This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Samuel Morse, the inventor of the telegraph, had a problem. His telegraph's signal was too weak. He needed a
stronger electromagnet. What is one way that he might have increased the strength of the electromagnet for his
telegraph?
(1) by increasing the current through coil of magnet
(2) by decreasing the current through coil of magnet
(3) by using plastic core inside coil
(4) by decreasing number of turns in coil
2. Raghav's father parked the car in the parking area and then they went for shopping. Which of the following
distance – time graph best represent that the car is at rest?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3. Butter paper or ground glass are said to be translucent in nature because

(1) they allow light to pass through them completely.
(2) they do not allow light to pass through them at all.
(3) they allow light to pass through them partially.
(4) they produce their own light.
4. Kavita has four containers P, Q, R and S of same size, shape, thickness and colour. Each container is made of a
different material. Kavita pours 300 mL of water with a temperature of 90 °C into each container and covers
them tightly with an insulated cover. She then leaves the containers in a room and records the time for the water
in each containers to reach a temperature of 30 °C.

The time taken for the temperature of water in each container to reach 30 °C is given in the table below.

Based on the results above, which container should Kavita use to carry her hot food to work in the morning, such
that the food will be warmest at lunch time.
(1) Container P
(2) Container Q
(3) Container R
(4) Container S
5. A five rupee coin has height of 1.8 mm. If 20 coins are arranged one above another. The height of pile is
(1) 360 mm
(2) 3.6 mm
(3) 36 cm
(4) 3.6 cm
6. Which of the following colour, should the outer base of utensils be painted so that food is cooked in less time?
(1) White
(2) Black
(3) Red
(4) Yellow
7. North pole of magnet can be identified by
(1) another magnet having its poles marked as north pole and south pole.
(2) using an iron bar
(3) using iron fillings
(4) using another magnet with the poles unmarked.
8. A light from a source S is being incident on plane mirror as shown in the diagram below, then what will be the
angle of reflection ?

(1) 60o (2) 30o

(3) 40o (4) 90o
9. Which of these is a good conductor of electric current?
(1) Wool (2) Wood
(3) Glass (4) Copper
10. A simple pendulum completes 30 oscillations in one minute. What is its time period ?
(1) 1 second
(2) 2 second
(3) 3 second
(4) 0.5 second
11. Consider the circuit shown below

Which of the following bulbs will glow when switches k2, k3, k4 are closed (All the bulbs are identical) ?
(1) B2, B3, B5 only
(2) B2, B3, B4, B5 only
(3) B1, B3, B5 only
(4) B1, B2, B3, B4 only
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
12. The properties of substances are given as :-
(a) Lustrous
(b) Solubility in water
(c) Smoothness
(d) Roughness
(e) Heaviness
Which properties describe the appearance of a material?
(1) a & e (2) b, c & d (3) a, c & d (4) e only
13. x + acid → salt + y + z
What can be x, y and z respectively?
(1) Sodium hydroxide, Sodium chloride and Heat
(2) Sodium hydroxide, Water & Heat
(3) Sodium hydroxide, Hydrochloric acid and Light
(4) Water, Sodium hydroxide and Light
14. Which of the following process does not produce carbon dioxide?
(1) Respiration (2) Burning of fuel
(3) Boiling of water (4) Both (1) & (3)
15. Calamine solution contains _________ and it is _________ in nature.
(1) Zinc carbonate, basic (2) Sodium bicarbonate, acidic
(3) Sodium hydroxide, basic (4) Zinc carbonate, acidic
16. Which of the following indicators are obtained from lichens?
(1) Phenolphthalein (2) Turmeric
(3) Litmus (4) China rose
17. Examine the following statements about air and choose the correct statement.
(1) Oxygen is the largest component of air.
(2) Major components of air are Nitrogen, Oxygen & Water vapour only.
(3) Carbon dioxide in the air is necessary for burning.
(4) Air helps in the movement of parachutes, birds & gliders.
18. Consider the given statements and asnwer the question.
(I) In the process 'P', water is converted into vapour.
(II) In the process 'Q', steam in contact with ice filled metal plate cools down to form water droplets.
(III) In the process 'R', heavier components in a mixture settles down after adding water.
Which of the following options is correct for P, Q & R?
(1) P can be decantation ; Q can be condensation
(2) Q can be evaporation ; R can be decantation
(3) P can be evaporation ; R can be sedimentation
(4) R can not be condensation ; Q can be threshing
19. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Statement-I: Separation of butter from milk involves the method of churning.
Statement-II: Churning is based on the difference in size of different components of mixture.
(1) Both statements are incorrect.
(2) Both statements are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct & statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
20. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
(1) All non living things require air to breathe. (2) Moving air makes it possible to fly a kite.
(3) Air is present everywhere but not in soil. (4) Both (1) and (3)
21. Choose the option in which, all the objects are made up of paper?
(1) Books, chair, shoes (2) Wheel, bat, plate
(3) Bullock cart, toy, rubber (4) Newspaper, calendar, magazine
22. Read the table given below and identify the substances x, y and z.
This section contains 11 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. Which of the following action is likely to be supported by the given structure of skeletal system?

(1) Sitting (2) Breathing

(3) Thinking (4) Eating
24. Read the given statements regarding aquatic plants and select the correct option.
(i) Stem is hollow and light.
(ii) Roots are much reduced in size and their main function is to hold the plant in place.
(1) Only (i) is correct. (2) Only (i) is incorrect.
(3) (i) and (ii) both are correct. (4) (i) and (ii) both are incorrect.
25. Plant 'X' having parallel venation with 'A' type of root and plant 'Y' having reticulate venation with 'B' type of
root. Identify 'A' & 'B' and select the correct option.
(1) A → Fibrous root, B → Tap root (2) A → Tap root, B → Fibrous root
(3) A → Prop root, B → Fibrous root (4) A → Tap root, B → Prop root
26. Read the given paragraph with few blanks and select the option that correctly fills any four of these blanks.
Plants which lack (i) parasitise on other plants. (ii) lacks leaves and its (iii) is
–––––––– – ––––––––– – –––––––––– –
a yellow tubular structures twining around the stem of the host. Its roots are modified into specialised structures
called (iv) . (iv) penetrate the (iii) of host and draws nutrition from the (v)
–––––––––– – –––––––––– – –––––––––– – ––––––
of the host.
(1) (i) Chlorophyll, (ii) Cuscuta, (iii) Root, (iv) Haustoria
(2) (i) Chlorophyll, (ii) Cuscuta, (iii) Root, (v) Vascular system
(3) (ii) Cuscuta, (iii) Stem, (iv) Haustoria, (v) Vascular system
(4) (ii) Cuscuta, (iii) Root, (iv) Haustoria, (v) Vascular system
27. Study the given characteristics and identify 'P' and 'Q' from the following options.
P → Lives in cold climatic condition, have thick fur on its body.
Q → Lives in aquatic habitat, have gills for respiration.
(1) P → Polar bear, Q → Fish (2) P → Fish, Q → Frog
(3) P → Camel, Q → Monkey (4) P → Crab, Q → Starfish
28. Read the given statements and identify them as either "True" or "False".
(i) Hibiscus and rose are the examples of bisexual flowers.
(ii) In lily, sepals and petals cannot be distinguished from each other and their whorl is known as perianth.
(iii) Stigma produces a powdery substance called pollen.
(iv) Ovary contains ovule, which later become seeds.

29. In which of the following part of alimentary canal in grass eating animals, food is partially digested to form cud?
(1) Rumen (2) Caecum (3) Oesophagus (4) Large intestine
30. Which of the following plant root is not modified to store any food?
(1) Potato (2) Carrot (3) Radish (4) Both (2) and (3)
31. Read the given statements carefully & select the correct option.
(i) Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose & dextrin.
(ii) Pancreas secrete enzyme that breaks down remaining starch to maltose, which is further digested to glucose
by intestinal enzymes.
(1) Only (i) is true.
(2) (i) & (ii) both are true & (ii) is explanation of (i).
(3) (i) & (ii) both are true & both are independent statements.
(4) Only (ii) is true.
32. An image of camel is given below with some of its body parts labelled as 1-4. Some adaptations of camel are
mentioned below. Select the correct match of the adaptation and the body part.

a. In case of emergency, stored fat can break down to obtain water.

b. Help to eat thorny plants without injury.
c. Help to keep its body away from the hot sand.
d. Can be closed to prevent the entry of sand.
(1) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (2) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 (3) a-l.b-2, c-3, d-4 (4) a-3, b-4, c-1,d-2
33. Find the incorrect statement among the following options.
(1) Number of bones in an adult human being is 206.
(2) Ball & socket joint is located in shoulder and hip regions.
(3) Snakes exhibit slithering movement.
(4) Sulphur is the most abundant element in bones.
This section contains 25 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
34. The difference between the highest and the lowest values of observations in a set of data is called
(1) Mean (2) Range
(3) Mode (4) Median
35. Find the sum : ( – 5) + 7 + ( – 2) – ( – 3) – 3
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) – 1
36. Find the value of m, if the expression x4 – 5x3 + mx – 4 equals 1 when x = – 1.
(1) m = ( – 1)2024 + (1)2024 (2) m = ( – 1)2025
(3) m = ( – 1)2024 (4) m = ( – 1)2024 – (1)2025
37. Present age of father is 3 times the present age of son. After 5 years, father’s age will be 5 years more than twice
the age of son. What is the present age of son ?
(1) 5 years (2) 7 years
(3) 10 years (4) 12 years
38. If the perimeter of a square is 32 cm, then the area of square will be
(1) 16 cm2 (2) 8 cm2
(3) 64 cm2 (4) 1024 cm2
39. If each side of a polygon is 2.5 cm in length and the perimeter of the polygon is 12.5 cm. Find the number of
sides of the polygon.
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 5
x 2y 3y
40. Multiply : − and 5x −
3 5 2
5x2 3y 2 5xy 5x2 3y 2 5xy
(1) − − (2) + −
3 5 2 3 5 2
x2
(3) 5x2 – 3y2 – 5xy (4) + 6y 2 − 15xy
3
41. How many square tiles each of side 0.25 m will be required to pave the floor of a room which is 6 m long and 5
m broad ?
(1) 90 (2) 480 (3) 120 (4) 240
42. A diver descends 20 feet in the water from the boat at the surface of a lake. He then rose 12 feet and descends
another 18 feet. At this point, his depth in the water is
(1) 28 feet (2) 26 feet (3) 30 feet (4) 20 feet
43. An office opens at 9 am and closes at 5 pm with a lunch interval of 30 minutes. What is the ratio of lunch
interval to the total time of office ?
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 2
44. For the given figure, ℓ || m. Find the value of x + 2y.

(1) 120° (2) 240° (3) 60° (4) 100°

45. What is the product of −6 1 and 2 3 ?

3 4
1 5
(1) – 12 (2) 24 (3) −12 (4) −17
4 12
46. A die is thrown 150 times and the outcomes are noted as shown below :

When a die is thrown at random, find the probability of getting an odd number.
3 1 1 3
(1) (2) (3) 2
(4)
4 3 5
47. In a triangle LMN, LM = 14 cm, MN = 8 cm, then the side LN is
(1) Greater than 22 cm (2) Greater than 6 cm
(3) Less than 22 cm (4) Greater than 6 cm but less than 22 cm
48. If Rs. 40000 is marked price of a wooden bed and rate of successive discounts are 20%, 30% and 50%, then final
price of bed after discounts is
(1) Rs. 11200 (2) Rs. 12200 (3) Rs. 8960 (4) Rs. 12000
49. Simplify 47 − 38 − 26 − 15 − 11 − 2 ÷ [3 {4 + (−2) (−1)}]

(1) 47 (2) 46 (3) 45 (4) 44

50. Which of the fraction is not equal to the other three ?
5 10 20 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 14 28 40
51. Which term is the middle term of − 1 , 4 , − 6 , 2 and − 3 , when arranged in descending order ?
6 9 7 5 4
3 6 2 1
(1) − (2) − (3) (4) −
4 7 5 6
52. An article is marked at 10% more than C.P. If discount of 10% is allowed on marked price, then which of the
following is correct ?
(1) 1% gain (2) 1% loss
(3) 1.1 % loss (4) No gain or no loss
53. ←→ ←→ → →
In the figure below P Q ||RS and x = 130°, AB||CD. Find the value of x – y.

(1) 80° (2) 180°

(3) 90° (4) Data inadequate
54. Solve for x : x(2x + 3) – 4 = 3(2 + x) – 2x (5 – x)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
1
55. If x = 1 + 1
, then the value of (7x – 11) is
1+ 1
1+ 3

2 3 4
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 1
3 4 7
56. a = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + .............+ 49
b = 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + .............+ 50
then the value of (a – b)2 is
(1) 0 (2) – 625 (3) 625 (4) 1
122 1 a+c
57. If =a+ 1
, then find .
85 b+ b×d
1
c+ 3
d+
4

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

58. A ladder 17 m long reaches a window which is 8 m above the ground. On one side of street keeping its foot at
the same point, the ladder is turned to the other side of street to reach a window 15 m high. Find the width of the
street.

(1) 15 m (2) 8 m (3) 23 m (4) 28 m

This section contains 22 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
59. How many letters in the word “INSERT” will remain at their same position if all the letters are arranged in
alphabetical order within the word ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
60. If second half of English alphabet series is written in reverse order, then which letter would be 8th to the right of
9th letter from the left end ?
(1) W (2) V
(3) Y (4) Q
61. Select the one which is different from the rest.
(1) KNQ (2) GJM
(3) CFH (4) SVY
62. Which of the option figures will continue the given series?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

63. If the word WINTER is coded as MRDIVG, then how will word SPORTS be coded as ?
(1) HKLIGH
(2) IGHLKH
(3) LKHHGI
(4) LKHGHI
64. In a certain code language, 'GOD' is coded as '214512'. How the word 'ICE' is coded in that code language?
(1) 72915 (2) 27915
(3) 92715 (4) 51729
65. Ramakant walks Northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little further to his left. Finally, after
walking a distance of one kilometre, he turns to his left again. In which direction is he moving now?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West
66. A villager went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km away in the North-East direction of his own
village. From there he came to meet his father-in-law living in a village situated 4 km in the South of his uncle’s
village. How far away and in which direction is he now from the starting point ?
(1) 3 km, North
(2) 3 km, East
(3) 4 km, East
(4) 4 km, West
67. Find the next term in the given series.
HW, LV, PU, TT, ?
(1) XS (2) VT (3) WS (4) UV
68. Find out the answer figure which is embedded in the figure(X).

(X)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

69. L is the daughter of P, P is the brother of M and M is wife of J. How is M related to L?

(1) Mother (2) Aunt
(3) Sister (4) Wife
70. If '+' means 'minus', ' – ' means 'multiply', '÷' means 'plus' and '×' means 'divide', then find the value of
10 × 5 ÷ 3 – 2 + 4 = ?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 6
71. Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making following equation correct.
25 + 5 × 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26
(1) + and – (2) + and × (3) + and ÷ (4) – and ÷
72. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

(1) 11 (2) 0 (3) 30 (4) 1

73. Select the correct mirror-image of the given figure.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

74. In a row of 35 students, Nisha is 6th from the left end and Meenu is 10th from the right end. How many students
are there between Nisha and Meenu?
(1) 19 (2) 15
(3) 17 (4) 20
75. Following question is based on the five three-digit numbers given below.
528 739 846 492 375
Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the highest number?
(1) 7 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 13
76. Find the next term in the following series.
3, 5, 13, 44, 183, ?
(1) 450 (2) 926
(3) 840 (4) 240
77. Which of the following things satisfies the given Venn diagram?

(1) Doctors, Surgeons, Musicians

(2) Medical entrance candidates, Males, Students
(3) People, Professors, Cats
(4) Bedroom, Drawing room, Dwelling
78. Which of the following Venn diagrams indicates the best relation among Lion, Dog and Snake ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

79. Find the correct water image of given figure (X).

(X)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
80. Choose the correct water image of the given word.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 4

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 4 1

ONTX0724004