Level N Biology Course Questions

Term 1 Week 1

Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry

Section 2.2 Molecules and Compounds
1. Explain polar covalent bonding using an example.
A polar covalent bond is a type of bond between two or more atoms in which the atoms
do not share their pair of electrons equally. In this type of bond, the atoms have
different electronegativity. Electronegativity is the ability to attract electrons. The atom
with higher electronegativity attracts the electron at a higher rate, and thus, the electron
pair is shifted towards it. For example, a water molecule contains two covalent polar
bonds between oxygen and hydrogen atoms. The pair of electrons between each
hydrogen and oxygen is shifted towards oxygen, because oxygen is more
electronegative. The shift in electron pair between the atoms creates the partial charges
on them. The atom, to which the electron pair is shifted, becomes partially negative,
while the other atom becomes partially positive. As a result, interaction is possible
between the partially negative atom in one molecule, and the partially positive atom in
another molecule.
Section 2.3 Chemistry of Water
2. Describe the bond within a molecule of water.
Water molecules consist of an oxygen atom covalently bonded to two hydrogen atoms.
The oxygen atom possesses more protons in its nucleus than the hydrogen atom and
therefore pulls on the shared electron more strongly. We say the oxygen is more
electronegative than the hydrogen atom. The oxygen atom will therefore have a slight
negative charge δ- while the hydrogen atom will have a slight positive charge δ+. The
molecule has an asymmetrical shape therefore the charge is not canceled. The bond
within the water molecule is termed a polar covalent bond.
3. Describe the bond found between separate water molecules.
The polarity of the water molecules results in hydrogen bonds between separate water
molecules. The hydrogen atom (slight positive) of one water molecule is attracted to the
oxygen atom (slight negative) of another water molecule in the vicinity.
4. Identify the bonds responsible for giving water its unique properties.
Water has many unique properties due to the fact that it is highly polar and can form
hydrogen bonds causing water molecules to cling together.
5. Why is it unlikely to find two neighboring water molecules arranged as shown
below?

The arrangement of water molecules is determined by the interaction between the

partially negative oxygen and partially positive hydrogen. Hydrogen bonds form between
the mentioned atoms on different molecules, which results in the stable arrangement. If
two water molecules meet with their hydrogen atoms, the partially positive charges
appear close to each other. It causes repulsion between the molecules, and their

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 reorientation so that the atom with partially negative charge in one molecule interacted
with the atom with partially positive charge in the other molecule, and vice versa.
6. G What are the properties of water that make it vital for living organisms?
• Water has many unique properties due to the fact that it is highly polar and can
form hydrogen bonds causing water molecules to cling together.
• Water has a high specific heat capacity which means water absorbs abundant heat
without a vast change in temperature. This is owed to the hydrogen bonds between
the water molecules. This allows aquatic organisms to live in a stable environment.
Organisms are better able to maintain their internal temperature as a high
proportion of their cells are composed of water.
• Water has a high latent heat of vaporization. Converting 1g of the hottest water into
gas requires the input of 540 calories of energy. Hydrogen bonds between the water
molecules must be broken before water boils. The cooling of a surface occurs when
the liquid evaporates. When an animal sweats body heat is used to evaporate the
water cooling the animal. This also helps moderate earth’s climate.
• Frozen water (ice) is less dense than liquid water, which allows ice to float on
water. The surface ice acts as an insulator, preventing the whole body of water from
freezing and allowing aquatic organisms to survive the winter.
• Water is a solvent for ionic compounds (NaCl) as well as polar molecules bonded
by polar covalent bonds (sugars). This is due to the polarity of water. When salts
such as sodium chloride are put into water, the negative end of the water molecules
(oxygen) are attracted to the sodium ions and the positive ends (hydrogen) of the
water molecules are attracted to the chloride ions. Because water is attracted to
polar molecules and ions they collect around them and separate them. When ions
and polar molecules dissolve in water they may move about and collide allowing
chemical reactions. 90% of blood plasma is composed of water which transports
ions and other polar molecules in the blood.
• Water molecules are cohesive, meaning they tend to stick to each other. This is due
to the hydrogen bonds between water molecules. Water molecules are adhesive.
They tend to stick to other polar surfaces. This is due to water’s polarity. Plants
absorb water through their roots. Water evaporates from the leaves and is immediately
replaced by water molecules from the xylem vessels that extend from the roots to the
leaves. Due to cohesion of the water molecules a tension is created that pulls the water
column up from the roots. Adhesion of the water molecules to the walls of the xylem
vessels helps to prevent the water column from breaking apart.
• Water is a reagent in photosynthesis. Energy from sunlight is used to separate
hydrogen from oxygen in water molecules. Water is a reagent in hydrolysis
reactions, during which large molecules are broken down into small molecules.
7. State the property of water that allows for each of the following, and specify its
importance:
i. the cooling of skin during sweating
The cooling of skin during sweating is ensured by high heat of vaporization.
Sweating results in the release of water solution onto the body surface. Because
water has high heat of vaporization, much energy should be applied for the
conversion of liquid water in sweat into water vapor. Thus, heat is lost, and the
organism can cool down. Thus, high heat of vaporization contributes to the
maintenance of body temperature.
ii. the survival of fish in lakes covered with ice

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 The survival of fish in lakes covered with ice is explained by higher density of liquid
water than of ice. Thus, ice floats on the surface of water and acts as insulator. It
prevents water below it from freezing and allows for the survival of organisms.
iii. the transport of ammonia and ions in a mammal
The transport of ammonia and ions in a mammal is provided by the ability of water
to act as a solvent. They are dissolved in blood plasma, which is primarily formed
by water, and travel along the blood vessels with blood. In this way, the cells get
the required nutrients, while wastes are delivered to the organs, which remove them
from the organism.
iv. the ability of insects to walk on water
The ability of insects to walk on water is contributed to by the high surface tension
of water. In turn, it is ensured by cohesive forces acting between water molecules.
The high surface tension of water creates the habitat for some species.

Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules

Section 3.1 Organic Molecules
1. Describe the importance of carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus in living organisms.
• Carbon is an essential element found in carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic
acids.
• Nitrogen is an essential element found in proteins and nucleic acids.
• Phosphorus is used to build nucleic acids and phospholipids.
2. Identify the major biomolecules and their subunits.
Biomolecule monomer polymer
carbohydrates monosaccharides polysaccharide
lipid Glycerol and fatty acids Fat,oil
(Technically lipids are not
polymers as they are not
comprised of repeated
monomers.)
proteins Amino acids polypeptide
Nucleic acids nucleotide DNA, RNA
3.
a. Differentiate, using an example, between a monomer and a polymer.
A monomer is a relatively small organic molecule, which is a unit of polymer. A
polymer is formed by multiple monomer units. For example, glucose is a monomer.
When hundreds of glucose molecules join to form a long-chain molecule, they form
a polymer, such as starch.
b. Name the structural units for each of the following organic compounds:
polysaccharides-proteins- nucleic acids- lipids
polysaccharides - monosaccharides
proteins - amino acids
nucleic acids - nucleotides
lipids - are usually formed by glycerol and fatty acid but variations are possible
4. G Describe dehydration and condensation reactions.
• To link together monomers when synthesizing a polymer the equivalent of
water must be removed, that is a hydroxyl group and a hydrogen atom. This
is termed a dehydration or condensation reaction as water is released as the
result of each bond formed.

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 • To degrade a polymer into monomers a hydroxyl group attaches to one
monomer and a hydrogen atom to the other monomer, again the equivalent
of a water molecule. This is termed a hydrolysis reaction as water is added
to the biomolecule to break it down.

Section 3.2 Carbohydrates

5. G What are the properties of monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides?
• Monosaccharides consist of only a single sugar molecule and are commonly
called simple sugars. Monosaccharides have a large number of hydroxyl groups,
which makes them soluble in water. Glucose, fructose, and galactose, are
examples of monosaccharides with a backbone of six carbons (hexoses). Ribose
and deoxyribose, with five carbon atoms, are pentose sugars.
• A disaccharide contains two monosaccharides that have joined during a
dehydration reaction. Maltose is formed when two glucose molecules bond
together. Sucrose and lactose are other examples of disaccharides.
• Polysaccharides are long polymers of monosaccharides. Some types of
polysaccharides function as short-term energy-storage molecules.
Polysaccharides serve as storage molecules because they are not as soluble in
water and are much larger than a simple sugar. Therefore, polysaccharides cannot
easily pass through the plasma membrane. Plants store glucose as starch, while
animals store glucose as glycogen. Other polysaccharides are structural, and are
involved in maintaining the structure of cells. They include cellulose in plants,
chitin in animals and fungi, and peptidoglycan in bacteria.
6. Explain the difference between synthesis and degradation of the disaccharide
maltose.
Synthesis:
• When two molecules of glucose are joined together by a dehydration/condensation
reaction maltose is formed.
• An α (alpha) 1-4 glycosidic bond is formed.
• One −OH (hydroxyl group) and one −H (hydrogen) are removed from the
subunits and form water.

Glucose (monomer) glucose (monomer) maltose water is released

Degradation:
• Maltose is broken down into two molecules of glucose by a hydrolysis reaction.
• One −OH from water binds to one subunit and the −H from water binds to the
second subunit.

7. Describe the short-term energy storage molecule in plants.

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 Starch is a polysaccharide which acts as a short-term energy storage molecule in plants.
Starch can be found within the chloroplasts of plant cells. When plants need energy, the
molecule will be broken down into monosaccharides which will be broken down during
respiration to provide ATP.
8. Describe the molecular structure of starch.
Starch contains two types of molecules, amylose and amylopectin. Amylose is
composed of alpha glucose molecules linked together by alpha 1,4 glyosidic bonds.
Amylose is unbranched. Amylopectin is composed of alpha glucose molecules linked
together by alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glyosidic bonds. The alpha 1,6 glyosidic bonds
result in branching of the molecule.
9. Describe the structural polysaccharide found in plant cells.
Cellulose is a structural polysaccharide found in plant cell walls. It is a mechanically
strong molecule with a slow rate of breakdown.
10. Describe the molecular structure of cellulose.
Cellulose is a polymer of beta glucose. The beta glucose molecules link together by
forming beta 1,4 glycosidic bonds. To form the glycosidic bonds every other glucose
molecule must be flipped over. The arrangement of glucose molecules allows hydrogen
bonds to form between the hydroxyl groups within the same molecule and between
neighboring molecules. Cellulose molecules become cross-linked by hydrogen bonds to
form microfibrils. Microfibrils are in turn held together by hydrogen bonds to form
fibers. Each hydrogen bond is weak but several hydrogen bonds form giving the
cellulose molecule enormous strength.
11. Describe the short term energy storage molecule found in animals.
Glycogen is a polysaccharide which acts as a short-term energy storage molecule in the
liver and muscles. When animals need energy, the molecule will be broken down into
glucose which will be broken down during respiration to provide ATP.
Glycogen has the same structure as amylopectin but with more branching.
12. Describe the structural polysaccharide found in the cell wall of bacteria.
Peptidoglycan is a structural polysaccharide found in bacterial cell walls. It has similar
structure to cellulose, also being made of beta glucose molecules linked together by
beta 1,4 glyosidic bonds. However, each beta glucose molecule has an amino acid chain
attached.
13. Identify the name of each of the following structures and its relative location
within the cell.
Structure Name Location
a linear polymer of 1,4 linked β- cellulose Eukaryotic cell walls
glucose molecules
a bipolar, phosphate containing phospholipid Cell membrane of eukaryotes and
molecule prokaryotes
a highly branched polymer of 1,4 Glycogen Storage granules in the cells of
and 1,6 linked α-glucose some eukaryotes
molecules

Section 3.3 Lipids

14. State two reasons why lipids are considered long-term energy storage molecules.
One gram of lipids accumulates more energy than one gram of glycogen. The C-H
bonds of lipids are rich in energy. - Lipids are non-polar and thus, their storage is not
associated with the accumulation of water. It allows for the reduction of mass of the
stored molecules.

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15. Which type of molecule is represented by the following diagram?

A. polysaccharide
B. triglyceride
C. saturated fatty acid
D. unsaturated fatty acid
E. polypeptide
16. [G] What are some properties and functions of lipids?
• Fats are triglycerides composed of glycerol and saturated fatty acids. They act as
long-term energy stores in animals and act as insulators.
• Oils are triglycerides composed of glycerol and unsaturated fatty acids. They act
as long-term energy stores in plants.
• Phospholipids are the main components of the cell membrane and consist of one
molecule of glycerol, two fatty acids and one phosphate group.
• Steroids include cholesterol which is an essential component of the cell
membrane and the sex hormones which include estrogen and testosterone.
17. Why are steroid hormones classified as lipids?
Steroid hormones are representatives of a special class of lipids, known as steroids.
They differ from other lipids because their skeletons have four fused carbon rings.
However, they are classified as lipids because of their hydrophobic nature and inability
to form hydrogen bonds with water.
18. Describe the basic structure of triglycerides.
Each triglyceride consists of one glycerol and three fatty acids.
19. Describe the structure of fatty acids.
Fatty acids consist of hydrocarbon chain with covalently bonded carbon and hydrogen
atoms with an acid group at one end.
20. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
Saturated fatty acids possess only single covalent bonds between the carbon atoms.
Unsaturated fatty acids possess BOTH saturated and unsaturated fatty acids between the
carbon atoms. They both have acid/carboxyl groups.
21. Differentiate between fats and oils.
Fats ex) butter are triglycerides found in animals in which the fatty acids are saturated
and therefore there are no “kinks” in the chains. For this reason, fats have a higher
melting point and exist as solids at room temperature.
Oils are triglycerides found in plants in which the fatty acids are unsaturated and
therefore there are “kinks” in the chains, which prevent the chains from packing
together. For this reason, oils have a lower melting point and exist as liquids at room
temperature.
22.
a. Describe the structure of phospholipid molecules.
• Phospholipids are composed of a glycerol molecule with two fatty acid chains
attached as in triglycerides. However, in the third position there is a polar
phosphate group.

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 • The glycerol molecule and the phosphate group together make up the hydrophilic
head whereas the fatty acid chains make up the hydrophobic tails.
b. Draw a simple, labeled diagram to show the structure of phospholipids. On the
diagram, label the parts of phospholipids that are hydrophobic and
hydrophilic.

c. State one function of phospholipids, and then explain how phospholipids can
form a bilayer in the presence of water.
Phospholipids are the principal components of cell membranes. This function is
explained by their ability to form bilayers in water. Each phospholipid has a
hydrophilic portion, which is attracted to water, and a hydrophobic portion, which
repels water. It is thermodynamically inefficient for the interaction between
hydrophobic portions with water. Thus, hydrophobic portions, formed by fatty acid
tails, clump together. It results in the formation of internal hydrophobic core, which
is surrounded by hydrophilic portions of phospholipids from both sides. In this way,
a bilayer is formed.
23. What is the main component of the plasma membrane?
The components of the cell membranes which have hydrophobic tails and a hydrophilic
head are the phospholipids. The cell membrane is a partially permeable membrane
approximately 7nm thick.

Term 1 Week 2

Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules

Section 3.4 Proteins
24.
a. Draw the general structure of an amino acid.

b. Draw a labeled diagram showing how a peptide bond is formed between two
amino acids.

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 c. [G] What are some structural characteristics of the monomers of proteins?
Proteins are polymers constructed from amino acid monomers. Each amino acid
consists of an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group (variable). Amino
acids have directionality, with an amino (NH2) terminus and a carboxyl (COOH)
terminus.
d. Identify the elements found in protein.
The elements in protein include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and
phosphorus.
25. Describe the significance of the R-group.
The R-group is categorized by its chemical properties: hydrophilic, hydrophobic, or
ionic. The interactions between the R-groups determine the overall structure and
therefore function of the protein.
26. Describe the dehydration reaction involved in the formation of a peptide bond.
Proteins are synthesized when amino acids are linked by dehydration/condensation
reactions. A water molecule is removed resulting in the formation of a peptide bond
(covalent bond) between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of
another amino acid.
27. Describe polypeptides are degraded.
Polypeptides can be degraded into amino acids by hydrolysis reactions in which a water
molecule is used up.

28. Describe the primary structure of proteins.

The primary structure of a protein is the linear sequence of amino acids. Genes code for
the sequence of amino acids in a protein. The primary structure influences the final
shape and function of the protein. The bond responsible for the primary structure is the
peptide bond which is a type of covalent bond.
29. Explain the significance of the primary structure of proteins.
A change in the sequence of amino acids can have grave consequences in the final
shape and function of a protein. For example, sickle cell anemia is a life threatening
condition. It results from the substitution of one amino acid (valine) for another
(glutamic acid) in a molecule of hemoglobin.
30. Describe the secondary structure of proteins and identify the bond responsible.
The secondary structure of a protein involves the particular coiling or folding of the
polypeptide chain into two distinct shapes, the alpha helix or beta pleated sheet. The
bond responsible for the secondary structure is the hydrogen bond.
31. Describe the alpha helix (secondary structure).

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 Alpha helix: the polypeptide chain can form a spiral shape due to hydrogen bonding
between -N-H and -C=O group of every fourth amino acids within the polypeptide
chain.
32. Describe the beta pleated sheet (secondary structure).
Beta pleated sheet: A beta strand is a polypeptide chain of 3 to 10 amino acids. Beta
strands fold back upon themselves and arrange parallel to each other. Beta sheets
consist of beta strands connected laterally by at least two or three hydrogen bonds,
forming a generally twisted, pleated sheet.
33. Describe the tertiary structure of proteins.
Tertiary structure refers to the folding that results in the final three-dimensional shape
of the polypeptide.
34. Describe globular proteins.
Globular proteins ball up into rounded shapes and have tertiary structures. Enzymes and
hemoglobin are globular proteins. Enzymes have an optimum temperature and pH at
which they function best. At extreme temperature or pH the interactions that maintain
the tertiary structure of the protein get disrupted. The enzyme loses its 3-dimensional
shape and function and is said to be denatured.
35. Define the quaternary structure of proteins.
Proteins that are composed of more than one polypeptide chain have quaternary
structure.
36. Identify the bonds responsible for maintaining the tertiary and quaternary
structure of proteins.
The following are responsible for the interactions between the polypeptide chains and
therefore maintaining quaternary structure:
a. Hydrophobic interactions: the nonpolar amino acids tend to group together in the
interior of the protein. The polar or ionic amino acids tend to orient themselves
more towards the exterior of the protein where they will be exposed to water.
b. Ionic bonds between the R-groups of the amino acids.
c. Hydrogen bonds between the R-groups of the amino acids.
d. Covalent bonds between the R-groups of the amino acids.
e. Disulfide bonds (type of covalent bond) between the R-groups of the cysteine
amino acids.
37. [G] How are proteins built, and what are their functions?

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Section 3.5 Nucleic Acids
38. The following structures represent the three molecules that make up a nucleotide.

a. Name A, B, and C.
A: phosphate group, B: pentose sugar, C: nitrogen base
b. Draw a diagram to show how these molecules arrange to form a nucleotide.

c. In a table form, compare DNA and RNA in terms of function.

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39. [G] Compare the structure of DNA and RNA.
DNA RNA
The monomer is the nucleotide. The monomer is the nucleotide.
Each nucleotide contains a pentose Each nucleotide contains a pentose
sugar, a phosphate group and a sugar, a phosphate group and a
nitrogen containing base. nitrogen containing base.
Nucleotides contain the sugar Nucleotides contain the sugar ribose.
deoxyribose.
Contains the following bases: adenine, Contains the following bases: adenine,
cytosine, guanine and thymine cytosine, guanine and uracil
Consists of two strands of nucleotides Consists of a single strand of
spiraled around each other to form a nucleotides
double helix
Synthesized during DNA replication Synthesized during transcription using
using the enzyme DNA polymerase the enzyme RNA polymerase

40. Discuss the structure and function of ATP.

ATP is the universal energy currency of the cell. It is formed by ribose sugar, adenine,
and three phosphate groups. Thus, in fact it is a nucleotide with two additional
phosphate groups. The significant amount of energy is accumulated in those groups,
and thus, energy is released during their hydrolysis. It supplies energy for synthetic
processes and other energy-requiring reactions.

The hydrolysis of the bonds labelled 4 and 5 release the highest amount of energy.
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function:
Section 4.1 Cellular Level of Organization

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1. Explain why multicellular organisms are composed of millions of tiny, specialized
cells rather than one huge all-purpose cell. Refer to the surface area to volume
ratio.
• The surface area of the plasma membrane must be large enough to adequately
exchange materials. These limitations can restrict cells size.
• Smaller cells typically have a higher surface area-to-volume ratio and more efficient
exchange of materials with the environment.
• As cells increase in volume, the relative surface decrease and the demand for
internal resources increase.
• Complex structures such as membrane folds are necessary to adequately exchange
materials with the environment.
• As organisms increase in size, their surface to volume ratio decreases, affecting
properties like rate of exchange with the environment.
2. Explain the effect of a small surface area-to-volume ratios on the exchange of
materials between cells or organisms and the environment.
Cells and organisms would have limited ability to:
• receive resources from the environment.
• eliminate waste products.
• Acquire or dissipate thermal energy.
• Exchange chemical and energy with the environment.
3. Cell A has a surface area of 32 μm𝟐 and a volume of 8 μm𝟑. Cell B has a surface
area of 60μm𝟐 and a volume of 10 μm𝟑.
a. Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of cell A.
4:1
b. Calculate the surface area to volume ratio of cell B
6:1
c. Which cell is expected to exchange material with the surrounding environment
at a faster rate by diffusion?
Cell B
4. [T] Students used rectangular prisms of different sized to model cells. They used
the formulas for volume and surface area. They obtained the results showing in
the table below.
Rectangular Length Width Surface Area Volume
Height (cm) SA:V Ratio
Prism (cm) (cm) (cm2) (cm3)
A 3.00 2.00 2.00 22.0 12.0 1.80
B 2.75 0.75 3.00 25.1 6.19 4.00
C 4.80 0.40 3.50 40.2 6.72 5.90
D 6.00 0.25 3.50 46.7 5.25 8.90
E 11.0 0.12 4.00 91.6 5.28 17.3
a) Name the rectangular prism that resembles the cell with the lowest amount of
plasma membrane per volume of cytoplasm.
Rectangular prism A
b) Describe the correlation between the dimensions of the rectangular prisms and
their surface area-to-volume ratios.
The longer, wider, or thinner the rectangular prism becomes, the higher the surface
area to volume ratio.
c) Using the results shown above, evaluate the hypothesis that cells shaped like
rectangular prisms A and B are better adapted for slow metabolism and the

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 storage of energy‐containing molecules than are cells shaped like rectangular
prisms D and E.
The hypothesis is supported.
Reason: Cells with lower surface area-to-volume ratios, such as rectangular prisms A
and B, can function with lesser amounts of cellular substances and amounts of
plasma membrane to enclose a given volume of substances than cells with higher
surface area-to-volume ratios, such as rectangular solids D and E. Metabolically
active cells need a large surface area to volume ratio to be able to transport nutrients
and wastes across they membrane to meet their needs.
d) Based on the results shown in the data, explain why cells include protrusions or
projections in their plasma membranes.
Projections and protrusions increase the surface area to volume ration without
increasing the other dimensions of the cell.
Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
5. State the two major types of prokaryotes.
Bacteria and Archaea
6. Compare the structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Prokaryotes (bacteria and archae) Eukaryotes
Always unicellular May be unicellular or multicellular
Average diameter of the cell is 0.5-5 µm Cell are up to 40 µm
Larger
No true nucleus or nuclear envelope Have nucleus and nuclear envelope
Circular DNA not associated with Linear DNA associated with histone
histones, lying free in the cytoplasm proteins forming chromosomes
No membrane bound organelles Contain membrane bound organelles
NO mitochondria mitochondria, chloroplasts, endoplasmic
NO chloroplasts reticulum, lysosomes, golgi apparatus
No endoplasmic reticulum
No lysosomes
No Golgi apparatus
Plasma membrane Plasma membrane
Cell wall containing peptidoglycan and Cell wall containing cellulose or lignin in
murein plants and chitin in fungi
Smaller 70S ribosomes Larger 80S ribosomes
Have RNA Have RNA

7. Draw a labelled diagram of a prokaryotic cell.

8. Describe structures found suspended in the cytoplasm of a prokaryotic cell.

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 • The DNA which is in the form of a single circular chromosome is found located in
region called the nucleoid.
• The DNA is not associated with proteins.
• Many prokaryotic cells also have extra-chromosomal pieces of circular DNA
known as a plasmid.
• The site of protein synthesis occurs in the ribosomes, which contain RNA and
protein in two subunits as in eukaryotes but are much smaller.
• Bacteria are also surrounded by a cell membrane but their cell wall is composed of
peptidoglycan.
9. Where do respiration and photosynthesis take place in a photosynthetic
bacterium?
Photosynthetic bacterium possesses no membrane bound organelles therefore
respiration occurs in the cytoplasm and photosynthesis occurs within the thylakoid
membranes.
10. What structure would be found in a photosynthetic prokaryote?
Cell membrane, cell wall made of peptidoglycans, cytoplasm, 70S ribosomes, circular
DNA, and thylakoid membranes. Chloroplasts would not be found in a photosynthetic
prokaryote, because it is a membrane bound organelle.

Section 4.3 Introduction to Eukaryotic Cells

11. Explain how the endosymbiotic theory explains the origin of the following
organelles: nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
• The first cells were prokaryotic cells. It is therefore believed eukaryotic cells
evolved from prokaryotic cells.
• Eukaryotes are more closely related to archaea than bacteria.
• A prokaryotic cell gained a nucleus/nuclear envelope by the plasma membrane
invaginating and surrounding the DNA.
• As explained by the endosymbiotic theory the mitochondria evolved when a
eukaryotic cell engulfed an aerobic heterotrophic prokaryote which carried out
respiratory functions.
• As explained by the endosymbiotic theory the chloroplast evolved when a
eukaryotic cell engulfed an autotrophic prokaryote which carried photosynthetic
functions.
12. State the evidences supporting the endosymbiotic theory.
• Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar to bacteria in size and structure.
• Mitochondria and chloroplasts are surrounded by a double membrane.
• Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own circular DNA similar to that
found in bacteria.
• Mitochondria and chloroplasts possess their own ribosomes similar to those found
in bacteria.
13. Define cell compartmentalization and identify which types of cells possess this key
feature.
• Cell compartmentalization means that the cell is divided into different
compartments using membrane-bounded organelles and internal membranes
• Each membrane bound organelle carries out specialized functions, allowing the
cell to be more efficient.
• Cell compartmentalization is a key feature of eukaryotic cells.

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14. Describe similarities and/or differences in compartmentalization between
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
• Prokaryotes generally lack internal membrane- bound organelles but have internal
regions with specialized structures and functions.
• Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles with internal membranes that
partition the cell into specialized regions.
15. Give example of how the membrane-bound organelles and internal membranes in
eukaryotic cells enhance cell compartmentalization and efficiency of the cell.
• The cytosol (cytoplasm), endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, nucleus,
mitochondrion, and lysosome are distinct compartments isolated from the rest of
the cell by at least one selectively permeable membrane.
• Each membrane bound organelle serves as a compartment with different pH levels
and enzymes needed for different reactions.
• Internal membranes facilitate cellular processes by minimizing competing
interactions and by increasing surface areas where reactions can occur.
• Internal membranes in the mitochondria allow the transport of hydrogen ions
which is coupled to the synthesis of ATP during aerobic respiration.
• Internal membranes in the chloroplasts allow the transport of hydrogen ions which
is coupled to the synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis.
16. Name and describe the five main compartments of the eukaryotic cell.
Compartments in a cell are essential for maintaining specific conditions required for
various cellular processes.
• 1st compartment - The nucleus contains the main genome and is the principal site
of DNA and RNA synthesis.
• 2nd compartment - is the cytosol, which is a semifluid matrix that fills the interior
of the cell and contains ions, molecules, and all the organelles.
• 3rd compartment - is the endomembrane system, which is a network of membranes
and organelles that work together to modify, package, and distribute proteins and
lipids inside the cell. Lysosomes, which are part of the endomembrane system,
contain enzymes involved in the digestion of cellular debris.
• 4rth compartment - is the mitochondrion, which performs cellular respiration by
using oxygen to break down organic molecules and synthesize ATP. Mitochondria
contain enzymes and substrates involved in the latter stages of cellular respiration.
• 5th compartment - Chloroplasts, which are found in plants and algae and perform
photosynthesis.

Section 4.4 The Nucleus and Ribosomes

17. Describe the structure of the nucleus.
• The nucleus contains the genetic material chromatin, which will condense during
cell division into chromosomes.
• The nucleus is surrounded by a double membrane known as the nuclear envelope,
which has nuclear pores to permit exchange with the cytoplasm.
• The nucleus is essential for the life of the cell.
• It contains the chromosomes which carry genes and controls cell activities. The
nucleus controls cell division.

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 • The nucleus contains the genetic information that is passed on from cell to cell
and from generation to generation. 3 types of RNA are produced in the nucleus;
rRNA, mRNA and tRNA.
• Eukaryotic cells, such as plant cells and animal cells possess a nucleus.
Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane bound nucleus.
18. Which cell structure is responsible for the synthesis of ribosomal RNA?
The nucleolus is responsible for the synthesis of the ribosomal RNA.
19. Describe the nucleolus.
The nucleolus is a dark region of chromatin inside the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. It is
the site of ribosomal RNA production using information in its own DNA and where
RNA joins with proteins to form the subunits of ribosomes.
20. Describe the structure and role of ribosomes.
• Ribosomes are organelles consisting of a large and a small ribosomal subunit, each
comprised of a mix of proteins and ribosomal RNA. They are slightly smaller in
prokaryotic cells.
• Ribosomes can be found free in the cytoplasm or attached the RER.
• Ribosomes synthesize proteins according to the sequence of nucleotides in the
messenger RNA.
21. How do ribosomes reflect the common ancestry of life?
Ribosomes are found in eukaryotic cell, including both plant and animal cells, and
prokaryotic cells, reflecting the common ancestry of all known life.
22. Where can ribosomes be found within a cell?
Chloroplasts and mitochondria possess their own ribosomes similar to the ribosomes
found in prokaryotes. The ribosomal subunits are formed within the nucleus and
therefore it also contains ribosomes. The ribosomes can also be found dispersed free in
the cytoplasm of attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Section 4.5 The Endomembrane System
23. Describe the endoplasmic reticulum.
• The two types of endoplasmic reticulum are the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
and the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
• The endoplasmic reticulum provides mechanical support for the cell and plays a
role in the intracellular transport of proteins (RER) and lipids (SER).
• The rough endoplasmic reticulum carries out protein synthesis on membrane
bound ribosomes and compartmentalizes the cell.
• The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in detoxification and lipid
synthesis. There are no ribosomes attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
24. Describe the structure and role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
• The rough endoplasmic reticulum compartmentalizes the cell.
• The RER is physically continuous with the nuclear envelope.
• The RER is studded with ribosomes on the side of he that faces the cytoplasm,
giving it the capacity to produce proteins.
• Proteins will be packaged into small vesicles that will join to form the Golgi body.
25. Describe the structure and role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the rough endoplasmic
reticulum. It has no attached ribosomes. It is associated with the production of lipids
and steroid hormones as well as the detoxification of drugs.
26. In which type of cells can endoplasmic reticulum be found?

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 Endoplasmic reticulum can be found in eukaryotic cells such as plant cells and animal
cells. Endoplasmic reticulum is not found in prokaryotic cells
27. Describe the structure and role of the Golgi apparatus.
• The Golgi apparatus consists of a stack of 3 to 20 slightly curved, flattened
saccules and the vesicles that bud off form them. Protein filled vesicles that bud
from the RER and lipid filled vesicles that bud from SER are received by the
Golgi apparatus at its inner face.
• The Golgi apparatus folds and chemically modifies newly synthesized proteins
and packages them into golgi vesicles for trafficking.
• Golgi vesicles will be transported to other parts of the cell or to the plasma
membrane to discharge their contents by exocytosis.
28. In which type of cells can the Golgi body be found?
Golgi body can be found in eukaryotic cells such as plant cells and animal cells. The
Golgi body is not found in prokaryotic cells.
29. It is possible for a bacterium to synthesis a eukaryotic protein. A bacterial cell
cannot produce a eukaryotic glycoprotein. Why?
Bacteria possess ribosomes and can therefore synthesize proteins. Bacteria do not
possess Golgi bodies and therefore cannot add carbohydrate chains to form
glycoproteins.
30. Describe the production and secretion of mucus, a glycoprotein, in the cell.
• Protein is formed in the ribosomes attached to the RER.
• Protein is transported in the RER.
• Vesicle pinches off the RER and transports the protein to the Golgi body.
• A carbohydrate is attached to the protein in the Golgi body.
• Separation of a vesicle containing the glycoprotein form the Golgi body.
• Fusion of the vesicle with the cell surface membrane.
• Secretion of the glycoprotein.

31. Describe the structure and role of lysosomes.

• Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicles produced by the Golgi apparatus.
• They are bound by a single membrane to be kept separate from the rest of the cell
and therefore prevent cell damage.
• Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes, which are important in intracellular
digestion, the recycling of a cell’s organic materials and programmed cell death
(apoptosis).
• When a lysosome fuses with organic material the enzymes are activated and digest
the material.
32. Describe the role of each of the structures that form the endomembrane system.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes proteins while the smooth endoplasmic
reticulum synthesizes lipids which are packaged into transport vesicles to be received by
the Golgi apparatus. The Golgi apparatus sorts, modifies and packages the proteins and
lipids into secretory vesicles to fuse with the plasma membrane as secretion by exocytosis
occurs. Some of these vesicles become lysosomes which contain digestive enzymes that
break down worn out cell parts.

Section 4.6 Microbodies and Vacuoles

33. Describe the structure and role of vacuoles

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 • Vacuoles are membranous sacs, larger than vesicles.
• Vacuoles have many roles, including storage and release of macromolecules and
cellular waste products.
• Mature plant cells contain a large permanent central vacuole. The plant vacuole is
surrounded by the tonoplast which is a membrane that controls the exchange
between the vacuole and the cytoplasm. The central vacuole of a plant maintains
turgor pressure which provides structural support.
• Temporary vacuoles may be found in animal’s cells. They may be phagocytic or
play a role in storage.
34. Which of the following is false about vacuoles?
a. They are double membrane-bounded vesicles.
b. They act as a storage site for the dissolved food substances.
c. They occupy a central position in plant cells.
d. They regulate the amount of water inside cells of some aquatic organisms.
e. They accumulate toxic substances to protect plants from herbivores.
A

Section 4.7 The Energy-Related Organelles

35. a. Describe the structure and role of mitochondria.
• The mitochondria carry out aerobic respiration and ATP production.
• Mitochondria have an outer membrane and an inner membrane.
• The outer membrane is smooth.
• The inner membrane is thrown into folds called cristae. The folding of the
inner membrane increases the surface area, which allows for more ATP to
be synthesized.
• Mitochondrial double membrane provides compartments for different
metabolic reactions.
• The inner membrane encloses the semifluid matrix.
• The space between the two membranes is called the inter-membrane space.
b. In which type of cells can mitochondria be found?
Mitochondria can be found in eukaryotic cells such as plant cells and animal cells.
Mitochondria are not found in prokaryotic cells.
c. Identify the structures found in mitochondria that gives them the capacity to
produce proteins.
Mitochondria have their own circular DNA and ribosomes giving them the
capacity to produce proteins.
36. a. Describe the structure and role of the chloroplasts.
• Chloroplasts are specialized organelles that are found in photosynthetic algae
and plants.
They are bound by a double membrane which includes an outer and inner
membrane enclosing the stroma.
• Thylakoids are disc like sacs that form the third chloroplast membrane. A
stack of thylakoids is a granum.
• Chlorophyll and accessory pigments within the thylakoid membrane capture
solar energy which is used to synthesize carbohydrates during photosynthesis.
b. In which type of cells can chloroplasts be found?

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 Chloroplasts are found in eukaryotic cells. They are found in autotrophic cells
such as plant and algal cells. They are not found in animal cells. They are not
found in photosynthetic bacteria.
c. Identify the structures found in chloroplasts that gives them the capacity to
produce proteins.
Chloroplasts have their own circular DNA and ribosomes giving them the
capacity to produce proteins.
37. Compare and contrast the structure and function of the chloroplast and
mitochondrion.

Similarities: - They both have inner and outer membrane. - They both have their own
genome (DNA molecules are present in both). - They both contain enzymes.

Section 4.8 The Cytoskeleton

38. Describe the structure and function of the following parts of the cytoskeleton:
a. actin filaments
Actin filaments are long, thin, and flexible. Each actin filament consists of two
chains of actin monomers. These globular monomers are twisted about one another
in a helical shape. Actin filaments support the plasma membrane, form the intestinal
microvilli and pseudopods. They also contribute to the movement of the cell and its
organelles.
b. intermediate filaments
Intermediate filaments are ropelike assembly of fibrous polypeptides. They are
larger than actin filaments. They are specific to cell type.
microtubules (centrosome, cilia, and flagella)
c. microtubules (centrosome, cilia, and flagella)
Microtubules are small, hollow cylinders. They are made of globular protein called
tubulin. Microtubules play role in cell division and movement of organelles and
molecules.
39. [G]
a. Which cell organelle functions in protein synthesis and is present in both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
ribosomes / ribosome

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 b. In what organelle is most of the ATP produced during cellular respiration in a
eukaryotic cell?
mitochondria
c. What organelle contains most of the cell’s genetic material?
nucleus
d. What are the main functions of the SER and RER?
The rough endoplasmic reticulum is physically continuous with the nuclear
envelope. It is studded with ribosomes on the side that faces the cytoplasm, giving it
the capacity to produce proteins. It is here where proteins are modified before being
packaged into small vesicles that are transported to the Golgi body. The smooth
endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum. It has
no attached ribosomes. It is associated with the production of lipids and steroid
hormones as well as the detoxification of drugs.
40. Describe the structure and role of the centrosome = pair of centrioles.
Acts as the major microtubule organizing center. Before an animal cell divides, the
centrioles replicate for a total of four centrioles which would be two centrosomes. Each
centrosome moves to the opposite pole of the cell to organize the spindle microtubules
of the mitotic spindle during cell division.

Term 1 Week 3

Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function

1. Describe phospholipids.
Phospholipids are composed of a glycerol molecule with two fatty acid chains attached
as in triglycerides. However, in the third position there is a polar phosphate group.

The glycerol molecule and the phosphate group together make up the hydrophilic head
whereas the fatty acid chains make up the hydrophobic tails.
2. What does the plasma membrane consist of?
The main component of the cell membrane is the phospholipid, which arrange
themselves in a bilayer. The hydrophilic phosphate regions (heads) of the phospholipids
are oriented towards the aqueous external or internal environments, while the
hydrophobic fatty acid regions (tails) face each other within the interior of the
membrane. Some phospholipid tails are unsaturated which can increase membrane
fluidity.
3. Describe the fluid-mosaic model of cell membranes.
• The plasma membrane is made of a bilayer of phospholipid molecules, thus acting
as a barrier keeping solutions on either side of the membrane separate. The polar
regions of the phospholipids lie at the surface of the bilayer and their nonpolar
tails group together in the interior. The bilayer prevents the passage of water
soluble molecules.
• Proteins are also found embedded within the cell membrane. They may be
hydrophilic with charged and polar groups or hydrophobic with nonpolar side
groups.

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 • Another lipid found in the plasma membrane of eukaryotic cells is cholesterol
which is responsible for the fluidity of the membrane.
• An oligosaccharide is attached to some of the proteins and lipids forming
glycoproteins and glycolipids respectively. They can flow around the surface of
the cell within the membrane.
4. Why can’t charged ions and polar molecules such as glucose cross the cell
membrane by simple diffusion?
Ions are unable to move across the phospholipid bilayer because the nonpolar tail
regions of the phospholipids are hydrophobic.
5. The diagram shows part of a membrane containing a channel protein.

Identify the parts labelled A, B and C.

A. Glycerol + phosphate head of phospholipid
B. Fatty acid tails of phospholipids
C. Phospholipid bilayer
For each of the following state whether the component is hydrophilic or
hydrophobic.
A: hydrophilic
B: hydrophobic
Dark portion of channel protein: hydrophobic
Light portion of channel protein: hydrophilic
6. Describe the intrinsic/integral proteins.
• Proteins that are embedded within the membrane are known as intrinsic proteins.
• The may be found embedded in the inner layer or outer layer or spanning the
whole membrane in which case they are called trans-membrane proteins.
• They have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. The hydrophilic regions are
found either facing the aqueous environment inside or outside the cell or line
hydrophilic pores. The hydrophobic regions face the hydrophobic tails of the
phospholipids.
7. Describe the structure of various intrinsic/integral proteins found in plasma
membranes? State the function of each.
Channel protein: Allows particular polar molecules or ions to cross the plasma
membrane freely. Example: Transports glucose and amino acid molecules. Each
channel protein is specific for one type of molecule.
Carrier protein: Selectively interacts with specific polar molecules or ions so that they
can cross the plasma membrane. eg. transport of sodium and potassium ions. Each
carrier protein is specific for a one type of molecule.
Glycoproteins:
• They form hydrogen bonds with water molecules surrounding the cell helping to
stabilize the membrane.
• Form signaling receptors.
• Second type of receptor responsible for cell to cell adhesion

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 • Third type of receptor is involved in endocytosis.
• Act as antigens allowing cell to cell recognition as self-versus foreign. Are
different for each person and form part of the major histocompatibility complex.
8. [G] Answer the following questions:
a) Which components of the plasma membrane give the membrane its fluidity?
the phospholipid bilayer
b) Which components of the plasma membrane give the membrane its mosaic
structure?
The different membrane proteins
c) How is the plasma membrane selectively permeable?
• The plasma membrane is made of a phospholipid bilayer and is therefore acts as a
lipid barrier allowing nonpolar molecules to pass freely.
• Small nonpolar molecules can freely pass across the membrane by simple
diffusion. They are chemically similar to the phospholipid center can squeeze pass
the hydrophilic heads and pass directly through the hydrophobic tails by simple
diffusion. Examples include oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen.
• Hydrophilic substances such as large polar molecules and ions that are chemically
incompatible with the phospholipid center cannot pass through the hydrophobic
tails and therefore must cross specific channel proteins by facilitated diffusion or
can be actively transported across with the help of carrier proteins. Examples
include sugars, amino acids, and charged ions.
• Polar uncharged molecules, including water, pass through the membrane in small
amounts
9. [G] Compare the methods of transport used for the entrance of simple sugars and
gases into the cell
Gases enter the cell by means of simple diffusion while simple sugars require the
presence of channel or carrier proteins and enter the cell by facilitated diffusion.

Section 5.2 Passive Transport Across a Membrane

10. Define passive transport.
Passive transport is the net movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low
concentration without the direct input of metabolic energy.
Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion and osmosis are methods of passive transport.
11. Define diffusion.
Diffusion is the net movement of molecules or ions from a region of higher
concentration to a region of lower concentration down a gradient, as the result of
random movement of particles. The molecules or ions move down a concentration
gradient. The ions or molecules will eventually be evenly spread within a given volume
of space.
12. Describe simple diffusion.
Simple diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to
a region of lower concentration without the need of energy or channel/carrier proteins.
Small nonpolar molecules that may cross the membrane by simple diffusion include
oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
13. Describe facilitated diffusion.
• Facilitated diffusion is the movement of charged and large polar molecules from a
region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration without the need
of energy through channel or carrier proteins.

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 • Charged and large polar molecules that cross the membrane by facilitated diffusion
include sugars, amino acids and charged ions.
14. Name the molecules/ions that cannot cross the membrane by simple diffusion and
identify how their transport across the membrane is achieved.
Glucose and amino acids cannot simply pass through the phospholipid bilayer because
they are large and polar. Sodium and chloride ions cannot simply pass through the
phospholipid bilayer because they are polar. These molecules/ ions are transported
across the cell membrane by facilitated diffusion through channel proteins within the
membrane.
15. Define osmosis.
Osmosis is the diffusion of water from a higher water potential to a lower water
potential across a selectively permeable membrane. OR
Osmosis is the diffusion of water from a lower solute concentration to a higher solute
concentration across a selectively permeable membrane.
Osmosis is the diffusion of water from lower osmolarity to higher osmolarity across a
selectively permeable membrane.
Osmosis does not require energy.
16. State the role of aquaporins in the cell membrane.
Aquaporins are channels proteins that allow the rapid movement of large amounts of
water across the membrane.
17. Describe the components of water potential.
𝒘𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒓 𝒑𝒐𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒊𝒂𝒍 = 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒆 𝒑𝒐𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒊𝒂𝒍 + 𝒑𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒔𝒖𝒓𝒆 𝒑𝒐𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒊𝒂𝒍
𝛙𝒄𝒆𝒍𝒍 = 𝛙𝒔 + 𝛙𝒑
• Solute potential is the extent to which the solute molecules decrease the water
potential. The solute potential for pure water is zero and becomes more negative
with the increased concentration of solutes.
• The contribution of pressure to the water potential is known as pressure potential.
Applying pressure increases the water potential, making it less negative.
18. External environments cab ne hypotonic, hypertonic or isotonic to internal
environments of cells. How do plant cells and animal cells act if placed in the
following environments.
Environment Plant cell reaction Animal cell reaction.
Isotonic No change. No change.
The water The water
potential/osmolarity/solute potential/osmolarity/solute
concentration both inside and concentration both inside and
outside the cell are equal, and outside the cell are equal, and
therefore there is no net gain or therefore there is no net gain or
loss of water. loss of water.
Hypotonic The water potential of the solution Cytolysis: The water potential of
is higher than the water potential the solution is higher than the
of the cell sap causing water to water potential of the cell. Water
move into the cell by osmosis. moves into the cell by osmosis.
This creates a turgor pressure as The cell will eventually bursts.
water accumulates in the vacuole. NB. Cytolysis in RBCs is known as
The cell becomes turgid and is hemolysis.
prevented from bursting due to the
presence of the cell wall.
Hypertonic The water potential of the solution The water potential of the
is lower than the water potential of solution is lower than the water

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 the cell sap causing water to exit potential of the cell causing water
the cell by osmosis. The to exit the cell by osmosis. The
protoplasm of the cell shrinks and cell shrinks and shrivels.
the plasma membrane pulls away NB. The term crenation refers to
from the cell wall. Such a plant RBCs in this condition.
cell is termed plasmolysed.
19. Should the intravenous solutions administered to patients be distilled water or an
isotonic solution? Explain your answer.
Isotonic solution. If distilled water is given, water will enter the body cells from a
higher water potential to a lower water potential. The cells would eventually swell up
and burst.
20. [T] The following figure shows three animal cells (A, B, and C) and three plant
cells (D, E, and F), in different solutions.

Cell lysis, plasmolysis, and turgor pressure are terms related to osmosis.
a) Which figure shows cell lysis? Explain.
Picture C. Animal cells shown in this picture are placed in a hypotonic solution
causing water to enter the cells by osmosis and as a result, the cells burst. This is
called lysis.
b) Which figure shows plasmolysis? Explain.
Picture E. Plant cells are placed in a hypertonic solution causing water to leave the
cells by osmosis and as a result, the plasma membrane separates from the cell wall.
This is called plasmolysis.
c) Which figure shows turgor pressure? Explain.

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 Picture F. Plant cells are placed in a hypotonic solution causing water to enter the
cells by osmosis and as a result, the vacuole fills with water pushing the cell
membrane against the cell wall and turgor pressure develops.
d) What is the importance of turgor pressure in plants?
Plant cells need turgor pressure to maintain their rigidity and shape/ for structural
support. This is what gives a plant the ability to stand tall/ not wilt/stay in an erect
position.
Section 5.3 Active Transport Across a Membrane
21. Describe active transport.
• The process of active transport moves molecules against a concentration gradient,
from regions of low concentration to regions of high concentration.
• Carrier proteins or pumps and energy in the form of ATP are required to transport
molecules or ions across the membrane to establish and maintain a concentration
gradient.
• The hydrolysis of ATP is required to provide energy for the change in shape of the
carrier protein as it interacts with the substance to be transported.
22. Define exocytosis.
In exocytosis, internal vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane and secrete large
macromolecules (proteins, polysaccharides, lipids) outside of the cell.
The secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas is an example of exocytosis.
23. Define endocytosis.
In endocytosis, the cell takes in macromolecules and particulate matter by forming new
vesicle derived from the plasma membrane.
24. Give an example of a carrier protein used for active transport.
The sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3 sodium outside the cell and 2
potassium into the cell. The pump has a receptor site for ATP and acts as an ATPase
enzyme hydrolyzing ATP to obtain the energy needed for a change in shape. The net
result is the inside of the cell becomes relatively more negative than the inside of the
cell. A potential difference is created across the membrane. This is of significance in
nerve cells.
25. The diagram below shows the movement of ions across the cell membrane of nerve
cells. Outline what each of the following arrows represents.

Arrow 3 represent the active transport of sodium ions outside the cell. A concentration
gradient is created. There is a higher concentration of sodium ions outside the cell.
Arrow 1 represents the diffusion of sodium back into the cell down a concentration
gradient.
Arrow 2 represents the active transport of potassium into the cell. A concentration
gradient is created. There is a higher concentration of potassium ions inside the cell.
Arrow 4 represents the diffusion of potassium back outside the cell down a
concentration gradient.
26. Describe the structure and role of plasmodesmata (found only in plant cells).

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 • Plasmodesmata are an example of how cells communicate by cell-to-cell contact.
• Plasmodesmata between plant cells allow material to be transported from cell to
cell.
• Plasmodesmata are fine strands of cytoplasm which pass through pores in the cell
walls. The pores are lined with cell membrane.
27. Describe the role of a faulty channel protein in the development of cystic fibrosis.
Normally
• Normally sodium ions are actively transported outside of the cells.
• Normally chloride ions follow as they are attracted to the positive charge of the
sodium ions. By facilitated diffusion they pass through specific channel proteins.
This lowers the water potential outside the cell.
• Normally water follows by osmosis.
Cystic fibrosis:
• In cystic fibrosis the chloride ion channel protein is faulty. Chloride ions are
unable to exit the cells.
• In cystic fibrosis water does not exit the cells by osmosis.
• In cystic fibrosis the lack of water outside the cells causes thick mucus in the
lungs and pancreas causing difficulty in breathing and digestion.
28. Describe how the cuboidal cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are adapted
for their role of reabsorption.
• Microvilli on the inner surface of the cells facing the lumen increase the surface
area for maximum absorption.
• To prevent the leaking of fluid tight junctions are found between the cells.
• The cells contain abundant mitochondria to provide energy for the sodium
potassium pump.
• Co-transporter proteins are found in the cell surface facing the lumen.
29. Describe the selective reabsorption of glucose and other molecules in the proximal
convoluted tubules of the kidneys.
• Sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membrane of the cells lining the PCT pump
sodium ions into the blood by active transport.
• The low concentration of sodium ions in the PCT cells causes sodium ions to
diffuse into the cells from the fluid in the lumen.
• The sodium ions enter the cells of the PCT through co-transporter proteins which
transport something else such as glucose or an amino acid.
• The passive transport of sodium into the cells provides the energy to move other
molecules such as glucose against a concentration gradient from the lumen into
the cells lining the PCT. This is known as indirect or secondary active transport.
ATP was initially hydrolysed to transport sodium outside of the cells of the PCT
into the blood.
• The glucose will then move from the cells of the PCT into the blood.
30. [T] Based on the model below describe the transport of glucose from the intestinal
lumen across the epithelial layer of the intestine into the blood.

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 ✓ The sodium potassium pump run on the hydrolysis of ATP actively transport
sodium from the epithelial cells into the blood. A sodium ion gradient is created
between the intestinal lumen and the epithelial cells.
✓ Sodium passes from the intestinal lumen into the epithelial cells down its
concentration gradient. Glucose enters the epithelial cells with the sodium.
Therefore, glucose is actively transported into the epithelial cells from the lumen,
driven by the energy created by the sodium ion gradient.
✓ Glucose will then move from the epithelial cell into the blood by facilitated
diffusion through GLUT 2 transport protein.
✓ The microvilli provide a large surface area for uptake of glucose into the epithelial
cell.
Section 5.4 Modification of Cell Surfaces
31. [G] How can cells communicate with one another over short distances?
Animal cells can communicate through their extracellular matrix and through the
junctions between them. Both of these can connect to the cytoskeleton and contribute to
communication between cells. The protective extracellular matrix (ECM) is a
meshwork of proteins and polysaccharides in close association with the cell that
produce them. Proteins in the ECM play a role in cell signaling, permitting the ECM to
influence the activities of the cytoskeleton and, therefore, the shape and activities of the
cell. Junctions also allow communication between animal cells. Adhesion junctions
mechanically attach adjacent cells. One example of an adhesion junction is the
desmosomes that join adjacent cells by integral membrane proteins called cadherins.
Tight junctions are another type of adhesion junctions that bring cells even closer than
desmosomes. Tight junction proteins actually connect plasma membranes between
adjacent cells together, producing a zipperlike fastening. A gap junction allows cells to
communicate. A gap junction is formed when two identical plasma membrane channels
join. In a plant, the cytoplasm of living cells is connected by plasmodesmata, numerous
narrow, membrane-lined channels that pass through the cell wall allowing cell
communication.
32. Calculate the solute potential of a 0.25 M solution of calcium chloride at 20 degrees
Celsius.
The solute potential is calculated using the formula: Ψs = −iCRT. Calcium chloride
completely dissociates into one calcium and two chloride ions, so its ionization constant
(i) is 3, and the temperature in degrees Kelvin is 20 + 273 = 293 K. The solute potential
is therefore (3 x 0.25 mol/L x 0.0831 L.bars/mol.K x 293 K) = 18.26 bars.
33. [T] Four bags made from dialysis tubing were filled with a sucrose solution. Each
bag was immersed in four beakers containing sucrose solutions of 0.2M, 0.4M,
0.6M, and 0.8M. After 30 minutes, each bag was weighed and its change in weight

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 27

 was calculated. All solutions were at 25C. The results are shown in the following
graph.

a. Which solution/s were relatively hypotonic to the sucrose solution filling the
dialysis tubing?
Sucrose solutions of 0.2 M,0.4 M, and 0.6 M
b. Which solution/s were relatively hypertonic to the sucrose solution filling the
dialysis tubing?
Sucrose solution of 0.8 M
c. Which solution would be relatively isotonic to the sucrose solution filling the
dialysis tubing?
Sucrose solution of 0.7 M
d. Which formula can be used to calculate the solute potential of the sucrose
solution filling the dialysis tubing?
𝛙𝐬 𝐢𝐧 𝐛𝐚𝐫𝐬 = −𝐢𝐜𝐫𝐭, where
i = ionization constant
C = molar concentration
R= pressure constant (0.0831)
T= temperature in Kelvin (temp in °C + 273)
e. Calculate the solute potential of the sucrose solution filling the dialysis tubing.
ψs in bars = −icrt
ψs = −(1)(0.7)(0.0831)(273 + 25) = −𝟏𝟕. 𝟑 𝒃𝒂𝒓𝒔
Term 1 Week 4

Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes

Section 6.1 Cells and the Flow of Energy
1. Distinguish between the first and the second law of thermodynamics. Support your
answer with an example.
The first law is the law of conservation of energy. It states that energy cannot be created
or destroyed but can be changed from one form to another. For example, energy of ATP
is converted into mechanical work during muscle contraction. The second law states
that this change in the form of energy is followed by energy loss, often in the form of
heat. For example, some portion of energy supplied with food is dissipated as heat.
2. Relate the first and the second laws of thermodynamics to energy flow in
ecosystems.
The first law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed. The second law states
that it is only converted from one form into another. In the ecosystems, the energy of

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 the sun is the universal source of energy. Plants do not create energy; they just convert
it from light energy to chemical energy. This energy accumulated in chemical bonds is
passed to primary consumers. They convert chemical energy into other forms of energy,
which is required for their survival. The conversion is always followed by energy loss
in the form of heat. The same takes place as energy is passed from primary consumers
to the secondary ones. Thus, during the flow of energy within the ecosystem, it is
gradually lost as heat, but never destroyed.

Section 6.2 Metabolic Reactions and Energy Transformations

3. Describe the structure of ATP.
ATP is a nucleotide that is the energy currency of the cell.
• ATP is a nucleotide comprised of the pentose sugar ribose (label 3),
• the nitrogen containing base adenine (label 1) and
• three phosphate groups (label 2). The unstable bonds between the phosphate
groups are broken during hydrolysis reactions releasing energy.
• Ribose (label 3) and adenine (label 1) comprise adenosine.

4. ATP hydrolysis releases energy which is used to drive many reactions. Give
examples.
ATP acts as a currency for life, supplying energy for many chemical reactions.
• Anabolic reactions involving the synthesis of macromolecules such as proteins,
lipids, nucleic acids and carbohydrates.
• Formation of the mitotic spindle.
• Movement of vesicles
• Active transport of substances across the cell membrane.
• Maintenance of body temperature.
• Contraction of muscles.
5. What is the difference between exergonic & endergonic reactions? Why can
exergonic reactions occur spontaneously while endergonic reactions cannot?
Exergonic reactions imply that energy is released, so that products have less free energy
than the reactants. During endergonic reactions, energy is provided to start the reaction,
so that the products have more free energy than the reactants. Endergonic reactions
require a “spark” of energy for their start, and thus cannot start spontaneously. In
contrast, exergonic reactions do not require any input of energy, and thus their
occurrence can be spontaneous.
6. Discuss coupled reactions.
a. Define coupled reactions.

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 During coupled reactions exergonic reactions occur simultaneously with
endergonic reaction during which energy released from the exergonic reaction is
used to drive the endergonic reactions.
b. Give examples of coupled reactions.
The energy from the breakdown of glucose (exergonic) is used to synthesize ATP
(endergonic).
The energy from the hydrolysis of ATP (exergonic) is used to syntheize a
polypeptide chain (endergonic).

Section 6.3 Metabolic Pathways and Enzymes

7. Define metabolic pathway.
A metabolic pathway is a series of linked enzymatically controlled reactions.

• P represents the initial reactant and A represents the final product.

• P is the substrate for 𝑒1 and Q is the product of 𝑒1
• Q is the substrate for 𝑒2 and R is the prodcut of 𝑒2
• Q is the reactant of 𝑒2 and the product of 𝑒1 .
• Any of the molecules P,Q,R,and A can be a reactant in another metabolic
pathway.
• The presence of particular enzymes determines which metabolic pathways are
operating and therefore which product will be formed.
8. Why are enzymes considered to be biological catalysts?
Enzymes are known as biological catalysts as they are proteins that speed up chemical
reactions by lowering the activation energy, but remain unchanged at the end of the
reaction.
9. What is the active site of the enzyme?
• The structure of enzymes includes the active site that specifically interacts with
substrate molecules.
• For an enzyme-mediated chemical reaction to occur, the shape and charge of the
substrate must be compatible with the active site of the enzyme.
10. Describe the induced fit model.
The induced fit model is the more recent hypothesis to describe enzyme action.
• The shape of the active site changes to enable the substrate to bind.
• Temporary bonds hold the substrate in the active site.
• More enzyme-substrate complexes are formed at the optimum temperature.

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11. Describe the effect of enzymes on the energy of activation.
Enzymes lower the energy of activation reducing the energy needed for a chemical
reaction to begin and therefore increase the rate at which the reaction occurs. The
enzymes do not change the energy content of the reactant or the final product. Enzymes
also orient the reactant/substrate molecules in a favorable position for the reaction to
occur.

12. G How do different factors affect enzyme activity?

• The rate of an enzymatically controlled reaction increases as substrate
concentration increases, as there are more collisions between the substrate
molecules and the enzymes, therefore more product is formed per unit time.
When all the active sites are fully occupied with substrates, increasing the
concentration of the substrate will no longer increase the rate of reaction.
• The rate of an enzymatically controlled reaction increases as the enzyme
concentration increases, as there are more collisions between the substrate
molecules and the enzymes, therefore more product is produced per unit time.
When all the substrates have combined with the active site of the enzymes,
increasing the concentration of the enzyme will no longer increase the rate of
reaction.
• Each enzyme has a pH at which it works best. Enzymes are proteins with a
tertiary structure and have a globular shape. Each enzyme can maintain its
globular shape at a particular pH. Extreme pH can alter the ionization of the R-
groups of the amino acids and therefore interfering with hydrogen bonds between
the amino acids. The enzyme would lose its tertiary structure and the active site
would no longer be compatible with the substrate. This permanent change in
shape and loss of function of the enzyme at extreme pH is denaturation.
• As temperature rises, enzyme activity increases. At higher temperatures the
enzyme and substrate gain kinetic energy therefore causing more effective
collisions between the enzyme and the substrate. Above the optimum bonds
between the R-groups of the amino acids are broken. The enzyme loses its
tertiary structure and the active site would no longer be compatible with the

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 substrate. This permanent change in shape and loss of function of the enzyme at
extreme temperature is denaturation.
• Many enzymes require the presence of inorganic ions (cofactors) or nonprotein
organic molecules (coenzymes) at the active site in order to work properly. These
participate in the reaction and increase the reaction rate.
13. Describe the effect of substrate concentration on the enzyme activity.
The rate of an enzymatically controlled reaction increases as substrate concentration
increases, as there are more collisions between the substrate molecules and the
enzymes, therefore more product is formed per unit time. When all the active sites are
fully occupied with substrates, increasing the concentration of the substrate will no
longer increase the rate of reaction.
14. Describe the effect of enzyme concentration on the enzyme activity.
The rate of an enzymatically controlled reaction increases as the enzyme concentration
increases, as there are more collisions between the substrate molecules and the
enzymes, therefore more product is produced per unit time. When all the substrates
have combined with the active site of the enzymes, increasing the concentration of the
enzyme will no longer increase the rate of reaction.
15. Describe the effect of pH on enzyme activity.
• Each enzyme has a pH at which it works best.
• Enzymes are proteins with a tertiary structure and have a globular shape.
• Remember the tertiary structure of a protein is maintained by hydrogen bonds,
covalent bonds, ionic bonds, and di-sulphide bonds between the R-groups of the
amino acids.
• Each enzyme can maintain its globular shape at a particular pH.
• Extreme pH can alter the ionization of the R-groups of the amino acids and
therefore interfering with hydrogen bonds between the amino acids. The enzyme
would lose its tertiary structure and the active site would no longer be compatible
with the substrate.
• This permanent change in shape and loss of function of the enzyme at extreme pH
is denaturation.
16. Describe the effect of temperature on enzyme activity.
• As temperature rises, enzyme activity increases. At higher temperatures the
enzyme and substrate gain kinetic energy therefore causing more effective
collisions between the enzyme and the substrate.
• As temperature rises above the optimum bonds between the R-groups of the
amino acids are broken. The enzyme loses its tertiary structure and the active site
would no longer be compatible with the substrate. This permanent change in
shape and loss of function of the enzyme at extreme temperature is denaturation.
17. Describe enzyme activation.
Enzymes can be present in the cell in an inactive form. Enzymes can be activated the
following ways.
• Enzymes can be activated by the addition of phosphate. Kinases are enzymes that
add phosphates to proteins.
• Enzymes can also be activated by the removal of phosphates. Phosphatases are
enzymes that remove phosphates from proteins.
• Enzymes can also be activated by cleaving or removing part of the protein.
• Enzymes can be activated by associating with another protein or cofactor.
18. Define denaturation.
• Denaturation is the loss of a protein’s shape so that it no longer functions.

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 • The [active site] of the enzyme is no longer compatible with its substrate.
• This is usually due to extreme changes in the pH or temperature and the
subsequent interference with the intermolecular forces, including hydrophobic
interactions, ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds.
• In some cases, enzyme denaturation is reversible, allowing the enzyme to regain
activity.
19. Describe competitive inhibition.
• Competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor binds to the enzyme at its active
site, therefore preventing the binding of the substrate.
• The inhibitor in this case is structurally similar to the enzyme’s substrate.
• If the concentration of the substrate is increased the inihbition can be overcome
hence the name competitive inhibition.
• If the concentration of the inhibitor increases or the concentration of the substrate
decreases inhibition of the enzyme will increase.
• Competitive inhibition is said to be reversible because it can be reversed by
increasing the concentration of the substrate.
• The following graph shows the effect of a low concentration and a high
concentrations of competitive inhibitors at increasing substrate concentrations.
20. Describe non-competitive inhibition.
• Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor binds to the enzyme at a site
other than the active site known as the allosteric site.
• Hydrohen bonds and hydrophobic interactions within the enzyme molecule are
distorted. This causes a conformational change in the shape of the enzyme
including its active site rendering it unable to bind with the substrate.
• This type of inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing the amount of substrate,
hence the name non-competitive inhibition.
• The following graph shows the effect of a low concentration and a high
concentrations of Non-competitive inhibitors at increasing substrate
concentrations.
21. Describe feedback inhibition.
Feedback inhibition is a type of non-competitive inhibition in which the end product of
a metabollic pathway binds to the allosteric site of one of the enzymes involved in the
same metaboolic pathway. This saves energy and resourses as the metabollic pathway
will be slowed down as enough product is already present.

Section 6.4 Oxidation-Reduction Reactions and Metabolism

22. Describe how the oxidation-reduction reactions occur in cells. Discuss the overall
equations of photosynthesis and cellular respiration in terms of oxidation and
reduction.
Oxidation is the loss of electrons while reduction is gain of electrons. They occur
through respiration (in plants and animals) and photosynthesis (only in plants).

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Term 1 Week 5

Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
Section 7.1 Photosynthetic Organisms
1. In which types of cells did photosynthesis first evolve?
Photosynthesis first evolved in prokaryotic organisms.
Prokaryotic photosynthetic pathways were the foundation of eukaryotic photosynthesis.
2. Label a schematic drawing of the chloroplast to show the internal structures.

3. Outline the structure and adaptations of the thylakoid membrane and stroma
within the chloroplasts.
Thylakoid Stroma
Internal membranes that are organized in The stroma is the fluid within the inner
stacks, called grana. chloroplast membrane and outside of
the thylakoid.

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 Site of the light-dependent reactions of Site of the carbon fixation (Calvin-
photosynthesis. Benson cycle) reactions of
photosynthesis.
Thylakoid membranes provide a large The stroma contains the enzymes for the
surface area for the chlorophyll pigments Calvin cycle.
organized in the photosystems and
electron transport proteins.
The membranes of the grana hold ATP The stroma is in direct contact with the
synthase for the production of ATP by thylakoid membranes to directly receive
chemiosmosis. the ATP and NADPH produced from the
light dependent reactions.

Section 7.2 The Process of Photosynthesis

4. Summarize the process of photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis includes the following processes:
a. Light dependent reactions:
• Take place in the grana (thylakoids) of the chloroplast.
• Light energy is converted into a usable form of energy (chemical energy) in
the form of ATP and reduced NADPH. ATP is made by either cyclic or
noncyclic photophosphorylation.
• Photolysis of water occurs releasing oxygen as a waste product.
b. Light independent reactions:
• Takes place in the stroma of the chloroplast.
• Consist of a series of chemical reactions called the Calvin cycle.
• CO2 is first trapped or “fixed” by combination with ribulose biphosphate.
• CO2 is reduced using ATP and NADPH into glucose.
• No light is directly used in the Calvin cycle as it is a light independent
process.
5. What molecules are passed from the light dependent reaction to the light
independent reactions of photosynthesis?
The energy captured in the light reactions and transferred to ATP and NADPH powers
the production of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide in the Calvin cycle, which occurs
in the stroma of the chloroplast.
6. Describe photolysis.
Light energy is absorbed and used to split water into hydrogen ions, electrons and
oxygen. Oxygen is released as a waste. Hydrogen ions remain in the thylakoid space
and contribute the electrochemical gradient across the thylakoid membrane. The
[electrons] are taken up by photosystem II for use in the light dependent reactions.
7. Define photophosphorylation.
Photophosphorylation is the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate using
light energy in photosynthesis. This occurs in the chloroplasts.
8. Where do the light dependent reactions take place and what structures are found
here?
The thylakoid membrane is usually referred to as the main site of the occurrence of the
light reactions because it contains the photosynthetic pigments in the composition of
photosystem I and II, the components of the electron transport chain, and ATP synthase
complex.
9. Describe the structures organized in the thylakoid membrane. (Site of light
dependent reactions)

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 • Photosystem II: Consists of pigment complex and electron acceptor molecules.
Replacement electrons come from the photolysis of water.
• Electron transport chain: Consists of a series of proteins (Pq and cytochrome)
which act as electron carriers transporting electron from PS II to PS I. Some of
these proteins acts as pumps and pump hydrogen ions from the stroma into the
thylakoid space.
• Photosystem I: Consists of pigment complex and electron acceptor molecules.
Replacement electrons come from the PS II passed on by the ETC.
• NADP reductase: which uses the hydrogen ions and electrons from photosystem I
to reduce NADP+.
• ATP synthase complex: consists of a hydrogen ion channel and the enzyme ATP
synthase.
10. Outline the role of ATP synthase.
ATP synthase is involved in chemiosmosis where it allows the flow of hydrogen ions
down their concentration gradient in order to enzymatically synthesize ATP. ATP
synthase is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane and thylakoid membrane of
the chloroplasts.
11. Describe the formation of ATP by chemiosmosis.
• Chemiosmosis refers to ATP synthesis that is coupled to the establishment of a H+
gradient (proton gradient).
• The thylakoid space acts as a H+ ion reservoir which comes from two sources:
i. photolysis of water,
ii. and the movement of electrons along the ETC releases energy causing the
H+ to be pumped from the stroma into the thylakoid space.
• H+ flow from high to low concentration from the thylakoid space back into the
stroma through ATP synthase complex. This provides kinetic energy that allows
the ATP synthase to produce ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
12. Describe non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
1. Light is absorbed by the chlorophyll in both photosystems and excited electrons
are emitted from the primary pigment of both reaction centres.
2. The primary pigment of photosystem II receives replacement electrons from the
photolysis of water.
3. The primary pigment of photosystem I receives electrons from photosystem II.
4. As the electron passes from photosystem II to photosystem I it passes along a
chain of carriers, the electron transport chain. The energy of the electron is
released and used to pump protons (hydrogen ions) across the thylakoid
membrane. The hydrogen ions accumulate in the thylakoid space.
5. The protons (hydrogen ions) passes back across the membrane through ATP
synthase from the thylakoid space back into the stroma. This provides kinetic
energy that allows the ATP synthase to produce ATP from ADP and inorganic
phosphate.
6. The electron is then accepted by NADP after leaving photosystem I.
7. The end products of non-cyclic photophosphorylation are ATP and reduced
NADP.

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13. The thylakoid space within the chloroplasts has a high concentration of hydrogen
ions. Explain why.
The accumulation of the proton gradient within the chloroplasts is contributed to two
processes; the movement of the electron along the carriers within the thylakoid
membrane and the water splitting reaction.
14. [G] What does chemiosmosis in chloroplasts involve?
Chemiosmosis is the movement of protons used as a method to produce ATP in plants.
In chloroplasts, chemiosmosis takes place in the thylakoid. The thylakoid space acts as
a reservoir for many hydrogen ions (H+). First, each time water is oxidized, two H+
remain in the thylakoid space. Second, as the electrons move from carrier to carrier via
redox reactions along the electron transport chain, the electrons give up energy, which
is used to pump H+ from the stroma into the thylakoid space. Therefore, there are more
H+ in the thylakoid space than in the stroma. This difference and the resulting flow of
H+ (often referred to as protons in this context) from high to low concentration provide
kinetic energy that allows an ATP synthase complex enzyme to enzymatically produce
ATP from ADP + Ⓟ
15. Describe cyclic photophosphorylation.
• Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only photosystem I.
• Light is absorbed by photosystem I and passed to the primary pigment where an
electron is excited to a higher energy level.
• The excited electron passes down a series of electron acceptors until finally
returning back to the reaction center of photosystem I.
• As the electron passes down a chain of electron carriers energy is released and
used to generate ATP by chemiosmosis.
• The end products of cyclic photophosphorylation include ATP only.

Section 7.3 Plants Convert Solar Energy

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16.
a. Discuss the absorption spectrum of chlorophylls a, b, and carotenoids.
Chlorophylls a and b have a similar absorption spectrum. Both absorb violet, blue
and red light. Carotenoids absorb light in the violet-blue-green range.
b. How does the absorption spectrum relate to the action spectrum of
photosynthesis?
The absorption spectrum of each pigment contributes to the action spectrum.
Action spectrum of photosynthesis is the wavelengths, under which the process
occurs at the highest rate. Each pigment has a specific wavelength, which it
absorbs, and the common absorption spectrum of the pigments determines the
action spectrum.
c. Explain why chlorophyll a is a green pigment and carotenoids are yellow
orange pigments.
Chlorophyll a is a green pigment because it reflects green light. Carotenoids
reflect yellow and orange light, which explains their color. The wavelengths
reflected by the pigment are determined by its structure. Chlorophyll and
carotenoids have different structure, and thus, they reflect different light, and have
different color.
17. [T] The absorption spectrums of two different pigments are depicted below. One
of the pigments is found in green plants (chlorophyll) and the other is found in
purple photosynthetic bacteria (bacteriorhodopsin).

Color Wavelength
(nm)
Violet 380 – 450
Blue 450 – 475
Cyan 475 – 495
Green 495 – 570
Yellow 570 – 590
Orange 590 – 620
Red 620 – 750
a. Identify the pigment used to generate the absorption spectrum in each of the
graphs above. Explain and justify your answer.
Graph 1 is most likely the absorption spectrum of bacteriorhodopsin. This
pigment does not absorb but reflects wavelength of light between 380-450 nm
giving it the purple color. It absorbed light of wavelength 550 nm (green light).
Graph 2 is most likely the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll. This pigment
absorbs wavelength of light 450 nm (blue light) and 675 nm (red light) and
reflects light of wavelength 450-600 nm (green light).

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 b. In an experiment, identical organisms containing the pigment from graph 1
as the predominant light capturing pigment are separated into three groups.
Each group was exposed to light of different wavelengths (Group A: 450 nm.
Group B: 575 nm, Group C: 700 nm) but same light intensity for the same
duration of time. Predict the relative rate of photosynthesis in each of the
three groups. Justify your predictions.
Group A: would show an intermediate rate of photosynthesis as an intermediate
amount of light was absorbed to drive the light dependent reactions of
photosynthesis.
Group B: would show the highest rate of photosynthesis as the largest amount of
light was absorbed to drive the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
Group C: would show the lowest rate of photosynthesis as the least amount of
light was absorbed to drive the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis.

Section 7.4 Plants Fix Carbon Dioxide

18. Identify the three main events during the Calvin’s cycle.
• Carbon dioxide fixation.
• Carbon dioxide reduction.
• Regeneration of ribulose bi-phosphate.
19. [G] Describe the Calvin’s cycle/light independent reactions of photosynthesis.
• The first stage involves the fixation of carbon dioxide, during which carbon
dioxide combines with a five carbon sugar, ribulose biphosphate to give two
molecules of glycerate 3-phosphate. The enzyme RuBP carboxylase catalyzes this
reaction.
• At one point in the cycle Glycerate 3-phosphate is reduced to triose phosphate
using the ATP and reduced NADP generated during the light dependent reactions.
• Most of the triose phosphate is used to regenerate ribulose biphosphate.
• Some of the triose phosphates leave the Calvin cycle and are used to produce
glucose, amino and lipids.
• The Calvin cycle occurs independent of light.

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20. [G] What two products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are used
for the light-independent reactions?
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH
21. [G] What is carbon dioxide fixation and how does it relate to photosynthesis
Carbon dioxide fixation is the first step of the Calvin cycle. During this reaction, a
molecule of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is attached to RuBP (ribulose-1,5-
bisphosphate), a 5-carbon molecule. The result is one 6carbon molecule, which splits
into two 3-carbon molecules. The enzyme that speeds this reaction, called RuBP
carboxylase, is a protein that makes up about 20–50% of the protein content of
chloroplasts. The majority of plants carry out C3 photosynthesis as described above;
however, some plants carry out C4 photosynthesis during which carbon dioxide is fixed
to PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate, a C3 molecule) using the enzyme PEP carboxylase
(PEPCase). The result is oxaloacetate, a C4 molecule.
22. Identify the components of chloroplast and describe the role of each component.

1. Stroma: Sit of the Calvin cycle/ light independent reactions of photosynthesis

2. Outer chloroplast membrane
3. Thylakoid membrane of the grana: The site of electron transport system,
photosystem II and I and the light dependent reaction.
4. Starch grains

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23. What is standard error?
Standard error is a calculation that can give us an idea of how close our mean value of a
sample is to the true mean value of the entire population.
24. What is the formula for standard error?
𝑆
𝑆𝑀=
√𝑛
𝑆𝑀= 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟
𝑆 = 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑑𝑒𝑣𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
𝑛 = 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒𝑠
25. The mean petal length of a sample of petals taken from a garden was 3.12mm. The
standard error for the data was 0.04. What does the standard error value tell us?
We can be 95% sure that if we took a second sample from the same population, the
mean for the second population would lie within 2X our value of 𝑆𝑀 from the mean of
our first sample.
3.12±0.08mm
26. State how error bars can be used.
Error bars are drawn on graphs that extend two standard errors above the mean and two
standard errors below it. We can be 95% sure that the true value of the mean lies
within this range. When error bars overlap then the differences between two groups is
not significant. If the error bars do not overlap then the differences between the two
groups is significant.
27. What is standard error and how can error bars be drawn?
When a sample is used to predict or estimate a population parameter such as a mean,
the standard error SE is used to estimate the error expected in this prediction. For
example if the average of a sample is 𝑿, then a 95% interval of confidence for the
average of the population is given as (𝑿  2 𝐒𝐄𝑿 ). This means that we are 95%
confident that the population average lies within this interval.
On a graph, this interval of confidence is represented by a horizontal or vertical bar
called the error bar. Thus, an error bar is a line that represents the uncertainty or error
in estimating a population parameter using a value obtained from a sample. This value
is at the center of the bar and the segment on each side has a length representing twice
the standard error.
The standard error of a sample is calculated as follows.

2SE𝑋

2SE𝑋 2𝐒𝐄𝑿
2SE𝑿
𝑿

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28. [T] Researchers set an experiment to study the effect of the CO2 concentration on
soybean plants. The plants were grown in controlled chambers with CO2
concentration of 700 μmol CO2 / mol of air which is double the normal
concentration in the environment.The rate of photosynthesis was measured by the
amount of CO2 exchanged in an area of leaf surface over time. This rate is totally
controlled by the plant enzyme rubisco which fixes atmospheric carbon into an
organic molecule as an initial key step prior to the Calvin cycle. Researchers
measured the amount of carbon fixation that occurred at different temperatures,
ands produced the following data:
Temperature (°C) Carbon fixation ±𝟐𝑺𝑬𝒙̅ (μmol/m2/s)
25 91±9
30 96±5
35 93±8
40 104±7
45 71±7
50 59±4
(a) Describe the effect of an increase in temperature above the optimum
temperature of the enzyme.
The shape of the enzyme’s active site will be altered by the increase in temperature,
leading to a reduction in the reaction rate.
(b) Plot a labeled graph to represent the data in the table above.

(c) Identify the temperature at which the carbohydrates production is at its lowest
rate.
Values above 45 oC and below 50 oC
(d) Global surface temperatures increase as the amounts of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere increase. Using the data above, foretell the effect of the rise of

Date 25-03-2021 | Level N Core | 42

 temperature on the amounts of energy available in any ecosystem’s primary
consumers. Justify your answer.
The energy available will be low.
Justification: at temperatures equal or above 40 oC, the carbon fixation process will
decrease.
(e) There is a prediction that there will be 2°C increase in surface temperature on
Earth due to greenhouse gases. Based on the data from above and the
prediction, identify how plant species locations might change.
As temperatures goes higher by 2 degrees, the ranges where plant species are found
will move toward areas with lower temperatures (higher altitudes).

Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration

Section 8.1 Overview of Cellular Respiration
1. State the equation of aerobic cellular respiration, showing how it is considered to be
an oxidation-reduction process. State the value of ΔG for the reaction.

Respiration is a redox reaction in which oxygen is reduced into water and glucose is
oxidized into carbon dioxide. The complete oxidation of glucose is an exergonic reaction
in which ΔG = −686kcal/mole.
2.
a. Describe NAD+ and FAD+ and state their functions.
NAD+: Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide It is a coenzyme of oxidation-
reduction in cellular respiration. It accepts two electrons and a hydrogen ion (H+)
to become NADH. This reduced molecule can reduce other molecules by giving
up electrons. It also carries electron to the electron transport chain. FAD+: Flavin
adenine dinucleotide It is a coenzyme of oxidation-reduction in cellular
respiration. It accepts two electrons and two hydrogen ions (H+) to become
FADH2. It can reduce other molecules by giving up electrons. It also carries
electron to the electron transport chain.
b. Compare the roles of NADH and FADH2 in the electron transport chain.
NADH and FADH2 carry electrons to the electron transport chain. The both pass
the electrons to the carriers of the chain. However, NADH delivers more energy-
rich electrons to the beginning of the chain. It allows for the production of three
ATP per one NADH. FADH2 delivers less energy-rich electrons to the middle of
the electron transport chain. Thus, there is enough energy for production of only
two ATP molecules per one FADH2.
3. Enumerate the phases of cellular respiration and identify the locations and necessity
for oxygen of each phase.
Stage Location Need for oxygen

Glycolysis Cytoplasm Anaerobic

Preparatory / Link reaction Matrix of the Aerobic
mitochondria

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 Citric acid / Kerb’s Cycle Matrix of the Aerobic
mitochondria
ATP synthesis by oxidative Inner mitochondrial Aerobic
phosphorylation at the electron membrane
transport chain

4.
a. State the three pathways involved in the complete breakdown of glucose to
CO2 and H2O.
Glycolysis, Citric acid cycle, and Electron transport chain.
b. State the reactions needed to join two of these pathways.
The preparatory (prep) reactions link glycolysis to citric acid cycle.
c. Draw a labeled diagram of the mitochondrion. Indicate on the diagram the
sites for the three pathways
Glycolysis takes place outside mitochondria.

Section 8.2 Outside the Mitochondria: Glycolysis

5. Identify the two ways ATP can be generated during respiration.
ATP may be generated by substrate level phosphorylation or by oxidative
phosphorylation.
6. Define substrate level phosphorylation.
Substrate level phosphorylation occurs when a phosphate group and its associated
energy are transferred to ADP to form ATP. This is catalyzed by kinase enzymes. Such
phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
7. Outline glycolysis.
• The first step of glycolysis involves the phosphorylation of glucose by the
hydrolysis of two ATP.

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 Glucose → fructose phosphate → fructose bi-phosphate
• Fructose bi-phosphate breaks down to two molecules of triose phosphate.
• Hydrogen is removed from triose phosphate and transferred to the carrier
molecule NAD. Two molecules of reduced NAD are formed from every molecule
of glucose entering glycolysis. The reduced NAD may be used to generate ATP
at a later stage in respiration.
• 4 ATP molecules are generated by substrate level phosphorylation for every
glucose molecule entering glycolysis.
• The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate. For every glucose molecule entering
glycolysis two pyruvate are formed. Pyruvate will then enter the link reaction.
• For every molecule of glucose broken down in glycolysis there are four ATP
molecules released and two ATP molecules used up for a net gain of two ATP
molecules.
8. Outline an important example of how a cell regulates ATP production through
allosteric inhibition.
The enzyme phosphofructokinase (PFK) catalyzes the third step of glycolysis. If
abundant ATP is present in the cell it inhibits PFK by binding to the enzyme at a site
other than its site known as the allosteric site. This results in an alteration in the
conformation of the enzyme, thus stopping glycolysis. As ATP is used up, it is no longer
available to inhibit PFK and glycolysis continues. Glycolysis will proceed only when
levels of ATP are low. The ATP is needed to provide energy for cellular processes.
Section 8.3 Outside the Mitochondria: Fermentation
9. Describe anaerobic respiration/ fermentation.
In the absence of oxygen glycolysis may occur repetitively producing small amounts of
ATP. However, one of the first steps in the energy harvesting reactions involves the
oxidation of glucose using NAD+. Therefore, so that glycolysis may continue, NADH
must be oxidized back into NAD+.
10. Describe respiration in yeast cells in anaerobic conditions.
1. Pyruvate and reduced NAD is formed by glycolysis.
2. Pyruvate is de-carboxylated by the enzyme pyruvate decarboxylase and ethanal is
produced.
3. Ethanal accepts hydrogen from the reduced NAD, forming ethanol. This reaction
is not reversible and is catalyzed by the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase.
4. NAD is regenerated and so glycolysis can continue.
11. Describe lactic fermentation in muscle cells.
In the absence of oxygen anaerobic respiration also known as lactic acid fermentation
provides ATP for the muscle cells. Glycolysis takes place. The end product, pyruvate is
reduced to lactate. The hydrogen and electrons are transferred to the pyruvate from
NADH, therefore regenerating NAD+. This is catalysed by the enzyme lactate
dehydrogenase.
12. Distinguish between lactate fermentation and alcoholic fermentation.
Alcoholic Fermentation Lactate Fermentation
Start with glycolysis when deprived of Start with glycolysis when deprived of
O2 where glucose changes into two O2 where glucose changes into two
molecules of pyruvate. molecules of pyruvate.
Pyruvate is de-carboxylated into ethanal Pyruvate is reduced to lactate.
which is reduced into ethanol.

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 Yeast cells obtain energy by During strenuous exercise in muscle
fermentation producing CO2, ATP and cells, the pyruvate accepts hydrogen
ethanol. from NADH to become lactate/lactic
acid. No CO2 is produced.
Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell where Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell where
enzymes involved are found. enzymes involved are found.
13. Name the stage of respiration that supports the theory that all life on earth evolved
from one common ancestor.
Glycolysis occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. This is evidence that different
domains evolved from a common ancestor.
14. [T] Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis and the Krebs cycle produces electrons which
are added to NAD+ to form NADH. Cells are continuously in need for NAD+.
NADH is reduced back to NAD+ in the absence (−) of oxygen through fermentation,
or in the presence (+) of oxygen by the electron transport chain. The figure below is
a simplified illustration of the recycling and metabolism of NAD+.

Located in the ETC, is NADH dehydrogenase, the enzyme that catalyzes the initial
oxidation of its substrate NADH to NAD+ and H+. It contains a subunit that is encoded by
a mitochondrial gene called MT -ND5.
A rare genetic disorder caused by a mutated MT -ND5 gene causes lactic acid to build up in
the body.
A hypothesis by a group of scientists states that the NADH dehydrogenase encoded by the
mutated MT -ND5 gene is not completely nonfunctional, but only with a decreased activity,
and suggested that the activity of NADH dehydrogenase will increase by making the pool of
NADH in cells higher.
To test this hypothesis, the group of scientists treated individuals with this disorder with a
vitamin that acts like NADH and measured lactic acid and the NAD+ concentration in the
blood. The duration of the experiment is 20 weeks. The result of the experiment are plotted
below.

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 (a) Describe how the mutated MT -ND5 is inherited. Suggest why mitochondrial
genes are not heterozygous.
Alleles of mitochondrial origin are inherited only from the mother.
Mitochondrial genes come as single, unpaired chromosomes.
(b) Identify a dependent variable for this experiment. Identify one control to
improve the experiment. Justify why blood samples were taken at many points
instead of at only the beginning and the end of the experiment duration.
Lactic acid concentration in the blood.
Or
+
NAD concentration in the blood.
Award a maximum of one mark for identification of the dependent variable.
Measure the concentration of lactic acid and NAD+ in other affected sample with no
treatment for comparison.
Trends are more accurate when more results are collected.
(c) Explain the relationship between the concentration of NAD+ in the blood and
the concentration of lactic acid in the blood during the first 5 weeks of the
experiment. Calculate the rate of change from week 5 to week 17 in blood NAD+
concentrations.
Lactic acid concentration decreased, while NAD+ concentration increased.
Calculation:
300-60/17-5 = ‒20 μmol/1week
(d) A follow-up experiment was performed to identify the rate at which oxygen is
consumed by brain and muscle cells on individuals with MT -ND5 mutation.
What would be the oxygen consumption rate in brain and muscle cells? Justify
your answer. Explain how the vitamin which had a similar shape to NADH most
likely increased the activity of the enzyme.
The oxygen consumption rate by the electron transport chain will decrease due to the
mutation.
Justification: Due to the mutation the electron transport chain will function less. So
less oxygen will be required as the final election acceptor.
The enzyme had decreased activity but still functioned. Increasing the amount of
substrate should increase the amount of product produced. Because the vitamin was
similar to NADH, it could bind to the active site of the enzyme and effectively
increase the substrate concentration.

Term 1 Week 6

Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration

Section 8.4 Inside the Mitochondria

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15. Describe the link/preparatory reaction.
• Each pyruvate molecule is de-carboxylated. Two pyruvate molecules release two
carbon dioxides.
• Each pyruvate molecule is oxidized and stripped of hydrogen and electrons
forming reduced NADH. Two pyruvate molecules results in two reduced NADH.
• The 3C pyruvate will become a 2C acetyl group which will be carried by CoA to
form acetyl CoA. Two pyruvate molecules will become two acetyl CoA
molecules.
16. Outline the stages of the Krebs cycle.
• Acetyl coenzyme A combines with a 4C compound, oxaloacetate to form a 6C
compound, citrate.
• The citrate is de-carboxylated yielding carbon dioxide which is given off as a
waste gas.
• It is also dehydrogenated/oxidized and the hydrogen is accepted by NAD and
FAD forming reduced NAD and reduced FAD.
• ATP is generated by substrate level phosphorylation.
• Oxaloacetate is regenerated to combine with another acetyl coenzyme A.
• The great significance of the Krebs cycle is the release of hydrogen which can be
used to generate ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.
17. Name three major protein complexes involved in the electron transport chain of the
mitochondrion.
- NADH-Q reductase complex - The cytochrome reductase complex - The cytochrome
oxidase complex and two carriers: Coenzyme Q and Cytochrome C
18. Describe oxidative phosphorylation at the electron transport chain.
• NADH and FADH2 give up their energetic electrons to the electron transport
chain.
• Energy is released when electrons are transferred from one protein carrier to
another (redox reactions).
• This energy is used to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
This allows a concentration gradient to build up. The hydrogen ions accumulate in
the intermembrane space.
• Chemiosmosis: ATP is formed as a direct result of the net movement of protons
flowing through the channel protein, ATP synthase down their gradient by
facilitated diffusion from the intermembrane space back into the matrix.
• Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor. Oxygen combines with hydrogen ions
(proton) and electrons forming water.
19. Compare the electron transport chain reactions in the different organelles and
structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells during respiration and
photosynthesis.
Respiration in Photosynthesis in Prokaryotes
Eukaryotes Eukaryotes
Electron transport chain Electron transport chain Electron transport chain
reactions occur in reactions occur in reactions occur in plasma
mitochondria. chloroplasts. membrane.
The transfer of electrons is The transfer of electrons is The transfer of electrons is
accompanied by the accompanied by the accompanied by the
formation of a proton formation of a proton formation of a proton
gradient across the inner gradient across the internal gradient across the plasma
mitochondrial membrane, membrane of chloroplasts, membrane, with the

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 with the membrane(s) with the membrane(s) membrane(s) separating a
separating a region of high separating a region of high region of high proton
proton concentration from proton concentration from a concentration from a
a region of low proton region of low proton region of low proton
concentration concentration concentration
The flow of protons back The flow of protons back The flow of protons back
through membrane-bound through membrane-bound through membrane-bound
ATP synthase by ATP synthase by ATP synthase by
chemiosmosis drives the chemiosmosis drives the chemiosmosis drives the
formation of ATP from formation of ATP from formation of ATP from
ADP and inorganic ADP and inorganic ADP and inorganic
phosphate. This is known phosphate. This is known as phosphate.
as oxidative photophosphorylation in
phosphorylation in cellular photosynthesis.
respiration.

In cellular respiration, In photosynthesis the Aerobic prokaryotes use

electrons delivered by terminal electron acceptor oxygen as a terminal
NADH and FADH are is NADP+. electron acceptor, while
passed to a series of anaerobic prokaryotes use
electron acceptors as they other molecules
move toward the terminal
electron acceptor, oxygen.

20. Complete the table by placing a tick if the statement is true about the particular
stage of respiration and a cross if it is false.

21. [G] How are ATP molecules formed in the mitochondria according to the
chemiosmosis theory?

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 Hydrogen ions flow down their electrochemical gradient through the ATP synthase
protein complex, providing the energy for the association of ADP + Pi to form ATP.
22. Label the key parts of the mitochondrion below and describe the structure and
function of each.

1. Outer membrane: This membrane, like the plasma membrane, consists of a double
layer of phospholipids. The outer membrane is relatively more permeable than the
inner membrane.
2. Inter-membrane space: This is the narrow area between the inner and the outer
membranes. Protons accumulate here, lowering the pH.
3. Inner membrane (label 3 and 5). This second membrane is also a phospholipid
bilayer, has convolutions called cristae. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs here.
Within the membrane and its cristae (3), the electron transport chain, consisting of
a series of protein complexes, removes electrons from NADH and FADH2.
Another protein complex, ATP synthase, responsible for the phosphorylation of
ADP to form ATP is found here. The inner membrane is less permeable than the
outer membrane.
4. The matrix is the fluid material that fills the area inside the inner membrane. The
preparatory / link reaction and the Citric Acid Cycle / Krebs cycle occur here.
23. Isolated mitochondria were suspended in two different solutions. One solution was
maintained at a pH of 4 and the other at a pH of 9. The mitochondria maintained at
a pH of 4 were able to produce ATP whereas those maintained at a pH of 9 did not
produce ATP. Explain why.
• pH is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution. At low pH there
is a higher concentration of hydrogen ions.
• Chemiosmosis is the generation of ATP using a hydrogen ion gradient.
• ATP is synthesized in the mitochondria by oxidative phosphorylation. Hydrogen
ions are pumped into the inner membrane space. Hydrogen ions flow back into the
matrix through ATP synthase complex where their energy is trapped to generate
ATP by chemiosmosis.
24. The initial dry mass of two groups of 20 bean seedlings each was determined, as
shown in the table above. The plants in group A were exposed to light for one week.
The plants in group B were maintained in the dark for one week. All conditions
other than light were maintained for groups A and B. At the end of the week, the
dry mass of the plants in group A and B was determined.

Group Treatment Initial dry mass Dry mass of the Change in dry
of the plants (g) plants after one mass of plants
week (g) over one week (g)
A Light 15.0 30.1 +15.1

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 B Dark 15.0 10.8 -4.2

a. Explain the increase in mass of the plants in group A.

Plants in group A undergo photosynthesis in the presence of light, during which
the plant produces carbohydrates from inorganic water and carbon dioxide.
b. Explain the decrease in mass of the plants in group B.
In the absence of light, plants in group B undergo cellular respiration.
The decrease in mass is explained by the breakdown of glucose into carbon
dioxide which is then released as a waste product.
Section 8.5 Metabolism

25. [G] Compare the role of oxygen for aerobic respiration and photosynthesis.
In aerobic respiration oxygen is used as a terminal/final acceptor of electrons while in
photosynthesis it is a waste product of the water splitting reaction.
26. Discuss the similarities and differences between the mitochondria and the
chloroplasts in terms of their structure and functions.
They both are surrounded by a double membrane; they are filled with fluid containing
enzymes, circular DNA, and ribosomes: But the fluid is called stroma in chloroplasts,
and matrix in mitochondria Chloroplasts have thylakoid membranes that contain electron
transport chain and ATP synthase, where ATP is produced by chemiosmosis.
Mitochondria have folds in their inner membrane that form cristae, where ATP synthase
complexes are present to contribute to ATP production by chemiosmosis. In chloroplasts,
an electrochemical gradient is built across the thylakoid membrane whereas in
mitochondria, it is built across the inner membrane
27.

a. Show using a diagram what happens when fat is used as an energy source.

b. Show using a diagram what happens when a protein is used as an energy

source.

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28. [T] A pond ecosystem encompasses all parts of a living environment, including
animals, plants, and microorganisms, and non-living components such as water and
air. There are many natural processes that occur in a pond ecosystem. The following
table describes events happening in a pond ecosystem. Complete the table below
with the missing information.

29. [T] Cellular respiration is the process by which cells break down organic molecules
in order to acquire energy.
a.Write the overall chemical equation of cellular respiration.

b. Explain how cellular respiration represents an oxidation-reduction reaction.

During cellular respiration glucose loses hydrogen atoms/ loses electrons/is oxidized,
and oxygen gains hydrogen atoms/ gains electrons/ is reduced.
c. Enzymes are involved in cellular respiration. Name one enzyme involved in
cellular respiration.
ATP synthase

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 d. To understand the effect of temperature on cellular respiration, a group of
students performed the following experiment. They placed yeast cells in a sugar
solution in a special apparatus that can detect gas bubbles released by the yeast
cells. Students found out that at a very low temperature (about 0°C) and at a
very high temperature (about 70°C) no bubbles were released, whereas the
amount of bubbles released reached its peak at about 30°C. Explain the results
obtained in this experiment.
The number of bubbles released reflects the rate of cellular respiration. Cellular
respiration is a series of enzyme-catalyzed reactions, and enzymes work best at an
optimum temperature, which is 30°C in the conducted experiment since the number of
bubbles released reached a peak at this temperature. Enzymes lose their activity at
very low temperatures and become irreversibly denatured/lose their three-dimensional
shape/active site at very high temperatures which explains why at very low
temperature/0°C and at very high temperature/70°C no bubbles were released.
30. [T] Yogurt, sour cream, and cheese are produced through the action of various
lactic acid bacteria that cause milk to become sour.
a.Name the main biochemical pathway responsible for the production of the food
types mentioned above.
Lactic acid fermentation/fermentation
b. State briefly how the biochemical pathway you named in part (a) occurs in milk.
Milk contains lactose. This carbohydrate is used to produce pyruvate during the
glycolysis step of fermentation. Pyruvate is then reduced to lactate/lactic acid by
lactic acid bacteria.
c. Alkaliphiles are a class of microbes capable of survival in alkaline environments.
Predict what would happen to the population size of alkaliphiles if they are
added to yogurt? Justify your answer
The alkalaphiles population size will decrease because the medium of the yoghurt is
acidic/has low pH due to the production of lactic acid by fermentation and these
organisms can survive in alkaline environments not acidic environments.
Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
Section 9.1 The Cell Cycle
1. What is the cell cycle?
The cell cycle is a highly regulated series of events for the growth and reproduction of
cells.
2. Name the stages of the cell cycle in the correct sequence.
A. Interphase
a. G1Stage
b. S Stage
c. G2 Stage
B. Mitotic Stage
a. Mitosis
b. Cytokinesis
3. What events occur in a cell while in interphase?
During interphase a cell performs its usual functions while preparing for mitosis. The
cell grows to normal size. Interphase is the longest portion of the cell cycle and consists
of G1 stage, S stage, and G2 stage.
4. State the events occurring during the G1 stage of cell cycle.
• The cell grows in size and accumulates materials needed for growth.
• The cell makes RNA, proteins and enzymes needed for growth.
• The organelles double.

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 • By the end of this stage the cell becomes committed to dividing or not dividing.
5. Describe the main event occurring during the S stage of the cell cycle.
During the S (DNA Synthesis) stage DNA replication occurs. At the beginning of the S
stage each chromosome is composed of one DNA double helix. By the end of the S
stage DNA content is doubled as each chromosome is composed of two identical DNA
double helix molecules.
6. Describe the events occurring during the G2 stage of the cell cycle.
• During the G2 (Gap 2) the cell continues to grow.
• New DNA is checked and any DNA errors are repaired.
• Preparation are being made for cell division. There is an increased production of
proteins that will assist in cell division. For example, there is an increased
production of the protein tubulin which is needed to make microtubules for the
mitotic spindle.
7. What event occurs during the M (mitotic) stage of the cell cycle?
Mitosis is the division of the nucleus during which replicated chromosomes are
distributed to daughter nuclei. During mitosis the cell stops growing.
8. The diagram shows the cell cycle.

Checkpoints in the cell cycle of mammals prevent the cycle from continuing when
DNA is damaged.
1. Mitosis is blocked if DNA replication is incomplete
2. Anaphase is blocked if the assembly of chromatids on the spindle is
unsuccessful
3. DNA replication is blocked if DNA is damaged
4. DNA replication stops if damage to DNA has not been repaired
In which phases of the cell cycle do these checkpoints occur?
1.→ [G2]
2.→ [M]
3.→ [G1]
4.→ [S]
9. Label the figure below.

1) Duplicated chromosome
2) Kinetochores
3) Sister chromatid

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 4) Centromere
5) Sister chromatid
10. What happens to specialized cells that no longer need to divide?
Cells may exit interphase and enter a stage called G0 phase, during which the cells
continue to perform everyday processes, but no preparations are made for cell division.
Most cells at adulthood are permanently arrested at the G0 stage. Eg. nerve and muscle
cells (specialized cells). The cells may re-enter the cell cycle if appropriate cues are
given.
11. What is apoptosis? Using examples, state how it affects the development and
functioning of multicellular organisms.
Apoptosis is programmed cell death. During apoptosis, enzymes, called caspases, are
activated and contribute to destruction of nucleus and the cell. Apoptosis contributes to
balance and maintenance of the body. Apoptosis, as opposed to cell division, keeps the
number of cells in the body at an appropriate level. For example, when tadpole becomes
a frog, the tail disappears due to apoptosis. In human embryo, the fingers and toes are
first webbed. Then, they separate from each other due to apoptosis. Apoptosis also
contributes to destruction of damaged cells, and infected cells. In this way, the virus
cannot enter the neighbor cells and contribute to the general infection of the organism.
Thus, it has a protective role as well.
12. Explain each of the three checkpoints of the cell cycle; stating conditions
permitting the cell cycle to either stop or continue.
a. G1 Checkpoint
• Is the primary checkpoint of the cell cycle.
• The signaling proteins stop the cell cycle at the G1 checkpoint when DNA is
damaged.
• Attempts to repair the DNA are made.
• If the DNA cannot be repaired apoptosis occurs.
• Monitoring of the nutrients and growth factors occurs at the G1 checkpoint.
The cell will only enter the S stage if appropriate nutrients are available.
b. G2 checkpoint
• Cell cycle stops at the G2 checkpoint if DNA has not finished replicating.
• Or if the DNA is physically damaged due to exposure to solar radiation or
X-rays.
• Attempts to repair the DNA are made.
• If the DNA cannot be repaired apoptosis occurs.
c. M (anaphase) checkpoint
• Cells cycle stops at the M checkpoint if the chromosomes are not attached
properly to the mitotic spindle.
• Occurs during metaphase of mitosis.
• The kinetochores of each chromosomes must be attached properly to the
spindle fiber and the chromosomes properly aligned along the metaphase
plate.
13. Discuss how the cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases regulate the cell cycle.
Cyclin dependent kinases bind a regulatory protein called a cyclin. Without cyclin,
CDK has little activity. The cyclin-CDK complexes regulate the progression through
the cell cycle by phosphorylating substrates, either causing them to gain or lose their
function. Such substrates include cell proteins like histones, cytoskeletal proteins,
transcription factors, and tumour suppressor genes.

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14. Describe the role of mitosis promoting factor (MPF) in in triggering the cell’s
passage from G2 to M Phase.
Mitosis promoting factor is a protein complex responsible for triggering mitosis in
somatic cells. It consists of a cyclin bound to a cyclin-dependent kinase. MPF catalyses
the phosphorylation of proteins that bring about the events of mitosis (condensation of
chromosomes, formation of the mitotic spindle, and breakdown of the nuclear
envelope).
15. Describe the changes in levels of MPF and cyclins throughout the cell cycle.
• During the S and G2 stages cyclins accumulate.
• As the cell enters the M stage (mitosis) cyclins bind to the cyclin dependent
kinases forming the active MPF (mitosis promoting factor complex).
• MPF (cyclin + cyclin dependent kinase) catalyzes the phosphorylation of proteins
that bring about the events of mitosis (condensation of chromosomes, formation of
the mitotic spindle, and breakdown of the nuclear envelope).
• Levels of MPF (cyclin + cyclin dependent kinase) rise as the cell enters mitosis,
peak during mitosis, and then fall at the end of mitosis.
• At the end of the M stage (mitosis) cyclins are degraded, but the cyclin dependent
kinase remains in the cell until it becomes part of the MPF again in the next cell
cycle.
16. [G]
a. What are some events that occur during G1 stage of the cell cycle?
During G1, the cell recovers from the previous division. It grows in size, increases
the number organelles, and accumulates material needed for DNA synthesis.
b. What is are some main events that occur during the S stage of the cell cycle?
During the S (DNA Synthesis) stage, DNA replication occurs. At the beginning of
the S stage, each chromosome is composed of one DNA double helix. By the end
of the S stage, DNA content is doubled as each chromosome is composed of two
identical DNA double helix molecules.
c. What are some main events that occur during the G2 stage of the cell cycle?
During G2, the cell produces proteins that will assist in cell division.

Section 9.2 Structure of the Eukaryotic Chromosome

17. What are the various levels of the chromosomal structure?

Five levels:
• The DNA is compacted by winding it around DNA-binding proteins called histones
to make nucleosomes.
• These nucleosomes are compacted into a three-dimensional zigzag structure via
histone and other DNA –binding proteins.
• The nucleosome is then folded upon itself many times to form radial loops, this
shortens the DNA strand.
• The radial loops are tightly compacted to form heterochromatin.
• A protein scaffold helps to condense the chromosome into the form of metaphase
chromosomes.
Term 1 Week 7

Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction

Section 9.3 Mitosis and Cytokinesis

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18. Define the following words: chromosome, chromatin, chromatid, centriole,
cytokinesis, centromere, histone, and kinetochore.
• Chromosome: Condensed and tightly bound chromatin.
• Chromatin: Network of DNA strands and associated proteins observed within a
nucleus that is not dividing.
• Chromatid: Either of the two strands of a replicated chromosome joined at the
centromere, following separation, each chromosome is a single chromatid.
• Centriole: Structure in animal cells, which organizes a mitotic spindle fiber for
chromosome movement.
• Cytokinesis: is the last stage in mitosis. It is when the cytoplasm divides into two
cells.
• Centromere: A specialized region in a chromosome that holds the two chromatids
together. Histone: Any of several small, basic proteins most commonly found in
association with DNA in chromosomes of eukaryotes.
• Kinetochore: Disc-shaped protein on the centromere that attaches the chromatid to
the mitotic spindle during cell division.
19. Describe mitosis.
Mitosis is a stage of the cell cycle that alternates with interphase. Mitosis ensures the
transfer of a complete genome from a parent cell to two genetically identical daughter
cells.
20. Enumerate the roles of mitosis in organisms.
Mitosis plays a role in growth, tissue repair, and asexual reproduction.
21. Draw a diagram of the various stages of mitosis.

22. [G]
a. What are the major events that occur during prophase?
• Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope fragments.
• Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes.
• The two centrosomes migrate away from one another and the mitotic spindle
assembles.
• Kinetochores appear on each side of the centromere, and attach the
chromosomes to the spindle fibers.
b. What are the major events that occur during metaphase?
The centromeres of the duplicated chromosomes align on an imaginary plane
called the metaphase plate.
c. What are the major events that occur during anaphase?
• The two sister chromatids of each duplicated chromosome separate at the
centromere, giving rise to two daughter chromosomes.
• The daughter chromosome is composed of a centromere and a single
chromatid (single double helix).
• The daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles of the spindle.

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 • At the end of anaphase two sets of chromosomes have formed at opposite
poles of the cell. Each set has the same number of chromosomes as the parent
cell.
d. What are the major events that occur during telophase?
• The spindle disappears.
• New nuclear envelopes re-form around the daughter chromosomes.
• The chromosomes become the more diffuse chromatin and a nucleolus is
visible again.
• Cytokinesis, which is division of the cytoplasm begins.
23. [T] During spring, a student collected samples of cells from a woody plant.
Sample A was collected from the root tip of the plant.
Sample B was collected from the woody stem of the plant.
Cells were showing different steps of mitosis in the two samples. However, sample A
was showing more dividing cells compared to sample B
(a) Describe the importance of mitosis in the growth of a plant.
Mitosis gives rise to new cells for growth and development.
(b) Explain why there are more cells observed in mitosis in sample A than in sample
B.
The root tip is growing faster than the woody stem due to the presence of the
meristematic region.
(c) The diagrams below represent various stages of mitosis. Number them in
sequential order.

3 1 2 4

(d) Explain how the arrangement of cellular components during metaphase step of
mitosis assists the correct distribution of chromosomes to the two daughter cells.
The lining up of the chromosomes at the equator ensures that the two chromatids are
distributed to the opposite ends of the cell.
Section 9.4 The Cell Cycle and Cancer

24. Identify the causes of cancer.

• Cancer is caused by a loss of control in the cell cycle. This usually is a result of
mutations in the genes responsible for controlling the cell cycle. These include
tumour suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes.
• Mutated tumour suppressor genes may be passed on from parents to their
offspring. Therefore susceptibility to develop cancer is inheritable.
• Mutations in these key genes may be acquired such as upon the exposure to
carcinogens. The agents that cause cancer are called carcinogens. E.g pesticides,
herbicides, radiation, and viruses.
25. Describe the role of signal transduction pathways in producing a cellular response.
1. Reception: A signal molecule known as a ligand from outside the target cell binds
to the receptor. The ligand and receptor have a specific one-to-one relationship.
2. Transduction: After the ligand binds, the intracellular domain of a receptor protein
changes shape initiating transduction of the signal.

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 Second messengers (such as cyclic AMP) are molecules that relay and amplify the
intracellular signal. Signaling cascades relay signals from receptors to cell targets,
often amplifying the incoming signals.
3. Response: A specific cellular response occurs. The appropriate responses by the
cell could include cell growth, secretion of molecules, or gene expression
26. Identify the three main types of receptors involved in cell signaling.
The three types of receptors involved in cell signaling are ion channel proteins, G-protein
coupled receptors and protein kinase receptors.
27. Describe the protein kinase receptors.
• Protein kinase receptors are characterized by having enzyme activity.
• Protein kinase receptors span the entire plasma membrane.
• The part of the protein kinase receptor that extends into the cytoplasm functions as
tyrosine kinase enzyme. It catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP
to the amino acid tyrosine.
• Before the ligand binds (extracellular messenger) protein kinase receptor exists as
separate units and is inactive.
• Once the ligand binds to the protein kinase receptor the separate units aggregate
together and the tyrosine kinase enzyme is active.
• Specific relay proteins are activated within the cell that lead to a cellular response.
28. Describe the transduction pathway involved when a person cuts themselves.
• When a person cuts their skin epidermal growth factor proteins bind to an
epidermal growth factor protein receptor, which is a type of tyrosine kinase
receptor, found on the cell membrane of skin cells.
• The protein kinase activity of the epidermal growth factor receptor is activated
once it binds with epidermal growth factor, which is the ligand (extracellular
messenger).
• This activates a series of signaling proteins within the cell that eventually leads to
the cellar response to divide.
29. Describe the role of proto-oncogenes in the cell cycle.
• Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that promote the cell
cycle and prevent apoptosis.
• Stimuli such as injuries causes the release of growth factors which bind to a
receptor protein on the plasma membrane.
• A series of enzymatic reactions (extending from the plasma membrane to the
nucleus) leads to the activation of the proto-oncogenes.
• Gene products are formed that promote the cell cycle.
30. Describe the consequence of mutations occurring in the proto-oncogenes.
• Mutations of proto-oncogenes form the cancer causing genes known as
oncogenes. Oncogenes code for proteins that continue to promote the cell cycle
regardless of circumstances.
• For example, oncogenes may code for a faulty receptor protein that activates the
stimulatory pathway even if growth factor (ligand) is not present, leading to
uncontrolled cell division.
31. Describe the role of tumor-suppressor genes in the cell cycle and development of
cancer.
Tumor suppressor genes code for proteins that inhibit the cell cycle and promote
apoptosis. Mutation of the tumor suppressor genes cause production of nonfunctional
gene products that fail to halt or slow down the cell cycle when needed.
32. Outline the role of a named example of a tumour suppressor gene.

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 p53 gene codes for the p53 protein that regulates the cell cycle at the G1 checkpoint.
• Normally if the DNA is not damaged the p53 protein will be broken down.
• In response to DNA damage p53 is phosphorylated by cyclin dependent kinases of
the G1 checkpoint.
• Phosphorylated p53 is not broken down and accumulates in the cell.
• Phosphorylated p53 activates certain genes that produce protein products that will
attempt to repair the damaged DNA.
• If the DNA is repaired p53 levels falls and the cell is allowed to complete G1
phase.
• If DNA is not repaired p53 continues to rise and stimulates apoptosis.
• Mutation in the p53 gene results in a nonfunctional p53 protein that fails to stop
the cell cycle when needed.
33. [T] When DNA is damaged due to external factors like UV radiation, a transcription
factor made of protein called p53 regulates the cell cycle progression. The p53
pathway of action is explained in the figure below.

(a) What are the products of the cell cycle of a skin cell?
Two diploid daughter cells identical in their genetic composition.
(b) Based on the Figure above, explain how p53 regulates the cell cycle if the DNA is
damaged.
In the presence of DNA damage protein kinases are activated which active p53 by the
addition of phosphate. P53 then results in the release of a CDK inhibitor which will
prevent the bind of the cyclin to its relative cyclic dependent kinase and the cell cycle
will be halted.
(c) On the template provided, determine where the replication of damaged DNA
would occur.
M
G2 G1

S G0

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d) Why would a mutation to p53 lead to an increased risk of cancer.
If p53 gene mutates, that means p53 protein will not be activated, which will halt the
stimulation of the CDK inhibitor, allowing the cell cycle to proceed giving the two newly
formed cells damaged or mutated DNA.
Section 9.5 Prokaryotic Cell Division
34.
a. Compare prokaryotic chromosomes to eukaryotic chromosomes.
Prokaryotic chromosome: consists of a single, circular loop of DNA. Prokaryotic
cells have one chromosome, which is mainly DNA molecule with few associated
proteins (not histones). At the same time, they may have plasmids.
Eukaryotic chromosome: is linear with two ends. It consists of a DNA molecule
wrapped around DNA binding proteins, called histones, to make nucleosomes,
that then arranged into certain patterns to make euchromatin. The latter is further
compacted to form heterochromatin that then further compress and form the
chromosome. Unlike Prokaryotes, there are more than one chromosome in
eukaryotic cells.
b. Compare the process of cell division and its function in prokaryotes to that in
eukaryotes.

Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction

Section 10.1 Overview of Meiosis
1. Describe meiosis.
• Meiosis is a process that ensures the formation of haploid gamete cells in sexually
reproducing diploid organisms.
• Meiosis results in daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes of the
parent cell.

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 • Meiosis involves two rounds of a sequential series of steps (meiosis I and meiosis
II).
2. Identify the purpose of each of the nuclear divisions occurring during meiosis.
• Aim of the 1st nuclear division→ Separation of the homologous chromosomes in
meiosis I ensures that each gamete receives a haploid (1n) set of chromosomes
that comprises both maternal and paternal chromosomes.
• Aim of the 2nd nuclear division→ splitting the sister chromatids to reduce the
amount of DNA to an amount appropriate for each gamete, chromosomes are no
longer duplicated.

Section 10.2 Genetic Variation

3. Explain why sister chromatids are genetically identical before crossing over, while
homologous chromosomes in a pair are not identical.
Sister chromatids originate when DNA replication takes place. In fact, each of the
chromatids is one of the daughter DNA molecules produced in the result of replication.
DNA replication is a very accurate process, and thus, sister chromatids before crossing-
over are identical. At the same time, homologous chromosomes do not have the
common origin. One comes from mother, and one comes from father. Thus, they are
different in the sequence of DNA, or particular alleles present.
4. Identify sources of genetic variation among sexually reproducing eukaryotic
organisms.
• Mutations- give rise to new alleles.
• Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis
• Independent assortment] during metaphase I of meiosis
• Fertilization- Fertilization involves the fusion of two haploid gametes, restoring
the diploid number of chromosomes and increasing genetic variation in
populations by creating new combinations of alleles in the zygote
5. What is the primary source of genetic variation?
Mutation is the primary source of genetic variation.
6. [G] How does meiosis result in genetic diversity?
crossing over →Source of genetic variation
Crossing over is an exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of a
bivalent during prophase of meiosis I. Chiasmata are regions where the non-sister
chromatids are attached leading to the DNA strand exchange and a new combination of
genes.
independent assortment→ Source of genetic variation
When homologous chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, the maternal or paternal
homologue may be oriented toward either pole. The homologous chromosomes
therefore separate independently. Gametes formed will therefore have a different
combination of homologous chromosomes attributing to genetic variation. This random
orientation of the homologous chromosomes during metaphase of meiosis I is referred
to as independent assortment.
Section 10.3 The Phases of Meiosis
7. Illustrate the stages of meiosis I and meiosis II using a series of simple, annotated
diagrams.

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8. Describe the events occurring during prophase I.

Prophase I (condensation)
• Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes.
• The nuclear membrane disappears.
• The centrioles start to travel to opposite poles of the cell.
• The mitotic spindle is assembled.
• Synapsis: The homologous chromosomes pair with each other side by side to form
bivalents or tetrads.
• Crossing over: Non-sister chromatids exchange genetic information between
paternal and maternal chromosomes.
9. Describe the events occurring during metaphase I.

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 Metaphase I (Alignment)
• The [homologous] chromosomes (bivalents) are randomly aligned across the
center of the cell at the [metaphase plate].
• [Independent assortment]: The maternal and paternal chromosomes are facing
either pole of the cell, randomly arranged.
• At this stage the chromosomes are still [duplicated], consist of the full [diploid]
number and are arranged in [pairs].
10. Describe the events occurring during anaphase I.

Anaphase I (Separation)
• The spindle fibres shorten to separate the homologous chromosomes (bivalents).
• The sister chromatids are kept together.
• Each of the chromosomes within a homologous pair are pulled to opposite sides of
the cell.
• The chromosome number is halved.
11. Describe the events occurring during telophase I.
Telophase I (Restoration)
• The mitotic spindles disappear.
• The nuclear envelopes are restored around the daughter chromosomes forming
two nuclei.
• The chromosomes de-condense to form diffuse chromatin.
12. Describe the events occurring during prophase II.

Prophase II (condensation)
• Chromatin condenses to chromosomes.
• Nuclear membrane disappears.
• The mitotic spindle is formed and spindle fibres are attached to the chromosomes’
kinetochores.
13. Describe the events occurring during metaphase II.

Metaphase II (Alignment)

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 • The haploid number of chromosomes are aligned in a straight line at the
metaphase plate.
• At this stage the chromosomes are still duplicated.
• The chromosomes are no longer in homologous pairs.
14. Describe the events occurring during anaphase II.

Anaphase II (Separation)
• The centromere holding the sister chromatids split and release chromatids as
separate chromosomes.
• The sister chromatids are pulled to each pole of the cell.
• The daughter chromosomes are now only consisting of one DNA double helix or
chromatid.
15. Describe the events occurring during telophase II.
Telophase II (Restoration)
• The mitotic spindle disappears.
• The nuclear membrane reappears.
• The chromosomes de-condense to form chromatin.
• By the end of telophase II four daughter nuclei, each containing one set of
chromosomes, each with a single chromatid.
16. [G] What happens during the different stages of meiosis I and meiosis II?
In meiosis I:
• Prophase I: A spindle forms as the centrosomes migrate away from one another.
The nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleolus disappears. The homologous
chromosomes undergo synapsis to form bivalents.
• Metaphase I: Bivalents independently align themselves at the metaphase plate of
the spindle.
• Anaphase I: The homologues of each bivalent separate and move to opposite
poles, but sister chromatids do not separate. The number of chromosomes is
reduced from 2n to n. Telophase I: Daughter cells have one chromosome from
each homologous pair. Chromosomes still consist of two chromatids.
• Interkinesis: Daughter cells enter a short rest period prior to beginning the second
nuclear division, meiosis II.
In meiosis II:
• Prophase II: The two daughter cells contain a haploid number of chromosomes
(one chromosome from each homologous pair). Chromosomes still consist of
duplicated sister chromatids.
• Metaphase II: Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.
• Anaphase II: The sister chromatids separate, becoming daughter chromosomes
that are not duplicated. These daughter chromosomes move toward the poles.
• Telophase II: Spindle disappears, nuclei form, and cytokinesis takes place.
Meiosis results in four haploid daughter cells.

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Section 10.4 Meiosis Compared to Mitosis

17. State three ways by which daughter cells produced as a result of meiosis differ
from daughter cells produced by mitosis.

18. Compare meiosis I to mitosis.

19. What accounts for:

the genetic similarity between the parental cell and the daughter cells produced by
mitosis?
In mitosis, the number of chromosomes is maintained. During interphase, the DNA
molecule is replicated, and each chromosome gains two identical chromatids. They are
identical to the original DNA present in the parent cell. The chromatids separate during

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 mitosis, and each daughter cell receives one. Thus, the daughter cells are identical to each
other and to the parental cell.
the genetic differences between the parental cell and the daughter cells produced by
meiosis?
Meiosis brings about genetic recombination in two ways: crossing-over and independent
assortment of homologous chromosome. Each of these events leads to greater
dissimilarity between the parent and daughter cells. Crossing over: During prophase I,
non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange pieces of genetic material.
It leads to new combination of alleles. Independent assortment of homologues: During
metaphase I, tetrads separate into chromosomes that go to opposite poles. The actual
orientation of the chromosome and subsequent separation is random for each tetrad. Thus,
the set of chromosomes got by each daughter cell is different. Thus, the cells are different
from one another and from the parental cell. In addition, lack of replication between
meiotic divisions leads to reduction in chromosome complement, which results in the
most significant difference between the daughter and parental cells.
20. G Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis.
In both processes:
• An orderly series of stages, including prophase, prometaphase, metaphase,
anaphase, and telophase are involved in the sorting and division of the
chromosomes.
• The spindle fibers are active in sorting the chromosomes.
• Cytokinesis follows the end of the process to divide the cytoplasm between the
daughter cells.
Differences:
• Meiosis requires two nuclear divisions, but mitosis requires only one nuclear
division.
• Meiosis produces four daughter cells, but mitosis produces two daughter cells.
• Following meiosis, the four daughter cells are haploid and have half the
chromosome number as the diploid parent cell. Following mitosis, the daughter
cells have the same chromosome number as the parent cell.
• Following meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical neither to each
other nor to the parent cell. Following mitosis, the daughter cells are genetically
identical to each other and to the parent cell.
• Meiosis allows reproduction, while mitosis allows growth and repair.
• Meiosis occurs only in reproductive organs at certain times during the life of
sexually reproducing organisms. Mitosis is more common as it occurs in different
body tissues during growth and repair.

Section 10.6 Changes in Chromosome Number and Structure

21. Distinguish between sex chromosome aneuploidy and autosomal aneuploidy, giving
an example of a human syndrome in each case.
Autosomal aneuploidy is presence of the incorrect number of autosomes only. An
example of autosomal aneuploidy is Down syndrome or trisomy 21. The disorder is
caused by the presence of extra chromosome 21, either entire chromosome, or its part.
Sex chromosome aneuploidy is presence of the incorrect number of sex chromosomes
only. An example of a sex chromosome aneuploidy is Klinefelter syndrome or Turner
syndrome. Klinefelter syndrome is a disorder caused by presence of extra copy of X
chromosome in each cell. OR Turner syndrome, a condition characterized by lack in X
chromosome. It is associated with short stature, infertility, heart defects and certain

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 learning disabilities. Human embryo with sex chromosome aneuploidy is viable;
however, embryo with autosomal aneuploidy is viable only in case of trisomy 21, 18 and
13.
22. What is non-disjunction and when does it occur?
Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or
sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II. This results in a loss of the normal
chromosome number in the daughter cell.
23. Differentiate between the terms monosomy and trisomy.
• Monosomy (2n-1) occurs when an individual has only one of a particular type of
chromosome when they should have two. In humans this would results in the
inheritance of 45 chromosomes.
• Trisomy (2n+1) occurs when an individual has three of a particular type of
chromosome when they should have two. In humans this would result in the
inheritance of 47 chromosomes.
24. What is Klinfelter’s syndrome?
Klinfelter’s Syndrome is a type of trisomy. The individual is a male with one Y
chromosome and multiple X chromosomes. The genotype is XXY.
Below is a karyotype of an individual with Klinfelter Syndrome. Notice the individual
has two copies all the chromosomes except for the sex chromosomes. He has three copies
of sex chromosomes. This occurs due to non-disjunction of the chromosomes during
meiosis.

25. Down’s syndrome is also known as trisomy 21. From the alternative name of
Down’s syndrome describe the likely events leading to this syndrome.
• Normally each somatic cell (eg. Liver cell, kidney cell) should have two copies of
chromosomes 21 and a gamete should have one copy of chromosome 21.
• Trisomy 21 occurs when a normal gamete with one copy of chromosome 21 fuses
with a gamete with two copies of chromosome 21.
• The resulting zygote will have three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual
2. Down’s syndrome is an example of a trisomy (2n+1) i.e., 47 chromosomes in
humans
26. Use the karyotype below to answer the following three questions.

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 a. Which is correct about the person with such karyotype?
A. This person has Klinefelter syndrome.
B. This person has a sex-linked condition.
C. This person has Down syndrome.
D. This person has hemophilia.
E. This person has Turner’s syndrome.

b. The karyotype given above represents the chromosomes of a person who is a

A. female.
B. male.
C. female missing a chromosome.
D. male with an extra X chromosome.
E. female with an extra sex chromosome.

c. The karyotype given above shows a condition that happened as a result of

A. non-disjunction.
B. one deleted chromosome.
C. one translocated chromosome.
D. polyploidy.
E. pleiotropy.
27. [T] In a certain species the diploid number is 4. Height is controlled by a single gene
in which the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. Petal color is controlled by a
single gene in which the purple color is dominant to the short color. The two
mentioned genes are found on separate chromosomes. Draw the daughter cells
formed from meiosis of the cell depicted below showing the chromosome and the
alleles they carry, knowing the cell is taken from a plant that is heterozygote for
both traits.

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28. [T] Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of a male and a female gamete, which
gives rise to a zygote that later develops into an organism. The following table
describes a cellular division type that occurs during sexual reproduction in humans.

a. Complete the table below with the missing information.

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 b. Answer the following questions concerning sexual reproduction and asexual
reproduction (specifically, binary fission).
i. List two differences between sexual and asexual reproduction.

ii. Explain one of the differences listed in b (i).

In sexual reproduction, crossing-over and the independent assortment of
chromosomes occur during meiosis resulting in genetic variation. Random
fertilization of an egg by a sperm also increases the level of genetic variation. In
binary fission, the same cell divides into two identical daughter cells having the same
number of chromosomes and identical to the mother cell (no fertilization occurs).

Term 1 Week 8

Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance

Section 11.2 Mendel’s Laws
1. [G] State Mendel’s law of segregation.
The law of segregation states the following:
• Each individual has two hereditary factors for each trait.
• The hereditary factors segregate during gamete formation.
• Each gamete contains only one hereditary factor.
• Fertilization gives each offspring two hereditary factors for each trait.
Note: We now call these “hereditary factors” genes.
2. [G] Explain Mendel’s law of independent assortment.

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 The law of independent assortment states that:
• Each pair of hereditary factors for one characteristic assorts independently from
other pairs of factors during meiosis.
• All possible combinations of hereditary factors can occur in the gametes and this
increases diversity.
Note: We now call the “hereditary factors” genes.
3. [G] A homozygous parent with black fur is crossed with a homozygous parent with
white fur as seen below.

a. Knowing that the resulting offspring all have black fur, identify the
dominant and recessive alleles in this cross.
The resulting offspring will be 100% Bb, having black fur. This
indicates that the dominant allele is B representing black fur, and the recessive
allele is b representing white fur.
b. The F1 individuals were crossed. What is the expected percentage of F2
offspring having black fur?
The expected percentage of F2 offspring having black fur is 75%.
4. [G] What are the probabilities of specific phenotypes and genotypes in the following
crosses?
a. monohybrid cross, true-breeding pea plants: Tall x Short (Tall is dominant
over short)

b. dihybrid cross, true-breeding pea plants: Tall, Green pod x Short, Yellow
pod (Tall is dominant over short, and green is dominant over yellow.)

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5. When does Mendel’s law of independent assortment apply?
Mendel’s law of independent assortment does apply when we are studying the inheritance
of different pairs of genes occurring on different chromosome.
6. In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers, (P) is dominant to that for white
flowers (p), the allele for tall stems (T) is dominant to that for short stems (t) and
these genes are located at different loci. Plants from true-breeding variety with
purple flowers and tall stems are crossed with plants from a true-breeding variety
with white flowers and short stems. These individuals constitute the Parental
generation (P). The F1 generation was then allowed to self-pollinate. Answer the
following questions:

a. Which are the genotypes of the P generation?

Pure breeding pea plant with purple flowers with tall stems: PPTT
Pure breeding pea plant with white flowers and short stems: pptt
b. What are the expected genotypes of the F1 generation? Draw a genetic diagram
to support your answer.
Parent phenotype Purple, tall White, short
Parent genotype PPTT pptt
gametes PT pt

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 F1 genotype PpTt
F1 Phenotype Purple and tall

All the individuals of F1 generation will be hybrids therefore their genotype is: PpTt
c. Write the possible combinations of alleles in the gametes that F1 generation can
produce during meiosis in the gametes.
Gamete 1: PT
Gamete 2: Pt
Gamete 3: pT
Gamete 4: pt
d. If the F1 generation were self-pollinated, what is the expected phenotypic
ration in the F2 generation? What do we call such a cross?
F1 phenotype Purple, tall Purple, tall
F1 genotype PpTt PpTt
F1 gametes PT PT
(based on the law of independent Pt Pt
assortment all combination of alleles pT pT
may occur in the gametes) pt pt
Punnett squares show us the possible genotypes in the F2 generation upon
fertilization.
PT Pt pT pt
PT PPTT purple tall PPTt purple tall PpTT purple tall PpTt purple tall
Pt PPTt purple tall PPtt purple short PpTt purple tall Pptt purple short
pT PpTT purple tall PpTt purple tall ppTT white tall ppTt white tall
pt PpTt purple tall Pptt purple short ppTt white tall pptt white short
We get a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 between two heterozygotes for two traits. This
is a dihybrid cross.

Section 11.3 Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance and Human Disease

7. G Outline the features of autosomal recessive disorders.
1. The normal allele is dominant and only individuals that are homozygous recessive
have the disorder.
2. Most affected children have unaffected parents (carriers).
3. Heterozygotes have a normal phenotype and are known as carriers.
4. Two affected parents will always have affected children.
5. Close relatives who reproduce are more likely to have affected children.
6. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency.
8. G Outline features of autosomal dominant disorders.
1. The normal allele is recessive and individuals that have at least one copy of the
dominant allele have the disorder. Therefore homozygote dominants and
heterozygotes have the disorder.
2. Affected children will always have at least one affected parent.
3. Heterozygotes are affected.
4. Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child.
5. Two unaffected parents cannot have affected children.
7. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency.
9. G Outline the features of X-linked recessive disorders.
1. More males than females are affected.
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 2. An affected son can have parents who have the normal phenotype.
3. For a female to have the characteristic her father must also have it. Her mother
must have it or be a carrier.
4. The characteristic usually skips a generation from the grandfather to the grandson.
5. If a woman has the trait all of her sons will have it.
10. Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. The allele for non-affected is
dominant to that for haemophilia.
a. Why is haemophilia said to be X-linked?
Haemophilia is said to be X-linked because the gene causing this disorder exists on
the X chromosome and therefore affects males and females at different frequencies.
b. Why is haemophilia said to be a recessive disorder?
Haemophilia is a recessive genetic disorder because the gene causing haemophilia
can be masked by the presence of the normal gene.
c. If a heterozygous non-affected woman mates with a haemophilic man, what
are the expected phenotypes of the children?
𝑋 𝐴 = normal
𝑋 𝑎 = haemophilia
Parent phenotype Non-affected woman (carrier) Haemophilic man
Parent genotype 𝑋 𝐴𝑋𝑎 𝑋𝑎 𝑌
𝑎
gametes 𝑋𝐴 𝑋𝑎 𝑋 Y
𝐴 𝑎 𝐴
Offspring genotype 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 𝑌 𝑋𝑎𝑋𝑎 𝑋𝑎Y
Offspring Non-affected Non-affected maleAffected female Affected male
phenotype female
50% of the children will be affected.
50% of the boys will be affected.
50% of the girls will be affected.
d. If a heterozygous woman mates with a normal man, what are the expected
phenotypes of the children?
Parent phenotype Non-affected woman (Carrier) Normal man
Parent genotype 𝑋 𝐴𝑋𝑎 𝑋𝐴 𝑌
gametes 𝑋𝐴 𝑋𝑎 𝑋𝐴 Y
𝐴 𝐴 𝐴
Offspring genotype 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 𝑌 𝑋 𝑋𝐴𝑎
𝑋𝑎Y
Offspring phenotype Non-affected Non-affected Non- Affected
female male Affected male
female
25% of the children will be affected.
50% of the boys will be affected.
0% of the girls will be affected.
11. The pedigree chart below represents the family history of a disease. What pattern of
inheritance is depicted? Support your answer.

Because unaffected parents may have an affected child, this disease follows the
recessive pattern of inheritance. The equal probability of the disease among males and

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 females indicates this disorder is autosomal. Healthy individuals in this family can be
referred to as carriers.
12. Study the following pedigrees and identify which patterns of inheritance they
represent. Explain your answer.

Pedigree A: This pedigree shows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance.

• We say autosomal as both males and females are affected with equal frequency.
• We say recessive because an affected child can have two unaffected parents.
Pedigree B: This pedigree shows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance
• We say autosomal since the condition affects both males and females with equal
frequency.
• We say recessive because, the affected individuals are the offspring of apparently
unaffected parents. Therefore, both parents are carriers of the disease.
Pedigree C:
• This pedigree shows an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance since the condition
affects only males, making females the carriers of the condition. For example:
Colour-blindness and haemophilia.
13. The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder.

a. What pattern of inheritance is depicted?

This is a sex-linked recessive disorder as more males than females are affected.
b. One of the affected males in the third generation marries a woman who is a
carrier for the genetic disorder. What are the chances their first son will
have the disorder?
Parent Female that not having the Male with the disorder
phenotype disorder but is a carrier
Parent genotype 𝑋𝑁 𝑋𝑛 𝑋𝑛𝑌
gametes 𝑋𝑁 𝑋𝑛
𝑋𝑛 Y
𝑁 𝑛
F1 genotype 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋𝑁 𝑌 𝑋𝑛 𝑋𝑛 𝑋𝑛𝑌
F1 phenotype Female carrier, normal male, female with disorder, male with
disorder

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 As half of the males would suffer from the disorder there is a 50% chance their
first son will have the disorder.
14. What is non-nuclear inheritance?
Non-nuclear inheritance is a pattern of inheritance in which genetic information from
sources other than the chromosomes in the nucleus, such as DNA located in
mitochondria and chloroplasts.
15. Describe the inheritance of mitochondrial DNA in animals.
In animals, mitochondria are transmitted by the egg and not by sperm; as such, traits
determined by the mitochondrial DNA are maternally inherited.
16. Describe the inheritance of mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA in plants.
In plants, mitochondria and chloroplasts are transmitted in the ovule and not in the pollen;
as such, mitochondria-determined and chloroplast-determined traits are maternally
inherited.
17. Explain the reason behind leaf colour variation.
Chloroplasts in plant cells have their various copies of its own circular DNA (cpDNA),
which has the same genetic material. CpDNA codes for some of the proteins required to
make the pigments in a plant cell. Therefore, mutations in these genes can cause leaf
colour variation. For example in Mirabilis jalapa (Four-o’clock plant) a defective gene
fails to produce chlorophyll resulting in white leaves. In contrast to mtDNA, cpDNA
can also be paternally inherited, although it is most often inherited maternally.
18. Explain why mitochondrial diseases are maternally inherited.
When fertilization occurs and the sperm enters the egg to fuse the egg, sperm nuclei, the
mid-piece and the tail of the sperm are destroyed, therefore the sperm’s mitochondria
are lost. The cytoplasm of the zygote is supplied by the egg cell and the very little
cytoplasm of the sperm. Hence, the mitochondria in the fertilised egg are all from the
mother thus making mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) maternally inherited. This is the
reason why each individual’s mtDNA, either male or female, is identical to his/her
mother’s mtDNA and will carry the same functional or faulty genes to that of the
mother.
19. If the mother has a defective gene in her mitochondria, where are the chances that
the child will suffer from the related condition?
During fertilization, zygote obtains mitochondria only from the egg cell. As a result, if
the mother has a defective gene in the mitochondria, the probability to have a child
suffering from the related condition is 100%.
20.

The pedigree chart shows the inheritance of an allele of a gene in a family over three
generations. Shaded symbols indicate the individual carrying the allele. Based on
the pedigree chart explain the inheritance of the allele studied. State whether it is
autosomal or sex-linked, dominant or recessive, nuclear or mitochondrial.
The pedigree chart suggests that the allele is

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 a. autosomal as males and females are equally affected.
b. dominant as the trait appears in every generation with affected children always
having an affected parent.
c. nuclear as mitochondrial genes would have been inherited by all of the mother’s
offspring.
21. Two tall pea plants with green pods were crossed. They were both heterozygotes for
stem length and pod color. 248 offspring were produced.
Tall with green pods 147
Tall with yellow pods 40
Short with green pods 43
Short with yellow pods. 16
a. What is the frequency of tall pea plants with green pods?
147/248=0.592 which is close to [9/16]
b. What is the frequency of tall pants with yellow pods?
40/248=0.16 which is close to [3/16]
c. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
43/248=0.173 which is close to [3/16]
d. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
16/248=0.0645 which is close to [1/16]
e. What is the approximate phenotypic ratio in the offspring of the above di-
hybrid cross?
[9:3:3:1]
f. Does the phenotypic ratio fit with Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
[Yes]
g. What can we conclude about the inheritance of the genes for stem length and
pod color?
The gene for stem length and pod color were found on [separate] chromosomes
and therefore each pair of genes separated independently of each other. All
combinations of genes occurred in the gametes (TG, Tg, tG, tg).
22. One tall plant with green pods (TtGg) was cross with one short plant with yellow
pods (ttgg). 200 offspring were produced.
Tall with green pods 48
Tall with yellow pods 52
Short with green pods 47
Short with yellow pods. 53
a. What is the frequency of tall pea plants with green pods?
48/200 which is close to 1/4
b. What is the frequency of tall pants with yellow pods?
52/200 which is close to 1/4
c. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
47/200 which is close to 1/4
d. What is the frequency of short plants with yellow pods?
53/200 which is close to 1/4
e. What is the approximate phenotypic ratio in the offspring of the above test-
cross?
1:1:1:1
f. Does the phenotypic ratio fit with Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
[Yes]

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 g. What can we conclude about the inheritance of the genes for stem length and
pod color?
The gene for stem length and pod color were found on [separate] chromosomes
and therefore each pair of genes separated independently of each other.
23. Gray flies with longs (GgLl) were allowed to reproduce with black flies with short
wings (ggll). 100 offspring were formed with the following phenotypes.
Grey bodies with long wings 40
Grey bodies with short wings 9
Black bodies with long wings 9
Grey bodies with short wings 42
a. According to Mendel’s law of independent assortment, what is the expected
phenotypic ratio in the offspring?
1:1:1:1
b. Do the actual phenotypes of the offspring match with the expected
phenotypic ratio?
No
c. Do the genes for body color and wing length in fruit flies follow Mendel’s law
of independent assortment?
No
d. Explain why the above mentioned genes do not follow Mendel’s law of
independent assortment.
In this case the genes being studied are found on the same chromosome and
therefore do not separate independently of each other during gamete formation.
Such genes are said to be linked.
The grey fly with long wings is a heterozygote and therefore can pass on two
types of gametes: GL and gl.
The black fly with short wings can only produce gametes of one type: gl
Upon fertilization two genotypes are formed: GgLl and ggll producing grey
bodied flies with long wings and black bodied flies with short wings.
e. Why do the grey bodied flies with short wings and black bodied flies with
longs wings appear?
This is due to crossing over during prophase 1. Upon crossing over new gene
combinations are created, therefore a small percentage of gametes produced by the
dihybrid fly will be Gl and gL.

Grey bodies with long Black bodies with short

wings wings
genotype GgLl ggll
Gametes Majority: GL & gl gl
Recombined gametes:Gl
&gL
genotypes Majority: GgLl and ggll
Recombined genotypes:Ggll and ggLl
24. What would we notice in the offspring when studying genes that are linked?
1. They do not fit with the expected phenotypic ratios (1:1:1:1 or 9:3:3:1)
2. Most offspring have a combination of traits that is identical to that of either one
parent or both.
25. [G]
a. What are X-linked genes?

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 X-linked genes are genes carried on the X chromosome and are not present on the
Y chromosome.
b. What are genetically linked genes?
Genetically linked genes are genes that tend to segregate together and to be
inherited together during meiosis. These genes are present near each other on the
same chromosome. A dihybrid testcross between an F1 individual and a
homozygous recessive individual studying two genetically linked genes will result
in two main phenotypes in the produced offspring.
26. In fruit flies the allele for vestigial wings (l) is recessive to the alleles for wild-type
wings (L). Wing length is an autosomal trait. The allele for white eyes (𝑿𝒓 ) is
recessive to the allele for red eyes (𝑿𝑹 ). Eye color is determined by a sex linked gene
found on the X chromosome.
A true breeding female with wild-type wings and white eyes reproduces with a male
with vestigial wings and red eyes.
a. What are the genotypes of the parents?
Female- 𝐿𝐿𝑋 𝑟 𝑋 𝑟 Male: 𝑙𝑙𝑋 𝑅 𝑌
b. Draw up a genetic diagram to depict the expected genotypes and phenotypes
in the F1 generation.
Parent phenotype Wild-type wings and Vestigial wings and red
white eyes eyes
𝑟 𝑟
Parent Genotype 𝐿𝐿𝑋 𝑋 𝑙𝑙𝑋 𝑅 𝑌
𝑟
Gametes 𝐿𝑋 𝑙𝑋 𝑅
𝑙𝑌
F1 genotype 𝐿𝑙𝑋 𝑅 𝑋 𝑟 𝐿𝑙𝑋 𝑟 𝑌
F1 phenotype Female with wild-type wings and red eyes and male
with wild type wings and white eyes
c. What proportion of offspring are expected to be males with wild-type wings
and white eyes?
50%
27. In the fruit fly, Drosophila, the gene for body color and the gene for antennal shape
are linked.
Body color gene:
E= allele for striped body
e = allele for ebony body
Antennal shape gene:
A= allele for normal antennae
a = allele for aristopedia antennae
A female fruit fly with a striped body and normal antennae (EeAa) was crossed
with a male fruit fly with ebony body and aristopedia antennae (eeaa).
a. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the above if the mentioned genes are
found on separate chromosomes?
1:1:1:1
b. The following offspring were obtained from the above mentioned cross.
Striped body, normal antennae→44%
Ebony body, aristopedia antennae→44%
Striped body, aristopedia antennae→6%
Ebony body, normal antennae→6%
Identify the offspring that show recombined traits.
Striped body with astropedia antennae and ebony body with normal antennae

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 c. What is the cross over value?
The cross over value is the percentage of offspring that belong to the recombined
classes.
d. What information does the cross over value give us?
The cross over value is a measure of the distance apart of the two gene loci on
their chromosome. The smaller the cross over value the closer the gene loci are.
e. What is the cross over value of the above mentioned cross?
6% + 6%=12%
28. What is a map unit?
A map unit is a unit for measuring distance between genes (or other loci) on a
chromosome according to the frequency of recombination between them due to crossing
over.
A distance of 1 map units corresponds to a recombinant frequency (crossing over value)
of 1%.
One map unit is equal to 1% of recombinant frequency (crossing over value); therefore,
map unit is equal to the crossing over between the chromosomes.
29.
a. Recombination frequency between genes A and B is 18%. What is the map
distance between gene A and B?
18 m.u.
b. When studying the inheritance of two traits coded for by genes A and B, the
crossover value was calculated to be 18%? What is the map distance between
gene A and B?
30. A tall pea plant self-pollinated. The seeds germinated and grew into pea pants. Of
these plants, 46 are tall and 14 are short. Which of the following best explains the
appearance of the short offspring?
Being short is recessive to being tall in pea plants.
The parent plant is a heterozygote. When self-pollinated the offspring appeared to have
a phenotypic ratio of 3 tall to 1 short.

Parent phenotype Tall Tall

Parent genotype Tt Tt
gametes T t T t
F1 genotype TT Tt tT tt
F1 phenotype Tall Tall Tall Short

31. Two different gene loci (A/a and B/b) determine inheritance of flower color in
Salvia. The dominant allele B gives purple flowers and the recessive flower b gives
pink flowers. Neither the dominant allele B nor the recessive allele b may be
expressed in the absence of the dominant allele A.
a. A pure breeding pink flowered variety was crossed with a pure breeding
white flowered variety. The offspring had purple flowers.
Draw a genetic diagram to depict the cross and show why all offspring ended
up having purple flowers.

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 Parent phenotype Pink white
Parent genotype AAbb aaBB
gametes Ab aB
F1 genotype AaBb
F1 phenotype purple

b. The F1 generation was interbred. Show the genotypes and phenotypes in the
F2 generation by drawing up a genetic diagram.
F1 phenptypes purple purple
F1 Genotypes AaBb AaBb
F1 Gametes AB Ab aB ab AB Ab aB ab

AB Ab aB ab
AB AABB purple AABb purple AaBB purple AaBb purple
Ab AABb purple AAbb pink AaBb purple Aabb pink
aB AaBB purple AaBb purple aaBB white aaBb white
ab AaBb purple Aabb pink aaBb white aabb white
9 purple: 4 white : 3 pink
32. [T] The following cross was performed between two flies: Fly with long wings and
gray body × Fly with vestigial wings and black body All the offspring have long
wings and gray body in the F1. Assuming the genes for the studied traits are located
on different chromosomes, answer the following questions.
a. Are the parents in the cross studied above homozygous or heterozygous?
Justify your answer.
The parents are homozygous for both studied traits since all the produced
offspring have the same phenotype/since the cross led to the production of an F1
generation.
b. Specify the dominant allele for each trait. Justify your answer.
The allele coding for long wings is dominant over that coding for vestigial wings,
and the allele coding for gray body is dominant over that coding for black body
since all the members of the F1 generation have long wings and gray body.
c. Write the symbols of the corresponding alleles.
Let “L” designate the allele coding for long wings and “l’ designate the allele
coding for vestigial wings. Let “G” designate the allele coding for gray body and
“g” designate the allele coding for black body.
d. What are the four possible gametes that could be produced by a member of
the F1 generation during meiosis? Specify the alleles they contain and their
percentages.
25% of gametes with L and G alleles
25% of gametes with L and g alleles
25% of gametes with l and G alleles
25% of gametes with l and g allele
e. To identify whether a fly with the dominant phenotypes is homozygous or
heterozygous, a test-cross can be performed.
i. Predict the phenotypes and the phenotypic percentages of the offspring
resulting from a test-cross involving a member of the F1 generation.
25% long wings gray body 25% long wings black body 25% vestigial
wings gray body 25% vestigial wings black body

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 ii. Predict the phenotype percentages of the offspring resulting from the
test-cross if the two genes were genetically linked and crossing-over
occurs?
More than 25% long wings gray body and more than 25% vestigial wings
black body. Less than 25% long wings black body and less than 25%
vestigial wings gray body.
33.
a. When is  test used?
2

𝑋 2 test used when you want to know if your observed results are significantly
different from your expected results.
b. What is the criterion for using the  test?
2

You have two or more sets of quantitative data, which belong to two or more
discontinuous categories. (nominal data)
c. A breeder wants to know if the number of offspring of different phenotypes
obtained in a genetic cross is significantly different from the expected
number. What statistical test should be used?
𝑋 2 test
d. How is the value for 𝑿𝟐 interpreted?
Use a 𝑋 2 table. If your calculated 𝑋 2 value is greater than the 𝑋 2 value for a
probability of 0.05, then you can say your observed results differ significantly
from your expected results.
e. How can the number of degrees of freedom be calculated when using 𝑿𝟐 test?
Degrees of freedom = Number of classes of data-1
34. [T] The production of chlorophyll in tobacco plants is controlled by a single
dominant allele. Homozygous recessive seedlings are unable to synthesise
chlorophyll and appear white. These seedlings die soon after germination.
A student carried out an experiment in which a sample of tobacco seeds, obtained
by self-pollinating a heterozygous plant, was germinated and the number of green
and white seedlings counted. The results are shown in the table below.
Colour of seedlings Number counted (observed)
Green 203
White 64
A  2 test was then applied to determine whether these results differed significantly
from an expected 3 : 1 ratio.

a) Fill in the values of E (expected numbers), (O – E) and (O – E)2 in the table

below.
(O = observed numbers).
Colour of seedlings E O–E (O – E)2
Green 200 3 9
White 67 3 9
b) Use the formula given below to calculate the value of  2 . Show your
working.
( O − E )2
2 = 
E

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 9 9
2 = +
20 67
= 0.045 + 0.13 = 0.175

c) How many degrees of freedom are shown in this investigation?

1
d) For this number of degrees of freedom,  2 values corresponding to
important values of P are as follows.
Value of P 0.99 0.95 0.90 0.50 0.10 0.05 0.01 0.001
Value of  0.00016 0.0039 0.016
2
0.46 2.71 3.84 6.63 10.83
What conclusions can be drawn from this  2 test concerning the inheritance
of the ability to synthesis chlorophyll?
✓ Our calculated  2 0.175 is less than the  2 value that represents a probability
of 0.05.
✓ The null hypothesis (the difference between the expected and observed
results is caused by chance) would be accepted.
✓ so there is no significant difference between observed and expected
numbers;
✓ the differences are due to chance;
✓ confirms that the production of chlorophyll is due to a dominant gene
35. [T] A research team has genetically engineered a strain of flies to eliminate errors
during DNA replication. The team claims that this will eliminate genetic variation in
the engineered flies. A second research team claims that eliminating errors during
DNA replication will not entirely eliminate genetic variation in the flies.
A. Provide one piece of evidence that would indicate new genetic variation in the
engineered strain of flies.
New phenotypes would appear.
B. Describe one mechanism that could lead to genetic variation in the
engineered fruit flies.
Crossing over during meiosis produces new combination of alleles in gametes.
Independent assortment during meiosis produces new combination of alleles in
gametes.
Random fertilization produces new combination of alleles in the zygote.
Radiation or chemical mutagens induce mutations in the DNA.
Non-disjunction causes anomalies in the chromosome number.
36. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) transport cholesterol in the blood. LDL receptors in
liver cells take up the LDLs and associated cholesterol molecules, thereby reducing
levels of cholesterol in the blood. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by a
mutation in the gene coding for the LDL receptors. These individuals suffer from
high levels of cholesterol levels in the blood and this leads to cardiovascular disease.
a. The dominant allele codes for functional LDL receptors. The mutated allele
is recessive and codes for non-functional LDL-receptors. Accordingly, predict
the expected phenotype of individuals who are homozygous dominant,
heterozygous and homozygous recessive for the gene.
Individuals who are homozygous dominant produce the normal amount of LDL
receptors. Individuals who are heterozygous for the LDL receptor gene produce
lower amounts of the LDL receptors. Individuals who are homozygous for the
mutant allele produce no LDL receptors.

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 b. A new drug has been released that can treat familial hypercholesterolemia
(FH) by increasing the production of LDL receptors in liver cells. Why is this
drug effective in treating heterozygotes, but ineffective in treating individuals
who are homozygous for the mutant allele?
There must be at least one copy of the LDL receptor allele that produces
functional LDL receptor proteins.
37. A. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease caused by an autosomal recessive allele.
Two parents who are carries for the genetic disorder have two children.
What are the chances both children are not affected by the disorder?
Parent phenotype Normal carrier Normal carrier
Parent genotype Cc Cc
gametes C c C c
F1 genotypes CC Cc cC cc
F1 phenotypes Normal Normal Normal Cystic fibrosis
The chance the first child doesn’t have cystic fibrosis is 75%.
The chance the second child doesn’t have cystic fibrosis is 75%.
The chance that both children will not have cystic fibrosis =0.75 X 0.75= 0.5625

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 B. A woman’s genotype for three different gene loci is XxYyZz. What are the
chances she passes on the following genotype through her gamete? XyZ
The chance of passing on X= 0.5
The chance of passing on y= 0.5
The chance of passing on Z= 0.5
The chance of passing on all three alleles= 0.5 X 0.5 X 0.5= 0.125
38. [T] True breeding purple flowers with inflated pods were crossed with true breeding
white flowers with constricted pods. The results are shown below.
Parent phenotype Purple and inflated White and constricted
(PPII) (ppii)
F1 phenotype All were purple and inflated (PpIi)
a. Why aren’t there individuals in the F1 generation with white flowers or
constricted pods?
Inflated pod shape is dominant to the constricted pod shape. Purple flowers color
is dominant to white flower color.
b. The F1 generation was then test-crossed with a homozygous recessive
individual. The results are shown below.
F1 phenotype Purple and inflated White and constricted
(PpIi) (ppii)
F2 phenotype Purple, Purple, White, White,
inflated Constricted Inflated constricted
315 312 320 317
What phenotypic ratio was observed in the F1 generation?
1:1:1:1
c. Does this fit with Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
Yes
d. What can we conclude about the genes for flower color and pod shape?
They are found on separate chromosomes and therefore separate independently of
each other.
e. Pure breeding broad leaved plants with white flowers were crossed with pure
breeding narrow leaved plants with purple flowers. The results of the cross
are shown below.
Parent phenotype Broad and white Narrow and purple
(BBpp) (bbPP)
F1 phenotype All broad and purple (BbPp)
What can be concluded from the above cross?
Purple flowers color is dominant to white flower color as all F1 offspring have
purple flowers.
Broad leaf shape is dominant to narrow leaf shape as all F1 generation have broad
leaves.
f. The F1 generation was then test-crossed with a homozygous recessive
individual. The results are shown below.
F1 phenotype Broad and purple Narrow and white
(BbPp) (bbpp)
F2 phenotype Broad and Broad and Narrow Narrow
white purple and white and purple
672 75 61 664
Explain the results of the test-cross.
We did not get the expected ratio as per Mendel’s law of independent assortment
(1:1:1:1).

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 A majority of the offspring have a combination of traits identical to that of the parental
generation.→ The genes for flower color and leaf shape are therefore linked genes
found on the same chromosome.
The recombined traits (broad, purple and narrow, white) exist due to crossing over and
recombination of genes in the gametes.
39. [T] The fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, feeds on sugars found in damaged fruits.
A fly with normal features is called a wild type. It has a grey striped body and its
wings are longer than its abdomen. There are mutant variations such as an ebony-
coloured body or vestigial wings.
Wild-type features are coded for by dominant alleles: A for wild-type body and B
for wild-type wings.
Two wild-type fruit flies were crossed. Each had alleles A and B and carried alleles
for ebony body and vestigial wings.
a. Draw a genetic diagram to show the possible offspring of this cross.
Parental phenotypes: wild type  wild type
Parental genotypes AaBb  AaBb
Gametes AB, Ab, aB, ab  AB, Ab, aB, ab
Offspring genotypes : See table (16 possible genotypes)
Offspring phenotypes: See Table Ratio 9:3:3:1
9 wild type ; 3 grey body vestigial wings ; 3 ebony body long wing : 1 ebony body
vestigial wings

Gametes AB Ab aB ab

AB AABB AABb AaBB AaBb

Wild type Wild type Wild type Wild type
Ab AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb
Wild type Grey body Wild type Grey body vestigial
vestigial wings wings
aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
Wild type Wild type ebony body ebony body long
long wings wings
ab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
Wild type Grey body ebony body Ebony body, vestigial
vestigial wings long wings wings
b. When the two heterozygous flies in b were crossed, 384 eggs hatched and

developed into adult flies. A Chi-squared

( 2 )
test was carried out to test the
significance of the differences between observed and expected results:
( O − E )2
 =
2
E
Where:
 = Sum of , O = observed values, E = expected value

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 Calculate the value of  2

Phenotypes of Drosophila melanogaster

Grey body Grey body Ebony body Ebony body
Long wing Vestigial wing Long wing Vestigial wing
Observed number (O) 207 79 68 30
Expected ratio 9 3 3 1
Expected number (E) 216 72 72 24
O–E −9 7 −4 6
(O – E)2 81 49 16 36
(O – E)2/E 0.38 0.68 0.22 1.50

 2 = 2.78
c. How many classes of data are there?
There are 4 classes of data.
d. Find the number of degrees of freedom.
Number of degrees of freedom is the number of classes of data minus one.
4–1=3
2 2
e. Draw a conclusion from your calculated  using the table of  values
below. Explain whether or not the observed results were significantly
different from the expected results.

Degrees of Probability greater than

freedom
0.1 0.05 0.01 0.001
1 2.71 3.84 6.64 10.83
2 4.60 5.99 9.21 13.82
3 6.25 7.82 11.34 16.27
4 7.78 9.49 13.28 18.46

f. Using your value of  2 and the table above.

2 2
Our calculated value of  ,2.78, is less than the  value at a probability of 0.05,
7.82.
2 value represents probability of > 0.05. Difference in observed and expected
results is not significant and is due to chance.

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40.[T] The sweet pea is a flowering plant that grows in many parts of Europe. The
inheritance of flower color and shape of pollen grains in sweet peas is controlled by
genes that are located on autosomal chromosomes. The allele for round flowers is
dominant over the allele for elongated flowers and the allele for yellow pollen grains
is dominant over the allele for white pollen grains.
a. State what is meant by autosomal chromosomes.
An autosomal chromosome is any chromosome other than a sex chromosome.
b. Draw a diagram illustrating the possible normal products of meiosis that would
be produced by the F1 progeny for these two traits. Include the chromosomes
and the allele(s) they carry.
Let R denote round flowers and r denote elongated flowers. Let Y denote yellow
pollen grains and y denote white pollen grains. Each pea plant produced in the F1
generation is heterozygous for both round flowers and yellow pollen grains and
therefore produces the following gametes: RY, Ry, rY , and ry

c. A sweet pea plant that is heterozygous for both round flowers and yellow
pollen grains is crossed with a sweet pea plant with elongated flowers and white
pollen grains. Construct a genetic diagram and a Punnett square illustrating
this cross and predict the expected phenotypes and ratios of the offspring
produced by this cross.

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 d. The experimental results of the cross performed in part c are listed in the table
below.

Explain the results shown in the table and why they differ from the expected
results obtained in part c.
Most offspring have round flowers and yellow pollen grains as well as elongated
flowers and white pollen grains / parental phenotypes. Fewer offspring have round
flowers and white pollen grains as well as elongated flowers and yellow pollen
grains / non-parental phenotypes. This is due to new combinations of alleles
because of crossing over between the two gene loci/ the two genes are linked.
Term 1 Week 9

Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene

Section 12.1 The Genetic Material
1. [G] What is the DNA model proposed by Watson and Crick?
James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953 were trying to put together a model of DNA.
When they saw Franklin’s picture of the X-ray they had enough information to make an
accurate model.
• Their model showed a double helix with a sugar phosphate backbone on the
outside and paired bases on the inside appearing as the rungs of a ladder.
• The two strands of the double helix are antiparallel. While one stand runs in the
5’ to 3’ direction the other strand runs in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

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 • They realized that Adenine and Guanine were purines having two carbon-nitrogen
rings in their structures. Thymine and Cytosine were pyrimidines having one
carbon-nitrogen ring in its structure.
• They realized that one pyrimidine and one purine paired up and more specifically
adenine always pairs up with thymine forming two hydrogen bonds and cytosine
with guanine by forming three hydrogen bonds. This is known as complementary
base pairing.
2. What does it mean for the two strands of DNA to be antiparallel?
The two strands of the DNA molecule run in opposite directions with the phosphate group
attached to carbon atom five of deoxyribose in one strand facing the hydroxyl group of
carbon atom three of deoxyribose in the opposing strand.
3. In a table form outline key features of the nitrogenous bases.
Nitrogenous- Ring structure Component Complementary
base of which base bares with
nucleic acid
Adenine Purine (double-ring structure) DNA & RNA Thymine or
Uracil
Guanine Purine (double-ring structure) DNA & RNA Cytosine
Cytosine Pyrimidine (single-ring structure) DNA & RNA Guanine
Thymine Pyrimidine (single-ring structure) DNA adenine
Uracil Pyrimidine (single-ring structure) RNA adenine

4. Describe complementary base pairing in DNA and RNA.

• One pyrimidine and one purine pair up.
• In DNA adenine always pairs up with thymine forming two hydrogen bonds and
cytosine with guanine by forming three hydrogen bonds.
• In RNA adenine always pairs up with uracil forming two hydrogen bonds and
cytosine with guanine by forming three hydrogen bonds.
5. What kind of bond is formed between the paired bases of the DNA double helix?
Hydrogen bonds are formed between the paired bases of the DNA double helix.
6. Explain the contributions of Rosalind Franklin proving that DNA is the carrier of
genetic information.
• Rosalind Franklin decided to try to make a crystal of the DNA molecule using a
viscous solution of DNA.
• Through an X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA, it was concluded that DNA was a
double helix molecule with H-bonded bases.
• It showed by an “X” shape that DNA had is a helix.
• The dark portions at the top and bottom of the patter told investigators that some
features were repeated over and over again. This feature was later proven to be
the hydrogen bonded bases.
7. Explain the contributions of Hershey and Chase proving that DNA is the carrier of
genetic information.
• Hershey and Chase labelled bacteriophage viruses with radioactive isotopes of
phosphate and sulfur. DNA contains phosphate and no sulfur and protein contain
sulfur and no phosphate.
• Radioactive P labelled the DNA of the bacteriophage virus and the radioactive S
labelled the protein coat of the bacteriophage virus.

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 • When bacteria were infected with the bacteriophage virus, the radioactive
phosphate was found in the bacteria and the radioactive sulfur was found outside
the bacterial cell.
• With this experiment they confirmed that DNA is the hereditary molecule.
8. What are the monomers of nucleic acids?
The monomers of nucleic acids are called nucleotides.
They consist of a nitrogenous base, pentose sugar called deoxyribose in DNA, and a
phosphate group.
9. Describe the components of a nucleotide.
Each nucleotide consists of
• Pentose sugar (ribose in RNA and deoxy-ribose in DNA)
• Phosphate group attached to carbon atom number 5
• Nitrogen containing base attached to carbon atom number 1(A,T,C,G in DNA and
A,U,C,G in RNA)

10. Describe the phosphodiester bond linking together the nucleotides in DNA and
RNA.
The covalent sugar-phosphate bonds (phosphodiester bonds) link the 5-carbon of one
sugar molecule and the 3-carbon of the next. It is a type of covalent bond formed during
condensation reactions.
11. Correctly label the following diagram regarding the structure of a DNA molecule.

A. 5’ end (Phosphate group attached to carbon five of deoxyribose)

B. Two hydrogen bonds between the bases adenine and thymine
C. 3’ end (hydroxyl group attached to carbon three of deoxyribose)
D. Cytosine (pyrimidine) and Guanine (purine) base pairs bonded by three hydrogen
bonds
E. Pentose sugar (deoxyribose)
F. 5’ end
G. 3’ end
H. Phosphate group

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12. Name the purine and pyrimidine bases found in DNA.
In DNA adenine and guanine are purines while thymine and cytosine are pyrimidines.
13. Compare and contrast the chromosomal nature of Eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
Eukaryotic chromosome Prokaryotic chromosome
• Eukaryotes have multiple pairs • Prokaryotes have 1 circular
of linear chromosomes. chromosome.
• Prokaryotes and eukaryotes can • Prokaryotes and eukaryotes can
contain plasmids, which are small contain plasmids, which are small
extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, extra-chromosomal, double-
circular DNA molecules. stranded, circular DNA molecules.
• The gene-coding sequences are • Prokaryotic DNA does not have the
interspersed with non-coding regions non-coding regions or introns.
that may control gene regulation. • Bacteria do not have histones, but
• Within a gene sequence, there are archaea have histone-like structures
exons (coding regions) and introns associated with their chromosomes.
(non-coding regions that will be • Prokaryotic chromosomes exist in
removed from the mRNA). the cytoplasm.
• Eukaryotic chromosomes are tightly
wrapped around proteins called
histones.
• Eukaryotic chromosomes are
contained in a nucleus.
Section 12.2 Replication of DNA
14. [G] Why DNA replication is termed semi-conservative?
The process of DNA synthesis is usually described as semi-conservative because during
DNA replication each DNA strand of the parental double helix serves as a template for a
new strand. Each daughter DNA double helix contains an old strand from the parental
DNA double helix and a new strand.
15. [G] Describe the main stages of DNA replication.
❖ Unwinding
• DNA helicase separates the double stranded DNA into single strands, by
breaking the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogen base pairs.
• Two replication forks within the DNA are created. Topoisomerase relaxes
supercoiling in front of the replication fork.
• The separated parental strands may now act as templates.
• Single stranded binding proteins attach to the strands preventing them from
reforming the double helix.
❖ Complementary base pairing
• RNA primase places short strands of RNA called primers on the strands to be
replicated.
• DNA polymerase starts adding nucleotides to the primers by complementary
base pairing with the template strand. DNA polymerase will connect the added
nucleotides together in a chain.
• DNA polymerase also proof reads the strands to correct any mistakes.
• DNA synthesis can only occur in the 5’ to 3’ directions and the newly formed
strands must be antiparallel to the template strands. One newly formed strand
is formed in the direction of the replication fork so may be formed
continuously. This is known as the leading strand. The other new strand is

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 formed in the opposite direction of the replication fork and is therefore formed
in fragment called the Okazaki fragments. This is known as the lagging strand.
❖ Joining
• DNA polymerase must then replace the RNA nucleotides in the primer into
DNA nucleotides.
• DNA ligase will then glue the Okazaki fragments together.
16. What are Okazaki fragments?
During the synthesis of the lagging strand, DNA polymerase moves in the opposite
direction to the movement of the replication fork. As a result, this strand is produced in
small parts called Okazaki fragments.
17. Name the enzyme that binds the Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand together.
Ligase enzyme binds the fragments of the Okazaki fragments together.
18. What is the role of DNA polymerase?
• DNA polymerase replicates DNA starting from the 5’ end.
• DNA polymerase starts adding nucleotides to the primers by complementary base
pairing with the exposed DNA template strand.
• DNA polymerase will connect the added nucleotides together in a chain.
• DNA polymerase also proof reads the strands to correct any mistakes.
19. State Chargaff’s rules.
a. The amount of A,T,G and C in DNA varies from species to species.
b. In each species, the amount of A=T and the amount of G=C.
20. 23% of the bases in a molecule of DNA are thymine. State the percentage
composition of the other three bases.
23% of the bases would be adenine, since thymine base pairs with thymine.
100%-23% (thymine) -23% (adenine) = 54% → guanine + adenine
27% → guanine
27% → cytosine
Section 12.3 Gene Expression: RNA and the Genetic Code
21. Describe the flow of genetic information in a cell.
The genetic information flows from the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of a gene, to
a sequence of ribonucleotides in the mRNA during transcription and then to a sequence
of amino acids in a protein during translation.
DNA→ transcription → RNA → translation → protein → trait
22. [G]
a. What are the main structural features of RNA?
- Most are single-stranded.
- The pentose sugar is ribose instead of deoxyribose.
- Uracil replaces thymine as one of the bases.
b. What are the main roles of the different types of RNA?
- Messenger RNA (mRNA) takes a message from DNA in the nucleus to the
ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
- Transfer RNA (tRNA) transfers amino acids to the ribosomes.
- Ribosomal RNA (rRNA), along with ribosomal proteins, makes up the
ribosomes, where polypeptides are synthesized
23. Compare the DNA nucleotides to the RNA nucleotides.
Nitrogen containing DNA nucleotide RNA nucleotide
bases

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 Nitrogen containing base Adenine, thymine, Adenine, uracil,
cytosine, guanine cytosine, guanine
Pentose sugar Deoxyribose ribose
Phosphate group Present Present
24. Compare the DNA molecules to the RNA molecules.
DNA RNA
Double stranded Single stranded
Found in the nucleus Found in nucleus and cytoplasm
Complementary base No complementary base pairing
pairing
Double stranded double Single stranded and does not form a
helix double helix
25. Define transcription.
• Production of a molecule of mRNA from a molecule of DNA.
• A complimentary copy of the code from a gene (DNA) is made by building a
molecule of mRNA, using one strand of the DNA gene known as the template or
non-coding strand.
• Transcription occurs in the nucleus.
26. [G]
a. List the three major steps of transcription.
Initiation – Elongation – Termination
b. In which step of transcription does RNA polymerase bind to the promoter of
the template DNA strand?
during initiation
27. Explain the process of transcription.
• Initiation. A segment of the DNA is unzipped and the RNA-polymerase binds to the
promoter on the template strand. The promoter marks the start of transcription.
• Elongation/Synthesis. The RNA polymerase reads the template and synthesizes a
mRNA by binding ribonucleotides which are complementary to the template (U
binds with A and C with G). The mRNA molecules is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’
direction by reading the template DNA strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
• Termination/Release. RNA polymerase stops transcribing the DNA when it reaches
a DNA stop sequence and then it releases the mRNA molecule.
28. What is the promoter?
Promoters are DNA sequences upstream of the transcription start site where RNA
polymerase and transcription factors bind to initiate transcription.
29. What is the outcome of the transcription process?
The outcome of the transcription process is the production of a mRNA molecule that
carries the genetic information contained in DNA to the ribosomes for translation.
30. Explain the major modification experienced by the mRNA transcript during the
processing of an mRNA molecule.
During mRNA processing the mRNA molecule undergoes three major modifications.
• Introns which are non-protein coding regions are spliced out.
• Exons which are protein coding regions are joined together.
• 5’ GTP cap and a 3’poly-A tail are added to the mRNA molecule.
Section 12.5 Gene Expression: Translation
31. Explain the characteristics of the genetic code:
The genetic code hast three main characteristics:

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 • Universal: All organisms follow the same genetic code. This reinforces the idea that
we all have a common ancestor. For example: AUG is the start codon for translation
and it codes for Methionine in every living organisms.
• Degenerate: Many amino acids have more than 1 codon. For example, the amino
acid proline is encoded by four different codons (CUU, CCC, CCA and CCG).
• Unambiguous: A codon can only code for one specific amino acid. For example,
UAA is a stop codon and it does not code anything else to avoid mistakes in
translation
• There is one start codon which marks the start of translation and three different stop
codons which mark the end of translation.
32. What is a codon?
• A codon is a sequence of three bases in mRNA that codes for specific amino acids
and controls the start and termination of translation.
• The codon of the mRNA base pairs with the anti-codon of the tRNA.
• The codon is degenerate. Most amino acids are represented by more than one codon.
• The codons are unambiguous. Each codon represents either one amino acid or is a
signal to initiate (Start codon) or terminate protein synthesis (stop codon).
33. Define transfer RNA.
Transfer RNA is a folded, single-stranded RNA molecule that carries a specific amino
acid to a ribosome/mRNA for protein synthesis. They have a site of attachment at one
end which a specific amino acid can bind to. They have a triplet of bases at the other
end termed the anticodon that will complementary base pair with codons of the mRNA.
34. What is an anti-codon?
An anticodon is a sequence of three bases in tRNA which binds to its complementary
codon sequence in the mRNA during protein synthesis.
35. What structure does an anticodon of tRNA pair with during protein synthesis?
During protein synthesis anti-codons of the t-RNA pair up with the complementary triplet
of nucleotides in the codon of the mRNA molecule.
36. Describe the structure of a ribosome.
Ribosomes are composed of two subunits: - A small ribosomal subunit: made of
ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which is packaged with a variety of proteins. It is the binding
site for mRNA with its codons during protein synthesis. - A large ribosomal subunit:
made of ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which is packaged with a variety of proteins. It has
three binding sites for tRNAs (Esite, P-site, and A-site) to facilitate complementary base
pairing between tRNA anticodons and mRNA codons
37. Define translation.
Translation is the conversion of the genetic information encoded in RNA into the amino
acid sequence of a protein in 3 steps: (initiation, elongation, termination).
38. Where does translation take place in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
Translation in prokaryotic cells occurs on ribosomes that are present in the cytoplasm.
Translation in eukaryotic cells occurs on ribosomes that are present in the cytoplasm or
on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
39. Describe one significant difference between translation in prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells.
In eukaryotic cells transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation occurs outside in
the ribosomes that are suspended in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic
reticulum; therefore, transcription precedes translation in eukaryotic cells.
In prokaryotic cells transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm and the
two processes do not occur in separate compartments; therefore, transcription and
translation occur simultaneously.

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40. [G] What are the main steps of translation?
• The mRNA attaches to the ribosome. Translation is initiated when the rRNA in the
ribosome interacts with the mRNA at the start codon.
• The sequence of nucleotides on the mRNA is read in triplets called codons. The
first exposed codon of the mRNA is always AUG. A tRNA with the complementary
anticodon UAC forms hydrogen bonds with the codon. This tRNA has the amino
acid methionine attached.
• The anticodon of a second tRNA bonds with the next codon on the mRNA
molecule. This tRNA brings in a new amino acid.
• A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids. The reaction is catalyzed by
an enzyme in the small ribosomal subunit known as peptidyl transferase.
• The ribosome will then move along the mRNA to read the next codon. A new
transfer RNA brings in a new amino acid, which joins the second one. The first
tRNA leaves.
• The polypeptide chain continues to grow until a stop codon in the mRNA is read.
Translation stops.
41. Define the template strand.
The template strand is the strand of DNA to which RNA polymerase attaches to attach
complementary bases during transcription.
The template strand is also known as the non-coding strand, minus strand, or antisense
strand.
42. If the following is the template strand of DNA, what would the sequence of bases in
the mRNA transcribed?
TAA TAC TCT CGG AGG CGA CTC GAC ATT “template/non-coding strand”
AUU AUG AGA GCC UCC GCU GAG CUG UAA GCC mRNA
43. Define non-template strand.
The non-template strand is also known as the coding strand.
When referring to DNA transcription, the coding strand is the DNA strand whose base
sequence corresponds to the base sequence of the mRNA produced, although with
thymine replaced by uracil.
44. If the following is the coding or non-template strand of DNA, what would the
sequence of bases in the mRNA transcribed?
ATT ATG AGA GCC TCC GCT GAG CTG TAA GCC “non-template/coding
strand”
AUU AUG AGA GCC UCC GCU GAG CUG UAA GCC mRNA
45. Write the sequence of the corresponding mRNA and tRNA for the DNA strand
below. NB. The template strand is transcribed.
TAA TAC TCT CGG AGG CGA CTC GAC ATT CGG “template/non-coding strand”
ATT ATG AGA GCC TCC GCT GAG CTG TAA GCC “non-template/coding strand”
AUU AUG AGA GCC UCC GCU GAG CUG UAA GCC mRNA
UAA UAC UCU CGG AGG CGA CTC GAC ATT CGG tRNA
46. [T] Loeys-Dietz syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an autosomal dominant
allele. The normal LDS2B gene produces a growth factor receptor proteins that
regulates cell signaling pathways. The gene product is a protein consisting of 565
amino acids. It consists of three regions, a transmembrane region, a protein
kinase region and a signaling molecule-binding region. Protein kinases are
enzymes that transfer phosphate groups to target proteins. A representation of the
LDS2B gene is shown below.

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 a) Loeys-Dietz syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition. Describe the
pedigree of a family in which one parent in the first generation has Loeys-Dietz
syndrome.
Autosomal inheritance:
The condition is inherited equally between males and females.
Dominant inheritance:
Disorder is observed in all generations.
Each affected individual must have at least one affected parent.
b) Calculate the minimum number of nucleotides required in the LDS2B mRNA
molecule that would be translated into the 565-amino acid polypeptide. Take
into consideration the initiation and termination of translation.
1. The genetic code is a triplet code. Every three nucleotides code for one amino
acid.
565 amino acids  3 nucleotides = 1695
2. Start codon marks the initiation of translation.
1695 + 3 = 1698
3. Stop codon allows the termination of translation.
1698 +3 = 1701
47. State the amino acids sequence for the polypeptide encoded for by the mRNA
segment below. Begin with the first available start codon.

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 AUG (start codon)→ met
GUG→ Val
ACG→ Thr
AAA→ Lys
UUU→ Phe
GGC→ Gly
AUU→ His
48. [T] The model below represents a two-step enzymatic synthesis of the plant
hormone indole acetic acid (IAA) form the amino acid tryptophan. Indole acetic
acid is a plant hormone. Gene Trp-T encodes an enzyme that converts tryptophan
to indole-3-pyruvic acid (I3PA), which is then converted to IAA by an enzyme
encoded by the gene YUC.

A. Which arrow represents transcription?

B. Name the molecule that would be absent if enzyme YUC is nonfunctional.

Indole acetic acid (IAA)

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 C. Explain one feedback mechanism by which a cell could prevent production of
too much IAA without limiting I3PA production.
The product IAA could inhibit enzyme YUC. This is known as feedback inhibition.
49. [T] Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition associated with defects in the CFTR
protein is a gated ion channel that requires ATP binding in order to allow chloride
ions to exit the membrane by facilitated diffusion.
A. Trace the pathway for the production of a normal CFTR protein from gene
expression to final cellular location.
Starting with transcription, list the different organelles involved in the
production of the CFTR protein to reach its final cellular location.
nucleus→rough endoplasmic reticulum/ ribosomes→ Golgi apparatus→plasma
membrane
B. Identify the location of the ribosome that synthesizes CFTR protein.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Identify the most likely cellular location of the mutant CFTR protein that has
an amino acid subsituation in the ATP binding site.
Since the mutation affects the ATP binding site it will not alter the cellular
location of the channel protein. Its location therefore will be in the cell membrane.

Term 1 Week 10

Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Activity

Section 13.1 Prokaryotic Regulation
1. Label the following diagram of an operon and state the function of each of its
elements.

a. DNA.
b. Regulator gene. Element of an operon located outside the operon that codes for a
DNA-binding protein that acts as a repressor to turn-off the operon.
c. Promoter. Short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase attaches to start the
transcription of a group of structural genes
d. Operator. Short portion of DNA where an active repressor binds to prevent the
attachment of RNA polymerase thus preventing the transcription of structural genes
e. Active repressor. Complex formed with the repressor and the operator that does not
allow the binding of RNA polymerase thus preventing transcription.
f. Structural genes. Genes that code for the primary structure of specific proteins and
enzymes that are involved in the metabolic pathway of the operon. They are
grouped together and so are transcribed as a unit.
2. a. Explain how gene expression differs in an inducible operon versus a
repressible operon and give an example of each.

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 A repressible operon is normally active and it is turned off by the action of a
repressor like the trp operon. While an inducible operon is normally off and it needs
to be turned on by environmental conditions like in the case of the lac operon that
is activated when lactose is in the medium in absence of glucose.
b. What is a repressible operon?
A repressible operon is an operon that is usually active (“on” mode); therefore, its
structural genes are always expressed.
• This type of operon is regulated or turned off by a repressor that binds to the
operator to turn the operon off.
• This type of operon is usually found in anabolic pathways to synthesise the
substances needed by the cells.
• An example of a repressible operon is the (tryptophan) operon.
c. Explain how the trp operon works.
• The trp operon in E. Coli is in charge of coding for enzymes used in the
synthesis of tryptophan.
• This operon is usually in the “on” mode.
• The regulator codes for a repressor that is usually inactive (unable to attach to
the operator).
• The RNA polymerase is able to bind to the promoter for the transcription and
later translation of the structural genes of this operon. Therefore, the genes are
expressed. The enzymes involved in the synthesis of tryptophan are formed.
• When tryptophan is present in excess there is no need to synthesise more of it
and the operon is “turned off” since the enzymes for the synthesis of
tryptophan are no longer needed.
• The operon is turned off when tryptophan binds with the inactive repressor to
change its structure and activate it, making it able to bind to the operator.
Tryptophan is a co-repressor.
• The binding of the now active repressor to the operator, prevents the binding
of the RNA polymerase to the promoter for transcription, therefore the
structural genes of the operon cannot be expressed.

3.
a. What is an inducible operon?
An inducible operon is an operon that usually exists in the “off” condition;
therefore, its structural genes are not expressed unless an inducer turns them on.
• This type of operon is regulated (turned on) when an inducer binds to a
repressor and inactivates it by changing its shape.
• This type of operon is usually found in catabolic pathways to break down
nutrients when needed.
• Example: lac operon.
b. Explain how the lac operon works.
• The lac operon in E. coli is in charge of coding for three enzymes used in the
breakdown of lactose.
• The three structural genes are
✓ lacZ coding for Β-galactosidase: hydrolyses lactose into glucose and
galactose.
✓ lacY coding for permease: allows lactose to enter the cell.
✓ lacA coding for transactylase
If there is no lactose in the medium:

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 • This operon is usually in the “off” mode.
• The regulator codes for an active repressor that is usually attached to the
operator.
• RNA polymerase cannot bind to DNA at the promoter region.
• No transcription of the three structural genes occurs.
In the presence of lactose:
• When lactose is present and glucose is absent, lactose needs to be broken
down for energy. Therefore the operon need to be “turned on” for the
synthesis of the enzymes that breakdown lactose.
• Lactose is taken up by the bacterium.
• The lactose binds to the active repressor to change its structure and
deactivate it, this will make the repressor detach from the operator.
• The release of the repressor allows the binding of the RNA polymerase to
the promoter for transcription, therefore the structural genes of the operon
will be expressed.
• In this case the lactose is considered an inducer and Β-galactosidase is an
inducible enzyme.
4. The diagram below represents a segment of the E. Coli chromosome that contains
the lac operon.

Lac Operon Structure

Locus Function
𝑷𝒍 Attachment site for RNA polymerase
lacl Encodes a repressor protein that prevents transcription of the
structural genes for the lac operon.
𝑷𝒍𝒂𝒄 Attachment site for RNA polymerase.
operator Binding site for the repressor protein.
lacZ Encodes beta-galactosidase, the enzyme that digests lactose to
glucose and galactose.
lacY Encodes lactose permease, the channel through which lactose
moves into the cell.
lacA Encodes galactosidase transacetylase
a. What is the most likely consequence if the operator is mutated?
The active repressor will not be able to bind to the operator and the promoter will
always be free to bind to RNA polymerase. The structural genes will be
transcribed even in the absence of lactose. B-galactosidase will be formed even in
the absence of its substrate lactose.
b. Explain how the lac operon increases the efficiency of a bacterial cell.
The structural genes coding for the enzymes involved in the catabolism of lactose
(lacZ, lacY, lacA) are only transcribed in the presence of lactose and absence of
glucose.

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 c. Bacterial cells that contain green fluorescent protein (GFP) will fluoresce
under ultraviolet light. What would occur if the lac Y gene in the lac operon
were replaced with the GFP gene?
Bacteria growing in the presence of lactose will fluoresce under ultraviolet light.
Lactose would bind to the repressor rendering it inactive. Lactose is known as an
inducer. RNA polymerase would bind to the promoter and the gene for the GFP
will be expressed.
5. a. Describe the role of cAMP in further control of the lac operon.
• If both glucose and lactose are present, then E.Coli preferentially breaks down
glucose and there is no need for the lac operon to be turned on. The lac operon
will therefore only be turned on in the absence of glucose by the following
mechanism.
• When glucose is absent cAMP accumulates.
• cAMP combines with a molecule called catabolite activator protein (CAP).
The complex then binds to CAP binding site next to the lac promoter.
• The DNA bends exposing the promoter to RNA polymerase.
• The lac structural genes are transcribed leading to their expression.
• The enzymes involved in the catabolism of lactose are produced.
• When glucose is present there is little cAMP in the cell and CAP is inactive
and the lac operon is turned off.
b. Why is CAP protein’s regulation of the lac operon considered to be an example
of positive control?
CAP protein’s regulation of the lac operon is considered to be an example of
positive control because when the molecule is active it promotes the activity of the
operon.
c. Why is the use of repressors an example of negative control?
The use of repressors is an example of negative control because when active they shut
down an operon.

Section 13.2 Eukaryotic Regulation

6. Explain how the same genotype can result in multiple phenotypes under
different environmental conditions.
• Environmental factors influence gene expression and can lead to phenotypic
plasticity. Phenotypic plasticity occurs when individuals with the same genotype
exhibit different phenotypes in different environments.
• Environmental factors such as temperature, diet, humidity, oxygen levels all impact
which of an animal's genes are expressed. This ultimately affects the animal's
phenotype.
• When the same genotype is subjected to different environments, it can produce a wide
range of phenotype.
• Altering the regulation of gene expression is one mechanism that allows organisms
to change the amount of mRNA produced by transcription of the gene in direct
response to environmental variance.
• In conclusion, the environment determines how the phenotype is expressed.
7. Give examples of how the environment can influence gene expression in animals.
• Height and weight in humans is influenced by economic status and food availability.
• Flower colour in some plant species is influenced by soil pH.

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 • Seasonal fur colour in animals is influenced by changes in day length as well as
temperature.
• Temperature affects coat color in Siamese cats. The dark points on Siamese cats are
caused by genes that code for temperature sensitive enzymes. The enzyme that causes
a darkening of the cat's fur is active only in cooler parts of the body such as the tails
and nose.
• Sex determination in reptiles is influenced by the temperature.
• Melanin production in animals is influenced by UV radiation.
8.
a. Explain each of the 5 levels of gene expression regulation in eukaryotic cells.
• Chromatin structure: using chromatin packing as a way to keep the genes
turned off. Highly condensed chromatin is not active for transcription, while
loosely condensed chromatin is active for transcription
• Transcriptional control: determining the amount of the product by controlling
the degree to which a gene is transcribed into mRNA, based on the presence
of transcription factors which promote or repress transcription in the nucleus.
• Posttranscriptional control: involves mRNA processing and how fast the
mRNA leaves the nucleus which determines the type and amount of gene
product, within a period of time.
• Translational control: occurs in the cytoplasm and affects mRNA translation
and the length of time it is translated. Persistence of 5' cap and 3' poly tail
affects the length of translation.
• Posttranslational control: this occurs after protein synthesis, in the cytoplasm
where the produced polypeptide becomes functional and an active gene
product.
b. Explain how different levels of chromatin organization can affect gene
expression.
Highly condensed chromatin is not available for transcription. The DNA is compacted
by winding it around histones to make nucleosomes. The nucleosomes are further
compacted into a zigzag structure, which is then folded upon itself many times to
form radial loops, which is the usual compaction state of euchromatin (loosely
packed). Heterochromatin is further compacted by scaffolding proteins and contains
mostly inactive genes
c. Explain, using an example, inactive heterochromatin.
An example of heterochromatin is the Barr body in females. The Bar body is an
inactive X chromosome. One of the X chromosomes undergoes inactivation in the
cells of the female embryo. The inactive X chromosome does not produce gene
products allowing males and females to produce the same amount of gene products
from one X chromosome.
9. Histone methyl transferases are enzymes that methylate certain amino acid
sequences in histone proteins. It was found that transcription of gene decreases
when histone methyl transferase activity is inhibited. Make a scientific claim
consistent with these findings?
Histone methylation opens up chromatin at the gene so transcription factors can bind to
the promoter of the gene more easily. RNA polymerase will therefore be able to bind to
the promoter and initiate transcription thus expression of the gene.
10. a. What is a transcription factor?
Transcription factors are proteins that bind the promoter to make a transcription
complex. This complex helps the RNA polymerase bind to the promoter.
b. What are promoters?
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 Promoters are DNA sequences upstream of the transcription start site where RNA
polymerase and transcription factors bind to initiate transcription.
c. What is a transcription activator?
Transcription activators are regulatory proteins that bind to specific regions in the
DNA called enhancers and to the transcription factor complex to start the
transcription process.
d. Explain how transcription factors and transcription activators regulate gene
expression in transcriptional control.
• The transcription factor forms a complex with other regulatory proteins and
binds to the promoter. This transcription complex captures RNA polymerase
and helps it bind to the promoter.
• The transcription activator binds to the enhancer and the to the transcription
complex with the help of mediator proteins.
• The binding of all these proteins makes the DNA loop, only then the
transcription process beings.
• Together, transcription factors and activators, can adjust the rate and
frequency of transcription initiation to a large variety of conditions.
• The absence of one can prevent transcription from occurring.
11. What are negative regulatory molecules?
Negative regulatory molecules inhibit gene expression by binding to DNA and blocking
transcription.
12.
a. What is a repressor?
Repressors are regulatory proteins that bind to a sequence in the DNA called
silencer and regulate gene expression by decreasing transcription.
b. Explain how the repressors control gene expression in transcriptional control.
• The silencer is always located next to or overlapping an enhancer.
• The binding of the repressor changes the shape of the enhancer and therefore
it prevents the binding of an activator to initiate transcription.
13. [G] Describe transcriptional control in eukaryotes, including the roles of
transcription factors (activators and repressors) and enhancers.
• Transcription in eukaryotes is controlled by DNA binding proteins. Every cell
contains many different types of transcription factors, proteins that help regulate
transcription by assisting the binding of the RNA polymerase to the promoter. A
cell has many different types of transcription factors, and a variety of transcription
factors may be active at a single promoter. Thus, the absence of one can prevent
transcription from occurring.
• Even if all the transcription factors are present, transcription may not begin without
the assistance of a DNA-binding protein called a transcription activator. These bind
to regions of DNA called enhancers, which may be located some distance from the
promoter. A hairpin loop in the DNA brings the transcription activators attached to
the enhancer into contact with the transcription factor complex.
• Likewise, the binding of repressors within the promoter may prohibit the
transcription of certain genes. Most genes are subject to regulation by both
activators and repressors.
14. a. Which are the two mechanisms used in posttranscriptional control to regulate
gene expression.
1) Alternative mRNA splicing.
2) Controlling the speed with which mRNA exits the nucleus.

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 b. Explain how alternative mRNA splicing helps to regulate gene expression in
posttranscriptional control.
Alternative mRNA splicing. When pre-mRNA is spliced (joining of exons together
and removal of introns) different splicing of exons can occur that change the code
in the mRNA thus altering the sequence of amino acids in the protein.
• An exon that should be included in a mRNa molecule is removed along with
the adjacent introns.
• Introns are not removed changing in this way the sequence for the proteins
that will be translated.
c. Explain how controlling the speed in which the mRNA exits the nucleus helps
to regulate gene expression in posttranscriptional control.
The access to and/or efficiency of nuclear pores for the transportation of the mRNA
out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm is strictly controlled to regulate the amount
of mRNA available in the cytoplasm. The faster the mRNA leaves the nucleus and
gets to the cytoplasm, the higher the amount of mRNA available for translation,
thus increasing the amount of proteins produced.
15. a. What is RNA interference?
It is the regulation of the amount of mRNA available for transcription by short RNA
molecules that float free in the cytoplasm. They bind to complementary sequences
of mRNA after transcription to either degrade them or block their translation.
b. How does RNA interference help to regulate gene expression?
Small RNA molecules are coded by “junk” DNA, they regulate gene expression in
two ways by adjusting the amount of gene product being expressed
1) Micro-interfering RNAs (miRNAs). They bind to complementary mRNA
sequences to inhibiting their translation.
2) Small-interfering RNAs (siRNA). They bind to complementary mRNA
sequences to degrade them (breakdown). Small interfering RNA binds to an
enzyme RISC. The complex then binds to a specific mRNA. The mRNA will
then be degraded preventing its translation into protein.
16. Explain why the persistence of the 5’ cap and the length of the poly-A tail in mRNA
are important to translational control.
Whether translation takes place and for how long the messenger RNA is active can be
determined by the presence or absence of the 5’ cap and the length of the poly-A tail at
the 3’ end of the mature mRNA transcript. The shortening of the Poly-A tail or the
removal of the 5’cap can trigger the degradation (breakdown) of the mRNA molecule
thus stopping its translation into a protein.
17. a. What are the SRY genes?
The sex determining region Y (SRY) genes are located on the Y chromosome and
trigger the male sexual development in embryos by activating the expression of
other genes that initiate the process of formation of testes and other male organs.
a. Explain how the SRY gene regulates the activation of male development.
• On the 7th week after fertilization, the SRY gene on the Y chromosome
triggers the male sexual development in embryos.
• It codes for a transcription factor called the Testis-determining factor.
• This factor causes a change of shape in DNA and triggers the expression of
other genes that initiate the process male differentiation in embryos by the
formation of testes and other male organs.
18. a. What are morphogenes?

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 Morphogens are signalling molecules that regulate tissue development and
differentiation of specific cell types within the same region for the formation of all
the tissues and organs of the body.
b. Explain how cell differentiation and development is regulated by
morphogenes.
• Morphogens diffuse through the tissue of embryos and form a concentration
gradient.
• Then, in each cell, the morphogens act as transcription factors, activating or
inhibiting DNA expression specific for that part of the embryo.
• According to the amount of morphogenes present in their surrounding the
cells will activate either low or high threshold genes for their expression.
Section 13.3 Gene Mutations
19. What causes mutations?
• Errors in DNA replication or DNA repair mechanisms.
• Mutagens such as radiation and reactive chemicals.
20. G What is a point mutation?
Point mutations involve a change in a single DNA nucleotide. A base substitution results
in one DNA nucleotide being replaced with another incorrect nucleotide. In the end one
codon is altered.
For example: Adenine in the third position of the third codon has been replaced by
cytosine. Only one codon has been altered.
AAG CGT TTA TTT CGG→ Original DNA
TTC GCA AAT AAA GCC

AAG CGT TTC TTT CGG→ Mutated DNA

TTC GCA AAG AAA GCC
One of the following may occur as a result of a point mutation.
• The altered codon may still code for the same amino acid. Remember the genetic
code is degenerate. Such a mutation is said to be silent.
• The altered codon may code for a new amino acid. Altering even one amino acid
changes the primary structure of the protein, which alters the other levels of proteins
structure, possibly making the protein non-functional. Such a mutation is known as
a missense mutation.
• The altered codon may become a stop codon. Remember there are three different
codons that mark the end of translation. This would result in a shorter protein being
translated and again it would most likely be non-functional. Such a mutation is
known as a nonsense mutation.
21. Describe the mutation causing the genetic disorder sickle cell anaemia.
The 𝐻𝑏 𝐴 (normal) allele of the gene codes for the β polypeptide which begins with the
amino acids:
Val-His-Leu-Thr-Pro-Glu-Glu-Lys-
The 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 (sickle call) allele of the gene codes for the following amino acid sequence:
Val-His-Leu-Thr-Pro-Val-Glu-Lys-
The base sequence CTT in the 𝐻𝑏 𝐴 allele is replaced by the base sequence CAT in the
𝐻𝑏 𝑆 allele. One base has been replaced by another. Such a mutation is called a
substitution / point / missense and results in one altered amino acid.
Changing the primary structure of a proteins alters the final shape of the protein and
therefore its function. Individuals with two copies of the 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 allele suffer from sickle
cell anemia.
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22. G What is a frame shift mutation?
• A frame shit mutation results from the addition OR deletion of nucleotides that
change all subsequent codons. The entire reading frame is altered. Several codons
are altered and therefore the amino acids in the polypeptide chain will be altered as
well. The end result is a non-functional protein.
• For example: in the second codon, guanine has been inserted in the first position of
the second codon. All subsequent codons have therefore been altered. This kind of
mutations accounts for cystic fibrosis disease.
AAG CGT TTA TTT CGG→ Original DNA
TTC GCA AAT AAA GCC
AAG GCG TTT ATT TCG G→ mutated DNA
TTC CGC AAA TAA AGC C
23. Describe the pathology behind Huntington’s disease.
• Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder inherited as an autosomal dominant
condition.
• Individuals with this disorder may be homozygote dominant or heterozygotes.
• The mutated allele exists on chromosome number 4 and codes for the protein
Huntington.
• The normal allele of the gene consists of a small number of repeats of the triplet
CAG. The allele causing HD consists of a large number of repeats of the same
triplet CAG.
• The more the repeats the earlier the condition appears.
• HD is a neurological disorder in which individuals suffer from involuntary
movements known as chorea and mental deterioration.

24. The table below describes the action of two genes involved in the regulation of
nervous system development in an organism.
Gene 1 Gene 2 Observation
Pattern 1 Inactive Inactive No neurons develop
Pattern 2 Inactive Active No neurons develop
Pattern 3 Active Inactive Greater than normal number of
neurons develop.
Pattern 4 Active Active Normal number of neurons develop
Make a claim that supports the data.
Gene 1 promotes neuron development. Gene 2 promotes programmed cell death in
neuronal precursors.
25. The figure below shows the first seven amino acids of the β chain of haemoglobin
and the 21 base pairs in the sequence of DNA that code for these seven amino acids.

Table 3.1 shows the triplets of bases that code for seven amino acids.

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 Table 3.1
Using Fig. 3.2 and Table 3.1, state what will happen to the sequence of amino acids in
the first part of the β chain of haemoglobin:
a. if the base pair at position 2 is deleted.
This is a frame-shift mutation. All subsequent DNA triplet will be altered and
therefore all subsequent amino acids will be changed.
b. if the three base pairs at positions 10, 11 and 12 are deleted.
The amino acid Threonine would not be present in the polypeptide chain. The new
sequence of amino acids would be Val-His-Leu-Pro-Glu-Glu
c. if the base pair at position 6 is deleted.
Third triplet becomes a stop codon. The new amino acid sequence would be Val-
His. This is known as a nonsense mutation.
d. If the base pair at position 5 is substituted by T.
The second triplet would change from CAC to CTC. As one nucleotide is replaced
by another this is known as a point mutation.
The new amino acid sequence would be Val-Leu-Leu-Thr-Pro-Glu-Glu. Since one
amino acid within the polypeptide is altered this is known as a missense mutation.
26. a. What is cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in which abnormally thick mucus develops in
the lungs and other parts of the body.
b. Outline the clinical features of cystic fibrosis.
• Thick mucus in the lungs allows the accumulation of bacteria in the lung.
• Thick mucus in the pancreatic ducts cause difficulties in digestion.
• Most males are sterile due to the accumulation of mucus in the ducts of the
reproductive system.
c. Outline the role of the CFTR protein.
• The CFTR protein is a channel protein that allows the exit of chloride ions
outside the cell.
• A region of lower water potential is generated outside the cells.
• Water follows by osmosis.
• Mucus is therefore thinner and easily swept away by cilia.
d. What is the cause of cystic fibrosis?
A faulty recessive gene codes for a non-functional CFTR protein. Chloride ions are
not able to exit the cell. Water does not follow. This results in thick mucus in the
lungs and pancreatic ducts.
e. Describe the commonest mutation occurring in the CFTR gene.

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 The deletion of three bases results in one amino acid missing. The resulting protein
is not placed in the cell surface membrane.
f. Describe the heterozygotes for the CFTR gene.
• They are carriers.
• They carry one dominant allele for the normal CFTR protein and one recessive
allele for the faulty CFTR protein.
• The make enough CFTR protein to remain symptomless.
• Two carries for the faulty recessive gene have a one in four chance of having a
child with the disorder.
27. [G] Describe how environmental influences can affect gene expression and cause
mutations.
Environmental factors can affect many traits. Traits controlled by polygenes subject to
environmental influences are called multifactorial traits. Several disorders, such as
diabetes, hypertension, and certain types of allergies are caused by both genetic factors
and environmental influences. Environmental influences can also cause a type of
mutations called induced mutations. Environmental factors that alter the base
composition of DNA are called mutagens, and these include radiation and organic
chemicals.
28. [T] Cystinuria is a human genetic condition occurs when genes SLC3A1 and
SLC7A9 mutate. Normally SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 encode, independently, one part
of a transporter protein complex responsible for the movement of certain amino
acids across the plasma membrane of the human kidney cells. Individuals suffering
from Cystinuria have an increased level of cysteine (a polar amino acid) in their
urine. A scientist collected data from seven individuals with a recorded family
history of cystinuria. Urine samples were collected, and the concentration of cysteine
was measured. The scientist sequenced their SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 genes to identify
who carries the functional (+) or the mutant (−) alleles of genes (“+” indicates the
presence of the function allele, and “-“indicates the presence of a mutant allele). The
results are shown in the table below.
Concentration SLC3A1 SLC7A9
Person
of Cysteine Alleles Alleles
A 7.90 -/- +/+
B 30.8 +/- -/-
C 0.70 +/- +/+
D 33.5 -/- +/-
E 9.10 +/+ -/-
F 2.80 +/+ +/-
G 11.5 -/- +/+

a. Name the individual who exhibits symptoms of cystinuria.

Person D
b. Correlate the relationship between the total number of mutant alleles in an
individual and the concentration of cysteine.
It was found that the higher the concentration of cysteine in the urine is due to the
presence of more mutant alleles in a person.
c. Mutations in SLC7A9 have a greater effect on the transport of cysteine across
the plasma membrane of kidney cells than do mutations in SLC3A1. Is the
hypothesis supported or not in line with the given results?
The results don’t support the hypothesis. Higher levels of cysteine were observed
in a person with a single mutant SLC7A9 allele compared with a person with a
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 single mutant SLC3 A1. However, a person with two mutated SLC7 A9 alleles
does not show a higher concentration of cysteine compared to a person with two
mutant SLC3 A1 alleles.
d. Cysteine is a large polar molecule. How does the results support that claim?
Mutated transporter proteins do not allow cysteine to pass and it starts to build up
in the urine. This suggests that these transporter proteins are specific channel
proteins, which are needed by most large polar molecules.
29. [T] An experimental population was created that produced a modified RNA
polymerase containing a single amino acid substitution. This strain was used by
researchers studying transcription in yeast. The maximum elongation rate during
transcription was determined in presence and absence of the modified RNA
polymerase enzyme. A chart below represents the results.

A specific RNA polymerase inhibitor; Amanitin, attaches to the active site of the
RNA polymerase and stops transcription. Scientists conducted another experiment
by treating the normal population and the experimental population of yeast with a
48 μg / mL solution of amanitin and recorded the maximum elongation rate of the
mRNA. A chart below represents the results.

a. Explain the structural components of an RNA nucleotide monomer. Describe

the role of RNA polymerase during transcription.

An RNA nucleotide is made of a five-carbon ribose sugar, a phosphate group, and

a nitrogen base that can be one of (adenine, cytosine, guanine, or uracil).

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 RNA polymerase is an enzyme that can produce a new mRNA molecule by using a
DNA molecule as a template. RNA polymerase joins by covalent bonds the new
RNA nucleotides to make it grow.
b. Name the dependent variable in the experiments. What is the control group
missing from the second experiment? Explain why a control group is needed
in the second experiment.
The dependent variable is the elongation rate of the mRNA.
The populations from the first experiment (normal or experimental) but without
amanitin.
Explanation: The effect of amanitin on the elongation rate cannot be determined
without comparison to the elongation rate without amanitin.
c. Describe the effect of amanitin on the elongation rate for the normal-type and
modified RNA polymerases. Determine the ratio of the average elongation rate
for the modified RNA polymerase compared to the normal strain RNA
polymerase in the first graph.
The elongation rate for the normal population decreases in the presence of
Amanitin, but it doesn’t affect the rate of the experimental population.
1/3.75
d. Write a null hypothesis for the experiment in the first graph. Justify the claim
that the shape of the active site on the enzyme is affected by the change in the
amino acid sequence in the modified RNA polymerase.
Possible null hypothesis:
There is no effect in modifying the RNA polymerase on the elongation rate.
Or
It’s only due to chance that there is any difference between the two elongation rates
of the modified RNA polymerase and the normal RNA polymerase.
Justification:
The decrease in the elongation rate of the modified RNA polymerase is due to
change in the shape of the active site causes by the amino acid substitution.
30. [T] A disease known as therosclerosis occurs due to the adherence of certain cells
and proteins to blood vessels causing their damage, the most affected ones are
usually those around the heart. A scientist who is trying to treat individuals with
the disease performed an experiment based on results obtained from previous
investigation.
The previous investigation suggests that the usage of RNA-binding protein found
in the muscle cells found in the blood vessels’ outer surface known as FXR1 can
reduce the damage to the blood vessels.
Another investigation suggested that a protein secreted by certain white blood
cells known as IL-19, can regulate the FXR1 gene expression.
To be able to corelate these experiments to his treatments, the scientist grew
vessel-lining muscle cells in the lab and added IL-19 to it. During the
experimental duration of 48 hours, the scientist measured the production of
FXR1 protein by the cells in the presence of IL-19. The scientist calculated the
amount of FXR1 presentcompared with the amount of FXR1 when IL-19 was
first added to the cells. Results of the experiment is shown in the table below.

Time in the Presence of Relative Amount of

IL-19 (h) FXR1 Protein
0 0.95
4 1.67

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 8 1.57
16 3.07
24 2.13
48 1.57

(a) Explain how amino acids are showing different chemical properties. Explain
how amino acid sequence change as in case of FXR1 protein could lower its
binding ability to RNA.
Categories of amino acids include; hydrophobic, hydrophilic, or ionic (basic or
acidic).
The shape of a protein changes due to any change in amino acid sequence that will
lead to change or complete loss of RNA- binding sites formed by amino acids
interactions.
(b) Plot a labeled graph to represent the data in the table above.

(c) Describe the effect of IL-19 on FXR1 gene expression based on the data in the
table above.
The in expression of the FXR1 gene is slightly increased due to the IL-19.
(d) The scientist hypothesized that Individuals with a specific mutation of the
FXR1 gene tend to have high levels of a protein that binds to mRNAs that
encode arteries damaging proteins, how can FXR1 protein interacts with the
mRNAs.
Translation of the mRNAs must have been inhibited by the FXR1.
or
Degradation of the mRNAs must have occurred by the FXR1.

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31. [T] The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) catalyzes the conversion of
pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, a substrate for the Krebs (citric acid) cycle. The rate of
pyruvate conversion is greatly reduced in individuals with PDC deficiency, a
rare disorder.
a. Where is PDC most active?
Pyruvate is converted into acetyl Co-A in the link reaction which occurs in the
mitochondrial matrix.
b. Make a claim about how PDC deficiency affects the amount of NADH
produced by glycolysis AND the amount of NADH produced by the Krebs
(citric acid) cycle in a cell. Provide reasoning to support your claims based
on the position of the PDC- catalyzed reaction in the sequence of the cellular
respiration pathway.
The link reaction which is the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA occurs
after glycolysis but before the Krebs cycle.
Therefore, there would be no change in glycolysis. PDC is not needed for
glycolysis.
The Krebs cycle would be greatly reduced, if there is no acetyl CoA.
c. PDC deficiency is caused by mutations in the PDHA1 gene, which is located
on the X chromosome. A male with PDC deficiency and a homozygous female
with no family history of PDC deficiency start a family.
Draw a genetic diagram to show the expected genotypes and phenotypes in
their offspring.
Parent phenotype Male with PDC Normal female
deficiency
Parent genotype 𝑋𝑟 Y 𝑋𝑅 𝑋𝑅
Gametes 𝑋𝑟 𝑌 𝑋𝑅 𝑋𝑅
𝑟 𝑅 𝑟 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
F1 genotype 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 Y 𝑋 Y
F1 phenotype Normal Normal Normal Normal
female female male male
Carrier Carrier

32. Gibberellin is a plant hormone that promotes stem elongation. GA3H is the
enzyme that catalyzes the reaction that converts a precursor of gibberellin to the
active form. A mutation in the gene coding for the GA3H enzyme results in
plants that are short. If a pure breeding tall plant is crossed with a pure breeding
short plant all offspring in the next generation are tall. When the offspring are
crossed with each other ¾ of their offspring are tall and ¼ are short.
The original allele for the GA3H enzyme codes for a protein that has at position
229 the non-polar amino acid alanine (Ala). The mutant allele for the GA3H
enzyme codes for a protein that has at position 229 the non-polar amino acid
threonine (Thr).

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 a. Explain the effect in changing one amino acid on the function of the enzyme.
The amino acid substitution changes the primary sequence of the protein and
subsequently the other levels of protein structure. The enzymes shape will change
and subsequently its function will be lost.
b. Explain how the mutation results in short plant phenotypes in plants that are
homozygous recessive for this gene.
The GA3H enzyme will not non-functional. No active form of gibberellins will be
formed and no stem elongation will occur.
c. If the mutation was a result of a substitution mutation, state the expected
change in the codon sequence that resulted in the amino acid alanine being
replaced by amino acid threonine.
G is replaced by A in the first position of the codon.
5’-GCN-3’→5’-ACN-3’
NB. N represents any nucleotide.
d. Explain how plants with one (heterozygous) or two (homozygous) copies of
the original GA3H enzyme gene have the same phenotype.
Enough functional enzyme is produced from the one original dominant gene in
heterozygotes and therefore enough gibberellin is produced to give the plants the
tall phenotype.
33. [T] It is believed that the effect of one mutagen, mutagen A is amplified by the
presence of another mutagen B. To test the claim cultured eukaryotic cells were
exposed to mutagen A alone, mutagen B alone, a combination of mutagen A & B
and no mutagen. The mean presence of double stranded breaks was determined
as an indication of the effect of the mutagen on the DNA.
Treatment Mean percent of DNA
with Double-Strand
Breaks
Untreated control 5.0 2.0
Mutagen A only 6.0 3.0
Mutagen B only 5.5 2.5
Mutagen A and B 16.0 3 .5

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 a. Construct a graph using the data in the table to represent the effect of mutagen
A and B on DNA.

b. Describe the effect of mutagen A alone and mutagen B alone compared to the
effect of the combined treatment of mutagen A and mutagen B.
✓ When comparing the mean percent of DNA with double strand breaks upon
treatment with mutagen A and without treatment (control) there is no
significant difference. The error bars overlap.→ Mutagen A alone did not
cause DNA damage.
✓ When comparing the mean percent of DNA with double strand breaks upon
treatment with mutagen B and without treatment (control) there is no
significant difference. The error bars overlap. → Mutagen B alone did not
cause DNA damage.
✓ When comparing the mean percent of DNA with double strand breaks upon
treatment with mutagen A and B and without treatment (control) there is a
significant difference. The error bars do not overlap.→ Mutagen A and B
together cause DNA damage.
✓ When comparing the mean percent of DNA with double strand breaks upon
treatment with combined mutagen A and B and either mutagen A or B alone
there is a significant difference. The error bars do not overlap.→
Combination of mutagen A and B cause more damage than either mutagen A
or B alone.
c. What is the likely effect of double stranded DNA breaks on the cell cycle?
Justify your answer.
✓ The cell cycle will be halted. The cell cannot get past the cell cycle
checkpoints with damaged DNA. The cell will undergo apoptosis.
✓ The cell cycle will be delayed in order to repair the DNA.
34. [T] The DNA sequence of part of the human ß-globin gene is illustrated below.

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 a. Identify the length, in nucleotides, of the primary RNA transcript
(premRNA).
The length of the pre-mRNA: 53+ 80+ 146+ 224+ 840+ 128 + 130= 1601
b. Determine the length, in nucleotides, of the mature RNA transcript and
justify your answer.
When the mRNA is first made by RNA polymerase from the gene, it is in a rough
form called pre-mRNA which contains a mix of exons (protein-coding regions)
and introns (non-protein-coding regions). Because only the exons of the pre-
mRNA will be contained in the mature mRNA, the introns, which occur in
between the exons, must be spliced out. The length of the mature mRNA in this
case is: 53+ 80+ 224+ 128 + 130= 61
c. Calculate the number of amino acids present in the ß-globin protein
produced from the mRNA in this case and explain your answer.
During translation, the sequence of codons (nucleotide triplets) in the mRNA is
read by a ribosome, which connects the sequence of amino acids dictated by the
mRNA into a polypeptide. Translation starts in the vicinity of the start codon
(AUG) which is complementary to DNA sequence ATG. Translation ends when it
reaches a stop codon which is UAA in this case (equivalent to TAA in the DNA
sequence).
The number of amino acids: 80+ 224+ 128= 432
432/3= 144 amino acids
Term 1 Week 11

Chapter 14 Biotechnology and Genomics

Section 14.1 DNA Technology
1. Explain the use of genetic engineering techniques in analysing or manipulating
DNA.
• Electrophoresis separates molecules according to size and charge.
• During PCR (polymerase chain reaction) DNA fragments are amplified.
• Bacterial transformation involves the introduction of DNA into bacterial cells.
• DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.

2.
a. Outline the method of recombinant DNA production in gene cloning.

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 Keywords: restriction enzymes, DNA ligase, plasmid, recombined plasmid,
gene cloning.
• DNA from two sources-donor (human gene) and host (bacterial plasmid) are
required.
• Human DNA and plasmid are cleaved using restriction enzymes.
• The desired gene from human DNA is introduced into the plasmid.
• The human gene (DNA) and recombinant plasmid are sealed using DNA
ligase.
• The plasmid is introduced into the new host (bacterium). f) Bacteria multiply
and gene cloning occurs.
b. Outline the importance of the PCR technology.
• PCR can create copies of a segment of DNA quickly in a test tube.
• It is very specific, it makes copies of a targeted DNA sequence.
• The DNA is repeatedly replicated as long as the process continues.
• PCR technology allows scientists to analyze DNA for multiple purposes.
c. Explain how STR profiling and fluorescent labeling are used in DNA
fingerprinting.
STRs are short sequences of DNA that occur several times in a chromosome.
The STR profiling method is used in DNA fingerprinting. These DNA
fragments are labeled fluorescently. The laser excites the fluorescent STR, and
a detector records the amount of emission for each DNA fragment, in peaks and
valleys, which differ from person to person. The greater the fluorescence, the
greater the number of repeats.
3. Use the diagram below to answer the following two questions.

a. Which of the following contains DNA that was not first cut by restriction
enzymes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
b. Which of the following contains the lane with the smallest piece of DNA?
A. 1
c. B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

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4. [G] What is recombinant DNA technology?
Recombinant DNA technology is the joining together of DNA molecules from two
different species. The recombined DNA molecule is inserted into a host organism to
produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and
industry.
5. [G]
a. [G] What is gel electrophoresis?
Gel electrophoresis is a technique performed to separate DNA fragments according
to their size with the help of a gel matrix and electric current.
b. Identify the factors determining the movement of the charged molecules within
the gel.
• Negatively charged molecules move toward the anode and positively
charged molecules move towards the cathode. Highly charged molecules
move faster.
• Smaller molecules move faster than larger molecules.
• The size of the pores within the gel determines the speed with which the
proteins and DNA and move.
c. G Explain the process of gel electrophoresis.
• A gel matrix is set inside a tank filled with a salty buffer solution
• The tank is connected to an electric source of power.
• The DNA that will be analysed is loaded into the wells of the gel matrix
• Since the phosphate groups of the DNA backbone are negatively charged, the
DNA migrates to the positive pole of the gel in a reptile-like motion through
the pores of the gel.
• The smallest fragments of DNA will migrate faster and further than the larger
fragments.
• This migration according to the size of DNA creates a band pattern.
• The gel is stained for viewing and the band pattern is further analysed for
medical purposes, biotechnological research, paternity, forensics and
sequencing of the genome.
6. a. What is a vector in genetic engineering?
A vector for genetic engineering is a mean to transfer foreign genetic material into
a cell, for example bacterial plasmids or viruses. (Common one being adeno
viruses).
b. State why a vector is needed to make rDNA.
A vector is needed to introduce the rDNA into a host cell.
c. What are plasmids?
Plasmids are double stranded circular DNA molecules that aid in the survival of
prokaryotic cells.
d. Give an example of a vector commonly used in rDNA technology.
• A common vector used in rDNA technology is a plasmid.
• Plasmids are small accessory rings of double stranded DNA found in bacteria.
• Plasmids are located in the cytoplasm and are physically separate from the
main chromosome of the prokaryote.
• Plasmids replicate on their own and can be easily removed and introduced into
a bacterial cell.
• They often contain genes for antibiotic resistance.
7. a. Identify and state the role of the two enzymes needed to introduce foreign DNA
into vector DNA.

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 • Restriction enzymes cut open the DNA.
• DNA ligase seals the DNA cut by the restriction enzymes.
b. Explain what restriction enzymes are.
Restriction enzymes occur naturally in bacteria.
Restriction enzymes cut up viral DNA that has entered the bacterial cell.
They restrict the growth of the viruses.
Scientist have isolated and made use of these enzymes to cut DNA at specific sites.
Examples of restriction enzymes are EcoRI and HindIII.
c. What is the role of DNA ligase in the production of recombinant DNA?
The DNA ligase seals / joins foreign DNA fragments to the DNA of the vector for
the production of recombinant DNA.
d. Explain the use of restriction enzymes in the process of making recombinant
DNA.
Restriction enzymes can be isolated from bacteria and used in biotechnology to
make recombinant DNA by the following process.
• The restriction enzyme recognises a specific sequence in the DNA and it binds
to it.
• It cleaves (cuts) both strands of the DNA creating two DNA fragments with a
single stranded end. This means unpaired nucleotides result through the action
of restriction enzymes.
• The single stranded ends are complementary to each other and are called
sticky ends. DNA molecules with complementary sticky ends are linked by
H-bonds.
• The fragments cut with the same restriction enzyme can be joined together
with DNA ligase.
• Desired genes can be isolated using restriction enzymes and then joined to any
foreign DNA to make recombinant DNA.
8. a. Explain why bacteria are able to express human genes.
Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human genes because the genetic code
is universal. It is the same in humans and bacteria.
b. What are the requirements for bacteria to express a human gene?
In order for bacteria to express a human gene, the desired gene must have the
following characteristics.
1. Have a regulatory region (promoter) unique to bacteria.
2. Contain only exons. This is achieved by production of complementary DNA
(cDNA) from a copy of processed mRNA that has already had the introns
removed.
9. a. What is complementary DNA?
Complementary DNA or cDNA is a DNA strand that has been synthesized from
mRNA by the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase, therefore it only contains
exons (coding regions).
b. Genetic engineers faced difficulties in isolating the insulin gene from human
chromosomes. Outline how they were able to synthesis the insulin gene from
mRNA.
• mRNA was extracted from pancreatic β cells.
• The mRNA is then incubated with the enzyme reverse transcriptase to create
single stranded DNA.
• The single stranded DNA molecules are then converted into double stranded
DNA molecules using DNA polymerase.

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10. Describe the process of gene cloning using recombinant DNA technology.
• The DNA containing the desired gene is isolated and purified.
• The desired gene is separated from the DNA with the use of restriction enzymes to
create sticky ends.
• A plasmid with resistance to a specific antibiotic is chosen
• The DNA of the plasmid (vector) is cleaved (cut) open with the same restriction
enzymes used to isolate the desired gene in order to create complementary sticky
ends.
• The desired gene is then introduced to the plasmid.
• The sticky ends of both, the fragment and the plasmid are joined together with DNA
ligase.
• Microscopic holes are created in the membranes of the bacteria using electricity and
heat. Bacteria are transformed by incorporating the recombinant plasmid.
• Bacteria are grown in mediums with the antibiotic to which the plasmid has resistance
to.
• The success of the incorporation of the gene is determined by the survival of the
bacteria that incorporated the plasmid.
• The bacteria that incorporated the plasmid with the desired gene is allowed to grow
into large colonies, resulting in replicating the plasmid, thus resulting in cloning and
expressing the desired gene.
11. [T] A sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for
resistance to the antibiotic streptomycin. No plasmids were added to a second
sample of E. coli bacteria. Samples of each group of bacteria were grown on nutrient
agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic streptomycin and
some of which were not. The results are summarized below. Shaded areas represent
extensive growth. Dots represents individual colonies of bacteria.
No streptomycin Streptomycin
Wild type E. Coli 1 2

Ecoli mixed with 3 4

plasmid containing gene
for streptomycin
resisistance.

a. In a second experiment the plasmid containing the gene for human insulin as
well as resistance to streptomycin was used to transorm the bacteria. Which
nutrient agar plate would have the highest percentage of bacteria that are
expected to produce insulin?
Nutrient agar plate 4. All bacteria remaining have survived because they have taken
up the plasmid for streptomycin resistance as well as insulin production. 100% of the
bacteria remaining will produce insulin.

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 Not nutrient agar plant 1 or 2 as these bacteria were not mixed with the plasmid and
therefore are not transformed.
Not nutrient agar plate 3 as a large portion have not necessarily been transformed.
The bacteria that were not transformed were not removed as no streptomycin was
added to the medium.
Which plate/s have only streptomycin resistance bacteria growing.
Plate 4.
b. Why are there fewer colonies on plate four than plate three?
Not all E. coli bacteria are successfully transformed. Those that are not transofrmed
are killed off by streptomycin in plate 4.
12. An insulin gene was inserted into the plasmid. Cultures of bacteria were
transformed with the plasmid following insertion of the insulin gene. Transformed
bacteria were able to survive in the presence of tetracycline but were unable to grow
in the presence of kanamycin. Predict the most likely site of insertion of the insulin
gene by indicating on the diagram below. Explain your reasoning.

The gene coding for kanamycin resistance was interrupted by insertion of the insulin
gene.
13. Other than the use of antibiotics, how can successfully transformed bacteria be
identified?
Use enzymes that produce fluorescent substances. Enzymes obtained from jellyfish make
a protein called GFP that fluoresces bright green in ultraviolet light. The gene for the
enzyme is inserted into the plasmid. To identify the bacteria that have taken up the
plasmid ultraviolet light is shown on them. The bacteria that glow green have successfully
been transformed.
14. a. What is polymerase Chain Reaction?
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique that quickly produces millions of
copies (amplifies) of a specific DNA fragment from a very small sample.
• Quickly creates clones of a piece of DNA.
• There is no need to first insert the DNA sample into a plasmid.
• It is specific. It amplifies only a targeted piece of DNA.
b. Which are the requirements to run a PCR in a laboratory setting?
• A very small sample of targeted sequence of DNA.
• Taq polymerase. A thermo-stable (heat stable) DNA polymerase enzyme
extracted from the bacterium-Thermus Aquaticus.
• A supply of deoxyribonucleotides (A, G, C, T) for new strands of DNA
• DNA primers to mark the beginning and the end of the desired sequence to
be amplified. This is a short length of DNA (about 20 base pairs long) that
has a base sequence complementary to the start of the DNA strand to be
copied.
• Buffer solution
c. Explain the process followed by PCR for the production of millions of copies
of DNA in just a few hours.

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 • Denaturation (95°C): The mixture is heated up to break the hydrogen bonds
of DNA and unzip the DNA.
• Annealing(65°C): The temperature is decreased to let the primers bind
(anneal) to the end points of the desired fragment to be amplified.
• Extension(72°C): The temperature is risen for the Taq polymerase to
synthesise the complementary strands of DNA from free nucleotides.
• The process is repeated until enough amount of the desired fragment to be
analysed has been produced.
• After 30 cycles around 2 billion copies of the desired gene has been
replicated.
15.
a. What is DNA fingerprinting/DNA profiling?
DNA fingerprinting is a technique that can help distinguish among individuals
based on variations in their DNA. Selected fragments of chromosomal DNA
produce a series of bands when separated by gel electrophoresis. The pattern of
these bands is unique for each individual and serves as a sort of “DNA fingerprint.”
b. How can restriction enzymes be used in DNA profiling?
• The genome of an individual is treated with restriction enzymes. (Restriction
enzymes recognize and cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.)
• A unique collection of different sized fragments is created. Each individual
has a unique sequence of nucleotides and therefore has his or her own
restriction enzyme sites.
• The fragments were then separated according to size by gel electrophoresis.
A pattern of distinctive bands is created that will identify the person.
c. How can short tandem repeats be used in DNA profiling?
• Short tandem repeats are short DNA sequences that are repeated many times
in a row. They are noncoding regions of chromosomal DNA. They are found
at specific locations in the genome of all species. All humans have the
sequence GATA on chromosome 7. However, individuals of the same species
differ in the number of repeats. For example, one individual may have 5
repeats of GATA and another may have 10 repeats.
• As the sites of the short tandem repeats are known they can be amplified by
PCR. Fragments of DNA will be created that will vary in size depending on
the number of STR. The person with a higher number of repeats will have a
larger DNA fragment.
• The STRs that have been amplified by PCR can then be separated according
to size by gel electrophoresis. A patter of distinctive bands is created that will
identify the person.
16. The following pedigree chart shows data collected while studying a family in which
some members have sickle cell disease. There are two alleles for the haemoglobin
gene. The HbA allele encode wild-type (normal) haemoglobin and the HbS allele
encodes the sickle cell form of haemoglobin. Shaded symbols represent individuals
with sickle cell disease.

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The following is a portion of the DNA sequence taken from the allele (HbA) that
encodes for the wild-type haemoglobin.
5′ CTG ACT CCT GAG GAG AAG TCT 3′ Non-template Strand
3′ GAC TGA GGA CTC CTC TTC AGA 5′ Template Strand
The following is an image of a gel following electrophoretic separation of DNA
fragments of the haemoglobin gene from three individuals from the pedigree chart
above.

A. Identify the genotypes of the individual I-VII from the pedigree chart.
I: HbS HbS: In order to suffer from the disorder the individual must have both
HbS alleles.
II: HbA HbS: This individual is healthy, but must be a carrier of the HbS allele
to have passed it on to offspring IV and V.
III: HbA HbS or HbA HbA: This individual does not suffer from the disorder so
may possess both HbA alleles or may be a carrier.
IV: HbS HbS: This individual suffers from the disorder so must possess both
HbS alleles.
V: HbS HbS: This individual suffers from the disorder so must possess both
HbS alleles.
VI,VII: HbA HbS: These individuals appear to be healthy, but have a child
with the disorder so they must both be carriers of the HbS allele.
B. The HbS allele which causes the sickle cell disease results from a point
mutation in the DNA sequence of the HbA allele. The point mutation causes
the amino acid glutamic acid to be replaced by valine. State the mRNA
sequence derived from the HbS allele. Use the table below to answer.

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 5’CUG ACU CCU GUG GAG AAG UCU 3’
C. The restriction enzyme Mst II recognizes a particular nucleotide sequence
and cuts DNA at that site. The heamoglobin genes of the different members
of the family in the pedigree chart were treated with the restriction enzyme
Mst II before being separated by gel electrophoresis. Explain the banding
pattern in the figure above.
Individual I: suffers from sickle cell anemia and possess only the HbS allele.
The HbS allele does not possess the nucleotide sequence recognized by Mst II
restriction enzyme. The allele was not cut and remained as one large DNA
fragment.
Individual III: is a homozygote for the HbA allele. The HbA allele possesses the
nucleotide sequence recognized by Mst II restriction enzyme. The allele was cut
into two smaller fragments.
Individual II: is a heterozygote with one HbA allele and one HbS allele, creating
three bands of DNA fragments.

Section 14.2 Biotechnology Products

17. How are genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals useful? Give an example
of each.
Bacteria modified with human genes can be used to obtain useful pharmaceutical
products, such as insulin, clotting factor VIII, and human growth hormone. They are used
for the treatment of diseases. Hepatitis B vaccine is also obtained from bacteria, when
they are modified with virus genes. Genetically modified plants are created to be resistant
against herbicides and pest insects. Thus, they are used to improve crop yields.
Genetically modified animals can be used to obtain human proteins such as insulin. Some
genetically modified animals can grow faster, reducing the amount of resources invested
into their development. For example, salmon is genetically modified with growth genes.
18. Use the following given to answer the two questions below.
A group of tobacco plants was given a jellyfish gene. These plants began to glow in
the dark.
a. These tobacco plants can be described as
A. infertile organisms.
B. pest resistant organisms.
C. genetically modified organisms.

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 D. ancestral organisms.
E. endangered organisms.

b. Which of the following proteins is coded by the jellyfish gene?

A. clotting factor VIII
B. insulin
C. green fluorescent protein
D. tissue plasminogen activator
E. hemoglobin
19. Which of the following is not a function of genetically modified bacteria?
A. eating oil
B. removing sulfur from coal
C. producing insulin
D. producing phenylalanine
E. curing patients from HIV
20. Which of the following is the most similar to the process of cloning?
A. transcription
B. pollination
C. meiosis
D. mitosis
E. gametogenesis
Section 14.3 Gene Therapy
21. Explain gene therapy and give examples of its different types.
Gene therapy has been used to cure inborn errors of metabolism, as well as other disorder
such as cardiovascular disorders, and cancer.
Types of gene therapy are:
• ex vivo gene therapy: the gene of interest is inserted into cells removed from the body
and later returned to the body. This therapy is used to treat diseases such as SCID.
• in vivo gene therapy: the gene of interest is delivered directly into the body to fight
against human illness such as cystic fibrosis.

Section 14.4 Genomics

22. i. Outline the human genome project and its goal.
Human Genome Project (HGP) aims at sequencing the DNA base pairs within a short
period of time using modern instruments. The variation among individuals based on
single nucleotide polymorphism can be identified.
ii. Describe the significance of the various types of intergenic DNA sequences.
• Intergenic sequence: is a region of DNA that lies between genes on a chromosome.
There are three basic types of intergenic DNA in the human genome:
• Repetitive DNA Elements: Same sequence of two or more nucleotides are repeated
many times along the length of one or more chromosomes. Repetitive DNA at the
centromeres help with segregating the chromosomes during cell division. Repetitive
DNA elements can either occur as tandem repeat, where repeated sequences are
next to each other on the chromosome, or as interspersed repeat, where the
repetition may be placed intermittently along a single chromosome, or across
multiple chromosomes.

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 • Transposons: They are specific DNA sequences which move within and between
chromosomes. They act as regulatory genes in altering the expression of
neighboring genes, or as a driving force in the evolution of living things.
• Unique Noncoding DNA: It has been highly conserved through evolution. Recent
studies have suggested that these DNA regions which were one thought to be “junk
DNA” may have significant regulatory roles in the cell.
23. Once a plasmid has incorporated the target gene, it can be cloned by
A. inserting it into a virus.
B. treating it with restriction enzymes.
C. inserting it into a suitable bacterium.
D. inserting it into a human nerve cell.
E. treating it with DNA ligase.
24. Which of the following constitutes that majority of protein coding regions in
humans?
A. repetitive elements
B. tandem repeats
C. interspersed repeats
D. exons
E. introns
25. Use the following to answer the four parts below.
A. transposon
B. transcription
C. translation
D. transformation
E. translocation

a. when DNA of one strain of bacteria is taken up by another strain of bacteria

D
b. when mRNA participates in the buildup of a polypeptide chain
C
c. when DNA is copied to mRNA
B
d. when a segment of DNA is able to jump from one place to another
A
26. [T] The following figure represents a plasmid used for recombinant DNA
technologies with cleavage sites for two restriction enzymes E and H.

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a. Knowing that the size of the studied plasmid is 150 kb, calculate the size of
fragment X, shown in the figure above, which resulted from the cleavage of the
plasmid with both enzymes, E and H.
The size of fragment X is 150 – (20+30+55) = 45 kb
b. Name the two main type of enzymes involved in the production of recombinant
DNA and state the function of each.
The two enzymes are the restriction enzymes which cuts the DNA and the DNA
ligase which seals the foreign piece of DNA into the vector/plasmid.
c. State two uses of gene cloning.
Gene cloning can be used in gene therapy and in the production of transgenic
organisms.
d. Products produced by genetically modified organisms are called biotechnology
or bioengineered product. What are two main concerns associated with the use
of biotechnology products?
There are concerns that certain biotechnology products may have unknown threats
to the human health and to ecosystems.

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 Level N Biology
Course Revision Questions Term 2
Term 2, Week 1

Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution

1. Define evolution.
Evolution is the process that accounts for the descent of organisms from common
ancestors with the development of genetic and phenotypic changes over time that make
them better adapted to the environment. Consequently, this process is witnessed in a
population as a whole and not at the level of an individual.
2. State the views, proposals and hypotheses put forward by Charles Darwin.
• He reflected on the ideas of all previous scientists on how species change.
• He hypothesized that common descent occurs and the process of natural selection
results in adaptation to the environmental factors.
• Adaptation is brought about by members of large population possessing random
but inherited variation.
• Darwin believed in a struggle for existence and the most fit organisms were the
ones with the most favorable characteristics. These fit organisms were better able
to access resources and so survive and reproduce more providing more members
to a population.
3. a. What is natural selection?
Natural selection is the mechanism that explains evolution. It is the way in which
individuals with a particular characteristic have a greater chance of survival and
are therefore more likely to survive and pass on their genes to the next generation.
b. Define fitness.
Fitness is the capacity of an organism to survive and transmit its genotype to its
offspring. Evolutionary fitness is measured by reproductive success.
c. Define selection pressure.
Selection pressure is an environmental factor that allows greater chances of
survival and reproduction in some individuals more than others in the population.
d. [G] What are the components of Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural
selection?
• Organisms exhibit variation that can be passed from one generation to the
next through genes. The variation is said to be heritable. The main source
of heritable variation is mutation.
• A population produces more offspring than the environment can support.
Available resources are not enough for all individuals of a population to
survive.
• Organisms compete for resources. Only the fittest will get the most
resources.
• Individuals in an environment differ with regards to their reproductive
success. Individuals with favorable traits are better able to compete for
limited resources and therefore more energy can be devoted to reproduction.
The genes of these individuals will therefore be passed on to the next
generation. We say such individuals are more reproductively successful and

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 fit. It is important to note that the environment determines which trait
provides a selective advantage.
• Evolution occurs as advantageous traits accumulate in a population.
Organisms become adapted to their environments. An adaptation is any
evolved trait that helps an organism become more suited to its environment.
e. Give examples of natural selection.
Antibiotic resistance in bacteria, pesticide resistance in insects and poison
resistance in rats all illustrate the Darwinian concept of natural selection as a
mechanism of evolution.
4. [G] Answer each of the following questions:
a) What type of evidence of evolution is represented by the remains and traces of
past life?
b) What type of evidence of evolution is represented by the range and distribution
of plants and animals in different places throughout the world?
c) What type of evidence of evolution is represented by the presence of homologous
and vestigial structures?
d) What type of evidence is represented by the presence of similarities between
amino acid sequences in organisms of different species?
a) Fossil evidence
b) Biogeographical evidence
c) Anatomical/ developmental/ fossil evidence
d) Biochemical evidence
5. a. Explain how the concept of common descent and modification by natural
selection is supported by the fossil evidence.
• A fossil is any preserved evidence of an ancient life. These remains and the
traces of past life include trails, footprints, burrows, worm casts or even
preserved droppings.
• The fossil record reveals species that have become extinct or have evolved
into other species.
• Radiometric dating and half-life can be used to accurately measure the age
of fossils.
• Prokaryotes were the first organisms on earth and they are the oldest fossils.
• Transitional fossils are fossils that resemble two separate groups that are
classified as separate. They are evidence of evolution. They represent
intermediate forms of life in transition from one type to another.
b. Describe the fossil evidence that supports the hypothesis that whales had
terrestrial ancestors.
The Ambulocetus natans (50 MYA) and the Basilosaurus (40MYA) are
transitional fossils that supports the hypothesis that whales had terrestrial
ancestors. These ancestors of whales show evidence of an increasing adaptation
to aquatic life. The Ambulocetus had webbed feet on its forelimbs and hind limbs
that enable it to walk and swim. It had the teeth and skull of early whales. Both
fossils show a gradual reduction in the hind limb and a movement of the nasal
opening from the tip of the nose to the top of the head. These are both adaptations
to living in water.
6. It is believed that lobe-finned fish are ancestors of amphibians. The fossils of the
lobe-finned fish were dated to 380-million years ago. The fossils of the oldest
amphibians were dated to 360 million years ago. The fossilized remains of
Tiktaalik roseae were discovered years ago. It is believed to be the transitional
form between fish and amphibians.

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 a. The fossil remains of Tiktaalik roseae, linking the two groups are most likely
to be how old?
Approximately 370 million years old (360-380 million years)
b. State evidence that can be provided by the transitional species that would
support the hypothesis that amphibians evolved from lobe-finned fish.
✓ Structural features: Tiktaalik roseae has features common to both fish and
amphibians.
• Set of gills and fins→ fish
• Wrist bones→ amphibians
• Interlocking ribs → amphibians
✓ Molecular DNA comparison
✓ Biogeographical evidence: Fossils were found in the same location
7. [G] What are homologous, analogous, and vestigial structures? Give one example
of each.
Anatomical evidence includes homologous structures, analogous structures and
vestigial structures.
1. Homologous structures:
• Structures that are anatomically similar but have different functions as their
specific designs are suited for different purposes.
• Are inherited from a common ancestor and are therefore related.
• Example: vertebrate forelimbs (wings of a bird, bat, flippers of a whale,
forelimb of a cat, horse, and human’s upper limb) have same sets of bones
and are organized in a similar way but have different functions. Organisms
with homologous structures share and provide evidence of a common
ancestor.
2. Analogous structures:
• Structures that are anatomically different but carry the same function.
• Organisms in this case do not share a common ancestor rand they are not
closely related.
• These traits evolve by convergent evolution in two unrelated species because
of exposure to similar habitats.
• The wings of birds and wings of insects are analogous structures.
• The streamed line body of fish and squids are analogous structures.
• The spine of cacti and thorns of roses and spurges are analogous structures.
• The dorsal fin of tuna and dolphins is an example of an analogous structure.
the dorsal fins are constructed differently but both play a role in keeping the
animal upright while swimming.
3. Vestigial structures:
• Organs that are useless to their present owners but that are homologous
(similar) to structures that serve important functions in other species.
• Structures or organs those are fully developed and functional in some
organisms and reduced with no function in others.
• Examples: Wings of birds and wings of ostrich, humans have a tailbone but
no tail, caecum and appendix in herbivores but reduced with no function in
humans.
8. a. Explain with reference to the diagram, the evolutionary significance of the
following homologous structures.

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 • All vertebrate forelimbs contain the same set of bones organized in similar
ways, despite having dissimilar functions.
• The forelimbs shown e.g. that of a bat, dolphin, dog and human contain the
same sets of bones organized in a similar way. However, they have
dissimilar functions as their specific designs are suited for different
purposes.
• The basic forelimb plan was present in a common ancestor to all vertebrae.
• The forelimbs shown e.g. that of a bat, dolphin, dog and human are
homologous structures.
b. Explain with reference to the diagram, the evolutionary significance of the
developmental similarities of the vertebrates’ embryos as anatomical
evidence.

• With reference to the diagram, it can be seen that early embryos of different
species are similar.
• Certain components emerge in all vertebrate embryos at corresponding
stages of development. At some time during embryological development,
all vertebrates have a post-anal tail and exhibit paired pharyngeal pouches.
These are examples of homologous structures existing due to a common
ancestor and exemplify embryological evidence of evolution.
• Embryonic similarities indicate that fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and
mammals are all evolved from a common ancestor. Adult morphology
diverged as genetic instructions changed over time so that each species may
become adapted to its environment.
9. a. Explain how the concept of common descent and modification by natural
selection is supported by the biochemical evidence.
• All organisms have basic biochemical molecules such as protein, DNA,
RNA and ATP. This is evidence for common ancestry.
• All organisms use the same genetic code i.e., triplet code and same 20 amino
acids for synthesis of proteins.
• The more closely species are related the higher the similarities in nucleotide
sequences.
• The more closely species are related the higher the similarities in amino acid
sequence of their proteins.
b. Explain how the sequencing of cytochrome C may be used to decipher
evolutionary relationships amongst organisms.
Cytochrome C is a protein of the electron transport chain found in the
mitochondria of eukaryotic organisms. The comparative study of the sequence of
amino acids in cytochrome c is commonly used to decipher evolutionary
relationships among organisms. The fewer differences in the amino acid sequence
of proteins the more closely related the species are to each other. For example,
the sequence of amino acids in human differs from that in the monkey by only one

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 amino acid, from that in the duck by 11 amino acids and that in yeast by 51 amino
acids. This indicates that humans are most closely related to monkeys and most
distantly related to yeast.
10. Describe how the biogeographical evidence supports the theory of evolution.
• Biogeography is the study of the range and distribution of plants and animals
in different places through the world. When forms are related, they evolved
in one locale and then spread to accessible regions. This means that islands
have unique species not found elsewhere.
• Darwin noticed during his voyage: similar species replaced one another →
Related species could be modified according to environmental differences.
• In the Galapagos islands he also noticed that organisms were slightly
different from the ones on the mainland and organisms varied from one
island to another. There were different species of tortoises and finches on
each island. Each island had its own species of tortoises depending on the
type of vegetation available. Long-necked tortoises inhabited dry areas
where only tall cacti were abundant. Short-necked tortoises were found
where low-growing vegetation was abundant.
11. a. Define artificial selection.
Artificial selection occurs when humans purposely apply selection pressures to
populations.
b. Describe the process of artificial selection/selective breeding using cattle as an
example.
• Desired features are chosen. For example, docility, high growth rates and
high milk yields.
• Individuals expressing these traits are chosen for breeding.
• The alleles responsible for these traits are passed on to the next generation.
• Again individuals from the next generation expressing these traits are chosen
for breeding.
• This will be repeated for several generations.
• Alleles coding for desired traits will increase in frequency, while alleles
coding for undesired traits will decrease in frequency.
c. Compare the process of natural selection with the artificial selection.
• Natural selection is when organisms with heritable traits that favor survival
will leave more offspring then their peers. The favorable trait will increase
in frequency from generation to generation. The population becomes
adapted to its environment over time. The desirable trait perpetuated to the
next generation is determined by the environment.
• Artificial selection is human controlled breeding to increase the frequency of
desired traits. This means that the selecting agent is humans. For example,
modern corn evolved from teosinte. Teosinte has 5-12 kernels in each row
and a hard thick shell surrounding each kernel. Humans have been selecting
for softer shells and more kernels resulting in the modern day corn, maize.
• In both processes, the organisms that arise are related and descended from a
common ancestor.
12. [G] How do humans affect diversity in a species through artificial selection?
A human-controlled breeding to increase the frequency of desired traits in a population
is called artificial selection. Artificial selection is possible only because the original
population exhibits a variety of characteristics, allowing humans to select the traits they

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 prefer. Artificial selection is practiced in dogs, Chinese cabbage, Brussels sprouts, and
corn, allowing people to choose and breed the best individuals within these species
13. a. Explain the evolution of drug-resistant or antibiotic resistant bacteria by
natural selection.
• Bacteria exhibit variation that can be passed from one generation to the next
through genes. Some bacteria attain the ability to be resistant to antibiotics.
This occurs due to the appearance of a new allele brought about by mutation.
• A bacterial population reproduces.
• The application of antibiotics acts as a selection pressure, favoring the
survival of bacteria that are antibiotic resistant.
• The bacteria differ with regards to their reproductive success. Bacteria that
are susceptible to the antibiotic will not be able to survive and reproduce.
• The bacteria differ with regards to their reproductive success. Bacteria with
the allele for antibiotic resistance will be able to survive and reproduce. The
gene or allele for antibiotic resistance will therefore be passed on to the next
generation. We say the bacteria exhibiting antibiotic resistance are more
reproductively successful and fit.
• Evolution occurs as more and more bacteria within the population become
antibiotic resistant. Bacteria have become adapted to an environment with
antibiotics.
b. Describe the method of transmitting antibiotic resistance in a bacterial
population by vertical transmission.
• Bacteria have a single copy of each gene as they have one circular
chromosome. A mutant gene will therefore have an immediate effect.
• Bacteria without the mutant gene for antibiotic resistance will die.
• Bacteria with the mutant gene will survive
• and reproduce by binary fission. The circular chromosome replicates and
the bacterial cell splits into two, passing on the gene for antibiotic resistance.
• A large population of antibiotic resistant bacteria would result.
c. Describe the method of transmitting antibiotic resistance in a bacterial
population by horizontal transmission.
• During conjugation two bacteria are temporarily linked together, by means
of a conjugation pilus. Where they are linked the donor cell passes on the
DNA (allele for antibiotic resistance) to a recipient cell.
• Transformation occurs when a bacterial cell picks up free pieces of DNA
(allele for antibiotic resistance) secreted by live or dead prokaryotes.
• During transduction bacteriophages (virus that parasitize bacteria) carry
portions of DNA (allele for antibiotic resistance) from one bacterial cell to
another.
14. Explain natural selection in action, giving an example.
a. Pesticide resistant insects:
A mutation in insects allows resistance to insecticides. Upon exposure to
insecticides insects with the mutation will survive and those without the mutation
will die. The gene for insecticide resistance is passed on to the next generation.
There is a shift in the population of insects as they become adapted to an
environment with insecticides by becoming resistant.
b. Darwin finches of Galapagos Islands:
The finches on each island share features in common due to descent from a
common ancestor from the mainland. Each species was exposed to a different

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 food sources on each island and therefore adaptation to different environments
caused divergence in beak shape. The mechanism allowing for the adaptation was
natural selection.
The evolved finches can no longer mate with each other as they have become new
species.
c. Darwin tortoises of Galapagos Islands
The tortoises on each island share features in common due to descent from a
common ancestor from the mainland. Each species was exposed to a different
food sources on each island and therefore adaptation to different environments
caused divergence in neck length and shell shape. The mechanism allowing for
the adaptation was natural selection. Long-necked tortoises inhabited dry areas
where only tall cacti were abundant. Short-necked tortoises were found where
low-growing vegetation was abundant.
15. a. Explain the process of natural selection by using peppered moth as an
example.
• Genetic variation resulted in two forms of the peppered moth, light-colored
speckled (spotted) and dark-colored or black.
• The normal speckled coloring is caused by the recessive allele (c) while the
black color is caused by the dominant allele (C). The allele for black color
arose as a result of a mutation.
• In non-industrial areas where there is no pollution the light-colored
speckled variety is better camouflaged and has a survival value. In such
areas the light-colored speckled variety will survive and reproduce and have
more offspring passing on the allele for light-colored speckled color to the
next generation.
• In industrial areas (where there is soot covering the tree barks) where there
is pollution the black variety is better camouflaged and has survival value.
In such areas the black variety will survive, reproduce and have more
offspring, passing on the allele for black color to the next generation.
• The selection pressure causing the changes in allele frequency is predation
by birds.
b. A number of moths were released into polluted and unpolluted environments.
Investigators recaptured as many of the released moths as possible. Data
from the investigation is depicted in the table below.
Account for the difference in percentage of dark-colored moths recaptured in
polluted versus unpolluted environments.
Percent of Moths recaptured
Moth color Environment Percentage of released
moths recaptured
Light-colored unpolluted 14%
Light-colored polluted 15%
Dark unpolluted 6%
Dark polluted 12%
Dark colored moths are more likely to be recaptured in a polluted environment. In
a polluted environment dark colored moths are more camouflaged and are not
preyed upon by birds (selection pressure). The dark colored moths would live
longer in a polluted environment and therefore the percentage recaptured would
be higher when compared to an unpolluted environment. In a polluted
environment dark moths would be fit and more.

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16. [T] The rock pigeon is affected by a small host-specific parasite that feed on its
feathers known as pigeon lice. Lice transmission requires direct contact between
pigeons. Pigeons on the other hand can remove the lice using their beaks as they
clean their feathers.
The rock pigeon has the black and white phenotypes for pigeon feather color, and
pigeon lice have dark and light phenotypes for louse body color.
A scientist hypothesized that the evolution of lice coloration is forced by birds. In
order to test this hypothesis, a group of researches designed a 5 years span
experiment as follows:
A wild rock pigeon was obtained and a random sample of 25 lice were transferred
to a group of white pigeons and black pigeons.
A plastic mouth piece was used on half the number of pigeons in each color group
to prevent the complete closure if the bird’s beak. The mouth beak won’t interfere
with the pigeon’s ability to feed or pick up food.
Each pigeon was kept isolated while keeping all the environmental conditions
constant (including light intensity, temperature, and humidity).
The phenotypes of lice were observed every 24 days.
a. Describe why it is important to have individual variation in phenotypes in body
color of louse in a population of lice.
In a changing environment, the increase in variation among a population will ensure
that some individuals of that population will be able to survive and reproduce.
b. Justify why the researchers kept the light intensity constant in their experiment.
Pigeons can detect the lice by using their vision. Variable light intensities will affect the
effectiveness of cleaning the feathers, and hence, catching the lice.
c. Predict how feather cleaning by pigeons can affect the lice phenotypes at the end of
the experiment. Justify your answer.
There will be an increase in the frequency of louse phenotypes that blended with their
host feathers.
There will be a decrease in the frequency of louse phenotypes that contrasted with their
host feathers.
Justification:
Lice with colors contrasting with that of the pigeon feathers would not be camouflaged
and couldn’t survive nor reproduce. Lice with similar colors to the feathers of the
pigeon survived and reproduced.

Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve

1. a. Define microevolution.
Microevolution is the change in allele frequencies that occurs over time within a
population.
b. Define gene pool.
The gene pool consists of all the alleles of all genes in all individuals in a
population.
c. Define allele frequency.
Allele frequency is the relative frequency of an allele at a gene locus within a
population. It may be expressed as a fraction or percentage. OR Allele frequency
is the fraction of all chromosomes in the population that carry that allele.
2. a. Define hardy Weinberg equilibrium.

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 Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is the state of a population in which the allele
frequencies do not change over time. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is a stable,
non-evolving state.
b. State the Hardy Weinberg principle.
The hardy Weinberg principle is a mathematical model that proposes that the
genotype frequency of a population can be calculated using the following
equation.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Where
p2 = frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype
2pq = frequency of the heterozygous genotype
q2 = frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype
p = frequency of dominant allele
q = frequency of the recessive allele
c. Under what condition can the hardy Weinberg equation be used to calculate
genotype frequency in a population?
The Hardy Weinberg equation can be used to calculate genotype frequency when
microevolution is not occurring within a population.
d. Give an alternative equation to the Hardy-Weinberg equation by
summarizing relationship between frequency of dominant allele and
frequency of recessive allele. Identify what each symbol represents.
p+q=1
Where p is the frequency of the dominant allele
q is the frequency of the recessive allele
e. [G] State the conditions that are to be met for a population to be in Hardy
Weinberg equilibrium.
1. No mutation: No new alleles arise by mutation.
2. No migration: No new members enter a population bringing with them new
alleles. No members leave a population taking with them alleles.
3. The population is large with a large gene pool and is therefore not prone to
the effects of genetic drift.
4. Mating is random.
5. No natural selection. Selection pressures do not favor one genotype over
another.
3. [G] In the Hardy-Weinberg equation: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Where
p2 = frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype
2pq = frequency of the heterozygous genotype
q2 = frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype
p = frequency of dominant allele
q = frequency of the recessive allele
Given: In a flower population of 200 plants, 72 show the recessive color of white
and all others are red. Calculate the number of individuals in the population with
each of the three genotypes.

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4. a. Is the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium commonly achieved in wild
populations?
The Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is not commonly achieved in wild populations
as the five conditions are rarely met in the real world.
c. State the five conditions that cause microevolution.
1. Mutation: New alleles arise by mutation.
2. Migration: New members enter a population bringing with them new alleles.
Members leave a population taking with them alleles.
3. The population is small with a small gene pool and is therefore is prone to
the effects of genetic drift.
4. Mating is not random.
5. Natural selection. Selection pressures favor one genotype over another.
c. What is the difference between Hardy-Weinberg principle and the process of
microevolution?
Hardy – Weinberg principle concerns the genetic stability where no change in
allele frequency occurs from one generation to another over time. Microevolution
is the opposite of the Hardy – Weinberg principle since there is a change in allele
frequency leading to genotypic and phenotypic change in a population.
5. a. Define gene flow and describe how it can alter allele frequency within a
population.
Gene flow is the movement of alleles between populations. This occurs through
the movement of whole plants and animals or gametes between populations. Gene
flow in plants occurs when pollen from one plant reaches another plant in a
different population.
b. Consider a population of 25 moths. They carry 50 genes for color, 10 of which
are the recessive allele d and 40 of which are the dominant allele D.
What is the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles?
Frequency of dominant allele = 40/50= 0.8
Frequency of recessive allele = 10/50= 0.2
Suppose one moth heterozygote for color entered the population. Would the
allele frequency be altered? If so what condition of the hardy Weinberg
principle is not met?
Yes, the allele frequency will be altered.
Frequency of dominant allele = 41/52= 0.79
Frequency od recessive allele = 11/52= 0.21
The allele frequency has been altered due to the migration of a new member into
the population. It has brought with it new alleles altering the allele frequency.
The condition of no gene flow is not being met.
c. State the effect on two populations if gene flow continuously occurs between
them?

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 When gene flow continuously occurs between two populations the gene pools of
the two populations become more and more similar.
d. State how a lack of gene flow between two populations can lead to
reproductive isolation.
If migration between two populations does not occur the gene pools become more
and more different until they can no longer interbreed. The two populations
become reproductively isolated.
6. a. [G] Define genetic drift.
Genetic drift refers to changes in allele frequencies of a gene pool due to chance.
This occurs when individuals and their genes are removed randomly without
regards to genotype or phenotype. For example, suppose there is a population of
10 frogs in a pond. 1 is brown (10%) and 9 are green (90%). If a natural disaster
randomly killed 5 of the green frogs, we would be left with 4 green frogs (80%)
and one brown frog (20%). The frequency of the brown and green allele has been
altered in the population due to random events. This is evolution by genetic drift.
b. [G] What type of population is more prone to evolution by genetic drift?
Smaller populations are prone to evolution by genetic drift.
c. [G] Identify two types of genetic drift.
The founder effect is an example of genetic drift.
The bottleneck effect is an example of genetic drift.
d. [G] Define bottleneck effect.
• Bottleneck effect is a type of genetic drift that occurs when natural disasters
strike, resulting in a significant reduction in population size. There is a loss
in genetic diversity due to natural disasters (hurricanes, earthquakes, etc),
diseases, overhunting, and habitat loss. The result is a smaller population
with a gene pool made of a random assortment of alleles taken from the
original population.
• Bottleneck effect results in a decreased genetic diversity in the remaining
population. Population ability to respond to changes in the environment is
influenced by genetic diversity. Species and populations with little genetic
diversity are at risk of decline or extinction.
• The cheetah population has been greatly reduced in size as a result of over
hunting by humans. This is an example of bottleneck effect.
e. [G] Define founder effect.
• Founder effect is a type of genetic drift that results in a reduction in genetic
diversity when a few individuals break away from a large population or
become isolated to form a new population. The result is a smaller population
with a gene pool made of a random assortment of alleles taken from the
original population.
▪ The Amish are a population in the US that separated from the rest of the
general population. The incidence of polydactylism is very high in the
Amish population in comparison to the rest of the population in the US.
This is an example of founder effect.
7. Outline the different types of natural selection.
a. Stabilizing selection
• When natural selection keeps things the way they are.
• When selection pressures act against the two extremes.
• This type of selection keeps the variation centered around the mean value.

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 • Example: human infants born with an intermediate birth weight have better
chance of survival than those at either extreme (less or much greater than
usual).
b. Directional selection
• When a new environmental factor or allele appears the allele frequency will
change.
• Type of selection in which the range in variation shifts towards one extreme
phenotype.
• Examples: Fossil evidence show that horses have gradually increased in size
over time as their forest habitat was replaced by grasslands. In the case of
antibiotic resistant bacteria, the process of selection shifts the composition of
the population by favoring individuals at one extreme of the distribution, i.e.,
those resistant to antibiotics.
c. Disruptive selection
• When the environment favors two extreme phenotypes within a population.
• Maintains polymorphism. This helps maintain diversity in the population.
• Due to exposure to two different environments, British land snails have two
shell patterns light banded and dark banded. In forested areas thrushes can
spot and feed on light banded-snails. In low-vegetation areas thrushes can
spot and feed on snails with dark shells.
d. Account for why present day horses and emergence of antibiotic resistant
bacteria are examples of directional selection?
Directional selection occurs when conditions favor individuals showing one
extreme of a phenotypic range, in this case smaller sized horses have gradually
increased to the bigger present day horses. The frequency curve has been shifted
to the extreme right.
8. In the case of antibiotic resistant bacteria, the process of selection shifts the
composition of the population by favoring individuals at one extreme of the
distribution, i.e., those resistant to antibiotics. The body mass of red deer shows
wide variation within populations and this variation is shown in the figure below.

a. A selection pressure acted consistently over many years against red deer of
low body mass in a population. Sketch a curve on the figure to show the
pattern of variation of body mass in this red deer population after this time
and name the type of force of natural selection that is acting.

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 Directional selection is the type of natural selection acting.
b. A selection pressure acted consistently over many years against red deer of
medium body mass in a different population. Sketch a curve on the figure to
show the pattern of variation of body mass in this red deer population after
this time and name the type of force of natural selection that is acting.

Disruptive selection is the type of natural selection acting.

9. a. Define sexual selection.
Sexual selection is a type of natural selection where members of one sex choose
mates of the other sex to mate with and compete with members of the same sex
for access to members of the opposite sex. It leads to adaptive changes in males
and females that increase the chances of finding a mate and therefore leads to
increased fitness.
b. Describe the female choice.
Females produce few eggs compared to the production of sperm in males so
choosing the best mate is important to females. Female choice explains why males
are more ornate. Female choice also explains competition and territoriality among
males.
c. State the two hypotheses that explain how females choose their mates.
• The good genes hypothesis states that females choose their mates based on
traits that improve chances of survival. For example, when observing satin
bower birds, it was discovered that males with more aggressive behavior
were more likely chosen to reproduce. Aggressiveness increases the chance
of survival.
• Runaway hypothesis states that females choose their mates based on
appearance.
d. Define sexual dimorphism with an example.
Sexual dimorphism occurs when males and females differ in appearance and
traits. The Raggiana Bird of Paradise is an example of sexual dimorphism. Males

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 are larger and brightly colored when compared to females. Males have evolved
these traits due to sexual selection. Female birds have repeatedly chosen males
with brightly colored feathers for reproduction. The males with the bright feathers
are able to have more offspring and pass on these genes to the next generation.
10. Define dominance hierarchy.
• Dominance hierarchy arises when members of a group interact aggressively to
create a ranking system.
• Male members compete for resources and mating opportunities.
• Instead of fighting for access to each female or each resource a social order is
created.
• The social order is subject to change when the dominant male animal is
challenged by another male member of the group.
• For example, male olive baboons are larger than females and have large canines.
This is an example of sexual dimorphism. Competition between males results in
one male baboon becoming dominant over the others, gaining access to resources
and females of the group. This is an example of the establishment of a dominance
hierarchy.
11. a. Define heterozygote advantage.
Heterozygote advantage occurs when the heterozygote is favored over the two
homozygotes. Heterozygote advantage maintains genetic and phenotypic
variation within a population.
b. Describe the selection pressures affecting the frequency of the 𝑯𝒃𝑨 and 𝑯𝒃𝑺
alleles in areas where Malaria is endemic.
• Individuals with the genotype 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 are selected against because they
become seriously anemic.
• Individuals with the genotype 𝐻𝑏 𝐴 𝐻𝑏 𝐴 are likely to die from malaria as they
are more susceptible to Plasmodium.
• Individuals with the genotype 𝐻𝑏 𝐴 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 are at a selective advantage. They
are fit as they do not suffer from malaria or become seriously anemic. They
are more likely to survive and pass on their genes to the next generation.
These individuals maintain the 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 allele in areas where Malaria is
endemic. This is an example of heterozygote advantage.
• It is important to note that in areas where malaria is NOT endemic selection
against individuals with the genoptype 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 has come close to
completely removing the 𝐻𝑏 𝑆 allele. Individuals that are heterozygotes
have no selective advantage in areas where Malaria is not endemic.
12. a. If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population express the recessive phenotype,
what percent of the population are homozygous dominant?
Solution:
Recessive phenotype implies homozygous genotype. q2 = 98 / 200 = 0.49
q = 0.7
p+q=1
p + 0.7 = 1
p = 0.3
p2 = 0.32 = 0.09
Answer: % population that is homozygous dominant is 9%
b. If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population express the recessive phenotype,
what percent of the population are heterozygotes?
Solution:

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 Recessive phenotype implies homozygous genotype. q2 = 98 / 200 = 0.49
q = 0.7
p+q=1
p + 0.7 = 1
p = 0.3
2pq = 2 (0.7  0.3) = 0.42
Answer: % population that is heterozygotes is 42%
13. Brown hair (B) is dominant to blond hair (b). If there are 168 brown hairs in a
population of 200:
a. What is the predicted frequency of heterozygotes?
Solution:
BB + Bb = 168 / 200 = 0.84 = brown hairs
bb = 1 - 0.84 = 0.16 = q2 blond hairs
q = 0.4
p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6
2pq = 2 (0.4  0.6) = 0.48
b. What is the predicted frequency of homozygous dominant?
Solution:
p2 = 0.62 = 0.36
c. What is the predicted frequency of homozygous recessive?
Solution:
q2 = 0.42 = 0.16
d. What is the number of individuals in each case?
Solution:
heterozygotes = 0.48  200 = 96
homozygous dominant = 0.36  200 = 72
homozygous recessive = 0.16  200 = 32
14. Straight hair (B) is dominant to curly hair (b). If curly hair occurs in 36% of the
population:
a. What is the allele frequency for b?
Solution:
bb = q2 = 0.36
q = b = 0.6
b. What is the allele frequency for B?
Solution:
p+q=1
p + 0.6 = 1
q = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4
c. What is the predicted frequency of heterozygotes?
Solution:
2pq = 2 (0.6  0.4) = 0.48
d. What is the predicted frequency of homozygous dominant?
Solution:
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
p2 + 0.48 + 0.36 = 1
p2 = 1 - (0.48 + 0.36)
p2 = 1 - 0.84
p2 = 0.16
15. Ellis-van Crevels syndrome is a recessive genetic disorder that includes the
characteristics of short stature and extra fingers or toes. In the general population,

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 this syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 150,000 live births. In a particular
isolated population, however, the incidence of this syndrome among live births is 1
in 500.
a. Calculate the frequency of the recessive genetic disorder in the general
population.
1
q2 = = 0.0000066666
150, 000
b. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in the general population.
q = 0.00000667 = 0.00258
c. Calculate the frequency of the syndrome in the isolated population.
1
q2 = = 0.002
500
d. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in the isolated population.
q = 0.002 = 0.04472
e. Describe the difference between the frequency of the allele that causes the
syndrome in the general population and the frequency of the allele in the
isolated population?
The difference between the frequency of the allele in the isolated and general
population is caused by founder effect, which is a type of genetic drift.
16. [T] The common bedbug is an insect becoming increasingly resistant to
insecticides. The genes P450, Abc8 and Cp8 are responsible for the insecticide
resistance of the bedbugs. The role of each of the genes was investigated. Equally
fit and genetically identical strains of bedbugs had one or more of these genes
(P450, Abc8 and Cp8) removed as indicated in figure 2. + indicates the presence of
the gene. – indicates the absence of the gene. All strains were then treated with the
same insecticide. The percent survival of each strain following insecticide
treatment is depicted in figure 1. Error bars represent the 95% confidence
intervals.

Figure 1
Strain I II III IV V
P450 + - + + -
Abc8 + + - + -
Cps + + + - +
Figure 2
a. Identify the control strain in the experiment.
Strain I

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 b. Use the data in figure 1 to support the claim that Abc8 is effective at
providing resistance to the insecticide administered to the bed bugs.
• The error bars or confidence intervals for strain I or the control do not
overlap with strain III in which the Abc8 gene has been deleted.
• Strain III with the Abc8 deletion shows a statistically significant difference
from strain I, the control.
c. P450 codes for an enzyme that detoxifies insecticides. Abc8 codes for a
transport protein that pumps insecticides outside of the cells. Cps encodes
external structural protein that reduces the absorption of insecticides.
Explain how a deletion of both P450 and Abc8 results in lower survival in
bedbugs compared with deletion of Cps only. Use figure 2 to answer.
• In strain V, both P450 and Abc8 are deleted. Cps is present. Bedbugs cannot
detoxify or pump out insecticides, leading to a lower chance of bed bug
survival. In stain IV, both P450 and Abc 8 are present and Cps is deleted.
Bedbugs can detoxify and pump out insecticides, which results in a higher
chance of bedbug survival.
17. [T] A population of identical Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria was grown in a
growth medium that contained a low concentration of glucose and a high
concentration of tartaric acid, a substance that is not consumed by E. coli in
typical conditions. The bacteria used glucose as an energy source and because of
its low concentration, its growth was slow and its density was also low for around
30,000 generations. After about 40,000 generations, a population appeared that
began to grow faster with higher density. The scientists hypothesized that the
bacteria evolved the ability to use tartaric acid as an energy source and referred to
them as Tar+. To investigate the hypothesis, the scientists grew separate
populations of the Tar+ bacteria and bacteria from the original population (Ta-)
in a growth medium that contained only tartaric acid.
a) Describe one observation that proves that the bacteria population has
evolved.
Allele frequency has changed.
b) Identify the variable(s) that can be considered dependent is this
investigation.
Bacterial growth rate
c) Predict the results obtained by the scientists when they used a medium that
contained only tartaric acid to grow the Tar+ and Tar- bacteria.
Only Tar+ bacteria will be able to grow.
d) The scientists claim that the fitness of the bacteria increased due to the Tar+
mutation. Provide support to the claim.
The Tar+ bacteria can grow and reproduce at a faster rate because the competition
for resources is very low due to the ability of the Tar+ bacteria to use an energy
source that can’t be used by all the other strains.

Term 2, Week 2

Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution

1. a. Define macroevolution.
• Macroevolution is evolution on a large scale at or above the level of the
species.

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 • Macroevolution includes speciation, which is the splitting of one species into
two or the change of a species over time into another.
b. Differentiate between macroevolution and microevolution.
• Macroevolution is evolution at or above the level of the species.
• Microevolution involves smaller evolutionary changes of allele frequency
within a population.
• Macroevolution is the result of an accumulation of micro evolutionary
change resulting in the formation of a new species.
• Microevolution and macroevolution are the result of the same driving forces
(natural selection, mutation, genetic drift, gene flow), but at different scales.
2. a. Describe the morphological species concept.
In the morphological species concept species are distinguished from one another
by physical characteristics called diagnostic traits.
b. Outline the disadvantages of the morphological species concept.
• The morphological species concept makes it difficult to distinguish different
species of bacteria and micro-organisms from one another as they do not
have many measurable traits.
• The morphological species concept makes it difficult to distinguish cryptic
species. Cryptic species are different species that look identical but are
different in other traits such as courtship behaviors. For example, the leopard
frogs appear similar but are actually split into different species as they do not
reproduce with one another.
• The morphological species concept makes it difficult to classify species
exhibiting sexual dimorphism as one.
c. Outline the advantages of the morphological species concept.
• The morphological species concept allows us to define species known only
from fossil records.
• The morphological species concept allows us to define species that
reproduce sexually and asexually.
3. a. Define biological species and describe the biological species concept.
• A biological species is a population or group of populations whose members
have the potential to interbreed with one another and produce viable
offspring, but cannot produce viable offspring with other species or are said
to be reproductively isolated.
• According to the biological species concept if organisms cannot mate to
produce fertile offspring in nature they belong to different species and are
said to be reproductively isolated.
b. Outline the advantages of the biological species concept.
• The biological species concept allows species to be classified as one when
exhibiting sexual dimorphism. For example, the Raggiana Bird of Paradise.
The males are brightly colored and larger than the drab females, however
reproduce to produce fertile offspring and therefore according to the
biological species concept are considered to be one species.
• The biological species concept allows us to classify cryptic species as
separate species. For example, the flycatchers are a group of birds that look
very similar but are classified as separate species due to their inability to
reproduce.
• Biological species concept can identify species even when the diagnostic
traits are hard to find.

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 c. Outline the disadvantages of the biological species concept.
• The biological species concept cannot be applied to asexually reproducing
organisms.
• The biological species concept cannot be applied to organisms only known
from fossil record.
4. a. Define reproductive isolation.
Reproductive isolation is the inability of a species to breed successfully with
related species due to geographical, behavioral, physiological or genetic barriers.
b. Define isolating mechanisms.
• Isolating mechanisms are reproductive barriers that prevent successful
reproduction.
• Isolating mechanisms are classified as prezygotic and postzygotic.
• The isolating mechanisms prevent gene flow between two populations.
c. Outline the prezygotic and postzygotic isolating mechanisms.
Prezygotic isolation mechanisms Postzygotic isolating mechanisms
Prezygotic isolating mechanisms prevent Postzygotic isolating mechanisms
mating or egg fertilization if members of come into play after the zygote is
different species try to mate (before the formed and prevent the formation of
zygote is formed). fertile offspring.
1. Habitat isolation: 1. Hybrid mortality/ inviability:
Two species that live in the same • Hybrid embryos die when
area, but occupy different habitats genetic regulation fails
rarely encounter each other and during development
therefore will not reproduce. • Hybrid zygote may not be
2. Temporal isolation: viable ; mitosis is not done
Two species breed at different times properly because of the 2
of the day or at different times of the sets of different
year (seasons) or at different breeding chromosomes.
sites. • Two species mate, but the
3. Behavioral isolation embryo never survives
Courtship behavior in animal species 2. Hybrid sterility:
differs. Individual respond to different • Hybrid organism can
songs, calls and pheromones. Signals survive, but is sterile. Eg.
that attract mates are often unique to a donkey + horse = mule
species. (sterile hybrid)
4. Mechanical isolation Cabbage + radish = sterile
Closely related species attempt to offspring
mate, but are anatomically • Problems during meiosis
incompatible. When animal genitalia cause abnormal gametes
or flower structures are incompatible
reproduction will not occur. 3. F2 fitness:
5. Gamete isolation • First-generation of hybrids
• Sperm of one species may not may be fertile, but they
survive in the environment of the cannot produce fertile
female reproductive tract in a offspring in the next
closely related species. generation
• Molecular recognition on the
surface of the cells. Receptors on
the eggs are specific to sperm of a

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 specific species. incompatible egg
and sperm → no fusion
• Pollen and stigma recognition in
plants. Pollen grain will germinate
only when landing on the stigma
of a flower of the same species.

5. a. Five species of frogs live in the same habitat but breed at different times of
the year. This is an example of which isolating mechanism? Is this a
prezygotic isolating mechanism or a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
Five species of frogs live in the same habitat but breed at different times of the
year. The frogs remain reproductively isolated due to temporal isolation, which is
a type of prezygotic isolating mechanism.
b. Male fire flies of a specific species have a particular pattern of flashings that
is used to attract females of the same species. Female fireflies will not be
attracted to the flashing pattern of a male of a different species. This is an
example of which isolating mechanism? Is this a prezygotic isolating
mechanism or a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
Female fireflies will not be attracted to the flashing pattern of a male of a different
species. The fireflies remain reproductively isolated due to behavioral isolation,
which is a type of prezygotic isolating mechanism.
c. Male dragonflies have claspers that are suitable for holding female
dragonflies of their own species. Male dragon flies cannot hold females of
different species to reproduce. This is an example of which isolating
mechanism? Is this a prezygotic or a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
Male dragonflies have claspers that are suitable for holding female dragonflies of
their own species. Male dragonflies cannot hold females of different species to
reproduce. The dragonflies remain reproductively isolated due to mechanical
isolation, which is a type of prezygotic isolating mechanism.
d. Dog breeders maintain purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds
apart when they are fertile. This is an example of which isolating
mechanism? Is this a prezygotic or a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
Dog breeders maintain purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart
when they are fertile. This represents habitat isolation, which is a type of
prezygotic isolating mechanism.
e. Two species of frog belonging to the same genus occasionally meet, but the
hybrid zygote is not viable and dies. This is an example of which isolating
mechanism? Is this a prezygotic or a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
Two species of frog belonging to the same genus occasionally meet, but the
hybrid zygote is not viable and dies. This isolating mechanism is known as hybrid
mortality, which is an example of a postzygotic isolating mechanism.
6. [T]

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 Treatment I II III IV V
group
Appearance M M S S G
of Model
Type of song M S M S G
M: Similar to males living in Makira Island
S: Similar to males living in Santa Ana Island
G: Similar to male golden whistler
Researchers studied two populations of flycatchers. The flycatchers on Makira
island have light brown bellies. The flycatchers on Santa Ana Island are
uniformly black. The songs produced by the two population of flycatchers are
different than each other. The researchers investigate the male flycatcher
competition. They expose male flycatchers from Makira island to
a. Different combinations of bird models that resembled males from each of the
two populations.
b. Records of songs produced by the members of each population.
c. Bird models and songs of a different species, golden whistlers.

Researchers located territories of single mating pairs of flycatchers on Makira

islands and assigned each territory one of the five treatment groups. For each
treatment group the researchers observed the behavioral responses of the male
flycatcher and assigned an aggression scored from 0 to 10. The higher the
aggression score the more aggressive the behavior.

a. Identify the independent variable, dependent variable and negative control in

the experiment.
Independent variable is the song or bird model
Dependent variable is aggression score
Negative control is the golden whistler (treatment group V)
b. Make a claim about the behavioral responses of the male Makira flycatchers
to a model of a Makira flycatcher. Use the data to justify the claim.
Claim: Male Makira flycathcers respond more aggressively to visual cues of
members of their own population.
Data to justify claim.

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 • The aggression score of treatment I is significantly greater than the
aggression score of treatment III.
• The aggression score of treatment II is significantly greater than the
aggression score of treatment IV.
NB. We are asked about the response to different models. We compare
group I and III as the models are different but the song is the same. We
compare group II and IV as the models are different but the song is the
same. We look at one variable at a time.
c. Make a claim about the behavioral responses of the male Makira flycatchers
to the song recordings of the Makira flycatcher. Use the data to justify the
claim.
Claim: Male Makira flycatchers do not respond more aggressively to auditory
cues.
Data to support the claim:
• The aggression score of treatment I is not significantly different than that of
treatment II. (error bars overlap)
• The aggression score of treatment III is not significantly different than that
of treatment IV. (error bars overlap)
NB. We are asked about the response to different songs. We compare group I and
II as the songs are different but the model is the same. We compare group III and
IV as the songs are different but the model is the same. We look at one variable at
a time.
d. Identify prezygotic isolating barriers that may contribute to the speciation of
the two bird population.
Habitat isolation, temporal isolation, behavioral isolation, mechanical isolation
e. Identify evidences that may indicate that speciation has already occurred
between the flycatcher populations.
• Makira males do not recognize Santa Ana males as competitors.
• Reproductive isolation due to inability to mate or recognize mates.
• Reproductive isolation due to production of nonviable or infertile offspring.
• Differences in amino acid sequence of proteins.
• Differences in base sequences of DNA and RNA.
7. a. Define speciation.
Speciation is the splitting of one species into two or more species, or the
transformation of one species into new species.
b. Identify the two types of speciation.
The two types of speciation include allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation.
c. [G] Describe allopatric speciation.
• Allopatric speciation occurs as a result of populations that have been
separated by a geographic or other physical barrier.
• Once the populations have become geographically isolated the driving forces
of microevolution (genetic drift, natural selection, mutation) alter the gene
pool of each population independently.
• Migration between the populations does not occur (no gene flow) causing
the gene pools of the two populations to become more and more different
over time.
• The gene pool of the two populations becomes so different over time that
they become reproductively isolated and can no longer interbreed.
• Examples:

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 Darwin finches of Galapagos Islands
Salamanders in Central Valley of California
The Green iguana of South American as a common ancestor for marine
iguana and rhino iguana. Refer to the text book.
d. An ancestral population of Ensatina salamanders migrated south establishing
a series of populations. The central valley of California acted as a physical
barrier, separating the eastern populations from the western populations.
Explain why the two distinct forms of Ensatina salamanders exist in southern
California that differ greatly and rarely interbreed.
• Allopatric speciation occurred, as a result of the salamander populations
being separated by the central valley of California.
• Once the populations became geographically isolated by the central valley
the driving forces of microevolution (genetic drift, natural selection,
mutation) altered the gene pool of each population of salamanders
independently.
• Migration between the populations did not occur (no gene flow) causing the
gene pools of the eastern and western populations to become more and more
different over time.
• The gene pool of the two populations becomes so different over time that
they became reproductively isolated and can no longer interbreed.
8. a. [G] Define sympatric speciation.
Sympatric speciation occurs in the absence of a geographic barrier. Sympatric
speciation may occur as a result of polyploidy or as a result of divergence in a
microhabitat.
b. [G] Describe sympatric speciation, as a result of divergence in microhabitat.
Speciation may occur due to divergence in diet and microhabitat. For example,
the midas cichlid fish colonized the rocky coastal habitat of a lake. A portion of
the fish colonized the open water of the lake and evolved into a new species
known as the midas cichlid. The fish occupied different microhabitats within the
lake and evolved different tooth shape, jaw morphology and body shape
depending on their environment and food availability within their microhabitat.
Note there was no physical barrier separating the two species of fish, therefore this
is an example of sympatric speciation.
c. [G] Describe sympatric speciation, because of polyploidy.
• Sympatric speciation commonly involves abrupt genetic changes leading to
reproductive isolation of a group of individuals.
• These abrupt genetic changes are a result of polyploidy, a chromosome
number beyond the diploid number of 2n. ex) 3n, 4n, 8n
• There are two types of polyploidy: autoploidy and alloploidy.
d. [G] Describe sympatric speciation, because of autoploidy (type of polyploidy).
• Autoploidy occurs when a diploid plant produces diploid gametes due to
nondisjunction during meiosis.
• If a diploid gamete is fertilized with a haploid gamete a triploid (3n) plant
results. The triploid plant is a new species and such speciation occurs
abruptly. Triploid plants are sterile as their chromosomes cannot pair during
meiosis to form gametes. Such sterile plants have been utilized by humans to
produce fruit without seeds. Ex) seedless bananas
2n + n → 3n plant / triploid / sterile fruits without seeds

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 • If a diploid gamete is fertilized with another diploid gamete a tetraploid (4n)
plant results. The tetraploid plant is a new species and such speciation occurs
abruptly. Tetraploid plants are fertile as their chromosomes can pair during
meiosis to form gametes.
2n + 2n → 4n plant / tetraploid / fertile only if it reproduces with its kind
e. [G] Describe sympatric speciation, because of alloploidy (type of polyploidy).
• Alloploidy occurs when two different but related species of plants hybridize.
Hybridization is followed by a doubling of the chromosome number.
• For example, the flower Clarkia concinna (2n=14) is crossed with Clarkia
virgata (2n=10). The resulting hybrid will have 12 (7+5) chromosomes and
is sterile as the chromosomes cannot pair up during meiosis. However, if
doubling of the chromosomes occurs following hybridization the plant
would have 24 chromosomes and be fertile.
f. Describe how modern-day wheat arose by alloploidy. Calculate the number
of chromosomes in the fertile modern day wheat resulting from hybridization
of two different wheat species.
• Alloploidy is a process that needs two different but related species of plants
to hybridize. Combining their gametes results in a hybrid that is infertile.
But, if hybridization is followed by doubling of chromosomes a new species
is created that is fertile.
• Hybridization of wheat species (2n = 14) with related wheat species (2n =
28) gives rise to a sterile hybrid with 21 chromosomes. However, if
hybridization is followed by doubling of the chromosomes the fertile
modern-day wheat (2n=42) arises.
9. a. Define adaptive radiation.
Adaptive radiation is a type of speciation that occurs when a single ancestral
species rapidly gives rise to a variety of new species each able to live and survive
in a specific environment. Both allopatric and sympatric speciation can cause a
population to undergo adaptive radiation.
b. Define ecological release.
Ecological release refers to a population explosion that occurs when a species is
freed from limiting factors in its environment such as competitors or predators.
c. Give an example on how sympatric speciation has led to adaptive radiation
by ecological release.
• Ecological release refers to a population explosion that occurs when a
species is freed from limiting factors in its environment such as competitors
and predators. For example, when the dinosaurs went extinct 66 million
years ago mammals were able to exploit environments that were previously
occupied by dinosaurs. Mammals now had access to new habitats and new
resources.
• Adaptive radiation is a type of speciation that occurs when a single ancestral
species rapidly gives rise to a variety of new species each able to live and
survive in a new environment. Mammals diversified into hoofed mammals
(horses), aquatic mammals (whales), primates (monkeys), flying mammals
(bats), and rodents (mice).
10. Give examples on how allopatric speciation has led to adaptive radiation. (Finches
of the Galapagos Islands)
• Allopatric speciation lead to the evolution of the different finch populations on the
Galapagos islands. The different finch populations on each island were separated
by water.
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 • Once the finch populations had become geographically isolated the driving forces
of microevolution (genetic drift, natural selection, mutation) altered the gene pool
of each population independently.
• Migration between the populations did not occur. In other words, no gene flow
occurred causing the gene pools of the finch populations to become more and
more different over time.
• The gene pool of the finch populations on the different islands becomes so
different over time that they become reproductively isolated and can no longer
interbreed.
• This is also an example of adaptive radiation as a single ancestral species from the
mainland gave rise to the variety of finch species on the Galapagos islands.
11. Give examples on how allopatric speciation has led to adaptive radiation.
(Honeycreepers of the Hawaiian Islands)
• A single ancestral species colonized the Hawaiian Islands and gave rise to more
than 20 species of honeycreepers by adaptive radiation.
• The honeycreepers have a wide range of beak size and shape as each species
evolved to become adapted to the type of food found on each island.
• This is an example of allopatric speciation as a physical barrier lead to the
splitting of the species. It is also an example of adaptive radiation as a single
ancestral species from the mainland gave rise to the variety of honeycreepers on
the Hawaiian Islands.
12. a. Define convergent evolution.
Convergent evolution occurs when the same trait/s evolve in two different species
due to exposure to the same type of environment. Convergent evolution explains
analogous structures.
b. Dolphins and tuna both have a dorsal fin for swimming yet they did not
inherit this trait from a common ancestor. Explain the existence of this trait
in the two groups.
• The dorsal fin in tuna and dolphins is an example of an analogous structure.
The dorsal fins are constructed differently but both play the role of keeping
the animals upright while swimming.
• Both the dolphins and tuna evolved this trait (dorsal fin) independently to
adapt to swimming in an aquatic environment. This is an example of
convergent evolution.
c. Differentiate between analogous and homologous structures.
• Traits that evolve by convergent evolution in two unrelated species because
of exposure to similar habitats are known as analogous.
• Traits that are similar because they evolved from a common ancestor are
homologous.
13. [G] What is the difference between punctuated equilibrium and gradualism?
The gradual evolution of new species is the basis of the gradualistic model of evolution.
This model proposes that speciation occurs after populations become isolated, with
each group continuing slowly on its own evolutionary pathway. The gradualistic model
suggests that it is difficult to indicate when speciation occurred, because there would be
so many transitional links.
It is represented as below:

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 Species can appear quite suddenly, and then they remain essentially unchanged during a
period of stasis (sameness) until they either undergo extinction or evolve in response to
changes in the environment. The punctuated equilibrium model explains the fluctuating
pace of evolution. This model says that the assembly of species in the fossil record can
be explained by periods of equilibrium, or stasis, punctuated (interrupted) by periods of
rapid, abrupt speciation, or change. It is represented as below:
14. Parasitic flies in North America infect fruit trees. The female fly lays her eggs in
the fruit. The larvae hatch and burrow through the developing fruit. The next
year, the adult female emerges.
The major host of the fruit fly was a native species of hawthorn. The apple tree
was imported into North America at a later time.
When apple trees were first imported into North America, there was no evidence
that the fruit flies could use them as hosts. Apples set fruit earlier in the season and
develop faster, whereas hawthorns set later and develop more slowly.
Recent analysis of the fruit fly populations has shown that two distinct populations
of flies have evolved from the original ancestral populations of flies that were
parasitic on hawthorns. One population infests only apple trees, and the other
infests only hawthorns. The life cycles of both fly populations are coordinated with
those of their host trees. The flies of each population can distinguish and select
mates with similar host preferences and reject mates from the population specific
to the other host tree. There is very little hybridization between the two groups.
i. The rapid divergence between the two populations of fruit flies is best
depicted by which model of evolution?
The rapid divergence between the two populations of fruit flies is best depicted by
the punctuated equilibrium model of evolution.
ii. Identify the isolating mechanism responsible for preventing gene flow
between the two populations of fruit flies.
The isolating mechanism responsible for preventing gene flow between the two
populations of fruit flies is temporal isolation.
iii. When hybridization does occur between the two populations viable offspring
are formed. The eggs laid by the hybrids hatch less often than those of either
parent population. What isolating mechanism is described?
hybrid sterility
15. [T] The isolated island of Tasmania (located off the Australian coast) has a native
wild population of a mammal called The Tasmanian devil. The Tasmanian devil is
characterized be a very low genetic diversity across the entire species. Scientists
explain this low diversity as a result of many genetic bottlenecks occurred in the
species’ history. In 1996 DFTD (devil facial tumor disease) started to spread from
one animal to another within the wild Tasmanian devil population and caused the
animals to die. Over the last 20 years, the Tasmanian devil population decreased
by over 85% of the total population.
a. Describe the reason of having a stable Tasmanian devil population size
before 1996.

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 Density dependent factors would have helped the population in maintaining a
stable population size. Examples of such density dependent factors: birth rate
equaling death rate, and the populations reaching carrying capacity
b. Explain the effect of the huge reduction of the Tasmanian devil population
since 1996 on the resistance of the current population to new diseases in
comparison with the resistance of the population before 1996.
The reduced genetic diversity is a result of a genetic bottleneck. The existing
population is more likely to be prone to a new disease than it would have been in
the past.
c. Tasmanian devils are keystone species in their community and known to be
top predators. Predict how the reduction of the Tasmanian devil population
can affect the rest of the community. Justify your answer.
Some population size of some species will decrease, and some population size of
some species will increase. This will lead to destabilization of the community or
even its collapse due to the decrease in species.
Justification
As the Tasmanian devil population decreased, its prey species would increase in
number, and as a result the food sources of prey species would fall in numbers.
Chapter 20: Viruses, Bacteria and Archaea
1. a. Identify the evidence that all three domains share common ancestry.
All three domains, Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya:
• carry their genetic information on DNA and RNA,
• use a universal genetic code
• and share many metabolic pathways.
b. Why are Archae classified as a distinct domain of organisms?
The ribosomal RNA found in Archae has a different sequence from that of
bacteria. Archae and Eukarya are more closely related. They share similar
ribosomal proteins.
2. Outline features of the domain Archaea.
• Inhabit extreme habitats such as hot springs, volcanic vents, lakes with a high salt
concentration.
• Prokaryotes. Their cells have no nucleus.
• No membrane bound organelles.
• Circular chromosome with no associated histones.
• Small circular DNA known as plasmids may be present
• 70s ribosomes, smaller than those of eukaryotes, but are more similar to
eukaryotic ribosomes than to prokaryotic ribosomes
• Cell wall present, but not made of peptidoglycans
• Cell division by binary fission
• Unicellular organisms
• Membrane contains branched lipids
3. [G] What are some general characteristics of viruses?
Viruses are nonliving, obligate intracellular parasites that can only replicate within a
living cell. Viruses are categorized by (1) their size and shape; (2) their type of nucleic
acid, including whether it is single-stranded or double-stranded; and (3) the presence or
absence of an outer envelope. Naked viruses have two main parts: an outer protein
capsid and nucleic acid inside it, either DNA or RNA, or various proteins. Enveloped
viruses have, in addition to these parts, an outer membranous envelope. Viruses are

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 host-specific, meaning they can only attach to and infect the cells of certain organisms.
To reproduce, a virus hijacks the host cell, forcing it to make new virus copies during
the viral replication cycle.
4. Describe the mechanism by which viruses reproduce.
• Viruses gain access to the host cell, as portions of the capsid attach in a lock-and-
key manner with a receptor on the host cell’s outer surface.
• The viral nucleic acid enters the cell. Inside the cell, the nucleic acid will code for
the proteins in the capsid and enzymes needed by the virus to replicate. The viral
DNA or RNA will also be replicated.
• The virus relies on the host’s enzymes, ribosomes, transfer RNA, and ATP.
5. Identify how viruses are able to evolve.
• During replication of RNA or DNA mutations may arise. It is important to note that
RNA viruses lack replication error-checking mechanisms and therefore have a
higher rate of mutation.
• Related viruses can combine information if they infect the same cell.
6. a. What is a bacteriophage?
Bacteriophages are viruses that infect and parasitize bacteria.
b. Differentiate between the two life cycles of the bacteriophage.
• Lytic Cycle- The virus enters the cell and viral replication occurs
immediately. The host cell undergoes lysis (breaking open of the cell),
releasing the newly formed viral particles.
• Lysogenic Cycle- The viral DNA becomes integrated into the host cell’s
DNA. Viral reproduction does not occur immediately.
7. Describe the lytic life cycle of bacteriophages.
In the lytic cycle viral reproduction occurs, and the host cell undergoes lysis, breaking
open of the cell to release viral particles.
• During attachment the capsid binds with a receptor on the bacterial cell wall in a
lock and key manner.
• During penetration, a viral enzyme digest part of the bacterial cell wall and viral
DNA is injected into the bacterial cell. The virus inactivates the host genes not
necessary for viral replication.
• Biosynthesis of viral components begins. The virus takes over the machinery of
the cell in order to carry out viral DNA replication and production of multiple
copies of the capsid protein subunits.
• Maturation occurs when viral DNA and capsid proteins are assembled into viral
particles.
• Release occurs when lysozymes, enzymes coded by viral genes are produced. The
lysozymes disrupt the bacterial cell wall and the new viruses are released,
resulting in the death of the bacterial cell.
8. a. Describe the lysogenic cycle of bacteriophage.
In the lysogenic cycle viral reproduction does not immediately occur, but may
occur sometime in the future.
• Attachment and penetration occur as in the lytic cycle.
• Integration follows. Viral DNA becomes incorporated into bacterial DNA
without destruction of the host DNA. The viral DNA is not replicating at
this time and is said to be latent. While latent the viral DNA is called a
*prophage. The prophage is replicated with the bacterial DNA when the
bacteria reproduce asexually. The next generation of bacterial cells,

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 therefore contains a copy of the prophage and these bacteria are termed
lysogenic cells.
• Certain environmental factors will trigger the prophage to exit the latent
stage and move on to biosynthesis, maturation, and release as in the lytic
cycle.
b. The bacterium Vibrio cholera is harmless unless a lysogenic bacteriophage
provides the gene coding for the cholera toxin, which converts the bacterium
into a virulent form that causes cholera. How does the gene encoding cholera
toxin become part of the bacterial genome?
The bacteriophage inserts the toxin gene into the host cell DNA, and the gene is
expressed with the rest of the host cell’s genes.
9. a. Describe the flow of genetic information in retroviruses.
Genetic information in retroviruses is a special case and has an alternate flow of
information: from RNA to DNA, made possible by reverse transcriptase, an
enzyme that copies the viral RNA genome into DNA. This DNA integrates into
the host genome and becomes transcribed and translated for the assembly of new
viral progeny.
Reverse transcriptase makes a DNA copy of viral RNA.
b. Describe the mechanism of replication of retroviruses.
*Retroviruses are RNA animal viruses that have a DNA stage, such as HIV. The
reproduction of the retroviruses involves six steps.
1. Attachment
2. Entry
3. Reverse transcription. The retrovirus contains a special enzyme called
reverse transcriptase. The enzyme makes a DNA copy of the viruses RNA.
This DNA copy of the viral RNA is called cDNA. The cDNA is then used
as a template to make a double stranded DNA. The double stranded DNA is
then integrated into the host cell’s DNA. (The host cells genetic material is
double stranded DNA.) The viral DNA remains in the host cells’ DNA and
is replicated when the host cell is replicated. Now all the daughter cells will
contain the viral DNA. New viruses are then made from each daughter cell
by the following steps.
4. Biosynthesis
5. Maturation
6. Release
c. Identify the mechanism by which retroviruses establish a latent infection in
human cells by causing long lasting genetic changes to host cells?
The RNA viral genome is reverse transcribed into DNA that integrates into the
host genome.
d. HIV is an RNA virus. What causes the genetic variation in the resulting
population of new particles upon infection of a cell with HIV?
Errors introduced in the DNA molecule during reverse transcription before it is
integrated into the host cell’s DNA.
10. Identify how viruses are able to evolve and new strains emerge.
• During replication of RNA or DNA mutations may arise. It is important to note
that RNA viruses lack replication error-checking mechanisms and therefore have a
higher rate of mutation.
• Related viruses can combine information if they infect the same cell.
• The body cells take up both two different strains of a virus each with a different
antigen (glycoprotein). Upon viral replication a new strain emerges with a

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 mixture of genes from both viruses. It exhibits a new antigen (glycoprotein) on its
surface.

11. a. [G] What are some characteristics of bacteria.

• Bacteria are prokaryotic cells.
• Bacteria lack a nucleus or a nuclear envelope. The single circular
chromosome is found in the cytoplasm in a region called the nucleoid.
• Bacteria do not have any membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria,
chloroplasts, endoplasmic reticulum, or golgi body and therefore lack the
compartmentalization found in eukaryotic cells.
• Bacteria are surrounded by a cell envelope consisting of a cell membrane, a
cell wall made of peptidoglycans and a glycocalyx.
• Protein synthesis occurs on the ribosomes which are smaller than those
found in eukaryotic cells.
b. Describe reproduction in prokaryotes.
Prokaryotes reproduce asexually by binary fission.
• The single circular chromosome replicates.
• The two copies separate as the cell enlarges.
• Newly formed plasma membrane and cell wall separate the cell into two
cells.
12. a. What are the sources of genetic variation among prokaryotes?
• Frequent mutations, as the generation time is shorter than that of eukaryotes.
• Genetic recombination.
b. In eukaryotes genetic recombination occurs as a result of sexual
reproduction. Sexual reproduction does not occur among prokaryotes.
Identify the means of genetic recombination among prokaryotes.
• During *conjugation two bacteria are temporarily linked together, by means
of a conjugation pilus. Where they are linked the donor cell passes on the
DNA to a recipient cell.
• *Transformation occurs when a bacterial cell picks up free pieces of DNA
secreted by live or dead prokaryotes.
• During *transduction bacteriophages (virus that parasitize bacteria) carry
portions of DNA from one bacterial cell to another.
13. Describes symbiotic relationships in bacteria.
Bacteria form symbiotic relationships in which two different species live together in an
intimate way.
1. When the relationship benefits both species it is said to be mutualistic.
✓ Bacteria live in human intestines, releasing vitamin K and vitamin B12,
which humans use to make blood components. The bacteria gain a place to
live.
✓ Cyanobacterial cells associate with fungi forming lichen, that may grow on
rocks. Within the lichen, the cyanobacteria provide organic nutrients to the
fungus while the fungus protects and furnishes inorganic nutrients to the
cyanobacteria.

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 2. When only one species benefits from a relationship it is said to be
commensalistic. Commensalism occurs when one population modifies the
environment in such a way so the second population benefits.
✓ Obligate anaerobes live in our intestine because the bacteria E. coli use up
the available oxygen.
3. When one species benefits and the other are harmed it is said to be parasitic.
Parasitic bacteria cause diseases and therefore are pathogens. Human diseases
caused by bacterial parasites include the following: syphilis, strept throat, leprosy,
and inhalation anthrax.
14. Describe the biological significance of cyanobacteria.
Cyanobacteria are believed to be responsible for first introducing oxygen into the
primitive earth allowing life on earth to evolve. They are photoautotrophs and
therefore, capable of producing oxygen as a product of photosynthesis. Although they
lack the chloroplasts found in eukaryotic cells, they have thylakoids, capable of
carrying out the light dependent reactions.
15. Describe chemotaxis in bacterial cells.
Chemotaxis is a mechanism by which bacteria respond to changes in their environment,
by approaching chemically favorable environments (ex. high concentration of glucose)
and avoiding unfavorable ones (ex. presence of poisons). The behavior is achieved by
signal transduction, in which receptor complexes at the pole of the bacterial cell sense
the environment and modulate the flagellar rotation through signaling proteins within
the cytoplasm.
16. Discuss quorum sensing in bacterial communities.
Many species of bacteria use quorum sensing a regulatory mechanism to coordinate
gene expression according to the density of the local population. It would be useless for
few bacteria to produce extracellular proteins as they would have little effect. The
bacteria are able to signal each other, producing gene product simultaneously when
their population is dense enough. Bacteria that use quorum sensing produce and secrete
certain signaling molecules into their environment. These bacteria also have a receptor
that can detect the signaling molecules secreted by other bacterial cells. As the
population of bacteria increases, the level of signaling molecules increases until
reaching a threshold level. When the signaling molecules bind to receptors, it activates
transcription of certain genes and proteins are formed in the bacterial cells at the same
time.
Term 2, Week 3

Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life

1. When is it hypothesized that earth formed? When it is hypothesized that earth was
no longer too hostile for life? When was the first fossil evidence of life dated?
Earth formed approximately 4.6 billion years ago. The environment was too hostile for
life. Earth formed approximately 4.6 billion years ago (bya). Geological evidence
provides support for models of the origin of life on Earth. i. The environment was too
hostile for life until 3.9 bya, and the earliest fossil evidence for life dates to 3.5 bya.
Taken together, this evidence provides a plausible range of dates when the origin of life
could have occurred.
2. a. State an overview of the stages of the origin of life.
The stages of the origin of life include:
1. Evolution of monomers
2. Evolution of polymers
3. Evolution of protocells

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 4. Evolution of self-replication systems
b. G What are the stages that explain how live could have originated from
nonliving matter?
• Stage 1. Organic monomers evolved. Simple organic molecules, like amino
acids, evolved from inorganic compounds, like oxygen, water, hydrogen,
methane and ammonia gases, that were present in the earth’s atmosphere.
• Stage 2. Organic polymers evolved. Organic monomers joined together to
form the initial organic polymers, such as DNA, RNA and proteins.
• Stage 3. Protocells evolved. Organic polymers became enclosed in a
membrane to form the first cell precursors, called protocells or probionts.
• Stage 4. Living cells evolved. Probionts acquired the ability to self-replicate
as well as other cellular properties. Both DNA and RNA start to develop
within the living cell.
3. a. What is meant by LUCA?
LUCA stands for last universal common ancestor and it is considered the ancestor
that is common to all organisms that live and have lived on earth since life began
based on Darwin’s theory of evolution.
b. Define abiogenesis.
Abiogenesis is the origin of life from non-living matter.
c. What is abiotic synthesis?
Abiotic synthesis is chemical evolution involving the synthesis of organic
monomers from inorganic molecules in the presence of strong energy sources.
4. What are the two main models about the origin of life on Earth.
• Primitive Earth provided inorganic precursors from which organic molecules
could have been synthesized because of the presence of available free energy
and the absence of a significant quantity of atmospheric oxygen.
• Organic molecules could have been transported to Earth by a meteorite or other
celestial event.
5. Describe the hypothesized conditions of primitive earth for life to arise.
• The energy sources on earth included heat from volcanoes and meteorites,
radioactivity from isotopes, lightning and solar radiation.
• The conditions of earth started as being very hot thus evaporating the liquid
water into the atmosphere and resulting in heavy storms with electrical
discharges. The heat came mainly from volcanoes, meteorites and solar
radiation. The earth eventually cooled down, allowing water to condense thus
creating lakes and oceans.
• The atmosphere was abundant mainly with methane, ammonia, nitrogen, water
vapor, hydrogen gases and carbon dioxide released from volcanoes. There was
little oxygen.
• The earth had no ozone layer therefore, no chemical protection against UV
radiation, thus making a reducing (electron-gaining) atmosphere that promoted
chemical reactions.
6. What is Oparin and Haldane primordial soup hypothesis?
• Alexander Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane proposed a hypothesis stating that the first
stage in the origin of life was the evolution of simple organic molecules or
monomers from inorganic compounds like nitrogen gas(N2), ammonia (NH3),
methane (CH4), carbon dioxide (CO2), water vapor and hydrogen gas (H2).
This is called the primordial soup.

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 • The hypothesis proposes that early earth had little oxygen but instead contained
water vapor, hydrogen gas, methane and ammonia.
• Since oxygen was absent from the atmosphere and there was no chemical
protection against UV radiation, the primitive atmosphere of earth was a
reducing (electron-gaining) atmosphere that promoted chemical reactions. The
methane and ammonia were reducing agents.
7. a. Describe Miller and Urey’s experiment, listing the various gases.
• The Miller and Urey experiment supports the primordial soup hypothesis.
• It had been hypothesized that the atmosphere of the primitive earth contained a
mixture of gases such as nitrogen (N2), ammonia (NH3), methane (CH4),
carbon dioxide (CO2), water vapour and hydrogen (H2) and organic molecules
could be formed if there were an input of energy such as electricity from storms
or ultraviolet radiation from the sun to make them react with each other.
• Stanley Miller and Harold Urey tested this hypothesis with the following
experiment:
• They set up a closed system that contained a water reservoir, sampling ports, a
chamber for electrical energy input and a condenser.
• Water was added to the water reservoir A and heated up to form water vapour.
• The following gases were added through part B: N2, CH4, CO2, NH3 and N2
• Electrical sparks were generated to mimic lighting, thus providing energy to the
system.
• The experiment was simulating the possible conditions of the early earth.
• After one week the water after passing through part D a condenser was analysed
and simple organic carbon compounds such as formaldehyde were found
collected in part E of the apparatus.
• These primary organic compounds later on combined to produce more complex
organic compounds like formic acid, urea and amino acids.
• This experiment proved that simple organic compounds, including amino acids
and other macromolecules could have been formed from a mixture of gases in
the primitive atmosphere of earth with the input of electrical energy.
b. A group of students attempted to re-create the primitive atmospheric
conditions of early Earth using the apparatus represented below. Justify the
claim that the conditions in the experiment could generate organic molecules
necessary for life.

The ammonia gas in the experiment could provide the elemental nitrogen
required for the formation of amino acids.
The methane gas in the experiment could provide the elemental carbon required
for the formation of amino acids and other organic molecules.
8. a. Define protocell.

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 Protocells (Protobionts) are possible cell precursors that became true cells once
they acquired genes and the ability to replicate. Protocells consisted of organic
molecules surrounded by a membrane.
b. What are micelles?
Micelles are small spheres formed by a single layer of fatty acids organized with
their hydrophilic heads pointing out and hydrophobic tails pointing towards the
center of the sphere when in contact with water.
c. What are vesicles and why are they important to evolution?
Vesicles are large sphere of a double layer of fatty acids formed by many micelles
under appropriate conditions. It is important to evolution since they are very
similar to the phospholipid bilayer of modern cells, hinting that vesicles could
have led to the evolution of the first cells.
d. What are coacervate droplets?
Coacervate droplets are small spherical droplets that contain organic compounds
surrounded by a lipid membrane. These have the ability to absorb and incorporate
various substances form the surrounding environment. This may have led to the
evolution of a semi-permeable type boundary, which is a trait of modern plasma
membranes.
e. What does the membrane-first hypothesis states?
The membrane-first hypothesis states that the first cell had to have a plasma
membrane before any of its other parts.
9. a. Interpret Tree of Life.
Tree of Life demonstrates:
• Prokaryotic cells (bacteria and archaea) preceded eukaryotic cells.
• Eukaryotes are more closely related to archaea than to bacteria.
• Both plants and animals can trace their ancestry to the protists
• Endosymbiotic theory states that ancestors of mitochondria in eukaryotic
cells were free living bacteria and that of chloroplasts were free living
photosynthetic prokaryotes
• Evolution proceeds from the simple to the more complex organisms.
b. Describe the evolution of the modern day eukaryotic cell.
• The first cells were prokaryotic cells. It is therefore believed eukaryotic
cells evolved from prokaryotic cells.
• Eukaryotes are more closely related to archaea than bacteria.
• A prokaryotic cell gained a nucleus/nuclear envelope by the plasma
membrane invaginating and surrounding the DNA.
• As explained by the endosymbiotic theory the mitochondria evolved when a
eukaryotic cell engulfed an aerobic heterotrophic prokaryote which carried
out respiratory functions.
• As explained by the endosymbiotic theory the chloroplast evolved when a
eukaryotic cell engulfed an autotrophic prokaryote which carried
photosynthetic functions.
c. [G] What evidences support the endosymbiotic theory?
Evidence supporting the endosymbiotic theory shows that chloroplasts and
mitochondria:
• Have a size that matches with the measured range of various bacteria
• Have their own circular DNA and the ability to synthesise their own proteins.
• Reproduce by binary fission.

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 • They are surrounded by a double membrane. The outer-membrane resembles
that of a eukaryotic cell while the inner membrane resembles that of a
bacterial cell.
10. a. Describe how polymers and self –replicating molecules were synthesized?
▪ Monomers combined to form polymers. Some of these reactions may have
occurred by dehydration/condensation with the removal of water molecules.
▪ Self-replicating molecules, like DNA or RNA, form. DNA may have been
fashioned before RNA, but the recently proposed RNA world hypothesis
argues the reverse.
b. Discuss the evidence to support the RNA world hypothesis.
The RNA World concept hypothesizes that the first genetic substance on earth was
RNA. These molecules act both as enzymes and as vehicles of information storage
(genetic material). Thus, RNA can perform the function of both proteins (enzymes)
and DNA.
The evidence comes from ribozymes, which are RNA molecules.
Ribozymes function as enzymes to catalyse reactions.
Ribozymes splice RNA, without the need for proteins.
Ribozymes remove its own introns during RNA processing.
Ribozymes join amino acids together to form polypeptides during translation at the
ribosomes.
c. Explain how ribosomes provide evidence for the RNA-first hypothesis.
According to RNA-first hypothesis, RNA was the first polymer to develop. It
could self-replicate to reproduce, which means it had catalytic activity.
Ribosomes are organelles, which are made of RNA and protein. RNA plays a role
in the catalysis carried out by ribosomes, while proteins do not. Thus, the
existence of ribosomes provides evidence for the possibility of the performance
of catalytic processes by RNA in the absence of protein.
11. What are cyanobacteria?
▪ Cyanobacteria form rocklike structures called stromatolites that provided free
oxygen for earth’s atmosphere 4 billion years ago.
▪ The production of oxygen as waste through photosynthesis is thought to have
transformed the primitive reducing atmosphere of early earth into an oxidizing one.
▪ This transformation dramatically changed the composition of life forms on Earth,
which stimulated biodiversity and led to the near-extinction of oxygen-intolerant
organisms.
▪ This contributed to the formation of the ozone shield in the upper atmosphere.
▪ This oxygenated environment would eventually lead to the development of plants
and therefore all the oxygen dependent organisms.
12. What is the importance of the Cambrian Explosion?
▪ The Cambrian period began at about 542 million years ago.
▪ It is known as the Cambrian explosion or Cambrian radiation because most of the
major phyla of animals emerged in a very short period of time during this era.
Therefore, also most of the major phyla of animals appear in the fossil record after
this explosion. Animals during this period had protective exoskeletons.
▪ It is important because of the relatively short time over which the diversity of
organisms was achieved, this was considered a major leap forward in evolution.
13. Define mass extinctions.
Mass extinctions are the disappearance of a large number of species within an interval
of just a few million years.
14. Describe the principle behind the absolute dating of fossils.

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 The method of absolute dating relies on the radioactive dating techniques. Each
radioactive isotope has a particular half-life, and thus, the radioactive activity of the
sample can indicate its age. One of the most common elements in the organic matter is
carbon. Organic matter usually has the same ratio of radioactive carbon to non-
radioactive carbon (12C to 14C). As the half-life of radioactive carbon is a constant and
known value, the age of the fossil can be calculated by comparing the ratio of 12C to
14C in living organisms and fossils.
Chapter 19: Taxonomy, Systematics and Phylogeny
1. a. What is the null hypothesis?
A null hypothesis is a hypothesis that says there is no statistical significance
between the two variables in the hypothesis.
The null hypothesis is set up in opposition to an alternative hypothesis and
attempts to show that no variation exists between variables.
b. What is the alternative hypothesis?
The alternative hypothesis is a position that states something is happening, a new
theory is true instead of an old one (null hypothesis). It is usually consistent with
the research hypothesis.
c. Water quality in a steam has been observed over many years. What is a
possible null hypothesis for the observations?
Null hypothesis: "There is no change in quality between the first and second
halves of the data".
Alternative hypothesis: "The quality is poorer in the second half of the record".
d. Paleoclimatic analysis has generated a claim that there is a possible
correlation between an extinction around 29 million years ago that allowed
grasslands to become abundant and the adaptive radiation of several groups
of butterflies. Propose a possible null hypothesis for the claim. Propose a
possible alternative hypothesis for the claim.
Null hypothesis: There is no significant difference between speciation rate, as
well as species richness with regard to butterflies, before and after 29 million
years ago.
Alternative hypothesis: There is a correlation between the rapid decrease in
species richness of insects in general 29 million years ago and the increase in
species richness and diversity among butterfly population the same time period.
e. Many scientists claim that the synthesis of the first organic molecules from
inorganic precursors was possibly because of the highly reducing
atmosphere found on primitive Earth. State a suitable null hypothesis that
could be used when investigating the claim?
Null hypothesis: The synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic molecules is
possible under current atmospheric oxygen levels as well as those found on
primitive earth.
2. a. Describe classification within the context of evolutionary history of
organisms.
Classification is based on our understanding of how organisms are related to one
another through evolution. A natural system of classification, as opposed to an
artificial system, reflects the evolutionary history of organisms.
b. Explain the binomial system of naming organisms.
Each species receives a two-part name; the first word is the genus, a classification
category that contains many species. The second word, the specific epithet, refers
to one species which tells us something descriptive about organism.

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 e.g. Lilium canadense
Lilium bulbiferum
3. a. Name the three domains based on molecular data.
All life is organized into three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.
b. Outline key features of the Domain Bacteria.
• All bacteria are single-celled prokaryotes with no internal membranes.
• Some bacteria are anaerobes (do not need oxygen) while others are aerobes
(need oxygen).
• Bacteria play a vital role in the ecosystem as decomposers that recycle dead
organic matter.
• Many bacteria are pathogens, causing disease.
• Bacteria are enclosed by a bilayer of unbranched phospholipids.
• Bacteria have a rigid cell wall containing a substance known as
peptidoglycan.
• Some bacteria carry out photosynthesis, while others do not.
• Bacteria have no introns (noncoding regions within the DNA).
c. Outline features of the domain Archaea.
• Archaea are single-celled prokaryotes with no internal membranes.
• Archaea are extremophiles, organisms that live in extreme environments.
They can be classified into three groups.
1. Methanogens: Obtain energy in a unique way by producing methane
from hydrogen.
2. Halophiles: Thrive in environments with high salt concentrations.
3. Thermophiles: Thrive in very high temperatures.
• Archaea have introns present in some genes.
• Archaea have no peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
d. How is the domain archaea distinguishable from domain bacteria?
The archaea are distinguishable from bacteria by a difference in their rRNA base
sequence and also by their unique plasma membrane and cell wall chemistry.
e. Outline featured of the domain Eukarya.
• All organisms of the domain Eukarya have a nucleus and internal
organelles.
• Eukarya have no peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
• Eukarya include the kingdoms Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animilia.
4. [G] How does a phylogenetic tree help us understand evolutionary relationships?
Systematic biologists study the evolutionary history of biodiversity, represented by a
phylogeny. Systematic biologists construct a phylogeny tree from traits that are unique
to, and shared by, a taxon and its common ancestors (an ancestor to two or more lines
of descent). Each branch, or lineage, in a phylogeny tree represents a descendant of a
common ancestor. When a new character evolves, a new evolutionary path can begin,
or diverge, from the old, a new lineage is formed, and a new branch of the phylogeny
arises.
5. a. What data are used to determine the correct sequence of common ancestors
in any particular group of organisms (tracing phylogeny)?
1. Fossil record data.
2. Morphological data including homology and analogy.
3. Behavioral data.
4. Molecular data that includes:
• Protein comparison

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 • DNA and RNA comparison
• Molecular clock
b. Define derived trait.
Derived traits are structural, physiological or behavioral traits that are present in a
specific lineage and are not present in the common ancestor for several lineages.
Derived traits distinguish a particular clade.
c. What traits are useful for determining evolutionary relationships among
individuals when constructing a phylogeny?
Derived traits
d. Which of the following depicts derived traits?
C B

B and C
e. With reference to apes and monkeys illustrate and explain derived traits.

• Skeletal differences in limbs allow apes to swing from tree to tree whereas
monkeys can run along the tops of branches. These traits are derived traits
that allow use to distinguish monkeys and apes as separate lineages.
• Both monkeys and apes have mobile limbs. Their common ancestor
possessed mobile limbs. This is an ancestral trait and is not useful in
determining the evolutionary relationship of an ancestor’s descendants.
6.
A B C D E F G H

4.

The cladogram above shows proposed phylogenetic relationships for several species.
Selected derived characters are indicated on the cladogram by numbered labels.
Based on the information presented,
a. which of the derived characters is shared by species E and F and not found in
species D?
derived trait 6
b. which of the derived characters is shared by species D and F and not found is
species H?
derived trait 4

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 c. Which of the following is an ancestral trait that cannot be used to decipher the
evolutionary relationships of the species?
Trait 1
d. Which of the above species is considered to be the outgroup?
Species A
7. Illustrate and describe polyphyletic grouping and distinguish it from monophyletic
grouping.

A polyphyletic group is a set of organisms that have been grouped together but do not
share an immediate common ancestor. This group is not a clade it lacks the common
ancestor which is the closest to all descendants as depicted in the diagram above.
A monophyletic group is a group or organisms that form a clade, which consist of all of
the descendent of a common ancestor and the common ancestor itself.

8. Define the term convergent evolution.

Convergent evolution is similarity in structure in distantly related groups generally due
to similar selective pressures in like environments.
Example:

9. a. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using fossil
data.
• One of the advantages of fossils is that they can be dated.
• One of the disadvantages of fossil date is that it is not always possible to tell
which group, living or extinct, a fossil is related.
• One of the disadvantages of fossil date is that it is not always complete. If
fossil record was more complete, there might be fewer controversies about
the interpretation of fossils.
• One reason that the fossils record is not complete is that most fossils exist
as only harder body parts, such as bones and teeth. Soft parts are usually
eaten or decayed before they have a chance to be buried.

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 b. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using
morphological data.
• Homology is structural similarity that stems from having a common
ancestor.
• Deciphering homology is sometimes difficult because of convergent
evolution.
• Convergent evolution has occurred when distantly related species have a
structure that looks the same only because of adaptation to the same type of
environment. Similarity due to convergence is termed analogy.
• Analogous structures have the same function in different groups but do not
have a common ancestry eg. cacti and spurges found in hot dry
environment.
• The construction of phylogenetic trees is dependent on discovering
homologous structures and avoiding the use of analogous structures to
uncover ancestry.
c. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using behavioral
data.
• Dinosaurs cared for their young in a manner similar to crocodilians and
birds. These data substantiate the morphological data that dinosaurs,
crocodilians and birds are related through evolution.
• As long as behaviors are shared due to homology (common ancestry) and
not analogy they can be used to trace phylogeny.
d. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using molecular
data.
• Systematists assume that the more closely species are related; the fewer
changes there will be in DNA base pair sequences.
• Since DNA codes for amino acids sequences in proteins, it also follows that
the more closely species are related, the fewer differences there will be in
the amino acid sequences within their proteins.
10. a. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using the
protein comparisons.
Using amino acid sequencing to determine the number of amino acid differences
in a particular protein. The more closely species are related, the fewer differences
there will be in the amino acid sequences within their proteins and the more recent
their common ancestor.
b. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using DNA and
RNA comparisons.
• DNA differences can substantiate data, help trace the course of
macroevolution, and fill in the gaps of the fossil record.
• Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) mutates ten times faster than nuclear DNA.
Therefore, when determining the phylogeny of closely related species,
investigators often choose to sequence mtDNA instead of nuclear DNA.
c. Describe ways by which the phylogenetic tree can be traced using molecular
clocks.
• When nucleic acid changes are neutral (not tied to adaptation) and
accumulate at a fairly constant rate, these changes can be used as a kind of
molecular clock to indicate relatedness and evolutionary time.
• The number of DNA base pair differences tells how long two species have
been evolving separately.

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 • The researchers used their DNA sequence data to suggest how long the
different types of primates have been separate.
• The fossil record was used to calibrate the molecular clock. Fossils can be
dated. When the fossil record for one divergence is known, it indicates how
long it probably takes for each nucleotide pair difference to occur.
• When the fossil record and molecular clock data agree, researchers have
more confidence that the proposed phylogenetic tree is correct.
11. What is the relevance of cladistics? Describe the methodology of cladistics.
• Cladistics is a way to trace evolutionary history of a group by using shared traits,
derived from a common ancestor, to determine which species are most closely
related.
• These traits are then used to construct phylogenetic trees called cladograms.
• A cladogram depicts the evolutionary history of a group based on the available
data.
• The first step when constructing a cladogram is to draw up a table that
summarizes the derived traits of the species being compared.
• At least one species is considered an outgroup. The outgroup that is not part of
the study group is called the ingroup.
• An outgroup tells us which traits are shared derived traits.
• Any trait not found in the outgroup is a shared derived trait.
• A cladogram contains several clades. Each clade includes a common ancestor and
all its descendants that share one or more traits.
• A cladogram is objective because it lists the data that are used to construct the
cladogram
12. a. State a conclusion that can be supported by the cladogram below.

Species S is more closely related to species T than to species R.

b. Five new species of bacteria were discovered in Antarctic ice core samples.
The nucleotide (base) sequences of rRNA subunits were determined for the
new species. The table below shows the number of nucleotide differences
between the species. Support your answer.

Which of the following phylogenetic trees is most consistent with the data?

A. B. C. D. E.

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 C
Species 5 is the outgroup, with the greatest number of nucleotide differences when
compared to the other species.
Species 1 and 2 are closely related with only 3 differences in the nucleotide
sequence. This is depicted by the short branching from the common ancestor to
species 1 and 2.
Species 3 and 4 are closely related with only 1 differences in the nucleotide
sequence. This is depicted by the short branching from the common ancestor to
species 3 and 4.
13. a. Identify the protein commonly used to decipher evolutionary history among
species. Explain how this protein can be used to decipher evolutionary
history among species.
The protein commonly used to decipher evolutionary history among species is
cytochrome C. The greater the amino acid differences between the species the
more distantly related they are. The fewer the amino acid differences between the
species the more closely related they are.
Monkey cytochrome C differs from human cytochrome C by one amino acid,
from that of a duck by 11 amino acids and from that of a yeast by 51 amino acids.
We can therefore conclude that monkeys share are recent common ancestor with
humans and are most distantly related to yeast.
b. The chart below depicts the number of amino acid differences in cytochrome
C among seven species. Based on the chart deduce which two species are
most distantly related and which two species are most closely related.

Based on the chart we can conclude that man and monkey are most closely
related to each other as there is a difference of only one amino acid, whereas tuna
and moth are most distantly related to each other as there are 41 differences in the
amino acid sequence.
14. a. The figure below represents the phylogenetic tree constructed for several
taxa. Identify the taxa most closely and distantly related to the birds.

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 According to the phylogenetic tree depicted the taxon most closely related to the
birds are the crocodiles. The taxon most distantly related to the birds is the fish.
b.

Based on the phylogenetic tree above name all descendants of the ancestor
depicted by the orange dot. Name the two descendants that are most closely
related to each other.
Amphibians, lizards, lungfish, mammals, and tiktaalik are the descendants of the
common ancestor represented by the orange dot. The descendants that are most
closely related are the mammals and lizards.
c. What can be concluded regarding the evolutionary relationship of the
species represented in the phylogenetic tree?

Based on the phylogenetic tree above the pigeon is most closely related to the
chicken and the goose is most closely related to the Zebra finch.
After the sheep the Norway rat is most closely related to the platypus.
15. The amino acid at position 100 in the beta-hemoglobin protein for each of these
four organisms in listed below.
Species Amino Acid 100
A Arginine
B Leucine
C Arginine
D Arginine

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 Assuming the remaining amino acids in the beta-hemoglobin are the same in the
four species account for the difference in the amino acid at position 100 in species
B.
A change in one amino acid is most likely caused by a point mutation in which one amino
acid is replaced by another, in this case arginine is replaced by leucine. Errors in DNA
replication may occur. One nucleotide was replaced with another. A change in one codon
lead to a change in one amino acid. This most likely occurred at position X on the
cladogram above.
16. Researchers compared the amino acids of a protein from each of the five different
species. The results are shown in the table below.
species A B C D E
A 0 2 2 6 10
B 0 1 7 11
C 7 11
D 0 13
E 0
a. Based on the data in the table, construct a cladogram/phylogeny to represent
the evolutionary relatedness of the five species.

b. On the cladogram, circle the position of the most recent common ancestor of
the two most closely related species.
c. On the cladogram place a square around the common ancestor to all five
species.
d. Using the data justify the position of species E.
Species E has the greatest number of differences in the amino acid sequence of the
protein. Species E is the most distantly related to the other species, meaning it shares
the oldest common ancestor.
17.
Organism Derived character (+ indicates the character is present)
1 2 3 4 5 6
A + + + +

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 B + + + +
C +
D + +
E + + + + +
The table above shows derived characters for selected organisms.
Draw a cladogram to represent the evolutionary relationships between the
organisms.
C D B E A

18. The cladogram below shows the evolutionary relationship between 6 animals,
whose common ancestor had a long tail, ear flaps, external testes and fixed claws.
Assuming all evolutionary changes in these traits are shown, identify the traits
found in each of the animals?

Animal A has a long tail, ear flaps, external testes and retractable claws.
Animal B has a long tail, ear flaps, external testes and fixed claws.
Animal C has a short tail, ear flaps, external testes and fixed claws.
Animal D has a short tail, no ear flaps, abdominal testes and fixed claws.
Animal E has a short tail, ear flaps, abdominal testes and fixed claws.
Animal F has a long tail, ear flaps, external testes and fixed claws.
19. Referring to the cladogram below, how long ago did the last common ancestor for
gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans diverge?

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 Gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans diverged approximately 9 million years ago.
20. The table below shows shared and derived traits for building a phylogenetic tree to
depict the evolutionary relationship of lamprey, bass, frog, turtle and leopard.
Draw a phylogenetic tree using the information in the table.
Lancelet Lamprey Bass Frog Turtle Leopard
(outgroup)
Backbone - + + + + +
Hinged jaws - - + + + +
Four walking - - - + + +
legs
Amnion - - - - + +
Hair - - - - - +

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21. [T] Evolution involves changes in inherited traits of populations of organisms over
a period of time. The theory of evolution by natural selection proposed by Charles
Darwin discusses that new species come from pre-existing species and that all
species share at a point a common ancestor. The following table identifies shared
traits among different organisms.

Vertebrae Bony Four Amniotic Hair Two skull

skeleton limbs egg openings
Shark ×
Tuna × ×
Frog × × ×
Human × × × × ×
Hare × × × × ×
Caiman × × × × ×
Parrot × × × × ×

a. By referring to the table above, state whether a caiman is more related

to a hare or a parrot. Justify your answer.
A caiman is more related to a parrot than a hare since a caiman and a parrot
share more traits than a caiman and a hare.
b. Molecular traits can be used as a source to study the evolutionary
history of organisms.
i. Describe one strength and one weakness of this method.
One strength of this method is that it allows the study of evolution between
closely related species accurately. One weakness of this method is that there
is no data or very little data for extinct species.
ii. If the DNA base-pair sequences of a caiman, a parrot, and a
hare were compared, which two organisms would you expect to
have higher base-pair similarities? Justify your answer.
The caiman and the parrot are expected to show higher base pair
similarities because they are more closely related.
c. Geographic isolation (allopatric speciation) and sympatric speciation are two
modes of speciation. Describe these two modes of speciation.
Geographic isolation also known as allopatric speciation takes place when a
population of one species becomes physically separated by some geographic
barrier (river, mountain range, etc.), whereas sympatric speciation takes place
when new species arise as a result of reproductive isolation within the population
range as in polyploidy.
22. [T] The following table shows some of the differences in the amino acid sequence
of cytochrome c protein in different organisms in comparison with the cytochrome
c protein of humans.

Cytochrome c Evolution
Organism Number of amino acid
differences from humans
Chimpanzee 0
Rhesus monkey 1
Rabbit 9

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 Cow 10
Pigeon 12
Bullfrog 18
d. By referring to the table above, identify which organism is the most
closely related to humans and which is the least related to humans.
Justify your answer.
The higher the number of amino acid differences between the cytochrome c
sequences in two organisms, the more distantly related these organisms are
and vice versa. Looking at the data given in the table above, we can
conclude that humans are most closely related to chimpanzees (since there
are no differences in the amino acid sequences of their cytochrome c
proteins) and humans are the most distantly related to bullfrogs (since the
highest number of amino acid differences in the cytochrome c sequence
exists between bullfrogs and humans).
e. Certain methods, other than comparing amino acid sequences, can be
used by scientists to trace the phylogeny of organisms. Describe one
advantage of using the fossil record method to trace phylogeny.
The fossil record method provides information about extinct species.
f. State how migration and nonrandom mating cause changes in allele
frequencies in a population.
Migration results in gaining or losing alleles/genes in a population which
alters the population gene frequencies. Nonrandom mating involves a bias
in choosing mating partners of specific phenotypes/genotypes which causes
an increase in the frequencies of the alleles coding for these phenotypes in a
population.

Term 2, Week 4

Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

1. Define cytokines.
Cytokines are soluble proteins secreted by cells of the immune system that affect the
behaviour of other cells.
Helper T cells are considered the main regulators of the specific immune response
because they are capable of the production of cytokines.
2. Describe the role of the major white blood cells involved in innate immune response.
Phagocytes are white blood cells (leucocytes) that engulf pathogens by phagocytosis.
They include: neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages, dendritic cells and natural
killer cells (NK cells)
a. Neutrophils: Engulf microbes and kill them with the enzymes and chemicals
produced by the granules in their cytoplasm.
b. Eosinophils: Release chemicals that destroy parasites that are too big to be
phagocytised. They can mount an attack on tapeworm, for example.
c. Monocytes: May leave the blood stream to differentiate into macrophages and
dendritic cells to digest microbes.
d. Macrophages: Found in all types of tissues. Engulf, digest and break down
microbes into smaller pieces. They then travel to the lymph nodes to stimulate
adaptive immune responses. They are a type of antigen presenting cell.

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 e. Dendritic cells: Found in the skin. They engulf, digest and break down microbes
into smaller pieces. They then travel to the lymph nodes to stimulate adaptive
immune responses. They are a type of antigen presenting cell.
f. Natural killer cells: Large granular lymphocytes which are active only, while
the adaptive immune response is developing. They have 3 functions:
1. Kill virus-infected and cancerous cells by promoting apoptosis. They seek
out such cells that lack “self” molecules known as MHC-I on their surface.
2. Produce proteins (cytokines) that promote adaptive immunity.
3. Describe the role of the complement in the innate immune response.
Complement (or complement system) is a group of about 20 proteins, found in the plasma
but produced in the liver, that “complement” defense reactions by exerting their effect
through the following ways:
1. Enhanced inflammation:
a. Bind to mast cells and trigger histamine release.
b. Attract phagocytes to the site of inflammation.
2. Increased phagocytosis:
Complement proteins bind to the surface of a pathogen increasing the chances that
it will be engulfed by a phagocyte.
3. Membrane attack complexes:
• Complement proteins join to form a donut like ring called a membrane attack
complex in the plasma membrane of a pathogen.
• Salt enter the pathogen through the membrane attack complex and water
follows by osmosis.
• Lysis of the cell occurs.
4. Describe the role of interferon’s.
Interferons are proteins produced by viral-infected cells that bind to receptors of non-
infected cells to trigger defense mechanisms that “interfere” with the replication of the
virus.
✓ Interferons are protein substances secreted by cells invaded by viruses.
✓ They stimulate neighbouring cells (that are not infected) to produce substances that
will “interfere” with viral replication thus preventing the infection of healthy cells.
✓ Enzymes are produced in the healthy cell to breakdown viral mRNA and thus stop
synthesis of viral proteins.
5. a. What is the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)?
The major histocompatibility complex is a group of proteins found in the cell
membrane that help the immune system to recognize self from non-self by
exposing fragments of processed proteins on the cell membrane. There are two
types of MHC:
• Class I. Found in all types of cells but immune cells.
• Class II. Found in immune cells (macrophages and dendritic cells).
b. State the importance of the MHC proteins.
It is important to note that the B-cells can be activated by an antigen directly,
however the T-cells can only be active by antigens processed and presented by
MHC proteins on the surface of cells.
c. What is a non-self cell?
When a body cell is invaded by a virus the body cell displays a combination of self
and non-self-markers on the MHC. Cytotoxic T cells interpret this display of
markers as non-self.
Cancer cells or tissue transplant cells, or other cells that display aberrant markers,
are recognized as non-self cells by T cells.

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6. What is an antigen?
It is a molecule usually protein or polysaccharide, that can be identified as foreign. It may
be a toxin (injected into the blood by the sting of an insect, for example), a part of the
protein coat of a virus, or a molecule unique to the plasma membrane of bacteria,
protozoa, pollen or other foreign cells. The antigen triggers an immune response by the
production of antibodies.
7. What are antigen presenting cells (APC)?
• Antigen presenting cells are cells that phagocytise pathogens and then display their
fragments on their cell membrane with the aid of major histocompatibility complex
II.
• They travel to the lymph nodes where they present the phagocytised pathogen to
helper T-cells, hence activating cell mediated immunity against that specific
antigen.
• Macrophages and dendritic cells are antigen presenting cells.

8. Compare and contrast the main characteristics of B-cells and T-cells in adaptive
immunity.
B-Cells T-Cells
Types of cells Plasma cells Helper T cells (TH)
Memory B Cells Cytotoxic T cells (TC)
Memory T cells
Type of Anti-body mediated Cell-mediated immunity
immunity immunity also known as
humoral immunity.
Activation by Whole intact antigens Only antigens processed and
antigens presented by MHC proteins on
the surface of cells.
Differentiation Antibody-secreting plasma Helper T cells become cytokine-
after activation cells secreting cells.
Cytotoxic T cells destroy virus-
infected or abnormal cells by
releasing chemicals.

9. What is clonal selection theory?

When an antigen binds to a B cell or when a non-self cell binds to a T cell, the B cell or
T cell begins to divide mitotically, producing numerous daughter cells, all identical

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 copies of the parent cell. This process is called clonal selection, since only the B or T cell
that bears the effective antigen receptor is “selected” and reproduces to make clones, or
identical copies of itself bearing the same type of receptor. Clonal selection results in a
proliferation of B cells and T cells that will engage a specific invading antigen.
10. Describe the role of T-cells in the specific immune response.
• T-cells are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
• T cells are lymphocytes that originate in the bone marrow but mature in the thymus
gland.
• The plasma membranes of T cells have antigen receptors. These receptors are
recognition sites for molecules displayed by non-self-cells.
• When T cells encounter a specific antigen they multiply. (The clonal selection theory)
✓ Cytotoxic T cells (or killer T cells) recognize and destroy virus infected cells and
cancerous cells by puncturing them, thus causing them to lyse. The cytotoxic T-
cells recognize antigens presented by various body cells with MHC I proteins. If
the MHC protein has been altered then the cytotoxic T-cells recognizes it as a non-
self-cell, attacks and destroys the cell.
✓ Helper T cells stimulate the proliferation of macrophages, B cells and cytotoxic T
cells by the release of cytokines. The helper T cells only respond to antigens on the
antigen presenting cells with MHC II proteins.
✓ Memory T cells provide protection should the same antigen enter the body again.
11. Describe the role of B cells in the specific immune response.
• B cells are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity also known as humoral
immunity.
• B cells are lymphocytes that originate and mature in the bone marrow.
• The plasma membrane surface of B cells is characterized by specialized antigen
receptors called antibodies.
• When B cells encounter antigens that specifically bind to the antibodies on the surface
of the cell membrane, the B cells proliferate, producing two kinds of daughter B cells,
as follows:
✓ Plasma cells: B cells that release their specific antibodies, which then circulate
through the body, binding to antigens.
✓ Memory cells: long-lived B cells that do not release their antibodies in response to
the immediate antigen invasion. Instead, the memory cells circulate in the body and
respond quickly to eliminate any subsequent invasion by the same antigen. This
mechanism provides immunity to many diseases after the first occurrence of the
disease.
12. Describe the model of the adaptive immune response below.

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 ✓ B-cells have particular receptors for specific antigens. Upon binding of the B-cell
receptor to the particular antigen the B-cells divide by mitosis several times. (clonal
selection theory)
✓ Antigen presenting cells are cells that phagocytise pathogens and then display their
fragments on their cell membrane with the aid of major histocompatibility complex
II. They present the phagocytised pathogen to Helper T-cells hence activating them.
✓ The T-helper cells cause the proliferation of specific B-cells by releasing cytokines.
✓ Upon activation B-cells proliferate into memory B-cells and plasma cells. Plasma
cells form antibodies against a particular pathogen with a specific antigen.
✓ Memory cells proliferate into plasma cells upon subsequent exposure to the same
antigen.
13. a. Describe antibodies, also known as immunoglobulin’s.
Antibodies have the following properties:
• Antibodies are proteins.
• Each antibody or immunoglobulin is produced in response to a particular
antigen.
• There are five classes of antibodies (or immunoglobulin): IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG,
and IgM. Each class is associated with a particular activity.
• Each class of antibodies is a variation of a basic Y-shaped protein that consists
of constant regions and variable regions. The variable regions are sequences
of amino acids that differ among antibodies and give them specificity to
antigens.
b. Describe the mechanism of action of antibodies.
• Antibodies inactivate antigens by binding to them. Inactivation is followed by
macrophage phagocytosis.
• In addition, by binding to surface antigens of non-self-cells, antibodies
stimulate complement proteins to bring about the lysis of pathogens.
c. Describe the structure of the antibody.

Which label corresponds to:

A. The heavy polypeptide chain: E
B. The variable region which is specific for the antigen: F (at the tips of the
Y-shaped molecule)
C. The antigen-binding site of the antibody: B
D. The light polypeptide chain: C
E. The antigen molecule: A

Term 2, Week 5

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Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
1. Indicate the differences between the nervous system and the endocrine system.
Method of communication: The nervous system utilizes electrical impulses, whereas the
endocrine system utilizes hormones.
Method of transmission: The nervous system utilizes neurons, whereas the endocrine
system utilizes the blood.
Transmission speed: The speed of transmission in the nervous system is fast, whereas
the speed of transmission in the endocrine system is relatively slower.
Duration of effect: The duration of the effect in the nervous system is shorter, whereas
the duration of the effect in the endocrine system is longer.
2. Label the following diagram of a motor neuron and describe the function of each
component.

A. Cell body. This is the main part of the nerve cell and contains a nucleus and a variety
of organelles such as mitochondria, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Dendrite. This is the part of the neuron that receives nerve impulses from sensory
receptors or other neurons and transmits them to the cell body.
C. Axon. This is the longest part of the neuron that conducts nerve impulses from the
cell body to another neuron or cell.
D. Myelin sheath. This comprises white, fatty material that covers many axons in a
nerve and serves as an insulating layer.
E. Schwann cell. This is a cell that surrounds a fiber of a peripheral nerve and forms
the myelin sheath.
F. Node of Ranvier. This refer to the gaps in the myelin sheath around a nerve fiber
where myelin is absent. It facilitates the rapid conduction of nerve impulses.
3. Identify the types of neurons and state their function.

A. Sensory (afferent) neuron. It conducts the nerve impulse from sensory receptors to
the central nervous system.
B. Interneuron (association). They are found in the central nervous system and have
the following functions:
1. Transport nerve impulses between various parts of the central nervous system.
2. Join sensory neurons to motor neurons to transfer the nerve impulse between
them.
3. Transfer the nerve impulse from the spinal cord to the brain.
4. Transfer the nerve impulse form one side of the spinal cord to the other.
5. Transfer the nerve impulse form the brain to the spinal cord.

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 6. Form complex pathways in the brain that allow thinking, memory and language.
C. Motor (efferent) neuron. Conducts the nerve impulse from the central nervous
system to the effectors, like muscles or glands.
4. a. What is a membrane potential?
Membrane potential is the electrical potential difference across a cell membrane
and is measured in millivolts (mV). It exists due to unequal distribution of ions on
either side of the membrane.
b. Define resting potential.
The resting potential is the membrane potential when the axon is not conducting a
nerve impulse. It is equal to -70 mV because the inside of the neuron is more
negative than outside.
c. Describe how a resting potential is set up and maintained in a myelinated
neurone.
• Three sodium ions move out of the cell.
• Two potassium moves into cell.
• These ions are transported by active transport against their concentration
gradient by the sodium-potassium pump.
• Potassium ion move back out of cell and sodium ions move back into cell
by facilitated diffusion through channel proteins.
• The membrane is more permeable to potassium ions.
• The inside of the cell becomes more negative than the outside. The
membrane is said to be polarized.

5. a. Define action potential.

Action potential is a rapid change in polarity across the axonal membrane so
that the interior of the neuron becomes more positively charged as the nerve
impulse passes.
b. What is threshold polarity in the action potential process?
The threshold is the minimum change in polarity across the membrane of the
axon that is required to generate an action potential.
c. Outline the events occurring during an action potential.
The potential difference across the membrane starts at -70mV.
Depolarization
• A few voltage gated sodium channels open.
• Some sodium ions enter the axon through the voltage gated sodium
channels down their electrochemical gradient.
• The electrical potential difference across the membrane becomes less
negative.
• This depolarization triggers more voltage gated sodium channels to
open. More sodium ions enter.

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 • If the potential difference increases to -50 mV (threshold value) more
and more voltage gated sodium channels open and sodium enters until
the inside reaches a potential of +30mV.
• A small depolarization leads to a greater and greater depolarization.
(positive feedback)
Repolarization
• The voltage gated sodium channels close.
• The voltage gated potassium channels open. Potassium ions diffuse
out of the axon down their concentration gradient.
• The potential difference across the membrane returns to -70mV.
6. Homeostasis, maintaining a steady-state internal environment, is a characteristic of
all living organisms. Using the following physiological parameter, describe how
homeostasis is maintained in an organism of your choice. Neuron resting-
membrane potential.

• Resting potential, represented by segment A-B, is when the axon is not conducting
a nerve impulse. It is equal to -45 millivolts because the inside of the neuron is more
negative than the outside. This means that there is a higher concentration of sodium
ions outside the axon than inside and a higher concentration of potassium ions inside
the axon than outside. There are more sodium ions outside than potassium ions
inside.
• Action potential is a rapid change in polarity across the axonal membrane as the
nerve impulse passes.
✓ Depolarization is represented by segment B-C. Sodium ions (Na+) have
diffused into the neuron, creating a positive charge within the cell (+40 mV).
✓ Repolarization is represented by C-D. After the polarity inside a neuron
changes to +40mV it causes the sodium channels to close and the potassium
channels to open resulting in K + ions diffusing out, making the axon return
back to its original state of polarity (-70mV).
• Hyperpolarization during the refractory period is represented by letter D. In order
to prevent the action potential from moving backwards and continue its movement
to the next section towards the terminals of the axon, the Na+ gated channels cannot
open in the axonal membrane.
• The axon therefore returns to its more electronegative resting potential state as
represent by segment E-F.
7.

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 a. What does letter A represent?
The depolarization of the membrane as sodium ions enter. Threshold level has not
been reached yet.
b. What does letter B represent?
The threshold potential/value. Action potentials are only generated if the potential
difference reaches this value.
c. What does letter C represent?
The membrane is maximally depolarized by the opening of the voltage gated
sodium channels.
d. What does segment BC represent?
Segment BC represents depolarization of the axon membrane.
e. What does letter D represent?
The membrane will not depolarize during this refractory period.
f. What does segment CD represent?
Segment CD represents repolarization of the axonal membrane.
g. What does letter E represent?
More positive ions are present outside the membrane than inside it, with maintains
the resting potential.
8. What is saltatory conduction?
• Saltatory conduction is a mode of conduction that occurs only in myelinated axons.
• The nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next node because the
action of gated ions channels that generate action potential are concentrated at the
nodes of Ranvier.
• This conduction is faster than normal conduction in non-myelinated axons, hence
permitting instantaneous response in myelinated axons.
9. What is a refractory period?
The region that behind is still recovering from the action potential that has passed and
the voltage gated sodium channels remain shut tight and cannot be stimulated to open
again. The period during which this part of the axon is unresponsive is known as the
refractory period.

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10. How are action potential propagated forward along a neuron?
The temporary depolarization of the membrane at the site of an action potential causes a
local circuit to be set up between the depolarized region and the next node of Ranvier.
This causes the opening of sodium channels at the next node of Ranvier. The
neighboring Node of Ranvier gets depolarized and an action potential is generated. This
jumping of the action potential from one node to the next is known as saltatory
conduction.
Action potentials are propagated forwards in one direction.
11. a. What is a synapse?
• Synapse is the junction between two neurons.
• It contains the membrane of the presynaptic axon, synaptic cleft and the
membrane of the postsynaptic cell, which is usually a dendrite.
b. What is synaptic cleft?
Synaptic cleft is the small gap between presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons in a
synapse.
c. What is a neurotransmitter?
Neurotransmitter is a chemical stored at the ends of axons that is responsible for
transmission across a synapse.
d. What do we call synapses that use acetylcholine as the transmitter?
Cholinergic synapses are the synapses that use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter.
e. Explain how synaptic transmission across a cholinergic synapse.
• The cytoplasm at the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron contains many
vesicles, each containing neurotransmitter molecules.
• Depolarization of the presynaptic membrane causes calcium ions to enter the
presynaptic neuron through calcium-gated channels.
• The vesicle fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release the
neurotransmitter by exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.
• The neurotransmitters bind with receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
• Depending on the type of neurotransmitter the postsynaptic neuron will be
stimulated or inhibited. If it is stimulated this will lead to the opening of the
sodium channels. If the threshold is reached an action potential will be
initiated.
• After the response has been initiated, neurotransmitters are removed from the
cleft by enzymes in the presynaptic membrane that inactivate them (e.g.
acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine) or by reabsorption.
12. The figure below is a micrograph of a cholinergic synapse.
a. Label the presynaptic neuron.

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 b. Identify the structure that allowed you to identify the presynaptic neuron.
The invaginations of the presynaptic neuron represent the vesicles releasing the
neurotransmitter by exocytosis.
c. Label the postsynaptic neuron.
d. Where would abundant voltage gated sodium channels be found?
The voltage gated sodium channels would be found in the postsynaptic membrane.
e. Label an area that contains both acetylcholine and acetylcholinerstase.
The synaptic cleft would contain both acetylcholine and acetylcholinesterase.
13. Acetylcholinesterase is responsible for the hydrolysis of acetylcholine at the
cholinergic synapses. Suggest how these insecticides that have a similar structure
to acetylcholine may affect the function of acetylcholinesterase.
The insecticide would act as a competitive inhibitor.
The insecticide would have a complementary shape to the active site of
acetylcholinesterase.
The active site of acetylcholinesterase would be blocked.
Acetyl choline would not be hydrolyzed.
14. Depression is a common mood disorder that appear to involve imbalances in
norepinephrine and serotonin. Explain why antidepressant drugs such a Prozac®
or Wellburit®, are given to patients instead of providing them with high doses of
the previously mentioned neurotransmitters.
Norepinephrine and serotonin are neurotransmitters associated with emotions and mood.
Anti-depressant drugs block their reuptake and so treat depression. In this way they
prolong the effect of these two neurotransmitters in networks of neuron within the brain
that are involved in the emotional state. Providing them with high doses of the
neurotransmitter may result in the neurotransmitters being quickly reabsorbed by the
presynaptic neurons.
15. A chemical was administered to hamsters that blocks sodium ion channels of the
neuronal membrane. How can the chemical administered to the hamsters interfere
with the transmission of information across synapses?
• Sodium cannot pass across the membranes and therefore action potential cannot
be generated in the neurons.
• No calcium will enter the presynaptic neuron and therefore no neurotransmitter
will be released. No reaction will occur in the postsynaptic neuron.
16. a. Differentiate between excitatory signals and inhibitory signals.

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 Excitatory signals produce a potential change that causes the neuron to become less
polarised hence closer to triggering an action potential. However, inhibitory signals
make neurons more polarised hence further from triggering an action potential.
b. Describe synaptic integration.
A single postsynaptic neuron receives numerous impulses from presynaptic
neurons, releasing neurotransmitter which can either by stimulatory or inhibitory.
These impulses are integrated and summed up into either hyperpolarization
(inhibited) or hypo polarization (stimulated).
Hyperpolarization is a membrane potential more negative than the resting potential
and further away from threshold potential.
Hypo polarization is a membrane potential more positive than the resting potential
and closer to threshold potential.
17. Describe the signal transudation pathway involved when photons of light pass
through the lens.
• Photons of light pass through the lens.
• Light is focused onto the retina where it is absorbed by the photoreceptors, the rods
and cones.
• The photoreceptors contain rhodopsin which consists of the protein opsin and a light
absorbing molecules called retinal.
• Rhodopsin is excited by the absorption of light and splits into opsin and retinal.
• Activation of hundreds of enzyme molecules occurs. Each enzyme activates
hundreds of cGMP which acts as secondary messengers.
• Sodium channels close.
• The release of inhibitory neurotransmitters from the photoreceptors synaptic
vesicles ceases.
• Impulses are sent through the optic nerve to the cortex of the brain where the
messages are integrated.
18. Outline the mechanisms of action of chemoreceptors in the taste buds.
Chemoreceptors that detect salt:
• Sodium diffuses through specific channel proteins in the membrane of the
microvilli of the chemoreceptor.
• Depolarization of the membrane occurs. The increase in positive charge inside
the cell is the receptor potential.
• If enough sodium ions enter the chemoreceptor and the receptor potential becomes
positive enough voltage gated calcium channels open.
• Calcium ions enter.
• Vesicle containing neurotransmitter release neurotransmitters by exocytosis.
• The neurotransmitter stimulates an action potential in the sensory neuron.
Chemoreceptors that are sensitive to sweet:
• Protein receptor detects sweet
• Activates a G protein
• Activates an enzyme to produce cAMP from ATP
• cAMP acts as a secondary messenger and activates a cascade of proteins
• closure of potassium channels
• depolarization of the membrane
19. A study was conducted to investigate the effect of smoking on brain areas such as
the prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, and thalamus; areas that have been linked to
prospective memory. A group of smokers was asked to memorize a short passage
to measure their memory abilities. Each member in the group attempted to recite

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 the passage once after one day and a second time after three days. The same task
was assigned to a control group of nonsmokers. The table shows the probability
that a participant accurately recites the whole passage.
Memory
Group (average probability of retaining the passage  2 𝑺𝑬𝑿̅
One day Three days
Nonsmoker 0.84  0.07 0.78  0.08
Smoker 0.75  0.09 0.38  0.12

a) Construct a modified bar graph of the data using appropriate units, proper
scales, and corresponding labels.
1
0.9
0.8
Average probability

0.7
0.6
Nonsmoker

Nonsmoker
Smoker

0.5
0.4
0.3
0.2 Smoker
0.1
0
One day Three days

b) Based on the results of the study, describe the effect of smoking on short
term and long term memory as compared to nonsmokers.
• After one day, there is no evidence that nonsmokers have more ability than
smokers on retaining information because there is a noticeable overlap
between their error bars.
• However, after three days, the case is different because the corresponding
error bars are clearly separated.
• It is also noticeable that the modified bars for nonsmokers (after one day
and after three days) have a visible overlap, which tells us that nonsmokers
retain information for extended periods of times.
• The case is different for smokers because their modified bars after one day
and after three days are separated.
• The above concludes that smoking may not affect short term memory, but
there is evidence that it decreases the ability of smokers on retaining
information for extended time periods.
20. The eye is able to distinguish separate stimuli from a flickering light up to a
threshold frequency of 16 flickers per second. This is a frequency of 16 hertz. Once
the threshold frequency is reached the eye can no longer distinguish the flickers as
separate stimuli. The frequency at which this happens is called the critical flicker
fusion threshold (CFFT).
To find a person’s CFFT the following is performed.

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• The person looks into a binocular eyepiece through which two white lights
are flickered.
• The flickering frequency is started at 4 hertz then gradually increased at a
constant rate.
• When the person feels that the flickering frequency has become constant
they press a button that gives them their CFFT.
• This is repeated to give ten values for each person.
An investigation was carried out on the effect of alcohol on the CFFT ten
males aged 25 to 35. The investigation was carried out as follows.
Day 1: The men were allowed five minutes to drink 250𝒄𝒎𝟑 of apple juice.
The CFFT was measured after 30 minutes.
Day 2: The men were allowed five minutes to drink 250𝒄𝒎𝟑 of apple juice
containing 16 grams of alchool. The CFFT was measured after 30 minutes.

a. Identify variables that have been controlled in the investigation.

• Volume of apple juice consumed.
• Time between drinking juice/alcohol and time of test.
• The gender was the same. They were all males.
• Flickering of light increases at a constant rate.
• 16 grams of alcohol were added in the juice.
• Same time allowed for drinking (five minutes).
b. Explain why the standard deviation of the results was calculated for each
person.
• Standard deviation shows the spread about the mean.
• Standard deviation indicates the reliability of the data.
• A large standard deviation indicates less reliable results whereas a small
standard deviation indicates more reliable results.
• Standard deviation can be used to put error bars on the graph to see if the
standard deviations overlap. If the error bars don’t overlap this indicates a
significant difference.
c. Identify features of the CFFT from the data in the figure.
• The frequency at which flicker fusion occurs varies greatly between
individuals (with or without alcohol).

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 • The frequency at which flicker fusion occurs is greater after alcohol
consumption. This is the case in most men including men
1,2,3,5,7,8,9,10,11,12.
• Men 4, 6 and 13 have lower CFFT after alcohol.
• Overlapping error bars for men 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 12, 13, suggests the effect
of alcohol is not significant.
• Men 1,2,3,9, do not have overlapping error bars so effect of alcohol is
significant.
d. States why the results may not be representative of the whole population.
• Only 13 subjects were tested. This is considered to be a small sample.
• All test subjects are male.
• Not all age ranges were included.
• There was no mentioned of body mass.
21. The speed at which an electrical impulse travels along a nerve can be determined
by carrying out a nerve conduction velocity (NCV) test. The distance between two
electrodes and the time it takes for electrical impulses to travel between them are
used to determine the nerve conduction velocity. An investigation to measure the
NCV in the ulnar nerve in females of different ages was carried out on 394
individuals. Table 2.1 shows the results of this investigation.

a) The confidence limit = mean ± 2 SM. Use this formula to calculate the missing
confidence limits.
Lower limit is 50.85
Upper limit is 53.55
b) One conclusion from these data is that mean conduction velocity in the ulnar
nerve varies significantly with age. Identify two age categories which appear
to support this conclusion and give a reason for your choice.
✓ 30-39 and 70-79
✓ There is no overlap in the confidence limits/standard error
✓ The upper limit of 70-79 does not reach the lower limit of 30-39
c) State one reason why the results of the investigation were considered to be
reliable.
Large sample size was taken
Term 2, Week 6

Chapter 31.4: Animal Organization and Homeostasis

1. a. Define homeostasis.
Homeostasis is the ability of an organism to maintain a relatively constant
internal environment.

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 b. Define negative feedback.
Negative feedback is the mechanism of a homeostatic response by which the
output of a system suppresses or inhibits activity of the system.
c. Explain negative feedback.
A stimulus such as a change in blood temperature is detected by a receptor.
Sensory information known as the input is sent to a central control in the brain or
spinal cord. The central control instructs a/an effector (muscle or gland) to carry
out an action which is called the response which should reverse the stimulus.
Therefore, the original factor such as blood temperature fluctuates around an ideal
value known as the set point.
d. Give an example of a negative feedback.
Regulation of body temperature is an example of negative feedback.
2. a. Define positive feedback.
Positive feedback is the mechanism of a homeostatic response by which the output
of the system intensifies and increases the activity of the system.
b. Give examples of positive feedback.
• Onset of labor in childbirth and lactation in mammals are examples of
positive feedback.
• Damaged tissues release chemicals that activate platelets and stimulate the
formation of blood clots. Activated platelets releases chemicals that activate
more platelets.
c. Define positive feedback with an example.
A process in which a change in some parameter brings about processes that move
its level even further in the direction of the initial change is positive feedback.
Breathing in air rich in carbon dioxide → high levels of carbon dioxide in the
blood → activation of carbon dioxide receptors → increase in breathing rate →
person takes in more carbon dioxide → carbon dioxide receptors are stimulated
more → further increase in breathing rate → higher levels of carbon dioxide in
the blood
d. State and describe the type of feedback that causes labor in childbirth
Positive feedback takes place in the onset of labor in childbirth.
Due to uterine contractions, the baby’s head presses on the cervix, stimulating
pressure receptors and nerve impulses are sent to the brain. The brain causes the
pituitary gland to secrete the hormone oxytocin which travels in the blood to the
uterus. It acts on the smooth muscles, causing uterine contractions. The more the
uterus contracts during labor, the more nerve impulses reach the hypothalamus
causing the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. As the level of
oxytocin increases, the uterine contractions increase until birth occurs.
3. a. Explain how negative feedback is used to maintain a constant internal body
temperature.
• When body temperature rises above normal, the hypothalamus senses the
change and causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate in order to lose more
body heat by radiation and the sweat glands to secrete sweat that would
evaporate thus lowering body temperature back to normal.
• When body temperature falls below normal, the hypothalamus senses the
change and causes the blood vessels in the skin to constrict in order to
conserve heat. A decrease in body temperature causes the hypothalamus to
send nerve impulses to the skeletal muscles to contract and shivering
occurs, bringing the body temperature back to normal.

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 b. Outline the negative feedback loop involved in the control of body
temperature.
Stimulus Fall in body temperature
Receptor Thermoreceptors detecting changes in blood temperate which
gives an accurate measurement of the core body temperature.
Receptors in the skin.
Central control hypothalamus
Effectors • Muscles in the walls of the arterioles will contract
causing vasoconstriction.
• Skeletal muscles will contract generating heat
(shivering).
• Muscles at the base of the hairs contract, trapping a
layer of air at the surface of the skin.
• Sweat glands decrease production of sweat.
• Adrenal glands increase the secretion of adrenaline,
increasing the rate of heat production by the liver.
• Anterior pituitary releases TSH which causes the thyroid
gland to release thyroxine increasing the metabolic rate.
Response Increase in body temperature back to 37°C (set point).

Stimulus Rise in body temperature

Receptor Thermoreceptors detecting changes in blood temperate which
gives an accurate measurement of the core body temperature.
Receptors in the skin.
Central control hypothalamus
Effectors • Muscles in the walls of the arterioles will relav causing
vasodilation.
• Muscles at the base of the hairs relax. Body hairs are
lowered. There is no longer a layer of air acting as an
insulator.
• Sweat glands increase production of sweat. More heat
is removed when water evaporates.
Response Decrease in body temperature back to 37°C (set point).

Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine System (40.1 – 40.3)

1. a. Outline the three stages of cell signaling.
• Reception: A signal molecule known as a ligand from outside the target cell
binds to the receptor.
• Transduction: The signal is converted to a form that can bring about a
cellular response. This involved a series of relay proteins.
• A specific cellular response occurs.
b. Identify the three main types of receptors involved in cell signaling.
The three types of receptors involved in cell signaling are ion channel proteins,
G-protein coupled receptors and protein kinase receptors.

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 c. Describe how cells can communicate with one another over long
distances.
Cells can communicate with one another over long distances by means of nerve
signals conducted through axons and neurotransmitters across synapses or by
means of hormones secreted by endocrine cells and transported throughout the
body by the bloodstream.
2. Identify the hormones released by the various endocrine glands.
Posterior pituitary ADH, oxytocin
Anterior pituitary TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone), ACTH, FSH,
LH, Prolactin, growth hormone
Thyroid T3 and T4, calcitonin
Adrenal cortex Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Sex hormones
Adrenal medulla Epinephrine and norepinepherine
Pineal gland melatonin
Parathyroid PTH
pancreas Insulin and glucagon
Testes and ovaries Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone
3. a. Where are the steroid hormones secreted from?
The steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex and the gonads.
b. Name the steroid hormones.
• Aldosterone (mineralocorticoid) and cortisol (glucocorticoid) are steroid
hormones.
• Estrogen, progesterone and testosterone are steroid hormones.
c. Give an example of a peptide hormone.
Insulin and glucagon are peptide hormones.
d. Why can’t peptide hormones such as insulin enter its target cells? Why are
steroid hormones such as testosterone able to enter their target cells?
Insulin is a peptide hormone. Peptide hormones cannot cross the cell membrane
composed of a phospholipid bilayer. For this reason, its receptor is found on the
cell membrane.
Steroid hormones such as testosterone being lipids can cross the cell membrane
and therefore their receptors are found in the cytoplasm.
4. a. Describe the mechanism of hormonal signaling for a steroid hormone.
• Steroid hormones are small, nonpolar molecules that diffuse through the
phospholipid interior of cell membranes.
• The steroid receptors are found in the cytoplasm or nucleus of the cell.
• The intracellular receptor activated by a steroid hormone is a transcription
factor, and the response is a change in gene expression.
• Binding of a steroid hormone to its cytoplasmic receptor forms a hormone-
receptor complex that can move into the nucleus and stimulate transcription
of specific genes.
• The hormone-receptor complexes bind to specific sites in the cell’s DNA
and stimulates the transcription of specific genes.
• mRNA produced in response to hormone stimulation is translated into new
protein at the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

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 b. Describe the effect of testosterone on its target cells.
• Testosterone is a steroid hormone.
• Testosterone is secreted by the testes, travels dissolved in the blood plasma
and eventually passes the cell membrane to enter all cells of the body.
However, testosterone only has its effect on cells that contain testosterone
receptors.
• Testosterone binds to receptors in the cytoplasm.
• With the hormone attached the activated receptor enters the nucleus.
• Once inside the activated receptor acts as a transcription factor, turning on
genes that control male characteristics.
• In the muscle cells the genes that increase muscle mass are turned on.
• In in hair cells the genes for the keratin protein are turned on.
5. a. Describe the role of peptide hormones in signal transduction.
• Peptide hormones are not lipid soluble and therefore cannot dissolve in the
plasma membrane.
• Peptide hormones act as the first messenger and bind to receptors on the
surface of the cell.
• This triggers a secondary messenger, such as cAMP.
• This activates a series of enzymes, commonly kinases that lead to a specific
cellular response.
b. Epinephrine is a protein hormone. Epinephrine results in the breakdown of
glycogen into glucose in the liver cells. Identify the steps involved in the
process whereby epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown.
• Epinephrine binds to a cell surface receptor.
• The activated receptor stimulates production of the second messenger
cAMP.
• cAMP activates a protein kinase enzyme within the cell.
• The enzymes activate another enzyme which activates another enzyme and
so forth. The series of enzymatic reactions is known as the enzyme cascade.
• Glycogen is broken down to glucose which enter the bloodstream.

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6. a. What is diabetes mellitus associated with?
Diabetes is associated with the increase of the glucose levels in the blood.
b. Outline the characteristics and causes of type I Diabetes.
• The pancreas is incapable of secreting sufficient insulin. This may due to a gene
mutation or an autoimmune disease in which in which the beta cells are attacked
by an individual’s own immune system.
• The treatment is insulin injections, usually several times a day.
• This type is also known as juvenile onset diabetes as it usually begins early in life.
c. Outline the characteristics and causes of type II Diabetes.
• It is more commonly caused by a decreased responsiveness to insulin in target
cells, due to some change in insulin receptors.
• It is associated with poor diet and obesity.
• Begins relatively late in life.
• Also known as non-insulin-dependent diabetes.
• May be treated with diet and frequent exercise.
7. a. Outline the negative feedback loop involved in maintaining blood glucose
levels after a meal rich in carbohydrates.
stimulus Raised blood glucose level
receptor The α and β cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
Control The α and β cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas:
center The alpha cells release less glucagon and the beta cells release more
insulin
Effectors Liver, muscle and, fat
Response Liver cells respond to less glucagon by stopping glycogen hydrolysis
Liver, muscle and fat respond to more insulin by increase the uptake
and use of glucose.
The blood glucose level gets lowered back to the set point.
b. Outline how insulin can prevent the release of glucose from cells.
Insulin activates the enzyme glucokinase which phosphorylates glucose. Glucose
cannot exit the cell through the transport proteins when it is phosphorylated.
c. Outline how insulin increases the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
Insulin stimulates the activation of phosphofructokinase and glycogen synthase
which add glucose molecules to glycogen.
d. Describe the GLUT proteins.
• GLUT proteins are transport proteins that allow only the entrance of
glucose into cells.
• Muscle cells have GLUT4 proteins which are normally found in the form
of vesicles in the cell only fusing with the cell membrane upon the presence
of insulin.
• GLUT1 proteins are found in brain cells and GLUT2 proteins are found in
the liver cells. Their presence in the cell membranes is not altered by the
presence of absence of insulin.
e. Describe the effect if insulin on the GLUT 4 proteins.
• Insulin binds to receptors in the cell surface membrane.
• Signals to the cell cause the vesicles carrying GLUT4 to merge with the
cell surface membrane.
• Glucose then diffuse into the cell down a concentration gradient.
f. The diagram below depicts the effect of insulin on the muscle cells. What is
the role of the insulin in the signal transduction pathway?

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 The insulin acts as a ligand.
8. a. Outline the negative feedback loop involved in maintaining blood glucose
levels while fasting.
stimulus Low blood glucose level
receptor The α and β cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
Control center The α and β cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas:
The alpha cells release more glucagon and the beta cells release
less insulin
Effectors Liver, muscle and, fat
Note: glucagon has no effect on the muscles, only the liver
Response Liver cells respond to more glucagon by increasing glycogen
hydrolysis
Liver, muscle and fat respond to less insulin by decreasing the
uptake and use of glucose.
The blood glucose level gets raised back to the set point.
b. Outline the effect of glucagon (peptide hormone) on the liver.
• Glucagon binds to receptors on the cell surface membrane of liver cells.
• G protein is activated.
• This activates an enzyme that will convert ATP to cAMP which acts as a
secondary messenger.
• cAMP binds to kinase enzymes that activate other enzymes by the addition
of phosphate.
• Glycogen phosphorylase is the last enzyme activated and catalyzes the
breakdown of glycogen to glucose.
• The concentration of glucose inside the cell increases.
• Glucose diffuses out of the cells into the blood through GLUT [2]
transporter proteins.

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 c. The diagram above depicts the effect of glucagon on the liver cells. What is
the role of glucagon in the signal transduction pathway?
Glucagon is the ligand.
9. a. Name the other hormone that has the same effect on the liver as glucagon by
activating the same enzyme cascade.
Adrenaline/epinephrine
b. What is the effect of stress on adrenal medulla secretion?
Stress will increase epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (nor-adrenaline)
secretion from the adrenal medulla.
c. Outline the effect of adrenaline/epinpherine (peptide hormone) on the liver.
• Adrenaline binds to receptors on the cell surface membrane of liver cells.
• G protein is activated.
• This activates an enzyme that will convert ATP to cAMP which acts as a
secondary messenger.
• cAMP binds to kinase enzymes that activate other enzymes by the addition of
phosphate.
• Glycogen phosphorylase is the last enzyme activated and catalyzes the breakdown
of glycogen to glucose.
• The concentration of glucose inside the cell increases.
• Glucose diffuses out of the cells into the blood through GLUT 2 transporter
proteins.

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10. What two hormones are antagonistic controllers of blood calcium levels? Describe
their mechanisms.
The two hormones that are involved with the calcium balance are:
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) from the parathyroid gland and calcitonin from the thyroid
gland.
Calcitonin hormone Parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin’s role in the body is: Parathyroid hormone counteracts
• When blood calcium levels are calcitonin: and works to
elevated the thyroid gland releases • increase blood calcium.
calcitonin. • When blood calcium levels are
• Calcitonin increase the activity of low the parathyroid glands release
specialized bone cells called PTH.
osteoblasts which take up calcium • PTH causes the kidneys to
from the blood and cause blood reabsorb calcium from filtered
calcium levels to fall. blood.
• Calcitonin also decreases the • It increases the activity of
activity of bone cells called osteoclasts, while decreasing the
osteoclasts, which break down activity of osteoblasts
bone matrix and release its • It also increases the absorption of
components into the bloodstream. calcium from the food you eat
• Once calcium levels are back to • Once the calcium levels are back
normal the thyroid glands release to normal the parathyroid glands
of calcitonin is inhibited. This is no longer release PTH. This is an
an example of negative feedback. example of negative feedback.

11. Distinguish between glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. STEROID

HORMONES
Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
• These hormones were involved in the 1. Glucocorticoids are a class of steroid
retention of sodium. hormones that bind to the glucocorticoid
• In response to low blood pressure and receptor.
volume the adrenal cortex is stimulated to In response to stress the hypothalamus causes
2.
release aldosterone. the pituitary gland to secrete ACTH which in
• Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to turns causes the adrenal cortex to release
provide active reabsorption of sodium and glucocorticoids.

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 an associated passive reabsorption of 3. Glucocorticoids (cortisol) have the following
water, as well as the active secretion of effects on the body:
potassium by the kidney. 4. 1. Promotes the breakdown of muscle proteins
• This in turn results in an increase of blood into amino acids which are then converted
pressure and blood volume. into glucose.
• This is an example of negative feedback. 5. 2. Promotes the catabolism of fatty acids
instead of carbohydrates therefore sparing the
glucose.
6. 3. Turns immune activity (inflammation)
down. They are therefore used in medicine to
treat diseases that are caused by an overactive
immune system, such as allergies, asthma,
autoimmune diseases and sepsis.

12. a. What is ADH associated with?

ADH is associated with the reabsorption of water by kidneys.
b. Outline the homeostatic mechanism involved in the control of the water
potential of the blood.
Stimulus Decrease in water potential of Increase in water potential of the
(input) the blood below a set point blood above a set point
receptor Osmoreceptors in the Osmoreceptors in the
hypothalamus hypothalamus
Control Hypothalamus send signals hypothalamus
center along neurons terminating in
the posterior pituitary gland
effector Posterior pituitary gland Neurons extending to the
releases ADH posterior pituitary gland no
longer releases ADH
Response Increased permeability of the Collecting duct cells are
(output) collecting ducts. Water is impermeable to water as
reabsorbed. Water potential of aquaporins are moved out of the
the blood is restored to the set cell membrane. Large volumes of
point. dilute urine are produced. Water
potential of the blood is restored
to the set point.
c. Describe the mechanism of action of ADH (peptide hormone) at the
collecting ducts by stating exactly what is occurring at each of the numbered
labels in the diagram.

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 1. ADH (ligand) binds to receptors on the cell membrane of the cells lining the
collecting ducts.
2. Enzyme cascade is activated. A series of enzymatically controlled reactions
is activated in the cell. The end result is the production of an active
phosphorylase enzyme.
3. The enzyme causes vesicles containing aquaporins to fuse with the cell
membrane.
4. The enzyme causes vesicles containing aquaporins to fuse with the cell
membrane.
5. Water moves by osmosis down a water potential gradient from the fluid in
the lumen to the concentrated tissue fluid of the medulla of the kidney. A
small volume of concentrated urine will be produced.
d. Describe the negative feedback loop involved upon a decrease in the water
potential of the blood.
A drop in water potential of the blood is detected by osmoreceptors in the
hypothalamus. Nerve impulses are sent along neurons to the posterior pituitary
gland stimulating the release of ADH which will travel dissolved in the blood
plasma to the kidneys. An increased absorption of water by the kidney will
increase the water potential of the blood back to normal and therefore the ADH
secretion will stop.
13. a. Identify the hormones released by the anterior pituitary gland.
Hormone Target organ Effect on target organ
TSH Thyroid gland More production of T3 and T4
ACTH Adrenal cortex Release of cortisol (glucocorticoid)
Prolactin Mammary glands Milk production
Growth hormone Bones and tissues Skeletal and muscular growth.
Increased protein synthesis.
FSH and LH Ovaries and testes Production of testosterone, estrogen
and progesterone from the gonads
b. Describe how the hormones of the anterior pituitary gland are under the
control of the hypothalamus.
• Neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus produce hypothalamic-releasing
and hypothalamic inhibiting hormones.
• These hormones are secreted into a portal system that connects the
hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.

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 • Each type of hypothalamic hormone either inhibits or stimulates the
production of the anterior pituitary hormones.
15. a. Identify the hormones released by the posterior pituitary gland.
Hormone Target organ
ADH Kidney
Oxytocin Mammary glands and uterus
b. Describe how the hormones of the posterior pituitary gland are under the
control of the hypothalamus.
• Neurosecretory cells extend from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.
• The neurosecretory cells produce ADH and oxytocin.
• These hormones move down axons to axon endings in the posterior pituitary.
• When the hypothalamus receives the appropriate stimuli ADH and oxytocin
are released from the axon endings in the posterior pituitary into the blood
stream.
16. Describe the negative feedback response involved in the control of T3 and T4 by the
thyroid gland.
• The hypothalamus releases thyroid hormone releasing hormone (THRH).
• This acts on the anterior pituitary gland causing the release of thyroid stimulating
hormone (TSH).
• TSH causes the release of thyroxin from the thyroid gland.
• When levels of thyroxin increase they inhibit the release of THRH from the
hypothalamus and also inhibit the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary.
17. Two new medications are being tested for their effectiveness in controlling the blood
sugar level in the human plasma. A group of healthy volunteers was given a
sweetened drink and then administered a dose of medication A. The recovery time,
the time it took the blood sugar level of each volunteer to drop to its normal value,
was recorded, and the average recovery time of the whole group was calculated. A
second group followed the same procedure while being administered medication B.
The results are summarized in the table below.
Effect of medications on removing Excess Sugar from Human Plasma
Treatment Average Recovery Time (minutes) 2SE𝑿
Control 120 20
Medication A 80 8
Medication B 70 7

a) Construct a modified bar graph of the data using appropriate units, proper
scales, and corresponding labels.

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 b) Based on the results, describe the effectiveness of the two medications and
compare their effects.
We expect a significant difference between the average recovery time between
group A and the control group since the error bars are not overlapping. The same
conclusion applies to group B. However, there is no evidence of a significant
difference between the effectiveness of the two medications since the error bars of
their corresponding modified bar graphs have a significant overlap.
18. Leptin is a hormone responsible for suppressing appetite. Researchers are
investigating the effectiveness of various treatments on three individuals with a
history of increased appetites.
• Individual I does not produce leptin but does have functional leptin receptors.
• Individual II does produce leptin but does have functional leptin receptors.
• Individual III does not produce leptin and does not have functional leptin
receptors.
• Treatment 1 entails the injection of leptin hormone obtained from genetically
modified bacteria.
• Treatment 2 involves gene therapy that results in the production of functional
leptin receptors in the cell membrane of the target cells.
• Treatment 3 involves the injection of leptin and the leptin-receptor gene
therapy.
Which treatment/s would be effective in suppressing appetite in individuals I, II,
and III?
• Treatments 1 and 3 would be effective in individual I.
• Treatments 2 and 3 would be effective in individual II.
• Treatment 3 would be effective in individual III.
Term 2, Week 7

Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory System

1. a. Identify the nitrogenous wastes excreted by animals and their source.
When the body breaks down amino acids for energy or converts them into
carbohydrates depending on the body needs, the amino group must be removed.
The amino group may be excreted in the form of ammonia, urea and uric acid.
b. List the nitrogenous waste products in order from the least water needed to
be excreted to the most water needed to be excreted.
Uric acid → urea→ ammonia

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 c. List the nitrogenous waste products in order from the least energy required
to produce to the most energy required to produce.
ammonia→ urea→ uric acid
d. Describe the formation of ammonia, urea and uric acid and state the relative
amount of energy required to make these nitrogenous wastes.
The amino group formed from amino acids immediately forms ammonia by the
addition of a third hydrogen ion. This requires little energy.
Urea is formed in in the liver by a series of enzymatically controlled reactions
known as the urea cycle. It therefore requires energy for its production.
Uric acid is synthesized by a long complex series of enzymatic reactions that
require the most energy of all the nitrogenous waste products.
e. State the relative amount of water required to remove the nitrogenous
wastes from the body of animals and accordingly identify the nitrogenous
wastes removed by animals adapted to different environments.
• Ammonia is toxic and therefore requires large amounts of water to wash it
out of the body. Ammonia is excreted by fish and other aquatic animals
whose body is in contact with water.
• Urea is less toxic than ammonia and therefore requires less water to be
removed from the body. This allows the conservation of water, an adaption
required by terrestrial animals. Sharks, adult amphibians and mammals
excrete their nitrogenous wastes as urea.
• Uric acid is the least toxic of all the nitrogenous waste products. Uric acid
has poor solubility in water. Uric acid can be removed as a concentrated
solution which allows the conservation of water. Uric acid is excreted by
reptiles, birds and insects.
2. a. The blood of cartilaginous fish, such as sharks, is less concentrated than in
sea water. State the mechanism the have adapted to prevent the loss of water
from their bodies.
They pump their blood plasma full of urea, and this molecule makes they blood
isotonic to sea water.
b. Marine bony fish lose water to their relatively hypertonic environment by
osmosis. Freshwater bony fish gain water from their relatively hypotonic
environment by osmosis. Outline the adaptations of the marine bony fish
that prevents them from losing too much water. Outline the adaptations of
the freshwater bony fish that prevents the uptake of too much water
• The marine fish drink sea water constantly. Drinking sea water causes them
to take in salts. They rid their body of excess salts by active transport at
their gills.
• The kidney of the marine fish conserve water and the produce a small
amount of isotonic urine.
• The freshwater fish never drink water.
• The fresh water fish actively transport salts into the blood across the gills.
• The kidneys of the fresh water fish get rid of excess water by producing a
large quantity of dilute, hypotonic urine.
3. a. Describe the role of the kidneys in maintaining blood pH.
The kidneys are slower acting than the buffer/breathing system but play a greater
role in the maintenance of blood pH. If the blood is acidic, hydrogen ions are
excreted and bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed. If the blood is basic, hydrogen ions
are not excreted and bicarbonate ions are not reabsorbed. Ammonia is produced

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 by the tubule cells by the deamination of amino acids and mops up excess
hydrogen ions by the following reaction.
𝑁𝐻3+ + 𝐻 + → 𝑁𝐻4+
b. The reaction below is a reversible reaction that occurs in the blood. With
reference to the reaction below state how breathing can maintain pH of the
blood when it increases.
𝐻 + + 𝐻𝐶𝑂3− ⇆ 𝐻2 𝐶𝑂3 ⇆ 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
When blood pH increases this depresses the respiratory control center to decrease
the rate and depth of breathing, causing the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the
blood. The reaction is shifted to the left and the amount of bicarbonate and
hydrogen ions in the blood increases
c. The reaction below is a reversible reaction that occurs in the blood. With
reference to the reaction below state how breathing can maintain pH of the
blood when it decreases.
𝐻 + + 𝐻𝐶𝑂3− ⇆ 𝐻2 𝐶𝑂3 ⇆ 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
When blood pH decreases this stimulates the respiratory control center to increase
the rate and depth of breathing. When carbon dioxide is exhaled this pushes the
reaction to the right and hydrogen ions are tied up in water.
4. a. Name the molecules reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubules.
All of the glucose, amino acids, vitamins, many sodium and chloride ions are
reabsorbed. Half of the urea in the filtrate diffuses back into the blood down a
concentration gradient. Creatinine and uric acid are not reabsorbed back into the
blood
b. Describe how the cuboidal cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are
adapted for their role of reabsorption.
• Microvilli on the inner surface of the cells facing the lumen increase the
surface area for maximum absorption.
• To prevent the leaking of fluid tight junctions are found between the cells.
• The cells contain abundant mitochondria to provide energy for the sodium
potassium pump.
• Co-transporter proteins are found in the cell surface facing the lumen.
c. Describe the selective reabsorption of glucose and other molecules in the
proximal convoluted tubules.
1. Sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membrane of the cells lining the PCT
pump sodium ions into the blood by active transport.
2. The low concentration of sodium ions in the PCT cells causes sodium ions
to diffuse into the cells from the fluid in the lumen.
3. The sodium ions enter the cells of the PCT through co-transporter proteins
which transport something else such as glucose or an amino acid.
4. The passive transport of sodium into the cells provides the energy to move
other molecules such as glucose against a concentration gradient from the
lumen into the cells lining the PCT. This is known as indirect or secondary
active transport. ATP was initially hydrolyzed to transport sodium outside
of the cells of the PCT into the blood.
5. The glucose will then move from the cells of the PCT into the blood.

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5. a. Describe the role of the kidneys in controlling blood pressure when it falls.
When blood pressure and volume drop, the kidney releases the hormone renin.
This enzyme converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
which is later converted into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II raised the blood
pressure two ways.
• It causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels. The blood volume and
pressure increase.
• It causes the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands. Aldosterone
causes the reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium at the distal
convoluted tubules. This is followed by the reabsorption of water. The
blood volume and pressure increase.
b. Describe the role of the kidneys in controlling blood pressure when it rises.
• When cardiac muscle is stretched by an increase in blood volume they
release atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH).
• ANH inhibits the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands and renin
from the kidneys.
• ANH therefore promotes the excretion of sodium.
• Water follows by osmosis.
• Blood volume and pressure decrease.

Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology

1. a. Define behavior.
Behavior is any action that can be observed and described.
b. What systems in the body control behavior?
The endocrine system and the nervous system control behavior.
2. a. Define learning.
Learning is a durable change in behavior brought about by experience.
b. Define extinction.
Learning acquired by association can be forgotten. This loss of acquired behavior
is termed extinction.
As a kitten, a cat was fed canned food and would run into the kitchen when it
heard the sound of the can opener. As an adult, the cat was fed only dry food
from a bag and no longer responded to can opener sounds. This is an example of
extinction.

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3. a. Define instinct.
An instinct is an innate behavior is a behavior that is inherited.
b. Describe the evidence that behavior has a genetic basis. Give examples of
innate behaviors.
• There are several closely related species of lovebirds or African parrots that
build their nests in different ways. The Fischer lovebirds cut large leaves into
long strips and carry them with their bills. Peach faced love birds cut shorter
strips and carry them in their feathers. The behavior for carrying nesting
material is inherited and hybrids of the two species show intermediate
behavior. The hybrids cut strips of intermediate length and show difficulty
in carrying them.
• The food preference of garter snakes has a genetic basis. Inland populations
of garter snakes feed on frogs and fish. Coastal garter snakes feed on slugs.
Mating between the two garter snake populations resulted in offspring with
an intermediate preference for slugs. A genetic difference between the two
populations of snakes results in physiological differences in their nervous
system. The inland snakes do not eat the slugs because they are insensitive
to their smell.
• Human twins that have been separated at birth and raised under different
environmental conditions have similar food preferences and activity patterns.
• Mice that first inspect their newborns receive sensory information from their
eyes, ears, nose and touch receptors. This incoming sensory information
activates the fosB gene, and a protein is produced causing cellular enzymes
and other genes to be activated. The nureal cicrutry of the hypothalamus
changes resulting in good maternal behavior.
4. a. Define coevolution.
Coevolution occurs when two or more species reciprocally affect each other's
evolution through the process of natural selection.
b. Flowers and their pollinators, such as bees, have a mutualistic relationship in
which both have co-evolved. Explain why their relationship is an example of
mutualism and coevolution.
Mutualism:
• Flowers provide animals a source of protein from pollen and carbohydrates in
the sugar of nectar.
• Plants use animals to disperse pollen for sexual reproduction.
• As both benefit from this close relationship we call this mutualism.
Coevolution:
• In mutualistic relationships it is common to find coevolution.
• The vision and olfactory abilities of animals have evolved to detect flowers.
• The color and scent of flowers have evolved to attract animals.
• The vision and olfactory abilities of animals have coevolved with the color
and scent of plants.
5. a. What is a fixed action pattern?
A fixed action pattern is a behavior that is only elicited by a sign stimulus.
b. Explain fixed action patterns using examples.
A fixed action pattern is an unchanging, innate, spontaneous behavioral response
elicited by a sign stimulus-a particular trigger in the environment. The behavior
is carried out to completion even if the original intent of the behavior can no
longer be fulfilled.

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 • The male stickleback fish is aggressive towards other male fish. The sign
stimulus is the red belly of the male fish that initiates this aggressive
behavior. Any object with a red underside initiates the same aggressive
behavior which is the fixed action pattern.
• When a graylag goose sees an egg outside its nest, it will methodically roll
the egg back into the nest with a series of maneuvers using its beak. An egg
outside the nest is the sign sign stimulus. The goose will also retrieve any
object that resembles its egg, and once the FAP has begun, it will continue
the retrieval motion until the object is brought back to the nest. Even if the
object / egg slips away or is removed, the goose completes the FAP by
returning an “imaginary” egg to the nest. An inappropriate stimulus can
sometimes trigger them.
6. a. What is imprinting?
Imprinting is a form of learning and is observed when animals follow the first
moving object they see after hatching during a particular sensitive period.
b. Describe imprinting behavior.
• Imprinting involves acquiring a specific behavior only if an appropriate
stimulus is experienced during a critical period. A critical or sensitive period,
being a limited time interval during the early stage life of the animal.
• Imprinting is a form of learning and is observed when animals follow the first
moving object they see after hatching. The object is usually the mother.
Imprinting leads to reproductive success because it enables animals to
recognize their own species. Therefore, birds can be imprinted on any object,
as long as it is the first moving object they see during a sensitive period of two
or three days after hatching.
• Graylag gosling will accept any moving object as their mother. Any object
represented after the critical period, including their real mother is rejected.
• Salmon hatch in freshwater streams and migrate to the ocean to feed. When
they are reproductively mature, they return to their birthplace to breed,
identifying the exact location on the stream. During early life they had
imprinted the odors associated with their birthplace.
7. a. Describe associative learning.
Associative learning occurs when an animal recognizes that two or more events
are connected. Classical conditioning and operant conditioning are two examples
of associative learning.
b. What is classical conditioning?
• In classical conditioning the presentation of two different stimuli at the same
time causes an animal to form an association between them.
• Classical conditioning is a form of associative learning in which an animal
performs a behavior in response to a new stimulus rather than the original
stimulus.
• For example, a dog can be conditioned to salivate in response to a bell rather
than the smell of food.
c. Differentiate between conditioned responses and unconditioned responses.
In Pavlolv’s experiment, he observed that dogs salivate when presented with
food. He rang a bell whenever the dog was fed. The dog thereafter would salivate
whenever the bell was rung, even in the absence of food. In classical
conditioning, an organism can be conditioned to associate any response to any
stimulus. Salivation in response to the sound of the bell is a conditioned response.

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 Unconditioned responses are those that occur naturally, as when the dog salivates
in response to food.
d. What is operant conditioning?
During operant conditioning a stimulus-response connection is strengthened.
e. Explain operant conditioning with the use of an example. (associative
learning)
• Operant conditioning occurs when an animal connects its own behavior with
a particular response. If the response is desirable the animal will repeat the
same behavior in order to elicit the same response.
• For example, in a dog show, the trainers present a stimulus to the dogs, like
a hoop, and the proper behavior would be jumping through the hoop. Then,
the trainer gives food (desirable response) to the dog as a reward. This is
known as positive reinforcement. The dog will repeat the same behavior of
jumping through the hoop in order to get the desirable response which in this
case is food. If the response is undesirable for example pain, the dog would
avoid the behavior that brought about the undesirable response of pain.

8. a. Define cognitive learning.

Cognitive learning involves animals learning through imitation and insight.
b. Discuss evidence that show that animals have cognitive abilities, like insight
learning.
Insight learning is the ability to apply prior learning to a new situation, without any
prevalent experience to solve a problem.
• For example, ravens were given a piece of meat attached to a string hanging
from a branch. It took time, but eventually one raven figured out how to
reach the meat. This is an example of insight learning. The other ravens were
able to reach it as well by imitating the first raven.
• A chimpanzee will stack boxes so it can climb them, providing it with access
to bananas previously beyond reach. This is an example of insight learning.
9. a. Describe observational learning with an example.
Observational learning occurs when animals copy the behavior of another animal.
Monkeys remove sand from a potato by brushing the potato with their hands.
One monkey discovered that it could more easily brush the sand away if the
potato were held in water. Through observational learning nearly all the animals
in the troop learned the behavior.
b. Describe spatial learning with an example. (form of associative learning)
Spatial learning occurs when an animal associates landmarks with the reward it
gains by being able to identify and return to the location.
Wasps are able to associate pine cones with the location of their nests. This is an
example of spatial learning. When the pine cones are removed the wasps are unable
to locate their nests.
c. Describe habituation with an example.
Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentations.
• A turtle draws its head back into its shell when its shell is touched. After
being touched repeatedly, the turtle realizes it’s not in danger and no longer
hides. This is an example of habituation.
• Young deer on the side of a highway react to cars driving by. Older deer no
longer react to the passing by of cars. This is an example of habituation.

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10. Survival responses occur when animals encounter dangerous situations. Describe
the different types of survival responses.
a. The fight-or-flight response occurs when an animal encounters a situation where it
will either choose to fight or flee.
Stress → release of adrenaline→ dilating blood vessels in skeletal muscles,
increasing heart rate, release of sugar from the liver into the blood→ the body
becomes ready to fight or flee.
b. Avoidance response occurs when an animal avoids encountering a stressful
situation.
• Avoiding areas in which predators may hide.
• Avoiding areas that provide little camouflage
• Avoiding objects that appear unfamiliar.
• Poison baits, electrified fences may also trigger an avoidance response.
c. An alarm response is triggered when an animal detects the presence of another
predator warning other individuals in its group to flee.
• Vermet monkeys emit alarms for intruders, with specific calls for a snake, a
predatory bird, and a leopard. This is an example of the alarm response.

11. G Describe parental care and identify how it may improve the fitness of an
organism.
Parental care is an innate behavior in response to producing offspring. The fitness of an
individual is dependent on the ability to pass on one’s genes to their offspring. The
offspring should survive to the next generation. To accomplish this, the young must be
sheltered from the stresses in the environment, including predators.
• Birds incubate their eggs and feed the hatchlings. This is an example of parental
care.
• Female sea horses deposit eggs into the pouch of a male, who fertilizes, incubates,
and protects them until they hatch. This is an example of parental care.
12. Explain the benefits of territoriality.
Territory is an area used for feeding, mating and shelter purposes that is defended for an
animal’s exclusive use in which competing members of its species are not welcome. The
behaviour of defending one’s territory against invasion is termed territoriality. The
benefits of territoriality are to ensure a source of food, exclusive rights to females, to have
a place to rear young, to reproduce, or to protect from predators.
13. a. What is the inclusive fitness of an organism?
Inclusive fitness includes both the reproductive success of an individual and their
relatives. When an individual’s relatives reproduce their own genes are also being
passed on to the next generation as the relative shares genes in common with the
individual. For example, when your cousin or sibling has children your genes are
also being passed on to the next generation thereby increasing your inclusive
fitness.
b. What is direct selection?
Direct selection is the adaptation to the environment due to the reproductive
success of the individual.
c. *What is kin selection?
Indirect selection, also known as kin selection is adaptation to the environment
due to the reproductive success of the individual’s relative.
14. a. GWhat is altruism?

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 Altruism is a behavior that has the potential to decrease the life reproductive
success of the altruist, while benefiting the reproductive success of another
member of the society. Altruistic behavior increases the inclusive fitness, the
fitness of the individual plus the fitness of the relative (who share genes with the
altruist).
b. Using the bee society as an example, describe altruism.
• Bees live in colonies that consist of a queen and female workers. The female
workers are sterile.
• Bees have a haplodiploidy reproductive system, in which female workers and
the queen are diploid and males are haploid. The males are born from
unfertilized eggs.
• One male will mate with the queen.
• Half of the chromosomes of all sister bees are the same from their haploid
father, they therefore share 75% of the same genes.
• In a normal diploid system, mothers and offspring and sisters are only related
by 50%.
• The inclusive fitness of a worker bee is greater if it promotes the production
of sisters then if it were to produce offspring itself.
• The sterile female workers (altruists) increase their inclusive fitness
indirectly by passing on their genes to the next generation through the queen
as she is their relative. This is an example of kin selection.
15. a. Give an account on reciprocal altruism with an example.
Reciprocal altruism is the trading of helpful or cooperative acts by individuals.
The animal that was helped will repay the debt at a later time.
For example, some birds’ offspring stay at the nest to help the parents raise the
next group of offspring.
• The birds are therefore helping the survival of their own kin, gaining inclusive
fitness through the reproduction of its relatives (carrying the same genes)
• The helper is more likely to inherit a parental territory.
Reciprocal altruism also occurs in animals that are NOT necessarily closely related.
• An animal helps an animal with no immediate benefit.
• If the animal helped refuses to reciprocate they will be banned from future
events.
• Vampire bats share their blood with other bats in the roost. If a bat fails to
share blood with one that had previously shared blood with it, the cheater bat
will be excluded from future blood sharing.
b. What are the requirements for reciprocal altruism?
• The altruist must be able to recognize the individual it has helped, to make
sure it may collect the debt at a later time.
• The altruist must have a long lifetime, so it may collect the debt at a later
time.
• The altruist and the organism helps must have multiple interactions.
• The altruist and organism helped must have a good long term memory, so as
to remember the debt that has to be paid.
16. *Discuss foraging behaviour.
Food gathering is called foraging for food. Foraging behaviours require responses to
visual and chemical stimuli.
a. Fruit color may help animals differentiate edible ripe fruit from fruit that is
unpalatable (unpleasant to the taste) or toxic. A food toxic to one animal may be

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 nutritious to another, as some animals have evolved metabolic pathways to detoxify
plant material. Animals may even utilize the toxins for their own use.
• Red coloring distinguishes edible from toxic tomatoes.
• Monarch butterflies utilize the toxins in milkweed plants to make themselves
unpalatable to bird predators.
b. Body scents are often detected by prey as signals to the presence of predators.
• Zebras increase their vigilance when they detect the body odour of lions.
17. Discuss kinesis as a form of animal movement.
Kinesis is an undirected change in speed of an animal’s movement in response to a
stimulus. The animal slows down in a favourable environment or speeds up in an
unfavourable environment. As a result, the animal remains longer in favourable
environments.
• When a rock is lifted animals underneath will suddenly scurry about. These
movements are in response to light or temperature or any other stimuli recognized
to the animals as unfavourable. This is an example of kinesis.
18. Discuss taxis as a form of animal movement.
Taxis is a directed movement in response to a stimulus. Movement may be directed
toward or away from a stimulus. Movement in response to light is phototaxis. Movement
in response to chemicals is chemotaxis. If it is towards, it is positive chemotaxis.
• Bacteria move towards nutrients. This is an example of positive chemotaxis.
• Moths move towards light. This is an example of positive phototaxis.
• Sharks move towards food when odours reach them by diffusion or ocean currents.
This is an example of positive chemotaxis.
19. a. What is migration?
Migration is the long distance travel from one location to another.
b. What is the difference between the migration of an experienced bird and an
inexperienced bird?
• Migration requires orientation, the ability to travel in a particular direction.
• Experienced animals are able to navigate, meaning they are able to change
their direction in response to environmental clues that tell them they are
currently heading in the wrong direction.
• Inexperienced animals are not able to navigate and if headed in the wrong
direction, they would not be able to correct themselves, most probably
never reaching the intended destination.
• Starlings typically travel from the Baltics to Great Britain. In an
experiment, starlings were captured and transported to Switzerland.
Experienced birds were able to correct their flight direction and still ended
up in Great Britain, whereas inexperienced birds ended up in Spain.
c. Give examples of animals that migrate.
A variety of animals migrate with the ultimate goal of reaching a favorable
environment for survival and reproduction.
• For example, the loggerhead sea turtles hatch on Florida beach and then
travel across the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea where there is an
abundance of food.
• Monarch butterflies fly from North America to Mexico where milkweed
plants are available so they can feed on their larva.
20. Discuss the circadian rhythms of animals.

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 A circadian rhythm is behavior that occurs in a 24-hour cycle. The circadian rhythm is
maintained by an internal mechanism, known as the biological clock. Day/night
rhythms are displayed by all animals.
Diurnal animals are active during the day and sleep at night. Nocturnal animals such as
bats are active at night and rest during the day.
• The kangaroo rat is only active in the early evening hours, when risk from
predation by owls is at a minimum.
• In humans the biological clock is maintained by the hormone melatonin, which is
produced by the pineal gland. The gland has neural connections with the eye
which it uses to obtain external stimuli. The jet lag we experience when changing
time zones is a result of a delay in the response of the pineal gland to changes in
external stimuli received by the eyes.
21. Discuss the different types of behavioral rhythms an animal may exhibit in
response to changes in the season.
To maximize fitness (survival and reproduction) animals adjust their behavior to take
advantage of the season.
a. Hibernation is a behavior characterized by an extended period of sleep or
dormancy to avoid the hostile environment that comes with winter when the food
is scarce.
• Annual plants die and other plants drop their leaves.
• Animals reduce energy use by decreasing their temperature and minimizing
metabolic processes.
b. *Estivation is a behavior characterized by dormancy during summer or hot
weather. Estivating animals protect themselves from desiccation.
• Frogs bury themselves in mud.
• Tortoises escape to underground burrows.
c. Courtship and mating often occur during the spring season when there is an
abundance of food. This not only provides energy for mating, but also supplies the
pregnant mother with nourishment for fetal development.
d. Migration is the season movement of animals in response to season changes in
abundance of food.
22. a. GDefine communication.
Communication is an action by a sender that may influence the behavior of a
receiver.
b. GDiscuss chemical communication among animals.
Chemicals used for communication are called pheromones. Pheromones are
chemical signals in low concentrations that are passed between members of the
same species.
• Female moths attract male moths by emitting pheromones in the air.
• Male mammals exhibit territoriality when they spray urine on their
territories to warn other animals of the same species to keep out.
c. GWhat are the advantages of auditory communication?
• Auditory communication is fast, effective both day and night, and can be
modified by loudness, pattern, duration, and repetition.
• Birds may have a song for distress, another for courting, and another for
marking territories.
d. GGive examples of visual communication among animals.
• Male baboons exhibit a threatening posture in order to establish dominance
in the troop. This is an example of visual communication.

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 • Fireflies use flash patterns to attract a reproductive partner of the same
species. This is an example of visual communication and a source of
reproductive isolation by acting as a behavioral isolating mechanism.
• Reproductive behavior in stickleback fish: The red belly of the male fish
attracts females. This is an example of visual communication.
e. GGive examples of tactile communication between animals.
Tactile communication occurs when animals touch each other.
• The laughing gull chick pecks at the parent’s bill to induce the parent to
feed them. This is an example of tactile communication.
• Honeybees do a waggle dance to indicate the direction and distance of a
food source. This is an example of tactile communication.
23. Describe how foraging bees communicate the exact location of food to other
members of the hive.
• As the bee moves between two loops of a figure 8 it shakes its entire body in
“waggles”.

• Outside the hive: The dance is done on a horizontal surface and the straight run
indicates the direction of the food.
• Inside the hive: The angle of the straight run to that of the direction of gravity
(vertical) is the same as the angle of the food source to the

24. Identify the foraging behaviors that have evolved to optimize feeding.
a. Herds, flocks, and schools- allow individuals in a group to remain concealed. A
group of individuals can shield their young or attack their predator.
b. When predators travel in packs they may more easily capture large prey.
c. Search images allow animals to find their food by seeking an image of the food.
25. Give an example of how social interaction may be involved in learning.
Learning involves social interaction. Sparrows learn to sing from older members of
their species.
• A group of birds that heard no songs at all grew up to sing songs that were not
fully developed.
• A second group of birds heard tapes of sparrows singing. When grown up these
birds sang songs only if the tapes were heard during a sensitive period at age 10 to
15 days. If the tapes were not heard during their sensitive period, they had no
effect.
• A third group of birds were given an adult tutor. The birds were able to sing no
matter when the tutoring took place.
26. a. GDefine sexual selection.

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 Sexual selection is a type of natural selection where members of one sex choose
mates of the other sex to mate with and compete with members of the same sex
for access to members of the opposite sex. It leads to adaptive changes in males
and females that increase the chances of finding a mate and therefore leads to
increased fitness.
b. Describe the female choice.
Females produce few eggs compared to the production of sperm in males so
choosing the best mate is important to females. Female choice explains why males
are more ornate. Female choice also explains competition and territoriality among
males.
c. State the two hypotheses that explain how females choose their mates.
• The good genes hypothesis states that females choose their mates based on
traits that improve chances of survival. For example, when observing satin
bower birds, it was discovered that males with more aggressive behavior
were more likely chosen to reproduce. Aggressiveness increases the chance
of survival.
• Runaway hypothesis states that females choose their mates based on
appearance.
d. Define sexual dimorphism with an example.
Sexual dimorphism occurs when males and females differ in appearance and
traits. The Raggiana Bird of Paradise is an example of sexual dimorphism. Males
are larger and brightly colored when compared to females. Males have evolved
these traits due to sexual selection. Female birds have repeatedly chosen males
with brightly colored feathers for reproduction. The males with the bright feathers
are able to have more offspring and pass on these genes to the next generation.
Term 2, Week 8

Chapter 44: Population Ecology

1. a. Define ecology.
Ecology is the study of the interactions among all organisms, between organisms
and with their physical environment.
b. Define habitat.
The habitat is the place where an organism lives.
c. Define population
Population is all the organisms belonging to the same species within an area at the
same time.
d. Define community.
A community consists of all the populations of multiple species interacting at a
locale.
e. Define ecosystem.
An ecosystem is composed of the community of populations (several species) as
well as abiotic factors such as sunlight.
2. a. Define resource.
Resources are abiotic and biotic components of the environment that support living
organisms. Ex) light, water, space, mates, and food
b. Define limiting factor. Give examples of limiting factors for named organisms.
Limiting factors are environmental factors that limit population size and therefore
determine where an organism lives.
• Trout live only in cool mountain streams where the oxygen content is high.

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 • The timberline is the limit of tree growth at high altitudes. Trees cannot grow
cannot grow above the timberline because of the low temperatures.
• Red kangaroo will only be found in areas where grasses are found.
c. Mention examples of limiting factors.
Lack of food supply, lack of mineral ions in plants, lack of refuge from predators
and safe nesting sites are example of limiting factors.
3. a. Define population distribution.
Population distribution is the pattern in which individuals of the same population
are spread out in their environment. Population distribution is effected by resource
availability.
b. Describe the three types of distribution patterns.
1) Clumped Dispersion: The individuals aggregate in patches throughout the
surrounding areas.
For example: ducks tend to group in an area that has plenty of food and a
body of water. This provides social interactions that allow learning from
others and protection.
2) Random Dispersion: The position of each individual is independent to the
other individuals.
This is observed only when the conditions in the habitat like resource
availability is fairly constant, but this is very unusual to find.
For example: the wolf spider it is a solitary hunter on the forest floors. The
members of this population are always seen randomly distributed in their
habitat.
3) Uniform Dispersion: The individuals are evenly distributed.
It arises mostly out of territoriality and competition for essential resources.
For example: desert shrubs are uniformly distributed because their roots
compete for resources, which promotes distant growth.

c. State how territoriality can effect population distribution.

Territoriality discourages a clumped distribution.
d. Plants that reproduce asexually or plants that reproduce sexually but disperse
their seeds nearby are more likely follow which pattern of distribution?
Plant that reproduce asexually or who disperse their seeds nearby are more likely
follow the clumped pattern of distribution.
4. a. What is species density and how is it calculated?
Species density is a measure of how many individuals there are per unit area.
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑢𝑑𝑎𝑙𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑑
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑠
b. The results below were recorded for a species of plant, Rafflesia arnoldii, found
on the forest floor. The area of the quadrat used was 0.25 𝒎𝟐 .
Quadrat 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

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 Rafflesia arnoldii 0 3 0 1 0 0 5 2 0 1

Calculate the species density.

𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑢𝑑𝑎𝑙𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑑
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑠
3+1+5+2+1
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 10𝑋0.25 𝑚2 = 4.8/𝑚2
5. a. What is standard deviation?
Standard deviation is a statistic to know how far data is spread on either side of a
mean value. The larger the standard deviation, the wider the variation from the
mean.
b. What is the formula used to calculate standard deviation?

𝑥̅ =mean
𝑥 = 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑎 𝑖𝑛 𝑎 𝑠𝑒𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑎
n = total number of observations
s = standard deviation
c. A study was carried out on two species of birds found in the same forest. For
each pair of nesting adults, the distance to the next closest nesting pair of the
same species was measured. The results are shown in the table below.
Species Mean Nearest- Median Nearest- Range Nearest-
Neighbor Distance Neighbor Distance Neighbor Distance
(km) (km) (km)
I 0.36 0.48 0.25-0.50
II 0.31 0.33 0.27-0.36
What should be calculated to identify which species has the most even
distribution of nests?
Standard deviation of the nearest neighbour distance for each of the two species.
The species with a smaller standard deviation has a smaller deviation from the
mean nearest neighbour distance and therefore has a more even distribution of
nests.
6. a. Define population size.
Population size is the number of individuals in a population.
b. Which factors affect population size?
Birth rate, death rate and movement of individuals affect population size.
c. State when a population:
Grows in size.
Falls in size.
A population grows in size when there are more births than deaths, and when new
members enter the population (immigrate).
A population falls when there are more deaths than births and when the individuals
leave the population (emigrate).
7. a. How can the rate of natural increase (r) of a population be calculated?
The rate of natural increase (r) is determined by deducting the number of individuals
that die each year from the number of individuals born each year.
b. If the number of births per year is 45 and the number of deaths per year is 15
in a population of 1000, calculate the growth rate.

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 (𝟒𝟓 − 𝟏𝟓)
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟑𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟑%
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
8. a. What is biotic potential (BP)?
The highest possible rate of natural increase for a population is called biotic
potential.

b. What factors affect biotic potential?

1. Number of offspring per reproductive event that survive until the age of
reproduction.
2. Amount of competition within the population.
3. Age of and number of reproductive opportunities.
4. Presence of disease.
5. Presence of predators.
9. Explain the three types of survivorship curves using examples.
Survivorship is the probability of new individuals that are born around the same time
(same generation) to survive to a particular age. A survivorship curve is a graph showing
how many members of the same generation remain alive over time.
Type I:
• Shows that survival is high until late in life.
• It is typical of animals that bear one or very few offspring at a time.
• It is typical of animals that give extensive parental care to their young and
reproductive events are late in life.
• This is typical of larger mammals.
• Type I curve is common for human populations living in more developed countries
with access to good health care services.
Type II:
• Shows that death is unrelated to age.
• The curve, in this case, decreases at a constant rate through life span because old
individuals are about as likely to die of disease or predation as young ones.
• This is typical of large terrestrial lizards, small mammals and big birds.
Type III:
• Shows that death comes early in life, so few individuals live long enough to
reproduce.
• This is typical of species that produce many small offspring and provide little or no
parental care to their young.
• This curve is common for marine invertebrates, insects, fish, plants, fungi and
human populations living in less developed countries without access to good health
care services.

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10. Describe exponential growth.
• The population grows fast at a fixed percentage in consecutive time intervals (for
example: doubling the size of the population each time). The population grows at
its maximum rate.
• The size of the next generation is determined by the size of the current generation.
• For this type of growth to occur it is necessary that plenty of food, habitat, shelter
and resources to support the growing population are available. There is no
competition between members of the population.
• Plotting the size of this population against time always gives a J-shaped curve
showing two distinct phases:
1. Lag phase: growth is slow because the population is small.
2. Exponential growth phase: growth is accelerating

11. GDescribe logistic growth.

• When a population grows slowly at the beginning, then increases rapidly until it
reaches the maximum number of individuals that the environment can support and
then it levels off due to limiting factors.
• Plotting the size of this population against time always gives an S-shaped curve
showing three distinct phases.
1. Lag phase: growth is slow because the population is small.
2. Exponential growth phase: Population grows at its maximal rate.
3. Deceleration phase: growth decreases due to environmental resistance

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12. Use the following curve to answer the following questions

a. At which phase is growth slow due to small population?

Phase I, the lag phase.
b. At which phase does growth slow down?
Phase II, the deceleration phase.
c. At which phase is the death rate equal to the birth rate?
Phase IV, the stable equilibrium phase at which the population has reached its
carrying capacity.
d. Which phase explains the exponential growth phase?
Phase II, it is accelerating growth
13. a. GDefine carrying capacity.
Carrying capacity (K) is the maximum number of individuals of a species that a
given environment can sustain indefinitely.

b. What is the effect of carrying capacity on exponential growth?

Carrying capacity (k) is the maximum number of individuals of a given species the
environment can support. Exponential growth ceases when the environment cannot
support a large population size anymore.
14. The graph below represents the changes in the population of sheep that were
introduced to an island.

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 a. Name the type of population growth represented by the part of the graph in
the bracket.
Exponential growth
b. Draw a graph representing the changes in the sheep population that would
have resulted from a sustained increase in the primary productivity of the
environment. Explain the shape of the graph.

• Primary productivity is the rate at which plants convert light energy into
chemical potential energy in organic compounds. If primary productivity is
increased this makes more organic compounds (chemical energy) available
for the increase in the sheep population. There would be no competition for
food; therefore, the carrying capacity of the sheep population would increase.
• Eventually other density dependent limiting factors would come into play
such as spread of pathogens and parasites, waste products build-up,
predation, and competition. The population size will then level off at
carrying capacity.
15. a. How can the growth rate of a population be calculated?
𝒃𝒊𝒓𝒕𝒉𝒔 − 𝒅𝒆𝒂𝒕𝒉𝒔
𝒓=
𝑵
𝒓 = 𝒓𝒆𝒑𝒓𝒐𝒅𝒖𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒗𝒆 𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒆 𝒐𝒓 𝒈𝒓𝒐𝒘𝒕𝒉 𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒆
𝑵 = 𝒑𝒐𝒑𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒔𝒊𝒛𝒆 𝒂𝒕 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒃𝒆𝒈𝒊𝒏𝒏𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒐𝒇 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒊𝒏𝒕𝒆𝒓𝒗𝒂𝒍
b. If a population of size N=1000 had 60 births and 10 deaths over a one year
period, then calculate the growth rate?
𝟔𝟎−𝟏𝟎
𝒓 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 0.05/year
16. a. How can exponential growth be calculated?
𝒅𝑵
= 𝒓𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝑵
𝒅𝑻
(𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑤𝑡ℎ)
(𝑁 = 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑧𝑒)
b. How can logistic growth be calculated?
For logistic growth we must take into account the carrying capacity therefore we
add
𝐾−𝑁
( 𝐾 ) to the equation of exponential growth. As the population size increases
towards the carrying capacity the number of births is expected to decrease and

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 number of deaths to increase until the net rate of growth is zero as indicated by the
horizontal line (phase IV).

𝒅𝑵 𝑲−𝑵
= 𝒓𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝑵 ( 𝑲 )
𝒅𝑻
(𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑤𝑡ℎ 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛)
(𝑁 = 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑧𝑒)
(K is the carrying capacity)
c. A population of 250 fish inhabit a pond that has a carrying capacity of 400
fish. What is the maximum possible growth rate if the population grows to
283 in one year?
𝑑𝑁 𝐾−𝑁
= 𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑁 ( 𝐾 )
𝑑𝑇
𝑑𝑁
→ (283 − 250)
𝑑𝑇
𝑁 → 250
K→ 400
400−250
(283 − 250) = 𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 (250) ( 400 )
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑚𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑤𝑡ℎ 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = 0.35
d. Based on the equation for logistic growth when is the net rate of increase in
the population the greatest?
𝒅𝑵 𝑲−𝑵
= 𝒓𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝑵 ( 𝑲 )
𝒅𝑻

When N is small compared to K. In other words, when the population size is well
below carrying capacity.
17. What is the difference between density-dependent and density-independent factors
that impact population size and growth?
Density-dependent factors:
• These factors increase death rates or decrease birth rates.
• Come into play or worsen as the population size increases (crowding).
• Usually involve biotic factors.
• For example: food shortage, spread of pathogens and parasites, waste products
build-up, predation, and competition.
Density-independent factors:
• These factors increase death rates and decrease birth rates.
• They come into play regardless of population size and are not influenced by
crowding.
• Usually involve abiotic factors.

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 • For example: fires, hurricanes, snowstorms, earthquakes, tsunamis or any other
natural disaster.
18. Classify each of the following as a density-independent limitation or as a density-
dependent limitation on a population.
a. In larger population densities of rabbits, the percentage of rabbits infected
with bacteria is greater.
Density-dependent. Spread of disease by pathogens such as bacteria are biotic
limiting factors that are more likely to affect larger populations closer to carrying
capacity.
b. At greater concentrations of bacteria, nutrient supplies diminish and
population growth ceases.
Density-dependent. Competition is a limiting factor more likely to affect larger
populations closer to carrying capacity.
c. At higher temperatures, more tomoto plants in a population become infested
with nematodes than at lower temperatures.
Density-independent. Temperature is an abtioic limiting factor that comes into play
regardless of population size and is not influenced by crowding.
d. In denser stands of oak trees, greater percentages of trees are attacked by
gypsy moths than less dense stands.
Density dependent. The consumption of producers by herbivores is a biotic limiting
factor that is more likely to affect lager populations of producers.
19. a. What is a reproductive strategy?
Reproductive strategies are approaches to reproduction taken by species that
maximize their lifetime and reproductive success. For example: timing of
reproduction, frequency of reproductive opportunities and how much parental
investment should be given to the offspring.
b. Compare and contrast semelparity and iteroparity – give advantages of each
as they apply to an example organism – focus on the adaptive benefit of the
life history.
Semelparity:
• This is when an organism gets one chance to reproduce in its lifetime and
produce many offspring.
• The adult stops growing and spends all energy in reproduction and then dies.
• This is an advantage when it is unlikely that organisms get a second chance
to reproduce and live in unpredictable and unstable environments.
• Annual plants follow this pattern. They produce a dormant stage of
development, the seed, which can withstand unfavourable conditions.
• For example: Agave trees and bamboos release their seeds until the conditions
are right and then they die because the environmental conditions that favour
reproduction occur only sporadically.
• Pacific salmon reproduce once and die because for them to reproduce they
have to travel a life-threatening journey from the sea to a stream.
Iteroparity.
• This is when an organism will repeatedly get the chance to reproduce a limited
amount of offspring.
• They invest energy in their own future survival.
• This is most common in environments that are predictable and stable.
• Vertebrates and trees have this pattern of reproduction.

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20. GNatural selection favours reproductive strategies. Compare and contrast the two
types of selection that influence reproductive strategies of organisms.
K-selection.
• Type of selection that favours individuals with traits that allow them to compete
well in crowded conditions. The population is near the carrying capacity.
• This is also called density-dependent selection.
• The species subject to K-selection have the following characteristics.
✓ Have big bodies
✓ Population grows slow.
✓ Reproduce slowly.
✓ Live longer
✓ Have few offspring and giving extensive parental care.
✓ Live in stable environments
✓ For example: Oak trees, elephants, monkeys and humans.
R-selection.
• Type of selection that favours individuals with traits that maximize reproductive
success in un-crowded environments.
• This is also called density-independent selection.
• The species subject to r-selection have the following characteristics:
✓ Have small body size.
✓ Population grows fast.
✓ Reproduce when still young.
✓ Reproduce fast.
✓ Live short lives.
✓ Maximise the quantity of their offspring by producing many small offspring
and giving very little or no parental care. Many offspring die before
reproducing.
✓ Live in unpredictable and unstable environments.
✓ For example: Dandelions, opportunistic weeds, yeast, insects, bacteria.

Term 2, Week 9

Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology

1. G Describe the two main characteristics that make communities different from each
other.
a. Species composition is also known as species richness. It is a list of all the species
found in the community. For example, a coniferous forest community differs in the
type of organism living there to those living in a tropical rain forest.
b. Species diversity which is a measure of the species richness AND it refers to the
relative abundance of the different species living in the community. The greater the
species richness and the more even the distribution of the species the greater the
species diversity. It is measured using Simpson’s Index of Diversity.
For example, a pond in which six different fish species living in nearly equal
number has a higher species diversity than a pond in which one species of fish is
more abundant than the other five.
2. a. What does the Simpson’s Index of Diversity represent?
Simpson’s Index of Diversity represents the value for species diversity. A value
near 0 represents a very low species diversity whereas a value near 1 represents a
very high species diversity.
b. What is the formula used to calculate Simpson’s Index of Diversity?

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 𝑛 2
𝐷 = 1 − (∑ ( ) )
𝑁
n is the total number of organisms of a particular species and N is the total number
of organisms of all the species.
c. In a survey of deciduous forest five tree species were identified. The number
of trees within a 100m by 100 m area were counted.
Tree Species Number
A 56
B 48
C 12
D 6
E 3
Calculate the Simpson’s Index of Diversity for the trees.

d. The Simpson’s Index of Diversity for the trees in forest A was 0.7. For a
similar sized forest B it was 0.3. What can be concluded from the results?
Forest A has a high biodiversity. Forest B has a low biodiversity.
3. a. Explain ecological niche.
Ecological niche refers to the role an organism plays in its community which
includes the conditions necessary for survival, resources required, habitat and
interactions with other organisms.
For example, the niche of a caterpillar includes: the temperature it can tolerate,
the kind of food it can eat, the type of places where in can hide and reproduce.
Whereas, the niche of a plant includes: the type of soil it needs, the amount of
water consumed, the amount of light received during the day and the
requirements for pollination and seed dispersal (insects, animals or wind).
b. Differentiate between fundamental niche and realized niche.
The fundamental niche consists of the abiotic conditions under which species can
survive when adverse biotic conditions are absent.
The realized niche consists of conditions under which species can survive in the
presence of adverse biotic factors such as competition and predation.
The realized niche is smaller than the fundamental niche.
c. Differentiate between the two types of ecological niche using the competition
between the two varieties of barnacles as an example.
Two species of barnacle, Cthalamus and Balanus, both live on rocks exposed to
high and low tides. When the tide is low, the rocks are mostly exposed to air;
whereas when the tide is high, the rocks are mostly covered by the sea. Cthalamus
is able to last longer in the air than Balanus. However, Balanus is more efficient
when using the rocks as a living space than Cthalamus. Therefore, the rocks are

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 mostly taken over by Balanus up to a point. Cthalamus is left to live only on the
top part the rocks, because after a certain point Balanus cannot survive exposed to
air as efficiently as Cthalamus.
The fundamental niche of Cthalamus would be all parts of the rocks however the
realized niche includes only the upper part of the rock due to competition for
space with Balanus.

4. a. Explain competition.
Competition is when individuals contend for a specific resource that is in limited
supply. If the resource is not limited, there is no competition.
b. Which are the two types of competition?
1) Intraspecific competition. When individuals of the same species compete for
a limited resource.
For example: When two individuals of the same species compete over a mate.
2) Interspecific competition. When individuals of different species compete for
a limited resource and both are harmed by this interaction.
For example: When eagles and foxes fight over carcasses or when blue jay,
deer, and squirrels all compete for acorns. They do not fight over the acorns,
but the consumption of storage of acorns reduces the number of acorns
available to other species.
c. Explain competitive exclusion principle.
The competitive exclusion principle states that no two species can indefinitely
occupy the same niche at the same time. When two species compete for a limited
resource, one drives the other to extinction on that particular area.
Two species of paramecium were successfully grown in separate test tubes
containing food, but when grown together in a single test tube only one species was
able to survive.
d. What is resource partitioning?
Resource partitioning is subdividing the use of an essential resource. This reduces
competition among species with similar needs and allows them to coexist. This
method increases niche specialization and decreases niche overlap.
For example: owls and hawks, both feed on small rodents, but owls are nocturnal
animals, while hawks are active during the day.
e. Competition for food would most probably be most severe between
• Ecological equivalents in different niches.
• Unrelated species in the same community occupying different niches.
• Unrelated species in different communities.
• Closely related species in similar niches
• Closely related species in different niches.
5. a. Define character displacement.

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 Character displacement is the tendency for characteristics to be more divergent
when populations belong to the same community than when they are isolated.
b. Describe character displacement in finches.
• When three different species of finches exist on separate islands their beaks
tend to be of intermediate size so that they can feed on a wide range of seeds.
• When the three different species co-exist on the same island. Their beaks
have evolved by natural selection so that each species has a particular beak
shape for a particular type of seed. They avoid competition by resource
partitioning. Character displacement has occurred.
6. a. Describe predation.
Predation is when one species feeds on and typically kills another species.
b. Describe the factors that can cause predator and prey population to cycle in
a predictable manner.
There are two factors that cause predator and prey population to cycle:
i. The predator reduces the population density of the prey which leads to a
decline in the predator population; later when the prey population restores so
does the predator population.
ii. The lack of food causes the prey population to decline followed by the
predator population; later when food is available to prey population they both
recover.

c. Use the following curve to explain at what point on the graph the decline in
rabbit population act as a limiting factor to the survival of the foxes, leading
to a decline in their population size:

At point B, the population of rabbits has declined to the point where the foxes are
starting to feel the reduction in their food supply. The fox survival curve soon
begins its decline that leads to the revival of the rabbits.

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7. State the main prey defences.
1) Camouflage. The physical appearance of an organism helps it to blend into its
surroundings

2) Warning coloration. Distinctive colour or pattern that predators identify with well-
defended species and they tend to avoid them.

3) Fright. Organisms have elaborated structures to cause a startle response in

predators.

4) Mimicry. It is when one species resembles another that has an evident anti-predator
defence.

8. Distinguish between Batesian and Mullerian mimicry.

Batesian mimicry: Type of mimicry in which organisms resemble another but lack
defence mechanism themselves. For example: Flower flies have yellow/black bands but
they are unable to sting.
Mullerian mimicry: Type of mimicry in which organisms have the same defence
mechanism. For example: stinging insects like bees, wasps, bumble bees have alternating
yellow/black band
9. G Distinguish between each type of symbiotic relationship using one example.
1) Parasitism: a type of symbiosis where one species, the parasite causes harm to
another, the host. The parasite is provided with nourishment, or a place to live and
reproduce from the host. The parasite usually does not kill the host. As the
abundance of the parasite increases, the abundance of the host decreases.
For example: Bacteria, like Mycobacteria bacteria that causes tuberculosis; Fungi,
like the one that causes Athlete’s foot in humans; Protists, like the one that causes
malaria; plants, like Indian pipe; animals, like tapeworms and viruses.
2) Commensalism: It is the relationship between two species where one benefits, while
the other is neither harmed nor benefited. The abundance of one species increases,
while the other is not affected.
For example: Orchids live attached to branches or the trunk of trees. The fern
benefits from getting a perch to receive sunlight and get their roots exposed to air
to obtain nutrients. However, the trees get no benefit from this relationship.
3) Mutualism: It is a relationship where both members benefit, hence the abundance
of both species increases.

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 For example: The clown fish hides from predators between the tentacles of
anemones in return of chasing away other fish species that feed on the anemones’
tentacles.
10. G Identify different types of interactions between and among populations.
Predation occurs when a predator feeds upon prey. Symbiosis, the close association of
two species over a long period, comes in several forms. Parasitism occurs when a
parasite takes nourishment from its host.
Commensalism occurs when one species gains a benefit from the relationship and there
is no impact on the other.
Mutualism occurs when both species involved in a relationship receive a positive
benefit.
Organisms might compete for resources when these become limited, or they might
cooperate to get their needs in certain cases.
11. a. GDefine alien species.
Alien species are an invasive species that has moved from one ecosystem to
another where they were previously unknown.
b. GHow are alien species introduced to an ecosystem?
✓ People trade plants and animals and carry them onto ships.
✓ Others have been introduced as biological controls to control pest species.
✓ Animals are released for sport.
c. GThe cane toad was introduced to Australia from Hawaii to control the pest
of the sugar. Outline the adverse effects this alien species had on the native
species.
✓ It breeds rapidly and has widely spread.
✓ Produces a powerful toxin that kills most animals that eat it. The norther
quoll tries to eat the toad and is now greatly reduced in number.
✓ They eat the chicks of ground dwelling birds.
✓ They compete with other amphibians for food.
d. GOutline the variety of effects alien/invasive species have on their
environments.
✓ They are successful predators
✓ They have few controls and predators
✓ Compete with organisms that occupy the same niche, pushing them to
extinction.
✓ They may spread disease.
✓ Some aquatic plants spread rapidly when introduced to a new aquatic
environment. They block the sunlight from reaching the native plants and
reduce the oxygen concentration of water killing fish.
✓ Compete with native species for space.
e. GC. taxifolia is a green alga native to the Indian Ocean, but was found on the
coast of California. It is known for its aggressive growth and ability to
compete with sea grasses. It is on an international list of invasive species.
Predict the consequences of the introduction of C. taxifolia to the California
coast.
Without natural herbivores or competitors, C. taxifolia will grow rapidly and
crowd out native producers.
f. Water hyacinth is a beautiful aquatic plant introduced to the U.S. from
South America as an ornamental. Water hyacinth grow and reproduce
quickly, spread aggressively and compete with aquatic plants for sunlight.

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 Predict the consequence of introduction of the water hyacinth to the U.S. by
completing the statement below.
Water hyacinth is an invasive species that is most likely to outcrowd the native
aquatic plants of the U.S.
12. Lionfish is found primarily in the Indian Ocean. It was accidentally released into
the Atlantic Ocean, where it found abundant resources and favorable
environmental conditions.
a. Lionfish were introduced into an environment in which they were not native
and had abundant resources with favorable conditions. What is the term
used to describe such organisms?
Invasive species.
b. Describe a scenario in which the lionfish is likely to have a major impact on
the community into which it was introduced?
With no natural predators, the lionfish population will become very large.
13. G Define keystone species with an example.
✓ A keystone species is a plant or animal that plays a unique and crucial role in the
way an ecosystem functions. Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be
dramatically different or cease to exist altogether.
✓ Keystone species, producers, and essential abiotic and biotic factors contribute to
maintaining the diversity of an ecosystem.
✓ The effects of keystone species on the ecosystem are disproportionate relative to
their abundance in the ecosystem, and when they are removed from the
ecosystem, the ecosystem often collapses.
✓ The African Bush elephant is a keystone species of the savannah grasslands.
Elephant dung provides a habitat for fungi and beetles. They eat many trees
which helps to maintain the ecosystem. They are at hunted illegally for their ivory.
14. a. What is ecological succession?
Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of a
community over time. It involves a series of species replacements.
b. Distinguish between primary and secondary succession.
Primary succession: It takes places in areas that lack soil and have very few or no
existing species. For example: A rocky area in Greenland after the retreat of a
glacial.
1) At first only unicellular organisms are present.
2) Pioneer species colonize the new habitat; like: mosses and lichens.
3) Generation of pioneers live and die, which promotes the formation of soil.
4) Shrubs take root on the newly formed soil and replace pioneer species.
5) Shrubs live and die, which promotes the formation of more soil.
6) Trees take root on the area with enriched soil and replace the shrubs.
Secondary succession: It takes place after a natural or human disturbance removes
the natural array of species, but not the soil. For example: after a fire that destroys
a forest, or a cultivated field is abandoned and wild species start growing. This type
of succession follows stages 2 to 6 describe for primary succession
c. What is a climax community?
This refers to a community that results when succession has come to an area

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 d. Outline the models of succession.
Facilitated model of succession: Each group of species prepares the way for the
next group of species. The grass prepares the soil for the shrubs. The shrubs
prepare the soil for the trees.
Inhibition model of succession: Colonists hold onto their space and inhibit the
growth of other plants until the colonists die.
Tolerance model of succession: Different types of plants can colonize an area at
the same time. Chance determines which seeds arrive first and trees appear later
simply because they take longer to mature than shrubs.
15. a. What is an autotroph?
Autotrophs are organisms that require only inorganic nutrients and an outside
energy source to produce organic nutrients for their own use and for all the
members of the community. Autotrophs include photoautotrophs and
chemoautotrophs.
b. What are photoautotrophs?
Photoautotrophs perform photosynthesis and possess chlorophyll.
Algae are aquatic photoautotrophs and green plants are the dominant
photoautotrophs on land.
c. What are chemoautotrophs?
Chemo-autotrophs include chemosynthetic bacteria found in hydrothermal vents
where sunlight is unavailable. They get their energy by oxidizing inorganic
compounds such as ammonia and hydrogen gas and use the energy to synthesize
organic compounds. They carry out chemosynthesis.
d. What are heterotrophs?
Heterotrophs are organisms that need pre-formed source of organic nutrients.
They are also known as consumers. Heterotrophs include herbivores, carnivores,
omnivores, detrivores, and decomposers.
16. a. What is a herbivore?
Herbivores are animals that gaze directly on plants or algae. Examples of
herbivores include insects.
b. What is a carnivore?
Carnivores are animals that feed on other animals. Birds that feed on insects are
carnivores.
c. What is an omnivore?
An omnivore is an animal that feeds on both plants and animals. Chickens,
raccoons and humans are omnivores.
d. What is a detrivore?

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 Detritivores are organisms that feed on detritus, which consists of decomposing
particles of organic matter. Earthworms and ants are detrivores.
e. What are decomposers?
Decomposers include bacteria and fungi. Decomposers are organisms that
breakdown dead organic matter. They are of significance in most ecosystems
because they release and recycle minerals and inorganic substance to be used by
plants one more.
17. Briefly outline the energy flow throughout the ecosystem.
• Light energy is captured by plants and converted into chemical energy in the form
of glucose, starch, fats and proteins during photosynthesis.
• When the plants need energy they break down some of these organic compounds
in the process of respiration.
• Animals get their get their energy by ingesting plants or by ingesting animals
which have eaten plants.
• The chemical energy is passed along the food chain when animals ingest other
organisms.
• Decomposers get their energy form the dead organisms and the organic wastes.
• Eventually all the energy is dissipated to the environment as heat.
18. a. Define trophic level.
A trophic level is the position of an organism in a food chain, food web, pyramid
of biomass or pyramid of numbers.
b. Define primary consumer.
A primary consumer is the first consumer in a food chain.
A primary consumer occupies the second trophic level in a food chain.
A primary consumer is an animal which feeds on the producer (plant) or on the
organic materials made by plants during photosynthesis.
A primary consumer is an herbivore.
c. Define secondary consumer.
A secondary consumer is the second consumer in a food chain.
A secondary consumer occupies the third trophic level in a food chain.
A secondary consumer is an animal which eats another animal.
A secondary consumer is a carnivore.
d. Describe an example of a terrestrial food chain in a desert.

Cactus is the producer because it captures the sunlight energy. Producers occupy
the first trophic level.
The field vole is the primary consumer; it is an herbivore. Primary consumers
occupy the second trophic level.
The snake is the secondary consumer; it is a carnivore. Secondary consumers
occupy the third trophic level.
The hawk is the tertiary consumer; it is a carnivore. Tertiary consumers occupy
the fourth trophic level.
Energy can be passed to decomposers like fungi and bacteria at any level of the
food chain.
The snake is the predator of the field vole and the prey of the hawk.
The snake occupies the 3rd trophic level in the food chain.
19. G Describe how producers and consumers enable the flow of energy in an
ecosystem.

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 The ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem is the sun. Producers capture the energy
from sunlight and use it to produce chemical energy that flows through an ecosystem
following various pathways. As organic nutrients pass from one component of the
ecosystem to another, such as when an herbivore eats a plant or a carnivore eats an
herbivore, only a portion of the original amount of energy is transferred. Eventually, the
energy dissipates into the environment as heat. Therefore, the vast majority of
ecosystems cannot exist without a continual input of solar energy. These pathways are
illustrated through food chains and food webs. The flow of energy is illustrated through
ecological pyramids that show the different trophic levels of food chains.
20. a. Define food web.
A food web consists of several overlapping and interconnecting or interlinking
food chains because many consumers eat different kinds of food.
b. Identify the producers, primary consumers, and secondary consumers in the
food web below.

Algae and Canadian pond weed are the producers in the above food web.
Mosquito larvae, protozoa, daphnia and snails are the primary consumers in the
above food web.
Beetle larvae, mosquito larvae, daphnia, leeches and minnows are the secondary
consumers in the above food web.
Daphnia is an omnivore.
c. Which organisms in the food web below have the greatest amount of energy?

The algae and Canadian pondweed have the greatest amount of energy in the food
web depicted.
21. Outline the energy losses as energy is passed along a food chain.
• As organic nutrients are passed from one trophic level to the next only 10% of the
original amount of energy is transferred. Only the energy used for growth and

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 reproduction, which becomes part of the mass of an animal is transferred to the
next trophic level.
• When an organism breaks down food for energy during respiration, some of the
energy released from the food is lost as heat to the environment.
• When one organism eats another, it doesn’t eat all of it. Some parts of the
organism eaten are inedible. For example, a grasshopper will eat the leaves of a
plant, but not the root.
• Egestion: Not all of the food eaten is digested and absorbed by the consumer.
Some parts of the organism eaten are not digested and pass out as feces.
• Excretion: Metabolic nitrogenous wastes are lost as urine.
22. Relate the two laws of thermodynamics to the energy flow through an ecosystem.
First law of thermodynamics: energy can neither be created nor destroyed→ Ecosystems
are dependent on a continuous supply of energy which is usually the sun. Solar energy is
converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.
Second law of thermodynamics: with every energy transformation some energy is lost as
an unusable form which is usually heat→ this partly accounts for why only a portion of
the energy at one trophic level is made available to the next trophic level
23. a. What is an ecological pyramid?
An ecological pyramid is a diagram depicting the flow of energy with large losses
between successive trophic levels.
b. Describe the pyramid of numbers.
A pyramid of numbers depicts the number of organisms at each trophic level of
the food chain. The width of each bar represents the number of organisms at that
level.
c. Draw a pyramid of numbers for the following food chain.
Explain the shape of the pyramid.
Grass→ rabbit→ fox

This is a pyramid of number having a true pyramid shape:

• The first bar represents producers and is the widest.
• The second bar represents the second trophic level where the primary
consumers/herbivores are found.
• The third bar is narrower than the second bar and represents the third tropic
levels where the secondary consumers are found.
• The number of organisms decreases from lower trophic levels to higher
trophic levels.
• There is less energy available as you go up the trophic levels, so there are
fewer organisms at each trophic level.
d. Draw a pyramid of numbers for the following food chain.
Oak tree → caterpillars → thrushes → hawk
When a very large producer supports a large number of herbivores, a pyramid of
numbers has a very small/narrow base.

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24. a. What is a pyramid of biomass?
• A pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation of biomass (mass of
organic matter) present in a unit area of various trophic levels.
• Biomass at each trophic level is calculated by multiplying the number of
organisms by the dry weight of the organic matter within one organism.
• The biomass of the producers is expected to be greater than the biomass of
the herbivores (primary consumers) and that of the herbivores is expected to
be greater than that of the carnivores (secondary or tertiary consumers).
• It is an accurate depiction of the available energy at each trophic level by
measuring the dry mass of organisms.
• Biomass decreases in each trophic level from the base to the apex (top).
b. Draw a pyramid of biomass for the following food chain.
Oak tree → caterpillars → thrushes → hawk

c. Draw a pyramid of biomass for the following food chain.

Oak tree→ insect→ woodpecker

d. Identify the various types of population that are at the base of an ecological
pyramid and the start of a food chain.
A producer of food (photosynthesizer) is at the base of an ecological pyramid.
25. a. What is primary productivity?
Primary productivity is the rate at which plants convert light energy into chemical
potential energy in organic compounds. It is measured in kJm-2years-1.
• Gross primary productivity is the total quantity of energy converted by plants
to form organic compounds (fixed carbon) by photosynthesis.
• Net primary productivity is the energy which remains as chemical energy in
organic compounds (fixed carbon) after the plants have supplied their own
needs in respiration.
b. How can primary productivity be calculated?
• The production of oxygen can be used to monitor the primary productivity of
an aquatic ecosystem. A measure of oxygen production over time provides a
means of calculating the amount of carbon that has been bound in organic
compounds during that period of time.
• Primary productivity can also be measured by determining the rate of carbon
dioxide utilization or the rate of formation of organic compounds.
26. The following food chain exists in the Arctic Ocean.
phytoplankton→ zooplankton→ codfish
During months of open water (less ice coverage) the population sizes of the
zooplankton and codfish are observed to be larger when compared to months of
more ice coverage. Using the graph below explain the most likely cause in this
difference.

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 • In months of less open water the ice blocks the light.
• There is less photosynthesis by the phytoplankton.
• This reduces the primary productivity by the phytoplankton (producers) in the
ecosystem.
• Less chemical energy is available in the form of organic compounds to support the
lives of many zooplankton (primary consumers) and codfish (secondary
consumers) in the ecosystem.
27. An experiment was conducted to determine the effect of light availability on
species richness in an environment. A grassland was divided into 50 plots.
25 plots were treated as follows:
“Clipped”- Plots were mowed to simulate the grazing of herbivores that maintain
the low height of grasses.
The 25 other plats were treated as follows:
“Enclosure”- Plots were enclosed in fences and grasses were allowed to grow to
their maximum height.
After ten years’ data was collected on the amount of light penetration to the soil
(bottom light density) and the number of species in the two treatment groups.
Figure 1 shows the average light penetration and figure 2 shows the average
number of species per plot.

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 Which of the following statements are consistent with the data depicted? Which of
the following are note consistent with the data depicted? Support your answers.
a. Grazing activity in a field decreases the species richness of the field.
False. The “Clipped” treatment represents the grazing activity in a field and as
depicted in figure 2 resulted in a higher average number of species per plot.
b. Different patterns of energy availability in ecosystems will affect species
richness.
True. There is a significant difference in the bottom light density between the two
treatments which has resulted in a significant difference in the average number of
species per plot.
c. Forests that develop a closed canopy with a shaded floor will exhibit
increased species richness.
False. The “enclosed” treatment represents a closed canopy with a shaded floor.
As depicted by figure 2 this treatment lead to a significantly lower average
number of species per plot when compared to the second treatment.
d. The enclosed plots are more efficient at capturing and distributing energy
than the clipped plots.
False. As depicted by figure 2 the enclosed treatment lead to a significantly lower
average number of species per plot when compared to the clipped treatment.
28. Compare the flow of energy to the flow of chemicals through an ecosystem.
• Energy passes from one population to the next and at each step more is converted
to heat until all of the original input has become heat. Therefore, energy flows
through an ecosystem.
• In contrast chemicals pass from one population to the next and then recycle back to
the producer population again.
The energy may be used to build large molecules from small molecules.
29. Referring to the food web below answer the following questions.

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 a. Identify a change that will lead to more energy entering the community
below.
Increase the light available to the plants.
b. The food web above does not include bacteria and fungi. Describe the
consequences of not having bacteria or fungi in the food web.
Grasses will have no direct access to chemical components and essential elements
recycled from dead organisms.
30.

The food web above represents a community near a deep-sea hydrothermal vent.
The seawater surrounding the hydrothermal vents contains carbon dioxide (𝑪𝑶𝟐 ),
hydrogen (𝑯𝟐 ), hydrogen sulfide (𝑯𝟐 S), and methane (𝑪𝑯𝟒 ). Sunlight does not
reach the seafloor where the hydrothermal vents are located. Mussels are found to
be dependent on molecule hydrogen in seawater. Multiple species of bacteria live
in the gills of the mussels.
a. Explain how mussels obtain their energy in order to maintain life processes.
Chemo-autotrophs include chemosynthetic bacteria found in hydrothermal vents
where sunlight is unavailable. They get their energy by oxidizing inorganic
compounds such as ammonia and hydrogen gas and use the energy to synthesize
organic compounds. The bacteria living in the gills of the mussels are capable of
chemosynthesis and provide the mussels with organic compounds rich in chemical
energy.
b. Some octopus species are only found near active hydrothermal vents.
Interpret this observation.
Octopuses feed on the mussels as per the food web depicted. Mussels depend on
organic material produced by the chemosynthetic bacteria present in their gills.
Octopuses therefore depend indirectly on inorganic compounds in the seawater
surrounding hydrothermal vents.
31. Describe the water cycle.
• Water is contained in lakes, ponds, streams, rivers and ground water.
• The sun’s rays cause the fresh water to evaporate from the sea water, leaving behind
the salts.
• Water evaporates from land and from plants during transpiration.
• The vaporized fresh water rises in the atmosphere and condenses to form clouds.
• The water eventually falls back as rain or another form of precipitation.
• Land lies above sea level and eventually all fresh water returns to the sea.

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32. Describe the Carbon cycle.
• The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle.
• Plants take up carbon dioxide from the air through photosynthesis.
• The carbon dioxide is fixed into the nutrients, which include the organic
compounds, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, to be used by the
autotrophs and heterotrophs of the ecosystem.
• When autotrophs and heterotrophs respire the carbon is returned to the atmosphere
as carbon dioxide.
• Carbon dioxide from the air combines with water to form bicarbonate ions. This is
the main source of carbon for algae. When aquatic organisms respire they give off
carbon dioxide that becomes bicarbonate ions.
• Living and dead organisms serve as a reservoir of carbon. Decomposition of the
dead organisms returns the carbon to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
• Another reservoir of carbon is in limestone and calcium carbonate shells.
• Humans impact the carbon cycle by the combustion of fossil fuels and deforestation.
As a results carbon dioxide levels are rising. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas
that allow solar radiation to pass, but hinders the escape of heat. This causes a rise
in earth’s temperature known as global warming.
33. Outline the nitrogen cycle.
• Nitrogen gas comprises 78% of the as in the atmosphere. Plants cannot make use
of the nitrogen in the gas form.
• Nitrogen fixers include aquatic cyanobacteria and bacteria in the nodules of
leguminous plants. They convert nitrogen gas into ammonium ions, a form plants
can use.
• Nitrogen gas can also be converted into nitrates, another form plants can use, by
lightning.
• Decomposition of dead organism also releases the nitrogen from the proteins in
their bodies as ammonia.
• During nitrification the ammonium is converted to nitrites (NO2- ) then to nitrates
(NO3-) by nitrifying bacteria in the soil.
• During assimilation, plants use the nitrates and ammonia form the soil and use them
to make proteins and nucleic acids.
• Denitrifying bacteria convert the nitrates back to nitrogen gas.
• Humans can form nitrates and ammonia from nitrogen gas in industries responsible
for the manufacturing of fertilizers.
• Leakage of fertilizers into bodies of water leads to overgrowth of algae and their
subsequent decomposition, depleting the oxygen in a process known as
eutrophication.

Experimental Design Questions

1. In mice fur color is a genetically controlled trait. A population of mice typically live
in light colored soil. The habitat of the mouse population became dark in color. A
researcher claims that there is no selective advantage to either fur color. Light and
dark color phenotypes are present in similar frequencies in the fourth generation.
Evaluate this null hypothesis.

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 The null hypothesis is rejected. The frquency of the dark colored fur color increased in
the fourth generation. There is a significant difference between the dark and light dur
color in the fourth generation as the error bars do not overlap.
2. Flower color in Hydrangea macrophylla plants is thought to be determined by soil
conditions rather than being due to genetic inheritance. How can evidence that
flower color in hydrangea macrophylla is determined primarily by soil conditions
be provided?
Grow cuttings from the same hydrangea macrophylla plant under controlled conditions
that vary only in PH.
3. A controlled experiment was conducted to investigate the effect of diet on the health
of cattle. The initial hypothesis was that a change in diet will benefit cattle by
reducing the population size of bacterial populations living in the stomach of the
cattle. Based on the results which should this hypothesis be revised?
Diet
Before Change After Change
Principle Diet Hay Grain
Type of carbohydrate Cellulose starch
Abundance of bacterial Low High
population 1 in stomach
Abundance of bacterial High Low
population 2 in stomach
pH in stomach 6-7 <5
Clinical Signs in Cattle None Weakness

• The abundance of one of the bacterial species increased in response to the change
in diet.
• The cattle showed signs of clinical weakness following the change in diet.
4. Scientists are conducting an experiment to determine the function of two
vocalizations in squirrels. The trill call consists of a series of medium-pitched notes.
The whistle call consists of a single high-pitched note. Recordings of each call were
played to four different groups of squirrels. The responses of the squirrels are
summarized in the table below.

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 Percent of Squirrels responding
Alarm Trill Whistle
Call
Response Crouching Posting Run to Other Crouching Posting Run to Other
shelter shelter
Group A 12 65 22 1 42 2 55 1
Group B 9 18 55 18 50 3 44 3
Group C 7 36 24 33 45 4 50 1
Group D 10 55 33 12 47 4 45 4

Identify the idependent and dependent variables in the investigation.

The independent variable is the type of alarm. The dependent variable is the perecent of
squirrels responding.
Term 2, Week 10

Chapter 25: Flowering plants: Nutrition and Support

1. In addition to carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, plants require certain other
nutrients, which the roots absorb as minerals. State the role of the various essential
minerals.
Nitrogen is a major component of nucleic acids and proteins.
Magnesium is a component of chlorophyll.
Iron is a building block of cytochrome molecules found in the ETC of the inner
membrane of the mitochondria.
Phosphorus is a mineral used in plants as a component of ATP, nucleic acids and
phospholipids.
2. Plants have the ability to take up minerals until they are many times more
concentrated in the plant than in the surrounding medium. Explain how minerals
are actively transported across a cell membrane.
• Minerals are absorbed in their ionic form. Nitrogen is absorbed as nitrates,
potassium as potassium ions. Nitrogen cannot be utilized in the gaseous state.
• A plasma membrane pump, called a proton pump, hydrolyzes ATP and uses the
energy released to transport hydrogen ions outside of the cell, creating an
electrochemical gradient. This gradient drives positively charged ions such as
potassium through a channel protein into the cell.
• The hydrogen ions are carried back into the cell down their concentration gradient
and any negatively charged ion (nitrate and phosphate) hitches a ride with the
hydrogen ions, without any further use of energy.
3. Describe the mutualistic relationships that assist roots in obtaining mineral
nutrients.
a. Leguminous plants such as the beans and clovers have a mutualistic relationship
with the Rhizobium bacteria. The bacteria live within root nodules. They
convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium compounds to be used by the
plants, so they may make organic compounds such as proteins and nucleic acids.
The bacteria in turn are furnished with carbohydrates made by the host plant.
b. Mycorrhizae is a mutualistic relationship between the roots of plants and fungi.
The fungus increases the surface area for mineral and water uptake and breaks
down organic matter in the soil, releasing nutrients that the plant can use. In
return the plant furnishes the fungus with sugars and amino acids.

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4. State how a root hair cell is adapted to its function.
• has a thin cell wall and a thin cytoplasm which increase the rate of diffusion
of water and mineral salts from the soil.
• It has a large permanent vacuole to store the absorbed water and mineral
salts.
• It is produced by the epidermal cells just above the root tip and they are
present in large numbers and help increase the surface area for absorption in
the roots.
• The long extension if the root hair cells increases the surface area to volume
ratio of the cell, maximizing the absorption of water and minerals.
5. Review the properties of water.
• Cohesion refers to the tendency of water molecules to cling together because of
hydrogen bonding.
• Adhesion refers to the ability of water to interact with other polar molecules
making up the walls of the vessels in the xylem.
• Adhesion gives the water column extra strength and prevents it from slipping
back. Together, water properties like cohesion and tension create a continuous
column of water within xylem from roots to leaves.
6. Describe the cohesion-tension model of xylem transport.
• The cohesion-tension model of xylem transport is a mechanism by which the
xylem transports water and mineral without the expenditure of energy and is
dependent on the properties of water. Tension is created by the process of
transpiration.
Leaves
• Water will evaporate from the spongy cell layer into the intercellular spaces
always from a higher water potential within the spongy cell layer to a lower water
potential in the intercellular spaces. Water vapor will then diffuse out of the leaf
through the stomata to the surrounding air by transpiration when the stomata of
the leaf are open. Again water will move from a region of higher water potential
in the intercellular spaces to a lower water potential in the surrounding air.
• The water molecules that evaporate from cells into the intercellular spaces are
replaced by water molecules from the leaf veins. As the water molecules are
cohesive transpiration creates a pulling force or tension that draws the water
column through the xylem to replace the water lost by leaf cells.
Stem
• The pulling force or tension in the xylem created by transpiration of water from
leaves pulls the water column in the stem upwards.
• The water column in the stem is continuous because of the cohesive properties of
the water molecules.
• The adhesion of the water molecules to the sides of the xylem vessels ensure
water column will not break apart.
Root
• Water enters the xylem vessels from the root cells passively by osmosis as the
xylem sap has a greater concentration of solutes than root cells.
• Again the pulling force or tension in the xylem created by transpiration of water
from leaves pulls the water column in the roots upwards.
7. Describe the mechanism by which the stomata open and close.
OPENING OF STOMATA
• Each stoma is bordered by guard cells.

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 • A proton pump run by the hydrolysis of ATP transports hydrogen ions to the
outside of the cell.
• This establishes an electrochemical gradient that allows potassium ions (K+) to
enter by way of a channel protein. So potassium ions move into the guard cells by
active transport.
• Water then enters the guard cells.
• Turgor pressure in the guard cells increases, and the stomata open.
CLOSURE OF STOMATA
• When potassium exits the guard cells, water follows.
• The turgor pressure in the guard cells decreases and stomata close.

8. Identify factors influencing the opening or closure of stomata.

OPENING OF STOMATA
• The blue light component of sunlight is absorbed by pigments within the guard
cells. This pigment then sets in motion cytoplasmic responses that lead to
activation of the proton pump and the opening of the stomata.
CLOSURE OF STOMATA
• A rise in carbon dioxide or abscisic acid (produced by wilting leaves) cause the
stomata to close.
9. Describe phloem transport using the pressure-flow model.
At the source (leaves or portions of the plant that can photosynthesize)
• The source refers to the site of photosynthesis, that results in the production of
sugars.

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 • The sugar produce is actively transported into the phloem.
• After sugar enters the sieve tubes, water follows passively by osmosis.
In the stem
• The build-up of water within sieve tubes creates a positive pressure that accounts
for the flow of the phloem contents.
At the sink (roots, young leaves, flowers or portions of the plant that cannot
photosynthesize)
• The sink refers to the site of sugar accumulation within the plant where the sugar
may be used for cellular respiration or stored for later use.
• Sugar is actively transported out of the sieve tubes and into the cells of the roots
(sink).
• Water now exits the sieve tubes of the phloem passively by osmosis to then enter
the xylem vessels, where it will be transported back to the leaves to be used for
photosynthesis.
Phloem contents continue to flow from the source to the sink from a higher
pressure to a lower pressure.

10. Outline how sucrose is loaded into the companion cells and sieve tube elements
from the cells of the source.
• Sucrose is loaded into companion cells or the sieve element by active transport.
• Hydrogen ions are pumped out of the companion cells into the cell wall
(apoplastic pathway) using energy from the hydrolysis of ATP. Hydrogen ions
accumulate in the cell wall.
• The hydrogen ions then re-enter the cell through a cotransporter protein that also
transports sucrose. The sucrose molecules will enter the companion cells from
the leaf cell (source) against a concentration gradient by “hitching a ride” with the
hydrogen. The high concentration of hydrogen ions drives the transport of the
sucrose molecules.
• The sucrose then moves into the sieve tube element through the plasmodesmata
(symplastic pathway). This decreases the solute potential (more negative) of the
sieve tube and therefore water follows by osmosis.

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11. a. Explain how sucrose moves into companion cells.
• Protons are pumped out of the companion cells by active transport though a
proton pump.
• Protons pass into the cell wall.
• This creates an electrochemical or proton gradient.
• Protons re-enter the companion cell by facilitated diffusion though
cotransport proteins.
• Sucrose is transported together with protons.
• Sucrose is transported against its concentration gradient.
• Sucrose concentration is increased inside the companion cells.
b. Explain how sucrose moves from the companion cell into the sieve tube
element.
Sucrose passes from the companion cell into the sieve tube element by diffusion
through plasmodesmata.
c. Explain how the structure of a mature sieve tube element is related to its
function.
• Sieve tube elements are elongated cells that form long tubes.
• Sieve tube elements have little cytoplasm and fewer organelles to reduce
resistance to flow.
• The sieve plates have pores so that there is little barrier to flow from cell to
cell, allowing mass flow.
• Plasmodesmata between the sieve tubes and companion cells allow the
loading and unloading of sucrose.

Chapter 42 (42.1, & 42.2): Animal Development and Aging

1. Identify the structures of a mammalian egg (secondary oocyte) that are involved in
fertilization.
• A few layers of follicular cells comprising the corona radiata
• Zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix outside the secondary oocyte’s plasma
membrane and beneath the corona radiata
• Cortical granules which are associated with polyspermy prevention (entrance of
more than one sperm)
• From the interior to the exterior: cortical granules → plasma membrane → zona
pellucida → corona radiata
2. What is an acrosome?
The head of the sperm is capped by a membrane bound organelle called the acrosome
which is filled with enzymes that digest a pathway for the sperm through the zona
pellucida.
3. Summarize the main events that occur during fertilization.
• Hundreds of sperm reach the secondary oocyte and penetrate the corona radiata
with the help of enzymes.
• Sperm heads bind to the zona pellucida and release acrosomal enzymes to digest
the zona pellucida
• Sperm binds to receptor on the secondary oocyte’s plasma membrane, triggering
changes that prevent other sperm from entering (prevent polyspermy)
• Sperm nucleus enters cytoplasm
• Secondary oocyte finishes second meiotic division and is now an egg
• Fertilization is complete when sperm pronucleus and egg pronucleus contribute
chromosomes to zygote

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4. When the first sperm fuses with the secondary oocyte, the oocyte deploys two
mechanisms to prevent polyspermy. Describe these two mechanisms.
• Fast block is the depolarization of the oocyte’s plasma membrane that repels
sperm only for a few seconds.
• Slow block occurs when enzymes secreted by the cortical granules convert the
zona pellucida into an impenetrable fertilization membrane.
5. Development includes all changes that occur during the life cycle of an organism.
List the three major stages of development.
• Fertilization
• Cellular stages include cleavage and formation of blástula.
• Tissue stages include early gastrula and late gastrula
• Organogenesis during organ stages
6. **Describe the two cellular stages of embryological development in a typical
vertebrate embryo.
Cleavage:
• Rapid mitotic cell division of zygote without growth
• Cells get smaller each division
• Results in solid ball of cells called morula.
Blastulation:
• Morula continues to divide forming blastula
• Blastula is a hollow ball of cells having a fluid filled cavity called blastocoel
• Room for germ layers is developed (i.e., ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm)
7. Describe the three germ cell layers.
Germ layers are the primary cell layers formed during early stages of embryonic
development. The consists of stem cells that contribute to specific types of tissues in the
body.
• Ectoderm (outer layer): gives rise to the epidermis of the skin, tooth enamel,
dentine, pulp, epithelial lining of the oral cavity, and the nervous system.
• The mesoderm (middle layer): gives rise to the cardiovascular system,
musculoskeletal system, dermis of the skin, urinary system, lymphatic system, and
reproductive system.
• The endoderm (inner layer): gives rise to the respiratory tract, epithelial lining of
digestive system, epithelial lining of urinary bladder, thyroid and parathyroid
glands.
8. What happens after the egg is fertilized?
The zygote begins a series of cleavage divisions, rapid cell divisions without cell
growth. As a result, each of the resulting cells contains substantially less cytoplasm than
the original zygote.
9. What is a lineage map and what organism has its complete lineage map been
described?
The roundworm, Caenorhabditis elegans, has been an important model for the study of
development. A complete lineage map tracing the fates of every cell during its
development has been described. Every one of the 959 cells in an adult are traced back
to the egg, cell division by cell division.
10. What are the mechanisms responsible for influencing cell development and
differentiation?
The mechanisms are listed as follows: indeterminate and determinate cleavages,
cytoplasmic determinants, embryonic induction and apoptosis.
11. Describe and differentiate between the two types of cleavages.

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 • The two types of cleavages are indeterminate and determinate cleavages. Cleavages
do not necessarily divide a cell into equal parts. Instead, cells acquire variations
based upon the orientation of the cleavage.
• A cleavage is indeterminate if it produces daughter cells that, if separated, can
individually complete normal development.
• In contrast, daughter cells produced by a determinate cleavage cannot develop into
a complete embryo if separated from other cells.
12. What are the maternal determinants?
Maternal determinants are substances within the cytoplasm of the egg which influence
the course of development.
13. What is cytoplasmic segregation?
Cytoplasmic segregation is the parceling out of the maternal determinants as mitosis
(cleavage) occurs.

14. How do cytoplasmic determinants affect cell development and differentiation?

• Cytoplasmic material (maternal determinants) is distributed unequally in the egg or
in subsequent daughter cells.
• When cleavages divide the egg, the quality of cytoplasmic substances will vary
among the daughter cells.
• Substances unique to certain daughter cell may promote gene expression that turns
on (or off) genes specific to the development and differentiation of that cell.
15. Describe the effect of the gray crescent as a maternal determinant in frog
development.
• The gray crescent is a gray, crescent-shaped region that appears in a frog egg during
a reorganization of the cytoplasm following the penetration by a sperm.
• Embryologist Hans Spemann, in a famous experiment, separated the cells formed
during early cleavages and showed that each individual cell could develop into a
normal frog only if it contained a portion of the gray crescent.

Label 2 is the grey crescent.

16. **Define and describe the effect of morphogens as cytoplasmic/maternal
determinants in cell specialization.
• Morphogens are proteins whose asymmetrical distribution in the cytoplasm of the
oocyte determines the anterior/posterior and dorsal/ventral axes of the cell.

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 • Subsequent cell divisions result in morphogen gradients across the developing
embryo.
• Then, in each cell, the morphogens act as transcription factors, activating or
inhibiting DNA expression specific for that part of the embryo.
• For example, Bicoid proteins are concentrated anteriorly where they prevent the
formation of the posterior region whereas Nano proteins are found posteriorly and
are required for the formation of the abdomen.
17. What is embryonic induction? How does it occur?
• Embryonic induction is the influence of one cell or group of cells over neighboring
cells OR the ability of one embryonic tissue to influence the development of another
embryonic tissue.
• Cells that exert this influence are called organizers.
• This cell-to-cell communication can occur by way of diffusible chemicals or by
interaction between cell surfaces.
18. Describe the role of the blastopore in embryonic induction.
• In an early stage of embryonic development, an opening, the blastopore, leads to
the inside of a sphere of cells.
• Spemann discovered that the dorsal lip of the blastopore of a newt (amphibian)
induced the formation of the notochord, a stiff strip of cells that provides support in
the developing embryo.
• When Spemann transplanted a second dorsal lip into the embryo (taken from a
second newt), a second notochord developed. Thus, the dorsal lip is an organizer.
19. Describe the effect of anchor cells in the specialization of cells in the roundworm, C.
elegans as an example of induction.
• During embryonic development in the roundworm, C. elegans, the anchor cell,
secretes an inducer molecule.
• The inducer is a signaling molecule that binds to receptors on the plasma membrane
of adjacent cells.
• In those cells closest to the anchor cell and receiving a high concentration of the
inducer, receptor molecules on their plasma membrane activate the production of
transcription factors that bind to a promoter on the DNA. This activates the
production of an mRNA that, when translated, produces a protein that stimulates
differentiation of the cell into a vulva cell, a cell involved in egg laying.
• Cells farther away from the anchor cell and receiving low concentrations of the
inducer become skin cells.
20. Describe the role of the Homeotic genes.
• Homeotic genes are master genes that specify the developmental patterns of groups
of cells.
• For example, in fruit flies, these genes determine the formation of basic body
structures such as legs and antennae.
• Mutant homeotic genes in fruit flies are responsible for producing body parts in the
wrong places, such as legs where antennae should be.
21. Give an example of how Hox genes affect the developmental patterns in animals.
• Hox genes are a subset of homeotic genes.
• Hox genes code for transcription factors that control gene expression.
• Each hox gene directs the development of a specific body part.
• Hox genes occur in clusters. The order of the Hox genes on the DNA dictates the
spatial order of their expression. For example, the order of Hox genes in the fruit
fly mirror the spatial order of the body segments for which the genes code.

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Chapter 26: Flowering plants: Control of Growth Responses
1. Identify the environmental stimuli plants are capable of responding to.
Plants are capable of responding to light, gravity, carbon dioxide levels, pathogen
infection, drought, and touch.
2. G Describe signal transduction.
Signal transduction is the binding of a molecular signal that initiates and amplifies a
cellular response.
a. Receptors are proteins activated by specific signals, such as light or hormones.
They may be located in the plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, or the nucleus.
Those that respond to light have pigment components, for example phytochrome
(red light) receptors and phototropin (blue light) receptors.
b. Transduction pathway is a series of relay proteins or enzymes that amplify and
transform the signal into one understood by the machinery of the cell. A
stimulated receptor may directly communicate with the transduction pathway or a
secondary messenger such as calcium may initiate the response.
c. Cellular response may be a change in gene expression or the end product of an
activated metabolic pathway.
3. Use the diagram below, to answer questions a-f:
The diagram shows the signal transduction in plants.

a. Which of the above represents the relay proteins that convert the original
signal into an effective cellular machinery? B
b. Represents the changes in gene expression. C
c. Shows responses to stimulation by blue light. D
d. Receptor protein activated by blue light. A
e. State the ion that serves as a secondary messenger, which initiates an active
signal into the cell. Calcium ions
f. Exhibits transduction pathway. B
4. State the function of the following hormones and their effect on plant growth and
regulation:
a. Auxin:
• controls phototropism and gravitropism (geotropism),
• and apical dominance (terminal bud produces new growth instead of
axillary buds)
b. Gibberellins:

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 • Stimulates the elongation of stem internodes.
• Break dormancy of buds and seeds. Stimulates amylase to be produced to
breakdown starch into sugar in barley seeds to provide energy for growth
during germination.
c. Cytokinins:
• always promote cell division
• and prevents senescence (aging of plants).
d. Abscisic Acid (ABA): Stress hormone
• Initiates and maintains bud and seed dormancy and
• involved in the closure of stomata.
e. Ethylene:
• induce fruit ripening and hasten the ripening of green fruits by stimulating
the production of cellulose and other enzymes that can cause the odors and
color changes associated with fruit ripening.
• It induces the breakdown of chlorophyll which causes the color changes
observed when fruits ripen.
• Can cause abscission where the leaf dies, and falls off the plant by
stimulating the production of cellulose.
• Ethylene moves freely through a plant by diffusion and because it is a gas
can move freely through air.
• A box of ripening apples can induce ripening in a box of bananas even
some distance away.
5. Blue light will signal the phototropin receptor in guard cells, setting in motion a
cellular response through signal transduction. Describe the cellular response.
• Phototropins are photoreceptor proteins
• Phototropins are hit with blue light, they induce a signal transduction pathway
that alters the plant cells' functions in different ways.
• Within the guard cells a pump run by the hydrolysis of ATP transports hydrogen
ions to the outside of the cell.
• This establishes an electrochemical gradient that allows potassium ions to enter
by way of a channel protein.
• Water then enters the guard cells.
• Turgor pressure in the guard cells increases and the stomata open.
6. Describe the role of abscisic acid in the closure of stomata.
• The hormone is release when the temperature is high or there is low water supply.
• Abscisic acids binds to the receptors on the cell membrane of the guard cells.
• It causes the proton pumps to stop pumping hydrogen out.
• Promotes the entry of calcium into the cell. Calcium acts as a secondary
messenger.
• Channels open allowing negatively charged ions to leave the cell.
• This stimulates the opening of channel proteins that will allow potassium to leave
the cell.
• Water follows the charged ions outside of the cells. The guard cells become
flaccid and stoma close.
7. Explain how auxins cause the growth of stems towards light.
• When a stem is exposed to unidirectional light the auxins diffuse to the shady
side.
• Auxin binds to a receptor on the cell surface membrane.

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 • This activates a proton pump run on the hydrolysis of ATP. Hydrogen ions are
pumped into the cell wall.
• This acidity activates proteins known as expansins that loosen the bonds between
the cellulose micro fibrils in the cell wall.
• Potassium channels are also stimulated to open. Potassium ions enters the cell
which lowers the water potential.
• The cell absorbs water by osmosis. This increases the turgor pressure of the cell.
• The cell wall stretches so that the cell elongates.
• The stem elongates on the shady side so that the stem bends towards light. This
orientation of the stem towards light is known as positive phototropism.

8.

a. Identify the plant response investigated in the experiment depicted above.

Phototropism is being investigated. Phototropism is a plant growth response
towards light.
b. Support the claim that cells located in the tip of the shoot detect light.
• When the tip was removed in treatment two the plant did not bend towards
light.
• When the tip was covered in treatment three the plant did not bend towards
light.
• When the tip was covered the stem bent towards light.
c. What can be concluded from treatment four and five?
Tips of the stems produce auxins in response to light. Auxins diffuse downwards
causing the plants to bend towards light.
9. Outline how gibberellins control seed germination.
Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of amylase by the following mechanism.
• DELLA protein inhibits the binding of a transcription factor known as PIF to the
gene promoter for structural genes encoding amylase.
• Gibberellins cause the breakdown of DELLA protein
• and therefore allow PIF protein to bind to the promoter
• and transcription of the gene for amylase may occur.
• Amylase breaks down starch so that
• glucose can be available as a respiratory substrate for the growing embryo.
10. Describe the tropic responses in plants.

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 • Growth towards or away from a unidirectional stimulus is called tropism.
• Growth towards a stimulus is called positive tropism while growth away from a
stimulus is called negative tropism.
The three types of tropisms observed in plants include
a. Gravitropism- A movement in response to gravity. Ex) Roots show positive
gravitropism.
b. Phototropism- A movement in response to a light stimulus. ex) Stems show
positive phototropism.
c. Thigmotropism- A movement in response to touch.
11. Describe the role of statoliths in geotropism.
• The root cap contains cells filled with starch granules called statoliths.
• The statoliths settle to the bottom of the cell and put pressure on surrounding
organs therefore signaling the downward direction.
• As the signals of the statoliths change they cause the redistribution of auxins and
therefore cause the stem to grown upwards and the root to grow downwards.
12. Explain nastic movements in plants with an example.
If water enters plant cells they become turgid. If water leaves the plant cells the plant
will go limp. Nastic movements are movements caused by changes in turgor pressure
within plant cells. Nastic movements are not involved in growth and are not directly
related to the source of stimulus. Ex) The leaves of the prayer plants fold upwards at
night.
13. a. Discuss circadian rhythms in plants.
• Activities that occur regularly in 24-hour cycles are called circadian
rhythms.
• Ex) The leaves of the prayers plant fold upward at night. Morning glory is
a plant that opens its flowers in the early part of the day and closes them at
night. Most plants open their stomata in the day and close them at night.
• To qualify as a circadian rhythm, the activity must
a. Occur every 24 hours
b. Take place in the absence of external stimuli (Whether or not the
day/night lighting is present)
c. Be able to reset if external cues are provided
b. What is the biological clock and how is it synchronized?
• The internal mechanism by which a circadian rhythm is maintained in the
absence of appropriate environmental stimuli is termed biological clock.
• If organisms are sheltered from environmental stimuli, their biological
clocks keep the circadian rhythm going, but the cycle extends. In prayer
plants, the cycle extends to 26 hours when the plant is kept in constant dim
light as opposed to 24 hours when kept in the traditional day/night
conditions.
• The length of daylight compared to the length of darkness, called the
photoperiod sets the clock.
• Signals from the phytochrome receptor sets the clock.
• The biological clock involves the transcription of clock genes.
c. Why is it more adaptive for the biological clock to be set by light rather than
temperature?
The photoperiod is more indicative of seasons than temperature. Therefore, it is
adaptive for the biological clock to be set by the photoperiod versus temperature.
14. a. Discuss the action of phytochrome (active and inactive form) with reference

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 to diagrams.
• It is a blue-green leaf pigment receptor found in the cytoplasm of plant
cells.
• It is made of two identical proteins, a portion of which is light sensitive and
a portion of which is an enzyme called kinase that can link light absorption
with a transduction pathway within the cytoplasm.
• Red light prevalent in daylight activates phytochrome, and it assumes its
active conformation know as Pfr. Pfr moves into the nucleus where it
interacts with transcription factors to activate certain genes and inactivate
others.
• Far-red light prevalent in the evening change Pfr to Pr, which is the inactive
form of phytochrome.
• Ex) The presence of Pfr in some seeds indicates that sunlight is present and
conditions are favorable for germination.
b. Outline the effect of active phytochrome in plants?
Pfr promotes:
• Seed germination
• Inhibits shoot elongation
• Accumulation of chlorophyll
• Sets the biological clock allowing photoperiodism to occur
c. Relate phytochrome to etiolation and briefly describe the signal transduction
involved.

• In the presence of red light (bright sunlight) phytochrome receptor is

activated.
• Active Pfr activates a series of proteins (transduction pathway) that will
eventually result in the transcription of genes involved in the de-etiolation
response (cellular response).
• Plants grown normally and chlorophyll accumulates.
• In the presence of far red light (dim light), phytochrome remains inactive
(Pr). Etiolation occurs. The stem elongates and remains yellow.
15. a. Define photoperiodism.
• Photoperiodism is a physiological response prompted by changes in length
of day or night within a 24-hour period. For example, violets open their
flowers in the spring when days are approximately 12 hours long.
• Photoperiodism requires the participation of the biological clock as well as
a photoreceptor called phytochrome.
b. Classify flowering plants: (example of photoperiodism)
1. Short day plants flower when the day length is shorter than the critical
length.
• When the night is longer than the critical length the plant flowers.
• When the night is shorter than the critical length the plant does not
flower.
• When the night is longer than the critical length, but interrupted by
flashes of light the plant will not flower.

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 Conclusion: It is the length of the dark period that controls flowering.
2. Long-day plants flower when the day length is longer than the critical
length.
• When the night is shorter than the critical length the plant flowers.
• When the night is longer than the critical length the plant does not
flower.
• When the night is longer than the critical length, but interrupted by
flashes of light the plant flowers.
Conclusion: It is the length of the dark period that controls flowering.
3. Day-neutral plants are not dependent on day length for flowering.
NB. The criterion for designating plants as short-day or long-day is not an
absolute number of hours of light, but a critical number that cannot be
exceeded.
Experimental Design Questions
1. The effect of an insecticide on plant growth and development was investigated. 30
test plots containing a particular species of shrub was planted. 15 test plots were
sprayed with a water-soluble insecticide and 15 test plots were sprayed with water
only. The shrub is pollinated by a certain species of insects and eaten by another.
The number of plants and plant parts at different stages of development was
recorded.
Treatment
Water Insecticide Spray
Spray
Plant life stage Plant part Mean Density± 𝟐𝑺𝑬 P-values
Number/𝒎𝒎𝟐
Flowering Flowers 8,220±360 9,490±1900 >0.05
Seed formation Immature 2,440±78 3,100±480 >0.05
seeds
Seed Mature seeds 60±44 1200±1020 <0.001
maturation
Seedling Seedlings 1.4±0.4 33.1±15 <0.01
development
a. Identify the control treatment.
The water only treatment.
b. Support the recearchers decicion to use water instead of using unsprayed
plants.
The insecticide treatment included water and the water soluble insecticide. The
water only treatments attributes the effect of the insecticide treatment to the
insecticide and not the water.
c. Calculate the percent of plant parts remaining from ne life stahe to the next
life stage.
Plant life stage Water Spray Percent Insecticide Percent
Remaining Spray remaining
Flowering 8,220±360 9,490±1900
Seed 2,440±78 29.7 3,100±480 32.7
formation
Seed 60±44 2.5 1200±1020 38.7
maturation

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 Seedling 1.4±0.4 2.3 33.1±15 2.8
development
d. Identify the stage at which the insect have the greatest impact on the life cycle
of the plants.
Suuport your answer.
Seed maturation
• Seed maturation is the only stage in which there is a large difference in the
percent remaining between the treatment groups (water spray vs insecticide
spray).
• The number of mature seeds remaining in the water only treatment is much
less than the number of mature seeds remaining in the insecticide treatment.
• Seed maturation is the first stage where there is a significant difference in
number of plant parts between the treatment groups.
• The flowering and seed formation stages P is >0.05, meaning we are more
than 95% sure there is no significant difference.
• During the seed maturation stage P is <0.001 which means we are more than
99.9% sure there is a significant difference between the treatment groups.
• Seed maturation is the first stage where there is no overlap in the mean value±
two times the standard error for the two treatment groups, meaning there is a
significant difference.
• For example when viewing the flowering stage we are 95% sure that the mean
density of flowering plants will be 7860-8580 (8,220±360) /𝑚𝑚2 in the water
spray treatment and 7590-11390 (9,490±1900)/𝑚𝑚2 in the insecticide
treatment. The two ranges overlap. Meaning there is no significant effect of
the insects on the flowering stage.
• When viewing the seed maturation stage we are 95% sure that the mean
density of mature seeds will be 16-104 (60±44) /𝑚𝑚2 in the water spray
treatment and 180-2220 (1200±1020)/𝑚𝑚2 in the insecticide treatment. The
two ranges do not overlap. Meaning there is a significant effect of the insects
on the seed formation stage.
2. Trichomes are hair like structures found on the stem in plants. They provide
protection against herbivores. The trichome density is genetically determined.
The stem trichome density was investigated within a plant species. The number of
trichomes on the stems of six plants in each of three different populations was
counted. The data was used to calculate the mean trichrome density (number of
trichormes per 𝒄𝒎𝟐 ) for each population.
number of trichoromes per 𝒄𝒎𝟐
Population Plant Plant Plant Plant Plant Plant Mean Standard
1 2 3 4 5 6 error
1 8 11 9 10 8 6 9 1
2 12 6 15 9 3 8 11 1
3 13 17 9 14 12 16 14 1

a. Draw a graph to illustrate the data. Include the sample means of the three
populations within 95% confidence.

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 Population on x-axis
Mean number of trichromes /𝑐𝑚2 on the y-axis
Means plotted to accuracy
Error bars drawn as 2X standard error above and below the means.
b. Identify the two populations that show a statistically significant difference in
the mean trichome density. Explain your reasoning.
Population 1 and 3.
The error bars/95 percent confidence intervals for populations I and III do not
overlap.
Sample mean + two times the standard error of population 1 is less than the
Sample mean - two times the standard error of population 3.
c. The following hypothesis was tested. “Higher trichome density in plants is
selected for in the presence of herbivores.” Describe the independent and
dependent variables to test the hypothesis. Identify a suitable control.
Identify a suitable duration of the experiment to ensure natural selection is
measured. State the experimental results that would support the hypothesis.
The independent variable is the presence of herbivores.
The dependent variable is the trichome density.
A suitable control would be in the absence of herbivores.
A suitable duration of the experiment would be more than one generation.
A higher trichome density in the presence of herbivores when compared to the
control (without herbivores).
Term 2, Week 11
Mar. 14 – Mar. 18

Chapter 46 major Ecosystems of the Biosphere

1. Explain how the tilt of Earth affects climate.
Tilt of the Earth creates the slight difference in distance between the hemispheres and the
sun, and affects the angle, at which sunrays fall on the surface of the planet. The angle
varies within the same hemisphere with latitude. As the angle, at which sunrays fall on
the Earth surface, determines the amount of heat, which is received and can be trapped,

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 temperature is affected. At the same time, temperature is one of the main determinants of
the climate. Therefore, tilt of the Earth creates variation in distance to the Sun, as well as
in the angle of sunrays falling on the surface of the planet. It affects the amount of
radiation, which reaches the Earth surface.
2. Explain why coastal areas of California and its inland areas are characterized by
significantly different biomes.
Presence of the particular type of biome is determined by climate conditions. Climate is
affected by a number of factors. In case of coastal and inland regions, the primary
difference consists of the effect of ocean. The temperature of the oceans is more stable,
while the air is more humid. It results in suitable conditions for life. In contrast, inland
areas are dryer and their temperature may be unstable. Thus, different biomes form there.
It explains the presence of shrublands at the coastal regions and deserts in the inlands
regions of California.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 3 – 4.

3. The diagram above illustrates the formation of

[-A-] monsoons
[-B-] rain shadow
[-C-] lake overturn
[-D-] eutrophication
[-E-] fall overturn

4. Which of the letters corresponds to rain shadow?

[-A-] A
[-B-] B
[-C-] C
[-D-] D
[-E-] E

5. i. Explain why the soil of tropical areas becomes unsuitable for agriculture once
the native plants are removed to provide free space for this activity.
The soil of tropical rainforests is not rich enough. The significant amount of
minerals and nutrients are accumulated in the plants of tropical rainforests, because

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 high temperature, humidity, and yearlong growing season. Nutrients are obtained by
the plants directly from the litter. When the large trees die, the minerals are recycled
for the growth of the new plant, while the soil itself is poor in nutrients. Thus, when
deforestation is held to get free space for agricultural purposes, the minerals are
removed with plants. As the soil does not contain much minerals, it becomes
unsuitable for agriculture very soon.
ii. State two biomes suitable for agricultural use.
Deciduous forests and temperate grasslands.
6. i. List three main factors that animals and plants living in the desert should be
adapted to.
Long droughts, extreme heat, and extreme cold.
ii. Describe the main adaptations in desert plants.
The plants have thick epidermis to prevent water loss through evaporation and help
maintain the temperature. They also have thick succulent stems and leaves to allow
for preservation of water. To withstand the sudden changes in temperature, the
plants have the ability to set seeds rather fast in spring.
7. Referring to the natural biomes as examples, explain how environmental conditions
can affect the size of plants.
The size of plants is affected by their growth rate and further ability to maintain their size
under the environmental conditions. The growth of the plant and maintenance of its body
is determined by the rate of photosynthesis. Temperature and humidity are the principal
factors, which determine the climate of the environment, and they affect the rate of
photosynthesis. Thus, regions with high temperature and humidity have larger plants. For
example, tropical rainforests are characterized by the presence of the largest plants
because high temperature and humidity stimulate their growth. In contrast, plants in
deserts are smaller, as these areas are dry, and variation in temperature is possible.
Tundra is characterized by the smallest plants and prevalence of non-plant
photosynthesizes, because very low temperature and humidity in this biome make
photosynthesis inefficient for the maintenance of large body.
Use the following to answer questions 8 – 11.

[-A-] Epiphyte
[-B-] Parasite
[-C-] Fern
[-D-] Cactus
[-E-] Chaparral

8. A plant that can be found in the tropical rainforest floor. C

9. A plant that obtains all the required resources for growth from other plants. B

10. A perennial plant, adapted to extreme cold. D

11. A plant that uses other plants for attachment only. A

12. Describe the importance of wetlands.

Wetlands provide habitat for a number of unique species. They purify water by filtering
it and removing toxic substances, which are degraded by decomposers. Alternatively, the
toxic substances can be diluted there for the reduction of their negative effect. In

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 addition, wetlands can absorb any overflows, such as storm waters and excess waters
from lakes. Thus, they prevent floods, which is important for both wildlife and for
humans as agricultural and city areas are protected in this way.
13. Explain why in summer time the amount of nutrients in the epilimnion of lakes
decreases, and the oxygen levels in the hypolimnion decreases.
Epilimnion is characterized by higher temperature and light availability. Thus,
photosynthetic organisms are prevalent there, and they perform photosynthesis, which
leads to the release of oxygen. Photosynthetic organisms use minerals for their growth,
and thus, the amount of nutrients decreases in epilimnion. Oxygen moves to the lower
levels of water, to hypolimnion, because it dissolves in cold water better. There, oxygen
is used by decomposers, which contribute to release of nutrients. It causes depletion in
oxygen in this layer.
14. Name the main factor that affects the distribution of photosynthetic organisms in an
aquatic ecosystem. Explain your answer.
Light availability is the main factor required for the occurrence of photosynthesis. Water
interferes with the ability of light rays to spread. Thus, the light rays can penetrate only
the upper layers of water, which explains the presence of photosynthetic organisms only
there. Such zones, where photosynthetic organism can be found, are called euphotic
zones.
15. Which of the following best explains why intertidal zones mainly have microscopic
producers?

[-A-] They are not noticed by herbivores that continuously graze the area.
[-B-] They perform photosynthesis more efficiently than plants.
[-C-] They are the only organisms that can attach to shifting soil.
[-D-] They can withstand higher salinity than multicellular organisms.
[-E-] They carry out photosynthesis under the absence of oxygen.
16. Which of the following are primary producers at hydrothermal vents?

[-A-] chemoheterotrophic bacteria

[-B-] huge tube worms
[-C-] chemoautotrophic bacteria
[-D-] photoheterotrophic bacteria
[-E-] bioluminescent bacteria

17. Sunlight does not reach the deep layers of water in oceans, neither the nutrients
produced in the euphotic zone can reach the bottom of the ocean. In this case, which
of the following can be used by organisms that function as primary producers at the
bottom of the ocean?

[-A-] hydrogen sulfide

[-B-] hydrogen peroxide
[-C-] carbon dioxide
[-D-] hydrogen sulfate
[-E-] bioluminescence

18. Compare ecosystems formed at hydrothermal vents with typical land ecosystems.

Criteria Land ecosystems Hydrothermal vents

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 Plants, algae, and
Producers Certain groups of bacteria
some bacteria
Principal process Photosynthesis Chemosynthesis
Substance being oxidized Water Hydrogen sulfide
Oxygen and organic Hydrogen sulfate and
Final product
molecules organic molecules
Light availability Yes No
Chemical bonds of
Source of energy Light
hydrogen sulfide
Biodiversity Higher Lower

Top Question
1. Every species has an optimal temperature for its growth and reproduction.
a. Design an experiment to determine the temperature preference of the
freshwater fish.
Formulate a hypothesis
- Identify control
- Identify temperature as an independent variable (IV)
- Specify IV levels/ range in oC
- Identify fish mortality in % as dependent variable/ activity/ development/
distribution
- Identify the controlled variables, such as same type of fish, same number, same
size, etc.
- Specify length of experiment or duration of experiment.
- Graph - correct possible line graph setup (axis, labels-units not necessary)
- Repeat the experiment to obtain reliable results
- Conclusion
b. Describe the effect of the following on the results of the experiment:
• fish age
• oxygen concentration
• water quality

Variable Description of effect

Fish age May affect activity levels/distribution of fish
Oxygen Attraction/avoidance influences fish response to
concentration temperature
Attraction/avoidance influences fish response to
Water quality
water temperature

Chapter 47 Conservation of Biodiversity

1. i. List the three levels of biological organization of biodiversity.
Genetic diversity, community diversity, and landscape diversity
ii. Explain how a high number of species contributes to the stability of an
ecosystem.

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 Higher number of species within ecosystem means that higher number of different
interactions is possible. Thus, the factors that maintain its existence are more
numerous. It means that, if some changes occur and some of the interactions
disappear, there will be a high number of connections, which still support the
ecosystem. Thus, if there are more species, the ecosystem is more stable.
iii. Explain why it is more efficient for maintaining biodiversity to conserve whole
communities rather than separated species.
Saving the entire community allows for preservation of several species. In addition,
saving of only one species may be complicated by the need in species, with which it
interacts. If the community is not saved, it leads to additional threats for other
species. In addition, saving the community contributes to higher level of
biodiversity.
2. Which biomes could most probably be identified as a biodiversity hotspot?

[-A-] Tundra
[-B-] Desert
[-C-] Savanna
[-D-] taiga
[-E-] Shrubland
3. A facial tumor disease used to affect Tasmania devils in the past. Recently, an alien
species was introduced in the area that caused a decrease in the Tasmania devils’
population. Currently, most of the remaining Tasmania devils got affected by this
ancient disease. Which of the following best explains the reason behind this fact?
[-A-] a decrease in food diversity
[-B-] the increase in environmental pollution
[-C-] the decrease in genetic diversity
[-D-] the destruction of habitat
[-E-] the decrease in landscape diversity
4. Explain the direct value of tropical rainforests to humans.
Tropical rainforests can provide humans with medicinal value, agricultural value, and
consumptive use value. Many of the plants, which grow in tropical rainforests, are
current or potent sources of valuable chemicals. They may be used for treatment of
diseases, including the complex ones, such as cancer. Tropical rainforests are also
habitats for species, which could be related with the ones currently used in agriculture.
Thus, in case of development of disease, which kills modern crops, it is possible to
obtain their hybrids with wild species, which are resistant to pathogen. Plants in tropical
rainforests can also be the sources of useful genes, applied for the modification of
existing crops. Finally, tropical rainforests can provide humans with food, the wood of
the trees can be used for the obtainment of materials.
5. How do plants contribute to the carbon cycle?

[-A-] They take up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

[-B-] They breakdown complex hydrocarbons.
[-C-] They take up carbon monoxide and cyanides from the atmosphere.
[-D-] They stimulate leaching of carbon minerals from rock.
[-E-] They release carbon monoxide as a waste product.

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6. Bacteria are key species that contribute to waste recycling, biogeochemical cycles,
provision of freshwater, and other processes more significantly than any other
species. However, humans rarely address the need for bacteria conservation. Which
of the following could be the reason behind this fact?

[-A-] Bacteria populations are not too high.

[-B-] Bacteria can never become endangered species.
[-C-] Bacteria are not considered flagship species.
[-D-] Bacteria cause diseases in all other organisms.
[-E-] Bacteria have the lowest genetic diversity.

7. Algae blooms are associated with excess reproduction of photosynthetic protists.

i. State the main factor that leads to algae blooms.

The release of chemicals into lakes, which in turn stimulates eutrophication due to
presence of nitrates and phosphates.
ii. Explain why in spite of the increase in algae population, algae blooms can
reduce species diversity.
The initial increase in algae population is followed by their death and decomposition
of their remains. Decomposition process uses oxygen, which becomes depleted.
Numerous animal species die because of lack in oxygen, and thus, biodiversity at the
community and ecosystem level decreases. It also reduces biodiversity at the genetic
level, because populations of animals become smaller.
8. Agriculture tries to meet the food needs of the human population. However, cattle is
considered one of the main sources of greenhouse gases.
i. Explain why the release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere reduces
biodiversity.
Release of greenhouse gases contributes to global warming, which in turn leads to
serious changes in the ecosystems and habitat destruction. These changes result in
reduction in the population sizes and extinction of species. It is directly associated
with reduction in biodiversity.
ii. Explain how an increase in the human population could promote global
warming.
Increasing human population requires more food, which is provided by agriculture.
Thus, the rate of agriculture should be increased, and it leads to higher rate of
greenhouse gases emission. It leads to global warming.
9. In the sixteenth century, rats were migrated to the Madagascar Island in ship holds.
This led to the extinction of dodo birds, the eggs of which became the preferable
food of these rats. Which of the following is most probably the reason for the dodo
bird extinction?

[-A-] colonization
[-B-] habitat loss
[-C-] overexploitation
[-D-] accidental transport
[-E-] horticulture

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10. Budgerigars are common pets all over the world. However, they are considered a
threatened species in its native region. Which of the following could best address
this situation?

[-A-] colonization
[-B-] habitat loss
[-C-] overexploitation
[-D-] accidental transport
[-E-] horticulture

11. G How do invasive species affect an ecosystem?

Exotic species, sometimes called invasive species, are nonnative members of an
ecosystem. With no natural enemies to limit their growth, invasive species are capable to
establish themselves in their new ecosystem, disrupting the succession of native species.
12. G How can human activities affect an ecosystem structure?
Humans can affect the structure of an ecosystem through causing the loss of habitats, the
introduction of exotic species, pollution, and overexploitation. Humans destroy habitats
by cutting down trees, abusing coastal areas, and destroying wetland areas.
Humans can also introduce exotic species into an ecosystem. These species multiply
rapidly, and takes over the entire ecosystem, removing or threatening native species.
Pollution has been identified as the third main cause of extinction. Various causes of
pollution include fertilizer runoff, industrial emissions, and improper disposal of wastes,
all resulting from human activities.
Overexploitation is the process of taking more individuals from a wild population than
can be naturally replaced, resulting in a decrease in the population. The clearest example
is commercial fishing.
13. G State four main possible causes of species extinction and briefly describe each.
Four main causes of species extinction include:
- climate change which refers to recent change in Earth’s climate
- pollution which refers to any contaminant introduced into the environment that
adversely affects the lives and health of living organisms
- overexploitation which is characterized by taking more individuals from a wild
population that can be naturally replaced
- introduction of exotic/invasive species which are nonnative members of an
ecosystem
(Habitat loss is also a possible cause of extinction.)
14. State the two main approaches used for species conservation.
These are:
- habitat preservation, which is performed, when habitat has not been completely
destroyed yet.
- habitat restoration, which is performed, when habitat has already been destroyed.
15. How is metapopulation associated with high risks of extinction?
[-A-] Metapopulations are too large to provide species stability.
[-B-] Metapopulations do not allow the species to reproduce independently.
[-C-] Metapopulations contain representatives of one sex.
[-D-] Metapopulations may be too small and lack genetic diversity.
[-E-] Metapopulations may be too large and lack predators.

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16. G What are keystone species?
Keystone species are species that influence the viability of a community, although their
numbers may not be excessively high.
17. G How does ecosystem diversity affect its resilience to environmental changes?
Diverse ecosystems are better able to withstand environmental changes and invasions by
other species. Massive reductions in biodiversity, such as those caused by deforestation,
significantly decrease the resilience and stability of an ecosystem.
Top Question
1. Invasive species are often introduced by humans or even occasionally. However, in
both cases they affect the natural ecosystems. Rabbits were introduced to Australia
in the nineteenth century and soon they occupied the whole continent.

a. List six different factors that could contribute to the success of rabbits in the
ecosystems of Australia.
• No natural predators, parasites, pathogens.
• Effective aggressive mechanism of invasive organism.
• No limitation on resources.
• No environmental inhibitors (e.g., pollutants).
• R-selected species; increased season for reproduction
• Variation in phenotype of large population.
• Available niche not occupied by any other species
• Prey lack effective defense mechanism against introduced species.
• Appropriate environmental conditions (e.g., rainfall, temperature).
b. List six possible results of the rabbits’ invasion.
Eliminates or decreases competitive species, thus decreasing biodiversity.
• Gause’s Law of Competitive Exclusion.
• Decreases resources available for other species (food, shelter, reproductive).
• Changes habitat (adds toxins; overpopulation).
• Addition of invasive species to unoccupied niche, thus increasing biodiversity
• Introduction of parasitic microorganism living in the invasive species into
natural population.
• Resource partitioning.
c. Suggest four reasons for the equal distribution of rabbits within the territory of
Australia.

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 All these factors are equal in the different regions of Australia.
- Temperature: Appropriate temperatures
- Rainfall / humidity: Adequate moisture
- Appropriate soil and plant composition
- Available space and unlimited resources.
d. Explain in which way viruses could be used in order to deal with the problem.
Viruses, specific to rabbit’s organisms, can be used as biological control.
Advantages of using the biological control:
- Only the rabbits’ population / host population will be affected rather than any
other species.
- This maintains the biodiversity / natural balance.
- No interruption for food web.
- The viruses are contributed to decrease the host population size.
- This is allowed to happen to a certain limit.
- State the advantages of the biological control over the other methods.

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