Assuming variation is constant, the time to reach B will
be:

a) 24 minutes
b) 34 minutes
c) 40 minutes.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
116 MAVERICK AVIATION

36. An aircraft heading of 040° (M) has an ADF reading of 060° Relative.
The alteration of heading to intercept the 120° track inbound to the NDB at 50° in zero wind
conditions is:

a) 30 Right
b) 40 Right
c) 50 Right

37. An aircraft heading 135° (M) with 5° Right drift intercepts the 082° (M) track outbound from
an NDB. The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is:

a) 122° Relative
b) 127° Relative
c) 132° Relative

38. In Airborne Search Radar (ASR), resolution and distortion of clouds and ground features is
related to beam width and pulse length for the following reasons.

a) As the beams widen with range a single object appears to be double its size at twice
the range
b) An object reflects an echo for the time duration of the pulse and is presented on a
screen measuring range, the time base of which is halved and so is the size of the
image
c) On the time base, the pulse extends the PPI image by a distance equivalent to one
half of the pulse length.

39. Two advantages of single side band transmissions are:

a) Broader bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in two frequencies instead

of three
b) Narrow bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in one or two frequencies
instead of three
c) Narrow bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in three frequencies instead
of two

40. If a VOR transmitter’s elevation is 100 FT and an aircraft’s altitude is 12 500 FT, the
maximum range that the aircraft can receive the VOR signals is:

a) 122 NM
b) 140 NM
c) 152 NM

41. At a given position the variable phase of a VOR transmission lags the reference phase by
60 degrees, making the bearing to the facility.

a) 060 degrees
b) 240 degrees
c) 300 degrees

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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42. A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
appropriate indicators. The VOR indent is GDV and the DME MFT.
This indicates that VOR and DME transmitters are:

a) Co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position
b) Serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two positions
c) At two independent positions and are not related.

43. When using Airborne Search Radar (ASR) , the distortion of shapes and sizes portrayed on
the radar screen is due to:

a) The use of the cosecant beam for mapping

b) The radial beam being portrayed on a linear screen
c) The beam adding one half of the beam width distance on either side of the portrayed
object.

44. An airborne SSR transponder recognises an invalid interrogation by a side lobe of the main
beam transmission by comparing the:

a) Time intervals between the P1, P2 and P3 pulses

b) Time intervals between the P1 and P3 pulses
a) Relative amplitude of the P1, P2 and P3 pulses

45. An airborne SSR transponder recognises an altitude reporting request by the ground
transmitter by comparing the:

c) Time intervals between the P1, P2 and P3 pulses

d) Time intervals between the P1 and P3 pulses
e) Relative amplitude of the P1, P2 and P3 pulses.

46. An aircraft heading 045° (M), is on a true bearing of 135° from a VOR. Variation 8°E. If
the OBS is set at 315 the indication on a 5 dot CDI would be:

a) TO 4 dots left of centre

b) TO needle central
c) TO 4 dots right of centre.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
118 MAVERICK AVIATION

Paper 2

1. Basic radar operates on:

a) HF and lower frequencies only

b) VHF and higher frequencies
c) Any frequency in the RF band.

2. If a radio wave is horizontally polarized the:

a) Electrical component is in the vertical plane and the magnetic component is

horizontal
b) Electrical component is in the horizontal plane and the magnetic component is
vertical
c) Magnetic component is horizontal with the electrical component 180° out of phase.

3. The principle factors affecting the accuracy of VOR radials as indicated by the aircraft’s
equipment are:

a) Aircraft equipment error, site error, refraction error and propagation error
b) Propagation error, site error, aircraft equipment error and night effect
c) Site error, interference error, propagation error and aircraft equipment error.

4. Airborne Search Radar (ASR) is a:

a) Primary radar
b) Secondary radar
c) SSR.

5. The accuracy of VOR radials is better than:

a)  1°
b)  4°
c)  6°.

6. The principle of VOR is bearing measurement by:

a) Wave transmissions
b) Phase comparison
c) Limacon postions.

7. The type of emission used for ILS localiser and glidepath transmission is:

a) A1A
b) A8W
c) A3E

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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8. An aircraft heading 065° (M) has the VOR CDI OBS set at 095. The left/right needle of a 5
dot CDI is 3 dots left of centre with TO indicated. The aircraft is on a radial:

a) 101°
b) 269°
c) 281°.

9. The frequency band normally associated with an ILS localiser is:

a) 108,0 - 119,0 MHz

b) 118,0 - 135,975 MHz
c) 108,1 - 111,95 MHz.

10. The reference signal of a VOR has a sub-carrier wave. The purpose of the sub-carrier
wave modulation is to:

a) Provide for facility identification

b) Provide a datum to determine phase difference
c) Modulate the directional signal.

11. When the main VOR transmitter is switched off and a standby transmitter comes into
operation, bearing information may be unreliable and as a warning:

a) No identification signal is transmitted

b) Identification signals are transmitted together with voice transmission warnings
c) A continuous bleep is transmitted.

12. An aircraft’s heading is 070° (M) Variation 10° E. An NDB bears 200 relative. The RMI will
indicate:

a) 260
b) 280
c) 270.

13. The ILS localiser is calibrated for accuracy up to and inclusive of a distance of:

a) 25 NM
b) 18 NM
c) 35 NM.

14. The normal glidepath angle of an ILS is:

a) 5°
b) 3°
c) 4°.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
120 MAVERICK AVIATION

15. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8° left drift and is making good a track parallel to
the centre line of an airway, but 5 NM off to the left of the centre line. The ADF reading
while 30 NM short of an NDB on the airway is:

a) 002
b) 010
c) 358.

16. Radio Magnetic Indicators (RMI) combine and indicate information from separate sources
on one dial, namely:

a) Only bearings from VOR and NDB facilities

b) The aircraft heading from a remote-reading compass, bearing from VOR facilities
and bearings from NDB facilities
c) The true heading from a remote-reading compass, a bearing from a VOR facility and
a bearing from an NDB facility.

17. While on a heading of 210° (M) and tuned to a VOR, with 235 on the OBS, the TO/FROM
indicator reads TO and the left/right needle is displaced close to the maximum left deflection
position. The approximate position of the aircraft in relation to the VOR is on radial.

a) 045
b) 235
c) 055.

18. A VOR and a NDB are co-located on an aerodrome where the variation is 17°W.
An aircraft is flying where the variation is 19°W on a true bearing of 315° from the
aerodrome. The VOR and ADF readings on a twin pointer RMI would be.

a) VOR 152° ADF 154°

b) VOR 152° ADF 152°
c) VOR 154° ADF 152°.

19 The distance from a Vortac according to an Omega reading is 16 NM. The aircraft is at a
height of 18 228 feet. The DME indication is:

a) 15,72 NM
b) 16,36 NM
c) 16,28 NM.

20. Outbound from Upington on track for VWV with 7 degrees right drift. In order to maintain the
required QDR the ADF, which is tuned to UP, will indicate:

a) 187
b) 180
c) 173.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
121 MAVERICK AVIATION

21 The glide path angle for an ILS is 2,7 degrees. The aeroplane’s ground speed is 115 Kts,
IAS 110 Kts and TAS is 120 Kts. Using the 1:60 rule the rate of descent for the ILS is:

a) 515 FT/MIN
b) 495 FT/MIN
c) 540 FT/MIN.

22. A DME transponder with a fixed delay of 50 microseconds, receives an interrogating signal
from an aircraft 285 microseconds after transmission, making the slant range to the aircraft
read:
T
a) 23 NM
b) 46 NM
c) 42 NM.

23. ILS middle marker indications are:

a) Amber light coding alternate dots and dashes

b) White light coding six dots per second
c) Blue light coding two dashes per second.

24. The maximum safe deviation from the ILS glide path during the approach using a 5 dot CDI
is:

a) 2 dots fly up
b) 2 ½ dots fly up
c) 3 dots fly up.

25. The DME automatic standby will activate the DME interrogator when:

a) Random filler pulses from the transponder are received

b) A VOR frequency that has a frequency paired DME is selected
c) The DME indent signal is received.

26. A bearing accuracy of 3,5 degrees is guaranteed from each of two VOR’s sited on the
centre line of an airway 10 NM wide. In order to ensure that aircraft correctly using these
facilities remain within the airway at midpoint, the facilities may not be further apart than:

a) 84 NM
b) 168 NM
c) 210 NM.

27. Between Upington and Victoria West the aircraft is on a radial 252 KMV where variation is
20W. At the aircraft variation is 21W. From the aircraft’s position the heading to steer
towards KMV (zero wind) is:

a) 072 (T)
b) 052 (T)
c) 051 (T).

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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28. A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is confirmed by:

a) Transmitting a series of dots after each identification signal

b) The removal of the navigational feature
c) The removal of the identification signal.

29. On a VOR the full deflection of the deviation needle left or right represents a departure from
the selected radial of:

a) 5 degrees
b) 10 degrees
c) 2,5 degrees.

30. In order for a GPS receiver to conduct RAIM it must use a minimum of:

a) Three satellites plus a barometric input

b) Four satellites
c) Five satellites.

31. A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
appropriate indicators. The VOR indent is CPL and the DME is CPZ. This indicates that
VOR and DME transmitters are:

a) Co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position
b) Serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two positions
c) At two independent positions and are not related.

32. If a signal of two hertz was transmitted for one second, the physical space occupied by the
signal would be:

a) 300 000 000 Metres

b) 150 000 000 Metres
c) 600 000 000 Metres.

33. When using a VOR facility with 050 set on the OBS, the CDI needle is central, but the
TO/FROM indication is inoperative. If the OBS is now set to 060 and the needle is
deflected to the right, the aircraft is on the:

a) 050 radial
b) 230 radial
c) Either the 050 or 230 radial.

34. Two radio aids to navigation that may share a common receiving aerial, are:

a) VOR and ADF

b) ADF and Loran C
c) ILS and ADF.

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35. Full scale deviation of a RNAV CDI in the approach mode is:

a) 1.5 NM
b) 2.0 NM
c) 5.0 NM.

36. When using RNAV in the approach mode, the distance between the parent VOR/DME and
the final approach waypoint should not be greater than:

a) 10 NM
b) 25 NM
c) 50 NM.

37. The maximum range of a search radar is dependant on the:

a) Radio frequency
b) Pulse recurrence frequency
c) Pulse width.

38. The minimum range of search radar is dependant on the:

a) Radio frequency
b) Pulse recurrence frequency
c) Pulse width.

39. The use of weather radar (ASR) when the aeroplane is on the ground is:

a) Prohibited
b) Permitted but used with extreme caution
c) Permitted in maintenance area only.

40. The brilliance of a Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) display is controlled by the:

a) 1st and 3rd anodes

b) 2nd anode
c) Grid.

41. On a Cathode Ray Tube using a horizontal time base, unwanted echoes or “grass” can be
reduced or removed from the screen by:

a) Graphite coating
b) X plates
c) Gain control.

42. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation on the same
frequency because the:

a) Spacing between the interrogation pulses is different

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart
c) Random PRF which is unique to each aircraft.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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43. The frequency band in which Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) operates, is:

a) VHF
b) UHF
c) SHF.

44. A carrier wave with amplitude of 5 V is modulated by an audio frequency with amplitude of 3
V. The depth of modulation is:

a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 167%

45. To double the range of an NDB the transmission power must be increased by a factor of:

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8.

46. Selecting a lower HF/RT frequency results in:

a) An increase of the critical angle

b) An increase of the dead space
c) A decrease of the skip distance.

47. Static interference increases with an:

a) Increase in frequency
b) Decrease in frequency
c) Decrease in wave length.

48. The bending of a radio wave by the Earth’s surface is greatest on:

a) VLF
b) LF
c) MF.

49. With frequency modulated transmissions the:

a) Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies

b) Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies
c) Amplitude and frequency vary.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

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50. With amplitude modulated transmissions the:

a) Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies

b) Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies
c) Amplitude and frequency vary.

51. An aircraft’s DME receiver will not accept replies to its own interrogations that are reflected
from the ground or clouds, because of the:

a) Random PRF which is unique to each aircraft

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies being 63 MHz apart
c) Interrogation pulses being transmitted in pairs.

52. An aircraft climbing through 6500 feet.

Attitude director 4° pitch up, weather radar stabilizer off

Cloud range 27 nautical miles, tilt control 3° up
Beam width 5°

The height of the top of the cloud is:

a) 15 000 ft
b) 17 000 ft
c) 19 000 ft.

53. Side lobe suppression in SSR is accomplished by:

a) De-fruiting which removes unwanted replies from aircraft by the use of killer circuits
b) Aircraft close to the transmitter selecting LO sense on the receiver
c) Transmission of a third omni-directional pulse weaker than the main pulses but
stronger than the side lobe pulses.

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
126 MAVERICK AVIATION

PAPER 3

1. The airborne equipment of an ILS consists of:

a) HF localizer receiver, VHF glide path receiver, 75 MHz marker beacon receiver;
b) UHF localizer receiver, VHF glide path receiver, VOR/ILS indicator;
c) VHF localizer receiver, UHF glide path receiver, ILS indicator.
(1)

2. The factors affecting the accuracy of a VOR reading are:

a) Airborne equipment;
Site error;
Propagation error;
Refraction error.
b) Airborne equipment;
Site error;
Conduction error;
Propagation error.
c) Airborne equipment;
Site error;
Propagation error;
Interference error.
(2)

3. Airborne Search Radar (ASR) is a:

a) Primary radar;
b) Secondary radar;
c) SSR.
(1)

4. The theoretical maximum range of a VOR in NM is:

a) 1.25 times the square root of the transmitter height plus

1.25 times the square root of the receiver height
b) 1.5 times the square root of the transmitter height plus
1.5 times the square root of the receiver height;
c) 1.15 times the square root of the receiver height plus
1.15 times the square root of the transmitter height.
(1)
5. In respect of the use of GPS P DOP is a loss of:

a. Ionosphere effects
b. Relative position of the visible satellites
c. Multi-path signals from some satellites
d. Use of satellites at low altitudes (1)

Capt Shriyansh Talekar 8424913414

Capt Jayesh Kirtikar 9029882848
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6. The principle of VOR is bearing measurement by:

a) Wave transmissions;
b) Phase comparison;
c) Limacon positions.
(1)

7. A VOR cardioid is also called a:

a) Limacon;
b) Rotating signal;
c) Result of the loop aerial
(1)

8. The frequency band normally associated with an ILS localiser is:

a) 108. 0 – 119.0 MHz;

b) 118.0 – 135.975 MHz;
c) 108.1 – 111.95 MHz.
(1)

9. The reference signal of a VOR has a sub-carrier wave. The purpose of the sub-carrier
wave modulation is to:

a) Provide for facility identification;

b) Provide a datum to determine phase difference;
c) Modulate the directional signal.
(1)

10. When the main VOR transmitter is switched off and a standby transmitter comes into
operation, bearing information may be unreliable and as a warning:

a) No identification signal is transmitted;

b) Identification signals are transmitted together with voice transmission warnings;
c) A continuous bleep is transmitted.
(1)

11. An aircraft’s heading is 070º (M) Variation 10ºE . An NDB bears 200 relative. The RMI will
indicate:

a) 260
b) 280
c) 270
(1)

12. The ILS localiser is calibrated for accuracy up to and inclusive of a distance of.

a) 25 NM
b) 18 NM
c) 35 NM
(1)

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13. The normal glidepath angle of an ILS is:

a) 5º
b) 3º
c) 4º
(1)

14. An aircraft flying a constant heading with 8º left drift and is making good a track parallel to
the centre line of an airway, but 15 NM off to the left of the centre line. The ADF reading
while 90 NM short of a NDB on the airway, is:

a) 002;
b) 010;
c) 358.
(1)

15. Radio Magnetic Indicators (RMI) combine and indicate information from separate sources
on one dial, namely:

a) Only bearings from VOR and NDB facilities;

b) The aircraft heading from a remote-reading compass, bearings from VOR facilities
and bearings from NDB facilities;
c) The true heading from a remote-reading compass, bearings from a VOR facility and
a bearing from an NDB facility.
(1)

16. While on a heading of 210º (M) and tuned to a VOR, with 235 on the OBS, the TO/FROM
indicator reads TO and the left/right needle is displaced close to the maximum left deflection
position. The approximate position of the aircraft in relation to the VOR is on radial.

a) 045;
b) 235;
c) 055.
(2)

17. The term “Mode” when used in conjunction with ATC Surveillance Radar refers to:

a) An omni-directional framed pulse interrogation at 1 030 MHZ, having the ability to

trigger a reply from all aircraft within range;
b) Interrogation by a train of 12 pulses, spaced from 8-21 micro-seconds apart at 1030
MHz in order to trigger a reply at 1090 MHz from aircraft with the code selected;
c) A directional pulsed interrogation at 1030 MHz having a distinct characteristic of
framed pulses, the purpose of which is to generate a reply from an airborne unit.
(1)

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18. Outbound from Upington on track for VWV with 7 degree right drift. In order to maintain the
required QDR the ADF , which is turned to UP, will indicate:

a) 187;
b) 180;
c) 173.
(1)

19. The glidepath angle for an ILS is 2,7 degrees. The aeroplane’s groundspeed is 115 KTS,
IAS 110 KTS and the TAS is 120 KTS. Using the 1:60 rule the rate of descent of the ILS is:

a) 515 FT/MIN;
b) 495 FT/MIN;
c) 540 FT/MIN.
(2)

20. A DME transponder with a fixed delay of 50 micro-seconds, receives an interrogating signal
from an aircraft 285 micro-seconds after transmission, making the slant range to the aircraft
read:

a) 23 NM;
b) 46 NM;
c) 42 NM.
(2)

21. A bearing accuracy of  3,5 degrees is guaranteed from each of two VOR’s sited on the
centre line of an airway 10 NM wide. In order to ensure that aircraft correctly using these
facilities remain within the airway at midpoint, the facilities may not be further apart than:

a) 84 NM;
b) 168 NM;
c) 210 NM.
(2)

22. Between Upington and Victoria West the aircraft is on radial 252 KMV where variation is 20
W. At the aircraft variation is 21W. From the aircraft’s position the heading to steer
towards KMV (zero wind) is:

a) 072 (T);
b) 052 (T);
c) 051 (T)
(2)

23. A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is confirmed by.

a) Transmitting a series of dots after each identification signal;

b) The removal of the navigational feature;
c) The removal of the identification signal.
(1)

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24. On a VOR the full deflection of the deviation needle left or right represents a departure from
the selected radial of:

a) 5 degrees;
b) 10 degrees;
c) 2,5 degrees.
(1)

25. If a signal of two hertz was transmitted for one second, the physical space occupied by the
signal would be:

a) 300 000 000 M;

b) 150 000 000 M;
c) 600 000 000 M.
(2)

26. When using a VOR facility with 050 set on the OBS, the CDI needle is central, but the
TO/FROM indication is inoperative. If the OBS is now set to 060 and the needle is
deflected to the right, the aircraft is on the:

a) 050 radial either flying away or towards the VOR;

b) 230 radial flying towards to VOR;
c) 050 or 230 radial depending on which side of the VOR the aircraft is.
(2)

27. Full scale deviation of RNAV CDI in the approach mode is:

a) 1.25 NM;
b) 2.00 NM;
c) 5.00 NM.
(1)

28. When using RNAV in the approach mode, the distance between the parent VOR/DME and
the final approach waypoint should not be greater than:

a) 10 NM;
b) 25 NM;
c) 50 NM.
(2)
29. The maximum range of search radar is dependant on the:

a) Radio frequency;
b) Pulse recurrence frequency;
c) Pulse width.
(1)

30. The minimum range of search radar is dependant on the:

a) Radio frequency;
b) Pulse recurrence frequency;
c) Pulse width.
(1)

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31. The use of weather radar (ASR) when the aeroplane is on the ground is:

a) Prohibited;
b) Permitted but used with extreme caution;
c) Permitted in maintenance area only.
(1)

32 The brilliance of a Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) display is controlled by the :

a) 1st and 3rd anodes;

b) 2nd anode;
c) Grid.
(2)

33. On a Cathode Ray Tube using a horizontal time base, unwanted echoes or “grass” can be
reduced or removed from the screen by the;

a) Graphite coating;
b) X plates;
c) Gain control.
(1)

34. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation on the same
frequency because the:

a) Spacing between the interrogation pulses is different;

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart;
c) Random PRF which is unique to each aircraft.
(1)

35. The frequency band in which Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) operates is:

a) VHF;
b) UHF;
c) SHF.
(1)

36. A carrier wave with amplitude of 5V is modulated by an audio frequency with amplitude of 3
V. The depth of modulation is:

a) 40 %;
b) 60 %;
c) 167 %.

37. To double the range of an NDB the transmission power must be increased by a factor of:

a) 2;
b) 4;
c) 8.
(1)

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38. Selecting a lower HF /RT frequency results in:

a) An increase of the critical angle;

b) An increase of the dead space;
c) A decrease of the skip distance.
(2)

39. Static interference increases with an:

a) Increase in frequency;
b) Decrease in frequency;
c) Decrease in wave length.
(1)

40 The bending of a radio wave by the Earth’s surface is greatest on:

a) VLF;
b) LF;
c) MF.
(1)

41. With frequency modulated transmissions the:

a) Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies;

b) Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies;
c) Amplitude and frequency vary.
(1)

42. With amplitude modulated transmission the:

a) Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies;

b) Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies;
c) Amplitude and frequency vary.
(1)

43. An aircraft’s DME receiver will not accept replies to its own interrogations that are reflected
from the ground or clouds, because of the:

a) Random PRF which is unique to each aircraft;

b) Interrogation and reply frequencies being 63 MHz apart;
c) Interrogation pulses being transmitted in pairs.
(2)

44. When using HF for communications over a specified distance, transmissions at night should
be done on frequencies almost half of the optimum day frequency because:

a) The ionosphere is lower at night requiring a higher critical angle which occurs at a
lower frequency;
b) At night the reflection height increases and layer density decreases, using lower
frequencies reduces the skip distance;
c) A lower frequency reduces the attenuation allowing the ground wave to have a
greater range, so reducing the dead space.

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45. The magnetic component of a radio wave emitted from a vertical aerial, travels in the:

a) Vertical plane;
b) The horizontal plane;
c) Vertical plane with the electrical component but ninety degrees out of phase.

46. Super High Frequency (SHF) is utilised for:

a) RADAR;
b) Communication;
c) ILS.

47. If the wavelength is 3 cm, the frequency is:

a) 74 MHz;
b) 100 GHZ;
c) 10 000 MHz.

48. The E layer in the ionosphere is also known as the:

a) Appleton layer;
b) Kennelly-Heavyside layer;
c) Barrett layer.

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ANNEX B

ANSWERS TO
QUESTIONS

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CHAPTER 1 (Basic Radio Theory)

1 C 9 A 17 A 25 A 33 C
2 B 10 C 18 B 26 B 34 C
3 C 11 A 19 C 27 C 35 A
4 B 12 C 20 A 28 A 36 B
5 A 13 C 21 B 29 C 37 C
6 B 14 C 22 A 30 A
7 B 15 B 23 C 31 A
8 B 16 A 24 A 32 A

CHAPTER 3 (NDB & ADF

1 C 11 A 21 C 31 B
2 C 12 A 22 A 32 C
3 A 13 B 23 B 33 B
4 B 14 B 24 C 34 B
5 B 15 B 25 B 35 A
6 C 16 C 26 A
7 C 17 C 27 C
8 A 18 A 28 C
9 C 19 A 29 B
10 C 20 A 30 A

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CHAPTER 4 (VOR)

1 C 11 B 21 B 31 A
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 C
3 B 13 A 23 D 33 A
4 B 14 B 24 B 34 B
5 C 15 C 25 C 35 C
6 A 16 C 26 B 36 A
7 B 17 B 27 C 37 C
8 C 18 A 28 C 38 B
9 C 19 B 29 B 39 A
10 A 20 A 30 B

DETAILED ANSWERS

12. VOR Radial QDR 065°

VOR Variation 3°W
QTE 062°
QUJ 242° True track to the VOR
Drift 4° Left
Heading 246° (T)
Aircraft Variation 5° W
Heading 251° (M)

13. QTE 090°

VOR Variation 10° W
QDR 100° Radial FROM the VOR
QDM 280° TO the VOR

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18.

VOR NDB
315° QTE 315°
VOR Variation 17° W 19° W Aircraft Variation
332° QDR 334°
152° QDM 154°

19.

VOR NDB
215° QTE 215°
VOR Variation 12°W 10°W Aircraft Variation
227° QDR 225°
047° QDM 045°
20 W Aircraft Deviation
047° RMI 047°

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20.

27.

Distance = 1.25 Height Transmitter + 1.25 Aircraft Altitude

80.5 = 1.25 200 + 1.25 Aircraft Altitude

80.5 = 17.68 + 1.25 Aircraft Altitude

80.5 –17.68 = 1.25 Aircraft Altitude

80.5 – 17.68 Aircraft Altitude

1.25 =

80.5 –17.68 2 = Aircraft Altitude = 2526 feet

1.25

28. QTE 045° Variation 13° E QDR 032° (Radial) & QDM 212°

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32. Radial 090° VOR Variation 20° W QTE 070°

QUJ 250° Aircraft Variation 22° W QDM 272°

33.

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34.

35.

Heading 244 (M) Variation 15 W Heading 229 (T) TAS 230 Kts

Radial 252 Variation 15 W Track 237 (T) GS 252 Kts

DME 63nm in 15 minutes = GS 252

W/V 110/40 by navigational computer

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37.

Range = 1.25 Ht Tx 800 ft + 1.25 Ht Rx 21 000 ft

= 35.36nm + 181.14 nm
= 216.5nm
= 249.3 Statute miles = 401 Kilometres

CHAPTER 5 (ILS)

1 B 11 A 21 C
2 A 12 B 22 A
3 C 13 C 23 C
4 C 14 B 24 A
5 A 15 B 25 C
6 B 16 A 26 B
7 A 17 C 27 C
8 B 18 A
9 C 19 C
10 B 20 B

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Tan 2.7 = ROD = 573 feet/minute

2 nm per minute x 6080 feet

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CHAPTER 6 ((Radar Theory)

1 B 3 C 5 B 7 C
2 A 4 B 6 C 8 C

CHAPTER 7 (DME)

1 B 8 C 15 A
2 A 9 B 16 A
3 B 10 A 17 B
4 C 11 B 18 C
5 B 12 B 19 B
6 B 13 A
7 B 14 C

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DETAILED ANSWERS

8.

D= SxT = 0.162 nm/s x (1200 - 50) = 93.15 nm2

2 2

9.

D= SxT = 0.162 nm/s x 285 = 46.17 nm

16.

D= SxT = 0.162 nm/s x (995 - 50) = 76.54 nm

2 2

17.

D= SxT = 0.162 nm/s x (1500 - 50) = 117.45 nm

2 2

19.

142 - 41000 2
= Ground Range2 = 12.27 nms
6080

CHAPTER 8 (SSR)

1 C 3 B 5 C 7 C
2 A 4 A 6 B 8 A

CHAPTER 9 (WX RDR)

1 B 7 B
2 B 8 A
3 C 9 B
4 A 10 B
5 C
6 C

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1º
10.
3.5º

FL 39000
Tan 3.5º x 51 x 6080 = -18965’
20035 tops

CHAPTER 10 (Radio Alt)

1 A 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 B

CHAPTER 11 (RNAV)

1 B 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 B

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CHAPTER 12 (GPS)

1 A 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 C

CHAPTER 13 (GPWS)

1 A 2 B 3 B 4 C

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Paper 1

1. B 26. A
2. B 27. C
3. A 28. B
4. C 29. B
5. B 30. A
6. B 31. C
7. A 32. C
8. C 33. A
9. B 34. B
10. B 35. B
11. A 36. A
12. B 37. B
13. A 38. C
14. A 39. B
15. B 40. A
16. C 41. B
17. B 42. C
18. C 43. C
19. B 44. C
20. A 45. B
21. B 46 A
22. B
23. B
24. A
25. A

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Paper 2

1. B 41. C
2. B 42. A
3. C 43. B
4. A 44. B
5. A 45. B
6. B 46. C
7. B 47. B
8. B 48. A
9. C 49. A
10. B 50. B
11. A 51. B
12. C 52. C
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. A
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. C

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Paper 3

1 C 26 A
2 C 27 A
3 A 28 B
4 A 29 B
5 B 30 C
6 B 31 B
7 A 32 C
8 C 33 C
9 B 34 A
10 A 35 B
11 C 36 B
12 B 37 B
13 B 38 C
14 A 39 B
15 B 40 A
16 A 41 A
17 C 42 B
18 A 43 B
19 A 44 B
20 B 45 B
21 B 46 A
22 B 47 C
23 C 48 B
24 B
25 B

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