Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

16 (31-36)HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 4

1. An individual who has consumed a moderate amount of alcohol prior to sleep is likely to have:
a) a longer sleep.
b) less REM sleep.
c) more slow wave sleep.
d) more REM sleep.

2. If a pilot's seat is set too low on the approach, the effect would be to:
a) obscure the overshoot.
b) obscure the flight instruments.
c) obscure the undershoot.
d) all of the above.

3. In the late stages of an approach, ground proximity is judged by:

a) colour and contrast of ground features.
b) position of the aircraft nose relative to the horizon.
c) texture and relative speed of ground features.
d) position of the aircraft nose relative to the visual aiming point.

4. Which of the following graphs represents the relationship between arousal and performance?
a) Inverted "U"
b) "U" shaped
c) Straight line rising at 45° angle
d) Straight line descending at 45° angle

5. An individual's performance is adversely affected by:

a) high arousal state.
b) low arousal state
c) neither high nor low arousal state.
d) both high and low arousal states.

6. Following a sudden decompression at 30,000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be:
a) 2 minutes.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 4 to 5 minutes.

7. A motor programme is:

a) one that is based on knowledge and experience.
b) the way that a checklist is actioned.
c) one that requires conscious thought throughout its action.
d) one that is learned by practice and repetition and which may be executed without conscious thought.

8. The main factor in the focussing of the human eye is:

a) the cornea.
b) the lens.
c) the iris.
d) the internal fluid in the eyeball.

9. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Poor communications are of little significance in incidents and accidents.
b) Coding communication behaviour improves flight safety.
c) Interpersonal communications have little significance in the modern cockpit as all situations are covered
by manuals.
d) Problems in the personal relations between crew members hamper their communication process.

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10. In decision making the decision of an average group member is usually:

a) worse than the group decision.
b) better than the group decision.
c) the same as the group decision.
d) excluded from the group decision.

11. Referring to the Body Mass Index, a man weighing 81 kg. Who is 175 cm tall would be:
a) considered to be within the normal weight range.
b) considered to be overweight.
c) considered to be obese.
d) considered to be underweight.

12. Once an individual has made a decision regarding a situation, he is most likely to:
a) give too much weight to information that tends to confirm the original decision.
b) give equal weight to information that confirms or contradicts that decision.
c) give insufficient weight to information that confirms the original decision.
d) give too much weight to information that goes against the original decision

13. An individual's body temperature will be at its lowest at:

a) 0900 body time.
b) 2300 body time.
c) 0500 body time.
d) 1100 body time.

14. Hypertension is:

a) a high level of stress.
b) low blood pressure.
c) a high workload.
d) high blood pressure.

15. A pilot suffering disorientation should:

a) rely on the vestibular apparatus.
b) Rely on his somatosensory system (`seat of the pants').
c) Line up with a visual reference (e.g. horizon).
d) Re-erect the flight instruments.

16. An individual with an introverted personality is likely to be:

a) cautious.
b) Sociable.
c) Uninhibited.
d) Outgoing.

17. During a general briefing at the preflight stage the captain should emphasise.
a) the complete delegation of all duties.
b) the importance of crew coordination.
c) the priority of departing on schedule.
d) the avoidance of inadequate handling of controls.

18. Mental training is helpful in improving flying skills:

a) mainly for student pilots.
b) mainly for pilots undertaking instructional duties.
c) at all levels of flying experience.
d) only when the student has reached a certain level of flying experience.

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19. The response by the receiver to the sender by confirming the reception of the message is:
a) synchronization.
b) redundancy.
c) transference.
d) feedback.

20. The group of small bones (the ossicles) in the ear:

a) transmit air vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear.
b) convert vibrations in the inner ear to small electric currents for detection by the auditory nerve.
c) convert air vibrations to vibrations in the liquid of the cochlea.
d) transmit vibrations of the ear drum to the semi-circular canals of the inner ear.

21. Gastro-enteritis would prevent an individual from flying as a crew member:

a) always.
b) possibly, if severe.
c) if not treated by an aviation specialist doctor.
d) never.

22. An ideal leader would be:

a) goal directed and person directed.
b) goal directed only.
c) person directed only.
d) neither goal nor person directed, but moderate and accommodating.

23. The severity of noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is determined by:
a) the volume of noise experienced.
b) the duration of high noise levels experienced.
c) a break down in the conducting system of the ear.
d) the volume and duration of the noise experienced.

24. Which of the following diseases causes the greatest number of deaths each year?
a) Bubonic plague.
b) Malaria.
c) AIDS.
d) Smallpox.

25. The time elapsed before flying as crew or passenger after diving using compressed air if a depth of over 30
ft has been exceeded is:
a) 48 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) No limitation.

26. The major contribution to our perception of orientation is:

a) the visual sense.
b) the vestibular apparatus.
c) our previous experience.
d) the somato-sensory system.

27. An authoritarian individual tends to be:

a) a weak leader and bad underling.
b) a forceful leader and a good underling.
c) a forceful leader and a submissive underling.
d) a weak leader but a good underling.

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28. If an individual is awakened after a short sleep, then the next period of sleep will:
a) be a normal sleep pattern.
b) contain a higher than normal amount of REM sleep.
c) contain a greater proportion of slow wave sleep.
d) contain more stages one and two sleep.

29. Human behaviour is determined by which of the following?

a) Biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences.
b) Biological characteristics.
c) The social environment.
d) Cultural influences and heredity.

30. What are the various means which allow for better detection of errors`?
1. Improvement of the man-machine interface.
2. Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.
3. Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures on the part of crews.
4. Adaptation of visual alarms for all systems.
The correct statements are:
a) 1 and 3.
b) 2,3 and 4.
c) 1,2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.

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16 (37-42)HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 5

1. With regard to communication in cockpits, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to
be carried out at the same time.
b) Communication uses resources, thus limiting resources allocated to work in progress.
c) Communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their number.
d) All the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc are stable and
are not much affected changes in workload.

2. The term `attitudes' is used to describe:

a) the predisposition for acting in a particular manner.
b) a synonym for ability.
c) a synonym for behaviour.
d) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity.

3. Stress management is:

a) the effect on an individual in a managerial, or other responsible, position of the pressures of that job.
b) the stress upon an employee caused by the pressures imposed by the management or his superiors at
work.
c) the process by which individuals adopt systems to assist in coping with stress.
d) the use of a process, such as relaxation techniques, to remove the stress source.

4. Individuals are more likely to comply with a decision made a person who they perceive as:
a) larger than they are.
b) of a higher status.
c) having a better education than themselves.
d) being of a greater age.

5. A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can:

a) continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment.
b) never fly again as an operating pilot.
c) fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot.
d) return to flying duties after a suitable course of treatment is complete.

6. Risky shift is:

a) the tendency for extroverts to take more risks than introverts.
b) the tendency for military pilots to take more risks than civilian pilots.
c) the tendency of a group to make a more risky decision than the average individual within the group.
d) the tendency for individuals to take more risky decisions when transferred to a different aircraft type.

7. Very high ambition and a need for achievement:

a) meets the requirement for stress resistance.
b) disturbs the climate of cooperation.
c) always promotes effective teamwork.
d) makes it easier for an individual to cope with personal failures.

8. Reducing alcohol in an individual's blood:

a) is only achieved by the passage of time.
b) can be accelerated by the use of coffee or other drinks containing caffeine.
c) is more rapid when the individual is a regular alcohol user.
d) can be speeded up by the use of medication.

9. Long or short sightedness is normally caused by:

a) distortion of the cornea.
b) the shape of the whole eyeball.
c) distortion of the lens.
d) a malfunction of the iris.

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10. Barotrauma caused by the inability of the eustachian tube to equalize external and internal pressure in the
descent will lead to a pressure difference between the outside air and:
a) the inner ear.
b) the vestibular apparatus.
c) the middle ear.
d) the cochlea.

11. `Environment capture' may lead to:

a) errors of rule based behaviour.
b) errors of knowledge based behaviour.
c) errors of semantic memory.
d) errors of skill based behaviour.

12. A runway that slopes downwards when approaching may induce the pilot to:
a) land long into the runway.
b) make a shallow approach.
c) land short.
d) go around.

13. When a pilot has no external visual references, a deceleration in straight and level flight can give the
impression of:
a) the nose of the aircraft pitching up.
b) the nose of the aircraft pitching down.
c) a sudden height loss.
d) a banking of the aircraft.

14. Episodic memory is:

a) a memory of events, held in short term memory.
b) a memory of information, held in short term memory.
c) a memory of information, held in long term memory.
d) a memory of events, held in long term memory.

15. The use of alcohol, drugs or tobacco to counter the effects of stress is an example of:
a) action coping
b) cognitive coping.
c) symptom directed coping.
d) bio-feedback technique.

16. A cockpit warning of an emergency should:

a) startle to gain attention.
b) illuminate a flashing red light.
c) make a noise symptomatic of the problem
d) be attention getting without being startling.

17. In processing information an attentional mechanism is required because:

a) working memory has a limited capacity.
b) processing capacity is limited.
c) echoic and iconic memories have a very short retention time.
d) it will activate a selection from episodic or semantic memory.

18. The function of slow wave sleep is believed to be:

a) a period of rest to allow restoration of the body tissues.
b) a period to rest and refresh the mind.
c) a period when vivid dreams can take place.
d) help in the learning process especially if a new or difficult procedures have been learned during the day.

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19. A pilot is rostered for the following duty period:

Awake 0700 UTC
Depart 1000 UTC
Leg time10 hours
Local time UTC + 7 hours
Off duty 24 hours
Next leg 10 hours
The best rest pattern for time on the ground would be:
a) keep in time with UTC during stop for sleep times and nap for 2 - 3 hours before call.
b) do not sleep until 8 - 9 hours before call.
c) stay awake for 2 to 3 hours after landing, sleep for 3 to 4 hours then stay awake until 8 hours before call.
d) after 1 hours unwind time sleep for 8 hours then ensure 3 - 4 hours sleep prior to call.

20. The iconic memory is the visual store of the short term memory. It will hold information for:
a) 5 to 8 seconds.
b) 0.5 to 1 minute.
c) 10 to 15 seconds.
d) 0.5 to 1 second.

21. Oxygen is carried in the blood:

a) in combination with haemoglobin in the white blood cells.
b) dissolved in the plasma.
c) as microscopic bubbles attached to blood platelets.
d) within the red blood cells.

22. Anthropomorphic data table measurements should be taken from:

a) a large selection of the general population static and dynamic measurements.
b) a specific population using static measurements.
c) a large selection of the general population using static measurements.
d) a specific population using dynamic and static measurements.

23. Situational insomnia is:

a) an inability to sleep in normal favourable conditions.
b) a condition which may be eased by taking many short naps.
c) an inability to sleep due to circadian disrhythmia.
d) an inability to sleep due to environmental noise.

24. Sleep apnoea:

a) occurs more often in older individuals.
b) occurs when an individual cannot prevent falling asleep even when in sleep credit.
c) most often occur during REM sleep.
d) is a cessation of breathing whilst asleep.

25. If colours are used in a cockpit display, yellow should signify:

a) it is acceptable to proceed to the next stage of a process.
b) advisory information.
c) non-critical functions.
d) an alert.

26. In standardised controls a handle used to open a valve should:

a) always rotate in an anti-clockwise direction.
b) only rotate anti-clockwise if placed on an overhead panel.
c) rotate clockwise if used from the left hand seat and anti-clockwise if used from the right hand seat.
d) always rotate clockwise.

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27. `Body language' on the flight deck should:

a) not be used.
b) be restricted to non-aggressive facial expressions.
c) used to supplement oral communication.
d) never used to touch an individual.

28. A circular instrument with a fixed pointer and a moving scale is:
a) an analogue display.
b) Ideal for displaying range information.
c) Ideal for displaying bearing information.
d) A digital display instrument.

29. A pilot is permitted to use bi-focal contact lenses:

a) only during the cruise stage of the flight.
b) never when flying.
c) only when a pair of bi-focal spectacles are carried for emergency use.
d) only when flying in daylight hours in VNIC conditions.

30. Donating blood by an operating flight deck crew member is:

a) permitted, subject to at least 24 hours elapsing before one's next flight.
b) not permitted for aircrew who are actively flying.
c) only permitted within 12 hours of one's next flight when cleared by a qualified aviation doctor.
d ) allowable with no restrictions on subsequent flying.

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16 (43-48)HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 6

1. Hyperventilation:
a) is unlikely below 2000 feet.
b) is likely to result in death if not corrected.
c) may be caused by having too little carbon dioxide in the blood.
d) can result from an inadequate partial pressure of oxygen.

2. Following the donation of bone marrow a pilot may not operate an aircraft for:
a) 72 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 12 hours.

3. The bronchi:
a) split from the trachea to the left and right lungs.
b) are easily damaged during rapid decompression.
c) are thin sacs which allow the passage of gases from the lungs to the blood.
d) connect the middle ear to the nose/throat to allow pressure equalization during climb and descent.

4. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:

a) used primarily during daylight.
b) highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum.
c) sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells.
d) concentrated in the area of the fovea.

5. Light levels at high altitude may be considered dangerous because:

a) they cause the pupil to contract thereby reducing peripheral vision.
b) they will cause excessive glare in the windscreen reflections.
c) the associated closing of the iris will tend to focus the light on to the optic nerve.
d) they contain more high energy blue and ultra violet light.

6. Long sightedness is normally caused by:

a) the eyeball being shorter than normal.
b) the retina being too concave.
c) the eyeball being longer than normal.
d) the retina being too convex.

7. The most obvious sign of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is:
a) muscular impairment.
b) cyanosis of the lips and fingernails.
c) sensory loss, particularly tunneling of vision.
d) cherry red lips and flushed cheeks.

8. Decompression sickness is caused by:

a) lack of oxygen at high cabin altitudes.
b) the presence of carbon monoxide from leaking exhausts.
c) nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubbles in the body tissues.
d) overbreathing, thereby exceeding the breathing rate needed to maintain the correct amount of carbon-
dioxide in the blood.

9. When on a collision course with an aircraft on a reciprocal track, the apparent size of the approaching
aircraft:
a) does not change.
b) increases only slowly and moves only slowly across the windscreen.
c) is easier to detect if the pilot continually moves his/her head.
d) increases very rapidly just prior to impact.

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10. The body's internal biological clocks take longer to adjust to local time when flying:
a) East.
b) West.
c) North.
d) South.

11. A blocked Eustachian tube:

a) can cause severe pain in the descent.
b) is not a problem when flying in a modern pressurized aircraft.
c) normally only causes severe pain during the climb.
d) can cause problems with balancing the pressures the inner ear and the outside air.

12. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a) enhance hearing ability, especially at high frequencies.
b) control motion sickness.
c) maintain spatial awareness.
d) maintain visual orientation.

13. The permanent denial of a flying licence will be the result of a pilot suffering from:
a) anxiety and phobic states.
b) schizophrenia and manic depression.
c) obsessional disorders.
d) depression.

14. A trained pilot, observing an aircraft accident, will, in comparison to a lay observer:
a) have a much better recollection of the events.
b) be a reliable expert witness at any accident inquiry.
c) have stronger expectations about likely set of events.
d) automatically discount any any previous accident experience.

15. During visual glide slope maintenance the pilot selects an aiming point on the runway. He will know he is
maintaining the correct path if:
a) the texture flow is parallel to the point and the visual angle between the point and the horizon remains
constant.
b) there is no texture flow in the vicinity of the point and the visual angle remains constant.
c) the texture flow is away from the point and the visual angle remains constant.
d) the texture flow is towards the aiming point and the visual angle remains constant.

16. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on:
a) the actual demands of the task and the pilot's perception of his ability.
b) the perceived demands of the task and the pilot's actual ability.
c) the actual demands of the task and the pilot's actual ability.
d) the perceived demands of the task and the pilot's perception of his ability.

17. The alerting system for an important system failure should be fulfilled by:
a) an audio warning.
b) a flashing red light.
c) a large dolls-eye indicator.
d) a steady bright red light.

18. The cycle of REM sleep and stages 1 to 4 sleep occurs:

a) about every hour.
b) about every 90 minutes with REM sleep and slow wave sleep equally balanced in each cycle.
c) about every 90 minutes with the majority of REM sleep taking place in the early cycles.
d) about every 90 minutes with the majority of slow wave sleep taking place in the first two cycles.

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19. One of the problems encountered when using a routine checklist is:
a) the use of coloured pages to highlight emergency information is rendered useless in low light conditions.
b) the use of mixed upper and lower case characters makes the checklist difficult to read in turbulent
conditions.
c) too much information in the lists removes the need for pilots to know their immediate actions.
d) individual responses may become automatic rather than diligent.

20. Situational awareness may well be inhibited by the introduction of:

a) computer generated checklists.
b) `intelligent' flight decks.
c) pre-recorded voice warnings.
d) moving tape displays.

21. The elapsed time to be allowed before flying, when one has been diving using compressed air to a depth of
20 feet, is:
a) no restriction.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 36 hours.

22. During visual search the duration of an eye movement/rest cycle (saccade) is:
a) 1 second.
b) 0.2 seconds.
c) 0.33 seconds.
d) 0.75 seconds.

23. The normal reaction time for a simple response to a single stimulus is about:
a) 1 second.
b) 0.5 second.
c) 0.2 seconds.
d) 0.75 seconds.

24. With no visual references outside the cockpit the human eye will normally adjust to a focal length of:
a) infinity.
b) less than 2 metres.
c) about 5 metres.
d) a few centimetres.

25. The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is:

a) acute gastro-enteritis.
b) angina.
c) malaria.
d) heart attack.

26. Presbycusis is:

a) the deterioration of hearing as the result of the normal aging process.
b) loss of hearing due to excessive noise levels.
c) deterioration of vision due to the normal aging process.
d) deterioration in vision due to the formation of cataracts in the cornea.

27. Low blood pressure (hypotension) can have the following harmful effect:
a) it can increase the chances of developing a stroke.
b) It can be a major factor in the development of a heart attack.
c) It can reduce the ability of an individual to withstand high positive G forces.
d) It encourages the formation of cholesterol within the blood.

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28. At sea level the percentage of oxygen within the alveoli of the lungs is about:
a) 78%.
b) 40%.
c) 21%.
d) 14%.

29. In communications one `bit' is the quantity of information which.

a) can be contained in one sentence.
b) can be transmitted by verbal communication only
c) reduces the uncertainty of the receiver by 50%.
d) can be transferred by non-verbal communication only.

30. The term `Synergy' is the state:

a) where the individual performance exceeds the performance of the group.
b) where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances.
c) where the group performance is dependent on the leadership style of individuals within the group.
d) of increase in reasoning power when extra oxygen is supplied at a time of emergency.

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17 (1- 47) HUMAN PERFORMANCE SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

1. Which instrument, which was introduced in the 1980's, led to the greatest reduction of accidents ?
a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPWS
d. TCAS

2. Accidents are caused by lack of

a. good judgment
b. safe maintenance of aircraft
c. interpersonal relations
d. physical and mental skills

3. Who is responsible for Air Safety

a. Aircrew and Ground Crew
b. Aircrew, Groundcrew and Management
c. Everyone involved
d. Aircrew only

4. Human factors have been statistically proved to contribute approximately

a. 50% of aircraft accidents
b. 70% of aircraft accidents
c. 90% of aircraft accidents
d. Have not played a significant role in aircraft accidents

5. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to
a. Hypoxia
b. Low blood pressure
c. Hyperventilation
d. DCS

6. The body get its energy from

1. Minerals
2. Carbohydrates
3. Protein
4. Vitamins
a. 1 & 4 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 1,2 & 4
d. 3 & 4 only

7. Haemoglobin is
a. Dissolved in the blood
b. In red blood cells
c. In white cells of the blood
d. In the platelets

8. A pilot should consult an Aviation Medicine specialist before donating blood because:
a. Donation may lead to a rise in blood pressure (Hypertension)
b. Donation may lead to a lowering of blood pressure (Hypotension)
c. Donation may lead to a reduced tolerance of altitude
d. Donation may lead to a lowering of the body temperature causing unpredictable sleepiness

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9. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output ?
a. 8 litres a minute
b. 6 litres a minute
c. 5 litres a minute
d. 7 litres a minute

10. Having donated blood aircrew should

a. rest supine for at least 1 hour, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 48 hours
b. rest supine for about 15 - 20 minutes, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 24 hours
c. Aircrew are prohibited from donating blood
d. Aircrew are not encouraged to give blood

11. Blood from the pulmonary artery is ?

a. Rich in Oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
b. Rich in Oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
c. Low in Oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
d. Low in Oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide

12. Smoking reduces the blood's ability to carry oxygen because

a. The inspiratory tract becomes obstructed
b. CO2 takes a larger lung volume
c. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO
d. CO gets trapped in the alveoli and restricts internal respiration

13. A person is suffering from anaemia when

a. Lacking haemoglobin
b Lacking platelets
c. Lacking blood plasma
d. Lacking white blood cells

14. The average heart beat is

a. 30 - 50 beats a minute
b. 70 - 80 beats a minute
c 90 - 95 beats a minute
d. 100 - 1 10 beats a minute

15. When blood pressure is measured during an aviation medical examination, the pressure is
a. The venous pressure
b. The pressure of 02 in the blood
c. The pressure in all of the blood vessels, being representative of the pressure over the whole body
d. Arterial pressure in the upper arm, being equivalent to that of the heart

16. If someone is hyperventilating, the blood contains too much

a. acid
b. alkaline
c. CO1
d. haemoglobin

17. What is the carcinogenic substance in cigarettes that can modify cells and cause cancer
a. Tar
b. Nicotine
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Lead

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18. As a result of hyperventilation the blood becomes

a. More acid
b. More alkaline
c. More saturated with CO2
d. Less saturated with oxygen

19. The blood of the pulmonary artery is

a. rich in oxygen and lacking in CO2
b. rich in oxygen and rich in CO2
c. lacking in oxygen and rich in CO2
d. lacking in oxygen and lacking in CO2

20. The oxygen-carrying capacity of a smoker who smokes 20 to 30 cigarettes a day is reduced by
approximately
a. 8 - 10%
b. 12 - 18%
c. 20 - 25%
d. 0.2 - 2%

21. The effects of carbon monoxide

a. increases with altitude
b. decreases with altitude
c. increases with increase of density
d. decreases with pressure loss

22. What happens to the Systolic blood pressure if peripheral resistance is increased ?
a. Systolic blood pressure rises
b. Systolic blood pressure decreases
c. Systolic blood pressure is unaffected
d. Systolic blood pressure initially decreases and then increases

23. The walls of the capillaries of the lungs are permeable to

a. vitamins
b. proteins
c. gases
d. red blood cells

24. An increase in the pulse rate can be caused by

1. stress and fear
2. vitamin D
3. physical exercise
4. shortage of oxygen in the early stages of hypoxia
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

25. What is the main factor concerning smoking that reduces the red bloods cells' capability to carry oxygen ?
a. nicotine
b. tar
c. carbon Monoxide
d. carbon Dioxide

26. The rate of breathing is controlled by

a. the amount of CO2 in the blood
b. partial pressure
c. differential of concentration levels
d. the heart rate

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27. The pressoreceptors have signalled low blood pressure. The body's response is to :
1. increase rate of breathing
2. increase cardiac output
3. increase heart rate
4. relaxation of the blood vessels
5. decrease heart rate
6. tightening of the blood vessels
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
b. 2 , 3 and 6
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1 , 3 and 4

28. Circulation of the blood is for :

1. Transportation of oxygen to the cells of the body
2. Withdrawal of the waste products from the cells
3. Convey nutrients to the cells
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 , 2 and 3

29. Which is the following actions is the most efficient to accelerate the release of Carbon Monoxide from the
blood ?
a. Inhalation of pressurized oxygen
b. Inhalation of a mixture of unpressurized oxygen and air
c. Inhalation of pressurized carbon dioxide
d. Inhalation of a mixture of unpressurised carbon dioxide and air

30. Which of the following s correct concerning O2 and blood is correct ?

a. The resistance and the efficiency of the cells
b. Cardiac input and the resistance of the capillaries
c. Cell output and the thinness of the blood
d. Cardiac output and the resistance of the capillaries

31. Which of the following is correct concerning O2 and blood is correct ?

a. Arterial blood is darker than venous blood
b. Blood plasma is oxygenated at the heart
c. Diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli to the dependent on the partial pressure
d. Diffusion from the blood to the cells is dependent on the partial pressure of oxygen (diffusion at the
tissue and alveolar levels is related to partial pressure)

32. DCS is caused by

a. Oxygen coming out of solution
b. Carbon dioxide coming out of solution
c. Nitrogen coming out of solution
d. Carbon Monoxide coming out of solution

33. What law governs the oxygen transfer at the alveoli ?

a. Boyle's
b. Charles's
c. Henry's
d. Gas Diffusion Law - Fick's Law

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34. Which of the following symptoms marks the beginning of hyperventilation ?

a. Slow heart beat
b. Cyanosis
c. Dizzy feeling
d. Slow rate of breath

35. Which of the following is true with respect to the cause of DCS
a. Altitudes above 18,000 ft in an unpressurised aircraft
b. Altitudes above 5,000 ft
c. Climbing at more than 500 ft/min to altitude greater than 18,000 ft.
d. Temperatures greater than 24-C at altitudes of over 2,000 ft.

36. Dalton's Law is associated with

a. DCS
b. Bends
c. Creeps
d. Hypoxia

37. Carbon Monoxide

a. Can have a severe affect on a pilot's abilities when receiving exposure for a relatively short period of
time
b. Does not have an effect when the body becomes used to the gas over a long period of time
c. Has no affect on the human body
d. Is not toxic

38. What is the normal tidal volume ?

a. 750 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 150 m1
d. 250 m1

39. The contents of exhaled air contains

a. less water vapour than the inhaled air
b. more nitrogen than the inhaled air
c. more oxygen than the inhaled air
d. more C02 than the inhaled air

40. Boyle's Law has a role to play in

a. Hypoxia with increased altitude
b. DCS
c. Gastro-Intestinal Tract Barotrauma
d. Night vision

41. A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by
a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around
b. Land regardless of the weather
c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
d. Declare a Mayday

42. What chemical substance in tobacco causes addiction ?

a. Tar and nicotine
b. Tar and carbon monoxide
c. Nicotine and carbon monoxide
d. Nicotine

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43. The composition of the atmosphere at 21,000 ft is approximately

a. 78% He, 21% O2 and 1 % CO
b. 78% He, 21 % O, and 0.003% CO, + traces
c. 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO2 + traces
d. 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO + traces

44. Which of the following factors decrease resistance to DCS ?

1. Body height
2. Scuba diving
3. Obesity
4. Age
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. l, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4

45. Among the symptoms of hypoxia are

1. Impaired judgment
2. Fast and heavy breathing
3. Impairment of vision
4. Muscular impairment
a. 1&3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. A few hours after landing a pilot feels pain in his/her joints. The correct action is
a. Take exercise which will cause the pain to disappear
b. Take physiotherapy
c. See an Aviation Medical Specialist as soon as possible
d. Ignore it since is probably due to common after-effect of height

47. TUC following loss of pressurization at 35,000 ft is

a. 3 - 4 minutes
b. 5 minutes upwards
c. 30 - 60 seconds
d. 10 - 15 seconds

48. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct

1. Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
2. Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. Neither

49. Which of the following are defined in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere ?
1. Pressure
2. Temperature
3. Density
4. Humidity
a. 1, 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 , 3 & 4
d. 1 , 2 & 3

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50. 100% oxygen without pressure can be used up to:

a. 50,000 ft
b. 40,000 ft
c. 60,000 ft
d. 70,000 ft

51. Which of the following statements are correct ? DCS can be avoided by:
1. Staying below 18000 ft
2. Maintaining cabin pressure below 8000 ft
3. Breathing 100% oxygen 30 minutes prior to and during flight
4. Exercising before and during flight
a. All correct
b. 1, 2 & 3 correct
c. All wrong
d. 2, 3 & 4 correct

52. At what altitude is pressure half that at MSL

a. 8000 ft
b. 10000 ft
c. 18000 ft
d. 36000 ft

53. On expiration there is

a. Higher C02 content than on intake
b. More oxygen content than on intake
c. Less water vapour content than on intake
d. The same C02 content as on intake

54. The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at

a. 18,000 ft
b. 20,000 ft
c. 23,000 ft
d. 3,600 ft

55. TUC is dependent upon

1. Rate of decompression
2. Altitude of the occurrence
3. Type of aircraft
4. Activity of the pilot
5. Personal health
a. 1 , 2 & 3
b. All of the above
c. All except 3
d. 2 , 3 & 5

56. Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli ?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Carbon Monoxide
d. Nitrogen

57. Under normal conditions, external respiration is a subconscious process that occurs at a rate of
a. 20 to 30 breaths/min, averaging 25 breaths/minute
b. 30 to 40 breaths/min, averaging 35 breaths/minute
c. 15 to 25 breaths/min, averaging 20 breaths/minute
d. 12 to 20 breaths/min, averaging 16 breaths/minute

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58. A person who smokes is

1. More likely to develop coronary heart disease
2. Has an increased physiological altitude
3. More likely to develop lung cancer
a. 3 only
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 1 & 3 only
d. 1 , 2 & 3

59. At what height does the Critical Zone of hypoxia start ?

a. 38,000 ft
b. 23,000 ft
c. 18,000 ft
d. 20,000 ft

60. In an ascent, where is the greatest pressure differential ?

a. 0 - 5,000 ft
b. 5,000 - 10,000 ft
c. 10,000 - 15,000 ft
d. 40,000 - 45,000 ft

61. Short-term memory impairment occurs at what height ?

a. 8,000 ft
b. 12,000 ft
c. 15,000 ft
d. 18,000 ft

62. Concerning hypoxia, why is it more hazardous if flying solo ?

a. The effects are increased
b. It is difficult to recognize the first symptoms of hypoxia for a pilot in initial training
c. It is more difficult to manage the oxygen systems on your own
d. There is no one to take control once the symptoms of hypoxia appear

63. DCS symptoms can occur :

a. When flying from an area if high pressure to an area of low pressure in an unpressurised aircraft
b. When cabin pressure surges below 18,000 ft.
c. Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 ft
d. Emergency descent following decompression below 10,000 ft

64. You have been scuba diving below I Om. When can you next fly
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 48 hours
d. Whenever you wish

65. As the body ascends, the partial pressure of oxygen within the lungs
a. decreases at a rate of 3 times the atmospheric rate
b. decreases at the same rate as that of the atmosphere
c. stays the same
d. increases

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66. The following are features of hypoxia

1. Blue discolouration of the lips and fingernails.
2. Shortness of breath and light-headedness.
3. Flatulence.
4. Impaired night vision.
a. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

67. TUC at 25,000 with moderate activity and rapid decompression is approximately
a. 2 minutes
b. 30 seconds to 5 minutes
c. 2.5 minutes to 6 minutes
d. 5 to 10 minutes

68. Hyperventilation can cause

a. too much oxygen to the brain
b. spasms in the muscles and possible unconsciousness
c. bluish tinge under the nails of the fingers and the lobes of the ears
d. a feeling of euphoria

69. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the lungs is

a. lower than the partial pressure of C02 in the atmosphere
b. higher than the pressure of C02 in the blood
c. lower than the pressure of C02 in the blood
d. almost equal to the pressure of C02 in the atmosphere

70. Which Law is relevant to DCS

a. Boyle's Law
b. Henry's Law
c. The Combined Gas Law
d. Dalton's Law

71. How much air is inhaled and exhaled in one breath ?

a. 70 mls
b. 150 mls
c. 350 mls
d. 500 mls

72. If you are suffering from hyperventilation, what should you do

a. close your eyes and relax
b. breathe 100% oxygen
c. talk through the procedure out loud and simultaneously control rate and depth of breathing
d. make an immediate landing

73. Hyperventilation can, after a long period of time, lead to unconsciousness due to
a. high level of carbon dioxide due to hypoxia
b. low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain
c. the body compensates for low partial pressure of oxygen
d. prolonged anxiety/stress

74. A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may become unconscious. Hyperventilation
is likely to occur when
a. The pilot is stressed or anxious
b. There is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to hypoxia
c. Flying a tight turn
d. There is an increased blood flow to the brain.

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75. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of

a. The body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure
b. An accelerated heart frequency caused by an increase in blood pressure
c. Over-breathing, leading to too much carbon dioxide in the blood
d. A reduction of partial oxygen pressure to the brain

76. What can cause hypoxia

a. Anaemia
b. high intake of nitrogen
c. high solar radiation
d. because of the lower percentage of oxygen at height

77. What is the percentage of oxygen at 18,000 ft ?

a. 5 %
b. 10%
C. 7%
d. 21%

78. One of the results of DCS is the "Chokes". The chokes causes problems in the
a. joints
b. lungs
c. brain
d. heart

79. If suffering from Hypoxia you should

1. descent to below 10,000ft.
2. climb above 10,000ft.
3. go onto 100% oxygen
4. reduce activity
a. 1 only
b. 1 , 3 & 4
c. 4 only
d. 2 ,3 & 4

80. Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to carbon monoxide'!
a. Breathing pure oxygen reduces the effects of carbon monoxide
b. Haemoglobin has an affinity to carbon monoxide over oxygen of 5 times
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning can result from nicotine
d. Carbon monoxide increases the altitude at which hypoxia is experienced prevalent

81. Flight for pilots following scuba diving, using compressed air, to a depth of 10m is...............
a. forbidden
b. not advisable due to risk of hypoxia
c. is acceptable if you stay below 38,000 ft
d. acceptable as long as you take exercise before flying

82. Which of the following can cause hypoxia ?

1. Ascent to altitudes over 10,000 feet
2. Failure of the oxygen system
3. Rapid decompression above 10,000 feet
a. All 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only

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83. Bubbles in the lungs cause

a. Leans
b. Bends
c. Pain in the joints
d. Chokes

84. Which of the following equals the sum total of the volume of the lungs ?
a. Tidal volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Reserve volume
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

85. Hypoxic Hypoxia

a. can occur at any altitude.
b. only occurs at altitudes over approximately 10,000 ft. in the case of a healthy individual
c. is caused by the inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen
d. is not affected by smoking

86. One of the outcomes of rapid decompression is

a. Regression
b. A collapse of the of the middle ear
c. Cyanosis
d. Fogging/Misting

87. Hypoxia
a. has no effect on cardiac output
b. causes cardiac output to decrease
c. causes cardiac output to increase
d. causes a small decrease in cardiac output initially and at approximately 15,000 feet cardiac output
remains steady

88. Hypoxia is caused by

1. a decrease in the saturation of oxygen in the blood due to intake of carbon monoxide
2. an inability of the body to metabolize oxygen
3. the effects of Gz due to inertia and pooling of the blood
4. low partial pressure of oxygen at high altitudes without supplemental oxygen
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 4 only
c. 1, 2 3 and 4
d. 1 & 4 only

89. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration ?
a. Nitrogen
b. Air
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen

90. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude up to
a. 15,000 ft
b. 20,000 ft
c. 10,000 - 12,000 ft
d. 10,000 ft

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91. When flying at 8,000 ft a male passenger is observed to be hyperventilating.

a. He should be treated for hypoxia because without treatment he may die
b. He should be treated for hypoxia since this is the safest course of action
c. Hyperventilation may be assumed and the patient should be so treated
d. He should be treated for hypoxia since both hyperventilation and hypoxia demand similar treatment

92. TUC for progressive decompression at 30,000 ft is

a. 1 - 2 minutes
b. 3 - 5 minutes
c. 5 - 10 minutes
d. 15 - 20 minutes

93. Which does not match ?

a. The Bends
b. The Creeps
c. The Chokes
d. The Leans

94. The ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are situated in
a. The inner ear
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Semi-circular canals
95. Vertigo causes the illusion when flying of
a. Flying straight while in a spin
b. Climbing while turning
c. A tumbling or turning sensation associated sometimes with dizziness
d. Descending with a decrease of speed

96. While turning the aircraft the pilots moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to
a. Coriolis Effect
b. Somatogravic Effect
c. Flicker Effect
d. Oculogravic Effect

97. On initiating recovery from a spin, the pilot may have a strong sensation of turning
a. In a direction opposite to that of the spin
b. In a direction the same as the spin
c. Slowly upwards
d. Quickly upwards

98. If a pilot picks up a pen from the floor of the cockpit while in a turn, he/she may suffer from
a. Coriolis Effect
b. Hypoxic hypoxia
c. Barotrauma
d. Pressure Vertigo

99. Presbycusis causes loss of

a. High tones
b. Low tones
c. Both equally
d. Can be prevented by ear plugs

100. What would be the effect if in a tight turn one bends down to pick up a pencil?
a. Coriolis effect
b. Barotrauma
c. Vertigo
d. Inversion Illusion

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101. To prevent Vertigo in flight one should:

a. Use the Valsalva manoeuvre
b. Look to one side while turning
c. Avoid moving ones head whilst turning
d. Breathe deeply, but control frequency of breathing

102. Presbycusis is loss of hearing due to age and which effects

a. high tones first
b. low tones first
c. medium tones first
d. the whole spectrum of tones at the same time

103. What detects hearing ?

a. Cochlea
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Saccules
d. Pinna

104. Excessive wax in the ear is classed as

a. NIHL
b. Conductive Deafness
c. Presbycusis
d. Physical Deafness

105. Disorientation is most likely to occur when

1. flying IMC
2. the pilot is distracted (using FMS for example)
3. flying from IMC to VMC
4. the pilot is unwell or fatigued
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2and 4
d. 2,3 & 4

106. Perceptual conflict between the Vestibular Apparatus and the visual sensory inputs
1. can occur when flying IMC and may be compelling
2. can cause attitude misinformation
3 may occur when taking off bank following a sustained turn
4. can occur when decelerating
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

107. What actions should a pilot take if suffering from vertigo ?

1. check and cross-check the aircraft instruments
2. accept and ignore illusions
3. keep head movements to a minimum
4. believe the aircraft instruments
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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