TEST 1

PASSAGE 1
ESL Olympics: Empty Seats Scandal
Thousands of supposedly being "sold out," seats to popular Olympic events are
remaining empty at many popular Olympics Games events because sponsors, Olympic
officials, and VIPs who were given free tickets haven't shown up.
As the London Organizing Committee for the Olympic Games (LOCOG)
investigates
the reasons why free ticket holders didn't attend the events, thousands of soldiers and
school children are being given tickets in order to fill the empty seats.
Even before the games began, LOCOG was strongly criticized for giving such a
large number of free event tickets to corporate sponsors, Olympic officials, and VIPs
because the "giveaway" left so many potential spectators unable to buy tickets.
Seats at many of the Olympic venues have not been cheap, many starting at $300 a ticket.
Although thousands of fans have been unable to get tickets for Olympic events
because they have been "sold out," thousands of seats continue to remain empty at even
at many of the most popular events including swimming and gymnastics.
As well, many tickets are being resold for as little as $ 10 as spectators leave the
venues for other competitions.
Angry public wants no shows to be fined
Angry members of the public who were unable to purchase tickets have expressed
their outrage on social media websites like Twitter and Facebook Many have called for
the "no shows" to be fined. Colin Moynihan, president of the British Olympic
Association has demanded that tickets for the empty seats be resold 30 minutes after the
event begins so that fans get an opportunity to cheer for their country. Olympic athletes
have also called for the organizing committee to do something to make sure that as many
spectators as possible can watch the Olympics in person.
Won't name the no shows
 Lord Sebastian Coe, head of LOCOG, who downplayed the seriousness of the
empty seats, stating the Olympic venues were "full' did eventually admit that many seats
that had been "reserved for the Olympic family were indeed empty.
Coe, who before the Games said he would "name and shame" sponsors and officials who
did not use their free tickets has since backed down, saying that it would not be fair to
humiliate these people.
Although Coe has continued to insist that the empty seats are only a temporary
problem, organizers have begun filling the seats with soldiers. Teachers and school
children have been offered tickets for less than $10 each, the general public will again be
allowed to purchase tickets, and fans be allowed to update their tickets for better seats.
Meanwhile, LOCOG is still investigating the reason for a large number of empty seats
but has not announced any results yet.
1. Thousands of seats are empty at all of the_____ Olympic events
A. 2011 B. 2012 C. 2013 D. 2014
2. Olympic officials, VIPS, and___ were given free tickets.
A. athletes B. friends of the Olympic committee
C. Olympic sponsors D. loyal spectators
3. Before the Olympic Games, the public____ giving free tickets.
A. supported B. opposed
C. suggested D. had no idea of
4. Many tickets cost____ than 300 USD.
A. more than B. less than C. about D. no more than
5. In addition to the empty seats, many people____
A. are sneaking into events B. are reselling their tickets
C. are bored at the games D. A &c are correct
6. Colin Moynihan says filling the seats is important because___
A. it will help Britain with the games C. everybody should have a chance to go
B. it will improve the team's spirits D. None of the above is correct
7. Based on what Lord Coe said about people not knowing where they were going to
be at any given time, you can infer that___
A. many people didn't even come to the games at all
B. people got free tickets to many events
C. people didn't value the tickets
D. A & B are correct.
8. Lord Coe insisted that all the Olympic venues were____
A. being filled B. going to be filled later C. full D. empty
9. Fans will be allowed to____
A. get better seats with their existing tickets B. get some money back for their tickets
C. buy extra tickets from some of the athletes D. get a full refund
10. The investigation into the reason for the empty seats is___
A. finished B. stalled C. continuing D. started

PASSAGE 2
Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, is located where the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers
unite to form the Ohio River. Its fascinating history began in 1758 when General John
Forbes and his British and colonial army captured Fort Duquesne from the French and
renamed it Fort Pitt, for the British statesman William Pitt the Elder. After an agreement
between the Native American tribes and William Penn's family, settlers began arriving.
Pittsburgh was laid out (1764) by John Campbell in the area around the fort.
Following the American Revolution, the town became an outfitting point for
settlers traveling westward down the Ohio River. Pittsburgh's strategic location and
wealth of natural resources spurred its commercial and industrial growth in the nineteenth
century. A blast furnace, erected by George Anschutz about 1792, was the forerunner of
the iron and steel industry that for more than a century was the city's economic power. By
1850, it was known as the "Iron City." The Pennsylvania Canal and the Portage Railroad,
both completed in 1834, opened vital markets for trade and shipping.
 After the American Civil War, great numbers of European immigrants swelled
Pittsburgh's population, and industrial magnates such as Andrew Carnegie, Henry Clay
Frick, and Thomas Mellon built their steel empires there. The city became the focus of
historic friction between labor and management, and the American Federation of Labor
was organized there in 1881. By 1900, the city's population had reached 321,616. Growth
continued nearly unabated through World War II, and during the war years, Pittsburgh
was a boomtown.
During this period of economic and population growth, Pittsburgh became a grimy,
polluted industrial city. After the war, however, the city undertook an extensive
redevelopment program, with emphasis on smoke pollution control, flood prevention, and
sewage disposal. In 1957, it became the first American city to generate electricity by
nuclear power. By the late 1970s and early 80s, the steel industry had virtually
disappeared, but Pittsburgh successfully diversified its economy through more emphasis
on light industries and on such high-technology industries as computer software,
industrial automation (robotics), and biomedical and environmental technologies.
11. In the mid-eighteenth century, what two countries wanted to control the area
now known as Pittsburgh?
A. England and the United States B. England and France
C. England and Germany D. England and Pennsylvania
12. When did settlers begin arriving in Pittsburgh?
A. after an agreement between the Indians and the Penn family
B. after the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers united
C. after the British captured Fort Pitt
D. after the American revolution
13. Which is closest to the phrase "outfitting point" as used in the passage?
A. a store that sells gasoline and oil B. a location of food and water
C. a place to buy business suits and accessories D. a source of equipment and supplies
14. What became the most important industry in Pittsburgh following the American
Revolution?
A. The shipping industry B. The iron and Steel industry
C. The outfitting industry D. The computer software industry
15. Which of the following phrases is closest in meaning to the phrase "vital
markets" as used in the passage?
A. hospitals and medical centers
B. large stores for food and clothing
C. places with customers for Pittsburgh's products
D. native American tribes and military forts
16. According to the passage, who moved to Pittsburgh in great numbers after the
Civil War?
A. Native American tribes B. British soldiers
C. Confederate veterans D. European immigrants
17. Which of the following phrases is closest in meaning to the phrase "focus of
historic friction" as used in the passage?
A. Center of an important conflict B. Museum for historical photographs
C. Famous furniture factory D. City of many professional sports
18. According to the passage, what can be inferred about Pittsburgh's population
during World War II?
A. It did not grow. B. It declined.
C. It grew enormously. D. It stayed the same.
19. Between the Civil War and World War II, all happened in Pittsburgh
EXCEPT___
A. Automobile factories produced most of the transportation for Americans
B. Carnegie, Frick, and Mellon created their steel empires
C. The American Federation of Labor was organized
D. The air became seriously polluted, and buildings were dirty
20. Where in the passage could the following sentence best fit?
"The elder Penn, who lived in Philadelphia, believed that peaceful settlements with
the Indians would help his young colony prosper."
A. after the word arriving in the first paragraph
B. after the words Ohio river in the second paragraph
C. at the end of the third paragraph
D. after the words polluted industrial city in the fourth paragraph.

PASSAGE 3
Human Nutrition is the study of how food affects the health and survival of the
human body. Human beings require food to grow, reproduce and maintain good health.
Without food, our bodies could not stay warm, build or repair tissue, or maintain the
heartbeat. Eating the right foods can help us avoid certain diseases or recover faster when
illness occurs. These and other important functions are fueled by chemical substances in
our food called nutrients. Nutrients are classified as carbohydrates. proteins, fats,
vitamins, minerals, and water.
When we eat a meal, nutrients are released from food through digestion. Digestion
begins in the mouth by the action of chewing and the chemical activity of saliva, a watery
fluid that contains enzymes, and certain proteins that help break down food. Further
digestion occurs as food travels through the stomach and the small intestine, where
digestive enzymes and acids liquefy food and muscle contractions push it along the
digestive tract. Nutrients are absorbed from the inside of the small intestine into the
bloodstream and carried to the sites in the body where they are needed. At these sites,
several chemical reactions occur, which ensure the growth and function of body tissues.
The parts of foods that are not absorbed continue to move down the intestinal tract and
are eliminated from the body as feces.
Once digested, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide energy to body to maintain
its many functions. Scientists measure this energy in kilocalories, the amount of energy
needed to raise 1 kilogram of water 1 degree Celsius. In nutrition discussions, scientists
use calorie instead of kilocalorie as the standard unit of measure in nutrition.
Nutrients are classified as essential or nonessential. Nonessential nutrients are
manufactured in the body and do not need to be obtained from food. Examples include
cholesterol, a fat-like substance present in all animal cells. Essential nutrients must be
obtained from food sources because the body either does not produce them or produces
them in amounts too small to maintain growth and health. Essential nutrients include
water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
An individual needs varying amounts of each essential nutrient, depending upon
such factors as gender and age. specific health conditions, such as pregnancy,
breastfeeding, illness, or drug use, make unusual demands on the body and increase its
need for nutrients. Dietary guidelines, which take many of these factors into account,
provide general guidance in meeting daily nutritional needs.
21. The first paragraph mainly discusses____
A. chemical substances in our food
B. the study of human nutrition
C. a variety of essential nutrients to human beings
D. the importance of food to human beings
22. The word "released" in the second paragraph mostly means “___”
A. refused B. Renewed
C. Expressed D. produced
23. Which of the followings is NOT true about the process of digestion?
A. Nutrients are carried to different sites in the body.
B. Saliva plays an important role in the first stage of digestion.
C. The small intestine covers the whole digestive system.
D. The small intestine helps the body absorb nutrients.
24. The word "maintain" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to____
A. obtain B. keep performing C. carry on making D. provide
25. According to the passage, nutrients are absorbed____
A. in the small intestine B. in the mouth C. in the stomac D. over the whole body
26. According to the passage, which of the following provides energy for the body?
A. Proteins, vitamins, and carbohydrates B. Proteins, fats, and minerals
C. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats D. Carbohydrates, minerals, and water
27. In nutrition discussions, the standard unit used to measure nutrients is____
A. kilocalorie B. gram C. kilogram D. calorie
28. The word "which" in the last paragraph refers to
A. dietary guidelines B. unusual demands
C. general guidance D. nutritional needs
29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. the effects of food on the body B. the body's need for nutrients
C. food sources from animals D. classification of nutrients
30. Through the passage, the author provides the readers with___
A. some proposal B. orders
C. instructions D. some information

PASSAGE 4
Smart cards and mobile phones are becoming an increasingly popular way to make
all sorts of payments. Even now, in Japan thousands of transactions, from paying rail
tickets to picking up the groceries, take place every day with customers passing their
handsets across a small flat-screen device. And predictions in the world of finance
reckon that payments using mobile phones will have risen to more than $50 billion in the
very near future. What's the appeal of e-cash? Compared to cheques or credit cards, it
offers the speed of cash, but more so. It takes just one-tenth of a second to complete most
transactions and as no change is required, errors in counting are eliminated. Fraud and
theft are also reduced and for the retailer, it reduces the cost of handling money. Sony's
vision of having a chip embedded in computers, TVs and game consoles mean that films,
music, and games can be paid for easily and without having to input credit card details.
And what about the future of the banks? Within their grip on the market, banks and
credit-card firms want to be in a position to collect most of the fees from the users of
mobile and contactless payment systems. But the new system could prove to be a
"disruptive technology" as far as the banks are concerned. If payments for a few coffees,
a train ticket, and a newspaper are made every day by a commuter with a mobile, this will
not appear on their monthly credit card statements but on their mobile phone statements.
And having spent fortunes on branding, credit-card companies and banks do not want to
see other payment systems gaining popularity. It's too early to say whether banks will
miss out and if so, by how much. However, quite a few American bankers are optimistic.
They feel there is reason to be suspicious of those who predict that high-street banks may
be a thing of the past. They point out that Internet banking did not result in the closure of
their high-street branches as was predicted. On the contrary, more Americans than ever
are using local branches. So, as to whether we'll become a totally cash-free society or not,
we'll have to wait and see.
31. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. the absence of traditional payment methods.
B. the increasing popularity of new payment methods
C. predictions of future payment methods
D. Japan's advanced forms of payment
32. Why does the author mention "a small flat-screen device" in the first
paragraph?
A. to criticize the e-cash system B. to exemplify the e-cash system
C. to praise the e-cash system D. to inform the e-cash system
33. Which of the following is NOT true about the strong point of E-cash?
A. faster speed B. fewer mistakes C. reduced cost D. no fraud
34. The word "embedded" is closest in meaning to___
A. integrated B. isolated C. generated D. manufactured
35. The word "grip" is closest in meaning to___
A. wealth B. power C. success D. range of branches
36. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. A lot of money has been invested into the new payment system by banks
B. Payments using smart cards may increase to more than $50 billion.
C. Rail tickets can be purchased by mobile phones or smart cards in Japan.
D. Dealers are freed from handling money thanks to e-cash.
37. The author mentions the case of commuters in the third paragraph to
illustrate___
A. the modem technology of the e-cash system
B. the banks' cooperation with credit-card companies
C. the transferability of the system
D. a possible drawback of the system
38. What does the author think may happen in the future?
A. Banks will collect their fees through credit-card companies.
B. Daily express on drinks and tickets will appear on phone statements.
C. Americans will no longer go to their local bank branches.
D. Credit-card companies and banks will want to promote cash.
39. The word “their” refers to____
A. credit cards
B. Internet banking
C. American bankers
D. high-street banks
40. How does the writer seem to feel about the future of banks?
A. uncertain
B. optimistic
C. pessimistic
D. neutral

TEST 2

PASSAGE 1
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident
victims and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually, a pint of whole blood is
donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells.
People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months.
 Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves
taking the blood from a donor's arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood
flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate,
which prevents the blood from clotting.
When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are
connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity.
This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood
into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion.
Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused
or stored blood is not exposed to disease-causing bacteria.
Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an
allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from undetected
red-cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they
are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles
in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess
blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets.
Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors
and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as
HIV (which causes AIDS), hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or
an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is
washed, and the white blood cells and platelets are removed.
Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood
cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze, the glycerol is removed. The ability to
store blood for long periods has been o boon to human health.
1. Which of the following words is closest meaning to the word "donating" in the
passage?
A. adorning B. Giving C. Taking D. distributing
2. In the first paragraph, the word "it" refers to___
A. accident victims B. surgical procedures
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
3. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
A. Every four months B. Every three months
C. Every two months D. Every month
4. Where is in the passage is the best place for the following sentence?
"Inserting the needle into the recipient's arm causes little pain."
A. After the word arm in paragraph 3 B. After the last sentence in the first paragraph
C. After the word syringe in paragraph 2 D. After the word transfusion in paragraph 3
5. Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains how clotting is prevented in the blood
container?
A. The first sentence
B. The second sentence
C. The third sentence
D. None of the above
6. All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusions
EXCEPT___
A. allergies B. red-cell incompatibility
C. sensitivity to donor leukocytes D. air bubbles in the blood
7. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word "undetected" in the passage?
A. Not wanted B. Not captured C. Not found D. Not illustrated
8. Look at the phrase "go to great lengths to screen" in paragraph 5, choose the
word that has the same meaning.
A. routinely B. Rigorously C. Irradiated D. removed
9. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood
transfused to infants and newborns?
A. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults. B. It is treated with radiant energy.
C. It is not treated differently from adults. D. It is not dangerous for children.
10. What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process. B Storing blood benefits mankind.
C. Clotting cannot be prevented. D. Freezing blood destroys platelets.

PASSAGE 2
Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His
family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife
family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan's father opened a cabinetmaking
shop. Duncan followed in his father's footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker.
After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City.
Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1972 NYC Directory as a furniture "joiner"
in his business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and
changed his name to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his
new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British
in this postrevolutionary War period.
Duncan Phyfe's name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new
spelling helped him better compete with French emigre craftsmen, his new name had
more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.
The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of
freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the
first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business
based on his own name and reputation, and quality of work.
Phyfe's workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success,
Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economics historians point to Phyfe as having
employed a division of labor and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows
Phyfe's absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was
made of the best available materials. He was reported to have $1000 for a single Santo
Domingo mahogany log.
Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the
period's classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them.
Nevertheless, Phyfe's high-quality craftsmanship established him as America's patriotic
interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe's workshop is enormous,
comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops
and auctions, collectors have paid $ 11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and
$93,500 for a sewing table.
11. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan
Phyfe?
A. He was an excellent businessman with a good sense of craftsmanship and design.
B. He regretted that Great Britain no longer governed New York City.
C. He built all his furniture by himself in a workshop in Santo Domingo.
D. He joined the cabinetmakers' guild after he moved to Scotland in 1972.
12. According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?
A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.
B. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.
C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
D. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.
13. Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains Duncan's name change?
A. The first sentence C. The third sentence
B. The second sentence D. None of the above
14. Which choice does the word "it" refers to in the passage?
A. his spelling B. his chair C. his french D. his name
15. Which choice is closest in meaning to the word "guild" in the passage?
A. verdict of a jury B. organization of craftsmen
D. immigrant's club C. potential party of emigres
16. Which of the following does the word "freedom" in the passage refer to?
A. no longer restricted B. Restricted
C. by working hard D. took off
17 Where in the passage could the following sentence be added to the passage?
"Avery's joint was tight, and the carved elements were beautifully executed."
A. After the word workmanship in paragraph 5
B. After the word cabinetmaker in paragraph 1
C. After the word stoop in paragraph 3
D. After the word table in the last paragraph
18. In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT___
A division of labor B. an assembly line
C. continental designs D the least expensive materials
19. Based on information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe's
death?
A. He died in the eighteenth century. B. He died in Albany.
C. He died in the nineteenth century. D. He died in Scotland.
20. The author implies that
A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe's workshop no longer exists
B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe's workshop costs a lot of money today
C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe's workshop was ignored by New Yorkers
D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe's workshop was made by his father

PASSAGE 3
Roman gladiators are intriguing figures in history. We get "gladiator" from the
Latin word gladius, which means sword. Gladiators were professional combatants who
originally performed, to the death, at Etruscan funerals. The losers became armed
attendants in the next world to the person whose funeral was being held.
In Rome, these exhibitions became very popular and increased in size from 3 pairs
at the first known exhibition in 164 B.C. to 300 pairs in the middle of the first- century
B.c. these spectacles increased to as many as 100 pairs under the emperor Titus, while
the emperor Trajan in 107 A.D. had 5,000 pairs of gladiators for his triumph.
There were various classes of gladiators, distinguished by their arms or modes of
fighting. The Samnites fought with the national weapons - a large oblong shield, a visor,
a plumed helmet, and a short sword. Thracians had a small round shield, called a buckler,
and a dagger curved like a scythe. They usually fought the Mirmillones, who were armed
in Gallic fashion with helmets, swords, and shields. Similarly, a Retiarius, or net man,
was often matched with a Secutor, or pursuer. The netman wore nothing but a short tunic
or apron and tried to entangle the fully armed pursuer with the cast net he carried in his
right hand. If successful, the netman carried in his left hand. Others fought on horseback,
and some carried a short sword in each hand. There were also gladiators who fought from
chariots and others who tried to lasso their antagonists.
Gladiators came from a variety of social classes. Though they were usually slaves
and criminals, a ruined man of high social position might hire himself out as a gladiator.
Emperor Domitian had unusual gladiators, dwarfs, and women, and the half-mad emperor
Commodus fought in the arena, where he won his bouts with the aid of his Praetorian
Guard.
A victorious gladiator was given branches of palm and sometimes money. If they
survived a number of combats, they were gladiatorial service. However, many gladiators
reentered after discharge. Some became politically important bodyguards to controversial
politicians.
21. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The life of Roman gladiators B. The emperors of Rome
C. The weapons used in the Roman arena D. The social status of gladiators
22. According to the passage, where did gladiators originally perform?
A. In Roman arenas B. At Thracian cities
C. At Etruscan funerals D. In Trajan's triumph
23. According to the passage, when did the first known gladiatorial exhibition take
place in Rome?
A. In 50 B.C. B. In 264 B.C. C. In 107 A.D. D. In 157 B.C.
24. Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the word "spectacles" as used
in the passage?
A. eyeglasses B. Displays C. Prospects D. corpses
25. The word "they" in the passage refers to which of the following?
A. Samnites B. Gladiators C. Thracians D. Daggers
26. All of the following were used as weapons by gladiators EXCEPT___
A. a buckler B. a cast net C. a tunic D. a trident
27. Where would the following sentence fit best in the passage?
“In the 2000 film Gladiator, Joaquin Phoenix played the role of Commodus and
fought Maximus, the gladiator.”
A. At the end of paragraph 1 B. At the end of paragraph 2
C. At the end of paragraph 3 D. At the end of paragraph 4
28. Which word is closest in meaning to the word "antagonists" as used in the
passage?
A. enemies B. injured soldiers C. Horsemen D. fighters
29. From the passage, it can be inferred that___
A gladiators could become Emperor B. emperors enjoyed fighting gladiators
C. gladiators sometimes gained their freedom D. emperors fought on horseback
30. Where could the following sentence best be added to the passage?
“Some, in turn, became trainers of new gladiators.”
A. After the word history in paragraph 1 B. After the word shield in paragraph 3
C. After the word classes in paragraph 4 D. After the word service in paragraph 5.

PASSAGE 4
The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China.
Construction began in 1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The
Forbidden City got its name because most people were barred from entering the 72-
hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and the imperial family
were permitted only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any section at will.
The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese
principles. All buildings within the walls follow a north-south line, and the most
important ones face south to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other buildings,
and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors with the great power of
the Emperor while reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This architectural
concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For example, the importance of a building
was determined not only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and the
number of statuettes placed on the ridges of the roofs.
In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added
the palace to its World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do
not wait for an imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial
art.
One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate,
the formal entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary
wings on either side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand
in front of this majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood
there listening to imperial proclamations.
As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and
210 meters wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by
five parallel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony,
which, in turn, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. Its three main halls stand atop a
three-tiered marble ten-ace overlooking an immense plaza. The plaza has enough space to
hold tens of thousands of subjects paying homage to the emperor.
At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is
totally different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a
seemingly spontaneous arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here
is the place of relaxation for the emperor. The motion picture The Last Emperor (1987),
which portrays the life of Hsuan-t'ungP'u-i, was filmed partly within the Forbidden City.
31. Which sentence in paragraph 1 explains who could go anywhere in the
Forbidden City at any time?
A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 3 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 5
32. How long did it take to build the Forbidden City?
A. About 5 years B. About 7 years C. About 10 years D. About 14 years
33. From the passage, it can be inferred that____
A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries
B. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless
C. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values
D. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern
34. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word "unparalleled" as used in the
passage?
A. At an angle from the mainline B. A high quality found nowhere else
C. Partially designed in a foreign country D. Careless of small details in the design
35. Which word(s) does the word “its” refer to in the passage?
A. UNESCO B. Architecture
C. Palace D. World Heritage List
36. From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden
City is___
A. surrounded by three tall walls B. painted gold and green
C. decorated with statuettes D. not very impressive
37. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word "proclamations" as used in the
passage?
A. Music composed for public ceremonies C. Official public announcements
B. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight D. Poetry written for the emperor
38. All of the following are found in the Imperial Garden EXCEPT__
A. fishponds B. Sculpture C. white marble bridges D. flowerbeds
39. According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to?
A. The Meridian gate B. The center of Beijing
C. The Gate of Supreme Harmony D. The Imperial Gardens
40. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous" as used in the
passage?
A. Without meaning B. Without thinking C. Without planning D. Without drawing
 TEST 3
PASSAGE 1
Sinkholes may occur slowly and be completely harmless or may quickly cause
devastating damage. Interestingly, sinkholes may be caused by two opposite conditions-
extreme drought or too much rain.
As depicted in the drawing, under the sandy surface soil is a layer of clay and then a
layer of limestone. Sinkholes generally occur only in areas where geology has this
composition. Within the limestone, areas are pockets of water and air. When the
underground aquifer is full of groundwater, the pockets are generally filled with water
and perhaps air above the water. But when there is too much rain or not enough rain, the
caverns may become unstable. When there is too much, the cavern walls can be broken
through because of excess pressure, and when there is too little, the cavern walls can
collapse because there is not enough internal pressure to withstand the weight from
above. When that occurs, the cavern collapses, and the sandy soil close to the surface
seeps or pours into the cavern. The speed of the collapse and the amount of damage
depends on the size of the collapsing cavern. In drought conditions, sinkholes become
more common over time. They may harmlessly appear on a lawn and then stop.
Sometimes, small sinkholes recur or continue to eat soil for years without causing
any damage. But at other times they open in the middle of streets, surprising drivers and
swallowing cars, or in residential areas, swallowing houses. Sinkholes are not
discriminating. They have swallowed small inexpensive homes, as well as huge homes
worth millions of dollars. It is very rare for people to be hurt when it occurs because it
usually occurs over some length of time and is noisy as the ground becomes unstable.
Sinkholes have also swallowed lakes. There are areas in Florida where 40 or more
homes had been built around a beautiful lake. One day, the entire lake disappeared
because the cavern beneath the ground opened. Instead of sand being above the cavem,
there was water, which flowed into the cavern, leaving behind dead and dying fish and
plants and docks that led to nowhere.
 In one neighborhood, the neighbors managed to plug the hole in the lake with a
huge block of concrete, and rain eventually filled the lake. But their efforts were to no
avail because several years later the lake disappeared again.
Sinkholes are a natural phenomenon caused in particular geological areas by
particular events. Unfortunately, even knowing the cause and having time to plan, it is
not possible to stop a sinkhole.
1. The word "occur" in the first sentence is closest in meaning to___
A. happen B. leak C. stop D. cause
2. The word "devastating" in the first sentence is closest in meaning to___
A. overwhelming B. Quick C. Slow D. unpleasant
3. A good title for this passage would be____
A. Where did the Water Go? How Lakes Disappear?
B. The Causes and Effects of Sinkholes
C. The Dangers of Living Above Limestone
D. How to Avoid Sinkholes Damage
4. The author states that sinkholes can be caused by___
A. too much precipitation or not enough precipitation
B. too little rain or unstable sandy soil
C. too much rain or certain types of limestone
D. water filling limestone caverns or air filling limestone caverns
5. The author implies that sinkholes___
A. can occur anywhere
B. only occur where there are limestone caverns below the surface
C. can be prevented
D. occur very rapidly and without notice
6. The author indicates that the layers of material in soil from the top down are___
A. surface, limestone, clay, and sand B. surface, clay, sand, and limestone
C. surface, limestone, sand, and clay D. surface, sand, clay, and limestone
7. The word "drought" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to___
A. lack of liquid B. overabundance of liquid C. seeping of liquid D. summertime
8. The word "discriminating" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to___
A. discerning B. Unusual C. Dangerous D. automatic
9. The word "swallowed" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to___
A. filled B. Consumed C. formed in D. damaged
10. According to the passage, caverns are normally filled with___
A. air and water B. water and sand C. limestone and air D. sand and air

PASSAGE 2
In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average
amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned
wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by lire. The
first step toward the development of more efficient fuels was taken when people
discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut
wood. Charcoal gave off a more intense heat than wood and was more easily obtainable
than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century,
but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the
United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual
and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and
wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By the mid-1800s, 91 percent
of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was
obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major
energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions
and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a
more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as
the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They
burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to
manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s,
when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over
82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of
energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from
burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a
large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a
centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The
energy derived from nonrenewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one
location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In
countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of nonrenewable fuels
has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two
examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions
has proven to be labor-consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and-
nitrogen rich, and large-scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the
extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid
hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry
them, and modem technology is not sufficiently versatile for large-scale removal of the
material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices
continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alterative deposits more
attractive
11. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Applications of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical overview of energy rates person
12. In the first paragraph, the phrase "per person" is closest in meaning to___
A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day
13. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that___
A. coal mining was essential for primitive people
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial production
C. the development of efficient fuels was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
14. In the first paragraph, the phrase "in lieu" is closet meaning to__
A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge
15. The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes C. not derived from mineral deposits
B. used in various combinations D. not always easy to locate
16. In the second paragraph, the phrase "the latter" refers to____
A. wood B. Coal
C. most regions D. climate zones
17. In the second paragraph, the word "They" refers to___
A. coal and wood C. natural gas and oil
B. main sources of fuel D. industrializing countries
18. According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy.
B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. It replaced wood and coal and reduces pollution.
D. It could be converted to automobile fuel
19. According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced
because___
A. they need to be transported B. they are not efficient
D. their supply is limited C. their use is centralized
20. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th century, energy was
obtained primarily from___
A. fossil fuels B. nuclear fission
C. hydraulic and solar sources D. burning biomass

PASSAGE 3
 The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested
nose. People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated
bouts of sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may
also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may
develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-
antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and
glands in the eyes and ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which
keeps these organs in balance. But the independent nervous system itself is the pan of the
emotional-response center and may cause feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of
self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms
during the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well as mold, come
into contact with the victim's membranes, they can cause allergic reactions that release
histamine and result in a virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to
decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be
reduced. Although some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause
the reactions, elimination programs have not been successful because airborne pollen can
travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but severe attacks. Over
extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the
substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved
of the seasonal allergy.
21. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase "hay fever" refers to___
A. fodder for cattle C. viral bacteria
B. a seasonal discomfort D. a lung disease
22. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly
A. abdominal B. Intestinal C. Respiratory D. chronic
23. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
24. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience
B. mood swings A. hunger pains
D. sensory perceptions C. nervous blockages
25. In the first paragraph, the word "resentment" is closest in meaning to
A. reprieve B. Reprisal C. Acrimony D. grief
26. It can be inferred from the passage that a frequent source of allergy-causing
irritants can be
B. larynx infections C. human contact
D. ear membranes A. organic matter
27. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________
A. wind B. Food C. Travelers D. air passages
28. In the second paragraph, the word "blockage" is closest in meaning to
A. obstruction B. Bleeding C. Enlargement D. dryness
29. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to
A. avoid interactions with other patients B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence D. take doses of prescribed medicine
30. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. Mold C. Flowers D. injections

PASSAGE 4
The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of
extraordinarily talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won
gold records. They inspired a frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata.
While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their
songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a group called the Quarrymen in 1956,
with McCartney joining them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and Paul
McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on
the drums, performed together in several bands for a few years, until they finally settled
on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis
Presley, influenced Lennon's and McCartney's music, whose first hits consisted of simple
tunes and lyrics about young love, "Love Me Do" and "Please, Please Me." The Beatles'
U.S. tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies A Hard Day's Night and
Help!, filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of the United States was
in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles charts, followed by the
release of their first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics
of their songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their
popularity continued to grow as the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and
political issues in "Nowhere Man" and "Eleanor Rigby." Loneliness and nostalgia come
through in their ballads "Michelle" and "Yesterday," which fully displayed the group's
professional development and sophistication. Lennon's sardonic music with lyrics written
in the first person, and McCartney's songs that created scenarios with offbeat individuals,
contributed to the character of the music produced by the group. In addition to their
music, the Beatles set a social trend that popularized long hair, Indian music, and mod
dress.
For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert
took place in San Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their
quarrels and lawsuits, and the much-idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However,
their albums had outsold those of any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles
continued to perform solo or form new rock groups, alone, none could achieve the
recognition and success that they had been able to win together.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The history and music of the Beatles C. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s
B. The history and milestones of rock music D. The creation and history of a music
group
32. According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in
1956?
A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven
33. According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent?
A. John Lennon and Paul McCartney B. George Harrison and John Lennon
C. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best D. John Lennon, Paul McCartney, and George
Harrison
34. The author of the passage implies that the Beatles___
A. competed with American musicians C. became popular relatively quickly
B. wrote their music as a group D. were active in social movement
35. According to the passage, the Beatles' fame grew as a result of___
A. Chuck Berry's involvement C. two movies made in the U.S
B. their American tour D. their first two hits
36. The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the
Beatles__
A. became more complex than at the beginning of their career
B. declined in quality and political significance
C. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle
D. made them the richest musicians in the world
37. The word "acquired" in the passage is closest in meaning to__
A. imparted B. Attached C. Imprinted D. attained
38. According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success?
A. In the late 1950s C. During the early and mid-1960s
B. After their break-up in 1970 D. Throughout their lifetimes
39. The word "scenarios" in the passage is closest in meaning to___
A. sceneries B. Situations C. life stories D. love themes
40. According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of
the group?
A. They struggled to reach stardom in the United States.
B. They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads.
C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles' repertoire.
D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular.

TEST 4
PASSAGE 1
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to
the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials
adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous
change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth
century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled a far cry
from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed
and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air
pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air
pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide,
and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of
these was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in
biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the
compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of
these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In
such a region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural
purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious
chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be
greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human
activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in
fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this
represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example,
sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is
about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1
ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
2. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
3. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role
in controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
4. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
5. The word "these" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. air pollutants B. sulfur oxides
C. carbon monoxide D. nitrogen oxides
6. The word "localized" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A specified B. circled
C. surrounded D. encircled
7. The word "such a region" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. human production B. area
C. city D. none of these
8. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a
substance is only useful if
A. the other substances in the area are known B.it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
9. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A discernible B. gradual C. unobservable D. impossible
10. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to enforce air pollution
laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.

PASSAGE 2
Tens of thousands of ancient pictures carved into the rocks at one of France's most
important tourist sites are being gradually destroyed. Scientists and researchers fear that
the 36,000 drawings on rocks in Mont Bego in the French Alps are being damaged so
rapidly that they will not survive for future generations.
The mountain, believed to have once been a site for prayer and worship, is scattered
with 4,000-year-old drawings cut into bare rock. They include pictures of cows with
horns, cultivated fields and various gods and goddesses. But as the popularity of the site
increases, the pictures are being ruined by thoughtless graffiti.
Jean Clottes is the chairman of the International Committee on Rock Art. He says,
'People think that because the pictures have been there so long they will always continue
to be there. But if the damage continues at this rate there will be nothing left in 50 years.
 He describes seeing tourists stamping on the drawings, wearing away the rock and
definition of the artwork as they do so. Some visitors, he says, even chop off parts to take
home as souvenirs.
“When people think they can't take a good enough photograph, they rub the
drawings to get a clearer picture," he said. "The drawings are polished by the weather,
and if the sun is shining and the visitors can't see them properly they simply rub and
scrape them to make them look fresher."
Other researchers describe how people arrive carrying long sticks with sharp ends to
scratch their own drawings, or even their names, in the rocks.
But experts are divided over the best way to preserve the drawings. Henry de
Lumley, director of the Museum of Natural History in Paris, believes that the only way to
save the site is to turn the whole mountain into a 'no-go' area, preventing the public from
going there except on guided tours. Otherwise, he says, not only will the site be
completely destroyed but important research work will be reduced.
Clottes disagrees. 'The measure proposed by Henry de Lumley is the most severe,
and while it is the most effective, it is also certain to bring about protests from people
who live there; he said. The site was classified as a historic monument years ago by the
Ministry of Culture, and we must do as much as possible to save what is there.’
David Lavergne, the regional architect, also wants to avoid closing the site. 'Henry
de Lumley's idea isn't ideal; he said. 'Our department feels that the best solution is to let
people look at the site, but because the area is very big it is difficult to prevent visitors
from damaging it. I would prefer that everyone was able to look at it, but the main
problem is financial. We do not have the funds to employ the necessary number of
guards. We may have to consider charging a fee. There seems to be no prospect of
government funding.
In Nice, Annie Echassoux, who also worked on researching the site, is alarmed that
as the mountain becomes easier to reach tourists car now avoid the three-and-a-half-hour
walk by hiring vehicles the damage will increase rapidly. She thinks that the only
solution is to rope off the area and provide guides. You can't say the plan can't go ahead
because there is no money,' she said. 'That is not good enough. Money must be provided
because the Ministry of Culture has classified this area as a historic site. If we don't take
steps, we will be responsible for losing the drawings for the next generation."
11. What does 'they' refer to in paragraph 1?
A. the rocks B. the French Alps
C. the drawings D. the tourist sites
12. Jean Clottes says that people who visit the mountain
A. do not believe the drawings are old. B. believe they are allowed to paint there
C. think the drawings should be left alone. D. assume the drawings will not change.
13. According to Clottes, some of the visitors to the area have
A. helped to clean the drawings B. taken bits of the rock home.
C. been unable to take photographs. D. misunderstood what the pictures mean.
14. Henry de Lumley is keen to
A. set up research projects. B. safeguard public rights.
C. keep out individual visitors. D. ban traffic in the area.
15. The word 'save' in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to
A keep safe B. store C. damage D. waste
16. Clottes disagrees with Henry de Lumley's suggestion because he thinks
A. it won't work. B. visitors will protest about it.
C. he has a better idea. D. it will annoy local people.
17. David Lavergne would prefer to
A. limit the number of visitors to the site. B. arrange security to protect the site.
C. reduce the overall area of the site. D. use tourist fees to finance repairs on the site.
18. What does 'it in paragraph 9 refer to?
A. the site B. the solution C. the department D. the problem
19. Which word best describes Annie Echassoux's attitude?
A. determined B. despairing C. unforgiving D. understanding
20.This article has been written about Mont Bego to
A. advertise the closure of the site.
B. wam visitors about the dangers of the site.
C. encourage scientists to visit the site.
D describe fears about the future of the site.

PASSAGE 3
Owen Forrest, one of today's most famous sculptors, talks about work, inspiration
and his new book.
Clean shaven, with shoulder-length hair, the artist Owen Forrest looks younger than
35. Interviewing him is quite hard, not because he's a difficult person, but because he's so
agreeable. Make a comment about his work and how it challenges ideas about life in the
modem city, and he'll smile and answer, "Yes, I see your point." Or he'll cut you off in
the middle of a question to offer you some more coffee.
He isn't trying to be vague; he's just a shy young man from central England. Perhaps
that's why he seems such a down-to-earth person. Far from having a typical artist's
temperament, he comes across more like a farmer who just happened to wander into a
giant studio in London and start working. When I asked him how it felt to represent
Britain at the 2007 Paris Biennale Art Show, he replied that it was "very nice" and that he
was rather surprised but, of course, pleased to have been chosen. His modesty is rather
charming, and highly unusual in an artist.
It's not often that someone of Forrest's fame will sit down to answer the ordinary
person's questions on such topics as where his inspiration comes from, what it's like to
sculpt without machines in today's mechanised world, or simply why he does it. Forrest
say he was prompted to write My Hands, My Vision by sense that many people's interest
in his art extended beyond mere everyday conversation. "I was asked very intelligent
questions by people who weren't in the art world, from taxi drivers to people in
supermarket queues. It made me realise that people have an interest in what I do which
goes beyond browsing in galleries and museums," he says.
My Hands, My Vision avoids the biographical and mainly focuses on Forrest's
inspiration. "The events in my life haven't had a huge influence on my work," he says,
though he admits his father's obsession with wood-carving and carpentry have played a
role. The book aims to open up the process of how he creates his sculptures, how his
imagination is sparked by an idea or perhaps something he happens to see on the street.
He seeks to replace the sense of false mystery which surrounds many artists with a more
realistic window into the kind of physical and mental work it takes to be a sculptor.
"The publicity an artist gets when they show a new series of works in the media is a
double-edged sword," Forrest points out. "You get attention, but you also come in for a
lot of criticism from the media. First, they ask you to talk about your work and then they
create their own interpretations, regardless of what you tell them your work actually says
or means,"
Forrest's personal working style is to build up each sculpture piece by piece. He says
that this process is not widely understood. "There's no real vocabulary for discussing the
craft of building the types of sculptures I create. Reviews of art work which appear in
magazines or newspapers tend to be based on whether the reviewer likes the particular
artist or not, rather than discussing whether the artist is skilful, or how intelligent his
work is."
There is still something mysterious about the creation of an amazing sculpture. "It's
very personal, very emotional. It's like building a new friendship." Owen says. "When
you are building a friendship, you have periods of being very close and times when you
are separate. It's similar with sculpting. You can spend days working non-stop, and then
you find you need to take a break for a week or so. Once a sculpture is finished, the
process you went through to create it remains with you, like an old friend."
Owen includes examples of his early work in My Hands, My Vision. "I wanted to
make a point about all those who criticised my early work as rubbish. It wasn't all bad,
and it has affected the work I create today, as well as my approach to sculpting. It was an
important building block in my desire to create sculptures where people are challenged
not only to view the world in a different way, but their own place in that world." His
success seems to prove he has achieved his goals.
21. Why did the writer feel that interviewing Owen Forrest was difficult?
A. He didn't like to answer questions. B. He talked too much about himself.
C. He wasn't interested in being interviewed D. He was too pleasant with his responses.
22. What surprised the writer about Owen Forrest?
A. He had once worked as a farmer. B. His behaviour wasn't typical of artists.
C. He had taken part in a famous art show. D. His studio was too large to work in.
23. Why did Owen Forrest decide to write his book?
A. He was tired of answering questions about his work.
B. He knew people were tired of visiting museums.
C. He wanted to entertain people with his writing.
D. He realised people were curious about his work.
24. The main purpose of Owen Forrest's book was to
A give important details of his own life. B. analyse the difficulties of an art career.
C. explain how he works as an artist. D. encourage others to become artists.
25. How does Owen Forrest feel about media publicity?
A. It isn't always beneficial. B. It rarely contains the truth.
C. It is usually too critical. D. It isn't good promotion.
26. What does Owen Forrest imply about art critics
A. They have a limited vocabulary. B. They do not understand sculptors.
C. They fail to address all the issues in art. D. They do not recognise some artists' work.
27. When Owen Forrest is making one of his sculptures
A. he wants to create new friendships. B. he usually takes a week off work.
C. he goes through a variety of feelings. D. he keeps going until it's finished.
28. What does it in paragraph 7 refer to?
A. the process B. the sculpture C. the friendship D. the break
29. Why did Owen Forrest want to include his early work in his book?
A. To show its influence on his later work. B. To challenge people's views of the world.
C. To prove that it was actually very good. D. To annoy the people who criticise him.
30. The word 'achieved' in paragraph 8 is closest in meaning to
A got B attained C gained D. set
PASSAGE 4
1. In the Neolithic period, starting around 10,000 years ago, perhaps the most
important economic revolution in human history occurred the commencement of
agriculture and the domestication of animals for human consumption. From this point in
time, people could start to rely on a more consistent and much increased food supply. As
a corollary of this, considerably larger populations could be supported and people could
settle in one place without the need to migrate in search of food supplies. Equally
important, the surpluses of crops and animals meant that not all the population needed to
dedicate their time and energy to farming, some could now learn specialized skills such
as crafts or trade. The building of permanent settlements where skills could be
developed brought about the conditions necessary for the first growth of towns. But
several thousand years elapsed between the beginnings of agriculture and the rise of what
we call civilization about 6,000 years ago.
2. Recent evidence seems to indicate that while the Neolithic revolution first took
place in the Middle East in the valleys of the Tigris-Euphrates and of the Nile it occurred
independently in other areas of the world. The origins of the revolution are not known in
great detail. but it is known that the wild grasses that were the ancestors of wheat and
barley grew natively in the Eastern Mediterranean area. It may be that Mesolithic (Middle
Stone Age) foragers' simply supplemented their diet by reaping these wild grasses, and
later came to understand the advantage of returning some of the grain to the soil as seed.
Whatever the case, we know that at an early date people living in the Eastern
Mediterranean region, who lived by hunting, fishing, and gathering, began to make
sickles, with stone teeth set in bone handles. Such tools were certainly used for reaping
some grass crop, whether cultivated or wild.
3. Around this time, other communities in the Middle East cultivated plants from
which they learned how to obtain flour. Evidence shows that they ground down the grain
with a simple type of mill, consisting of a large saddle-shaped stone on which a smaller
stone was rubbed up and down. The livestock they bred cattle, sheep, pigs, and goats-
was exploited for their meat, skins, and milk.
4. Both in Egypt and Mesopotamia, the periodic floods of great rivers such as the
Nile and the Tigris-Euphrates not only supplied water to the fields but also brought down
fresh soil in the form of fertile muddy sediments. This sediment was deposited on flood
plains around such rivers, thus annually restoring the fruitfulness of the land. This regular
flooding and sediment deposit allowed these early farmers to continue cultivating the
same fields repeatedly for generations without exhausting the fertility of the soil, and
crop surpluses were, therefore, available to allow an increase in population and a growth
in trade and skills development. The area available for cultivation was expanded when
people learned to draw off the river water into man-made irrigation canals and ditches,
watering and fertilizing larger and larger areas of land.
5. The practice of artificial irrigation affected the soil in various ways, but not always
for the good. Since the channels were often shallow, there was frequently a great loss of
water through evaporation in a hot climate. This could lead to a marked increase in soil
salinity, since the salts held in solution or suspension were deposited as the water
evaporated, and too much salinity could eventually damage the soil. But overall the effect
of the irrigation system was to create an artificial environment and to some extent an
artificial climate with a range of conditions that favored both human experiment and
agricultural development. Beyond this, settled agriculture led to the development of
property rights and hence to a legal framework and mechanisms to enforce laws. This in
turn led to a more extensive and hierarchical government organization and hence to the
development of large, stable communities.
31. The word corollary in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. basis B. result C. source D. purpose
32. According to paragraph 1, what condition allowed people to learn specialized
skills?
A. The ability to migrate B. The growth of population
C. The surplus of farm products D. The spread of settlements
33. According to paragraph 1, why did people migrate before the Neolithic
revolution?
A. To search for better climates B. To improve trading skills
C. To avoid enemies D. To find food
34. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in paragraph 1? Incorrect choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.
A. The conditions for the growth of the first towns were established in permanent
settlements where skills developed.
B. The first towns and the skills that were developed were also found in the earliest
settlements permanent
C. Skills were developed and early permanent settlements were established before towns
could be built.
D. The conditions necessary for permanent settlements and the practice of skills were
found in the first towns.
35. The word “independently” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. separately B. collectively C. individually D. originally
36. According to paragraph 2, sickles found in the eastern Mediterranean are
evidence that
A. the makers of these sickles were skilled craftsmen
B. wild grasses were eaten before domesticated grasses
C. the sickles were useful for fishing and hunting
D. grasses were cut down for food consumption
37. The word fertile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. forceful B. productive C. creative D. shallow
38. According to paragraph 4, why was it easy for people to grow food near large
rivers?
A. Flooding eroded the soil. B. The soil was continuously enriched.
C. Surplus crops were regular. D. The population was large enough.
39. What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about the development of an organized
government?
A. Stable communities function best with a hierarchical government.
B. Human experiment is most often practiced if government enforces laws.
C. An organized government is necessary to extend artificial irrigation.
D. The need to enforce property laws required government organization.