08-09-2024

1001CMD303052240025 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A flywheel rotating at 420 rpm slows down at a constant rate of 2 rad s–2. The time required to
stop the flywheel is :-

(1) 22 s
(2) 11 s
(3) 44 s
(4) 12 s

2) The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis of rotation depends upon :-

(1) the distribution of mass

(2) distance of particle of body from the axis of rotation
(3) shape of the body
(4) all of the above

3) If the radius of gyration of a solid disc of mass 10 kg about an axis is 0.40 m, then the moment of
inertia of the disc about that axis is

(1) 1.6 kg m2
(2) 3.2 kg m2
(3) 6.4 kg m2
(4) 9.5 kg m2.

4) The torque of force newton acting at a point metre about origin is :-

(1) N-m
(2) N-m
(3) N-m
(4) N-m

5) Assertion (A):- If line of action of the force passes through the axis of rotation, then the body will
rotate even with the application of a small force.
Reason (R):- If line of action of force passes through the axis of rotation, then torque is zero.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

6) A ring and a solid sphere of same mass and radius are rotating with the same angular velocity
about their diameteric axes then :-

(1) it is easier to stop the ring

(2) it is easier to stop the solid sphere
(3) it is equally difficult to stop both of them
(4) it is not possible to stop a rotating body

7) In an experiment with a beam balance an unknown mass m is balanced as shown in fig. The value

of the unknown mass m is :-

(1) 12 Kg
(2) 6 Kg
(3) 8 Kg
(4) 24 Kg

8) When different regular bodies roll down along an inclined plane from rest, then acceleration will
be maximum for a body whose :-

(1)
is least
(2) mass is least
(3) surface area is maximum
(4) moment of inertia is maximum

9) A solid cylinder of mass m rotates about its axis with angular speed ω. The radius of cylinder is R.
Find angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

10) The angular speed of a star spinning about its axis increases as the star begins to contract to a
smaller radius. Which of the following quantities associated with the star must decrease as this
occurs ?

(1) Moment of inertia

(2) Angular momentum
(3) Rotational kinetic energy
(4) Net external torque

11) A position dependent force acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and

displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joules is

(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

12) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%

13) A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s (in metres) in it,

given by the relation , where t is in seconds. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) As shown in the diagram a particle is to be carried from point A to C via paths (I), (II) and (III) in

gravitational field, then which of the following statements is correct :–

(1) Work done is same for all the paths

(2) Work done is minimum for path (II)
(3) Work done is maximum for path (I)
(4) None of the above
15) The potential energy of a body is given by, U = A – Bx2 (Where x is the displacement). The
magnitude of force acting on the particle is

(1) Constant
(2) Proportional to x
(3) Proportional to x2
(4) Inversely proportional to x

16) A chain is on a frictionless table with one fifth of its length hanging over the edge. If the chain
has length L and mass M. The work required to be done to pull the hanging part back on to the table
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) For the path PQR in a conservative force field the amounts work done in carrying a body from P
to Q and from Q to R are 5 Joule and 2 Joule respectively. The work done in carrying the body from P

to R will be –

(1) 7 J
(2) 3 J
(3)
(4) Zero

18) Track OABCD (as shown is figure) is smooth and fixed in vertical plane. What minimum speed

has to be given to a particle lying at point A, so that it can reach point C ?

(1) 80 m/s
(2) 100 m/s
(3) 70 m/s
(4) 60 m/s
19)

A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate through a given horizontal pipe. To deliver n-times
the water through the same pipe in the same time the power of the motor must be increased as
follows :-

(1) n times
(2) n2 times
(3) n3 times
(4) n4 times

20) A uniform solid cone of height 40 cm is shown in figure. The distance of centre of mass of the

cone from point B (centre of the base) is :-

(1) 20 cm

(2)
cm

(3)
cm
(4) 10 cm

21) A man m = 80 kg is standing on a trolley of mass 320 kg on a smooth surface. If man starts
walking on trolley along rails at a speed of 1 m/s w.r.t trolley then after 4 sec, his displacement
relative to ground is :-

(1) 4 m
(2) 4.8 m
(3) 3.2 m
(4) 6 m

22) Two particles each of mass m travelling with velocities u1 and u2 collide perfectly inelastically.
The loss of kinetic energy will be –

(1)
m(u1 – u2)2

(2)
m(u1 – u2)2
2
(3) m(u1 – u2)
2
(4) 2m(u1 – u2)

23) When a body is earthed, then electrons flows from earth to body. This means body is :-
(1) Uncharged
(2) Positively charged
(3) Negatively charged
(4) An insulator

24) Choose the correct statement :

(1) The total number of charged particles is constant

(2) The total positive charge of the universe remains constant
(3) Both of these
(4) None of these

25) Charge on a body is q1 and it is used to charge another body by induction. Charge on second
body is found to be q2 after charging. Then, :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Five point charges, each of value +q are placed on five vertices of a regular pentagon of side 'a'.
What will be the force on point charge +q0 placed at centre of pentagon. Distance between vertex
and centre is 'r'.

(1)

(2) zero

(3)

(4)

27) Two conducting spheres A and B having radius R & 2R and charge Q & 3Q respectively,if they
are connected by wire then final charges on spheres A and B respectively will be :-

(1)

(2) 2Q, 2Q
(3) 3Q, Q
(4)

28) Two positively charged particles each having charge Q are d distance apart. A third charge is
introduced in midway on the line joining the two. Find nature and magnitude of third charge, so that

the system is in equilibrium :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate through some process, the charge
on it becomes :

(1) –1.6 C
(2) +1.6 C
(3) 1019 C
(4) 10–19 C

30) Two charges at distance r exerts a force F on each other. The value of distance 'R' at which they
experience force 4F, when placed in a medium of dielectric constant K = 4 is :-

(1) r
(2) r/4
(3) r/8
(4) 2r

31) Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle

of side 'a' as shown in the following figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex
A in a direction normal to BC is :-

(1) Q /(4πε0a )
2 2

(2) – Q /(4πε0a )
2 2

(3) Zero
(4) Q /(2πε0a )
2 2

32) An unknown nucleus contains 70 neutrons and has twice the volume of the nickel nucleus.
Identify the unknown nucleus in the form .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Consider the nuclear reaction

X200 → A110 + B90
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B is 7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, what
is the energy released ?

(1) 200 MeV

(2) 160 MeV
(3) 110 MeV
(4) 90 MeV

34)

Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and
Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is :-

(1) Y → 2Z
(2) W → X + Z
(3) W → 2Y
(4) X → Y + Z

35) The number of α and β particles emitted in the following radio active decay :-
—→

(1) 8 & 6
(2) 6 & 8
(3) 8 & 8
(4) 6 & 6

SECTION-B

1) Two identical rods each of mass M and length L are kept according to figure. Find the moment of
inertia of rods about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of rods :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

Four hollow spheres, each with a mass of 1 kg and a radius R = 10cm, are connected with massless
rods to form a square with side of length L = 50 cm, In case-1, the masses rotate about an axis that
bisects two sides of the square. In case-2, the masses rotate about an axis that passes through the
diagonal of the square, as shown in the figure. Compute the ratio of the moments of inertia I1/I2, for
the two cases.

(1) I1/I2 = 8
(2) I1/I2 = 4
(3) I1/I2 = 2
(4) I1/I2 = 1

3) From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M a small disc of radius is removed as shown in
figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the
disc and passing through O is :

(1) 4 MR2

(2)

(3) 10 MR2

(4)

4) A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged about a point as shown in the fig. Initially the rod
is kept horizontal by a massless string as shown. Just After string is cut the angular acceleration of

the rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

Find the value of mass m to keep the disc horizontal. (Given string is attached at point B on disc.)

(1) M

(2)

(3)

(4)
6) What will be the value of maximum acceleration α of the truck in the forward direction so that the

block kept on the back does not topple ?

(1) ag/h
(2) hg/a
(3) ag/2h
(4) h/bg

7) A uniform disc of radius 20 cm is performing pure rolling on a moving surface, if it's angular

velocity is 5 rad/s then find velocity of it's centre of mass:-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) None of these

8) A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward

acceleration . Work done by the cord on the block is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Mgd

9) The figure shows a smooth curved track terminating in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of
spring constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to a wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A
40 g mass is released from rest at a height of 5m on the curved track. The maximum compression of

the spring will be :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 10 cm
10)

The center of mass of the solid hemisphere is located at (symmetrically from center of the
hemisphere) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two small spherical balls each carries a charge 10 μC are suspended by two insulating strings of
equal length each from a fixed point O. In equilibrium strings are seperated by an angle 90°

between them. Mass of each ball will be (Consider massles string):

(1) 0.1 gm
(2) 22.5 gm
(3) 1 gm
(4) 102.5 gm

12) Two point charges +9μC and +16μC are placed at a distance 70 cm. Where should a third
charge 10μC is placed between them so that it is in equilibrium :

(1) 33 cm from 9μC

(2) 30 cm from 9μC
(3) 40 cm from 16μC
(4) 2 and 3 both

13) If the force, on the charge placed at the corner A of an isosceles triangle, due to C, is F then the

net force on the charge B placed at B will be :-

(1)
(2) 2F

(3)

(4) F
14) An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each
nucleus of uranium atom is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be :-

(1) 30 × 1025
(2) 4 × 1022
(3) 10 × 1020
(4) 5 × 1015

15) A radioactive nucleus emits 9α particles and 5β-particles. The ratio of number of protons to
that of neutrons in the final nucleus :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is only well characterized compound of Bi in +5 oxidation state ?

(1) BiI5
(2) BiF5
(3) BiCl5
(4) BiBr5

2) The purest & thermodynamically most stable allotropes of carbon respectively are :-

(1) Diamond, graphite

(2) Fullerenes, graphite
(3) Graphite, Diamond
(4) Graphite, Fullerenes

3) XeF2 reacts with PF5 to give :

(1) XeF6
+ –
(2) [XeF] [PF6]
(3) XeF4
+ –
(4) [PF4] [XeF3]
4) Which stability order is incorrect

(1) Pb+2 > Pb+4

(2) Sn+2 > Sn+4
(3) Sn+2 < Pb+2
(4) Sn+4 > Pb+4

5) Which of the following is not an ionic carbide :-

(1) CaC2
(2) Al4C3
(3) SiC
(4) Be2C

6) If A is H3PO4 then in given reaction B and C are respectively :

2A B, B C

(1) H3PO2, P2O5

(2) HPO3, P2O5
(3) HPO3, P2O3
(4) P2O3, P2O5

7) The no. of S–O–S bonds in S3O9 & no. of P–O–P bond in H3P3O9 respectively :-

(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 0
(3) 6, 12
(4) 3, 3

8) Which of the following is correct set of magic number for VB group ?

(1) 18, 18, 32

(2) 8, 8, 18
(3) 8, 18, 32
(4) 18, 32, 32

9) Incorrect statement for the given configuration :- [Xe]4f75d16s2

(1) It placed in d-block, IIIB group, 6th period

(2) It is a natural element
(3) It have maximum unpaired e– in lanthanide
(4) It is Gd

10) Which of following has highest EA :-

(1) F–
(2) Cl–
(3) Li+
(4) Na+

11) Which of the following is correct for mulliken scale :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

12) Select equations having endothermic step :

(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) A, B, D

13) The correct order of Basic strength of oxides of alkaline earth metal is :-

(1) BeO > MgO > CaO > SrO

(2) SrO > CaO > MgO > BeO
(3) BeO > CaO > MgO > SrO
(4) SrO > MgO > CaO > BeO

14) Select the elements belonging to same group from the following list :-

(1) Z = 12, 38, 4, 88

(2) Z = 9, 16, 3, 35
(3) Z = 5, 11, 27, 19
(4) Z = 24, 47, 42, 55

15) The second ionization potentials in electronvolts of oxygen and fluorine atoms are respectively
given by:-

(1) 38.3, 35.1

(2) 38.3, 38.3
(3) 35.1, 38.3
(4) 35.1, 35.1

16) Which of the following ionisation energy order is not correct?

(1) Mn+2 < Mn+3

(2) N–3 < N
(3) Cu+ < Cu+2
(4) Ne+ < Ne

17) If Zeffect of sodium is 'x' then Zeffect of carbon is C :

(1) x + .90
(2) x + 1.05
(3) x + 1.95
(4) x + .40

18) Which of the following halogen form only one oxyacids (HOX)

(1) F
(2) Br
(3) I
(4) Cl

19) Which of the following is dry and permanent bleaching agent :-

(1) O3
(2) Moist SO2
(3) H2O2
(4) Cl2 water

20) The hydrolysis of PCl3, produces :

(1) H3PO3 + HClO

(2) H3PO3 + HCl
(3) H3PO4 + HCl
(4) PH3 + HClO

21) How many of the following does not exist :-

(i) Na2HPO2 (ii) Na3PO4
(iii) NaH2PO2 (iv) PH5
(v) [BF6]3– (vi) F3
(vii) Cl3 (viii) [Al(H2O)6]3+

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

22) Select the incorrect statement about crystalline form of borax :-

2–
(1) Tetranuclear [B4O5(OH)4] unit
(2) Equal number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised boron atoms
(3) One terminal hydroxide per boron atom
(4) Its aqueous solution should be amphoteric

23)

In the galvenic cell

Cu(s) | Cu+2 (1 M) || Ag+1 (1 M) | Ag(s)
The flow of current from.

(1) Ag to Cu
(2) Cu to Ag
(3) No current flow
(4) In any direction

24) The limiting molar conductivities of X+ and Y–2 ions are 45 and 110 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The
of X2Y is -

(1) 200 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 100 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 400 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 77.5 S cm2 mol–1

25) At infinite dilution the molar conductivities of BA, CA and BX are 140, 120 and 198 S
cm2 mol–1 respectively. The of CX is –

(1) 130 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 218 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 198 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 178 S cm2 mol–1

26) The conductivity of saturated solution of AB is 1.44 × 10–6 S cm–1. The limiting ionic
conductivities of A+ and B– are 64 and 80 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The Ksp of AB is :-

(1) 1 × 10–10
(2) 1 × 10–5
(3) 2 × 10–10
(4) 4 × 10–10

27) Match the terms given in column-I with their units in column-II.
 Column-I Column-II

(A) Molar conductivity (P) Sm–1

(B) Conductance (Q) Sm2mol–1

(C) Conductivity (R) m–1

(D) Cell constant (S) ohm–1(S)

(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R
(3) A → S, B → Q, C → R, D → P
(4) A → P, B → S, C → Q, D → R

28) The molar conductivity of 0.1 M HCOOH(aq) is 80 Scm2mol–1. The limiting molar conductivity of
HCOOH is 400 Scm2mol–1. The dissociation constant of HCOOH is -

(1) 4 × 10–3
(2) 5 × 10–3
(3) 4 × 10–5
(4) 5 × 10–5

29) The resistance and cell constant of a cell containing 0.1 N KCl (aq) solution are 55Ω and 0.66
cm–1 respectively. The conductivity of 0.1 N KCl (aq) solution is -

(1) 0.012 Ω–1cm–1

(2) 0.006 Ω–1cm–1
(3) 0.12 Ω–1 cm–1
(4) 0.06 Ω–1cm–1

30) According to IUPAC numbering position of chlorine in the given compound is :-

(1) 5th carbon

(2) 3rd carbon
(3) 6th carbon
(4) 2nd carbon

31) Incorrect matched IUPAC name is :-

1. 1-Chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
 2. 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene

3. 4-Hydroxy-1,2-dimethylbenzene

4. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) What is the IUPAC name of given compound-

(1) 4–Cyano hexan–2–one

(2) 2–Oxo hexane–4–nitrile
(3) 2–Ethyl–4–oxo pentanenitrile
(4) 2–Ethyl–4–oxo pentanecarbonitrile

33) The correct IUPAC name of given compound is (C2H5)4C :

(1) Tetra ethyl methane

(2) 2–Ethyl pentane
(3) 3, 3–Diethyl pentane
(4) None of these

34) General formula of cycloalkene is :-

(1) CnH2n
(2) CnH2n–2
(3) CnH2n+2
(4) CnH2n–4

35) What is the IUPAC name of given compound ?

(1) 3-Chloropropane-1,2,3-trinitrile
(2) 1-Choloropropane-1,2,3-trinitrile
(3) 1-Chloropropane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(4) 3-Chloropropane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

SECTION-B

1) Impure PH3 contain which impurity :

(1) P4 vapour
(2) P2H4
(3) White P
(4) both (1) and (2)

2) P4O10 has short & long P–O bonds. The number of short P–O bond in this compound is :-

(1) 12
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of following statement is incorrect :

(1) Lithium and Magnesium exhibit diagonal relationship

(2) Elements of groups 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are known as representative elements
(3) In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled
(4) General configuration of f-Block elements is (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2

4) Arrange them in decreasing order of ionisation enthalpy :-

(1) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–

(2) Cl– > F– > Br– > I–
(3) Cl– > F– < Br– < I–
(4) Cl– > F– = Br– < I–

5) The formation of starting from O(g) is endothermic by 603 kJ/mole. If EA of O(g) is –141
kJ/mole. Then EA2 of 'O' will be :-

(1) 603 kJ/mole

(2) – 603 kJ/mole
(3) –744 kJ/mole
(4) +744 kJ/mole

6) Which of the following have highest IP3 :-

(1) Mn
(2) Cr
(3) Sc
(4) V

7)

Which pair of oxy acid have two P–H bond :

(1) Phosphonic acid, Phosphinic acid

(2) Phosphinic acid, Pyrophosphoric acid
(3) Pyrophosphorous acid, Pyrophosphoric acid
(4) Hypophosphorous acid, Pyrophosphorous acid

8) When B2H6 Reacts with Ammonia, it gives :-

+ –
(1) [H2B(NH3)2] + [BH4]
– +
(2) [H4B(NH3)2] + [BH2]
(3) 2BH3 (NH3)2
(4) No reaction

9) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) XeF4 is polar compound

(2) BF3 is planar due to back bonding
(3) NO is an anhydride of nitrous acid
(4) All of these

10) Which is correctly matched :-

(1) NO - coloured diamagnetic gas

–
(2) B2H6 - 2C-3e bond
–
(3) ClO2 - 3C-2e bond
+
(4) NO2 - Diamagnetic Linear cation

11) Statement-I : Copper electrode acts as negative electrode in Daniel cell.

Statement-II : Electrons flow from Cu to Zn in external circuit in Daniel cell.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

12) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion (A) : NaCl and KNO3 have same value of constant 'A' in Debye-Huckel-Onsager equation.
Reason (R) : Both NaCl and KNO3 are strong electrolytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

13) Common name of is :-

(1) s-butylamine
(2) t-butylamine
(3) n-butylamine
(4) isobutylamine

14) Hybridisation of C1 and C3 carbon atoms respectively :-

CH3–C≡C–CH=CH2

(1) sp2 and sp2

(2) sp2 and sp
(3) sp and sp
(4) sp and sp2

15) IUPAC name of t-butyl is :-

(1) 1-Methylethyl
(2) 2-Methylpropyl
(3) 1,1-Dimethyl ethyl
(4) 1-Methyl propyl

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) The afferent nerve fibre transmit impulses from tissues/organs to the CNS.
(B) The efferent fiber transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned peripheral
tissues/organs
(C) The somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles.
(D) The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and
skeletal muscles of the body.
How many of the above statements are right?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) Assertion (A) : Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across
electrical synapses.
Reason (R) : At electrical synapes, the membranes of pre-and post-synaptic neurons are in very
close proximity

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3) Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions by
Na–K pump which transport ____A____ ions outward for ____B____ into cell. A and B respectively.

(1) A → 2K+, B → 3Na+

(2) A → 2Na+, B → 3K+
(3) A → 3Na+, B → 2K+
(4) A → 3K+, B → 3Na+

4) Synaptic vesicles not found at :

(1) Post synaptic membrane

(2) Pre synaptic membrane
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) Both (1) and (3)

5)

Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling is :-

(1) e
(2) f
(3) d
(4) i
6) Given below is a diagrammatic representation or structure of a neuron :-
Choose the correct option indicating the labelled structures in which Nissl’s granules are present

(1) Only B
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) A, B, C and D

7) Which of the following group of hormones will not bind to membrane bound receptors but they
bind to receptors present inside the target cells :-

(1) Insulin and glucagon

(2) Iodothyronines (eg-Thyroxin)
(3) Amino acid derivatives (eg-Epinephrine)
(4) Pituitary and hypothalamic hormones

8) Which of the following is a non-organised endocrine gland?

(1) Pancreas
(2) Thyroid
(3) Liver
(4) Gonads

9)
This X is represent -

(1) Thyroid gland

(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) (1) and (2) both

10) Secretin stimulates the activity of :-

(1) Liver
(2) Gastric gland
(3) Pancreas
(4) Gall-bladder

11) A hormone produced by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney which stimulate RBC production

(1) Erythropoietin
(2) ANF
(3) Secretin
(4) Cholecystokinin

12) Select correct statement regarding thyroxine–

(1) Regulation of BMR

(2) Maintain H2O and electrolytes.
(3) Helps in erthropoiesis.
(4) All are correct

13) Which hormone is called Anti-diuretic hormone

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Vasopressin
(3) ACTH
(4) FSH

14) Which one of the following hormone never reaches to cytoplasm ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) FSH
(3) Progestrone
(4) Testosterone

15) Which disorder occurs in child due to hyper secretion of growth hormone ?

(1) Atellosis
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Gigantism
(4) Midgets

16) Stimulation of uterine contraction during child birth is brought about by :-

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Progesterone
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prolactin

17) Hormones produced by adrenal cortex and gonads (sex hormone) are chemically :-

(1) Proteinous
(2) Steroids
(3) Glycoprotein
(4) Phenolic compound

18) Fight and flight hormone is :

(1) adrenaline
(2) thyroxine
(3) ADH
(4) oxytocin

19) The function of glucagon hormone is

(1) To increase glycogenesis

(2) To decrease blood sugar level
(3) To release glucose from liver cells and increase glycogenolysis
(4) To increase the absorption of glucose into the cell

20) The adrenal cortex can be divided into three layers. Select the correct sequence from inner to
outer :-
(A) Zona glomerulosa
(B) Zona reticularis
(C) Zona fasciculata

(1) A → C → B
(2) B → C → A
(3) A → B → C
(4) C → B → A

21) Drupe fruit in mango and coconut are developed from

(1) Superior ovary

(2) Inferior ovary
(3) Superior and inferior ovary respectively
(4) Inferior and superior ovary respectively

22) In how many of the following plant flowers, inferior ovary is present ?
Mustard, guava, groundnut, pea, plum, peach, ray florates of sunflower, Parthinium, rose, tomato,
onion, garlic, cucumber

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

23) The margins of petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction as in-

(1) Calotropis
(2) Lady's finger
(3) Chine rose
(4) Cassia

24) Position of floral parts on thalamus is given in figure. What is the position of ovary & stamen in

the flower ?

(1) Half superior & superior respectively

(2) Inferior & superior respectively
(3) Superior & inferior respectively
(4) Inferior and inferior respectively

25) The correct floral formula of pea is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Monoadelphous condition is present in :-

(1) Calotropis
(2) Cucumber
(3) Chinarose
(4) Pea

27) Which of the following floral feature is shown by both floral formula and floral diagram ?

(1) Aestivation of sepals in floral bud

(2) Adhesion between parts of floral whorls
(3) Number of locule/s in ovary
(4) Arrangement of ovule(s) within the ovary

28) In given diagram A, B, C and D represent :

(1) (A) Endocarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Epicarp (D) Seed

(2) (A) Epicarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Endocarp (D) Seed
(3) (A) Epicarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Seed (D) Endocarp
(4) (A) Mesocarp (B) Epicarp (C) Seed (D) Endocarp

29) Given below are two Statements.

Statements-I : The arrangement of ovary within the ovule is known as placentation.
Statements-II : If a fruit is formed without fertilization of the ovary it is called parthenogenesis.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

30) Study the sentences carefully and give the answer.

(A) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves through any plane, it is actinomorphic.
(B) Mustard, Datura, chilli, and china rose are examples of hypogynous flowers
(C) Zygomorphic flowers are found in fabaceae family.
(D) Asymmetrical flowers are present in Bean.

(1) A,B and C are correct

(2) Both C and D are correct
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Both B and D incorrect

31) Assertion (A) : In cymose type of inflorescence axis growth is limited.

Reason (R) : In cymose inflorescence, main axis terminates in a flower.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
32) Which one of the following set of fruit includes false fruits only ?

(1) Apple, Mango and Cashew

(2) Cashew, Strawberry and Mustard
(3) Apple, strawberry and Cashew
(4) Strawberry, Groundnut, and Orange

33) Which of the following is not a part of epidermal tissue system ?

(1) Subsidiary cells

(2) Guard cells
(3) Companion cells
(4) Root hair cells

34) Phloem of gymnosperms contains :-

(1) Sieve cells and companion cells

(2) Sieve tube elements and companion cells
(3) Sieve cells and albuminous cells
(4) Sieve tube elements and albuminous cells

35) The transverse section of a plant shows the vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and
surrounded by a sclerenchymtous bundle sheath. This transvers section shows :–

(1) Monocot root

(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot leaf

SECTION-B

1) Read the following sentenses (A-D) :-

(A) Hypothalamus contains a number of centres which control temperature of body, food behaviour
and associated with regulation of emotional reaction.
(B) The medulla of brain is connected to spinal cord and related to regulation with cardiovascular
reflex with cerebral cortex.
(C) Pons of hind brain has large convulated surface to provide additional space for many more
neurons.
(D) A part of brain lies below the signaling centre of the brain is related to regulation of sexual
behaviour.
How many above statements are incorrect ?

(1) one
(2) four
(3) three
(4) two
2) Voluntary movements, balance of the body, thermoregulation, hunger, circadian rhythms of our
body. human behaviour.
How many of the above are controlled by the central information processing organ of our body
which acts as the 'command and control system' ?

(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

3) Assertion :- Inner part of cerebral hemisphere gives an opaque white appearance hence is called
white matter.
Reason :- The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex, which
gives greyish appearance.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

4) Read the following statements :-

A :- Cerebral aqueduct passes through Hind brain.
B :- Medulla controls respiration and gastric secretions.

(1) Statement A is correct, statement B is incorrect.

(2) Both are correct
(3) Both are incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect, statement B is correct.

5) Match the following column and select the correct option.

Column – I Column – II

(A) Multipolar Neuron (i) Retina of eye

(B) Bipolar Neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex

(C) Unipolar Neuron (iii) In embryonic stage

(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
(3) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – i

6) Read the statements given below and select the correct option.
Statement-A: Thymus gland secretes the steroid hormone called thymosin.
Statement-B: Thymosin play an important role in cell mediated and humoral immunity.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

7) Insulin is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langerhans. Which of the following is not truly concerned
with insulin ?

(1) Acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipose tissue

(2) Peptide hormone
(3) Hyperglycemic hormone
(4) Stimulate conversion of glucose to glycogen

8)

Identify the hormone in the given diagram :

(1) Estrogen
(2) Insulin
(3) FSH
(4) Glucagon

9) Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are:

(1) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and calcitonin

(2) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids
(3) insulin, glucagon, cortisol and PTH
(4) insulin, glucagon, cortisol and PTH

10) I am a hormone and play a very important role in maintaining your normal rhythms of sleep
wake cycle, body temperature etc. Identify me and my source gland :-

(1) Thyroxin, thyroid gland

(2) Melatonin, pineal gland
(3) Thymosins, thymus
(4) Adrenaline, adrenal gland

11) In a racemose inflorescence the main axis :-

(1) bear solitary flower
(2) terminates in a flower
(3) has unlimited growth
(4) has limited growth

12) Epitepalous and epipetalous conditions are respectively found in :-

(1) Pea and Tomato

(2) Lily and Tomato
(3) Tomato and Lily
(4) Gram and Groundnut

13) With respect to the stamens match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Diadelphous (i) Malvaceae

(B) Epipetalous (ii) Fabaceae

(C) Monoadelphous (iii) Liliaceae

(D) Epiphyllous (iv) Asteraceae

(1) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii)
(2) A–(iv), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iii)
(3) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(i), D–(ii)
(4) A–(i), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(ii)

14) Family Malavaceae differs from Fabaceae and Asteraceae with respect to the stamens, pick out
the characteristics specific to family Malvaceae but not found in Fabaceae and Asteraceae :

(1) Polyadelphous and Epipetalous stamen

(2) Epiphyllous and Dithecuous anther
(3) Epipetalous and Dithecuous anther
(4) Monoadelphous and Monothecous anther

15) Match Column I and Column II with Column III

(1) A–v–5, B–ii–4, C–i–3, D–iii–2, E–iv–1
(2) A–ii–4, B–v–5, C–i–3, D–iii–2, E–iv–1
(3) A–v–5, B–ii–4, C– –3, D–iv–1, E–iii–2
(4) A–i–3, B–ii–4, C–v–5, D–i–3, E–iv–1

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) In dicot roots, the initiation of the lateral roots and the vascular cambium during the secondary
growth takes place in :

(1) Pericycle
(2) Endodermis
(3) Conjuctive tissue
(4) Epidermis

2) Choose the correct statement.

(1) Internal structure also shows adaptation to diverse environment.

(2) Internal morphology of plant and animals are very similar.
(3) The meristem occurs between mature tissue is known as axillary bud.
(4) Apical meristem is secondary meristem.

3) Assertion (A) : In dicot stem vascular bundle is called as open vascular bundle.
Reason (R) : In dicot stem vascular bundle have cambium between xylem and phloem.
Choose the correct option:
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

4) Identify the given figure : (a)

(b)

(c)

(1) (a) Radial (b) Conjoint close (c) Conjoint open

(2) (a) Radial (b) Conjoint open (c) Conjoint close
(3) (a) Conjoint close (b) Conjoint open (c) Radial
(4) (a) Conjoint open (b) Radial (c) Conjoint close

5) How many in the list given below are the part of ground tissue system ?
Epidermis, Root hairs, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

6) Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II

A. Bulliform cells (i) Stomata

B. Subsidiary cells (ii) Phloem

C. Complimentary cells (iii) Monocot leaf

D. Companion cells (iv) Lenticels

Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(2) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (iv)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)

7) Statement-I : The sclerenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and phloem in root are
called conjunctive tissue.
Statement-II : Conducting tissue translocate water minerals and food materials .

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

8) Identify the plant structure on the basis of given statements

(a) Cortex is made up of several layers of thin walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces
(b) Endodermis is made up of single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces.
(c) Pith is small or inconspicuous
(d) Two to four xylem and phloem patches are present

(1) Monocot stem

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot root

9) In the given figure identify the structure which is responsible for gaseous exchange

(1) A : Stomata
(2) C : Spongy parenchyma
(3) D : Sub-stomatal cavity
(4) D : Stomata

10) Match the column I, and II with III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Well developed
A Dicot stem a Polyarch i
pith
Monocot Conjoint Less developed
B b ii
stem colleteral open pith
Conjoint
C Monocot root c iii Starch sheath
colleteral closed
 2 to 4 xylem Scattered
D Dicot root d iv
patches vascular bundle
(1) A → b → iii; B → c → iv; C → a → ii; D → d → i
(2) A → b → iii; B → c → iv; C → a → i; D → d → ii
(3) A → d → iv; B → c → iii; C → b → ii; D → a → i
(4) A → c → ii; B → b → i; C → a → iii; D → d → iv

11) The term stele is referred to

(1) Tissues present inside the pericycle

(2) Tissues present inside the endodermis
(3) Tissues present in vascular bundle
(4) Tissues present inside of hypodermis

12) Which one is correct for variable number tandem repeat (VNTR) :

(1) Is a location in a genome where nucleotide sequence is organised as tandem repeat

The number of repeat varies from chromosome to chromosome in an individual and also
(2)
between individuals
(3) Its size varies from 0.1 to 20 kbp
(4) All are correct

13) In human genome single nuclotide polymorphism (SNPs) have identified about :

(1) 1.4 billion locations

(2) 2.4 million locations
(3) 2.4 billion locations
(4) 1.4 million locations

14) DNA finger printing profile will be exactly same of :-

(a) Sibling (b) Monozygotic twins
(c) Offsprings (d) Dizygotic twins

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only
(3) b only
(4) b and d only

15)

Select the correct sequences of steps in DNA finger printing.

I. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
II. Isolation of DNA.
III. Southern Blotting.
IV. Detection of hybridisation DNA Fragments by auto-radiography.
V. Separation of DNA fragments by gel-electrophoresis.
VI. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
(1) I, V, VI, II, III and IV
(2) II, VI, V, III, I and IV
(3) V, I, VI, III, IV and II
(4) II, I, V, VI, IV and III

16) Choose the wrong statement regarding the observation drawn from Human genome project:-

(1) Repetitive sequences are streches of RNA

(2) Less than 2% of the genome codes for protein
(3) Chromosome Y has the fewest number of genes
(4) SNPs help in tracing human history

17) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-

(1) Natural genetic engineer of plant

(2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(4) Symbiotic plant

18) Restriction endonucleases are :-

(1) Not synthesized by bacteria

(2) Present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA
(3) Used for invitro Protein synthesis
(4) Used in genetic engineering

19) If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme galactosidase, which of the following
will occur in case of non-recombinants:-

(1) Insertional inactivation

(2) Colonies do not produce any colour
(3) Chromogenic substrate gives blue colour
(4) Inactivation of enzyme galactosidase

20) Which statement is true for Taq-polymerase enzyme ?

(1) It is a type of RNA polymerase which is isolated from a bacteria

(2) It is a DNA polymerase, which remain active during the high temperature
(3) DNA polymerase, which is used in DNA finger printing
(4) DNA polymerase which is used in gel electrophoresis

21) After completing the transfer of a desired DNA in vector which was having 'Lac Z' gene as
marker gene, the recombinant colonies should :-

(1) Give blue colour

(2) Not give blue colour
(3) Have active galactosidase enzyme
(4) Both (2) & (3)

22) If a pBR322 vector is cut by EcoRI enzyme then which of its marker gene shows insertional
inactivation ?

(1) tetR gene

(2) ampR gene
(3) Gal gene
(4) None of these

23) Identify the plasmid among the following :-

(1) Hind II
(2) pBR322
(3) λ phage
(4) Hae III

24) Genes for which of the following can serve as selectable marker ?

(1) β-Galactosidase
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Ampicillin
(4) All of the above

25) The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of :

(1) Ligases
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Probes
(4) Selectable markers

26) Taq polymerase which is used in PCR,

(1) shows its best efficiency at 72° C temperature.

(2) is used in annealing step of PCR
(3) was obtained from Thermus aquaticus thermosensitive bacterium.
(4) More than one options are correct.

27) Vectors used to deliver genes of our interest into organisms, must not have –
(i) Restriction sites of many restriction endonucleases
(ii) Many restriction sites of a restriction endonuclease enzyme.
(iii) Genes of pathogenicity like T–DNA
(iv) Origin of replication
(v) Selectable marker genes

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (iv) and (v)

28) Transgenic tobacco which is developed through RNA interference, prevent the infestation of :-

(1) A nematode – Meloidegyne incognitia

(2) A bacterium – Pseudomonas putida
(3) A fungi – Trichoderma
(4) An insect – Aphid

29) DNA probe is used for :-

(1) Detection of gene mutation

(2) Medical genetics to find particular gene
(3) DNA finger printing
(4) All the above

30) Gene therapy first used in the treatment of :-

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Albinism
(3) SCID
(4) Haemophilia

31) GEAC makes decisions regarding :-

(1) The validity of GM research

(2) The safety of introducing GM organisms for public services
(3) The validity of biopatents
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct

32) The transgenic animals are those which have :-

(1) Foreign RNA in some of their cells

(2) Foreign DNA in all their cells
(3) Foreign protein in all their cells
(4) Both (1) & (3)

33) First transgenic plant was tobacco and it contains resistant gene for –

(1) Insect resistant

(2) Herbicide resistant
(3) Pest resistant
(4) Frost resistant
34) Recombinent therapeutic drugs are preferred over products isolated from non-human sources,
because :-

(1) Recombinant therapeutics are cheaper

(2) Recombinant therapeutics don't induce unwanted immunological responses.
(3) Recombinant therapeutics are easy to produce
(4) Recombinant therapeutics provide permanant cure.

35) Protein encoded by a gene cryI Ab control :-

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton boll worm
(3) Beetles
(4) Mosquitoes

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) Fruit consists of pericarp and seeds

(2) Pericarp may be dry or fleshy
(3) Pericarp (thick and fleshy) is differentiated into epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp.
(4) Fruits formed without fertilization of the ovary is called a parthenogenesis.

2) In leaves the ground tissue consist of :-

(1) Epidermis
(2) Vascular tissue
(3) Mesophyll cells
(4) Medullary rays

3) Read the different components from (1) to (4) in the list given below and identify the correct order
of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody
dicot stem.
(1) Secondary cortex (2) Wood
(3) Secondary phloem (4) Phellem
The correct order is :

(1) (4),(3),(1),(2)
(2) (3),(4),(2),(1)
(3) (1),(2),(4),(3)
(4) (4),(1),(3),(2)

4) Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(1) Root pericycle : Parenchyma

(2) Stem Endodermis : Parenchyma
(3) Dicot stem hypodermis : Collenchyma
(4) Monocot root endodermis : Cork

5) The size of VNTR is

(1) 0.1 Kb to 20 Kb
(2) 20 Kb to 100 Kb
(3) 100 Kb to 300 Kb
(4) 500 Kb to 1000 Kb

6) During DNA fingerprinting which of the following is next step after blotting.

(1) Hybridisation
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) PCR
(4) Restriction digestion

7) In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector refers to :-

(1) The enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments

(2) The sticky end of a DNA fragment
(3) A plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell
(4) A DNA probe used to identify a particular gene

8) Which of the following method can be termed as vector less approach to introduce foreign DNA
into host cells :-
(A) Micro injection
(B) Biolistics (C) Bacterial Artificial chromosome

(1) A Only
(2) A & C both
(3) C Only
(4) A & B both

9) Ideal properties of vector is :-

(1) Ori
(2) Selectable marker
(3) Cloning sites
(4) All of these

10) Recombinant DNA is forced to enter the host cells by incubating the cells with rDNA first :-

(1) On ice followed by heat shock and then again on ice

(2) At low temperature followed by heat shock and then on ice
(3) In ethidium bromide followed by calcium salts
(4) Into chilled ethanol followed by ice and then into CsCl

11) Identify and match the labelled items A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the diagram below form the list I-
VII given with :- Components:- I. DNA polymerase
II. plasmid
III. plasmid with 'sticky ends'
IV. DNA ligase
V. Restriction endonuclease
VI. Recombinant DNA
VII. Reverse transcriptase The correct components are

A B C D E F G

(1) VII I II V III IV VI

(2) VII VI VI IV III II I

(3) VII V III I II IV VI

(4) I II IV VI III V VII

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match the Column-I with Column-II :-

Column - I Column - II

(i) Primers (A) PCR

Chilled
(ii) Separation & purification of products (B)
C2H5OH

(iii) Precipitation of DNA (C) Gene gun

(iv) Biolistics (D) Downstream processing

(1) (i) - A, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - C
(2) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C
(3) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - C, (iv) - B
(4) (i) - A, (ii) - B, (iii) - D, (iv) - C

13) DNA fragments cut by restriction enzyme can be separated by :-

(1) PCR
(2) ELISA
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Downstream processing

14) The techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis of disease or pathogen :-

(1) Recombinant DNA technology

(2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(3) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA)
(4) All the above

15) Strategy used to prevent nematode infection of tobacco roots is :-

(1) Use of argochemicals

(2) Bt toxin gene
(3) Gene mutation
(4) RNA interference
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 2 2 3 4 2 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 2 1 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 4 4 2 4 2 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 1 3 4 4 1 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 1 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 4 2 2 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 4 2 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 4 2 2 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 4 4 1 1 3 4 4 1 1 1 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Here, υ0 = 420 rpm = 7 rps

2)

Moment of inertia depends on :

(a) mass of the body
(b) mass distribution of the body
(c) position of axis of rotation

3)

I = MK2 ⇒ I = 10(0.4)2 = 1.6 kg-m2

4)

Torque ,

5)

Explanation : Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Torque =
if d = 0, that is line of action of force passes through O then torque will be zero. In this situation, the
body will not rotate how so ever large the force may be.

6)
τ = Iα
τ ∝ I i.e, moment of inertia

7) m1r1 = m2r2
16 × 6 = m × 8
m = 12 kg

8)

9)

10)

Separation of mass from axis get decreases so MOI decreases

11)

=
= 35 - 25 + 125 = 135 J

12)

L1 = L
Percentage increase in kinetic energy

= =

=
= 800%

13)

Vat t = 2sec =

14)
WD is independent of path for conservative forces.

15)

16)

17)

For conservative force in a closed loop W = 0

WDPQ + WDQR + WDRP = 0
5 + 2 + WDRP = 0
∴ WDPR = 7J

18)

v = 80 m/s

19)

If the motor pumps water (density ρ) continuously through a pipe of area of cross-section A with
velocity v, then mass flowing out per second.
m = Avρ ...(i)
Rate of increase of kinetic energy

= ...(ii)
Mass m, flowing out per, sec, can be increased to m' by increasing v be v', then power increases
from P to P'.

OR

Now,
As, m' = nm; v' = nv

∴
or P' = n3P.

20) yCM = = = 10 cm

21)
 Mx + m(x – xr) = 0

∴
∴ (x – xr) = 0.8 – 4 = –3.2 m

22) mu1 + mu2 = 2mv

25)

Numerically, q1 > q2

27) Q ∝ R
Total charge = 4Q

So,

29) Q = N × e
= 1019 × 1.6 × 10–19
Q = +1.6 C

32)

V= =
V' = 2V ⇒ A' = 2A = 120
⇒ Z = 50

33)

ΔE = 8.2 × 110 + 90 × 8.2 – 200 × 7.4

 34)

Energy is released in a process when total Binding energy (B.E.) of the nucleus is increased or we
can say when total B.E. of products is more than the reactants. By calculation we can see that only in
case of option (c), this happens.
Given W → 2Y
B.E. of reactants = 120 × 7.5 = 900 MeVand
B.E. of products = 2 × (60 × 8.5) = 1020 MeV
i.e. B.E. of products > B.E. of reactants.

36) I =

37)

38)

Iremaining = Icomplete – Iremoved

=
= 4 MR2

39)

τ = Iα
 40) To keep the disc horizontal
Net torque = 0 (about point A)
Mg(R) – T(2R) = 0
MgR – mg (2R) = 0 (T = mg)

41)

Block will not topple if

42)

v – ωr = 2
v = ωr + 2

v=
v = 3 m/s

43)

Mg – T =

W = Fs Cos θ
 44)

mgh = kx2

40 × 10–3 × 10 × 5 = × 400 x2

46) Use tanθ =

47)

⇒ x = 30 cm

49)

∴ Number of atoms per sec

Number of atoms per hour
= 1.102 × 1019 × 3600 = 3.97 × 1022

CHEMISTRY

56) A = H3PO4
hence B is H2P2O6 i.e. HPO3 and C is P2O5.

57)

59) It is a f-block elements

 66) I.E. Ne < Ne+ as successive I.E. always ↑

67) – – – C
Na Mg Al Si
–
x
x + (0.65 × 3) – 0.90 = 1.05

69) O3 is a dry and permanent bleaching agent.

70)

PCl3 + 3H2O ——→ H3PO3 + 3HCl

72)

Its aqueous solution is basic it is a salt of (SB + WA)

74)

X2Y → 2X+ + Y–2

= 2 × 45 + 1 × 110 = 200 S cm2 mol–1

75)

CX → C+ + X–
(CX) = (CA) + (BX) – (BA)
= 120 + 198 – 140 = 178 S cm2 mol–1

76)

For saturated solution :

s=
s = 10–5 M
For AB type : ksp = s2 = (10–5)2
ksp = 1 × 10–10

78)

Ka = 5 × 10–3

79)
 81)

NCERT-XI, Pg.#335

83)

84)

CnH2n+2–2–2 ⇒ CnH2n–2

86) NCERT XII Pg. # 176 (Part-I) (2017)

89) Anion IP determined by EA of its atom.

99)

=C → sp2 ≡ C → sp

100)

Radical
[t Butyl]

BIOLOGY-I

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