Xam Idea Bio - 2024
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Accountancy Lab Manual Physics
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Lab Manual Biology Updated
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S.H.A.R.P. Insights English (Exercise Workbook) Competency-Focused Questions (As per NEP)
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Contents
PART–A
2. Human Reproduction 61
6. Evolution 287
VI Reproduction 16
Total 70
Unit-VI Reproduction
Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA
packaging; DNA replication; Central Dogma; transcription, genetic code, translation; gene
expression and regulation - lac operon; Genome, Human and rice genome projects; DNA
fingerprinting.
Chapter-7: Evolution
Origin of life; biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution (paleontology,
comparative anatomy, embryology and molecular evidences); Darwin’s contribution, modern
synthetic theory of evolution; mechanism of evolution - variation (mutation and recombination)
and natural selection with examples, types of natural selection; Gene flow and genetic drift; Hardy
- Weinberg’s principle; adaptive radiation; human evolution.
Pathogens; parasites causing human diseases (malaria, dengue, chikungunya, filariasis, ascariasis,
typhoid, pneumonia, common cold, amoebiasis, ring worm) and their control; Basic concepts of
immunology - vaccines; cancer, HIV and AIDS; Adolescence - drug and alcohol abuse.
Microbes in food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energy generation and
microbes as bio-control agents and bio-fertilizers. Antibiotics; production and judicious use.
Application of biotechnology in health and agriculture: Human insulin and vaccine production,
stem cell technology, gene therapy; genetically modified organisms - Bt crops; transgenic animals;
biosafety issues, biopiracy and patents.
Chapter-14: Ecosystem
Note:
O ypology of questions: VSA including MCQs, Assertion – Reasoning type questions; SA; LA-I; LA-II;
T
Source-based/Case-based/Passage-based/Integrated assessment questions.
O An internal choice of approximately 33% would be provided.
S Conceptual Questions
S Constructed Response Questions (As per NEP)
Z Short Answer Questions
Z Long Answer Questions–I
Z Long Answer Questions–II
1. Parts of Flower
Q In a flower, four different sets of whorls or floral members are attached to a central axis called
thalamus.
Q The outermost and the first accessory whorl is sepals and is called calyx.
Q The second accessory whorl is petals and is called corolla.
Q Next to the corolla, is the male reproductive whorl called stamens (androecium).
Q The female reproductive whorl is carpels and is also called gynoecium or pistil.
Q Calyx and corolla are the non-essential whorls while androecium and gynoecium are the essential
whorls.
Stigma
Style Petal
Anther
Pistil Stamen
Filament
Sepal
Ovary
Ovule
Thalamus
Structure of Anther
Q It is composed of two anther sacs or lobes separated by a tissue called connective tissue.
Q The anther is bilobed and each lobe or sac consists of two theca separated by a septum.
Q The anther is a tetragonal (four-sided) structure, consisting of four microsporangia, two in each of
the lobes.
Q Microsporangia develop and get transformed into pollen sacs.
(a) (b)
Structure of Microsporangium
Q A typical microsporangium appears circular and is surrounded by four walls:
(i) Epidermis: It is the outermost single layer of cell which is protective in nature.
(ii) Endothecium: It is the second layer with thick cells, help in dehiscence and is protective in
nature.
(iii) Middle layer: It is the third layer composed of 1−3 layers of cells, help in dehiscence and is
protective in nature.
(iv) Tapetum: It is the fourth and innermost layer of cell with dense cytoplasm and many nuclei. It
provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
Microspore
mother cells
(a) (b)
Microsporogenesis
Q The process of formation of microspore from a pollen mother cell by meiosis is called
microsporogenesis.
Epidermis
Endothecium
Connective tissue
Pollen grains
Dehiscence
Q Each cell of the sporogenous tissue in a microsporangium acts as a potential pollen mother cell
(PMC) or microspore mother cell.
Q PMC undergoes meiotic divisions to form cluster of four cells called microspore tetrad.
Q On maturity, the anther dehydrates and the microspores separate from each other to form pollen
grains with two layered wall—outer hard exine and inner intine.
Pollen Grains
Q Pollen grains are generally spherical in structure.
Q They possess two prominent wall layers—outer exine and inner intine.
Meiosis
Microspore/
Pollen mother cell Microspore separated
Microspore tetrad
(a)
Generative cell
Vegetative
cell
Mitosis
2 male
gametes
Vegetative
cell 3-celled pollen
Mature pollen grain
(b) (2-celled pollen) (in some plant species)
Fig. 1.6 (a) Pistil of Hibiscus; (b) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver;
(c) A multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia
(ii) Style It is an elongated slender part beneath the stigma, that connects the stigma with
ovary. It holds the stigma to receive the pollen grains. It is through the style that the
pollen tube grows and reaches the ovule.
(iii) Ovary It is the basal swollen part of pistil that contains ovules and eggs.
Q Inside the ovary there is a compartment called ovarian cavity or locule separated by septum.
Q Placenta is the tissue in ovarian cavity from where ovule or megasporangium arise.
Outer
integument
Nucellus
Inner
integument
Antipodal cells
Central cell
Embryo sac
Polar nuclei
Egg (Oosphere)
Synergids
Vascular strand
Integuments Hilum
Micropyle Funiculus
Megasporogenesis
Q The process of formation of haploid megaspores from the diploid megaspore mother cell (MMC) is
called megasporogenesis.
Q In the micropylar region, the nucellus contains cells with dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus
which is differentiated into a single MMC.
Q MMC is diploid and undergoes meiosis.
Q MMC first divides transversely into two cells called dyad.
Q These two cells again divide transversely, as a result a linear row of four haploid cells is produced
which is called megaspore tetrad or linear tetrad.
Q Out of these four megaspores, only one remains functional while the other three degenerate.
Q The one functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte or embryo sac. This is called
monosporic development.
Megagametogenesis
Q The maturation of female gametophyte (embryo sac) is called megagametogenesis.
(i) Megaspore is the first cell of the female gametophyte.
(ii) The megaspore increases in size and its nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei which move
apart to opposite poles. Thus, a 2-nucleate embryo sac is formed.
(iii) The two daughter nuclei undergo another mitotic division giving rise to the 4-nucleate stage.
(iv) The third mitotic division gives rise to 8-nucleate 7-celled embryo sac.
(v) After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical
female gametophyte or embryo sac.
(vi) Six of the eight nuclei, are surrounded by cell walls.
(vii) The central cell contains 2 nuclei known as polar nuclei.
(viii) The three nuclei at the micropylar region form the egg apparatus.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Fig. 1.8 (a) Parts of the ovule showing a large megaspore mother cell, a dyad and a tetrad of megaspores;
(b) 2, 4 and 8-nucleate stages of embryo sac and a mature embryo sac;
(c) A diagrammatic representation of the mature embryo sac
5. Pollination
Q The transfer of pollen grains from anther and their deposition over stigma of the pistil is termed as
pollination. Depending upon sources of pollen grains, pollination is of three types.
Fig. 1.10 A wind-pollinated plant showing compact Fig. 1.11 Insect pollination
inflorescence and well-exposed stamens
6. Pollen−Pistil Interaction
Q All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma until the entry of the pollen tubes into the ovule
are together called pollen–pistil interactions.
(Secondary nucleus)
Hilum
Fig. 1.12 (a) L.S. of pistil showing path of pollen tube growth;
(b) Enlarged view of an egg apparatus showing entry of pollen tube into a synergid;
(c) Discharge of male gametes into a synergid and the movements of the sperms, one into the egg and the
other into the central cell
7. Artificial Hybridisation
Q Commonly used technique in plant breeding programmes to obtain desirable characters.
Q Anthers are removed from the bisexual flowers using forceps. This is emasculation and is done
before the anther dehisces.
Q The emasculated flower is covered with a paper bag to prevent contamination from unwanted
pollens. This is called bagging.
Q On attaining maturity, mature pollens from desirable plant are dusted on stigma of bagged flower
and rebagged for fruit development.
9. Post-fertilisation Events
Q The following events after double fertilisation are collectively called post-fertilisation events:
(i) Development of endosperm from primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
(ii) Development of embryo from zygote.
(iii) Development of seeds from ovule.
(iv) Development of fruit from ovary.
Endosperm Development
Q Endosperm develops first, followed by an embryo.
Q Endosperm develops from PEN.
Q PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei and this stage of endosperm
development is called free nuclear endosperm.
Q Subsequently, cell wall is formed on the periphery and endosperm becomes cellular. It is now called
cellular endosperm.
Functions
(i) The cells of endosperm tissue are triploid and filled with reserve food material to nourish the
developing embryo.
(ii) The water of tender coconut in the centre is free-nuclear endosperm and white kernel in the
outer part is the multicellular endosperm.
(iii) The endosperm may be completely consumed by the developing embryo, e.g., pea, beans, or it
may persist in mature seed, e.g., coconut.
Embryo Development
Q Early development of embryo from the zygote is called embryogeny.
Q Embryo develops from zygote at the micropylar end of embryo sac.
Q The nutrition for development is provided by endosperm.
Q The zygote divides mitotically to form proembryo.
Q The different stages of the developing proembryo are globular and heart-shaped embryo, which
finally forms mature embryo.
Embryogeny in Dicots
Q The zygote undergoes transverse division forming a large basal cell and a small apical or terminal cell.
Q The large basal cell enlarges and undergoes transverse division to from a group of 6–10 cells called
suspensor.
Q The first cell of the suspensor towards the micropylar end is called haustorium, whereas the last cell
of the suspensor towards the chalazal end is called hypophysis that later develops into radicle.
Q The smaller terminal or apical cell undergoes one vertical division. The two cells formed from
terminal cell divide by a transverse division thus forming four embryonal cell (quadrant stage).
Apical
cell
Scutellum
(v) (vi) (vii) (viii)
Coleoptile
Shoot apex
Epiblast
Radicle
Root cap
Coleorrhiza
(d) Mature monocot embryo
Fig. 1.13 (a) Fertilised embryo sac showing zygote and primary endosperm nucleus (PEN);
(b) Stages in embryo development in a dicot [shown in reduced size as compared to (a)
(c) Mature dicot embryo
(d) Stages in embryo development in a monocot
Q Finally these four cells divide vertically forming 8-celled proembryo (octate stage). Four cells at the
apex give rise to plumule and another four give rise to hypocotyl except its tip.
Seed Development
Q Seed is a fertilised ovule which is the final product of sexual reproduction.
Q It consists of the following:
(i) Seed coat(s): 1–2 in number, having an opening called micropyle. Outer integument forms
outer seed coat (testa) and inner integument forms inner seed coat (tegmen).
(ii) Cotyledons: 1–2 in number and rich in reserve food material.
(iii) Embryonal axis
Q Sometimes in the seed, nucellus may persist. This is called perisperm, e.g., in black pepper.
Q With maturity, the water content of seed decreases and finally enters a state of inactivity called
dormancy.
Advantages of seeds
(i) Seeds posses better adaptive strategies for dispersal to form a new colony.
(ii) The reserve food of seed support the growth of seedling till they become nutritionally independent.
(iii) The hard seed coats (testa + tegmen) provide protection against injury.
(iv) They provide genetic recombination and variation as they are the product of sexual reproduction.
(v) Seeds are stored to be consumed throughout the year, to overcome drought and natural
calamities.
Fruit Development
Q The ovary matures to form fruit and the ovarian wall develops into the fruit wall called pericarp.
Q Fruits can be
(i) Fleshy, e.g., orange, mango, etc.
(ii) Dry, e.g., mustard, groundnut, etc.
Fruit that develops only from ovary Fruit that develops from ovary and the thalamus
e.g., pea, wheat, ,maize. or other part of flower, e.g., apple, strawberry.
Q Fruits consist of three parts: (a) outer skin called epicarp, (b) middle flesh called mesocarp, (c) innermost
part called endocarp
Epicarp
(a) (b)
Fig. 1.16 False fruits of apple and strawberry
Embryo sac
in ovule
Fig. 1.17 Summary of fruit formation that includes germination of a seed, vegetative growth and
the production of flowers that eventually bear fruit, which contains seeds
(ii) Polyembryony
O The occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony, e.g., orange.
O Ways of forming polyembryonic seeds:
(a) Development of cells like synergids, cells of nucellus, cells of integument, into embryo.
(b) Formation of more than one embryo sac in an ovule.
(c) Formation of more than one egg in an embryo sac.
Meiosis occurs during micro and megasporogenesis. Microspores (pollen grains) are formed at
the end of microsporogenesis whereas female gametophyte (embryo sac) are formed at the end
of megasporogenesis.
Q. 3. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence: pollen grain, sporogenous
tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Ans. Sporogenous tissue Pollen mother cell Microspore tetrad Pollen grain
Male gametes.
Q. 4. With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule.
Ans. For diagram, refer to Fig. 1.7.
Refer to Points nos. 4 to describe the Structure of Megasporangium.
Q. 5. What is meant by monosporic development of a female gametophyte?
Ans. Out of the four megaspores, three degenerate and only one remains functional which develops
into a female gametophyte or embryo sac. This is called monosporic development, i.e., when
embryo sac develops from one single megaspore it is called monosporic embryo sac.
Q. 6. With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
[CBSE Delhi 2017]
Ans. Female gametophyte or embryo sac is a small oval structure that contains a 3-celled egg apparatus,
3 antipodal cells and one binucleate central cell hence, it is 7-celled and 8-nucleate structure.
(i) Egg apparatus: It consists of two synergids and an egg cell towards the micropylar end. The
cells of egg apparatus are uninucleate. Synergids towards its micropylar end have cellular
thickenings called filiform apparatus that helps in guiding pollen tube into the synergids.
(ii) Antipodal cells: Chalazal end of embryo sac contain three cells of various shapes and sizes
called antipodal cells.
Q. 14. Why is apple called a false fruit? Which part(s) of the flower forms the fruit?
Ans. False fruits are those fruits in which accessory floral parts also contribute to fruit formation. In
apple, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. Therefore, it is called a false fruit. The fruit
develops from the ovary of the flower.
Q. 15. What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ this technique?
Ans. Emasculation is a practice of removal of stamens/anthers before the anther dehisces from bisexual
flowers in female parent. A plant breeder employs this technique in the bud condition before the
anthers begin to differentiate. It is required to prevent self-pollination.
Uses in plant breeding:
(i) Prevention of contamination and pollination of stigma of female flowers with foreign
undesirable pollens.
(ii) Prevention of damage by animals.
Q. 16. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits
would you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Ans. Only fleshy fruits like orange, watermelon, lemon, etc., should be selected as parthenocarpic
fruits. Here seeds of fruits are irritant during consumption so seeds are removed so as to make
the fruits even more valuable. It is easy to make fruit juices, jams, etc. with seedless fruits.
Q. 17. Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen grain wall.
Ans. Tapetum is the innermost wall layer of a microsporangium. It nourishes the developing pollen
grains and also help in the formation of wall of pollen grains. The cells of tapetum secrete Ubisch
granules that provide sporopollenin and other materials for exine formation.
Q. 18. What is apomixis and what is its importance?
Ans. Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction to form seeds
without fertilisation.
In apomictic seeds, parental characters are maintained in the progeny/offspring as there is no
meiosis or segregation of characters.
If desired hybrid seeds are made apomictics the farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds to
raise new crops year after year.
24 Xam idea Biology–XII
Multiple Choice Questions
(i) (iv)
(ii) (iii)
SEED X SEED Y
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d)
Assertion-Reason Questions
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion : The endosperm of angiosperms is generally triploid (3n).
Reason : It develops from primary endosperm nucleus formed by fusion of haploid male
gamete and diploid secondary nucleus.
2. Assertion : Dichogamy refers to maturation of male and female sex organs at different times.
Reason : This is a safeguard against cross fertilisation.
3. Assertion : Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four megaspores.
Reason : Megaspore mother cell and megaspores are both haploid.
4. Assertion : Entomophilous plants produce less pollen when compared to anemophilous plants.
Reason : The wastage of pollen is reduced to the minimum in entomophilous plants because
of the directional pollination.
5. Assertion : A structure of a typical microsporangium in angiosperms consists of four wall
layers—epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
Reason : The function of outer three wall layers is protection and also help in dehiscence of
anther to release pollen.
Passage-based/Case-based/
Source-based Questions
Read the given passages and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE-1
Observe the figure of fertilised embryo sac of an angiosperm and answer the questions that follow.
Answers
(i) Cotyledons and scutellum.
(ii) An orange seed has many embryos because of polyembryony.
OR
Polyembryony e.g. orange.
(iii) (a) Three (one vegetative nucleus and two male nuclei).
(b) 7-celled, 8-nucleate condition (three antipodal, two synergids one egg cell, central cell having
2 polar nuclei.
PASSAGE-2
Given below is an enlarged view of one microsporangium of a mature anther.
Microspore
mother cells
(i) An anther with malfunctioning tapetum often fails to produce viable male gametophytes.
Give one reason.
(ii) The meiocyte of rice has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in its
endosperm and egg cell. Why?
(iii) State the reason why pollen grains lose their viability when the tapetum in the anther is
malfunctioning.
OR
(iii) What is the function of tapetum in the anther?
Answers
(i) A malfunctioning tapetum is not able to provide optimum nutrition for the production of viable
male gametophytes.
(ii) 12 chromosomes in egg cell due to its haploid by the process of megagametogenesis and 36
chromosome in endosperm due to its triploid nature by the process of triple fusion.
(iii) Due to malfunctioning of tapetum, the developing pollen grains do not get proper nourishment
and thus lose its viability.
PASSAGE-3
Observe the diagram of pollen grain with germ tube and two male gametes given below. Answer the
questions that follow:
(i) How many pollen grains and ovules are likely to be formed in the anther and the ovary of an
angiosperm bearing 25 microspore mother cells and 25 megaspore mother cells respectively?
(ii) How do the pollen grains of Vallisneria protect themselves?
(iii) If the stamens are well exposed, usually which mode of pollination the plant is expected to
follow?
OR
(iii) If the flower has honey and nectar glands which is highly fragrant then, which mode of
pollination the plant is expected to follow?
Answers
(i) 100 pollen grains and 25 ovules.
(ii) They have mucilaginous covering to prevent them from getting wet.
(iii) Anemophily (Wind-pollination).
OR
(iii) Entomophily (Insect-pollination).
PASSAGE-4
Double fertilisation
Following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube
which grows through the tissues of stigma and style and reaches to ovary. If the pollen grain was shed at
2-celled stage, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen
tube. In plants which shed pollen grains in 3-celled condition, pollen tube carries the two male gametes
from the beginning. The pollen tube enters into ovule and peneterates into the embryo sac. Within
embryo sac, the pollen tube enters into one of the synergids through the filiform apparatus. Now the
pollen tube releases two male gametes into the space developed by degeneration of peneterated synergid.
One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus thus completing syngamy
resulting into the formation of diploid zygote. The other male gamete moves towards the two polar
nuclei located in the central cell and fuses with them to produce a triploid primary endosperm nucleus
(PEN). As this involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei, it is termed as triple fusion. Since two types of
fusion – syngamy and triple fusion, takes place in an embryo sac, this phenomenon is termed as double
fertilisation, an event unique to flowering plants. After fusion, the central cell become primary endosperm
cell (PEC) and develops into endosperm while the zygote develops into an embryo.
(i) Which part of the angiosperm and gymnosperm acts as the endospermic tissue?
(ii) What is the entry point of pollen tube into embryo sac?
OR
Answers
(i) Angiosperm: Primary endosperm nucleus.
Gymnosperm: Female Gametophyte
(ii) The pollen tube enters through the micropylar end between egg and synergids.
OR
(ii) Porogamy, Mesogamy and Chalazogamy.
(iii) One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus thus completing
syngamy resulting into the formation of diploid zygote. The other male gamete moves towards
the two polar nuclei located in the central cell and fuses with them to produce a triploid
primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). Since two types of fusion takes place in an embryo sac, this
phenomenon is termed as double fertilisation.
Conceptual Questions
Q. 1. Draw a diagram of a matured microspore of an angiosperm. Label its cellular components
only. [CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. Generative cell
Vegetative cell
Q. 2. Give an example of a plant which came into India as a contaminant and is a cause of pollen
allergy. [CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. Parthenium or Carrot grass.
Q. 3. The microscopic pollen grains of the past are obtained as fossils. Mention the characteristic of
the pollen grains that makes it happen.
Ans. The exine of pollen grains have an outermost hard layer composed of a chemical, sporopollenin. It
is highly resistant to high temperature, strong acids and alkali. So, pollen grains are obtained as
fossils.
Q. 4. State the function of filiform apparatus found in mature embryo sac of an angiosperm.
[CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. The filiform apparatus guides the pollen tube into the synergid.
Q. 5. What is funiculus?
Ans. Funiculus is the stalk of ovule that attaches it to the placenta.
Q. 6. How many germ pores are there in the pollen grains of monocots and dicots?
Ans. There are three germ pores in dicots and one in monocots.
Q. 7. In maximum angiosperms pollen grains are shed at the two-celled stage. Name the two cells.
Ans. Vegetative cell and generative cell are the two-celled stage in which pollen grains are shed.
Q. 8. Name the component cells of the ‘egg apparatus’ in an embryo sac. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Two synergids and an egg.
Q. 9. Why do pollen grains of some flowers trigger ‘sneezing’ in some people? [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. They result in an allergic reaction.
Q. 10. Name the tissue present in the fertilised ovules of angiospermic plants that supplies food and
nourishment to the developing embryo.
Ans. Endosperm
Q. 11. How many cells are found in a typical embryo sac?
Ans. There are seven cells in a typical embryo sac. These are one egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal
cells and a central cell.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 33
Q. 12. What is an anatropous ovule?
Ans. It is an ovule that is completely inverted through 180° such that the micropyle comes close to the
base of the funiculus and nucellus remains straight.
Q. 13. Papaver and Michelia both have multicarpellary ovaries. How do they differ from each
other? [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. Papaver has syncarpous gynoecium whereas Michelia has apocarpous gynoecium.
Q. 14. An anther with malfunctioning tapetum often fails to produce viable male gametophytes.
Give any one reason. [CBSE Delhi 2013]
Ans. A malfunctioning tapetum does not provide enough nourishment to the developing male
gametophytes and thus fail to produce viable male gametophytes.
Q. 15. How is it possible in Oxalis and Viola plants to produce assured seed-sets even in the absence
of pollinators? [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. By presence of cleistogamous flowers.
Q. 16. A bilobed, dithecous anther has 100 microspore mother cells per microsporangium. How many
male gametophytes this anther can produce? [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. The bilobed anther can produce 1600 male gametophytes.
Q. 17. The diploid number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 16. What will be the number
of chromosomes in its endosperm and antipodal cells? [CBSE 2019 (57/5/1)]
Ans. Endosperm—24 chromosomes, Antipodals—8 chromosomes.
Q. 18. How do flowers of Vallisneria get pollinated? [CBSE (F) 2013]
Ans. In Vallisneria, the female flower stalk is long to reach the water surface to receive the pollen grains
carried by water currents and then it gets coiled after pollination.
Q. 19. How many microspore mother cells would be required to produce one hundred pollen grains
in a pollen sac? And why? [CBSE (F) 2013]
Ans. One microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four pollen grains. In order to produce 100
pollen grains, 25 microspore mother cells must undergo meiosis.
Q. 20. What is pollen–pistil interaction and how is it mediated? [CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is called
pollen–pistil interaction. It is mediated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those
of pistil.
Q. 21. How many microsporangia are present in a typical anther of an angiosperm? [CBSE (F) 2013]
Ans. Four
Q. 22. Pea flowers produce assured seed sets. Give a reason. [CBSE (AI) 2010]
Ans. Pea flowers are cleistogamous, i.e., anther and stigma lie close to each other in closed flowers. So
when anthers dehisce in the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact with the stigma to effect
pollination. Thus, assured seeds are produced in pea.
Q. 23. Name the part of the flower which the tassels of the corn-cob represent. [CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. Style and stigma
Q. 24. Write the function of coleoptile. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. It protects the plumule of the monocot embryo.
Q. 25. Write the function of scutellum. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. It provides nourishment and protection to the developing embryo.
Q. 26. Name the part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen grain.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Stigma
Q. 27. Who discovered double fertilisation in angiosperms?
Ans. S. G. Nawaschin (1897) discovered double fertilisation in angiosperms.
Q. 5. “Pollen grains in wheat are shed at 3-celled stage while in peas they are shed at 2-celled stage.”
Explain. Where are germ pores present in a pollen grain? [CBSE (AI) 2017]
Ans.
Q. 6. Gynoecium of a flower may be apocarpous or syncarpous. Explain with the help of an example
each. [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower. When there are more than
one pistil, if the pistils are fused together, the flower is said to be syncarpous and if the pistils are
free, it is said to be apocarpous. For example, pistil of Papaver is syncarpous and that of Michelia
is apocarpous.
Q. 7. Name all the haploid cells present in an unfertilised mature embryo sac of a flowering plant.
Write the total number of cells in it. [CBSE (AI) 2013]
Ans. The haploid cells in an unfertilised mature embryo sac are: egg cell, synergids, antipodals and
central cell. There are seven cells in total.
Q. 8. Draw a diagram of pollen grain with germ tube and two male gametes.
Ans.
X A B C D
Q. 14. Write briefly the role of pollination in the growth and development in an angiosperm.
Ans. Pollination is transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the stigma of a flower. Pollination is
prerequisite for fertilisation, events after fertilisation like endosperm development, seed setting
and fruit formation. Thus, pollination plays an important role in the growth and development of
angiosperms.
Q. 15. Explain any two devices by which autogamy is prevented in flowering plants.
Ans. (i) Male and female flowers are present on different plants.
(ii) The stamens and stigma of a bisexual flower mature at different times.
(a) Anthers mature earlier than the stigma and release pollens.
(b) The stigma matures earlier than the anther.
(iii) Flowers are self-sterile or self-incompatible.
(iv) Chasmogamous flowers are present with exposed stamens and stigma which facilitate cross-
pollination. (Any two)
Q. 17.
(a) List any two characteristic features of wheat flowers that make it a good example of wind
pollination.
(b) It is observed that plant breeders carrying out wheat hybridisation often take pollen grains
from the ‘pollen banks’. Do you agree ? Give one reason in support of your answer.
[CBSE 2019 (57/3/1)]
Ans. (a) Light pollen grains/pollen grains more in number / exposed stamen / feathery stigma /
single ovule / numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence. (Any two) ½+½
(b) • Yes. ½
• Viability of wheat pollen grain is only 30 minutes and so it can be stored in pollen bank
for a long period of time. ½
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019 (57/3/1)]
Q. 18. List the two steps that are essential for carrying out artificial hybridisation in crop plants and
why. [CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. (a) Selection of parents: Only those plants should be selected which have desired traits.
Emasculation: Removal of anthers from flower before they are mature and dehisce.
(b) Crossing over: Pollen grains from selected male plant is collected and transferred to the
female plant after which it is bagged.
Q. 19. Explain the steps that ensure cross pollination in an autogamous flower. [CBSE Delhi 2013]
Ans. A bisexual flower is emasculated at unopened stage to prevent self-pollination in the flower and
it is bagged after emasculation to prevent contact of unwanted pollen grain with the stigma of
the flower. Artificial pollination is then performed when the stigma is ready and the flower is
rebagged.
Q. 20. Geitonogamous flowering plants are genetically autogamous but functionally cross-pollinated.
Justify. Give similarity of geitonogamy with autogamy and xenogamy. [CBSE Delhi 2013]
Ans. Geitonogamous flowers are genetically autogamous because both male and female flowers are
borne on the same plant. They are functionally cross-pollinated because the pollen from one
flower is transferred to the stigma of a different flower.
Q. 21. How does the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys ensures its pollination by bees? [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. The petals of the Ophrys resemble the female of a bee species in size, colour and odour. Male bee
mistakes the Ophrys for female bee and tries to copulate. Few pollen grains adhered to the body of
the male bee fall over stigma of the flower thereby leading to pollination showing sexual deceit.
Q. 22. Why should a bisexual flower be emasculated and bagged prior to artificial pollination?
[CBSE (F) 2010]
Ans. A bisexual flower is emasculated to prevent self-pollination in the flower and it is bagged after
emasculation to prevent contact of unwanted pollen grain with the stigma of the flower.
Q. 23. Write the cellular contents carried by the pollen tube. How does the pollen tube gain its entry
into the embryo sac? [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. Pollen tube carries two male gametes.
Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of
the synergids through the filiform apparatus which guides the entry of pollen tube into egg cell.
Q. 37.
(a) Mature seeds of legumes are non-albuminous. Then, can it be assumed that double
fertilisation does not occur in legumes? Explain your answer.
(b) List the differences between the embryos of dicot (pea) and monocot (grass family).
[CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. (a) No it cannot be assumed so because fertilisation does takes place but the endosperm is
consumed during embryo development.
(b) Table 1.9: Differences between dicot and monocot embryo
S. No. Dicot embryo Monocot embryo
(i) It has two cotyledons. It has one cotyledon.
(ii) Radicle and plumule are not covered with Radicle is covered with coleorrhiza and
sheath. plumule is covered by coleoptile.
Q. 38. Draw a sectional view of an apple and label the different parts of an ovary in it. Fruits develop
from an ovary. Then why is apple referred to as a false fruit? [CBSE (F) 2013, 2017]
Ans. Refer to Fig. 1.16(a).
In apple, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. Therefore, it is called a false fruit.
Q. 39. What is pericarp? Mention its functions.
Ans. The wall of the ovary that develops into wall of the fruit is called pericarp.
Functions: (i) Protects the seed till its maturity.
(ii) Helps in seed dispersal.
Q. 40. A non-biology person is quite shocked to know that apple is a false fruit, mango is a true fruit
and banana is a seedless fruit. As a biology student how would you satisfy this person?
[CBSE Delhi 2015]
Ans. In apple only the thalamus (along with ovary) contributes to fruit formation. Therefore, it is a
false fruit. Mango develops only from the fertilised ovary, therefore, it is a true fruit.
Banana develops from ovary but without fertilisation. The method is known as parthenocarpy.
Since there is no fertilisation, no seeds are formed in banana.
Q. 4. Where are the following structures present in a male gametophyte of an angiosperm? Mention
the function of each one of them.
(a) Germ pore (b) Sporopollenin
(c) Generative cell [CBSE 2019 (57/2/1)]
Ans. (a) Germ pore: Pollen grain exine, site from where pollen tube emerges.
(b) Sporopollenin: Exine of pollengrains, protects the pollen grains from high temperature
/ and strong acids & alkali / enzymes / adverse condition.
(c) Generative cell: Pollen grains , give rise to two male gametes. ½×6
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019 (57/2/1)]
Q. 5. Draw the diagram of microsporangium of an angiosperm and label any four parts. State the
function of its innermost wall layer. [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2015, 2017, 2018]
Ans. Refer to Fig. 1.3(b).
Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Q. 6. Make a list of any three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed and explain
how they help to encourage cross-pollination. [CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. (i) Time of pollen release and stigma receptivity are different (not synchronised). This prevents
self-pollination.
(ii) Anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so the pollens cannot come in contact
with the stigma of the same flower.
(iii) Self-incompatibility, which is a genetic mechanism to prevent the pollen germination on the
stigma of the same flower.
Q. 7. Why are angiosperm anthers called dithecous? Describe the structure of its microsporangium.
[CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. The anthers of angiosperms are called dithecous because they are bilobed and each lobe of anther
has two theca.
Microsporangium is surrounded by four wall layers named as epidermis, endothecium, middle
layer and tapetum. In young anther, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called
sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium which produce microspores or
pollen grains.
Q. 8. Differentiate between the following:
(a) Perisperm and Pericarp
(b) Syncarpous pistil and Apocarpous pistil
(c) Plumule and Radicle [CBSE 2023 (57/1/1)]
42 Xam idea Biology–XII
Ans. (a)
S. No. Perisperm Pericarp
(i) It represents persistent remains of It represents the wall of fruit formed by the
nucellus (of ovule) in the seed. ovarian wall.
(b)
Syncarpous pistil Apocarpous pistil
1. The condition where all the pistils are fused or 1. The condition where the pistils are free.
combined.
2. For example, tomato and cucumber. 2. For example, lotus.
(c)
Plumule Radicle
1. It is the part of the embryo that gives rise to 1. It is the part of the embryo that gives rises to
the shoot. the root.
2. It grows after the radicle. 2. It grows before the plumule.
Q. 9. Draw a longitudinal section of the pistil from a flowering plant, where pollination has
occurred. Label the following:
(a) Stigma showing germinating pollen grains
(b) Style
(c) Pollen tube reaching the micropyle of the ovule
(d) Embryo sac
(e) Components of the egg apparatus [CBSE 2020 (57/2/1)]
Ans.
Stigma /(a)
Style /(b)
½×6
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019 (57/2/1)]
Q. 12. Given below are the events that are observed in artificial hybridisation programme. Arrange
them in the correct sequential order in which they are followed in the hybridisation
programme.
(a) re-bagging; (b) selection of parents;
(c) bagging; (d) dusting the pollen on stigma;
(e) emasculation; (f) collection of pollen from male parent.
[NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. (b); (e); (c); (f); (d); (a).
Q. 13. One of the major approaches of crop improvement programme is Artificial Hybridisation.
Explain the steps involved in making sure that only the desired pollen grain pollinate the
stigma of a bisexual flower by a plant breeder. [CBSE 2023 (57/5/1)]
Ans. The steps involved in artificial hybridisation to make sure that only the desired pollen pollinate
the stigma of a bisexual flower by plant breeder are:
1. Anthers are removed from the bisexual flowers using forceps. This is emasculation and is
done before the anther dehisces.
2. The emasculated flower is covered with a paper bag to prevent contamination from unwanted
pollens. This is called bagging.
3. On attaining maturity, mature pollens from desirable plant are dusted on stigma of bagged
flower and rebagged for fruit development.
Q. 14. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy in plants. Which one between the two will
lead to inbreeding depression and why? [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Ans. Table 1.10: Differences between geitonogamy and xenogamy
S. No. Geitonogamy Xenogamy
(i) It is transfer of pollen grains from the anther It is transfer of pollen grains from the anther
to the stigma of another flower of same plant. to the stigma of a different plant.
(ii) The pollen grains are genetically similar to the The pollen grains are genetically different
plant. from the plant.
Geitonogamy will lead to inbreeding depression because the pollen grains are genetically similar,
which results in inbreeding. Continued inbreeding will thus reduce fertility and productivity.
Q. 16. (a) Write the characteristic features of anther, pollen and stigma of wind-pollinated flowers.
(b) How do flowers reward their insect pollinators? Explain. [CBSE (AI) 2010, 2012]
Ans. (a) The characteristics of wind-pollinated flowers are:
(i) Pollen grains are light in weight, non-sticky, dry and winged, so that they can be easily
transported.
(ii) Well-exposed stamens for easy dispersal of pollen grains in the wind.
(iii) The stigma is sticky, large, feathery to trap pollen grains in air.
(iv) Numerous flower are packed together to form inflorescence.
(v) The flowers are small and inconspicuous.
(b) Insect pollinators are rewarded in following ways:
(i) The flowers offer floral reward like nectar and pollen grain.
(ii) In some species floral reward provides safe place to lay eggs.
Q. 17. (a) Mention any four strategies adopted by flowering plants to prevent self-pollination.
(b) Why is geitonogamy also referred to as genetical autogamy? [CBSE (AI) 2010]
Ans. (a) Refer to Points to remember 5 [Contrivances for cross-pollination (Xenogamy/Allogamy)].
(b) Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant. Although geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination involving a
pollinating agent, genetically it is similar to autogamy, since the pollen grains come from the
same plant.
Q. 18. State the significance of pollination. List any four differences between wind-pollinated and
animal pollinated flowers.
Ans. Pollination is the phenomena of transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the stigma of a pistil.
Pollination is prerequisite for the beginning of fertilisation.
Table 1.12: Differences between wind-pollinated and animal-pollinated flowers
S. No. Wind-pollinated flowers Animal-pollinated flowers
(i) This kind of flower is pollinated by abiotic This kind of flower is pollinated by biotic
pollinating agent. pollinating agent.
(ii) They are small and inconspicuous. They are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
(iii) The pollen grains are dry, light and non-sticky The pollen gains are generally sticky in animal
so that they can be easily transported by wind. pollinated flowers.
(iv) The flowers are often clustered so as to carry Flowers reward pollinators in terms of pollen,
out pollination. nectar or safe place to lay eggs.
Q. 22. Explain any three advantages the seeds offer to angiosperms. [CBSE 2020, Delhi 2014]
Ans. (i) Since reproductive process such as pollination and fertilisation are independent of water,
seed formation is more dependable.
(ii) Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species to
colonise in other areas.
(iii) As they have sufficient food reserves young seedlings are nourished until they are capable of
photosynthesis on their own.
(iv) The hard seed coat provides protection to the young embryo.
(v) Being products of sexual reproduction, they generate new genetic combinations or
variations. (Any three)
Q. 23. State what is apomixis. Comment on its significance. How can it be commercially used?
[CBSE (AI) 2015; 2019 (57/4/1)]
Ans. It is a special mechanism of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction (to produce
seeds without fertilization), there is no segregation of characters in the progeny, farmers can
develop apomicts of hybrids and use them year after year to cut the cost. 3
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019 (57/4/1)]
Q. 24. (a) How does a farmer use the dormancy of seeds to his advantage?
(b) What advantages a seed provides to a plant? [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. (a) Dormancy of mature seeds are important for storage of seeds which can be used as food
throughout the year and also to raise crop in the next season.
(b) Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms. Firstly, since reproductive processes such as
pollination and fertilisation are independent of water, seed formation is more dependable.
Also seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species to
colonise in other areas. As they have sufficient food reserves, young seedlings are nourished
Q. 26. For a layman, both apple and banana are fruits. But a biology student categorises fruits as true
fruits, false fruits and parthenocarpic fruits. Justify. [CBSE 2020 (57/1/2)]
Ans. True Fruits: Fruits that develop from mature ovary and are a result of fertilisation. 1
False Fruits: Fruits that develops from ovary along with some other floral parts / thalamus. 1
Parthenocarpic Fruits: Fruits that develop without fertilisation. 1
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2020 (57/1/2)]
Q. 27. ‘Fertilisation is not an obligatory event for fruit production in certain plants’. Explain the
statement. [HOTS]
Ans. This can be observed in parthenocarpic fruits. The ‘seedless fruits’ that are available in the
market, such as cucumber, grapes, etc., are good examples. Flowers of these plants are sprayed
by a growth hormone that induces fruit development even though fertilisation has not occurred.
The ovules of such fruits, however, fail to develop into seeds.
Q. 28. Explain the process of pollination in Vallisneria. How is it different in water-lily, which is also
an aquatic plant? [CBSE 2017 (57/2/1)]
Ans.
Generative cell
Q. 5. Describe in sequence the events that lead to the development of a 3-celled pollen grain from
microspore mother cell in angiosperms. [CBSE (AI) 2010]
Ans. Refer to Points to remember 3 (Microsporogenesis and Pollen grains).
Q. 6. (a) How does microspore mother cell develop into mature pollen grain in angiosperms?
(b) Describe the structure of a mature pollen grain and draw a labelled diagram of its two-
celled stage. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. (a) Refer to Points to remember 3 (Microsporogenesis).
(b) Refer to Points to remember 3 (Pollen grains). For diagram refer to Fig. 1.5 (b)
Q. 7. Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a mature anatropous ovule and label the following
parts in it:
(a) that develops into an endosperm in an albuminous seed.
(b) through which the pollen tube gains entry into the embryo sac.
(c) that attaches the ovule to the placenta.
Ans. Refer to Fig. 1.7.
is called syngamy.
l Other male gamete fuses with polar nuclei at the centre to produce a triploid primary
double fertilisation.
l The central cell after triple fusion forms primary endosperm cell (PEC) which later develops
into endosperm.
l The zygote later develops into an embryo.
2. Cashew is a false fruit because it develops from ovary and the thalamus or other parts of
flower but guava develops only from ovary.
Q. 24. (a) Name the structures which the parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ shown in the diagram below respectively
develop into.
(b) Explain the process of development which ‘B’ undergoes in albuminous and exalbuminous
seeds. Give one example of each of these seeds. [CBSE (F) 2011]
(X)
(Y)
(Z)
X Y Z
(a) 2n n 2n
(b) 2n n n
(c) 2n 3n n
(d) 3n 2n n
(vii) The given figure of an egg apparatus of an angiosperm
shows the entry of pollen tube for releasing the two (Y)
(X)
male gametes. Which of the two from ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’,
(Z)
the two male gametes fuse with:
[CBSE 2023 (57/3/4), Term-I]
(a) X and Z (b) X and Y
(c) Y and Z (d) Z and Z Male gametes
X
Z
U
(a) X – Plumule (2n), Y – Suspensor (n), Z – Cotyledon (2n), U – Radicle (2n).
(b) X – Plumule (2n), Y – Suspensor (2n), Z – Radicle (2n), U – Cotyledon (2n).
(c) X – Suspensor (2n), Y – Cotyledon (2n), Z – Radicle (2n), U – Plumule (2n).
(d) X – Cotyledon (2n), Y – Radicle (2n), Z – Plumule (n), U – Suspensor (n).
2. In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.




![PART–B
n CBSE Sample Question Paper–2024 (Solved)
575
n CBSE Examination Paper–2024 [Code: 57/5/3 (Solved)]
590
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