1. A newly admitted patient is mute and immobile.

The patient hold her limbs

in whatever position it is placed. This nurse can document this symptom as
which of the following?
A) Waxy flexibility
B) Ambivalent
C) Negativism
D) Echopraxia
ANSWER: A

2. Children begin hoping on one foot at the age of

A) 12 months
B) 18 months
C) 24 months
D) 30 months
ANSWER: C

3. Precautions in the collection of specimen includes the following except

A) Wash hands before and after collection of specimen
B) Always wear gloves when handling and testing specimen
C) Do not decontaminate or re-use gloves
D) Signing of consent form
ANSWER: D

4. Persistent painful erection of the penis without sexual arousal is called

A) Hernia
B) Monordism
C) Circumcision rection
D) Priapism
ANSWER: D

5. The main treatment of incomplete abortion is

A) Ergometrine injection
B) Evacuation of the uterus
C) Bed rest and sedation
D) Syntocinon infusion
ANSWER: B

6. Ebola virus disease occurs as

A) Epidemic outbreak
B) Pandemic outbreak
C) Sporadic outbreak
D) Global outbreak
 ANSWER: A

7. . ……………. Is an element that that cannot be found in nature

A) Copper
B) Zinc
C) Chlorine
D) Flourine
ANSWER: A

8. Theories of moral development as propagated by John Devey includes the

following except
A) Pre-moral or pre-conventional given
B) Conventional level
C) Post conventional level
D) The automous level
ANSWER: D

9. Severe itching of the eye follicles and brownish colouration of the sclera are
common symptoms of
A) Allergic conjuctive
B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
C) Uveitis
D) Chalazion
ANSWER: A

10. Elimination of poliomyelitis in Nigeria could be attributed to the following

Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
A) Self actualization
B) Love and belonging
C) Safety need
D) Psychological need
ANSWER: C

11.The criteria for providing the causal relationship between a Micro-Organism

and a specific disease is known as
A) Laeuwenhoek postulate
B) Pasteur’s postulate
C) Koch’s postulate
D) Jenner’s postulate
ANSWER: C
12. The major cause of Sjogren’s syndrome is
A) Bacteria
B) Inflammation
C) Virus
D) Infection
ANSWER: C

13. To provide First Aid to a conscious spinal injury casualty, the first aider
should do the following EXCEPT
A) Reassure the casualty and advice her not to move
B) Kneel behind the casualty, steady and support the head in a lateral
position
C) Continue to support the casualty’s head until emergency medical
services take over
D) Get help to monitor and record the vital signs
ANSWER: B

14.The basic functional unit of a matured placenta is the

A) Syncitium
B) Mesoderm
C) Chorionic villi
D) Trophoblast
ANSWER: C

15. Following are major complications associated with intravenous fluid

EXCEPT
A) Phlebitis
B) Infiltration
C) Vomiting
D) Infection
ANSWER: C

16. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of vitamin B12 in an adult is

A) 2.2 micrograms
B) 2.3 micrograms
C) 2.4 micrograms
D) 2.5 micrograms
ANSWER: C
17. When choosing a research problem which of the following is not a
consideration?
A) Data can be collected
B) Data can be organized
C) Data can be manipulated
D) Data can be analyzed
ANSWER: C

18.Air that develop in the pleural space is referred to as ______________

ANSWER: Pnemothorax

19.The following are referencing styles EXCEPT

A) APA
B) MLA
C) Chicago style
D) Bibliography
ANSWER: D

20. . …………………………… is not a type of research proposal

A) Solicited proposal
B) Renewal proposal
C) Pre-proposal
D) Strategic proposal
ANSWER: A

21.The mesenteric lymph node in the small intestine is known as

A) Kupffer cells
B) Payer’s patches
C) Lymph node
D) Cisterna chili
ANSWER: B

22.Salivary amylase help to convert

A) Cooked starch to glucose
B) Uncooked starch to maltose
C) Cooked starch to maltose
D) Uncooked starch to glucose
ANSWER: C

23.26. Most of the digestive enzymes are produced in the

A) Liver and Gallbladder
B) Mouth and Oesophagus
C) Small intestine and Pancreas
 D) Oesopgagus and Stomach
ANSWER: C

24. One of these is NOT a priority in the emergency treatment of severe burns?
A) Treatment of pain
B) Rapid cooling of the burn
C) Ensuring breathing
D) Ensuring patient is not in shock
ANSWER: A

25.The principal symptom of Achalasia is

A) Dysphagia
B) Regurgitation
C) Vomiting
D) Weight loss
ANSWER: A

26.The Psychiatrist noted presence of “sundowner syndrome” on the chest of a

client with Alzheimer disease. The nurse understands that the syndrome
means
A) Increased confusion in the evening
B) Increased confusion in the morning
C) Decreased confusion in the evening
D) Decreased confusion in the morning
ANSWER: A

27. The hallmark of Primary Health Care, without which Primary Health Care
will not succeed is?
A) Community mobilization
B) Community participation
C) Self reliance
D) Community motivation
ANSWER: A

28.The first modern pharmacological compound was made by

A) Friedrick Wohler
B) Hippocrates
C) Florence Nightingale
D) Edward Jenner
ANSWER: D

29.When diary products like milk are taken with antibiotics like tetracycline
A) There is decreased absorption of the drug in the stomach
 B) There is increased absorption of the drug in the stomach
C) The potency of the drug is increased
D) The potency of the drug id decreased
ANSWER: A

30.The body mass index range of 30 – 34.9 can be classified as ___________

ANSWER: Obesity class I

31.Which of the following describe the degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle
fibres at the end of the diastole?
A) Afterload
B) Venous return
C) Cardiac reserve
D) Preload
ANSWER: D

32.Which of the following is the largest lymphoid organ in the body

A) Spleen
B) Thymus
C) Liver
D) Lungs
ANSWER: A

33.The clinical importance of the oblique entry of the ureters into the bladder is
to
A) Prevent urethral stricture
B) Promote urine formation
C) Enhance urination
D) Prevent back flow of urine
ANSWER: D

34.In Maslow's hierarchy of physiological needs, the human need of greatest

priority is
A) Shelter
B) Elimination
C) Nutrition
D) Oxygen
ANSWER: D

35. An agonist that produces maximal effect and has high efficacy is called
A) Partial agonist
B) Antagonist
 C) Agonist-Antagonist
D) Full agonist
ANSWER: D

36.Nursing Audit serves the following purposes EXCEPT

A) To evaluate nursing care given
B) To contribute to nursing research
C) To focus on the care provided and not on the provider
D) To execute a fault finding assignment
ANSWER: D

37. Which of the following fruits has the lowest potassium content?
A) Avocados
B) Apples
C) Bananas
D) Papaya
ANSWER: B

38. Which level of health facility is the ideal point of entry of a client into the
health care delivery system
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Intermediate
D) Tertiary
ANSWER: A

39. In which of the following processes is adenosine triphosphate (ATP) made

available
A) Aerobic respiration
B) Anaerobic respiration
C) Lactic acidosis
D) Cellular respiration
ANSWER: A

40.The cell of the stomach that produces both hydrochloric acid and intrinsic
factors are
A) Chief cell
B) Parietal cells
C) Mucus cells
D) Enteroendocrine cells
ANSWER: B
41.The internal sphincter of the rectum is controlled by the
A) Autonomic nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
ANSWER: D

42.An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium causes increase in

A) Production of angiotensin II
B) Secretion of antidiuretic hormones
C) Secretion of aldosterone
D) Release of renin
ANSWER: C

43.46. Increase Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is cause by

A) Decrease in renal blood flow
B) Decrease in the concentration of plasma protein
C) Compression of the renal capsules
D) Decrease in the afferent arteriole
ANSWER: D

44.Which of the following statement is not correct about the vagina?

A) A fibromuscular tube about 3 – 4 inches
B) Located between the bladder, urethra and rectum
C) It’s mucus is relatively alkaline
D) The mucous membrane walls form folds called rugae
ANSWER: C

45.The hypothalamus is located

A) Between pons and medulla oblongata
B) In the cerebellum
C) Between the cerebrum and the brain stem
D) Within the mid brain
ANSWER: C

46.The meninges covering the brain and spinal cord are arranged in the
following sequence outer to inner
A) Dura, Arachnoid and Pia mater
B) Arachnoid, Dura and Pia mater
C) Pia, Arachnoid and Dura mater
D) Arachnoid, Pia and Dura mater
ANSWER: A
47.A client with appendicitis asks the nurse for a laxative to help relieve her
constipation. The nurse explain that laxatives are given to persons with
possible appendicitis. What is the primary reasons for this?
A) Laxatives decrease the spread of infection
B) Laxatives are not given prior to any type of surgery
C) Laxative could cause rupture of the appendix
D) Laxatives increases the spread of infection
ANSWER: C

48.Which of the following findings is not expected in a client in the early stage
of acute renal failure?
A) Acidosis
B) Diuresis
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypertension
ANSWER: B

49. A client with fever and urinary urgency is asked to provide a urine sample
for culture and sensitivity. The nurse should instruct client to collect the
specimen from the
A) First stream of urine
B) Middle stream of urine
C) Final stream of urine
D) Full volume of urine
ANSWER: B

50. Measurement of residual urine by catheterization after voiding verifies one

condition
A) Urinary tract infection
B) Urinary incontinence
C) Urinary suppression
D) Urinary retention
ANSWER: D

51. Which of the following physical assessment findings should indicate to the
nurse that a patient who received a renal transplant one month ago is
experiencing acute organ reject?
A) Oliguria, swelling and abdominal pain
B) Pruritus and weakness
C) Pink and sensitive incisional line
D) Anorexia, nausea and vomiting
ANSWER: A
52. Which of the following sign or symptoms will alert a nurse of a potential
complication in a patient with chronic sinusitis?
A) Muscle weakness
B) Purulent sputum
C) Nuchal rigidity
D) Intermittent loss of muscle control
ANSWER: C

53. Which of the following isolation procedures should a nurse implement for a
patient diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis?
A) Stemdural precaution
B) Droplet precaution
C) Contact precaution
D) Airborne precaution
ANSWER: D

54.Which intervention should emergency department nurse implement first for

the client admitted for an acute asthmatic attack?
A) Administer glucocorticoid intravenously
B) Administer oxygen 5L through nasal catheter
C) Assess breath sounds every 5 minutes
D) Establish and maintain a 20G saline lock
ANSWER: B

55. Which of the following is an accurate description of intussusception?

A) Telescoping of one portion of the intestine into another
B) A herniation of the abdominal visceral at the level of the umbilicus
C) A faulty development of the bile duct linking the gall bladder
D) An absence of parasympathetic ganglion nerve cells in the descending
colon
ANSWER: A

56. Which of the following viruses most commonly lead to liver cirrhosis
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
ANSWER: B

57. The presence of a scar on a deep wound is usually noticed at which phase
wound healing?
A) Inflammatory phase
B) Migratory phase
 C) Proliferative phase
D) Maturation phase
ANSWER: C

58. A client is diagnosed with acne vulgaris. Which psychosocial problem is

priority?
A) Impaired skin integrity
B) In effective skin integrity
C) Body image disturbance
D) Knowledge deficit
ANSWER: C

59.Which of the following clients would be at highest risk of developing

carbuncle?
A) The young male who is just beginning to shave
B) The female with a fair complexion
C) The male who works in the gymnasium daily
D) A female diagnosed of diabetes mellitus
ANSWER: A

60. Which of the following actions should a nurse use as a wide base support
when assisting a client to get up from a chair?
A) Bend at the waist and place arms under the client's arms and lift
B) Face the client, bend knees and place hands on client's forearm and
lift
C) Spread his/her feet apart and lift
D) Tighten his/her pelvic muscles and lift
ANSWER: C

61. The nurse is to administer Flagyl tablet t.i.d. P.O, the nurse should give the
medication
A) Two times a day by month
B) Two times a day before meals
C) Three times a day orally
D) Three times a day after meals
ANSWER: C

62. The instrument used for Knee jack reflex is

A) Audiometer
B) Stethoscope
C) Sphygmomanometer
D) Percussion hammer
 ANSWER: D

63. The 2nd cervical vertebra is known as:

A) Vault
B) Atlas
C) Axis
D) Conchae
ANSWER: C

64. The following are causes of tachycardia EXCEPT

A) Fever
B) Exercise
C) Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
D) Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
ANSWER: D

65. An adult is being treated for peptic ulcer. The physician prescribe
Cimetidine (Targamet) for one of the following reasons
A) 1t blocks the secretion of gastric hydrochloric acids
B) It coats the gastric mucosa with a protective membrane
C) It increases the sensitivity of histamie (H2) receptor
D) It neutralizes acid in the stomach
ANSWER: A

66. The nurse should teach a client taking sulphur drug to

A) Chew tablets completely before swallowing
B) Take copius fluid daily
C) Disregard the blue colour
D) Lie down if tinnitus should occur
ANSWER: B

67. The most important goal when caring for a child taking steroid therapy for
the prevention of
A) Anorexia
B) Ascites
C) Diarrhoea
D) Infection
ANSWER: D

68.The two major sites for drug elimination are

A) Pulmonary and liver
B) Kidney and liver
 C) Pulmonary and kidney
D) Skin and liver
ANSWER: B

69. The duration of action for most opiates is

A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
ANSWER: C

70. Propanolol-induced adverse effects include the following EXCEPT

A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Hyperglycaemia
C) Hypersensitivity of beta-receptors
D) Sedation and sleep disturbance
ANSWER: B

71. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat

A) Psychosis
B) Narcolepsy
C) Sleep disturbance
D) Parkinson's disorders
ANSWER: C

72. Which of the following is NOT Fayol's administrative principle of

management?
A) Discipline
B) Remuneration
C) Staffing
D) Order
ANSWER: C

73. One of the following is a fundamental element of management

A) Accountability
B) Authority
C) Controlling
D) Reporting
ANSWER: C

74.Demonstration method of teaching involves the use of

A) Psychomotor and visual skills
B) Affective and psychomotor skills
 C) Cognitive and psychomotor skills
D) Cognitive and affective skills
ANSWER: A

75. The major aim of nutrition therapy in patients with congestive heart failure
is
A) To reduce sodium and fluid retention and to minimize cardiac
overload
B) To augment sodium, decrease fluid retention and minimize cardiac
overload
C) To minimize sodium and fluid retention and enhance cardiac overload
D) To measure sodium and fluid retention and reduce cardiac overload
ANSWER: A

76. The acronym DASH means

A) Dietary approaches to stop hypertension
B) Diet approaches to study hypertension
C) Diet approaches to stop hypertension
D) Diet application to stop hypertension
ANSWER: A

77. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate source of information in a

country affected by protracted crisis?
A) Civil registration systems
B) Surveillance systems
C) Academic journals
D) Household surveys
ANSWER: C

78. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH):

A) Increases water reabsorption
B) Increases sodium reabsorption
C) Increases water and sodium reabsorption
D) Decreases water reabsorption
ANSWER: C

79.The development of early morning sickness is secondary to:

A) Relaxing effect of progesterone on smooth muscles
B) Cool weather of the early morning
C) Development of the morula
D) Relaxing effect of estrogen on smooth muscles
ANSWER: A
80.The main function of the prostatic fluid is to:
A) Concentrate the sperm cells
B) Increase the pH level of the semen
C) Decrease the pH level of the semen
D) Dilute the sperm cells
ANSWER: B

81.The part of the neuron that transmits electrical signals to a target cell is:
A) Soma
B) Dendrite
C) Cell body
D) axon
ANSWER: B

82. Which of the following substances is the LEAST able to cross the blood
brain barrier?
A) Glucose
B) Amino acids
C) Sodium
D) Urea
ANSWER: C

83. Which of the following describes a bundle of axons in the peripheral

nervous system?
A) Nucleus
B) Ganglion
C) Nerve fibre
D) Nerve tract
ANSWER: C

84. Which of the following is associated with the progressive changes from
fertilization of the ovum till maturity?
A) Embryology
B) human biology
C) anatomy and physiology
D) Reproductive Biology
ANSWER: B

85. Lymph vessels entering into the lymph node are about 4-5 in number and
known as
A) Efferent lymph vessels
B) afferent lymph vessels
C) Affective Lymph vessel
 D) Effective lymph vessel
ANSWER: B

86. All the following are the component of lower respiratory system except
A) Laryngopharynx
B) Lungs
C) Trachea
D) Pulmonary alveoli
ANSWER: A

87.The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by the following except

A) maxilla bone
B) sphenoid bone
C) frontal bone
D) Nasal bone
ANSWER: A

88. The pharynx is about ---- to --- cm long

A) 12-14cm
B) 10-11cm
C) 16-18cm
D) 14-20cm
ANSWER: A

89. Which of the organelle produces a large amount of ATP?

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Lysosome
ANSWER: B

90. Which of the following is the resting stage of a cell?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
ANSWER: A

91.____________ cover the outer part of a lymph node

A) capsule
B) trabeculae
C) reticular tissue
D) lymphatic tissue
 ANSWER: A

92. What will cause the sinoatrial (SA) node to depolarize more frequently?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Parasympathetic stimulation
D) Vagus nerve
ANSWER: B

93. How are cardiac cells mechanically attached to each other? By their:
A) mitochondria
B) intercalated discs
C) gap junctions
D) sarcolemma
ANSWER: B

94.The smallest Arterioles break up into a number of minute vessels

called_________
A) Arteries
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) venules
ANSWER: C

95. _____membrane secrets clear, sticky, oily, synovial fluid which lubricates
and nourishes the joint
A) Epithelial membrane
B) Mucous membrane
C) Synovial membrane
D) Serous Membrane
ANSWER: C

96. The following nursing interventions are written correctly, EXCEPT.

A) Perform neurovascular checks.
B) Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees before meals.
C) Change dressing once a shift.
D) Apply a continuous passive motion machine during the day.
ANSWER: D

97.When establishing realistic goals, the nurse:

A) Must have a client who is physically and emotionally stable.
B) Bases the goals on the nurse’s personal knowledge.
C) Must have the client’s cooperation.
 D) Knows the resources of the health care facility, family, and the client.
ANSWER: D

98. An effective health record shows all the following except: -

A) The extent of the health problems.
B) Other factors that affect individuals
C) The negative direction of health record.
D) The health problems in the family
ANSWER : C

99. Which theory defines nursing as the science and practices that expands
adaptive abilities and enhances person and environment transformation?
A) Roy's adaptation model
B) Henderson's definition of nursing
C) Faye G. Abdelah's theory
D) Goal attainment theory
ANSWER: C

100. Typology of twenty-one Nursing problems were explained by:

A) Imogene King
B) Virginia Henderson's
C) Faye G. Abedellah
D) Lydia E. Hall
ANSWER: C

101. "Nursing is therapeutic interpersonal process". This definition was

stated by:
A) M. Rogers
B) Faye Glen Abdelah
C) Hildegard Peplau
D) Jean Watson
ANSWER: A

102. Which of the following statements is related to Florence Nightingale?

A) Nursing is therapeutic interpersonal process.
B) Nursing care becomes necessary when client is unable to fulfill
biological, psychological, developmental, or social needs.
C) The role of nursing is to facilitate "the body's reparative processes" by
manipulating client's environment.
D) Nursing is the science and practice that expands adaptive abilities and
enhances person and environment transformation.
ANSWER: B
103. Which of the following is NOT a concept related to Roy's Adaptation
Model?
A) Role function
B) Cognator Subsystem
C) Focal Stimuli
D) Flexible line of defense
ANSWER: D

104. During which step of the nursing process does determining which
actions to be employed to meet the needs of a patient occur?
A) Implementation
B) Assessment
C) Planning
D) Analysis
ANSWER: C

105. Which of the following most directly influences the planning step of
the nursing process?
A) Related factors
B) Diagnostic label
C) Secondary factors
D) Medical diagnosis
ANSWER: A

106. Which is the primary reason why a nurse performs a physical

assessment of a newly admitted patient?
A) Identify if the patient is at risk for falls
B) Ensure that the patient's skin is totally intact
C) Identify important information about the patient
D) Establish a therapeutic relationship with the patient
ANSWER: C

107. A nurse evaluates a patient's response to a nursing intervention. To

which aspect of the nursing process is this evaluation most directly related?
A) Goal
B) Problem
C) Etiology
D) Implementation
ANSWER: A

108. Name the association established to develop, refine, and promote the
taxonomy of nursing diagnostic terminology used by nurses.
 A) North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International
B) North American Nurses Association
C) Ethical Nursing Association
D) North Humane Nursing & Midwifery Association
ANSWER: A

109. A patient's information cannot be revealed except_______

A) In chronic illness
B) Acute illness
C) Patient is a foreigner
D) Notifiable disease
Answer: D

110. Areas of health education includes the following Except_________

A) Nutrition
B) Environment
C) Human Biology
D) Maternal and Child health including family planning
ANSWER: B

111. Which type of shock is caused by a spinal cord injury?

A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Anaphylactic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Cardiogenic shock
Answer: C

112. Which of the following is a potential complication of obstructive

shock?
A) Blood clots
B) Organ failure
C) Seizures
D) Skin rash
Answer: B

113. What is the primary treatment for neurogenic shock?

A) Antibiotics
B) Blood transfusion
C) Fluid replacement
D) Surgery
Answer: C

114. Which of the following is a potential cause of haemorrhage in patients

with leukemia?
 A) Infection
B) Trauma
C) Radiation therapy
D) Vitamin deficiency
Answer: C

115. What is the medical term for coughing up blood?

A) Hematemesis
B) Hematuria
C) Epistaxis
D) Hemoptysis
Answer: D

116. What is the medical term for bleeding from the ear?
A) Hematemesis
B) Hematuria
C) Otorrhagia
D) Hemoptysis
Answer: C

117. Which of the following is a potential cause of haemorrhage in patients

with aplastic anemia?
A) Infection
B) Trauma
C) Radiation therapy
D) Platelet dysfunction
Answer: D

118. What is the medical term for bleeding from the female genital tract
that occurs between menstrual periods?
A) Metrorrhagia
B) Menorrhagia
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Amenorrhea
Answer: A

119. Which of the following is a possible complication of untreated fever?

A) Delirium
B) Seizures
C) Coma
D) All of the above
Answer: D
120. Which of the following is not a common cause of fever in travelers
returning from overseas?
A) Malaria
B) Typhoid fever
C) Dengue fever
D) Seasonal allergies
Answer: D

121. Which of the following routes of drugs administration of

corticosteroids has been associated with cataract formation?
A) Systemic
B) Topical
C) Subc0njunctiva
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D

122. . The bones that formed each orbit of the eye are;
A) six (6)
B) seven (7)
C) Eight (8)
D) Nine (9)
ANSWER: B

123. In which of the following are steroids not administered systematically:

A) Blepharitis
B) Uveitis
C) Endophthalmitis
D) Optic Neuritis
ANSWER: A

124. Which of the following is not normally considered in the differential

diagnosis of an inflamed red eye?
A) Acute conjunctivitis
B) Acute Aritis
C) Dacryocystitis
D) Acute Glaucoma
ANSWER: C

125. In the central region of the retina one of the following structures are
found:
A) Rods
B) Cone cells
 C) Ora- serrate
D) Macula lutea
ANSWER: D

126. Which of the following is true about swabbing of the eye

A) All patients in ophalmic clinic
B) Patients wearing eye glasses
C) Patient for eye medication
D) All of the above
ANSWER: C

127. One of these drugs is an osmotic agent used in the treatment of acute
glaucoma;
A) Carbachol
B) Timolol
C) Manitol
D) Acetazolamide
ANSWER: C

128. In the instillation of eye drops the nurse perform these functions
except;
A) Irrigation
B) Lower the lid
C) Positioning
D) Swabbing
ANSWER: A
129. The muscles that moves the eye ball upward and inward is called
_____________________

ANSWER: Superior rectus

130. ___________________________________ is the prominence

between the eye brows
ANSWER: Glabella

131. Irregular eye movement is referred to as

________________________________
ANSWER: Nystagmus

132. 135. Prolonged and painful erection of the penis is called

A) varicoceles
B) priapism
C) hydrocele
 D) varicose veins
ANSWER: B

133. Enlarge veins in the scrotum is refered to as

A) varicoceles
B) priapism
C) hydrocele
D) varicose veins
ANSWER: A

134. Common disorders that can affect maternal nutrition include the
following except-
A) Vomiting
B) Rest
C) Heart burn
D) Constipation.
ANSWER: B

135. The nurse guard against _____ by encouraging food rich in Iron.
A) Diabetes
B) constipation
C) nausea
D) anaemia
ANSWER: D

136. Which of the following vitamins is not recommended during

pregnancy because of its harmful effect on the fetus
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
ANSWER: A

137. ___ is a social group of any size whose members resides in a specific
locality, share government, and often have a common cultural and historical
heritage.
A) Community
B) Committee
C) Society
D) Congregation
ANSWER: A
138. A balanced diet should provide around ______ of total calories from
carbohydrates
A) 15-20%
B) 30-45%
C) 50-55%
D) 50-60%
ANSWER: D

139. Which of the following is an example of a diary product

A) Protein
B) Bread
C) Milk
D) Vitamins
ANSWER: C

140. All of the following are factors influencing nutrient of adolescent

EXCEPT
A) Poor bioavailability of iron in the diet
B) Lack of knowledge in the family or community about the importance
of nutritionduring adolescence
C) Inadequate distribution of food in the family
D) Poor worm infestation
ANSWER: D

141. Concerning folic supplementation, which of these statements is most

correct?
A) It is important to prevent neutral tube defect
B) It is important to prevent GERD
C) Its requirement is increased during pregnancy
D) Both a and b are correct
ANSWER: D

142. Another name for vitamin B12 is

A) Carotene
B) Thiamine
C) Cobalamin
D) Riboflavine
ANSWER: C

143. Which Element of Emergency and Disaster Care involves taking

preventive action before emergency occurs in order to reduce future human
and financial consequences?
A) Response
 B) Preparedness
C) Mitigation
D) Recovery
ANSWER: C

144. In ______ there is Mobilization of necessary emergency services and

first responders.
A) Recovery
B) Response
C) Preparedness
D) Mitigation
ANSWER: B

145. The following are principles of Emergency and Disaster Care except:
A) Provide first aid to the injured
B) Rescue victim
C) Evacuate the injured to medical facilities
D) Promote constructive move towards area of disaster
ANSWER: D

146. During the _______ phase of disaster, warning is given prior to the
actual occurrence and emergency centres are opened and well informed.
A) Post-impact phase
B) Impact phase
C) Pre-impact phase
D) Re-impacted phase
ANSWER: C

147. __________ is the use of epidemiology to assess the short term and
long term adverse health effects of disaster.
A) Disaster management
B) Disaster epidemiology
C) Disaster monitoring
D) Emergency care
ANSWER: B

148. The following are primary agents except:

A) heat
B) wind
C) bacteria
 D) water
ANSWER: C

149. The following are Man-made disasters except:

A) Technological
B) Topographical
C) Warfare
D) Industrial
ANSWER: B

150. The following are Environmental disasters except:

A) Global warming
B) Cyclone
C) Ozone depletion
D) Solar flare
ANSWER: B

151. Disaster preparedness strategy would include the following elements

except:
A) Coordination
B) Preparedness plan
C) Early warning system
D) Disaster care
ANSWER: D

152. During disaster phase, one of the following is detailed:

A) Preparedness
B) Early warning
C) Response
D) Mitigation
ANSWER: C

153. _______ involves identifying organisational resources, determining

roles and responsibility, developing policies aimed at ensuring timely
disaster preparation and effective emergency response.
A) Coordination
B) Response mechanism and strategies
C) Preparedness planning
D) Resource mobilization
ANSWER: C

154. The following are international agencies in disaster management

except:
 A) UNOCHA
B) UNDP
C) UNDAC
D) UNTAO
ANSWER: D

155. In certain cardiac arrests, CPR is not required especially when;

A) Victims eyes are open
B) Victim is not breathing
C) Victim's pulse is full and strong
D) Victim is gasping for air
ANSWER: C

156. Compression rate in paediatric CPR is;

A) 15 - 20
B) 20 - 30
C) 80 - 100
D) 100 -120
ANSWER: D

157. What first thing should be considered at the scene of cardiac arrest?
A) Safety for both victim and the rescuers
B) Call 911
C) Move victim to a safe place
D) Look for AED
ANSWER: A

158. Components of reproductive Health includes the following EXCEPT

A) Adolescent Health
B) Abortion
C) Female genital mutilation
D) Family Health Crises
ANSWER: C

159. Which of the following is not the role of Adolescent Reproductive

Health?
A) Promote post abortion Care
B) Create unawareness about Reproductive Health
C) Encourage early marriage
D) Provide support to reproductively sick youth
ANSWER: C
160. Which of the following is the correct reason for delivering sex
education at schools
A) Encourage rise in population
B) Solve the issue of global warming
C) Discourage myths and misconceptions
D) Promote sex life
ANSWER: C

161. Adolescent Reproductive health refers to ___________

A) Frequent adolescent cortus
B) Healthy Reproductive Organs and functions
C) Proper Sex Activities of the Youth
D) Encourage Healthy Sex life of youth
ANSWER: B

162. Which of the following principle of development is incorrect

A) There are individual differences in development
B) Development is the result of coincidences
C) It is a continuous process
D) It is predictable
ANSWER: B

163. Development is a never – ending process. This statement corresponds

to ____
A) Principle of interaction
B) Principle of integration
C) Principle of continuity
D) Principle of interrelationship
ANSWER: B

164. Training before normal maturation is generally ________________

A) Beneficial or harmful depending on the method used in training
B) Harmful from all points of view
C) Beneficial from the point of view of long term
D) Highly beneficial with respect to performance of the common skills
ANSWER: A

165. Responsible and safe sex involves the following EXCEPT

A) Trust
B) Open communication
C) Balanced diet
D) Mutual respect.
ANSWER: C
166. Which is correct of misconceptions about safe sex?
A) Condom use
B) Kissing only
C) Oral sex only
D) All of the above.
ANSWER: C

167. A child according to United Nations is a person between the age of

_______ and _________
A) 1 – 18years
B) 0 – 16 years
C) 1 – 16 years
D) 0 – 18 years
ANSWER: B

168. Which of the following is a trace mineral in the human body?

A) Sulphur
B) Phosphorus
C) Magnesium
D) Selenium
ANSWER: B

169. Colostrum is?

A) Expelled by the mother after birth
B) A yellowish or bluish very first milk
C) Does not contain vitamins
D) Is a kind of teractogen
ANSWER: B

170. When should a child receive the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine?
A) At Birth
B) 6 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 6 months
ANSWER: A

171. Human milk composition is?

A) Constitutes of fat, protein, carbohydrate including lactose
B) Similar to other primates
C) Typically of a species where feeding would be on demand
D) All of the above
ANSWER: A
172. At Birth, the following vaccines are given EXCEPT
A) OPV1
B) Pentavalent vaccine
C) BCG
D) Hepatitis B
ANSWER: B

173. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the concept of

development?
A) Development is a discrete process
B) Development is uni – dimentional
C) Development stands for growth with a change
D) It remains the same in time and space.
ANSWER: C

174. Heat is produced in the body by the activity of the following EXCEPT
A) The kidney
B) The muscles
C) The alimentary canal
D) The liver
ANSWER: A

175. The following are risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) EXCEPT
A) Promiscuity
B) Passive smoking
C) Occupational exposure
D) Exposure to tobacco smoke
ANSWER: A

176. Coronary sinus blood flows to the

A) Pulmonary artery
B) Left ventricle
C) Right atrium
D) Pulmonary vein
ANSWER: C

177. The most abundant nitrogenous waste in the blood is

A) Urea
B) Uric acid
C) Creatinine.
D) Ammonia
 ANSWER: A

178. The following are complications of myocardial infarction EXCEPT

A) Fibrillation
B) Sever congestive cardiac failure
C) Ventricular tachycardiac
D) Papilloedema
ANSWER: D

179. In respiratory failure the first treatment is

A) Tracheostomy
B) Oxygen administration
C) Artificial respiration
D) Ensure clear airway
ANSWER: C

180. Secondary hypertension often results from

A) Collagen complications
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Hypophysectomy
D) Renal parenchymal disease
ANSWER: B

181. The following are clinical manifestations of ischemic stroke EXCEPT

A) Confusion or change in mental status
B) Gradual and severe headache
C) Dizziness
D) Loss of coordination

182. 187. The ideal position to transport a conscious patient with suspected
cervical injury is
A) Prone with one soft pillow
B) Sitting position with the head extended
C) Supine position with the neck splinted in neutral position
D) Sitting position with the head flexed
ANSWER: C

183. In abdominal injury, pain in the left upper quadrant may be a clinical
manifestation of injury to the
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Intestine
D) Diaphragm
 ANSWER: A

184. When an unconscious patient’s head is flexed forward, the airways

will be obstructed by the
A) Epiglottis
B) Tongue
C) Pharynx
D) Esophagus
ANSWER: B

185. Once the respiration is arrested the brain will start to die within
A) 3 to 5 minutes
B) 4 to 6 minutes
C) 10 to 20 minutes.
D) 30 minutes to 1 hour.
ANSWER: C

186. An injury to ligamentous structures surrounding a joint which is

usually caused by a twisting motion is termed.
A) Fracture
B) Dislocation
C) Sprains
D) Arthritis
ANSWER: C

187. Majority of heart attack are caused by the blockage of the

A) Jugular artery
B) Coronary artery
C) Coronal artery
D) Carotid artery
ANSWER: B

188. Anxiety can be described as

A) An abnormal response to every day stress
B) A normal response to every day stress
C) A physiological response to stress
D) A sense of psychological distress
ANSWER: C

189. Disorder of taste is known as

A) Hyperropia
B) Aguesia
 C) Anosmia
D) Myopia
ANSWER: C

190. Located in the mid-brain are the nuclei of cranial nerve number
A) ix, x, xi and xii
B) v and vi
C) vii and viii
D) iii and iv
ANSWER: D

191. From the physiological point of view the most common cause of
obesity is probably
A) Low basal metabolic rate
B) Lack of nutritional education
C) More calories consumed than expended
D) Impaired endocrine functioning.
ANSWER: C

192. The act of touching another person without his/her permission is

called
A) Infidelity
B) Insult
C) Assault
D) Battery
ANSWER: D

193. According to the psychoanalytic theory of human behavior, mental

illness results from
A) Distorted self-statement
B) Excessive stress
C) Repressed experiences
D) Learned maladaptive behavior
ANSWER: C

194. Crisis that occurs as one grows older is called

A) Maturational crisis
B) Situational crisis
C) Crisis of values
D) Crisis of spirit
ANSWER: A
195. A 30 year old male client stated that he is afraid of being watched and
judged by other people. He is most likely suffering from
A) Agoraphobia
B) Acrophobia
C) Social phobia
D) Claustro phobia
ANSWER: C

196. For a client with alcoholism, the primary rehabilitator is the

A) Entire health care team
B) Nurse
C) Client
D) Physician
ANSWER: A

197. The following enhance fracture healing EXCEPT

A) Vitamin D
B) Plaster of paris
C) Proper nutrition
D) Immobilization of the fractured site
ANSWER: B

198. Motor nerves conduct impulses from the

A) Muscle to the brain
B) Brain to the muscle
C) Brain to sensory nerve
D) Sensory nerve to the brain
ANSWER: B

199. The site mostly affected in tuberculosis of the spine is the

A) Vertebral body of the first thoracic
B) Cervical vertebral junction
C) Sacral vertebral junction
D) Thoraco-lumbar junction
ANSWER: D

200. Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) results from

A) Dehydration
B) Pregnancy
C) Compression on the median nerve in the front of the wrist
D) Trauma to the spinal cord
ANSWER: C
201. Growth spurt in puberty results from cell proliferation and
hypertrophy in the
A) Epiphysis
B) Spongy bone
C) Epiphyseal plate
D) Compact bone
ANSWER: C

202. During shock lung syndrome there is generalized tissue anoxia and
ultimately gross metabolic damage to the following organs EXCEPT
A) Liver
B) Lungs
C) Kidney
D) Bone
ANSWER: D

203. Which of the following diabetes is insulin dependent?

A) Type I diabetes mellitus
B) Type II diabetes mellitus
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Latent diabetes mellitus
ANSWER: A

204. Mr Gboko is to receive 75mg pethidine 12 hourly for 5 days. An

ampoule is 50mg, how many ampoules will be needed.
A) 8 ampoules
B) 10 ampoules
C) 15 ampoules
D) 20 ampoules
ANSWER: C

205. The following require urgent neuro-surgical evaluation and treatment

except
A) Subdural hematoma
B) Embolic stroke
C) Sub arachnoid hematoma
D) Epidural hematoma
ANSWER: B

206. The hormone that is responsible for male secondary sex

characteristics is known as
A) Progesterone
B) Testosterone
 C) Estrogen
D) Follicle stimulating hormone
ANSWER: B

207. The three layers of tissue surrounding the testes are arranged from
within outward as
A) Tunica Vasculosa, Tunica Albuginea, Tunica Vaginalis
B) Tunical Vaginalis, Tunica Albuginca, Tunica Vasculos
C) Tunica Albuginea, Tunica Vaginalis, Tunica Vascoulosa
D) Tunica Vaginalis, Tunica Vasculosa, Tunica Albuginea
ANSWER: A

208. Spermatogenesis take place in the

A) Aerosome
B) Ejaculating ducts
C) Spermatic cord
D) Seminiferous tubules.
ANSWER: D

209. Which of the following are involuntary muscle

A) Smooth muscles and cardiac muscles
B) Skeletal muscles and smooth muscles
C) Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscles
D) Smooth muscle and striated muscle
ANSWER: A

210. Bursa
A) Connects ligaments to tendon
B) Are found in the surface of the immovable joints
C) Reduce friction between areas such as tendons, bones and ligaments
D) Prevent lateral displacement of bone
ANSWER: C

211. The group of muscles mostly affected in poliomyelitis are the

A) Adductor group of muscles
B) Extensor group of muscles
C) Flexor group of muscles
D) Abductor group of muscles
ANSWER: D

212. The valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle is called
A) The tricuspid
 B) The aortic
C) The mitral
D) The bicuspid
ANSWER: A

213. Endochondrial ossification is responsible for

A) Growth in thickness of the long bones
B) Growth in length of the long bones
C) Growth of the periosteum
D) Growth of the cranial vault
ANSWER: B

214. The estimated total body water is about

A) 20 liters
B) 30 liters
C) 40 liters
D) 50 liters
ANSWER: C

215. The electrolyte that is most affected by acid-base changes is

A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Chloride
ANSWER: D

216. Paralysis of the upper extremities may indicate damage to the spinal
cord on the
A) Neck
B) Lower back
C) Upper back
D) Entire back below the neck
ANSWER: A

217. Which of the following will indicate that the nurse is utilizing the
assessment phase of the nursing process to provide nursing care
A) Review result of laboratory
B) Propose hypothesis
C) Document care
D) Generate desired outcome
ANSWER: A
218. A 34-week pregnant woman complains of sudden onset of bright red
vaginal bleeding, no pain, the uterus is soft with fetal heart rate of 120 beats
per minute. The likely diagnosis is
A) Threatened abortion
B) Abruption placentae
C) Placenta previa
D) Preterm labour
ANSWER: C

219. Eye opening in glassgow coma scale assesses

A) The brain stem
B) The cerebral cortex
C) The cerebral cortex and the brain stem
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D

220. Eclampsia is a complications of pregnancy occurring most commonly

at
A) 20 weeks of gestation
B) 22 weeks of gestation
C) 30 weeks of gestation
D) 32 weeks of gestation
ANSWER: D

221. The goal of risk management include

A) Identifying poor providers
B) Increasing the department budget
C) Reducing occupational hazards for the health care worker
D) Reducing the risk of law suits
ANSWER: C

222. The following are functions of acetylcholine in the central nervous

system EXCEPT
A) Sleep arousal, pain perception and hearing
B) Sleep arousal, pain perception and sight
C) Sleep arousal, pain perception and reading
D) Sleep arousal, pain perception and coordination of movements
ANSWER: D

223. Which of the following drugs is used to control Post-Partum

Hemorrhage (PPH)
A) Pitocin
B) Methergine
 C) Analgin
D) Manitol
ANSWER: A

224. The antidote for Heparin overdose is

A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin A
C) Streptokinase
D) Protamine sulphate
ANSWER: D

225. Baroreceptors are found in the

A) Iliac crest
B) Arterioles
C) Wall of the arteries
D) Arch of the aorta
ANSWER: D

226. The following body systems are affected in lead poisoning EXCEPT
A) Skeletal system
B) Circulatory system
C) Central nervous system
D) Gastro intestinal system
ANSWER: A

227. High priority in the nursing management of a patient receiving

diuretic therapy is
A) Assessing the fatigue level
B) Evaluating the loss of K1
C) Treating nausea and vomiting
D) Giving medication at noon
ANSWER: B

228. Hemodialysis is based on the following principles EXCEPT

A) Osmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Dialysate
D) Ultrafiltration
ANSWER: C

229. The ethical principles are made of the following EXCEPT

 A) Justice
B) Veracity
C) Right
D) Non-maleficence
ANSWER: C

230. Crisis occur when an individual

A) Is exposed to a precipitating stressor
B) Perceive a stressor to be threatening
C) Has no support system
D) Experiences a stressor and perceives coping strategies to be
ineffective
ANSWER: D

231. An emotional experience in children becomes traumatic when

A) The parents are harsh and restrictive
B) The super ego has not been internalized
C) The ego is overwhelmed by anxiety he cannot handle
D) The child is unable to verbalize own feelings
ANSWER: C

232. A phobic reaction will rarely occur unless the person

A) Thinks about the feared object
B) Absolves the guilt of the feared object
C) Comes in contact with the feared object
D) Introjects the feared object
ANSWER: C

233. The following are risk factors in Breast Cancer EXCEPT

A) Obesity
B) Alcohol intake
C) Early menopause
D) Heredity
ANSWER: C

234. Autism can be diagnosed when the child is about

A) 1 to 3 months old
B) 6 months
C) 2 years
D) 6 years
ANSWER: C
235. Functional mental illness are mainly the result of
A) Deterioration of brain tissue
B) Social environment
C) Genetic endowment
D) Inflammation and infection
ANSWER: A

236. The repetition of words heard by a patient is known as

A) Neologism
B) Echopraxia
C) Verbigeration
D) Echolalia
ANSWER: B

237. The behavior most commonly found in the client with schizophrenia
is
A) Sadness and depression
B) Anger and hostility
C) Apathy and flatness
D) Happiness and elation
ANSWER: C

238. The following drugs are antidepressant EXCEPT

A) Zyprexia
B) Zoloft
C) Monoclobemide
D) Clomipramine.
ANSWER: A

239. Which of the following structures in the abdominal cavity has a

longitudinal, circular and oblique muscle fibers
A) Jejunum
B) Caccum
C) Stomach
D) Duodenum
ANSWER: C

240. Pneumatic antishock garment is contraindicated in

A) Open fracture of the femur
B) Anaphylactic shock
C) Bilateral femur fracture
D) Pelvic fracture
ANSWER: A
241. Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by
A) Peripheral numbness, ketosis and hyperplaxia
B) Hypothermia and acute onset of nausea and vomiting
C) Hypoglycaemia and ketoacidosis
D) Hyperglycaema and ketoacidosis
ANSWER: D

242. The function of calcitonin include

A) Physical and mental development
B) Maintenance of plasma calcium level within normal range
C) Regulation of metabolic rate
D) Decreases plasma calcium level
ANSWER: B

243. The following are local factors for wound healing EXCEPT
A) Nutrition
B) Blood supply
C) Dressing technique and suture material
D) Temperature
ANSWER: D

244. The greater volume of water is reabsorbed into the nephron by the
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Loop of Henle
C) Distal convoluted tubule
D) Collecting duct
ANSWER: A

245. The following are endocrine glands EXCEPT

A) Thyroid gland
B) Thymus gland
C) Parathyroid gland
D) Pituitary gland
ANSWER: A

246. The following are examples of zoonotic diseases EXCEPT

A) Metozoa
B) Bovine tuberculosis
C) Pulmonary tuberculosis
D) Brucellosis
ANSWER: A
247. Which of the following should not be eliminated by inducing
vomiting
A) Poisonous plant
B) Kerosene
C) Sleeping pills
D) Aspirin
ANSWER: B

248. Major consequences of immobilization in pediatric patients include

A) Orthostatic hypertension
B) Bone demineralization leading to osteoporosis
C) Decreased metabolic rate
D) Dependent edema in the lower extremities
ANSWER: B

249. The etiology of cerebral palsy is most commonly related to

A) Pre-ecclampsia
B) Existing pre-natal brain abnormalities
C) Maternal asphyxia
D) Childhood meningitis
ANSWER: C

250. The appropriate coma scale used for children in assessing the depth of
coma is called
A) Glassgow coma score
B) Modified Blantyre coma score
C) Glasgow and modified Blantyre coma scale
D) None of the options
ANSWER: B

251. The easiest method of checking the action of the heart in a child aged
13 years is though the
A) Stethoscope
B) Pulse
C) Electroencephalography
D) Electrocardiography
ANSWER: B

252. To obtain sputum specimen for tuberculosis in an infant, the Nurse

may need to
A) Perform gastric lavage
B) Stimulate the infant’s cough reflex
C) Obtain mucous from the throat
 D) Insert a suction catheter into the back of the throat
ANSWER: B

253. The following are clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia EXCEPT

A) Slow pulse rate
B) Profuse sweating
C) Headache
D) Dizziness
ANSWER: A