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108. What is a stereotype and involuntary reaction to a stimulation ?

a. data control
b. a reflex
c. stimulation control
d. automatic stimulation

109. What is an stereotyped and involuntary reaction to a stimulus ?

a. Data control
b. A reflex
c. Stimulation Control
d. Automatic Stimulation

110. Which of the following will result from a conflict between visual input and the Vestibular Apparatus ?
1. a sense of turning when you are not
2. a sense of a light moving outside the aircraft
3. a sense of flying too fast towards the bright lights of a runway
4. a sense of tumbling in a turn
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 only
d. 3 and 4 only

111. How many semi-circular canals are contained in the ear ?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

112. Vertigo can be associated with

a. The Coriolis Effect
b. Autokenesis
c. sweating
d. shivering

113. Hearing through bone conduction

a. by-passes the inner ear
b. by-passes the outer ear
c. by-passes outer and the middle ear
d. is no different from the normal hearing process

114. With regards to the harmful effects of intensive noise on human performance
a. High frequency cause more harm than low frequency
b. Low frequency cause more harm than high frequency
c. Medium cause more harm than high frequency
d. Frequency is not important

115. Ordinarily, levels of noise

a. Increase the number of human errors but do not reduce the speed at which work is done
b. Increase the number of human errors and reduce the speed at which work is done
c. Decrease the number of human errors but do not reduce the speed at which work is done
d. Decrease the number of human errors and reduce the speed at which work is done

116. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by

a. The Central Nervous System
b. The Peripheral Nervous System
c. The Autonomic (Vegetative) Nervous System
d. The Secondary Nervous System

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117. When turning in MIC, head movements should be kept to a minimum to prevent :
a. autokinesis
b. the occulogyiral illusion
c. vertigo
d. Coriolis effect

118. Spatial disorientation is when :

a. The pilot’s seat harness is too tight not allowing the pilot to sense the aircraft’s attitude changes
b. There is a mis-match between the information received from the vestibular apparatus and the instruments
c. The pilot is ignoring illusions
d. Information from the vestibular apparatus is ignored

119. Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is :

1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. approaching over still water at night
a. 1 , 2 & 3 only are correct
b. 1 , 2 & 4 only are correct
c. 1 , 2 , 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 only is correct

120. A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are
symptons of :
a. The Occulogyral Effect
b. Flicker-vertigo
c. Pilot’s Vertigo
d. Nystagmus

121. When a pilot looks at a near object , the :

a. Lens flattens
b. Pupil becomes smaller
c. Cornea becomes more curved
d. Cornea changes shape

122. Which light sensitive cells of the eye are used for night vision ?
a. Cones
b. Rods
c. Cones and Rods
d. None of the above

123. Sunglasses
a. Supply protection for UV and IR
b. Should possess reasonable luminance
c. Absorb colour
d. Straighten the light beams

124. With reference to the following , which are true regarding flash blindness in a thunderstorm with lightning ?
1. Turn up the cockpit lights
2. Look inside the cockpit
3. Wear sunglasses
4. Wear face blinds or use face curtains if installed
a. 1 + 2
b. 1+2+3
c. All
d. 3+ 4

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125. Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B & C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision
1. Vitamin deficiency may decrease night vision performance
2. An excess intake of vitamins A will improve night vision performance significantly
3. Pilots should be careful to take a balanced diet containing sufficient vitamin A
4. Vitamin deficiency may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision
a. All are correct
b. 1 & 3 are false. 2 & 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 & 3 are correct. 4 is false
d. 1 & 3 are correct. 2 & 4 are false

126. Sunglasses with variable transmission light sensitive Photochromic lenses

a. can be disadvantageous when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on UV light which is screened
by the cockpit glass
b. are advantageous for pilots
c. are generally forbidden for use in flight
d. are ideal as long as they are polarized

127. In the indifferent zone altitude band, night vision is affected

a. up to 3,000m
b. 3,000m - 5,000m
c. 5,000m - 7,000m
d. up to 5,000m

128. The eye can adjust to:

a. High levels of illumination in 10 minutes and darkness in 30 minutes
b. High levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes
c. High levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 minutes
d. High levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 seconds

129. When the visual image is focused in front of the retina the condition is:
a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbycusis
d. Astigmatism

130. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have

a. cloudiness of the lens
b. cloudiness of the cornea
c. increased pressure of the eye
d. colour blindness
131. The function of the retina is to
a. convert light images into meaningful information
b. transport electrical impulses to the brain
c. convert light signals into electrical impulses
d. convert light signals into chemical impulses

132. Night flying at 10,000 you find that your acuity decreases. What can you do about it to improve your acuity ?
a. Use your peripheral vision
b. Go onto oxygen
c. Turn up the instrument lights
d. Switch on or turn up the cabin heat

133. Glaucoma is caused by

a. excess pressure within the eye
b. a clouding of the lens
c. damage to the cornea
d. damage to the retina

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134. Good quality sunglasses provide

a. the ability to react to varying light levels automatically.
b. good luminance characteristics, avoidance of glare and harsh shadows, protection against UV and IR and
equal absorption of colours.
c. for the pilot's individual needs.
d. no distortion of aircraft windscreens.

135. The part of the retina which has the highest visual acuity is
a. the optic nerve entry point
b. the retinal optic focus point
c. the fovea
d. the outer sections of the retina

136. How many muscles control the eye ?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

137. The Rods and Cones of the eye converts light energy to
a. Electrical nerve signals
b. Chemical nerve signals
c. Chemical and motor nerve signals
d. Chemical and sensory nerve signals

138. Which of the following does not affect the photo-sensitive cells of the eye ?
1. Rapid acceleration
2. High speed flight
3. Toxic influence (smoking„ alcohol, carbon monoxide etc)
4. Lack of oxygen
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 3 & 4 only

139. What is essential for seeing colour ?

1. Correct light levels
2. Time to adjust
3. Looking 15° to one side of the object
4. No white lights
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 3 only

140. Depth perception when objects are close (less than 1 metre) is achieved by
a. Visual memory
b. Binocular vision
c. The blind spot on the retina
d. Comparison of object sizes

141. As light decreases, the colour sensitivity of the eye

a. increases
b. decreases
c. is not affected
d. magnified

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142. The retina

a. receives electromagnetic energy and, through photochemical reactions, coverts it into photochemical
signals
b. receives light and, through electrical reactions, coverts it into electrical signals
c. receives light and, through electromagnetic reactions, coverts it into photochemical signals
d. receives light signals and, through photochemical reactions coverts them into chemical signals in the
form of pulses

143. Accommodation is triggered by the

a. The Secondary Nervous System
b. The Peripheral Nervous System
c. The Central Nervous System
d. The Autonomic (Vegetative) Nervous System

144. Scotopic vision is vision via the

a. cones
b. rods
c. cones and the rods
d. cornea and the lens

145. What part or parts of the eye is/are responsible for night vision ?
a. The cones
b. The rods
e. The rods and cones
d. The cornea

146. When being affected by the Flicker Effect, the pilot should
a. Turn off the strobe lights
b. Dim the cockpit lights
c. Switch the autopilot on.
d. Fly straight and level and avoiding the turning of the head

147. What is the worse type of incapacitation on finals

a. Sudden
b. Severe
c. Intensive
d. Gradual

148. The most dangerous type of incapacitation is

a. Acute
b. Rapid
c. Insidious
d. None of the above

149. The metabolism of alcohol is

a. Influenced by time
b. Accelerated by drinking coffee
c. Quicker when the body gets used to alcohol
d. Improved by the use of easy-to-get medication.

150. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from
a. Chokes
b. Bends
c. Sinus pain
d. Blurred vision

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151. If a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft suffers from severe flatulence in flight. He/she should
a. Climb
b. Descend
c. Pressure breathe oxygen
d. Descend rapidly and seek medical advice

152. If a pilot experiences negative acceleration (-Gz) what is the effect on the pilot's inertia ?
a. In transverse to the right
b. In transverse to the left
c. Downwards and vertical
d. Upwards and vertical

153. Even with a small ingestion of alcohol

a. the brain will be stimulated thereby increasing the resistance to hypoxia
b. the brain functions will be increased and thereby increasing performance at high altitudes
c. the pilot will remain unaffected
d. the pilot will be more susceptible to hypoxia

154. Which of the following are correct ?

1. Scuba diving imposes no restriction on flying
2. Use of some medication can affect flying
3. One should drink sufficient water during flight to prevent dehydration
4. Diet does not have an effect on health
a. 2&3
b. 1,2&3
c. 2,3&4
d. 1,2,3&4

155. Greyout can result from G forces greater than:

a. +3G y
b. +3G z
c. -3G z
d. +3G x

156. What is the blood alcohol concentration associated with a highly significant increase in errors associated
with both experienced and inexperienced pilots even in a simple aircraft ?
a. 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters
b. 40 milligrams per 100 milliliters
c. 60 milligrams per 100 milliliters
d. 80 milligrams per 100 milliliters

157. JAR-OPS specifies a maximum blood alcohol limit. What is it ?

a. 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters
b. 40 milligrams per 100 milliliters
c. 60 milligrams per 100 milliliters
d. 80 milligrams per 100 milliliters

158. Pain in the cavities of the skull which accompanies a change of altitude is known as
a. Staggers
b. Bends
c. Barotrauma
d. Creeps

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159. With regard to alcohol

a. Does not effect performance
b. Even a small amount will effect performance
c. Drinking coffee with alcohol reduces the effects
d. It effects Orthodox sleep

160. A passenger complains if an inflated stomach at 8,000 ft. What action would you advised the passenger to take ?
1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach
2. Avoid eating food with fermentation qualities and/or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel the gases from the intestines
4. Drink large amounts of water
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. 4 only
d. 1 , 2 & 3

161. If you switch on the anti-collision light in IMC, what are the likely effects ?
a. Depth perception increases
b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation
c. You can suffer from Colour Illusion
d. Binocular vision is affected

162. While carrying out a spin in an aircraft the pilot will experience
a. Angular acceleration
b. Radial acceleration
c. Negative acceleration
d. Static acceleration

163. Most ozone is found in the

a. Thermosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere

164. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent. Should you

a. Put one hand over the effected ear
b. Level off and, if necessary, climb to the level where it first occurred
c. Increase the rate of descent
d. Keep the head still and continue descending at a slower rate

165. The metabolism of alcohol

a. is affected by time
b. can be affected by caffeine
c. is reduced by readily available drugs
d. does not occur in the human body

166. If feeling unwell before a flight should you ?

1. Take over-the-counter medicine and consult an Aviation Specialist doctor at the return of the flight
2. Assess your own fitness and, if necessary, consult an Aviation
3. If in any doubt about your fitness, do not fly
4. Turn the cockpit temperature down and drink water before you are thirsty to avoid dehydration
a. 2 and 3 only
b. ,,1 only
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 only

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167. What is the first symptom of high radial acceleration ?

a. Grey out
b. Unconsciousness
c. Red out
d. Black out

168. What are the physiological systems which are involved with motion sickness
1. Auditory
2. Vestibular
3. Visual
4. Proprioceptive
5. Gastro-intestinal
a. 2 , 3 & 4
b. 1 , 3 & 5
c. 1 , 2 & 5
d. 2, 3 , 4 & 5

169. In tropical regions you should

a. Ensure you put ice into all cold drinks
b. Drink only from sealed containers
c. Eat raw vegetables whenever possible
d. Ensure you eat unpeeled fruit because of possible vitamin loss

170. Which of the following are among the symptoms of Otic Barotrauma in one or both ears?
a. Noise
b. Increase of pressure in the ear causing pain
c. Dizziness
d. The Bends

171. To avoid hypoglycemia

a. A pilot should not eat a meal
b. A pilot should not eat sugar or sweets
c. A pilot should eat regularly and ensure a balanced diet
d. A pilot should eat peanuts because they produce high energy levels

172. Alcohol is a
a. Peripheral Nervous System stimulant
b. Central Nervous System stimulant
c. Central Nervous system depressant
d. Vegetative System stimulant

173. The Flicker Effect

a. rarely causes spatial disorientation in pilots
b. is one of the main causes of spatial disorientation in pilots
c. can result in severe degradation of visual adaption
d. can result in severe degradation of sensory adaption

174. Ozone in a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by

a. Spraying detergents
b. Climbing to an altitude above 45,000 ft
c. Avoiding flights above the equator
d. Using ozone-converters

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175. The first effect on the human being subjected to gradual exposure of high positive radial acceleration is
a. loss of consciousness
b. black-out
c. red-out
d. grey-out

176. What is the order of symptoms that can be expected due to sustained positive g forces
a. unconsciousness, black-out, grey-out, and tunnel vision
b. unconsciousness, grey-out, black-out and tunnel vision
c. black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness
d. grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness

177. Concerning barotrauma which of the following statements is true ?

a. Baratrauma is associated with a sink rate which is greater than the ability of the body to balance its
internal pressures
b. Baratrauma is caused by pressure differentials between the ambient pressure and the gases in the cavities
of the body
c. Baratrauma is more likely to happen in the ascent than the descent
d. Baratrauma is caused by a decrease in altitude associated with an increase in the partial pressure of
oxygen

178. Anxiety affects

1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 1 , 2 & 4
d. All

179. Hypothermia causes a

a. Decrease in the demand for oxygen
b. Increase in the demand for oxygen and eventually lends to unconsciousness
c. Increase in the demand for oxygen
d. None of the above

180. Which , if any, of the following is/are true ?

1. Psychosomatic refers to the interrelationships of mind and body
2. Psychosomatic refers to a psychological reaction to an outside stimulus causing physiological
change/changes
3. Psychosomatic problems are not common among the pilot community due to the high standard of
selection
4. Psychosomatic problems can be cured by conseling
a. 1 and 3
b. None are correct
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2

181. With reference to Humidity :

1. 40-60% is optional
2. Cabin humidity is normally 5% - 15%
3. Dehydration will affect crew performance
4. Humidity has no effect on crew performance
a. 1 & 4 are correct
b. 1 , 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 & 4 are correct
d. Only 3 is correct

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182. Above and below what body temperatures will there be there be a degradation of mental and physical
capabilities ?
a. Above 38oC Below 35oC
b. Above 36oC Below 35oC
c. Above 38oC Below 27oC
d. Above 36oC Below 25oC

183. When faced with a problem a pilot should :

a. Take as much time as he/she needs within the available time to make up his/her mind
b. Make up his/her mind as quickly as possible to give as much spare time as possible
c. Make up his/her mind before consulting other crew members
d. Wait until the last minute to make up his/her mind

184. Which of the following statements are correct ? :

1. Psychosomatic stress causes physiological symptoms to have psychological effects
2. Psychosomatic stress hardly affects aviation because of good crew selection procedures
a. 1 & 2
b. Neither
c. 1 only
d. 2 only

185. Stressors are

a. External factors only
b. Internal factors only
c. Both external and internal factors
d. Neither external nor internal factors

186. Performance can be increased by

a. putting a student pilot under stress
b. a moderate amount of stress
c. no stress at all if possible
d. ignoring stress as all good pilots leave stress on the ground

187. The sequence of GAS is.

a. Alarm Resistance Exhaustion
b. Resistance Exhaustion Alarm
c. Alarm Flight Exhaustion
d. Exhaustion Resistance Alarm

188. A person suffering from extreme cold will stop shivering and thereafter become colder and colder when the
internal body falls to about
a. 20°C
b. 25°C
c. 30°C
d. 35°C

189. At height cockpit humidity can be between

a. 20-25%
b. 40-60%
c. 30-60%
d. 5-15%

190. Tuned resonance of the body parts, distressing the individual can be caused by
a. Acceleration along the horizontal flight path
b. Resonance between 150 - 250 Hz
c. Resonance between 16 - 18 Ghz
d. Resonance between 1 - 100 Hz

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191. If in a state of stress which is impossible to overcome, the pilot will be in a state of
a. Eustress
b. Hypertension
c. Distress
d. Regression

192. What will happen to the body when in situations of extreme heat ?
1. Shivering
2. Vascoconstriction of the exterior blood vessels
3. Sweating
4. Vascodilation of the exterior blood vessels
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only

193. A person that is exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
a. Distress
b. Eustress
c. Coping stress
d. Stressors

194. What is the relationship between stress and performance when plotted on a graph ?
a. The relationship is linear
b. The relationship is exponential
c. There is no relationship
d. The relationship is in the shape of an inverted U

195. What is the relationship between stress and fatigue ?

a. No stress and no fatigue is good
b. All stress and fatigue is good
c. Stress can be good, fatigue is always bad
d. No stress and some fatigue is good

196. The body loses water via

a. The skin, lungs and kidneys
b. The skin
c. The skin, lungs and liver
d. The skin, liver and kidneys

197. Extreme cold may be associated with

a. Aggression
b. Aggression and anxiety
c. Anxiety
d. Contentment or apathy

198. According to the "General Adaptation Syndrome" which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. During the alarm phase adrenalin will cause a large release of glucose into the blood, a raised heartbeat
and blood pressure plus an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system released cortisol helping in the conversion of fat
into sugar.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively
a. 1 & 2 only are correct
b. 2 & 3 only are correct
c. 1, 2 & 3 are correct
d. only 1 is correct

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199. An individual's perception of stress

a. depends on the current situation only
b. is the objective evaluation of a situation and the perceived ability to cope with it
c. is the subjective evaluation of a situation and the perceived ability to cope with it
d. depends on the individual's arousal

200. Which of the following alternatives is an example of "Negative Habit Transfer" or "Habit Reversion" ?
a. A pilot who is very experienced on one type of aircraft in which the fuel control is selected forward for
the ON position may select this control to the incorrect position when flying a new aircraft in which the ON
position is selected to the rear.
b. Predicting ATC instructions
c. Turning the aircraft in one direction when intending to turn it in the opposite direction
d. Missing out an item in a check list

201. Stress Management strategies normally involve

a. Only the prevention of stress
b. Only the removal of stress
c. the use of drugs
d. the prevention and the removal of stress

202. What is the duration of short-term memory (working memory) ?

a. 1 - 2 hours
b. 1 - 2 days
c. 1 - 2 months
d. 10 - 20 seconds

203. If the sensory threshold is increased

a. Selectivity is increased
b. Selectivity is decreased
c. Sensitivity is reduced
d. Sensitivity is increased

204. Which of the following is correct

a. Hearing is the most important sense for man
b. 'The Kinestatic channel is the most important channel in flying
c. 70% of information processed by man enters the visual channel
d. 40% of information processed by man enters the visual channel

205. The learning process can be facilitated by

a. Reinforcing successful endeavours
b. Punishing errors
c. Increasing psychological pressure on the student
d. Encouraging the student to make mistakes

206. Motor programmes

a. are stored as rules in the long term memory
b. are behavioural sub-routines
c. require conscious though to engage
d. are natural reactions

207. What error rate can be expected to be given reasonable training ?

a. 1 in 100,000
b. 1 in 10,000
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 100

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208. What human error rate is considered to be the norm ?

a. 1 in 10
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 10,000

209. If you have an incorrect mental model, it is

1. easy to change
2. easy to comprehend
3. easy recognise
4. resistance to correction
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1 only

210. Which of the following can you do simultaneously without mutually affecting the other ?
a. Manually maintaining straight and level flight and solving a complex problem.
b. Reading and listening attentively.
c. Talking and entering frequencies into the Working Memory.
d. Talking and solving a complex problem.

211. Age
a. generally decreases pilot's performance
b. generally increases pilot's performance
c. generally has little effect on pilots' performance since it is compensated for by experience
d. generally increases performance until approximately the age of 32 and therefore generally decreases
performance

212. Errors that occur during a highly automated action may result from
1. Capture of a poor action sub-programme
2. A mistake in the decision-making process
3. Implication of a poor rule
4. an action mode error
a. 2 , 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 & 4

213. Which statement concerning LTM is true ?

1. Information is stored as Episodic and Semantic memory
2. The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which it is used
3. It is never influenced by our expectations of what should have happened
4. Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow reduction in access time
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 2 & 4 are correct
c. 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 & 2 are correct

214. The thinking concerning human error has changed recently to

a. Human error is inherent and inescapable
b. It has been accepted that human error will always be made but can be decreased by training and
technology.
c. Error can be eliminated completely in the future
d. Human error can be avoided through vigilance and expansion of knowledge

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215. Over learning

a. improves the chance of recall and makes the performance of a task more resistance to stress and is an
important concept of aviation training
b. is a process which is discouraged in the aviation training as it may lead to "Regression" in times of acute
stress
c. is a process in training which is usually adopted in order to pass complicated concepts to a recipient of
limited capabilities
d. is the process whereby information is layered and linked with previously learned facts and is an
important tool to improve Short-term Memory

216. Environmental capture is

1. Obtaining environmental skills
2. performing a skill in an environment commonly flown in, even if it is incorrect to do so.
3. the performance of a skill previously learnt in a different aircraft even f it incorrect to do so.
4. The way behaviour changes in different social situations.
a. 1 & 2 are correct
b. all are correct
c. 1 only
d. 2 & 3 are correct

217. With regard to automation of behaviour and the attention mechanism

a. The less behaviour is automated, the less attention is required and the more are resources available.
b. The more behaviour is automated, the more attention is required and the more are resources available
c. The more behaviour is automated, the more attention is required and the less resources available
d. The more behaviour is automated, the less attention is required and the more are resources available.

218. Mental models of the world are based on

a. past experiences and sensory information
b. past xperiences only
c. past experiences and motor programmes (skills)
d. only sensory information

219. A pilot becomes skilled when he/she

1. trains or practices regularly
2. knows how to manage him/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his/her aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
a. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b. all are correct
c. 1 & 2 only are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct

220. Mental models are based upon

a. entirely on past experiences
b. past experiences and motor programmes
c. sensory information only
d. past experiences and sensory information received

221. Once a mental model is constructed, there is a tendency to give

a. undue weight to information that contradicts the model
b. equal weight to information that contradicts and confirms the mental model
c. frequent alterations to the mental model
d. undue weight to information that confirms the model

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222. Motor programmes save resources and therefore attention however they may result in
a. errors in selecting the correct plan of action
b. errors in decision-making
c. routine errors
d. istakes

223. Mental rehearsal is useful for

a. all pilots
b. instructor pilots only
c. only for pilots with a specific level of experience
d. student pilots only

224. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. The first information determines how subsequent information will evaluated
2. If an individual has made up his/her mind, contradictory information may not receive the attention it
needs
3. With increasing stress, attention tends to become limited and reduce the flow of information to the
Central Decision Maker

a. 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b. 2 & 3 only are correct
c. 1 & 2 only are correct
d. 1 & 3 only are correct

225. When problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to knowledge-based
activities
a. Knowledge of rules that apply for the problem
b. Unsuitability of automated actions
c. Unsuitability of known rules for the problem posed
d. Lack of knowledge of the rules

226. Which of the following are included in Maslow's hierarchy of needs

1. Self-fulfilment through expression of capacities and talents
2. Self-esteem through self respect
3. Safety through avoidance of danger
4. Achievement through group efforts
5. Self-esteem through a job

a. All of the above

b. 1, 2 & 4 only
c. 1 & 5 only
d. 1,3 &5 only

227. When do we change from Rule Based Behaviour to Knowledge Based Behaviour ?
a. When we choose to do so
b. When we do not know the rules
c. When rules do not apply
d. When we become highly experienced

228. Which of the following can be said to be true ?

a. Motivation can substitute for a lack of knowledge
b. Motivation is only a psychological phenomenon
c. Motivation can lead to trying to attain an unrealistic goal which will cause stress and which will lead to a
reduction in performance
d. Motivation is only intrinsic

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229. Very high ambition and drive for success can lead to
a. conflict in the cockpit
b. improved performance
c. a "laiser faire" cockpit situation
d. improved cohesion and mutual consideration

230. With respect to Maslow's hierarchy of needs (1943) he expounded that

a. Motives lower in the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
b. Motives higher in the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
c. Motives in the middle of the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
d. Any level may be aroused and there is no significance as to which must be satisfied first

231. With respect to the subcutaneous pressure receptors, they sense

a. The condition of the body
b. Spatial orientation of the body
c. Pressure on the body indicating true vertical
d. Environmental conditions

232. A pilot is accustomed to a runway with a width of 27m and lands on an unfamiliar runway with a width of
42m. The pilot will tend to
a. Fly a too high an approach and overshoot
b. Fly a too low an approach and overshoot
c. Fly a too high an approach and undershoot
d. Fly a too low an approach and undershoot

233. The Gestalt Theory relates to

a. Motivation
b. Perception and organisation
c. Personality traits
d. Faults and slips

234. When staring at an isolated light at night, the light may appear to
a. vary in size
b. move
c. vary in colour
d. vary in intensity

235. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog, snow or mist are that
a. Objects appear further away than they really are
b. Objects appear closer than they really are
c. Objects appear to move slower than they really do
d. Objects appear to move faster than they really do

236. Cognitive illusions are caused by:

a. Poor interpretation of cockpit instruments
b. Lack of external reference points
c. Conflict between different senses
d. Erroneous mental model resulting from a misinterpretation of sensory inputs

237. What should you do if disorientated at night:

a. Ignore your instruments
b. Look at the horizon
c. Descend
d. Rely on your instruments

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238. Where are the Pressoreceptors located ?

a. In the heart
b. In the skin
c. In the carotid sinus
d. In the intestines

239. The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by
a. Snow and a tailwind
b. Snow and a tail wind
c. Rain and a headwind
d. A unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

240. Errors in the judgment of height on an approach are more likely over
a. snow
b. mountains
c. jungle
d. rough seas

241. To cure Autokinesis

a. First focus on the light with the right eye and then the left
b. Shake the head and turn down the cockpit lights
c. Look at the light out of the corner of your eye
d. Look for other references inside and outside the cockpit and use peripheral vision

242. The Seat-of -the-Pants sensation emanates from receptors in the

a. Utricles and Saccules
b. Semi-circular canals
c. muscles and joints sensitive to the movement and position of the body
d. skin

243. What is the illusion when an aircraft is flying in fog, snow or haze ?
a. Objects appear to be further away than they actually are
b. Objects appear to be closer than they actually are
c. Objects appear to move faster than they actually are
d. Objects appear to be larger than they actually are

244. What is the normal illusion for a pilot undertaking an approach on an up- sloping runway ?
a. The aircraft is too high
b. The aircraft is too low
c. The aircraft is too fast
d. The aircraft is too slow

245. On an approach at night in rain onto a runway with approach lighting it is it not unusual for the approach to
appear
a. Slower than it actually is
b. Faster than it actually is
c. normal
d. curved

246. Flying by the "seat of one's pants"

a. gives a feeling of coming up and out of your seat
b. Is not reliable and does not indicate spatial orientation
c. Is reliable and indicates spatial orientation
d. Is not reliable and indicates spatial orientation

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247. Input for orientation is through

1. Eyes
2. Utricles & Saccules
3. Semi-circular canals
4. Seat-of -the-pants receptors

a. 2 & 3 only
b. 3 & 4 only
c. 1, 2 & 4 only
d. 1,2,3&4

248. 1. Paradoxic sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body.

2. Paradoxic sleep decreases during the night Which is correct
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. Neither

249. Which of the following statements are correct ? Hypovigilance is increased by:
1. Lack of stimulation
2. Tiredness
3. Monotony 4. Stress
a. 1,2&3
b. 1,2&4
c. 1 & 3
d. l & 4

250. Which of the following are correct with regard to Circadian Disrhymthmia ?
1. The effects are worse when travelling from East to West
2. The effects are worse when travelling from West to East
3. Varies little between individuals
4. Varies substantially between individuals

a. 2 & 4 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 2 only
d. l, 3 and 4 only

251. The characteristics of Paradoxic Sleep are

1. efreshes body and muscle tone
2. REM
3. Decreases during the night
4. Brain activity similar to that of being awake

a. all are correct

b. 1,2&3
c. 2&4
d. 1 & 2

252. A pilot flies to Moscow (2 hours ahead of home time) with a 4 day stop-over. After 3 days his/her circadian
rhythm corresponds to
a. Local time
b. Home time
c. Central Europe time
d. UTC

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253. What is the maximum number of sleep "credits" for the normal person
a. 24
b. 48
c. 16
d. 72

254. What would disrupt the biological clock ?

1. A night flight from New York to Amsterdam
2. A day flight from Amsterdam to New York
3. A day flight from Amsterdam to Johannesburg
4. A poor night's sleep

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 1 and 2 only are correct
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 & 4 only

255. What characterizes a self-centered cockpit ?

a. Autocratic Captain assures a synergistic cockpit
b. Crew member tends to do their own jobs independently without keeping other informed
c. A synergistic cockpit
d. A non-synergistic cockpit in which the Captain tends to be authoritarian

256. Attitude is
a. a synonym of behaviour
b. a genetic predisposition to be biased either positively or negatively
c. acting and thinking subjectively
d. How a person responds to another person, situation or organisation either positively or negatively

257. Personality is based on:

1. Heredity
2. Childhood
3. Upbringing
4. Experience

a. None of the above

b. 1, 2, and 4.
C. All of the above
D. 2, 3 and 4

258. During the pre-flight brief the aircraft commander should:

a. Delegate all duties to all crew members for the entire flight
b. Emphasise that he/she is in charge
c. Emphasise areas requiring good crew co-ordination
d. Ensure all points are covered for the flight to avoid repetition in the cockpit?

259. Attitude is
a. part of personality and cannot be changed in an adult
b. a person's response to a situation, person or object
c. the same as behaviour
d. stable and cannot be changed in an adult

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260. Leadership qualities should include

1. A dominant style
2. Laiser Faire
3. Technical competency
4. Good communications
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 & 4 only

261. During the cruise, the Captain of an aircraft starts to smoke a cigarette. The co-pilot is a nonsmoker and
asks him to stop. The Captain ignores his request saying "That's your problem". What the co-pilot do about
the situation ?
a. He should call one of the cabin crew and ask him/her to arbitrate
b. He should argue with the Captain pointing out the potential dangers
c. He must accept his Captain's behaviour since it is the Captain who is responsible.
d. He should stop discussion and return to the issue during the debrief at the end of the flight.

262. What characteristics are most frequently and least appropriately displayed by a co-pilot when under
command of a highly autocratic Captain'?
1. Self assertion
2. Scapegoat feeling
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies 4. Disengagement
a. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2 are correct

263. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a. Personality is easily changed
b. Attitudes do not change in the long-term
c. Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude
d. Attitude is the outward result of behaviour and personality

264. Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal inter-actions are correct ?
1. If the sender believes that the receiver is competent, he/she tends to reduce the verbal redundancy of his
/her sentence
2. If the interlocutor is of non-native tongue, the sender will use more difficult words so as to optimise
understanding
3. If the sender believes that the receiver does not understand, he/she will simplify the contents of the
sentence
4. By making check-lists simpler, for crews that know each other, this is the root cause of interpersonal
conflict.

a. 1 & 2 are only correct

b. I & 3 are only correct
c. 2 & 4 are only correct
d. 3 & 4 are only correct

265. Metacommunications:
a. are of no importance in the cockpit
b. are shortcuts
c. are barriers to intea-conflict
d. compliment verbal communications

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266. What is not a useful element of good feedback ?

a. Tailor to the individual
b. Enable response and discussion
c. Specifically target each individual's failings
d. Should be understood by all

267. What constitutes effective communications ?

a. Speaking in a variety of mother tongues
b. Using different context which would be understood by the receiver
c. Considering cultural differences
d. Using commonly understood context, language and metacommunications

268. What is the main purpose of pre-flight briefings ?

a. To allow the Captain to assert his/her authority
b. To allow individual crew member to prepare their own responses to likely or problematic events
c. They form general information about the flight but they contain no specific reference to likely or
problematic events
d. They form information about the flight and allocate responsibilities and reactions to likely or problematic
events

269. Pilots should

a. have a good command of the English language
b. have at least a limited English vocabulary
c. be able to understand key words and phases only since these are sufficient to sufficiently impart meaning
d. be able to have a command of a local language since this is sufficient and legal in an emergency

270. To resolve conflict you should :

1. Actively listen
2. Talk on an emotional level
3. Be aware of prejudice
4. The leader should not offer his/her thoughts at the start
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 , 3 and 4
d. 1 & 3 only

271. Which of the following elements of communications is most likely to lead o misunderstanding ?
a. Coding and decoding a message
b. The Receiver’s mood
c. Expectation (What you expect to hear )
d. The Sender’s nationality

272. Choose is/are the correct statement/s with regards to communications :

1. If the transmitter considers the reciptient competent , he/she cut down the verbal redundancy of
sentences
2. If the transmitter considers the recipient incompetent , sentences tend to be simplified
3. If the interlocutor is a non-native language, the transmitter will emphasise points by using more
complicated sentences to optimize understanding
4. Crew who know each other well tend to simplify check lists when conflict takes place
a. 1 and 3 are correct
b. 1 only is correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2 are correct

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273. In communication which element shows that information has been received and understood ?
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Feedback
d. Synchronization

274. With regards to anticipation, which of the following would most likely to result in the occurrence of a
hazardous situation ?
a. mishearing the contents of an air traffic controller's non-standard clearance when a standard procedure
was anticipated.
b. anticipation of a check list
c. anticipation of weather
d. anticipation of a longer flight time than expected

275. Which of the following represent a solution to conflict ?

1. Seeking arbitration
2. Active listening
3. Moving the conversation onto an emotional level
4. Awareness of cultural differences
a. 1,2and3
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 4

276. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to automation ?
a. Automation increases Situational Awareness
b. Enables the pilot to respond to unusual situations better since there is no need to monitor automatics.
c. Reduces pilot's attention since they can be out of the loop
d. Saves time

277. Co-action is a form of co-operation that involves:

a. Working in parallel towards a common goal
b. Working in parallel towards separate goals
c. Working independently
d. Duplicating actions

278. A latent error

1. will show itself in time
2. will not be foreseen by programmers
3. lies dormant
4. only becomes apparent under certain conditions
5. will easily be recognised by operators
a. 1,4&5
b. 1,2,3,&4
c. 3 only
d. 1,3,4&5

279. Murphy's Law states that

a. Even if a system can be designed correctly, it will always be mis-used
b. If a system can be operated incorrectly, sooner or later it will be
c. If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be guarded
d. If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be backed up by a second system

280. The alerting system for an important system failure should be

a. a flashing visual signal - preferably red
b. a doll's eye indicator
c. an audio warning
d. a steady visual signal - preferably red

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281. Between which components of the SHELL Concept would create a mismatch when reading a 3 point altimeter ?
a. L and E
b. L and S
c. L and L
d. L and H

282. The introduction of automation and improvements in glass cockpit designs

a. can sometimes be detrimental to performance as some systems provide poor quality feedback to pilots
b. give better communications in the cockpit, as pilots have more time to communicate
c. improve man/machine interface due to artificial intelligence in modern FMS
d. almost completely remove the need to communicate with ATC

283. What would be the priority aim in the design of man/machine interface in combating the occurrence of
Human Error ?
a. To eliminate latent errors
b. To minimize the consequences of the appearance or non-appearance of errors with respect to safety
c. To systematically analyze the occurrences of errors to improve the future design of systems and
ergonomics
d. To generate clear warnings and alerts

284. Between which stage will a human error be induced in the interface of a warning system ?
a. L-H
b. E-L
c. L-S
d. L-L

285. Check lists are most important when

a. flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before.
b. flying an aircraft with which you are not familiar and when under stress
c. conducting a long flight
d. flying an aircraft in which you are current

286. Errors resulting from a bad indexing system in a checklist or manual are related to a mismatch between
a. Software to Hardware
b. Liveware to Software
c. Liveware to Environment
d. Liveware to Liveware

287. Which of the following are performed better by Man than machine ?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Detection of unusual conditions such as smell or noise
3. Qualitative decision-making
4. Monitoring of systems
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only

288. SOP's in the cockpit must

a. only be tailored to the type of aircraft regardless of current MCC procedures
b. follow implicitly the manufacturer's suggestions and not reflect the Operator's cockpit procedures
c. be shared by the members of the crew and modified/updated so as to maintain as much synergy as
possible
d. be tailored to the individual pilot's needs and requirements

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289. The term `complacency' means

a. to query and double-check possible solutions
b. synergy between the co-pilot and the Commander emanating from CRM procedures
c. physiological problems resulting from the fear of flying
d. unjustified self-confidence resulting in careless negligence

290. One of the negative aspects of automation is

a. It can lead to complacency of the aircrew
b. Pilots tend to be overloaded when trying to monitor the equipment
c. Crews become less experienced because the ease of control
d. Pilots tend to disregard the equipment

291. With reference to decision-making, it is

a. An automatic function
b. Conscious and voluntary after assessing the options
c. An arbitrary decision
d. A systematic and analytical process

292. A efficient flight deck crew is one which

a. respect each other's decision and views
b. is a constituted crew
c. respect each other's political and religious persuasions
d. is laiser faire

293. Confirmation Bias of the decision-making process is

a. To ignore information which indicates that a hypothesis or decision is poor
b. Not to seek information which confirms the decision
c. Not to look for information which would reassure the correct decision
d. To look for facts that confirm expectations before making a decision

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