Table of contents

Theme: Materials

Unit I: Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour

Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Chapter 3 Metals and Non metals

Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds

Theme: The World of the Living

Unit II: World of Living

Chapter 5 Life Processes

Chapter 6 Control and Coordination

Chapter 7 How do Organisms Reproduce?

Chapter 8 Heredity

Theme: Natural Phenomena

Unit III: Natural Phenomena

Chapter 9 Light – Reflection and Refraction

Chapter 10 The Human Eye and the Colourful World

Theme: How Things Work

Unit IV: Effects of Current

Chapter 11 Electricity

Chapter 12 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Theme: Natural Resources

Unit V: Natural Resources Chapter

13 Our Environment
 Chapter 1- Chemical Reactions and Equations
1. Which of the following is the correct observation of the reaction shown in the following
setup?

(a) Brown powder of Magnesium oxide is formed.

(b) Colourless gas which turns lime water milky is evolved.
(c) Magnesium ribbon burns with brilliant white light.
(d) Reddish brown gas with a smell of burning Sulphur has evolved.

2. Which of the following statements about the given reaction

are correct? 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised
(ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

3. Which of the following are exothermic processes?

(i) Reaction of water with quick lime
(ii) Dilution of an acid
(iii) Evaporation of water
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

4. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide
accompanied by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium
hydroxide dissolves in water to form its solution called lime water. Which among the
following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the solution formed?
1. It is an endothermic reaction.
2. It is an exothermic reaction.
3. The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
4. The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
5. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true?
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only

6. MnO2 + 4HCl →MnCl 2 + 2H2O + Cl2

Identify the substance reduced in the above equation.
(a) MnCl2
(b) HCl
(c) 2H2O
(d) MnO2

7. Ethane (C2H6) on complete combustion gave CO2 and water. It shows that the
results are in accordance with the law of conservation of mass. Then, the
coefficient of oxygen is equal to
(a) 7/2
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 9/2

8. The science teacher said to Sahil to perform an experiment with lead nitrate and
potassium iodide. He done the following steps under the observation of teacher.
1. Take lead nitrate solution in a beaker.
2. Take potassium iodide solution in a test tube. (Both solutions are colourless).
3. Add potassium iodide solution slowly to the lead nitrate solution. Which chemical
reaction take place here?
a) Pb(NO3) +2KI ..... PbI2+2KNO3
b) Pb(NO3) +KI ...... PbI2+2NO3
c) Pb(NO3) +I ...... PbI+2K
d) Pb(NO3) +2KI ..... 2 PbI2+2KNO3

9. four students A B C and D were asked to carry out a decomposition reaction.

Each one followed different method as mentioned –
1) Heated aqueous solution of iron sulphate in a test tube
2)Added Zn granules to iron sulphate in a test tube and then heated the mixture
3) Heated crystals of iron sulphate in a test tube
4)Heated crystals of iron sulphate along with copper sulphate crystals in
a china dish The student who adopted the correct method is
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
10. Identify gas A in the following experiment.

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Carbon dioxide

[Link] ribbon burns in air with a dazzling white flame. This is due to the formation
of a white solid. This white solid dissolves in water and gives a solution which turns red
litmus blue. Which type of reaction is performed in above process?
(a) Combination reaction

(b) Decomposition reaction

(c) Redox reaction

(d) Oxidation reaction

12. Decomposition reaction required energy in the form of .................For breaking down the
reactant.
(a) Heat, light, pressure
(b) Heat, light, catalyst
(c) Temperature, light, pressure
(d) Heat, light, electricity

13. A substance X, an oxide of a group 2 element, is used intensively in the cement

industry. This element is present in bones also. On treatment with water, it forms a
solution which turns red litmus blue. Identify X.
a) Cao
b) CaCO3
c) CaCl2
d) Ca (OH)2

14. To facilitate the electrolysis of water we add a few drops of acids like sulphuric
acid or salts like NaCl because-
a) It acts like a catalyst
b) it prevents the decomposition of electrodes used
c) it increases the electrical conductivity of water
d) it decreases the electrical conductivity of water
15. Write values of a,b and c if following chemical reaction is
balanced . aMg + bO2 → cMgO

(a) a=1, b=2,

c=2 (b) a=2,
b=1, c=2
(c)a=2,
b=2,c=2
(d a=1, b=2.c=1

[Link] of the following reaction is not balanced

a) 2NaHCO3 Na2CO3+ H2O + CO2

b) 2C4H10+12O2 5CO2 + 10H2O
c) 2Al+6H2O 2Al(OH)3+ 3H2
d) 4NH3+5O2 4NO + 6H2O

17. When petrol, in the presence of oxygen gas, burns inside the engine of a car, carbon
dioxide and water are produced. The temperature inside the engine becomes very high.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The burning of petrol is an example of a physical change.

(b) Heat energy is taken out from the surroundings.

(c) Oxygen and petrol are the reactants in this process.

18. This process is triggered by light energyTwo ions present in the BaSO4.
a) Ba and O
b) Ba and SO4
c)Ba+2 and SO
4
-2

d)Ba and O4-

+2

19. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate
and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of
the reaction involved?
(A) Displacement reaction
(B) Precipitation reaction
(C) Combination reaction
(D) Double displacement reaction
a) Only (A)
b) Only (B)
c) Only (D)
d) (B) & (D)
 20. Which information is not conveyed by a balanced chemical equation?
a) Physical states of reactants and products
b) Symbols and formulae of all the substances involved in a particular reaction
c) Number of atoms/molecules of the reactants and products formed
d) Whether a particular reaction is actually feasible or not

sunlight
21. 2AgCl ---------------- ?
a) Silver Ash
b) Silver fumes
c) Silver metal
d) Silver nitrate

22. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous
lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity
if lead nitrate is not available, which of the given can be used in place of lead nitrate?
A) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
B) Lead acetate
C) Ammonium nitrate
D) Potassium sulphate

23. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
potassium permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally
disappears. Which of the given equation is the correct explanation for the observation?
A) KMnO₄ is an oxidizing agent, it oxidizes FeSO₄

B) FeSO₄ acts as an oxidizing agent and oxidizes KMnO₄

C) The colour disappears due to dilution, no reaction is involved

D) KMnO₄ is an unstable compound and decomposes in the presence of FeSO₄ to

a colourless compound

24. In the decomposition of lead (II) nitrate to give lead (II) oxide, nitrogen dioxide and
oxygen gas, the coefficient of nitrogen dioxide (in the balanced equation) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
 25. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 ml of water were taken. A
small amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B and
C respectively. It was observedthat there was an increase in the temperature of the solution
contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution
falls. Which one of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
(iii) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred.
(iv) In beaker C endothermic process has occurred.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iv), (ii) and (iii)

(Assertion and Reasoning Questions)

Following questions consist of two
statements
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

26. Assertion (A) : Iron articles get coated with reddish brown powder when left for
some time in the open.
Reason (R ) : Iron is attacked by substances around it such as moisture, acids, etc.

27. Assertion (A) : A complete chemical equation represents the reactants and
products and their physical state symbolically.
Reason (R) : In a combination reaction, two or more substance combine to form a new single
substance.

28. Assertion (A)-After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained
after two to three days.
Reason(R) -Calcium oxide reacts with carbon di oxide to form calcium hydrogen
carbonate which gives a shiny white finish.

29. Assertion (A)- : Composition and molecular structure of the reactants can be changed
by having a chemical change.
Reason(R): In a chemical reaction new substances and new bonds are formed and old bonds
are broken.

30. Assertion: all chemical reactions are accompanied by changes

in energy. Reason: energy is always required to drive a chemical
reaction.
 Answers- Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A B B D A A C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D A C B B C C D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B A D C A B C A C
 Chapter 2 - Acids, Bases and Salts

1. What happens when sodium hydroxide is added to a test tube containing zinc and the
content is heated?
(a)It results in formation of Zinc Hydroxide along with evolution of hydrogen gas
(b)It results in formation of Sodium Zincate along with evolution of hydrogen gas
(c)It results in formation of Sodium Zincate along with evolution of oxygen gas
(d)It results in formation of Zinc Hydroxide along with evolution of oxygen gas

2. Limestone and chalk are different forms of compound ‘A’. When excess of moist CO2
is passed through insoluble ‘A’, it results in formation of soluble Compound ‘B’ which is
:
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) Ca(HCO3)2 (c) CaO (d) CaCO3

3. Milk of Magnesia is recommended by doctors to get relief from acidity as it involves

:
(a)Displacement reaction between milk of magnesia and acid present in stomach
(b)Reaction between milk of magnesia and HCl present in stomach which results in
evolution of CO2 gas
(c) neutralization reaction between Milk of Magnesia and HCl present in stomach
(d)Reaction between milk of magnesia and HCl present in stomach which results in
evolution of H2 gas

4. On addition of Copper oxide to dilute hydrochloric acid with constant stirring, the colour
of the solution changes to blue green. The blue green colour of the solution is due to the
formation of :
(a) CuCO3 (b)Cu(OH)2 (c) CuCl2 (d) CuO

5. Which of the following statements is not true:

(i) Alkalies are water soluble bases but all bases are not alkalies.
(ii) Base turns red litmus blue and phenolphthalein solution pink.
(iii) The aqueous solution of bases conduct electricity.
(iv) Bases react with metal oxides to form salt and hydrogen gas.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)

6. While diluting sulphuric acid utmost care is taken care of as adding water to sulphuric
acid is :
(a) An endothermic process which results in evolution of heat
(b)An exothermic process which results in evolution of large amount of heat
(c)An Exothermic process which lowers the temperature of the solution
(d)An Endothermic process which increases the temperature of the solution
7.
pH Importance
i 7.0 to 7.8 a) Start of tooth decay
ii 5.6 b) pH in stomach
iii <5.5 c) Living organisms work in the pH range
iv 2 to 3 d) Acid rain

The correct match pair among the following is :

(a)i-a , ii-b , iii-c , iv-d
(b)i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
(c) i-c , ii-a, iii-d , iv-b
(d) i-b, ii-d , iii-a , iv-c

8. The word ‘acid’ is derived from Latin word ‘Acidus’ which means sour. Acids are
present in various components. The acid present in Tamarind, Gastric juice, Sting of
neetle plant, curd are respectively:
(a) HCl , Tartaric acid , Methanoic acid , Lactic acid
(b)HCl , Lactic acid , Methanoic acid , Tartaric acid
(c)Methanoic acid , Tartaric acid , HCl, Lactic acid
(d) Tartaric acid , HCl, Methanoic acid , Lactic acid

9. There are 4 test tubes containing solution of Vinegar, Baking soda, Sodium
Chloride and Sodium hydroxide respectively. The pH of the four solutions
respectively are :
(a) 3.6, 10 , 7, 8.5
(b) 3.6 , 8.5 , 7, 10
(c) 7, 8.5 , 3.6 , 10
(d) 10 , 7, 3.6 ,8.5

10. Which among the following is not correctly matched:

(a) Salt of a strong acid and a strong base - Na2SO4
(b) Salt of a strong acid and a weak base - NH4Cl
(c) Salt of a strong base and a weak acid - Na2CO3
(d) Salt of a strong acid and a strong base - CH3COONa
 11. Which statement is not true about Chlor-alkali process in which electricity is passed
through aqueous solution of NaCl :
(a) Chlorine gas is obtained at anode (b) Hydrogen gas at the cathode
(c) NaOH near the cathode (d)Oxygen gas at the cathode

12. Megha has kept curry made of Curd in copper container for overnight and found
that the curry get spoiled . This is because:
(a) Curd is acidic in nature and react with copper metal to evolve hydrogen gas
(b) Curd is basic in nature and corrode the container
(c) Curd contains acetic acid which react with copper metal
(d) Curd contain harmful bacteria which spoil the food.

[Link] aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the
following solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder
(b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution
(d) Hydrochloric acid

14. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid
and of a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

[Link] enamel is made up of:

(a) calcium phosphate
(b) calcium carbonate
(c) calcium oxide
(d) potassium

[Link] checking electric connections in rainy season, the electrician touched the
electric pole and get electrocuted. This happened because :
(a) Rain water conducts electricity
(b) The electric pole was not charged
(c) Electrician was wearing plastic gloves
(d) Rain water contains bases.
 [Link] spill the milk on pH paper and the paper appeared light green in colour but
when he spilled curd on pH paper the colour changes to orange. This is because :
(a) Curd is basic in nature
(b) Curd contain lactic acid which make it more acidic
(c) Curd contain lactobacillus bacteria which increases its basicity
(d) On curdling of milk curd becomes neutral
[Link] apparatus given in the adjoining figure was set up to demonstrate electrical
conductivity.

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not acidic.

(ii) Bulb will glow because NaOH is a strong base and furnishes ions for conduction.

(iii) Bulb will not glow because circuit is incomplete.

(iv)Bulb will not glow because it depends upon the type of electrolytic solution.

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)

(c) (ii) only

(d) (iv) only

[Link] is an :
(a) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(b) aqueous solution of sodium carbonate
(c) aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(d) aqueous solution of sodium bicarbonate

20. In terms of acidic strength, which one of the following is in the correct increasing
order?
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
[Link] hydrogen chloride gas is prepared on a humid day, the gas is usually passed
through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in
the guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas
(b) moisten the gas
(c) absorb moisture from the gas
(d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas

[Link] one of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) Gypsum

[Link] hydroxide is used :

(a) as an antacid

(b) in manufacture of soap

(c) as a cleansing agent

(d) in alkaline batteries

24.A white coloured powder used by the doctors for supporting fractured bones as well

as it forms a solid mass when mixed with water . The white powder used is :

(a)CaSO4.2H2O

(b)CaSO4.1/2HO

(c)CaSO4

(d)CaCO3

[Link] water reacts with chlorine to give:

(a) bleaching powder

(b) baking powder

(c) baking soda

(d) washing soda

[Link] Zinc metal reacts with hydrochloric acid, the gas liberated burns with pop sound
when a burning matchstick brought near it, the gas liberated is :
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen oxid
(C) Hydrogen
(d) Chlorine

[Link] constituent of baking powder which neutralizes the bitterness due to sodium
carbonate produced is :
(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(b) Tartaric acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Calcium carbonate

[Link] of acid or base with water results in ……… in the concentration of ions per
unit volume :
(a) Decreases
(b)Increases
(c)No change
(d)Reverse change

29 A white colour powder’ A’ used in glass and paper industry and removes permanent
hardness of water. The compound ‘ A’ is :
(a) NaHCO3
(b) Na2CO3
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) CaCO3

[Link] is not true about bleaching powder:

(a) Aqueous solution of bleaching powder is basic in nature
(b) Bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to reduction.
(c) Chlorine in bleaching powder is responsible for bleaching action
(d) It is known as Chloride of lime
ANSWERS- Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b)

7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a)

13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c)

19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b)

25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
 Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals
1. In which of the following applications of Iron rusting will appear most?

(a) Iron bucket electroplated with Zinc

(b) Electricity cables having iron wires covered with Aluminium
(c) Iron hinges on a gate
(d) Painted iron fence

2. The following observations were made by a student on treating four metals P, Q, R and S with a given
salt solution.

Sample MgSO4 Zn(NO3)2 CaSO4 Na2SO4

P No reaction Reaction occurs Reaction occurs No reaction
Q Reaction occurs Reaction occurs Reaction occurs Reaction occurs
R No reaction Reaction occurs No reaction No reaction
S No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

Based on the above observations, the correct order of increasing reactivity will be
(a) P>Q>R>S (c) S>Q>P>R
(b) Q>P>R>S (d) Q>P>S>R

3. A student performs some activities on two substances and records the observations in a table as shown

Activity Substance M Substance N

Cut with a knife Forms small pieces Forms small pieces
Beaten with a hammer Shape changes Changes into powder
Striken with a metal rod Makes a sound Changes into powder

Which option classifies the substances into metals and non-metals?

(a) Both the substances are metals
(b) Both the substances are non-metals
(c) Substance M is a metal while substance N is a non-metal
(d) Substance M is a non-metal while substance N is a meta
4. The atomic numbers of four elements A, B, C and D are 6, 8, 10 and 12 respectively. The two
elements which can react to form ionic compounds are
(a) A and D (c) A and C
(b) B and C (d) B and D

5. Which option classifies the substances based on their physical properties?

Good conductor of
Lustrous Malleable Bad conductor of
A electricity
electricity
Graphite and silver Copper Rubber Iron
Good conductor of
Lustrous Malleable Bad conductor of
B electricity
electricity
Copper Rubber Iron Graphite and silver
Good conductor of
Lustrous Malleable Bad conductor of
C electricity
electricity
Copper Graphite and silver Iron Rubber
Good conductor of
Lustrous Malleable Bad conductor of
D electricity
electricity
Copper Graphite and silver Rubber Iron

6. A cable manufacturing unit tested few elements on the basis of their physical properties

Properties W X Y Z
Malleable Yes No No Yes
Ductile Yes No No Yes
Electrical conductivity Yes Yes Yes No
Melting point High Low Low High

Which of the following elements were discarded for usage by the company?
(a) W, X, Y (c) W, X, Z
(b) X, Y, (d) W, Y

7. Which of the following figures correctly describes the process of electrolytic refining?
8. The diagram shows the reaction between metal and dilute acid.

What is the reason for different behavior of Mg in test tube B?

(a) Mg is a lighter element than dil HCl
(b) Mg reacts with dil HCl to produce H2 gas which helps in floating
(c) Mg reacts with dil HCl to produce N2 gas which helps in floating
(d) Mg reacts with dil HCl to produce CO2 gas which helps in floating

9. The elements whose oxides can turn phenolphthalein solution pink are:
(a) Na and K (c) Na and S
(b) K and C (d) K and P

10. An element X reacts with hydrogen, when heated, to form a covalent hydride H2X. If H2X has the
smell of rotten eggs, the element X is likely to be
(a) Carbon (c) Chlorine
(b) Sulphur (d) Phosphorous

11. The elements whose oxides can turn red litmus solution blue are:
(a) Carbon and Sulphur (c) potassium and magnesium
(b) Sodium and carbon (d) magnesium and Sulphur

12. An element X forms two oxides XO and [Link] oxide XO is neutral but XO2 is acidic in nature.
The element X is most likely to be
(a) Sulphur (c) Calcium
(b) Carbon (d) Hydrogen

13. Which of the following depicts the correct structure of CaCl2

(a) (c)

(b) (d)

14. An element E reacts with water to form a solution which turns phenolphthalein solution pink, the
element E is most likely to be
(a) S (b) Ca (c) C (d) N
15.

Which of the following two combinations are correct

Metal Gas
evolved
(i) Copper Yes
(ii) Iron Yes
(iii) Magnesiu No
m
(iv) Zinc Yes
(a) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

16. In thermite welding a mixture of and is ignited with a burning magnesium ribbon
which produces molten iron metal as large amount of heat is evolved.

(a) iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder

(b) iron (II) oxide and aluminium powder
(c) iron (III) chloride and aluminium powder
(d) iron (III) sulphate and aluminium powder

17. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.

18. Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because HNO3, is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidizes the H, produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides
(N2O, NO, NO2). But and react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve H2 gas.

(a) Pb, Cu (c) Mg, Mn

(b) Na, K (d) Al, Zn

19. Which of the following represents the correct order of reactivity for the given metals?
(a) Na > Mg > Al > Cu (c) Na > Mg > Cu > Al
(b) Mg > Na > Al > Cu (d) Mg > Al > Na > Cu
 20. On the basis of sequence of reactions, identify the most and least reactive elements.

A + BX -> AX + B

C + AY -> CY + A

(a) Most reactive: C; Least reactive: B (c) Most reactive: A; Least reactive: B
(b) Most reactive: B; Least reactive: C (d) Most reactive: B; Least reactive: A

21. in beaker Y. He then dropped some iron pieces in beaker X and some zinc pieces in beaker Y. After about

10 hours, he observed that the solution in X and Y respectively appears:

(a) Blue and green (c) Colourless and light blue

(b) Colourless and pale green (d) Greenish and colourless

22. A clean aluminium foil was placed in an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate. When the aluminium foil was

taken out of the zinc sulphate solution after 15 minutes, its surface was found to be coated with a silvery

grey deposit. From the above observation it can be concluded that:

(a) Aluminium is more reactive than zinc (c) Zinc and aluminium both are equally reactive
(b) Zinc is more reactive than aluminium (d) Zinc and aluminium both are non-reactive

23. A student prepared an aqueous solution of CuSO4 in a beaker X and an aqueous solution of FeSO4,
Q 23-27 are based on the information given below

During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals. During the process, the

impure metal is made the anode and a thin strip of pure metal is made the cathode. The solution of the

metal salt is used as an electrolyte. On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the

anode dissolves from the electrolyte. An equivalent of pure metal from the electrolyte is depositedon

the cathode.

24. The process of purification of the metal obtained after reduction is called:
(a) Extraction (c) Froth floatation
(b) Refining (d) Electrolysis
25. Which of the metals are refined by electrolytic refining?
(i) Au (ii) Cu (iii) Na (iv) K

(a) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii)

(b) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)

26. During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets

(a) Deposited on cathode. (c) Deposited on cathode as well as anode.
(b) Deposited on anode. (d) Remains in the solution.

27. In electrolytic refining of copper, impure copper act as and pure copper as :
(a) cathode, anode (c) anode , cathode
(b) cathode, electrolyte (d) electrolyte, cathode

28. The anode is and the reaction at the (C) anode is .

(a) Negative, oxidation (c) positive, oxidation
(b) Negative, reduction (d) positive, reduction

Q 28-30 are based on the information given below

A student took four metals P, Q, R and S and carried out different experiments to study the properties of
metals. Some of the observations were:

 All metals could not be cut with a knife except metal R

 Metal P combined with oxygen to form an oxide M2O3 which reacted with both acids and bases.
 Reaction with water-
P-Did not react either with cold or hot water but reacted with steam
Q-Reacted with hot water and the metal started floating
R-Reacted violently with cold water
S-Did not react with water at all.
Based on the above observations, answer the following

29. Out of the given metals, the metal Q is

(a) Iron (c) Potassium
(b) Zinc (d) Magnesium
30. The metal which forms amphoteric oxides is:
(a) P (c) R
(b) Q (d) S

31. The increasing order of the reactivity of the four metals is:

(a) P<Q<R<S (c) S<P<Q<R

(b) Q<P<R<S (d) Q<P<S<R
 ANSWERS - Metals and Non-metals
Chapter 3

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5.C 6. B

7. C 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B

13. C 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C

19. A 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. A

25. A 26. C 27. C 28.D 29. A 30. C

 Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds

1 Which of the following is/ are correct statements about Ethane-

A It have 7 covalent bonds
B Its molecular formula is C2H6
C It is an example of saturated hydrocarbon.
D All of these
2 Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition reaction?
A C3H6
B C2H2
C C2H4
D All of these
3 To distinguish an alcohol from a carboxylic acid we can use-
A A blue litmus paper
B Solid Sodium bicarbonate
C Alkaline Potassium Permanganate
D All of these
4 Among these given series which represent correct Homologous series-
A CH3OH , CH3CH2COOH, CH3CHO
B CH3OH, CH3 CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
C CH3CHO, CH3CH2CHO, CH3CH2CH2COOH
D None of these are correct

5 The soap molecule has a -

A Hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
B Hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
C Hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
D Hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail

6 Vinegar is a solution of-

A 50% - 60% acetic acid solution in alcohol
B 5% - 8% acetic acid solution in alcohol

C 5% - 8% acetic acid solution in water

D 50% - 60% acetic acid solution in water
7 CH3 CH2OH + Na ----------- A Liquid + A Gas
Identify the gas-

A Oxygen
B Carbon dioxide
C Nitrogen
D Hydrogen

8 Detergents can be used for washing of clothes-

A Only in hard water
B Only in soft water
C Both in soft and hard water
D None of the above

9 𝑯𝟑𝑪 − 𝑪̈ − 𝑶 − 𝑯 in the given structure how many Hydrogen atom could be attached
to the carbon-
A 3
B 2
C 4
D 1

10 Hard water does not easily produce lather with soap because it contains-

A Only Mg2+ ions

B Only Ca2+ ions
C Both Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions
D Na+ and K+ ions

11 In Butanal which functional group is present?

A Aldehyde
B Ketone
C Carboxylic Acid
D Alcohol

12 In CO2 molecule how many covalent bonds are present;-

A 2
B 3
C 4
D 6
 13. CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH----H+---- CH3COOCH2CH3 +H2O
Identify the reaction-
A Esterification reaction
B Saponification reaction
C Combustion reaction
D Oxidation reaction

14. CH3COOCH2CH3 + NaOH ---- CH3COONa + CH3CH2OH Identify the

reaction
A Esterification reaction
B Saponification reaction
C Combustion reaction
D Oxidation reaction

15. What is the name of this structure-

A Hexane
B Cyclohexane
C Benzene
D Hexene
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
16 FUNCTIONAL GROUP EXAMPLE OF THE COMPOUND

A ALDEHYDE I CH3COOH
B KETONE II CH3OH
C CARBOXYLIC ACID III CH3COCH3
D ALCOHOL IV ACH3CHO
17 TYPE OF REACTION REACTION

A ADDITION REACTION I

B COMBUSTION REACTION II CH4 + Cl2 + Sunlight ✑ CH3Cl + HCl

C OXIDATION REACTION III CH2=CH2 + H2 + (Nickel catalyst) ✑
CH3−CH3
D SUBSTITUTION REACTION IV C3H8 + 5O2  3CO2 + 4H2O.+ Heat + Light
 FILL IN THE BLANKS

18 Pentane have structural isomers.

19 A carbon atom have electrons in its valence shell and it can form maximum
single covalent bonds with different hydrogen atoms.
20 Diamond, Graphite and Fullerene are of carbon.

21 due to soft and good conductor of electricity is used as caron

brushes in
electric motors.
22 In rigid and 3 dimensional structure is found.

23 Crown ring structure is found in a molecule, in which atoms

participates.
REASON – ASSERTION TYPE
QUESTIONS
A- Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation of
assertion.
B- Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is not correct
explanation of assertion.
C- Assertion is correct but reason is false.
D- Assertion is false but reason is correct.
24 Assertion- Alkaline KMnO4 is used for formation of Ethanoic acid from Ethanol.
Reason- KMnO4 is a strong reducing agent.
25 Assertion- Graphite is good conductor of electricity.
Reason- In graphite each carbon bonded with three other carbon atoms and
thus have a free electron which helps in conducting electricity.
26 Assertion- Methanol is added for denaturation of alcohol.
Reason- To prevent the misuse of ethanol produced for industrial purpose, it is
made unfit for drinking.
27 Assertion- Carboxylic acids are weak acids.
Reason- In comparision with mineral acids, it don‟t ionized completely in
solution.

28 Assertion:- Esters are used in making perfumes and flavouring agents.

Reason- Esters are sweet smelling substances.
29 Assertion- When ethanol is reacted with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443 K it
produces Ethene.
Reason- conc. H2SO4 dehydrades ethanol
30 2 ml of acetic acid was added to equal volume of water and the mixture was
. shaken well for
one minute and allowed to settle. The correct representation of the observation
made would be
ANSWER- Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds
1 D 2 D 3 D 4 B 5 A
6 C 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 C
11 A 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 C
16 * 17 * 18 3 19 4,4 20 allotrope
s
21 graphit 22 diamon 23 Sulphur, 24 C 25 A
e d 8
26 A 27 A 28 A 29 A 30 IV
16 A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
17 A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
 Chapter 5 Life Processes
1. Which of the following equations show the correct conversion of CO2 and H2O into carbohydrates in
plants?

2. Digestion of food in human starts from which organ of digestive system?

A) Mouth due to presence of saliva
B) Oesophagus that moves the food in gut
C) Stomach due to gastric juice
D) Intestine due to intestinal juice

3. The image shows the cross-section of small intestine:

What is likely to happen if the number of villi increases in small intestine?

A) Increase in the absorption of food
B) Fast elimination of waste from the body
C) Increase in the breakdown of food
D) Increase in the flow of blood in the small intestine

4. A student sets up an experiment to study the role of enzymes in the digestion of food.

In which test tube, the digestion of protein will occur?

A) Test tube A as pepsin will breakdown into simple molecules.
B) Test tube B as HCl will breakdown into complex molecules.
C) Test tube A as pepsin will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
D) Test tube B as HCl provides optimum pH to activate the pepsin for breakdown of protein into
simple molecules.

5. The process in which transport of soluble products of photosynthesis occurs in plants is known as:
A) Transpiration
B) Evaporation
C) Conduction
D) Translocation
6. Given below are the steps to be followed for performing starch test on a green leaf.

(i) Boil the leaf in alcohol

(ii) Boil the leaf in water

(iii) Dip the leaf in iodine solution

(iv) Wash the leaf in water

The correct sequence of the steps is:

A) (i),(iv),(ii),(iii)

B) (ii),(iv),(i),(iii)

C) (ii),(i),(iv),(iii)

D) (iv),(i),(ii),(iii)

7. Which pathway will occur in the cell of an athlete, who is performing 100m sprint?

8. Which of these statements is correct about alveoli?

A) They form a very large surface area.
B) They have a very thin wall.
C) They are covered with blood capillaries.
D) All of these.

9. What prevents the back flow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
A) Valves in heart
B) Thick muscular wall of ventricles
C) Thin walls of atria
D) All of the above
10. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about respiration?

(i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised.

(ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses

into bloodand carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air.

(iii) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.

(iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases

A) (i) and (iv)

B) (ii) and (iii)

C) (i) and (iii)

D) (ii) and (iv)

11. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart?
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right
atriumreceives deoxygenated blood from lungs.
(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle
pumpsdeoxygenated blood to lungs.
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right ventricle which sends it to different
bodyparts
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while
leftventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body.
A) (i)
B) (ii)
C) (ii) and (iv)
D) (i) and (iii)

12. Choose the correct statement that describes arteries.

A) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure;
collect blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart
B) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood away
from the heart to various organs of the body
C) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to
various organs of the body
D) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and carry
blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.

13. The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is

A) glycogen
B) protein
C) starch
 D) fatty acid

14. The opening and closing of stomatal pore depends on

A) Oxygen
B) Temperature
C) Water in guard cells
D) Concentration of CO2 in guard cells

15. Match the column A with Column B.

[Link]. Column A Column B
a) Phloem (i) Excretion
b) Nephron (ii) Translocation of food
c) Veins (iii) Clotting of blood
d) Platelets (iv) Deoxygenated blood
A) a)-(i), b)-(iii), c)-(ii), d)-(iv)
B) a)-(ii), b)-(i), c)-(iv), d)-(iii)
C) a)-(ii), b)-(i), c)-(iii), d)-(iv)
D) a)-(i), b)-(ii), c)-(iv), d)-(iii)

16. The filtration unit of kidneys are called

A) Ureter
B) Urethra
C) Nephrons
D) Neurons

17. In artificial kidney, which substance passes from the blood to the dialysis fluid?
A) Urea
B) Ammonia
C) Uric acid
D) Creatinine

18. Which is not true about haemoglobin?

A) It is a respiratory pigment.
B) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbondioxide.
C) It is present in RBCs.
D) Its deficiency causes anaemia.

19. Identify the correct path of urine in human body?

A) Kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
B) Urinary bladder → ureter → kidney → urethra
C) Kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary bladder
D) Kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra

20. Which part of nephron allows selective reabsorption of useful substances like glucose, amino acids,
salts and water into blood capillaries?
A) Glomerulus
B) Tubule
C) Bowman‟s capsule
D) Ureter
 ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Q. No. 21-26 consists of two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Answer these questions
byselecting the appropriate option given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

21. Assertion (A): Resins and gums are stored in old xylem tissues in plants.
Reason (R): Resins and gums facilitate transport of water molecules.

22. Assertion (A): Lipase helps in emulsification of fats.

Reason (R): Lipase hydrolyses fats and oils.

23. Assertion (A): Alveoli contain an extensive network of blood vessels.

Reason (R): Alveoli is the site where exchange of gases occurs.

24. Assertion (A): Human body produces highly toxic substances, which if not eliminated may cause the
death.
Reason (R): Mostly nitrogenous wastes are removed from our body.

25. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis is an anaerobic process.

Reason (R): The process of photosynthesis occurs in chlorophyll.

26. Assertion (A): Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure.

Reason (R): It is measured by sphygmomanometer.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

27. Heterotrophic nutrition is a mode of nutrition in which organisms obtain readymade organic
food from outside sources. The organism that depend on outside sources for obtaining organic
nutrients are called heterotrophs. Saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic nutrition are examples of
different types
of heterotrophic nutrition.
i) In which of the following group of organisms, food material is broken outside the body
andabsorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba (b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta (d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm

ii) The false feet of Amoeba is referred to as

(a) Mucor (b) Cytosome (c) Cilia (d) Pseudopodia
iii) Which of the following is an example of saprotroph?
(a) Grasshopper (b) Mushroom (c) Amoeba. (d) Paramecium
iv) Heterotrophic nutrition involves
(a) Production of simple sugar from inorganic compounds
(b) Utilization of chemical energy to prepare food.
(c) Utilization of energy obtained by plants
(d) All of these
28. Given are the sections of two pipes, A and B. If you need to represent blood vessels with these, which
of the pipes would correspond to the artery and which one to a vein. Identifyit and answer the following
questions.

i) B is best defined as the vessel which

(a) always supply oxygenated blood to the different organs

(b) always carry blood away from the heart to different organs

(c) always break up into capillaries that reunite to form a vein

(d) always carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ.

ii) In A, valves are present to check backward flow of blood flowing at

(a) atmospheric pressure (c) low pressure

(b) high pressure (d) all of these

iii) Which of the following statements is correct regarding A?

(a) Carries blood from an organ towards the heart

(b) Always carry oxygenated blood with single exception

(c) Carries blood from heart towards the organ

(d) All of these

iv) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) A has typically larger lumen than B.

(b) Walls of B are elastic enabling them to stretch and shrink during changes inblood

pressure

(c) Flow of blood is slower in A than in B

(d) None of these

29. Transpiration is the evaporative loss of water by plants. It occurs mainly through the
stoma in the leaves. Besides the loss of water vapour in transpiration, exchange of oxygenand carbon
dioxide in the leaf also occurs through pores called stomata. Normally stomataremain open in the day
time and close during the night.
i) Which of the following will not directly affect transpiration?
(a) Temperature (c) Wind speed
(b) Light (d) Chlorophyll content of leaves
 ii) Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening.

Through the same stomatal opening, carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during

photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options.

(a) The above processes happen only during night time.

(b) One process occurs during day time and the other at night.

(c) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

(d) Both processes can happen together at day time.

iii) Which of the following statements is not true for stomatal apparatus?

(a) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria.

(b) Guard cells are always surrounded by subsidiary cells.

(c) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange.

(d) Inner wall of guard cells are thick.

iv) Refer to the given graphs regarding factors affecting transpiration rate and select

the correct option.

(a) P-Atmospheric temperature; Q-Atmospheric pressure

(b) P-Relative humidity; Q-Atmospheric temperature

(c) P-Air movement; Q-Light

(d) P-Atmospheric pressure; Q-Relative humidity

30. Our body needs to remove the wastes that build up from cell activities and from digestion.
It these wastes are not removed, then our cells can stop working and we can get very [Link] organs
of our excretory system help to release wastes from our body. The excretory system consists of a pair
of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra.
Each kidney is made up of nearly one million complex tubular structures called nephrons. The
formation of urine involves various processes that takes place in the different parts ofthe nephron. Each
nephron consists of a cup-shaped upper end called Bowman's capsule containing a bunch of capillaries
called glomerulus. Bowman's capsule leads to tubular structure-proximal convoluted tubule, loop of
Henle and distal convoluted tubule which ultimately joins the collecting tubule.
 i) The following substances are the excretory products in animals. Choose the least

toxic form.

(a) Urea (c) Ammonia CO2

(b) Uric acid (d) CO2

ii) A person who is not taking food or beverages will have in urine.

(a) little glucose (c) excess urea

(b) less urea (d) little fat

iii) Glomerular filtrate is first collected by

(a) distal convoluted tubule (c) Bowman's capsule

(b) proximal convoluted tubule (d) loop of Henle

iv) The given figure represents a single nephron from a mammalian kidney. Identify

the labelled parts, match them with the options (I-IV) and select the correctanswer.

(I) The site of ultrafiltration

(II) Collect the urine and make it more concentrated

(III) The main site for the reabsorption of glucose and amino acids

Largely responsible for the maintenance of blood pH

(a) (I)-A, (II)-E, (lII)-C, (IV)-D

(b) (I)-A, (lI)-B, (lII)-C, (lV)-D

(c) (I)-B, (II)-A, (lII)-C, (IV)-E

(d) (I)-E, (lI)-B, (lII)-D, (lV)-A

 Chapter 5 Life Processes
ANSWER KEY

1. C 7. C 13. C 19. D 25. C

2. A 8. D 14. C 20. B 26. B

3. A 9. A 15. B 21. C 27. i) B ii) D iii) B iv) C

4. D 10. D 16. C 22. D 28. i) B ii) C iii) A iv) D

5. D 11. C 17. A 23. A 29. i) D ii) D iii) B iv) A

6. D 12. D 18. B 24. B 30. i) B ii) B iii) C iv) A

 Chapter 6 Control and Coordination
1) The image shows the structure of a neuron.

How will information travel within a neuron?

(a) Dendrite -> cell body -> axon -> nerve ending
(b) Dendrite -> axon -> cell body -> nerve ending
(c) Axon -> dendrite -> cell body -> nerve ending
(d) Axon -> cell body -> dendrite -> nerve ending

2) When we touch the leaves of “touch-me-not” plant, they began to fold up and droop.
How does the plant communicate the information of touch?
(a) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from external environment to cells.
(b) The plant uses electrical- chemical signals to transfer information from cell to cell.
(c) The plant uses electrical- chemical signals to transfer information from tissue to specialized cells.
(d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from cell to specialized tissues.

3) What is a likely limitation of electric impulses?

(a) The electric impulses travel slowly between the neurons.
(b) The electric impulses allow signal transmission in multiple directions.
(c) The electric impulses are transmitted to only those body parts that are connected to neurons.
(d) The electric impulses once generated needs to be transmitted quickly within the body.

4) Organisms depend on hormones as well as electric impulses for the transmission of signals from brain
to rest of the body. What can be a likely advantage of hormones over electric impulses?
(a) It is secreted by all types of cells present in the body.
(b) It is secreted by stimulated cells and reaches all cells of the body.
(c) It is relayed to the target organ at a faster rate than electric impulses.
(d) It does not depend on an external stimulus to be generated in the cells.
5) Which option correctly shows the sequence of events that occur when we touch a hot utensil?

a b

c d

6) Which option correctly shows the order of events when a bright light is focused on our eyes?
(a) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→ sensory neuron→ spinal cord→ motor neurons→ eyelid closes
(b) Bright light → receptors in eyes→ spinal cord→ sensory neuron→ motor neurons→ eyelid closes
(c) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→ sensory neuron→ motor neurons→ spinal cord→ eyelid closes
(d) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→ spinal cord→ motor neurons→ sensory neuron → eyelid closes

7) What is the function of pituitary gland?

(a) to develop sex organs in males
(b) to stimulate growth in all organs
(c) to regulate sugar and salt level in the body
(d) to initiate metabolism in the body

8) A female is suffering from irregular menstrual cycle. The doctor prescribed her some
hormonal tablets. Which option shows the hormone she lacks in her body from the endocrine
gland?
(a) oestrogen (b) testosterone
(c) adrenalin (d) thyroxin
9) The image shows the labelled structure of a brain

Which parts of the brain controls the blood pressure?

(a) spinal cord, skull, hypothalamus

(b) cord, skull, cerebrum

(c) Pons, medulla, cerebellum

(d) pons, medulla, pituitary

10) 1. Which plant hormone promotes dormancy in seeds and buds?

(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

11) Roots of plants are:

(a) positively geotropic
(b) negatively geotropic
(c) positively phototropic
(d) None of these

12) Response of plant roots towards water is called:

(a) Chemotropism
b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Geotropism
13) Which plant hormone promotes cell division?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Abscisic acid

14) The main function of abscisic acid in plants is

(a) to promote cell division.
(b) to inhibit growth.
(c) to promote growth of stem.
(d) to increase the length of cells.

15) Akshay potted some germinated seeds in a pot. He put the pot in a cardboard box that
was open from one side. He keeps the box in a way that the open side of box faces sunlight near his
window. After 2-3 days he observes the shoot bends towards light as shown in image.
Which type of tropism he observes?

(a) Geotropism (b) Phototropism

(c) Chemotropism (d) Hydrotropism
16) A part of the body which responds to the instructions sent from nervous system is called
(a) receptor
(b) effector
(c) nerves
(d) muscles

17) The longest fibre on the cell body of a neuron is called

(a) sheath
(b) cytoplasm
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
18) Which nerves transmit impulses from the central nervous system towards muscle cells?
(a) Sensory nerves
(b) Motor nerves
(c) Relay nerves
(d) Cranial nerves

19) A microscopic gap between a pair of adjacent neurons over which nerve impulses pass is called
(a) neurotransmitter (b) dendrites
(c) axon (d) synapse

20) Give the missing term

(a) Spinal cord

(b) Brain
(c) Cranial nerves
(d) Relay nerves

21) Main function of cerebrum is

(a) thinking
(b) hearing
(c) memory
(d) balancing

22) Posture and balance of the body is controlled by

(a) Pons
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum

23) Which of the following acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Liver

24) Identify which of the following statements about thyroxin is incorrect?

(a) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize thyroxin.
(b) Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone.
(c) It regulates protein, carbohydrates and fat metabolism in the body.
(d) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin.
25) The secretion of which hormone leads to physical changes in the body when you are 10-12 years of
age?
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovar.
(b) Estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland.
(c) Testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary.
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland.

26) A diabetic patient suffers from deficiency of which hormone?

(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Insulin

27) Which of the following endocrine glands does not exist in pairs?
(a)Testes
(a) Adrenal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Ovary

28) Which gland secretes the growth hormone?

(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Thyroid
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Adrenal

29) The graph shows the average height of boys and girls in a population

What does the graph indicate?

A. The average height of boys is always greater than that of girls.

B. The average height of girls is greater than that of boys in adulthood.

C. The average height of girls during puberty is greater than that of boys.

D. The average heights of girls and boys are the same between 4 and 20 years.

30) Which of these health conditions is caused by a hormonal imbalance in the body?

A. Scurvy B. Typhoid C. Diabetes D. Common cold

ANSWER- Chapter 6 Control and Coordination

1 A 7 B 13 C 19 D 25 C

2 B 8 A 14 B 20 A 26 D

3 C 9 C 15 B 21 A 27 C

4 B 10 D 16 B 22 C 28 A

5 B 11 A 17 C 23 A 29 C

6 A 12 C 18 B 24 D 30 C
 Chapter 7 How do Organisms
Reproduce?
Q. 1:- The given figure shows the stages of binary fission in Amoeba which one of the
following would you select as the correct sequence of stages.

(a) A, B, C, D.
(b) A, C, D, B.
(c) B, D, A, C.
(d) C, A, D, B.
Q. 2:- The given figure represents which type of Asexual reproduction.

(a) Budding in Hydra

(b) Fragmentation in spirogyra
(c) Regeneration in Planaria
(d) Budding in Planaria
Q.3 :- In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structure bearing sporangia at their tips are
called .

(a) Filaments
(b) Rhizoids
(c) Roots
(d) Hyphae
Q.4 :- The given diagrams represents the reproductive systems in the human male and
female. The blockage shown at A and B would most likely interfere with the ability
to .

(a) Transport gametes

(b) Eliminate waste products through urethra
(c) Produce mature gametes
(d) Express secondary sexual characters

Q.5 :- Observe the following figures and select the correct option.

(a) It is a type of sexual reproduction

(b) It is a type of Asexual reproduction
(c) It is a type of Vegetative propagation
(d) It is a type of parthenogenesis.

Q.6 :- Consider the following statements and select the option which correctly identify
true (T) and false (F)

(I) Ovary ripens to form seeds and ovules ripens to form fruits after
fertilization.
(II) The Ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.
(III) Pollination occur before fertilization.
(IV) Cutting, layering, grafting and tissue culture are the natural methods of
vegetative propagation.

(a) (I)-T, (II)-F, (III)- T, (IV)-T

(b) (I)-T, (II)-F, (III)- T, (IV)-F
(c) (I)-F, (II)-F, (III)- T, (IV)-T
(d) (I)-T, (II)-T, (III)- T, (IV)-F
Q.7:- Rahul observed that a pond with clear water was covered up with

green algae within a week. By which method of reproduction did the

algae spread so rapidly

(a) Budding

(b) Binary fission

(c) Fragmentation

(d) Regenertation

Q.8:- Match the organisms with type of asexual reproduction.

Section - Section -

A B

1-Fission i-Spirogyra

2-Fragmentation ii-Paramecium

3-Regeneration iii-Rhizobium

4-Spore formation iv-Planaria

(a) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

(b) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

(c) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)

(d) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)

Q.9 Male gametes and sex hormones are produced in ------------------ structure.

(a) P (b)Z (c) L (d) Y

Q. 10:- Which of the following statements are true for flowers.

(I) Flowers are always bisexual
(II) They are the sexual reproductive organs.
(III) They are produced in all groups of plants.
(IV) After fertilization they give rise to fruits

(a)(I) and (II) (b)(II) and (IV)

(c)(I) and (III) (d)(I) and (IV)
Q.11:- Identify the parts labeled 1 and 2 in the given figure.

(a) 1-micropyle, 2-epicotyledon

(b) 1- cotyledon, 2-embryo
(c) 1- radicle, 2-plumule
(d) 1-plumule, 2- radicle
Q.12 :- The correct sequence of organs in male reproductive system for transport of sperms
is
(a) Testis →Vas deferens →Urethra
(b) Testis →Ureter →Urethra
(c) Testis →Vas deferens →Ureter
(d) Testis → Ureter → Vas deferens
Q.13 :- Identify the wrong pair from the following.
(a) Euglena −Binary fission
(b) Yeast − Budding
(c) Spirogyra − Fragmentation
(d) Hydra − Multiple fission
 Q.14 :- Which of the following is a birth control measure:
A – IUCD
B−Vasectomy
C−Contraceptive pills
D− Puberty
(a) A, B and D
(b) A, B and C
(c) A, C and D
(d) B ,C and D

Q.15 :- Which term describes the method of reproduction shown in the diagram?

(a) Fragmentation
(b) Budding
(c) Spore formation
(d) Binary fission
Q.16 :- Match the following with correct response

SECTION -A SECTION -B

1- Ovary A-Tying or cutting the fallopian tube

2- Vasectomy B-Form fruits and ovules form seeds

3- Tubectomy C-Individual having both sexes

4- Hermaphordite D- Tying or cutting the vas deference

(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
(d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

Q.17 :- Testis in Mammals descend into Scrotum Because-----

(a) The scrotum serves as the temperature control system of the testis.
(b) The scrotum acts as a passage for transportation of sperm.
(c) Scrotum provides nutritional material for sperm
(d) Scrotum provides a disease prone medium to the sperm outside the body
Q.18 :- Pollen grains of wind pollinated plants are--------

(a) Spongy, heavy

(b) Sticky, heavy
(c) spongy ,light
(d) light, Sticky

Q.19 :- Rhizome ,Tubers and Corms are Underground -----------------that help in

Vegetative Propagation

(a) Root
(b) Flower
(c) Leaf
(d) Stem

Q.20 :- Which of the following is correct about menstruation?

A-It is liberation of ovum from ovary
B -It indicates absence of fertilization.
C-It occurs on first 3-5 days of menstrual cycle
D-It leads to formation of Corpus luteum.
(a) All of these
(b) B and C
(c) A and B
(d) A and C
Q.21 :- Where does the fertilization take place in the of the female
reproductive system -

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q.22 :- Match the following with correct response

SECTION -A SECTION -B

1-Rrproduction A-Creation of an additional cellular

apparatus

2-DNA copying B-It enables the exchange of nutrients

between the mother‟s blood to foetus

3-Placenta C-To maintain the continuity of life

4-Variation D- It makes one organism different

from the other organism

(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

(c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A

(d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

Q.23 :- The image shows the structure of flower

Which of the following processes will likely be disturbed or not occur if the labeled
part is removed from the flower?
(a) Formation of Fruit
(b) transportation pollen
(c) Formation of Pollen Tube
(d) Formation of Pollens

Q.24 :- The Number of Chromosomes in Parents and Offspring of Particular Species

remains constant due to-----
(a) Dubbing of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) Halving chromosome after gamete formation

Q.25 :- What is the primary function of “Z”

(a) Produce the fluid that nourishes and transports sperm

(b) Produce sperm and male hormones

(c) Deliver urine, copulating organ

(d) Carry and Support Testis

Q.26 :- Choose the correct statement with reference to human placenta

(a) To provide oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, remove carbon dioxide
and other waste products.
(b) Produce eggs for fertilization.
(c) Produce the reproductive hormones oestrogen, progesterone and
androgens.
(d) Remove waste products from the blood and produce urine.
 Which of the following is a method of contraception?
Q.27 :-
(a) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
(b) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(c) Tubectomy
(d) Ovulation

Q.28 :- What is the name of the process illustrated in the diagram?

(a) Vegetative propagation

(b) Fragmentation
(c) Rhizome formation
(d) Spore dispersal

Q.29 :- In the given diagram the leaf shown belongs to which plant?

(a) Hibiscus
(b) Money plant
(c) Mustard
(d) Bryophyllum

Q. 30: Choose the option that correctly identify the vegetative propagation method shown
below and describes the advantage of the process.

(a) Stem cutting; Helps produce many plants quickly.

(b) Tissue culture; New varieties can be grown easily.
(c) Grafting; Provides advantages of stem and root system of
two differentplants A floral sexual reproduction; enables
sexual
(d) reproduction without flowers
ANSWER- Chapter 7 How do Organisms Reproduce?

Q.1 C Q. 7 C Q.13 D Q. 19 D Q.25 A

Q. 2 C Q. 8 B Q.14 B Q.20 A Q.26 A
Q. 3 B Q. 9 B Q. 15 B Q.21 B Q.27 C
Q. 4 A Q.10 B Q.16 B Q.22 D Q.28 A
Q. 5 B Q.11 D Q.17 A Q.23 A Q.29 D
Q. 6 D Q.12 A Q. 18 C Q.24 B Q.30 C
 Chapter 8 Heredity

1. Which of the following statements best describes the role of sexual reproduction in generating
variations?
a) Sexual reproduction leads to minimal variations compared to asexual reproduction.
b) Sexual reproduction results in greater diversity due to the rules of inheritance.
c) Asexual reproduction produces more variations due to DNA copying inaccuracies.
d) Variations in sexual reproduction are solely determined by environmental factors.

2. What did Mendel observe about the traits of pea plants in the F1 generation?
a) They exhibited a mixture of both parental traits.
b) They showed only one of the parental traits.
c) They displayed completely new traits not present in the parents.
d) They were identical to the parental generation in all traits.

3. In Mendel's experiments, what was the result of self-pollination of F1 tall plants?

a) All progeny were tall.
b) Some progeny were tall, while others were short.
c) All progeny were short.
d) None of the progeny exhibited traits similar to the parents.

4. Which term best describes traits that are expressed even when only one copy is present in an
organism?
a) Recessive traits
b) Dominant traits
c) Inherited traits
d) Environmental traits

5. What is the significance of Mendel's experiments with pea plants?

a) They demonstrated the role of environmental factors in inheritance.
b) They established the laws of inheritance and the concepts of dominant and recessive traits.
c) They proved that genetic material is not passed down from parents to offspring.
d) They showed that variations in traits are solely determined by chance.

6. In Mendel's experiments, the offspring of the first generation (F1) displayed only one of the parental
traits, indicating the dominance of certain .
a) alleles
b) chromosomes
c) genes
d) mutations

7. In Mendel's experiments, if a tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt), what would be the
genotype(s) of the F1 generation?
a) TT
b) Tt
c) tt
d) Both a and b

8. Mendel's principles of inheritance laid the foundation for the science of .

a)Genetics
b)Life
c)Human
d)Pea Plant
9. How do genes control characteristics or traits?
a) By directly producing proteins
b) By regulating hormone production
c) By influencing cell division
d) By modifying environmental factors

10. During sexual reproduction, what is the role of germ cells?

a) They produce hormones
b) They generate genetic variation
c) They regulate cell growth
d) They maintain genetic stability

11. In humans, sex determination is primarily influenced by:

a) Environmental factors
b) Hormonal cues
c) Genetic inheritance
d) Dietary intake

12. How do germ cells differ from somatic cells?

a) Germ cells are diploid, while somatic cells are haploid.
b) Germ cells undergo meiosis, while somatic cells undergo mitosis.
c) Germ cells are found in plants, while somatic cells are found in animals.
d) Germ cells have a different set of chromosomes compared to somatic cells.

13. Which pair of chromosomes is responsible for determining sex in humans?

a) 21st pair
b) 22nd pair
c) X and Y chromosomes
d) Autosomal chromosomes

14. How does a mutation in a gene affect protein production?

a) It increases the efficiency of protein synthesis
b) It decreases the stability of mRNA
c) It alters the amino acid sequence of the protein
d) It has no effect on protein function

15. How did Mendel's experiments demonstrate the concept of dominance and recessiveness?
a) By crossing purebreed tall plants with purebreed short plants
b) By crossing plants with yellow seeds with plants with green seeds
c) By crossing plants with smooth seeds with plants with wrinkled seeds
d) By crossing plants with purple flowers with plants with white flowers

16. What principle did Mendel's experiments illustrate regarding the inheritance of traits?
a) The principle of dominance
b) The principle of segregation
c) The principle of independent assortment
d) The principle of genetic drift

17. In the scenario where a man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O, and their
daughter has blood group O, what conclusion can be drawn about blood group inheritance?
a) Blood group O is dominant over blood group A
b) Blood group A is dominant over blood group O
c) Blood group A and O are codominant
d) Blood group inheritance cannot be determined from this information
18. How is the sex of a child determined in human beings?
a) By the mother's genotype
b) By the father's genotype
c) By the combination of sex chromosomes inherited from both parents
d) By environmental factors during gestation

19. What is the main difference between traits acquired during an individual's lifetime and inherited
traits?
a) Acquired traits are controlled by environmental factors, while inherited traits are determined by
genes.
b) Acquired traits are passed on to offspring, while inherited traits are not.
c) Inherited traits can be altered by environmental factors, while acquired traits cannot.
d) Acquired traits are more variable than inherited traits.

20. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RRyy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rrYY)
the seeds produced in F1 generation are
a) round and yellow
b) wrinkled and yellow
c) round and green
d) wrinkled and green

21. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired
chromosome is/are
(i) large chromosome
(ii) small chromosome
(iii) Y-chromosome
(iv) X-chromosome
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) only
c) (iii) and (iv
d) (ii) and (iv)

22. Select the statements that describe characteristics of genes

(i) genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule
(ii) a gene does not code for proteins
(iii) in individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome
(iv) each chromosome has only one gene
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
23. The inheritance of colour trait in flower is as shown.

R and r denote two different genes for colour. Which law of Mendel can be explained using the
image?
a) Only Law of segregation
b) Only Law of independent assortment
c) Law of segregation and Law of dominance
d) Law of segregation and Law of independent assortment

24. Two individuals are as shown using geometric shapes.

Their sex chromosomes are respectively denoted by Xf Xm, and Y. What are the possible
combinations of sex chromosomes for their male and female offspring respectively?
a)XfXm and XmXm
b) XmY and XmXm
c) XfY and XmY
d) XmY and XmXf

25. The image shows the traits present across generations of a family.

Based on the image, what can be inferred about the eye colour trait?
a) Acquired trait because both male and females have it.
b) Acquired trait because it is expressed in all the generations.
c) Inherited trait because it is expressed in two different colours.
d) Inherited trait because it depends on the traits of preceding generation.
26. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green seeds. If a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant is
crossed with a green-seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green-seeded plants would you expect in the
F1 generation?
a) 9:1 b) 3:1 c) 1:3 d) 1:1

27- 34. Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answerthese
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

27. Assertion: Mendel's principle of segregation states that during gamete formation, alleles for a trait
segregate randomly.
Reason: The segregation of alleles during gamete formation occurs independently of other traits.
28. Assertion: The phenotype of an organism is solely determined by its genotype.
Reason: The genotype of an organism represents its genetic makeup, which directly determines its
observable traits.

29. Assertion: Mendel's experiments with pea plants showed that traits are inherited randomly and
unpredictably.
Reason: Mendel's principles of inheritance established that traits are inherited according to specific
rules, with dominance and recessiveness playing a role.

30. Assertion: Punnett squares are used to predict the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of offspring in
genetic crosses.
Reason: Punnett squares involve the random assortment of alleles during gamete formation.

31. Assertion: In humans, sex is largely genetically determined by the inheritance of sex chromosomes.
Reason: Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome
(XY).

32. Assertion: Germ cells undergo meiosis during sexual reproduction.

Reason: Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half,
leading to the formation of haploid gametes.

33. Assertion: Sexual reproduction leads to greater genetic diversity compared to asexual reproduction.
Reason: Sexual reproduction involves the recombination of genetic material from two parents, leading
to offspring with unique combinations of traits.

34. Assertion: If blood group of both mother and father is O then the blood group of children will also
be O.
Reason: Blood group in humans is determined by many alleles of a gene viz. IA, IB, I0.

35. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies.
Reason: This cross follows Mendelian law as one of the parent plant might be heterozygous.
ANSWER- Chapter 8 Heredity

1. B 7. B 13. C 19. A 25. D 31. A

2. B 8. A 14. C 20. A 26. D 32. A

3. A 9. A 15. A 21. C 27. A 33. A

4. B 10. B 16. A 22. B 28. D 34. D

5. B 11. C 17. D 23. C 29. D 35. A

6. A 12. B 18. C 24. D 30. A

 Chapter 9 Light – Reflection
and Refraction
1. Focal length of plane mirror is
A)At infinity
B) Zero
C) Negative
D) None of these

2. The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero reflection angle is
A) 0
B) 30°
C) 45°
D) 90°

3. In which condition does a concave mirror produce a virtual image?

A) When object is located within the focal length
B) When object is located at the centre of curvature
C) When object is located in between infinity and the centre of curvature
D) When object is located in between the centre of curvature and the focus

4. Which of these is a convex mirror?

A) . Shaving mirror
B) Dentist‟s mirror
C) Headlight mirror of a bike
D) Rear-view mirror of a car

5. A mirror magnifies the image of an object by minus 1.5 times, Which of the following
is true about the image produced by the mirror
A) The image is real and larger than the object.
B) The image is real and smaller than the object
C) The image is virtual and larger than the object
D) The image is virtual and smaller than the object.

6.
Which of these can be concluded from diagram 1
A)
B)
C)
D)
7.

A Image is formed at the focus..

B) B. Size of the image is equal to the size of the object
C) Distance between pole and centre of curvature is twice the focal length
D) D. Distance between the image and focus is half the distance between the object and
focus

8. Select the incorrect statement stated below related to concave mirror

A) Outer surface is coated with opaque substance
B) Inner surface is polished and thus reflective
C) It is known as converging mirror
D) It is used to observe the phenomenon of refraction
9. The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the
object. The position of object should be
A) at the focus
B) at the centre of curvature
C) between focus and centre of curvature
D) beyond centre of curvature
10. As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have
A) increased velocity
B) (b) decreased velocity
C) decreased wavelength
D) both (b) and (c)
11. The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value
of i is
A) 0°
B) 45°
C) 90°
D) depend on the material of the slab
 12. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?
A) Convex mirror
B) ) Plane mirror
C) Concave mirror
D) ) Combination of convex and concave mirror

13. A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It‟s focal length in air and water
differ by

A) 15
B)20
C)30
D)0
14. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an image having twice the size of object.
For the virtual position of object, the position of object will be at
A) 25 cm
B)40cm
C)10cm
D) At infinity

15. As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have (

A) increased velocity
B) decreased velocity
C) decreased wavelength
D) both (b) and (c)

16. Light from the Sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called
A) centre of curvature
B) focus
C) radius of curvature
D) optical centre

17. A divergent lens will produce

A) always real image
B) always virtual image
C) both real and virtual image
D) none of these

18. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles

A) is less than one
B) is more than one
C) is equal to one
D) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of
it.

19. The laws of reflection hold good for

A) plane mirror only
B) concave mirror only
C) convex mirror only
D) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
 20. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular
glass slab traced by fourstudents are shown as A,B,C and D in figure. Which one
of them is correct?

A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d

21. Magnifying power of a concave lens is

A) always > 1
B) always < 1
C) always = 1
D) can have any value

22. If the power of a lens is – 2 D, what is its focal length?

A) +50 cm
B) -100 cm
C) -50 cm
D) +100 cm

23. If an incident ray passes through the focus, the reflected ray will
A) pass through the pole
B) be parallel to the principal axis
C) retrace its path
D) pass through the centre of curvature

24. The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be
A) 1.33 × 108 m/s
B) 3 × 108 m/s
C) 2.26 × 108 m/s
D) 2.66 × 108 m/s

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason(R).

Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given

below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
 25. Assertion (A) : Light does not travel in the same direction in all the media.
Reason (R) : The speed of light does not change as it enters from one transparent
medium to
another.
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d

26. Assertion(A) : Light travels faster in glass than in air.

Reason (R) : Glass is denser than air.
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d

27. Assertion(A) : Mirror formula can be applied to a plane mirror.

Reason (R) : A plane mirror is a spherical mirror of infinite focal length.
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d

28. Assertion(A) : Refractive index has no units.

Reason (R) : The refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities.
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d

29) (i) The location of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity is
(a) at focus
(b) at 2F
(c) at optical center
(d) between F and 2F

ii) When the object is placed at the focus of concave lens, the image formed is
(a) real and smaller
(b) virtual and inverted
(c) virtual and smaller
(d) real and erect

iii) The size of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at the focus of
convex lens
is
(a) small
(b) point in size
(c) highly magnified
(d) same as that of object
(iv) When the object is placed at 2F in front of convex lens, the location of image is
(a) at F
(b) at 2 F on the other side
(c) at infinity
between F and optical center
30. Which of the following statements is true?
i) A convex lens with power + 4 D has a focal length – 0.40 m.
ii) A convex lens with power – 4 D has a focal length + 0.25 m.
iii) A concave lens with power + 4 D has a focal length – 0.25 m.
iv) A concave lens with power – 4 D has a focal length – 0.25 m.

31-Fill in the blanks

1. The refractive index of a medium gives an indication of the .................... Ability of
that medium
2. When a ray of light goes from water to air, it bends ................ From the normal
3. When a ray of light goes from air to glass, it bends ………The normal
4. The speed of light is …… in glass then air
5. The absolute refractive index is always ….. then unity
[Link] relative refractive index can be less then ………
 ANSWER KEY Chapter 9 Light –
Reflection and Refraction

1. C 7. A 13. D 19. A 25. D

2. A 8. C 14. C 20. D 26. C
3. B 9. C 15. D 21. B 27. A
4. D 10. D 16. B 22. B 28. A
5. C 11. A 17. B 23. C 29. B
6. 12. C 18. A 24. B 30. D

Answer; Fill in the blanks

1. bending
2. away
3. towards
4. less
5. Greater
6. Unity
 Chapter 10 The Human Eye and the
Colourful World

Q1) A person went for a medical check-up and found that the curvature of his eye
lens wasincreasing. Which defect is he likely to suffer from?
(a) Myopia (b) Cataract
(c) Presbyopia (d) Hypermetropia

Q2) A person gets out in the sunlight from a dark room. How does his pupil regulate
and controlthe light entering the eye?
(a) The size of the pupil will decrease, and less light will enter the eye
(b) The size of the pupil will decrease, and more light will enter the eye
(c) The size of the pupil will remain the same, but more light will enter the eye
(d) The size of the pupil will remain the same, but less light will enter the eye

Q3) When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) Crystalline lens (b) The outer surface of the cornea
(c) Iris (d) Pupil

Q4) In which part of the human eye is the image of an object formed?
(a) Iris (b) Pupil
(c) Retina (d) Cornea

Q5) The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can
be easilyseen from a distance because, among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog (d) moves fastest in the air

Q6) Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

Q7) A person sees an object closer to his eyes. What changes will take place in his eyes?
(a) the pupil size will expand
(b) the ciliary muscles will contract
(c) the focal length of the eye lens will increase
(d) the light entering the eye will be more

Q8) The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) dispersion (d) deviation

Q9) The image shows a light ray incident on a glass prism.

The various angles are labelled in the image. Which angle shows the angle of incidence
and angleof refraction, respectively?

(a) A and D (b) B and E

(c) C and F (d) D and F

Q10) The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all
directionsis called of light.

(a) dispersion (b) scattering

(c) interference (d) Tyndall effect

Q11) Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish

appearance of thesun at sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from the earth

Q12) Why do stars appear to twinkle at night?

(a) Because the light of stars travels in a different medium
(b) Because the distance of a star varies when the earth rotates
(c) Because the star changes its position relative to the earth
(d) Because the atmosphere reflects the light at different angles

Q13) When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) different refractive index for the different wavelengths of each colour
(b) each colour having the same velocity in the prism
(c) prism material having high density
(d) Scattering of light

Q14) When white light enters a glass prism from the air, the angle of deviation is least for
(a) blue light (b) yellow light
(c) violet light (d) red light

Q15) Which option justifies that the Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset?
(a) Red scatters highest by the atmosphere
(b) The distance between the sun and earth reduces
(c) Red has a high wavelength, so it travels a longer distance
(d) The white light disperses into seven colours, only red enters the atmosphere

Q16) At noon, the sun appears white as

(a) Light is least scattered (b) All the colours of white light are scattered away
(c) Blue colour is scattered the most (d) Red colour is scattered the most

Q17) Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds

Q18) The image shows the dispersion of the white light in the prism.

What will be the colours of the X, Y and Z?

(a) X: red; Y: green; Z: violet (b) X: violet; Y: green; Z: red

(c) X: green; Y: violet; Z: red (d) X: red; Y: violet; Z: green

Q19) Which image shows the deviation of light in a prism?

Q20) The image shows the ray diagram of a defective eye.

Q 21 ) A Person got his eye tested. The optician‟s prescription for the

spectacles was:Left eye: −3 D

Right eye: −3.50 D

The person is having a defect of vision called:

(a) Presbyopia (b) Myopia

(c) Astigmatism (d) Hypermetropia

Q 22) A: Astigmatism usually is caused by an irregularly shaped cornea.

B: Rainbow is the natural phenomenon in which dispersion takes place.

(a) Both 'A' and 'B' are true statements

(b) Both 'A' and 'B' are false statements.

(c) A' is true while 'B' is false.

(d) A' is false while 'B' is true

Q 23 ) A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be
corrected by using alens of power
(a) + 0.5 D (b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D (d) – 0.2 D
Q 24) The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
(a) retina (b) iris
(c) cornea (d) pupil

Q 25) Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
(a) 0 and infinity (b) 0 and 25 cm
(c) 25 cm and infinity (d) 25 cm and 150 cm.

Q 26 ) The image formed on the retina of the human eye is

(a) virtual and inverted (b) real and inverted
(c) real and erect (d) virtual and erect

Q 27) The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as
optically
(a) denser medium (b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium (d) either denser or rarer medium

Q 28 ) One cannot see through the fog, because

(a) refractive index of the fog is very high
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) fog absorbs light
(d) light is scattered by the droplets

Q 29) The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles [NCERT Exemplar
Problems]
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and lens becomes thinner

Q 30) Assertion: Blind spot is a small area of the retina which is insensitive to light
where the opticnerve leaves the eye.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic nerve and retina in the
eye.

Q 31) Assertion: The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is more

than 25 cm away.
Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles containing
concave lenses.
Q 32) Assertion: Myopia is the defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant
objects [Link]: This due to eye-ball being too short.
Q 33) Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle head-
lights and in searchlights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror,
the image formedis real and inverted.
 (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of theAssertion.

Q 34) Assertion: The light emerges from a parallel-sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with thatin which enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of incident ray and emergent ray comingout of
glass slab is called lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light
Q 35) Assertion: When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the
surface, the pencilappears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it passes
from water toair.

Q 36) The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is

(a) infinity (b) 25 cm
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 25 m
ANSWER- Chapter 10 The Human Eye and the Colourful World

1 A 7 B 13 A 19 B 25 C 31 C
2 A 8 C 14 D 20 D 26 B 32 C
3 B 9 A 15 C 21 B 27 A 33 B
4 C 10 B 16 A 22 A 28 D 34 D
5 B 11 B 17 B 23 B 29 A 35 A
6 B 12 A 18 B 24 D 30 A 36 B
 Chapter 11 Electricity
1. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected, if they have same:
(a) Capacity
(b) charge
(c) potential
(d) none
2. What is the work done in moving a charge of Q coulomb against a potential difference
of Vvolt?
(a) Q/V
(b) Q+V
(c) Q-V
(d) QV
3. Name the instrument used to measure potential difference and connected parallel
across acircuit?
(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of These
4. The resistance of an Ideal Ammeter is
(a) Infinity
(b) Finite
(c) Unmeasurable
(d) Zero
5. A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called an
(a) electric diagram
(b) electric circuit
(c) electric ray diagram
(d) all
6. The resistances R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the
combination is -
(a) R1 + R2
(b) R1 – R2
𝑅1𝑅2
(c)
𝑅1+𝑅2
𝑅1+𝑅2
(d)
𝑅1𝑅2
7. State which of the following is correct?
(a) Joule = Coulomb x volt
(b) Joule = ampere/volt
(c) Joule = Coulomb/volt
 (d) Joule = Volt/ampere

8. When a current of I ampere is passed through a resistor of R ohm for t seconds,

thenthe amount of heatproduced is
(a) H = I2Rt Cal
(b) H = I2Rt Kcal
(c) H = I2Rt joule
(d) H = I2Rt/4.18 joule
9. A consists of a piece of wire made of metal or an alloy (37% lead,
63%tin).
(a) Fuse
(b) Resistor
(c) Electric plug
(d) Switch
10. Which electrical component protects from short circuiting?
(a) Fuse
(b) Resistor
(c) Electric plug
(d) Switch

11. represent in an electric circuit.

(a) electric resistor
(b) electric cell
(c) variable resistance
(d) voltmeter

12. The electrical appliances in the houses are connected with each other in -
(a) Parallel
(b) Series
(c) a combination of series and parallel circuits
(d) none
13. Kilowatt hour is the unit of and _ Joule in 1 Kilowatt hour.
3
(a) Electric power & 3.6 x 10
(b) Electric resistance & 3.6 x 104
(c) Electric potential & 3.6 x 105
(d) Electric energy & 3.6 x 106
 14. A cell, a resistor, a key and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the
circuitdiagrams. The current recorded in the ammeter will be:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

(a) maximum in (i)

(b) maximum in (ii)
(c) maximum in (iii)
(d) the same in all the cases

15. In the following circuits, heat produced in the resistor or combination of

resistorsconnected to a 12 V battery will be:

(iii)
(i) (ii)

(a) same in all cases

(b) minimum in case (i)
(c) maximum in case (ii)
(d) maximum in case (iii)

16. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon:

(a) its length
(b) its thickness
(c) its shape
(d) nature of the material
 17. Identify the circuit, the diagrams given below, in which the electrical components have
been properly connected

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

18. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of (1/5) Ω?
(a) (1/5) Ω
(b) (1/25) Ω
(c) (1/10) Ω
(d) 25 Ω
[Link] proper representation of series combination of cells, for obtaining

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

maximum potential is

a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)

20. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graphs of three samples of Nichrome
wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following
is true?

(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 > R3 > R1
 21. If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% (assume that
temperatureremains unchanged), the increase in power dissipated will be:
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%

22. The resistance will change if: -

i. Temperature is changed
ii. Nature of Material is changed
iii. Cross-sectional area is changed
iv. All of the above

23. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B and C of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100
W respectively are connected in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is
likely to happen regarding their brightness?
i. brightness of all the bulbs will be the same.
ii. brightness of bulb A will be the maximum
iii. brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
iv. brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B

24. The coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure
metal, Because -
(a) Resistivity of an alloy (Nichrome) is generally higher than metal
(b) It has a high melting point.
(c) It does not oxidize/ burn, when it is red hot.
(d) All of above.

25. B1, B2 and B3 are three identical bulbs connected as shown in figure. When all the three bulbs
glow, a current of 3A is recorded by the ammeter A, what happens to the glow of the two bulbs when
the bulb B1 gets fused?

(a) Glow of the bulbs increased

(b) Glow of the bulbs Decreased
(c) Glow of the bulbs remains unchanged.
(d) None of above.
 26. Three resistances of 1 Ω each are connected to form a triangle. The resistance
between any two terminals is
i. 3 Ω
ii. 1/2 Ω
iii. 2/3 Ω
iv. 3/2 Ω
27. A cylindrical conductor of length ι and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance
R. Another conductor of length 2ι and resistance R of the same materialhas area of
cross-section:
a. A/2
b. 3 A/2
c. 2 A
d. 3 A
28. With the help which of following connections we can obtain the maximum resistance and
minimum resistance respectively.
a) Series & Parallel
b) Parallel & Series
c) Series & Series
d) Parallel & Parallel
29. Which material is commonly used as an insulator in electric wires?
a) Aluminium
b) Silver
c) Rubber
d) Copper

30. What happens to the brightness of a bulb if its resistance is decreased?

a) It becomes dimmer
b) It becomes brighter
c) It remains the same
d) It stops glowing

Note - In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
31. Assertion: The connecting wires are made of copper.
Reason: Copper has very high electrical conductivity.
32. Assertion: The resistance of a given mass of copper wire is inversely proportionalto
the square of length.
Reason: When a copper wire of given mass is stretched to increases its length, its cross-
sectional area also decreases.

33. Assertion: The total potential in system of resistors connected in series is equalto
the sum of the individual’s potentials across each resistor.
Reason: The total current in system of resistors connected in parallel is equal to thesum
of the individual’s currents moving through each resistor.

34. Assertion: According to Joules law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor
increases with the magnitude of current, resistance and time.
Reason: According to Joules law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional
to the square of the current for a given resistance.

35. Assertion: In domestic electric circuits, the wires in the supply, usually with red
insulation cover, is called live wire (or positive)
Reason: Another wire, with black insulation, is called neutral wire (or negative)
36. Assertion: The phenomenon of the conduction of electricity throughelectrolytes
and chemical decomposition is called cracking.

Reason: The phenomenon of the conduction of electricity through electrolytes and chemical
decomposition is called electrolysis.

CBQ
37. In household electric circuits, the mains supply is delivered to our homes using three core cable
as shown here. The cable consists of three wires, live wire, neutral wire and earth wire. The live
wire is at potential difference of 220 V for the domestic supply and the potential difference
between live and neutral wire is 220 volts. The live wire is connected to electric meter through a
fuse or a circuit breaker of higher rating. The neutral wire is connected directly to the electric
meter.
Potential difference between live and neutral wire is
(a) 1000 V
(b) 100 V
(c) 500 V
(d) 220 V
(ii) Switches are connected in household circuit with which wire?
(a) Earth wire
(b) Neutral wire
(c) Live wire
(d) None of these

(iii) What is usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line if electric iron, geysers, room heater
[Link] in use?
(a) 15 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 25 A

(iv) For all electrical appliances which property of circuit is recommended?

(a) Earthing
(b) Neutralising
(c) Connecting with fuse
(d) None of these

(V) Home circuit is connected in parallel because

(a) in parallel circuit resistance is maximum
(b) in parallel circuit, if one device is damaged, then it does not affect other devices
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

38. The relationship between potential difference and current was first established by George Simon
Ohm called Ohm's law. According to this law, the current through a metallic conductor is
proportional to the potential difference applied between its ends, provided the temperature remain
constant i.e. I 𝖺𝖺 V or V = IR; where R is constant for the conductor and it is called resistance of
theconductor. Although Ohm's law has been found valid over a large class of materials, there do
exist materials and devices used in electric circuits where the proportionality of V and I does not
hold.
(i) If both the potential difference and the resistance in a circuit are doubled, then
(a) current remains same
(b) current is doubled
(c) current is halved
(d) current is quadrupled

(ii) For a conductor, the graph between V and I is there. Which one is the correct?
 (iii) The slope of V - I graph (V on x-axis and I on y-axis)
gives

(a) resistance
(b) reciprocal of resistance
(c) charge
(d) reciprocal of charge

(iv) When battery of 9 V is connected across a conductor

and the current flows is 0.1 A, theresistance is
(a) 9Ω
(b) 0.9 Ω
(c) 90 Ω
(d) 900 Ω
Or
(iv) By increasing the voltage across a conductor, the

(a) current will decrease

(b) resistance will increase
(c) resistance will decrease
(d) current will increase
ANSWERS- Chapter 11 Electricity
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d)

5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c)

9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a)

13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d)

17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)

21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d)

25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a)

29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d)

33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d)

37. (i) (d) 38. (i) (a) 39. (i) (a) 40. (i) (c)
(ii) (c) (ii) (c) (ii) (b) (ii) (d)
(iii) (a) (iii) (a) (iii) (b) (iii) (c)
(iv) (a) or (b) (iv) (b) or (d) (iv) (c) or (d) (iv) (c) or (b)
 Chapter 12 Magnetic
Effects of Electric Current

1. Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet?

A) Steel
B) Cobalt
C) Brass
D) Nickel

2. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of the
plottingcompass will:
A) Point away from the south pole
B) Point parallel to the south pole
C) Point towards the south pole
D) Point at right angles to the south pole

3. The front face of a circular loop of a wire is the North Pole, the direction of current in
this faceof the loop will be:
A) Clockwise
B) Anticlockwise
C) Towards North
D) Towards South

4. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current:

A) Is the same at all points
B) Is zero
C) Decrease as we move towards its end
D) Increase as we move towards its end

5. A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. The
magnetic lines
of force will be:
A) Only in the horizontal plane around the magnet
B) Only in the vertical plane around the magnet
C) In horizontal as well as vertical planes around the magnet
D) In all the planes around the magnet

6. The force on a current-carrying conductor when placed perpendicular in a uniform

magnetic
field.
A) F=BIL
B) F=B/IL
C) F=L/BI
D) F=I/BL
 1. A metal rod PQ is placed in the magnetic field. The ends of the rod are
connected to a batteryusing wires.

Where will the rod move?

A) Upward
B) Downwards
C) Into the field
D) Out of the field

8. Can a current carrying conductor apply a force on a stationary electron placed nearby it?
A) Yes, parallel to the direction of current
B) Yes, opposite to the direction of current
C) Yes, perpendicular to the direction of current
D) No, no force will be applied.

9. No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it is placed:

A) perpendicular to the magnetic field
B) parallel to the magnetic field
C) far away from the magnetic field
D) inside a magnetic field

10. What happens to the current in short circuit?

A) reduces substantially
B) does not change
C) increases heavily
D) vary continuously

11. An alpha particle is diverted towards west is deflected towards north by a field.
The field is magnetic. What will be the direction of field?
A) Towards south
B) Towards east
C) Downward
D) Upward

12. The mains power supply of a house is through a 2A fuse. How many 50W bulbs can be
used in this house at the normal voltage?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 5
D) 6
 13. The mains power supply of a house is through a 20A fuse. When a 1500 W heater is
used in
this house, how many 100 W bulbs can be used simultaneously? (The supply is
at 220 V andthe appliances are rated for 220V
A) 35
B) 29
C) 30
D) 19

14. ___________are generally made up of pure tin or an alloy of tin with other metals
like copper.

A) Metal wires
B) Fuse wires
C) Circuit
D) Electric iron

15. An electric fuse is used to prevent: A. Short circuit B. Overload?

A) Only A
B) Only B
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

16. The shape of the earth’s magnetic field resembles that of an imaginary:
A) U-shaped magnet
B) Straight conductor carrying current
C) Current-carrying circular coil
D) Bar magnet

17. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction
of inducedcurrent changes once in each:
A) Half revolution
B) One revolution
C) Two revolutions
D) One-fourth revolution

18. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is

the largest when the angle between the conductor and the magnetic field is:
A) 45 degree
B) 60 degree
C) 90 degree
D) 180 degree

19. The frequency of direct current (DC) is:

A) 0 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 110 Hz
D) 220 Hz

20. The magnetic effect of current was discovered by:

A) Maxwell
B) Fleming
C) Oersted
D) Faraday
 ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

21. Assertion: When electric current is passed through a copper wire, magnetic needle
kept nearto wire shows deflection.
Reason: the electric current through copper wire has produced magnetic field.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

22. Assertion(A): On changing the direction of the flow of current through a straight
conductor, thedirection of a magnetic field around the conductor is reversed.
Reason (R): The direction of the magnetic field around a conductor can be given in
accordance withthe left-hand thumb rule.

A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

23. Assertion(A): The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a
wire depends onthe radius of the coil.
Reason (R): The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a
wire depends onthe number of turns of the wire in the coil.

A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

24. Assertion (A): The direction of the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying
conductor canbe determined using the right-hand thumb rule.
Reason (R): The right-hand thumb rule states that if the thumb of the right hand
points in the direction of the current, the curled fingers will indicate the
direction of the magnetic field lines.

A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
25. Assertion(A) : Alternating Current is used in household supply.
Reason (R) : AC electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much
loss of energy.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

26. Assertion(A) : When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it

experiencesa force.
Reason (R) : The direction of force is given by Fleming’s right hand rule.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

27. Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite force
on a current carrying conductor, which was experimentally found to be true. But we
know that current is due to charges in motion. Thus, it is clear that a charge moving
in a magnetic field experience a force, except when it is moving in a direction parallel
to it. If the direction of motion is perpendicular to thedirection of magnetic field, the
magnitude of force experienced depends on the charge, velocity (v), strength of
magnetic field (B), and sine of the angle between v and B. Direction of magnetic force
is given by Fleming's left hand rule.

i) If an electron is travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically

downwarddirection exerts a force on the electron along
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
ii) If a charged particle is moving along a magnetic field line. The magnetic force on the
particle is
(a) along its velocity (b) opposite to its velocity
(c) perpendicular to its velocity (d) zero
iii) A magnetic field exerts no force on
(a) a stationary electric charge
(b) a magnet
(c) an electric charge moving perpendicular to its direction
(d) an unmagnetised iron bar
iv) An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in the figure. The
direction of force acting on the electron beam will be
(a) to the left (b) to the right (c) into the page (d) out of the page

28. An insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical cardboard tube such that its length
is greater than its diameter is called a solenoid. When an electric current is passed
through the solenoid, it produces a magnetic field around it. The magnetic field
produced by a current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by
a bar magnet. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight
lines. The strong magnetic field produced inside a current-carrying solenoid can be
used to magnetize a piece of a magnetic material like soft iron when placed inside the
solenoid. Thestrength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid
is directly proportional to the
number of turns and strength of the current in the solenoid.
i) The strength of magnetic field inside a long current-carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre (b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points (d) found to increase from one end
to the other.
ii) The north-south polarities of an electromagnet can be found easily by using
(a) Fleming‟s right-hand rule (b) Fleming‟s left-hand rule
(c) Clock face rule (d) Left-hand thumb rule
iii) For a current in a long straight solenoid N-and S-poles are created at the two ends.
Among thefollowing statements, the incorrect statement is
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates
that the magneticfield is the same at all points inside the solenoid.
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a
piece of magneticmaterial like soft iron, when placed inside the coil.
(c) The N- and S-poles exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid
is reversed.
(d) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the
pattern of the magnetic field.
iv) A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the
current isdouble and the number of turns per cm is halved, then new value of magnetic
field is
(a) B (b) 2B (c) 4B (d) B/2

29. A magnetic field is described by drawing the magnetic field lines. When a small north
magnetic poleis placed in the magnetic field created by a magnet, it will experience a
force. And if the north pole is free, it will move under the influence of magnetic field.
The path traced by a north magnetic pole free to move under the influence of a
magnetic field is called a magnetic field line. Since the direction of magnetic field line
is the direction of force on a north pole, so the magnetic field lines always begin from
the N-pole of a magnet and end on the S-pole of the magnet. Inside the magnet,
however the direction of magnetic field lines is from the S-pole of the magnet to the
N-pole of the magnet. Thus, the magnetic field lines are closed curves. When a small
compass is moved along a magnetic field line, the compass needle always sets itself
along the line tangential to it. So, a line drawn from the south pole of the compass
needle to its north pole indicates the direction of the magnetic field at that point.
i) The magnetic field lines
(a) intersect at right angle to one another
(b) intersect at an angle of 45° to each other
(c) do not cross one another
(d) cross at an angle of 60° to one another.
ii) Can we separate the two poles of a magnet by breaking it
(a) Yes.
(b) may be in some situations
(c) Not in every situation.
(d) No.
iii) Magnetic field lines can be used to determine
(a) the shape of the magnetic field
(b) only the direction of the magnetic field
(c) only the relative strength of the magnetic field
(d) both the direction and the relative strength of the magnetic field.
iv) Which of the following is not true about magnetic field lines?
(a) Magnetic field lines are the closed and continuous curve.
(b) No two field lines can cross each other.
(c) The direction of field lines is from the north pole to the south pole inside a bar magnet.
(d) Closeness of field lines represents the strength of magnetic field.

30. The domestic electric circuit consist of red insulated cover called as live wire, wire with
black insulation called as neutral wire and the wire with green insulation is called as
Earth wire. We know that fuse is connected in series with the circuit to prevent the
damaging of electrical appliances and circuit from overloading. Overloading occurs
when live wire and the neutral wire comes in direct contact with each other. Because of
which current through the circuit increases suddenly. Also, overloading may occurs
because of connecting many appliances to a single socket. The Earth wire which is green
in colour is connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This type of
safety measure is used in appliances like electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator
etc. The Earthwire is gives low resistance conducting path for the electric current. In
this way it protects us from severe electric shock.
All the appliances are connected in parallel circuit so that the potential difference
across eachappliance will be same.
i) What are the signs of live wire and neutral wire?
ii) In our country what is the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire?
iii) What is short circuiting?
iv) What is the main purpose of using fuse in electric circuit?

i) The red insulated wire is the live wire or positive and the black insulated wire is
the neutral wire ornegative.
ii) In our country the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire is 220 V.
iii) When live wire and neutral wire comes in direct contact, in that situation the
current through thecircuit increases suddenly and it is called as short circuiting.
iv) Because of Joule‟s heating effect the heat produced causes the fuse to melt and to
break the [Link] thereby protect the circuit and electric appliances.
ANSWER- Chapter 12 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
1. c 7. d 13. b 19. a 25. a

2. c 8. d 14. b 20. c 26. c

3. b 9. b 15. c 21. a 27. i) d ii) d iii) a iv) c

4. a 10. c 16. d 22. c 28. I) c ii) c iii) d iv) a

5. d 11. c 17. a 23. b 29. i) c ii) d iii) d iv) c

6. a 12. b 18. c 24. a 30. c

 Chapter 13 Our Environment

Chapter 13 Our Environment

1. If a grasshopper is eaten by frog, then the energy transfer will be from :
A) Producers to decomposers.
B) Producer to primary consumer.
C) Primary consumer to secondary consumer.
D) Secondary consumer to primary consumer.

2. The organisms of higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to lower
trophic level, constitute the________.
A) food Chain
B)Ecological Pyramid
C)Ecosystem
D)Food Web

3. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain, in increasing amount at each higher
trophic level is known as ______.
A) Eutrophication
B)Pollution
C)Biomagnification
D)Accumilation

4. A detritus food chain begins with _____.

A)Carnivores
B)herbivores
C)Omnivores
D)Decomposers

5. The Railways First used glass tumblers to serve tea in trains which were replaced by kulhads and then
disposable plastic cups. Now they are using paper [Link] of which materials are best to serve
tea keeping the environment in mind?
A) Glass
B) Earthern kulhads
C) Plastic cups
D)All of these

6. Ozone of ozonosphere is formed by-

A) Oxygen and Atomic Oxygen
B) Chlorine, water and Oxygen
C) Nitrogen oxides and oxygen
D) All of the above

7. The group belonging to the categories of primary consumers is-

A) Eagle and Snake
B) Snake and Frog
C) Cattle and Jackal
D) Grasshopper and Rabbit

[Link],Rainfall,Wind ,Soil and Minerals are-

A) Physical factors
B) Abiotic Factors
C) Biotic Factors
D) Both A and B
[Link] diagram is a food web of terrestrial [Link] arrows represent energy flow and the letters
represent different species.

[Link] the option that correctly identifies X,Y and Z in the given table-

Organism Trophic Level Food Chain

Mammals X Marine
Small fish Primary consumer Y

Zooplankton Z Marine

A) X- Primary Consumer, Y- Detritus, Z- Top Carnivore

B ) X- Top Carnivore,Y-Marine,Z-Primary consumer
C) X- Producer, Y- Grazing, Z- Primary Consumer
D) X-Secondary consumer, Y- Marine, Z- Producer

[Link] decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is because
decomposers:
A) ) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
B) Do not breakdown organic compounds
C) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
D)Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms

[Link] forms by combination of free oxygen atoms and oxygen molecules. How do free oxygen atoms
form at higher levels of atmosphere?
A) by splitting of molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of low energy UV radiations
B) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high energy UV radiations
C) by the combination of two molecular oxygen in the presence of high energy UV radiations
D) by the combination of two free oxygen atoms in the presence

[Link] statement showing interaction of an abiotic component with a biotic component in an ecosystem is_
A) A lion fighting with another lion for food.
B) Rainwater running down into the lake.
C) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.
D) A caterpillar feeding on a leaf.

[Link] Manav is consuming curd/yogurt for lunch, the tropic level in a food chain he should be considered
as occupying-
A) First trophic level
B) Second trophic level
C) Third trophic level
D) Fourth trophic level

[Link] of the following is an Abiotic component of an ecosystem?

A) Humus
B) Bacteria
C) Plants
D) Fungi

16.A _____ is considered an artificial terrestrial ecosystem-

A) Forest
B) Garden
C) Mountain
D) Desert

[Link] table shows an aquatic food chain.

The Biomagnification of DDT is maximum in-

A) water
B) Zooplankton
C)Fish Eating Bird
D) Large fish

[Link] the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow:

If the amount of energy available to mouse is 200 J ,then how much energy will be available to producer
level?
A) 2 joules
B) 20 joules
C) 2,000 joules
D) 20,000 joules
 [Link] it possible to have more than 5 trophic levels in a food chain?
A) Yes, more the trophic levels, more enriched the food chain will be.
B) No,due to 90% loss of energy at each level,very less usable energy will be left after 4th level.
C) Yes ,food chain does not depend on energy flow.
D) No as more trophic levels are not easy to handle by nature.

20. In 1987, an agreement was formulated by The United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP) to
freeze the production of ‘ X’ to prevent depletion of ‘Y’ . X and Y respectively referred here are-
A) Ozone ,CFCs
B) CFCs, UV Rays
C) CFCs, Ozone
D) UV Rays, Diatomic oxygen

ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

21. Assertion: Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable substances.
Reason: They can be broken down by microorganisms in natural simple harmless substances.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
22. Assertion :An ecosystem is made up of different types of community.
Reason :Ecosystem is community of different organisms that interact with each other and surroundings.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
23. Assertion : Ozone is both beneficial and damaging .
Reason : Stop the release of chlorofluorocarbons to protect the ozone.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
24. Assertion: Biodegradable substances result in the formation of compost and natural replenishment.
Reason: It is due to breakdown of complex inorganic substances into simpler organic substances.
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
25. Assertion: Aquatic food chain is the food chain present in water bodies.
Reason: The example of aquatic food chain is, Phytoplankton -> Zooplankton -> Fish -> Shark
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
26. Assertion : The various components of an ecosystem are interdependent.
Reason: food chain and web are formed due to linkage in organisms .
A) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
D) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS

27. The given bar graph shows data on the four different waste disposal methods used in Toronto,
Madrid, Kuala Lumpur and Amman. As is presented in the data, Landfill and Incineration are two
most common way of waste disposal in these four cities.

i) According to the graph what percentage of waste is used in composting in Toranto?

A) 29% B) 18% C) Less than 10 % D) More than 70 %
ii) The type of waste sent for incineration is-
A) Non biodegradable and medical waste B) Biodegradable waste
C) Kitchen Waste D) Crop Harvesting waste
iii) Amman disposes its maximum waste in which methods-
A) Composting and Recycling B) Landfill and Incineration
C) Recycling and Landfill D)Incineration and recycling
iv) Which city has used maximum recycling method-
A)Toranto B) Madrid and Kuala Lampur C)Kuala lampur and Amman D) Amman

22. PESTICIDE SPRAY

Seema visited her village with her parents during winter holidays. When she went to the fields outside the
village, she saw a farmer spraying pesticides over the standing crops in the fields. When she looked at the
container of the pesticide lying on the ground, she knew that it was a pesticide which had been banned
from use in most of the countries. The farmer was spraying pesticide without taking any precautions. Seema
advised the farmer to cover his nose and mouth properly with a cloth while spraying the pesticide. She told
not to spray too much pesticide on the crops because it is harmful to human beings, other animals and
aquatic life in the long run.
i) The pesticides are-
A) Biodegradable substances B) Nonpoisonous Chemical substances
C) Poisonous chemical substances D) Beneficial organic substances
ii) Why did Seema told to cover nose and mouth while spraying pesticides?
A) To avoid bad smell B) To save from pests
C) It looks good D) To avoid poisonous effect of pesticide
iii)At which trophic level pesticides enter a food chain?
A) Producer level B) Primary consumer level
B) C) Secondary consumer level D) Tertiary Consumer level
iv) The highest concentration of pesticides is found on which level-
A) Producer level B) Primary consumer level
C) Secondary consumer level D) Top Consumer level
 28. Observe the food web. It shows many food chains with Lion at the top of some.

i) Find out which one of these food chains will supply maximum energy to the Lion-
A) Tree- Rabbit- Wild cat- Lion
B) Tree-Goat- Lion
C) Tree –Goat- Jackal –Lion
D) Mouse –Snake- Kite
ii) If 10 KJ energy falls on the tree, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food
energy?
a) 100 J B) 10 J C) 1KJ D) It will depend on the tree

iii) The other top consumer seen in the food web is-
A) Jackal B) Wild Cat C) Snake D) Eagle
iv) Which trophic level ,Jackal and white cat belong to?
A) Producer B) Primary Consumer C) Secondary Consumer D) Tertiary consumer

30. 30. Energy Flow

The food we eat acts as a fuel to provide us energy to do work. Thus the interactions among
various components of the environment involves flow of energy from one component of the system to
another. As we have studied, the autotrophs capture the energy present in sunlight and convert it into
chemical energy. This energy supports all the activities of the living world. From autotrophs, the energy
goes to the heterotrophs and decomposers.

i) Which of the following category of organisms acts as transducers of solar energy to chemical energy?
A)Decomposers
B)Primary consumers
C)Secondary consumers
D)Autotrophs
ii) Which of the following category of organisms degrades complex substances in simple components of
solar energy to chemical energy?
A)Decomposers
B)Primary consumers
C)Secondary consumers
D)Autotrophs
iii) What is the pattern of flow of energy among trophic levels?
A) Multidirectional
B) Bi-directional
C) Unidirectional
D) None of the level
iv) How much energy flows from one trophic level to the next level?
A) 90% of previous trophic level
B) 20% of previous trophic level
C) 15% of previous trophic level
D) 10% of previous trophic level
Answer Key: Chapter 13 : Our Environment
1. C 7. D 13. D 19. B 25. A
2. D 8. D 14. C 20. B 26. A
3. C 9. A 15. A 21. C 27. i) C ii)A iii) B iv)
B

4. D 10. B 16. B 22. A 28. i) C ii) D iii) A

iv)D

5. B 11. A 17. C 23. B 29. i) B ii) A iii) D iv)

C

6. A 12. B 18. D 24. C 30. i) D ii) A iii) C iv)

D